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    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>8</NO>
    <DATE>Tuesday, January 14, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Contents</UNITNAME>
    <CNTNTS>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                Agency Health
                <PRTPAGE P="iii"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Supplemental Evidence and Data Request:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Performance of Fusion Procedures for Degenerative Disease of the Lumbar Spine, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3214-3218</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00548</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Primary Hypofractionated Radiation Therapy for Localized Prostate Cancer—A Systematic Review, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3218-3220</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00547</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>AIRFORCE</EAR>
            <HD>Air Force Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Community College of the Air Force Subcommittee of the Air University Board of Visitors, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3186</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00641</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Consumer Financial Protection</EAR>
            <HD>Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Prohibition on Creditors and Consumer Reporting Agencies Concerning Medical Information (Regulation V), </DOC>
                    <PGS>3276-3374</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-30824</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Fees for Instantaneously Declined Transactions; Withdrawal, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3044-3046</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-31385</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Prohibited Terms and Conditions in Agreements for Consumer Financial Products or Services (Regulation AA), </DOC>
                    <PGS>3566-3596</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00633</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Centers Medicare</EAR>
            <HD>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3220-3223</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00589</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00593</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Medicare Program:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Request for Nominations; Medicare Evidence Development and Coverage Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3223-3224</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00391</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Children</EAR>
            <HD>Children and Families Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Strengthening Temporary Assistance for Needy Families as a Safety Net and Work Program; Withdrawal, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3131</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00537</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Tribal Maternal, Infant, and Early Childhood Home Visiting Program Community Needs and Readiness Assessment Guidance and Implementation Plan Guidance, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3224-3225</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00556</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Civil Rights</EAR>
            <HD>Civil Rights Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Utah Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3171-3172</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00529</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00530</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Wyoming Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3172</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00538</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3171</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00751</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Coast Guard</EAR>
            <HD>Coast Guard</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Boating Safety Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3230-3231</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00591</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Commerce</EAR>
            <HD>Commerce Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>International Trade Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Patent and Trademark Office</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Copyright Royalty Board</EAR>
            <HD>Copyright Royalty Board</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Intent to Audit, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3252</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00623</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Corporation</EAR>
            <HD>Corporation for National and Community Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Civil Monetary Penalty Inflation Adjustment, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3038-3039</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00635</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Defense Acquisition</EAR>
            <HD>Defense Acquisition Regulations System</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement; Service Contracting, and Related Clauses and Forms, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3186-3187</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00400</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Defense Department</EAR>
            <HD>Defense Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Air Force Department</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Defense Acquisition Regulations System</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Engineers Corps</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Board of Regents, Uniformed Services University of the Health Sciences, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3187</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00639</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Education Department</EAR>
            <HD>Education Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Borrower Defense to Loan Repayment Universal Forms, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3194</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00359</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>District Survey on Use of Funds under Title II, Part A, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3194-3195</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00527</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Evaluation of the Pathways to Partnerships Program, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3188</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00569</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Applications for New Awards:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Independent Living Services for Older Individuals Who Are Blind; Independent Living Services for Older Individuals Who Are Blind Training and Technical Assistance, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3188-3194</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00533</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Energy Department</EAR>
            <HD>Energy Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Environmental Impact Statements; Availability, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Activities in Support of Commercial Production of High-Assay Low-Enriched Uranium; Record of Decision, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3195-3199</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00610</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Environmental Management Site-Specific Advisory Board, Hanford, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3199-3200</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00528</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Engineers</EAR>
            <HD>Engineers Corps</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Procedures to Implement the Principles, Requirements, and Guidelines for Federal Investments in Water Resources; Correction, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3035-3036</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00617</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                Environmental Protection
                <PRTPAGE P="iv"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>Environmental Protection Agency</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Regulation Under the Toxic Substances Control Act:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Colour Index Pigment Violet 29, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3107-3131</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-30931</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Exemption:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Clothianidin, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3207-3208</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00540</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Pesticide Registration Review:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Interim Decision for Ethylene Oxide, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3208</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00541</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Stakeholder Engagement in the ENERGY STAR Products Program Plans, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3209</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-31032</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Farm Credit System Insurance</EAR>
            <HD>Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Civil Monetary Penalty Inflation Adjustment, </DOC>
                    <PGS>2922</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00574</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Aviation</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Aviation Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Airworthiness Directives:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Embraer S.A. (Type Certificate Previously Held by Yabora Industria Aeronautica S.A.; Embraer S.A.) Airplanes, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>2923-2930</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00387</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00423</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Airworthiness Directives:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Siam Hiller Holdings, Inc., Helicopters, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3046-3048</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00588</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Petition for Exemption; Summary:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Wheels Up, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3273-3274</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00561</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00562</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Communications</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Communications Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3209-3212</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00644</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00646</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00647</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Deposit</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Civil Monetary Penalty Inflation Adjustment, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3212-3213</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00643</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Energy</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Civil Monetary Penalty Inflation Adjustment, </DOC>
                    <PGS>2930-2932</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00516</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Application:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Duke Energy Carolinas, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3203</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00517</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Spencer Mountain Hydropower, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3205-3206</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00518</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Combined Filings, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3202-3204</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00578</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00579</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Environmental Assessments; Availability, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Pacific Gas and Electric Co., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3204</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00519</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Licenses; Exemptions, Applications, Amendments, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Stone Ridge Hydro, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3206-3207</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00576</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3204-3205</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00834</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Privacy Act; Systems of Records, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3202-3203</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00575</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Scoping Period:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Southern Star Central Gas Pipeline, Inc., Proposed Cedar Vale Compressor Station Project, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3200-3202</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00577</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Highway</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Highway Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Buy America Requirements for Manufactured Products, </DOC>
                    <PGS>2932-2958</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-31350</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Maritime</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Maritime Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Civil Monetary Penalty Inflation Adjustment, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3039-3041</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00630</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Federal Reserve</EAR>
            <HD>Federal Reserve System</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3213-3214</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00599</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Fish</EAR>
            <HD>Fish and Wildlife Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Endangered and Threatened Species:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Designation of Critical Habitat for Four Distinct Population Segments of the Foothill Yellow-Legged Frog, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3412-3470</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-31757</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Threatened Status for the Florida Manatee and Endangered Status for the Antillean Manatee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3131-3160</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00467</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Draft Comprehensive Conservation Plan:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Charles M. Russell Wetland Management District, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3240-3241</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-31631</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Environmental Assessments; Availability, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Oil and Gas and Renewable (Wind and Solar) Energy, Power Line, and Communication Tower Habitat Conservation Plans for the Lesser Prairie-Chicken; Colorado, Kansas, New Mexico, Oklahoma and Texas, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3241-3243</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00566</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Permits; Applications, Issuances, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Sand Skink and Blue-Tailed Mole Skink; Polk County, FL, Proposed Habitat Conservation Plan, Categorical Exclusion, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3243-3244</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00568</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Food and Drug</EAR>
            <HD>Food and Drug Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Generic Drug User Fee Program, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3225-3227</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00564</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Foreign Trade</EAR>
            <HD>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Approval of Subzone Status:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>True Manufacturing Co., Inc., O'Fallon and Mexico, MO, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3173</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00546</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Proposed Production Activity:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Merck, Sharp and Dohme, LLC, Foreign-Trade Zone 49, Rahway, NJ, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3173</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00543</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Health and Human</EAR>
            <HD>Health and Human Services Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Children and Families Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Food and Drug Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Institutes of Health</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Physician-Focused Payment Model Technical Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3227</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00612</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Homeland</EAR>
            <HD>Homeland Security Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Coast Guard</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Transportation Security Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>U.S. Customs and Border Protection</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Classification for Victims of Severe Forms of Trafficking in Persons; Eligibility for T Nonimmigrant Status; Correction, </DOC>
                    <PGS>2921-2922</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00553</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Indian Affairs</EAR>
            <HD>Indian Affairs Bureau</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Tribal Trust Evaluations, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3244-3245</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00631</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Interior</EAR>
            <HD>Interior Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Fish and Wildlife Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <PRTPAGE P="v"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Indian Affairs Bureau</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Land Management Bureau</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>National Park Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Requests for Nominations:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Exxon Valdez Oil Spill Public Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3245</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00557</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Internal Revenue</EAR>
            <HD>Internal Revenue Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Certain Disregarded Payments and Dual Consolidated Losses, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3003-3021</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00318</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Certain Partnership Related-Party Basis Adjustment Transactions as Transactions of Interest, </DOC>
                    <PGS>2958-2977</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00324</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Classification of Digital Content Transactions and Cloud Transactions, </DOC>
                    <PGS>2977-3003</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-31372</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Guidance:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Tax on Certain Gifts and Bequests from Covered Expatriates, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3376-3410</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00284</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Micro-Captive Listed Transactions and Micro-Captive Transactions of Interest, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3534-3563</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00393</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Automatic Enrollment Requirements under Section 414A, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3092-3107</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00501</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Base Erosion and Anti-Abuse Tax Rules for Qualified Derivative Payments on Securities Lending Transactions, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3085-3092</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00186</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Credit for Qualified Commercial Clean Vehicles, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3506-3532</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00256</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Source of Income from Cloud Transactions, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3075-3085</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-31373</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>International Trade Adm</EAR>
            <HD>International Trade Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Antidumping or Countervailing Duty Investigations, Orders, or Reviews:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Monosodium Glutamate from the People's Republic of China, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3183-3185</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00560</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Sol Gel Alumina-Based Ceramic Abrasive Grains from the People's Republic of China, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3175-3179</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00545</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Standard Steel Welded Wire Mesh from Mexico, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3173-3175</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00581</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Sales at Less Than Fair Value; Determinations, Investigations, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Sol Gel Alumina-Based Ceramic Abrasive Grains from the People's Republic of China, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3179-3183</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00544</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>International Trade Com</EAR>
            <HD>International Trade Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Antidumping or Countervailing Duty Investigations, Orders, or Reviews:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Glass Wine Bottles from China and Mexico, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3251-3252</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00586</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Labor Department</EAR>
            <HD>Labor Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Land</EAR>
            <HD>Land Management Bureau</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Environmental Impact Statements; Availability, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Ranegras Plains Energy Center, La Paz County, AZ, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3247-3248</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00590</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Advisory Committee for Implementation of the Bureau of Land Management Public Lands Rule, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3247</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00600</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Proposed Withdrawal and Opportunity for Public Meeting; Nevada, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3245-3246</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00606</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Library</EAR>
            <HD>Library of Congress</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Copyright Royalty Board</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Archives</EAR>
            <HD>National Archives and Records Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Records Schedules, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3252-3254</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00567</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Credit</EAR>
            <HD>National Credit Union Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3254</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00706</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Institute</EAR>
            <HD>National Institutes of Health</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health and Human Development, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3227-3229</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00597</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00602</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00604</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00605</FRDOCBP>
                      
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00607</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3229</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00601</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>National Institute of Arthritis and Musculoskeletal and Skin Diseases, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3229-3230</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00572</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Oceanic</EAR>
            <HD>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Fisheries of the Caribbean, Gulf of Mexico, and South Atlantic:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Snapper-Grouper Fishery of the South Atlantic; Amendment 59, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3160-3170</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00552</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Whaling Provisions:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Aboriginal Subsistence Whaling Quotas, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3185-3186</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00554</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>National Park</EAR>
            <HD>National Park Service</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Alaska Region Subsistence Resource Commission Program, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3248-3250</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00613</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Gateway National Recreation Area Fort Hancock 21st Century Advisory Committee, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3250-3251</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00614</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Nuclear Regulatory</EAR>
            <HD>Nuclear Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Exemption:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Tennessee Valley Authority; Sequoyah Nuclear Plant, Unit 2, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3261-3264</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00598</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJ>Licenses; Exemptions, Applications, Amendments etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Applications and Amendments Involving Proposed No Significant Hazards Considerations, etc., </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3254-3258</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2024-31787</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Meetings; Sunshine Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3258</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00823</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <SJ>Order:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>David Huey, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3258-3261</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00558</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Occupational Safety Health Adm</EAR>
            <HD>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Procedures for the Handling of Retaliation Complaints under the Anti-Money Laundering Act, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3021-3035</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00539</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Patent</EAR>
            <HD>Patent and Trademark Office</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Setting and Adjusting Patent Fees During Fiscal Year 2025; Correction, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3036-3037</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00273</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Setting and Adjusting Trademark Fees During Fiscal Year 2025; Correction, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3037-3038</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00274</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Postal Regulatory</EAR>
            <HD>Postal Regulatory Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>New Postal Products, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3264-3266</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00522</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Presidential Documents</EAR>
            <HD>Presidential Documents</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>ADMINISTRATIVE ORDERS</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>United States Code, Title 10; Delegation of Certain Authorities Under Section 7271 (Memorandum of January 8, 2025), </DOC>
                    <PGS>3597-3599</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00953</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>
                Securities
                <PRTPAGE P="vi"/>
            </EAR>
            <HD>Securities and Exchange Commission</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Proposed Rule Changes:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Nasdaq PHLX, LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3266-3270</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00531</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>New York Stock Exchange LLC, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3270-3271</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00532</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>State Department</EAR>
            <HD>State Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Hearings, Meetings, Proceedings, etc.:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>International Maritime Organization Human Element, Training and Watchkeeping 11 Session, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3271</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00594</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Surface Transportation</EAR>
            <HD>Surface Transportation Board</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Civil Monetary Penalty Inflation Adjustment, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3041-3043</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00570</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Exemption:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Abandonment; Mohawk, Adirondack and Northern Railroad Corp., Lewis and Jefferson Counties, NY, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3272</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00627</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Abandonment; The Lowville and Beaver River Railroad Co., Lewis County, NY, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3272-3273</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00628</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Transportation Department</EAR>
            <HD>Transportation Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Aviation Administration</P>
            </SEE>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Federal Highway Administration</P>
            </SEE>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Security</EAR>
            <HD>Transportation Security Administration</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>RULES</HD>
                <SJ>Minimum Standards for Driver's Licenses and Identification Cards Acceptable by Federal Agencies for Official Purposes:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Phased Approach for Card-Based Enforcement, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3472-3503</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00484</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Treasury</EAR>
            <HD>Treasury Department</HD>
            <SEE>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">See</HD>
                <P>Internal Revenue Service</P>
            </SEE>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Entry of Low-Value Shipments, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3048-3075</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00551</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>U.S. Citizenship</EAR>
            <HD>U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Requirement of the Permanent Labor Certification Final Determination for Form I-140 Petitions, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3238-3240</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00582</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Customs</EAR>
            <HD>U.S. Customs and Border Protection</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>PROPOSED RULES</HD>
                <DOCENT>
                    <DOC>Entry of Low-Value Shipments, </DOC>
                    <PGS>3048-3075</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00551</FRDOCBP>
                </DOCENT>
            </CAT>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Advance Information from Certain Individuals on the Land Border, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3234-3236</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00524</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Arrival and Departure Record and Electronic System for Travel Authorization, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3236-3238</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00609</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Entry/Immediate Delivery Application and Automated Commercial Environment Cargo Release, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3231-3232</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00608</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Foreign Trade Zones Annual Reconciliation and Recordkeeping Requirement, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3232-3233</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00521</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Global Interoperability Standards, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3233-3234</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00523</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <AGCY>
            <EAR>Veteran Affairs</EAR>
            <HD>Veterans Affairs Department</HD>
            <CAT>
                <HD>NOTICES</HD>
                <SJ>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposals, Submissions, and Approvals:</SJ>
                <SJDENT>
                    <SJDOC>Claim for Disability Insurance Benefits, Government Life Insurance; Withdrawal, </SJDOC>
                    <PGS>3274</PGS>
                    <FRDOCBP>2025-00580</FRDOCBP>
                </SJDENT>
            </CAT>
        </AGCY>
        <PTS>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Separate Parts In This Issue</HD>
            <HD>Part II</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, </DOC>
                <PGS>3276-3374</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2024-30824</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part III</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Treasury Department, Internal Revenue Service, </DOC>
                <PGS>3376-3410</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2025-00284</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part IV</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Interior Department, Fish and Wildlife Service, </DOC>
                <PGS>3412-3470</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2024-31757</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part V</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Homeland Security Department, Transportation Security Administration, </DOC>
                <PGS>3472-3503</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2025-00484</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part VI</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Treasury Department, Internal Revenue Service, </DOC>
                <PGS>3506-3532</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2025-00256</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part VII</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Treasury Department, Internal Revenue Service, </DOC>
                <PGS>3534-3563</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2025-00393</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part VIII</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, </DOC>
                <PGS>3566-3596</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2025-00633</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
            <HD>Part IX</HD>
            <DOCENT>
                <DOC>Presidential Documents, </DOC>
                <PGS>3597-3599</PGS>
                <FRDOCBP>2025-00953</FRDOCBP>
            </DOCENT>
        </PTS>
        <AIDS>
            <HD SOURCE="HED">Reader Aids</HD>
            <P>Consult the Reader Aids section at the end of this issue for phone numbers, online resources, finding aids, and notice of recently enacted public laws.</P>
            <P>To subscribe to the Federal Register Table of Contents electronic mailing list, go to https://public.govdelivery.com/accounts/USGPOOFR/subscriber/new, enter your e-mail address, then follow the instructions to join, leave, or manage your subscription.</P>
        </AIDS>
    </CNTNTS>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>8</NO>
    <DATE>Tuesday, January 14, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <RULES>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="2921"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>8 CFR Part 214</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[CIS No. 2786-24; DHS Docket No. USCIS 2011-0010]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1615-AA59</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Classification for Victims of Severe Forms of Trafficking in Persons; Eligibility for “T” Nonimmigrant Status; Correction</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS), Department of Homeland Security (DHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Correcting amendment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This document corrects the August 23, 2024 correction to the final rule that published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on April 30, 2024. The final rule amended DHS regulations governing the requirements and procedures for victims of a severe form of trafficking in persons seeking T nonimmigrant status. This document will replace language unintentionally removed as a result of the prior correction.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Effective January 14, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Rená Cutlip-Mason, Office of Policy and Strategy, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security, 5900 Capital Gateway Dr., Camp Springs, MD 20746; telephone 240-721-3000 (this is not a toll-free number).</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Need for Correction</HD>
                <P>
                    On August 23, 2024, DHS published a correction to the final rule titled 
                    <E T="03">Classification for Victims of Severe Forms of Trafficking in persons; Eligibility for “T” Nonimmigrant Status.</E>
                     89 FR 68081. The correction included amendatory instruction 5 in the first column of page 68083. A typographical error in that instruction caused the Office of the Federal Register to replace the whole of paragraph (a) with the text on page 68083. DHS did not intend to do that. Rather, DHS intended to correct only the introductory text of paragraph (a). This document fixes that typographical error.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This correction is applicable as if DHS had included this change in the final rule that published on April 30, 2024. That rule had an effective date of August 28, 2024. Accordingly, the correction is applicable as of August 28, 2024, at 12 a.m. Eastern Time. This correction does not change how DHS will apply the final rule, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     DHS will apply the corrected final rule to applications pending on, or filed on or after, August 28, 2024, except the bona fide determination provisions which DHS will generally only apply to applications filed on or after August 28, 2024.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Administrative Procedure Act</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 553(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) generally requires agencies to publish a notice of proposed rulemaking in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     to provide a period for public comment before the provisions of a rule take effect. 5 U.S.C. 553(b). In addition, section 553(d) of the APA requires agencies to delay the effective date of final rules by a minimum of 30 days after the date of their publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . 5 U.S.C. 553(d). Both of these requirements can be waived if an agency finds, for good cause, that the notice and comment process and/or delayed effective date is impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest, and incorporates a statement of the finding and the reasons therefore in the notice. 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), (d)(3).
                </P>
                <P>DHS believes there is good cause for publishing this document without prior notice and opportunity for public comment and with an effective date of less than 30 days because DHS finds that such procedures are unnecessary. This document corrects a typographical error in the regulatory text and does not make any substantive changes. This document merely conforms an erroneous portion of the final rule to the agency's clearly expressed contemporaneous intent.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 8 CFR Part 214</HD>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Aliens, Cultural exchange program, Employment, Foreign officials, Health professions, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Students.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>Accordingly, 8 CFR part 214 is corrected by making the following correcting amendments:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 214—NONIMMIGRANT CLASSES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="8" PART="214">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 214 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>6 U.S.C. 202, 236; 8 U.S.C. 1101, 1102, 1103, 1182, 1184, 1186a, 1187, 1221, 1281, 1282, 1301-1305, 1357, and 1372; sec. 643, Pub. L. 104-208, 110 Stat. 3009-708; Pub. L. 106-386, 114 Stat. 1477-1480; section 141 of the Compacts of Free Association with the Federated States of Micronesia and the Republic of the Marshall Islands, and with the Government of Palau, 48 U.S.C. 1901 note and 1931 note, respectively; 48 U.S.C. 1806; 8 CFR part 2; Pub. L. 115-218, 132 Stat. 1547 (48 U.S.C. 1806).</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="8" PART="214">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 214.205 by adding paragraph (a)(1) through (3) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 214.205</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Bona fide determination.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) * * *</P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Request for evidence.</E>
                             If an Application for T Nonimmigrant Status was pending as of August 28, 2024, and additional evidence is required to establish eligibility for principal T nonimmigrant status, USCIS will issue a request for evidence, and conduct a bona fide review based on available evidence.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Initial review criteria.</E>
                             After initial review, USCIS will deem an Application for T Nonimmigrant Status bona fide if:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The applicant has submitted a properly filed and complete Application for T Nonimmigrant Status;</P>
                        <P>(ii) The applicant has submitted a signed personal statement; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) The results of initial background checks are complete, have been reviewed, and do not present national security concerns.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Secondary review criteria.</E>
                             If initial review does not establish an Application for T Nonimmigrant Status is bona fide, USCIS will conduct a full T nonimmigrant status eligibility review. An Application for T Nonimmigrant Status that meets all eligibility requirements will be approved, or if the statutory cap has 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2922"/>
                            been reached, will receive a bona fide determination.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Christina E. McDonald,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate General Counsel for Regulatory Affairs, Department of Homeland Security.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00553 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FARM CREDIT SYSTEM INSURANCE CORPORATION</AGENCY>
                <CFR>12 CFR Part 1411</CFR>
                <RIN>RIN 3055-AA24</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Rules of Practice and Procedure; Adjusting Civil Money Penalties for Inflation</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This rule implements inflation adjustments to civil money penalties (CMPs) that the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation (FCSIC) may impose under the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended. These adjustments are required by 2015 amendments to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Effective date:</E>
                         This regulation is effective on January 14, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Applicability date:</E>
                         The adjusted amounts of civil money penalties in this rule are applicable to penalties assessed on or after January 15, 2025, for conduct occurring on or after November 2, 2015.
                    </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Lynn M. Powalski, General Counsel, Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, Virginia 22102, (703) 883-4380, TTY (703) 883-4390.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (the 2015 Act) amended the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990 (the Inflation Adjustment Act) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     to improve the effectiveness of civil monetary penalties and to maintain their deterrent effect. The Inflation Adjustment Act provides for the regular evaluation of CMPs and requires FCSIC, and every other Federal agency with authority to impose CMPs, to ensure that CMPs continue to maintain their deterrent values.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Public Law 101-410, 104 Stat. 890 (Oct. 5, 1990), as amended by Public Law 104-134, title III, sec. 31001(s)(1), 110 Stat. 1321-373 (Apr. 26, 1996); Public Law 105-362, title XIII, sec. 1301(a), 112 Stat. 3293 (Nov. 10, 1998); Public Law 114-74, title VII, sec. 701(b), 129 Stat. 599 (Nov. 2, 2015), codified at 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         Under the amended Inflation Adjustment Act, a CMP is defined as any penalty, fine, or other sanction that: (1) Either is for a specific monetary amount as provided by Federal law or has a maximum amount provided for by Federal law; (2) is assessed or enforced by an agency pursuant to Federal law; and (3) is assessed or enforced pursuant to an administrative proceeding or a civil action in the Federal courts. All three requirements must be met for a fine to be considered a CMP.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>FCSIC must enact regulations that annually adjust its CMPs pursuant to the inflation adjustment formula of the amended Inflation Adjustment Act and rounded using a method prescribed by the Inflation Adjustment Act. The new amounts are applicable to penalties assessed on or after January 15, 2025, for conduct occurring on or after November 2, 2015. Agencies do not have discretion in choosing whether to adjust a CMP, by how much to adjust a CMP, or the methods used to determine the adjustment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. CMPs Imposed Pursuant to Section 5.65 of the Farm Credit Act</HD>
                <P>
                    First, section 5.65(c) of the Farm Credit Act, as amended (Act), provides that any insured Farm Credit System bank that willfully fails or refuses to file any certified statement or pay any required premium shall be subject to a penalty of not more than $100 for each day that such violations continue, which penalty FCSIC may recover for its use.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Second, section 5.65(d) of the Act provides that, except with the prior written consent of the Farm Credit Administration, it shall be unlawful for any person convicted of any criminal offense involving dishonesty or a breach of trust to serve as a director, officer, or employee of any System institution.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For each willful violation of section 5.65(d), the institution involved shall be subject to a penalty of not more than $100 for each day during which the violation continues, which FCSIC may recover for its use.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         12 U.S.C. 2277a-14(c).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         12 U.S.C. 2277a-14(d).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>FCSIC's current § 1411.1 provides that FCSIC can impose a maximum penalty of $257 per day for a violation under section 5.65(c) and (d) of the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Required Adjustments</HD>
                <P>
                    The 2015 Act requires agencies to make annual adjustments for inflation. Annual inflation adjustments are based on the percent change between the October Consumer Price Index for all Urban Consumers (CPI-U) preceding the date of the adjustment, and the prior year's October CPI-U. Consumer Price Index (CPI-U) for the month of October 2024, not seasonally adjusted, the cost-of-living adjustment multiplier for 2025 is 1.02598.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Multiplying 1.02598 times the current penalty amount of $257, after rounding to the nearest dollar as required by the 2015 Act, results in a new penalty amount of $264.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Office of Mgmt. &amp; Budget, Exec. Office of the President, OMB Memorandum No. M-25-02, 
                        <E T="03">Implementation of Penalty Inflation Adjustments for 2025, Pursuant to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015</E>
                         (December 17, 2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Notice and Comment Not Required by Administrative Procedure Act</HD>
                <P>In accordance with the 2015 Act, Federal agencies shall adjust civil monetary penalties “notwithstanding” section 553 of the Administrative Procedures Act. This means that public procedure generally required for agency rulemaking—notice, an opportunity for comment, and a delay in effective date—is not required for agencies to issue regulations implementing the annual adjustment.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 12 CFR Part 1411</HD>
                    <P>Banks, Banking, Civil money penalties, Penalties.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons stated in the preamble, part 1411 of chapter XIV, title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1411—RULES OF PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="12" PART="1411">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 1411 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 12 U.S.C. 2277a-7(10), 2277a-14(c) and (d); 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="12" PART="1411">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Revise § 1411.1 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1411.1</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Inflation adjustment of civil money penalties for failure to file a certified statement, pay any premium required or obtain approval before employment of persons convicted of criminal offenses.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>In accordance with the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended, a civil money penalty imposed pursuant to section 5.65(c) or (d) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended, shall not exceed $264 per day for each day the violation continues.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 8, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Ashley Waldron,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Board, Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00574 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6705-01-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="2923"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2024-2551; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00346-T; Amendment 39-22906; AD 2024-25-04]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Embraer S.A. (Type Certificate Previously Held by Yaborã Indústria Aeronáutica S.A.; Embraer S.A.) Airplanes</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA is superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2023-23-10, which applied to all Embraer S.A. Model ERJ 190-300 airplanes. AD 2023-23-10 required repetitive inspections of the press-fitted bushings of the wing ailerons for migration and broken sealant, measurements of the distance between the aileron surfaces and hinge fittings, functional checks of the backlash of the wing aileron control system, and all applicable related investigative and corrective actions. Since the FAA issued AD 2023-23-10, it was determined that certain requirements needed to be clarified. This AD continues to require all actions of ANAC AD 2023-06-01 with revised compliance requirements, as specified in an Agência Nacional de Aviação Civil (ANAC) AD, which is incorporated by reference. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This AD is effective January 29, 2025.</P>
                    <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of January 29, 2025.</P>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this AD by February 28, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                        . Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         202-493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2024-2551; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this final rule, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI), any comments received, and other information. The street address for Docket Operations is listed above.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For ANAC material identified in this AD, contact ANAC, Aeronautical Products Certification Branch (GGCP), Rua Dr. Orlando Feirabend Filho, 230—Centro Empresarial Aquarius—Torre B—Andares 14 a 18, Parque Residencial Aquarius, CEP 12.246-190—São José dos Campos—SP, Brazil; telephone 55 (12) 3203-6600; email 
                        <E T="03">pac@anac.gov.br;</E>
                         website 
                        <E T="03">anac.gov.br/en/.</E>
                         You may find this material on the ANAC website at 
                        <E T="03">sistemas.anac.gov.br/certificacao/DA/DAE.asp.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2024-2551.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Krista Greer, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3221; email: 
                        <E T="03">krista.greer@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA invites you to send any written data, views, or arguments about this final rule. Send your comments to an address listed under the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section. Include “Docket No. FAA-2024-2551; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00346-T” at the beginning of your comments. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the final rule, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. The FAA will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend this final rule because of those comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                    , including any personal information you provide. The agency will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact received about this final rule.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Confidential Business Information</HD>
                <P>
                    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this AD contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this AD, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this AD. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Krista Greer, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3221; email: 
                    <E T="03">krista.greer@faa.gov.</E>
                     Any commentary that the FAA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>The FAA issued AD 2023-23-10, Amendment 39-22612 (88 FR 83817, December 1, 2023) (AD 2023-23-10), for all Embraer S.A. Model ERJ 190-300 airplanes. AD 2023-23-10 was prompted by an MCAI originated by ANAC, which is the aviation authority for Brazil. ANAC issued AD 2023-06-01, effective June 16, 2023 (ANAC AD 2023-06-01), to correct an unsafe condition.</P>
                <P>AD 2023-23-10 required repetitive inspections of the press-fitted bushings of the wing ailerons for migration and broken sealant, measurements of the distance between the aileron surfaces and hinge fittings, functional checks of the backlash of the wing aileron control system, and all applicable related investigative and corrective actions, which is incorporated by reference. The FAA issued AD 2023-23-10 to address a limit cycle oscillation phenomenon, which could expose the surrounding structure and systems to unacceptable vibration levels and reduce the airplane controllability.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Actions Since AD 2023-23-10 Was Issued</HD>
                <P>
                    Since the FAA issued AD 2023-23-10, ANAC superseded ANAC AD 2023-06-01 and issued ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1, effective June 17, 2024 (ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1) (also referred to as the MCAI), to correct an unsafe condition for all Embraer S.A. Model ERJ 190-300 airplanes. The MCAI states that the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2924"/>
                    compliance paragraph was changed. The changes clarify that discrepancies found during any inspection must be corrected immediately, without any additional intervening actions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The FAA is issuing this AD to address wear on the wing hinge bearing assembly of the aileron surfaces that could lead to excessive backlash. If not addressed, this backlash could result in a limit cycle oscillation phenomenon exposing the surrounding structure and systems to unacceptable vibration levels and reducing the airplane controllability. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2024-2551.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Explanation of Retained Requirements</HD>
                <P>Although this AD does not explicitly restate the requirements of AD 2023-06-01, this AD retains all of the requirements of AD 2023-06-01. Those requirements are referenced in ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1, which, in turn, is referenced in paragraph (g) of this AD.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>
                    ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1 specifies procedures for repetitive general visual inspections of the press-fitted bushings of the left-hand (LH) and right-hand (RH) wing ailerons for migration and broken sealant; repetitive detailed inspections to measure the distance between the LH and RH wing aileron surfaces and hinge fittings; repetitive functional checks of the backlash of the LH and RH wing aileron control system; and applicable related investigative and corrective actions. The related investigative actions include a detailed inspection of the torque values of the attachment parts on the LH and RH wing aileron surfaces; a general visual inspection of the press-fitted bushings on the LH and RH aileron surfaces, as applicable, for damage (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     elongation, scratches, and nicks) and rotation or migration (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     gap between the bushing flange and lug, or broken sealant around the bushing); a general visual inspection of the sliding bushings of the LH and RH aileron surfaces, as applicable, for damage (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     scratches, steps, and dents) and migration of the press-fitted bushing pair; a detailed inspection to measure the outer diameter of the sliding bushings; a detailed inspection to check the inner diameter of the press-fitted bushings of certain aileron fittings; measurement of the outer diameters of the mating sliding bushing and bolt shank; and an operational check of the aileron control system, or a rigging procedure and deflection check, as applicable. The corrective actions include retorquing the nuts and installing cotter pins on the bolts and nuts of the attachment parts on the LH and RH wing aileron surfaces, and replacing the bearings and press-fitted and sliding bushings. This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination</HD>
                <P>This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, it has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA is issuing this AD after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requirements of This AD</HD>
                <P>This AD requires accomplishing the actions specified in ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1 described previously, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this AD.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Explanation of Required Compliance Information</HD>
                <P>
                    In the FAA's ongoing efforts to improve the efficiency of the AD process, the FAA developed a process to use some civil aviation authority (CAA) ADs as the primary source of information for compliance with requirements for corresponding FAA ADs. The FAA has been coordinating this process with manufacturers and CAAs. As a result, ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1 is incorporated by reference in this AD. This AD requires compliance with ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1 in its entirety through that incorporation, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this AD. Material required by ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1 for compliance will be available at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2024-2551 after this AD is published.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Justification and Determination of the Effective Date</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 553(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 551 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) authorizes agencies to dispense with notice and comment procedures for rules when the agency, for “good cause,” finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Under this section, an agency, upon finding good cause, may issue a final rule without providing notice and seeking comment prior to issuance. Further, section 553(d) of the APA authorizes agencies to make rules effective in less than thirty days, upon a finding of good cause.
                </P>
                <P>There are currently no domestic operators of these products. Accordingly, notice and opportunity for prior public comment are unnecessary, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b). In addition, for the foregoing reasons, the FAA finds that good cause exists pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d) for making this amendment effective in less than 30 days.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA)</HD>
                <P>The requirements of the RFA do not apply when an agency finds good cause pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553 to adopt a rule without prior notice and comment. Because the FAA has determined that it has good cause to adopt this rule without notice and comment, RFA analysis is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>Currently, there are no affected U.S.-registered airplanes. For any affected airplane that is imported and placed on the U.S. Register in the future, the FAA provides the following cost estimates to comply with this AD:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,12,r25">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs for Required Actions</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Parts
                            <LI>cost</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost per product</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Up to 8 work-hours × $85 per hour = $680</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $680.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    The FAA estimates the following costs to do any necessary on-condition actions that would be required based on the results of any required actions. The FAA has no way of determining the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2925"/>
                    number of aircraft that might need these on-condition actions:
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,12,r25">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs of On-Condition Actions</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Parts
                            <LI>cost</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost per product</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Up to 22 work-hours × $85 per hour = $1,870</ENT>
                        <ENT>$500</ENT>
                        <ENT>Up to $2,370.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866, and</P>
                <P>(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended] </SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Removing Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2023-23-10, Amendment 39-22612 (88 FR 83817, December 1, 2023); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Adding the following new AD:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            <E T="04">2024-25-04 Embraer S.A. (Type Certificate Previously Held by Yaborã Indústria Aeronáutica S.A.; Embraer S.A.):</E>
                             Amendment 39-22906; Docket No. FAA-2024-2551; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00346-T.
                        </FP>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Effective Date</HD>
                        <P>This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective January 29, 2025.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                        <P>This AD replaces AD 2023-23-10, Amendment 39-22612 (88 FR 83817, December 1, 2023) (AD 2023-23-10).</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (c) Applicability</HD>
                        <P>This AD applies to all Embraer S.A. (Type Certificate previously held by Yaborã Indústria Aeronáutica S.A.; Embraer S.A.) Model ERJ 190-300 airplanes, certificated in any category.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (d) Subject</HD>
                        <P>Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 27, Flight Controls.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                        <P>This AD was prompted by a report of unexpected wear on the wing hinge bearing assembly of the aileron surfaces found during the functional test of the aileron control system backlash. The FAA is issuing this AD to address wear on the wing hinge bearing assembly of the aileron surfaces that could lead to excessive backlash. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in a limit cycle oscillation phenomenon exposing the surrounding structure and systems to unacceptable vibration levels and reducing the airplane controllability.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (f) Compliance</HD>
                        <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (g) Requirements</HD>
                        <P>Except as specified in paragraph (h) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, Agência Nacional de Aviação Civil ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1, effective June 17, 2024 (ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1).</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (h) Exceptions to ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1</HD>
                        <P>(1) Where ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1 refers to “May 16, 2023, the effective date of the original issue of this AD,” this AD requires using January 25, 2024 (the effective date of AD 2023-23-10).</P>
                        <P>(2) Where paragraph (b)(1) of ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1 specifies to “carry out the inspections and the FNC of the airplane aileron control system backlash, as follows,” this AD requires replacing that text with “carry out the inspections and the FNC of the airplane aileron control system backlash specified in paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3), and (b)(4) of this AD.”</P>
                        <P>(3) Where paragraph (b)(3) of ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1 specifies to “measure de distances,” this AD requires replacing that text with “measure the distances.”</P>
                        <P>(4) All applicable related investigative and corrective actions specified in paragraphs (b)(4)(iii) and (b)(4)(iii)(a) of ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1 must be done before the next flight after the functional check of the left-hand (LH) and right-hand (RH) wing aileron control system.</P>
                        <P>(5) All applicable related investigative actions and corrective actions specified in paragraphs (c)(4)(ii), (c)(4)(iii), and (c)(4)(iii)(a), and (c)(4)(iii)(b) of ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1 must be done before the next flight after the detailed inspection on the LH and RH removed aileron surface, as applicable.</P>
                        <P>(6) Where paragraph (d) of ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1 specifies to repeat the inspections “at each 5,500 FH,” this AD requires replacing that text with “at intervals not to exceed 5,500 FH.”</P>
                        <P>(7) Where ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1 refers to its effective date, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                        <P>(8) This AD does not adopt paragraph (f) of ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1.</P>
                        <P>(9) Although the service information specified in ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1 specifies returning certain parts the manufacturer, this AD does not include that requirement.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (i) No Reporting Requirement</HD>
                        <P>Although the material referenced in ANAC AD 2023-06-01R1 specifies to submit certain information to the manufacturer, this AD does not include that requirement.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (j) Additional AD Provisions</HD>
                        <P>The following provisions also apply to this AD:</P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs):</E>
                             The Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2926"/>
                            In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the International Validation Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k) of this AD and email to: 
                            <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Contacting the Manufacturer:</E>
                             For any requirement in this AD to obtain instructions from a manufacturer, the instructions must be accomplished using a method approved by the Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA; or ANAC; or ANAC's authorized Designee. If approved by the ANAC Designee, the approval must include the Designee's authorized signature.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Required for Compliance (RC):</E>
                             Except as specified by paragraph (j)(2) of this AD: For material that contains steps that are labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (j)(3)(i) and (ii) of this AD apply.
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or substep is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or substep. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (k) Additional Information</HD>
                        <P>
                            For more information about this AD, contact Krista Greer, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3221; email: 
                            <E T="03">krista.greer@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (l) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                        <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                        <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                        <P>(i) Agência Nacional de Aviação Civil (ANAC) AD 2023-06-01R1, effective June 17, 2024.</P>
                        <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) For ANAC material identified in this AD, contact ANAC, Aeronautical Products Certification Branch (GGCP), Rua Dr. Orlando Feirabend Filho, 230—Centro Empresarial Aquarius—Torre B—Andares 14 a 18, Parque Residencial Aquarius, CEP 12.246-190—São José dos Campos—SP, Brazil; telephone 55 (12) 3203-6600; email: 
                            <E T="03">pac@anac.gov.br;</E>
                             website 
                            <E T="03">anac.gov.br/en/.</E>
                             You may find this material on the ANAC website at 
                            <E T="03">sistemas.anac.gov.br/certificacao/DA/DAE.asp.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                            <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                             or email 
                            <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on January 6, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Suzanne Masterson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Director, Integrated Certificate Management Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00387 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2024-2550; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00345-T; Amendment 39-22903; AD 2024-25-01]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Embraer S.A. (Type Certificate Previously Held by Yaborã Indústria Aeronáutica S.A.; Embraer S.A.) Airplanes</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA is superseding Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2023-23-09, which applied to all Embraer S.A. Model ERJ 190-400 airplanes. AD 2023-23-09 required repetitive inspections of the press-fitted bushings of the wing ailerons for migration and broken sealant, measurements of the distance between the aileron surfaces and hinge fittings, functional checks of the backlash of the wing aileron control system, and all applicable related investigative and corrective actions. Since the FAA issued AD 2023-23-09, it was determined that certain requirements needed to be clarified. This AD continues to require all actions of ANAC AD 2023-05-02 with revised compliance requirements, as specified in an Agência Nacional de Aviação Civil (ANAC) AD, which is incorporated by reference. The FAA is issuing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This AD is effective January 29, 2025.</P>
                    <P>The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference of a certain publication listed in this AD as of January 29, 2025.</P>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this AD by February 28, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                        . Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         202-493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2024-2550; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this final rule, the mandatory continuing airworthiness information (MCAI), any comments received, and other information. The street address for Docket Operations is listed above.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Material Incorporated by Reference:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • For ANAC material identified in this AD, contact ANAC, Aeronautical Products Certification Branch (GGCP), Rua Dr. Orlando Feirabend Filho, 230—Centro Empresarial Aquarius—Torre B—Andares 14 a 18, Parque Residencial Aquarius, CEP 12.246-190—São José dos Campos—SP, Brazil; telephone 55 (12) 3203-6600; email 
                        <E T="03">pac@anac.gov.br;</E>
                         website 
                        <E T="03">anac.gov.br/en/.</E>
                         You may find this material on the ANAC website at 
                        <E T="03">sistemas.anac.gov.br/certificacao/DA/DAE.asp.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195. It is also available at 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                         under Docket No. FAA-2024-2550.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Krista Greer, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3221; email: 
                        <E T="03">krista.greer@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA invites you to send any written data, views, or arguments about this final rule. Send your comments to an address listed under the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section. Include “Docket No. FAA-2024-2550; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00345-T” at the beginning of your comments. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the final rule, explain the reason for any 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2927"/>
                    recommended change, and include supporting data. The FAA will consider all comments received by the closing date and may amend this final rule because of those comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                    , including any personal information you provide. The agency will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact received about this final rule.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Confidential Business Information</HD>
                <P>
                    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this AD contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this AD, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this AD. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Krista Greer, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3221; email: 
                    <E T="03">krista.greer@faa.gov.</E>
                     Any commentary that the FAA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>The FAA issued AD 2023-23-09, Amendment 39-22611 (88 FR 89286, December 27, 2023) (AD 2023-23-09), for all Embraer S.A. Model ERJ 190-400 airplanes. AD 2023-23-09 was prompted by an MCAI originated by ANAC, which is the aviation authority for Brazil. ANAC issued AD 2023-05-02R1, dated June 17, 2024 (ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1), to correct an unsafe condition.</P>
                <P>AD 2023-23-09 required repetitive inspections of the press-fitted bushings of the wing ailerons for migration and broken sealant, measurements of the distance between the aileron surfaces and hinge fittings, functional checks of the backlash of the wing aileron control system, and all applicable related investigative and corrective actions, as specified in ANAC AD 2023-05-02, effective May 18, 2023, which was incorporated by reference in FAA AD 2023-23-09. The FAA issued AD 2023-23-09 to address a limit cycle oscillation phenomenon, which could expose the surrounding structure and systems to unacceptable vibration levels and reduce airplane controllability.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Actions Since AD 2023-23-09 Was Issued</HD>
                <P>Since the FAA issued AD 2023-23-09, ANAC superseded ANAC AD 2023-05-02 and issued ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1, effective June 17, 2024 (ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1) (also referred to as the MCAI), to correct an unsafe condition for all Embraer S.A. Model ERJ 190-400 airplanes. The MCAI states that the compliance paragraph was changed. The changes clarify that discrepancies found during any inspection must be corrected immediately, without any additional intervening actions.</P>
                <P>
                    The FAA is issuing this AD to address wear on the wing hinge bearing assembly of the aileron surfaces that could lead to excessive backlash. If not addressed, this backlash could result in a limit cycle oscillation phenomenon exposing the surrounding structure and systems to unacceptable vibration levels and reducing airplane controllability. You may examine the MCAI in the AD docket at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2024-2550.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Explanation of Retained Requirements</HD>
                <P>Although this AD does not explicitly restate the requirements of AD 2023-05-02, this AD retains all of the requirements of AD 2023-05-02. Those requirements are referenced in ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1, which, in turn, is referenced in paragraph (g) of this AD.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Material Incorporated by Reference Under 1 CFR Part 51</HD>
                <P>
                    ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1 specifies procedures for repetitive general visual inspections of the press-fitted bushings of the left-hand (LH) and right-hand (RH) wing ailerons for migration and broken sealant; repetitive detailed inspections to measure the distance between the LH and RH wing aileron surfaces and hinge fittings; repetitive functional checks of the backlash of the LH and RH wing aileron control system; and applicable related investigative and corrective actions. The related investigative actions include a detailed inspection of the torque values of the attachment parts on the LH and RH wing aileron surfaces; a general visual inspection of the press-fitted bushings on the LH and RH aileron surfaces, as applicable, for damage (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     elongation, scratches, and nicks) and rotation or migration (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     gap between the bushing flange and lug, or broken sealant around the bushing); a general visual inspection of the sliding bushings of the LH and RH aileron surfaces, as applicable, for damage (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     scratches, steps, and dents) and migration of the press-fitted bushing pair; a detailed inspection to measure the outer diameter of the sliding bushings; a detailed inspection to check the inner diameter of the press-fitted bushings of certain aileron fittings; measurement of the outer diameters of the mating sliding bushing and bolt shank; and an operational check of the aileron control system, or a rigging procedure and deflection check, as applicable. The corrective actions include retorquing the nuts and installing cotter pins on the bolts and nuts of the attachment parts on the LH and RH wing aileron surfaces and replacing the bearings and press-fitted and sliding bushings. This material is reasonably available because the interested parties have access to it through their normal course of business or by the means identified in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination</HD>
                <P>This product has been approved by the aviation authority of another country and is approved for operation in the United States. Pursuant to the FAA's bilateral agreement with this State of Design Authority, it has notified the FAA of the unsafe condition described in the MCAI referenced above. The FAA is issuing this AD after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Requirements of This AD</HD>
                <P>This AD requires accomplishing the actions specified in ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1 described previously, except for any differences identified as exceptions in the regulatory text of this AD.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Explanation of Required Compliance Information</HD>
                <P>
                    In the FAA's ongoing efforts to improve the efficiency of the AD process, the FAA developed a process to use some civil aviation authority (CAA) ADs as the primary source of information for compliance with requirements for corresponding FAA ADs. The FAA has been coordinating this process with manufacturers and CAAs. As a result, ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1 is incorporated by reference in this AD. This AD requires compliance with ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1 in its entirety through that incorporation, except for any differences identified as exceptions 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2928"/>
                    in the regulatory text of this AD. Material required by ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1 for compliance will be available at 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FAA-2024-2550 after this AD is published.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Justification and Determination of the Effective Date</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 553(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 551 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) authorizes agencies to dispense with notice and comment procedures for rules when the agency, for “good cause,” finds that those procedures are “impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest.” Under this section, an agency, upon finding good cause, may issue a final rule without providing notice and seeking comment prior to issuance. Further, section 553(d) of the APA authorizes agencies to make rules effective in less than thirty days, upon a finding of good cause.
                </P>
                <P>There are currently no domestic operators of these products. Accordingly, notice and opportunity for prior public comment are unnecessary, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(b). In addition, for the foregoing reasons, the FAA finds that good cause exists pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553(d) for making this amendment effective in less than 30 days.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA)</HD>
                <P>The requirements of the RFA do not apply when an agency finds good cause pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 553 to adopt a rule without prior notice and comment. Because the FAA has determined that it has good cause to adopt this rule without notice and comment, RFA analysis is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>Currently, there are no affected U.S.-registered airplanes. For any affected airplane that is imported and placed on the U.S. Register in the future, the FAA provides the following cost estimates to comply with this AD:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,12C,12C">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs for Required Actions</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per 
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Up to 8 work-hours × $85 per hour = $680</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$680</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The FAA estimates the following costs to do any necessary on-condition actions that would be required based on the results of any required actions. The FAA has no way of determining the number of aircraft that might need these on-condition actions:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,12C,12C">
                    <TTITLE>Estimated Costs of On-Condition Actions</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Labor cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Parts cost</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Cost per 
                            <LI>product</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Up to 22 work-hours × $85 per hour = $1,870</ENT>
                        <ENT>$500</ENT>
                        <ENT>$2,370</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>This AD will not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This AD will not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify that this AD:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866, and</P>
                <P>(2) Will not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA amends 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="14" PART="39">
                    <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Removing Airworthiness Directive (AD) 2023-23-09, Amendment 39-22611 (88 FR 89286, December 27, 2023); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Adding the following new AD:</AMDPAR>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                            <E T="04">2024-25-01 Embraer S.A. (Type Certificate Previously Held by Yaborã Indústria Aeronáutica S.A.; Embraer S.A.):</E>
                             Amendment 39-22903; Docket No. FAA-2024-2550; Project Identifier MCAI-2024-00345-T.
                        </FP>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(a) Effective Date</HD>
                        <P>This airworthiness directive (AD) is effective January 29, 2025.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(b) Affected ADs</HD>
                        <P>This AD replaces AD 2023-23-09, Amendment 39-22611 (88 FR 89286, December 27, 2023) (AD 2023-23-09).</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(c) Applicability</HD>
                        <P>This AD applies to all Embraer S.A. (Type Certificate previously held by Yaborã Indústria Aeronáutica S.A.; Embraer S.A.) Model ERJ 190-400 airplanes, certificated in any category.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(d) Subject</HD>
                        <P>
                            Air Transport Association (ATA) of America Code 27, Flight Controls.
                            <PRTPAGE P="2929"/>
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                        <P>This AD was prompted by a report of unexpected wear on the wing hinge bearing assembly of the aileron surfaces found during the functional test of the aileron control system backlash. The FAA is issuing this AD to address wear on the wing hinge bearing assembly of the aileron surfaces that could lead to excessive backlash. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in a limit cycle oscillation phenomenon exposing the surrounding structure and systems to unacceptable vibration levels and reducing airplane controllability.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(f) Compliance</HD>
                        <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(g) Requirements</HD>
                        <P>Except as specified in paragraphs (h) and (i) of this AD: Comply with all required actions and compliance times specified in, and in accordance with, Agência Nacional de Aviação Civil (ANAC) AD 2023-05-02R1, effective June 17, 2024 (ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1).</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(h) Exceptions to ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1</HD>
                        <P>(1) Where ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1 refers to its effective date, this AD requires using the effective date of this AD.</P>
                        <P>(2) This AD requires replacing table 01 of ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1 with figure 1 to paragraph (h)(2) of this AD; and where paragraph (b)(1) of ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1 specifies “the applicable intervals and limitations established in the `Table 01—Compliance intervals and limitations' of this AD,” this AD requires using figure 1 to paragraph (h)(2) of this AD.</P>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="265">
                            <GID>ER14JA25.002</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(3) Where paragraph (b)(3) of ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1 specifies to “measure de distances,” this AD requires replacing those words with “measure the distances.”</P>
                        <P>(4) All applicable related investigative and corrective actions specified in paragraphs (b)(4)(iii) and (b)(4)(iii)(a) of ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1 must be done before the next flight after the functional check of the left-hand (LH) and right-hand (RH) wing aileron control system.</P>
                        <P>(5) All applicable related investigative actions specified in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1 must be done before the next flight after the detailed inspection on the LH and RH removed aileron surface, as applicable.</P>
                        <P>(6) Where paragraph (d) of ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1 specifies to repeat the inspections “at each 3,000 FH,” this AD requires replacing that text with “at intervals not to exceed 3,000 FH”; and where paragraph (d) of ANAC 2023-05-02R1 specifies performing subsequent inspections “after 3000 FH,” this AD requires replacing those words with “within 3,000 FH.”</P>
                        <P>(7) Where paragraph (d) of ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1 specifies to “Repeat the inspections and the actions required by the paragraphs (b) and (c) of this AD,” this AD requires replacing that text with “Repeat the inspections required by paragraph (b) of this AD.”</P>
                        <P>(8) Where paragraph (e) of ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1 specifies “since the airplane maintenance records clearly identify that the actions required by the paragraphs (b) and (c) of this AD have been complied with,” this AD requires replacing that text with “if the airplane maintenance records clearly identify that the actions required by paragraphs (b) and (c) of this AD, as applicable, have been complied with.”</P>
                        <P>(9) This AD does not adopt paragraph (f) of ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1.</P>
                        <P>(10) Although the service information specified in ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1 specifies returning certain parts the manufacturer, this AD does not include that requirement.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(i) No Reporting Requirement</HD>
                        <P>Although the material referenced in ANAC AD 2023-05-02R1 specifies to submit certain information to the manufacturer, this AD does not include that requirement.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(j) Additional AD Provisions</HD>
                        <P>The following provisions also apply to this AD:</P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs):</E>
                             The Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or responsible Flight Standards Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the International Validation Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (k) of this AD and email to: 
                            <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Contacting the Manufacturer:</E>
                             For any requirement in this AD to obtain instructions from a manufacturer, the instructions must be accomplished using a method approved by the Manager, International Validation Branch, FAA; or ANAC; or ANAC's authorized Designee. If approved by the ANAC Designee, the approval must include the Designee's authorized signature.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Required for Compliance (RC):</E>
                             Except as specified by paragraph (j)(2) of this AD: For material that contains steps that are 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2930"/>
                            labeled as Required for Compliance (RC), the provisions of paragraphs (j)(3)(i) and (ii) of this AD apply.
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The steps labeled as RC, including substeps under an RC step and any figures identified in an RC step, must be done to comply with the AD. If a step or substep is labeled “RC Exempt,” then the RC requirement is removed from that step or substep. An AMOC is required for any deviations to RC steps, including substeps and identified figures.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Steps not labeled as RC may be deviated from using accepted methods in accordance with the operator's maintenance or inspection program without obtaining approval of an AMOC, provided the RC steps, including substeps and identified figures, can still be done as specified, and the airplane can be put back in an airworthy condition.</P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(k) Additional Information</HD>
                        <P>
                            For more information about this AD, contact Krista Greer, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 2200 South 216th Street, Des Moines, WA 98198; phone: 206-231-3221; email: 
                            <E T="03">krista.greer@faa.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD1">(l) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                        <P>(1) The Director of the Federal Register approved the incorporation by reference (IBR) of the material listed in this paragraph under 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51.</P>
                        <P>(2) You must use this material as applicable to do the actions required by this AD, unless this AD specifies otherwise.</P>
                        <P>(i) Agência Nacional de Aviação Civil (ANAC) AD 2023-05-02R1, effective June 17, 2024.</P>
                        <P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) For ANAC material identified in this AD, contact ANAC, Aeronautical Products Certification Branch (GGCP), Rua Dr. Orlando Feirabend Filho, 230—Centro Empresarial Aquarius—Torre B—Andares 14 a 18, Parque Residencial Aquarius, CEP 12.246-190—São José dos Campos—SP, Brazil; telephone 55 (12) 3203-6600; email: 
                            <E T="03">pac@anac.gov.br;</E>
                             website 
                            <E T="03">anac.gov.br/en/.</E>
                             You may find this material on the ANAC website at 
                            <E T="03">sistemas.anac.gov.br/certificacao/DA/DAE.asp.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>(4) You may view this material at the FAA, Airworthiness Products Section, Operational Safety Branch, 2200 South 216th St., Des Moines, WA. For information on the availability of this material at the FAA, call 206-231-3195.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) You may view this material at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, visit 
                            <E T="03">www.archives.gov/federal-register/cfr/ibr-locations</E>
                             or email 
                            <E T="03">fr.inspection@nara.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on January 6, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Suzanne Masterson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Director, Integrated Certificate Management Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00423 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>18 CFR Parts 250 and 385</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. RM25-4-000; Order No. 906]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Civil Monetary Penalty Inflation Adjustments</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) is issuing a final rule to amend its regulations governing the maximum civil monetary penalties assessable for violations of statutes, rules, and orders within the Commission's jurisdiction. The Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended most recently by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015, requires the Commission to issue this final rule.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule is effective January 14, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Kevin Dinan, Attorney, Office of Enforcement, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426. Phone: (202) 502-6214; email: 
                        <E T="03">Kevin.Dinan@ferc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>1. In this final rule, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission) is complying with its statutory obligation to amend the civil monetary penalties provided  by law for matters within the agency's jurisdiction.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    2. The Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (2015 Adjustment Act),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which further amended the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990 (1990 Adjustment Act),
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     required the head of each Federal agency to issue a rule by July 2016 adjusting for inflation each “civil monetary penalty” provided by law within the agency's jurisdiction and to make further inflation adjustments on an annual basis every January 15 thereafter.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Public Law 114-74, Sec. 701, 129 Stat. 584, 599.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         Public Law 101-410, 104 Stat. 890 (codified as amended at 28 U.S.C. 2461 note).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         28 U.S.C. 2461 note, at (4). The Commission made its January 2024 adjustment on January 5, 2024, in Docket No. RM24-3-000. 
                        <E T="03">See Civil Monetary Penalty Inflation Adjustments,</E>
                         Order No. 903, 89 FR 1806 (Jan. 11, 2024), 186 FERC ¶ 61,017 (2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Discussion</HD>
                <P>
                    3. The 2015 Adjustment Act defines a civil monetary penalty as any penalty, fine, or other sanction that: (A)(i) is for a specific monetary amount as provided by Federal law; or (ii) has a maximum amount provided for by Federal law; (B) is assessed or enforced by an agency pursuant to Federal law; and (C) is assessed or enforced pursuant to an administrative proceeding or a civil action in the federal courts.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This definition applies to the maximum civil penalties that may be imposed under the Federal Power Act (FPA),
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Natural Gas Act (NGA),
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978 (NGPA),
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the Interstate Commerce Act (ICA).
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         28 U.S.C. 2461 note at (3).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         16 U.S.C. 791a 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 717 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 3301 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         49 App. U.S.C. 1 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                         (1988).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    4. Under the 2015 Adjustment Act, the first step for such adjustment of a civil monetary penalty for inflation requires determining the percentage by which the U.S. Department of Labor's Consumer Price Index for all-urban consumers (CPI-U) for October of the preceding year exceeds the CPI-U for October of the year before that.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The CPI-U for October 2024 exceeded the CPI-U for October 2023 by 2.598 percent.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         28 U.S.C. 2461 note at (5)(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Memorandum from Shalanda D. Young, Office of Management and Budget, Implementation of the Penalty Inflation Adjustments for 2025, Pursuant to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (Dec. 17, 2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    5. The second step requires multiplying the CPI-U percentage increase by the applicable existing maximum civil monetary penalty.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This step results in a base penalty increase amount.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         28 U.S.C. 2461 note at (5)(a).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    6. The third step requires rounding the base penalty increase amount to the nearest dollar and adding that amount to the base penalty to calculate the new adjusted maximum civil monetary penalty.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    7. Under the 2015 Adjustment Act, an agency is directed to use the maximum civil monetary penalty applicable at the time of assessment of a civil penalty, regardless of  the date on which the violation occurred.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at (6).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    8. The adjustments that the Commission is required to make 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2931"/>
                    pursuant to the 2015 Adjustment Act are reflected in the following table:
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,r100,r100">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Source</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Existing maximum civil monetary penalty</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            New adjusted maximum civil monetary 
                            <LI>penalty</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">16 U.S.C. 825o-1(b), Sec. 316A of the Federal Power Act</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,544,521 per violation, per day</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,584,648 per violation, per day.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">16 U.S.C. 823b(c), Sec. 31(c) of the Federal Power Act</ENT>
                        <ENT>$27,893 per violation, per day</ENT>
                        <ENT>$28,618 per violation, per day.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">16 U.S.C. 825n(a), Sec. 315(a) of the Federal Power Act</ENT>
                        <ENT>$3,643 per violation</ENT>
                        <ENT>$3,738 per violation.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">15 U.S.C. 717t-1, Sec. 22 of the Natural Gas Act</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,544,521 per violation, per day</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,584,648 per violation, per day.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">15 U.S.C. 3414(b)(6)(A)(i), Sec. 504(b)(6)(A)(i) of the Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,544,521 per violation, per day</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,584,648 per violation, per day.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">49 App. U.S.C. 6(10) (1988), Sec. 6(10) of the Interstate Commerce Act</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,617 per offense and $81 per day after the first day</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,659 per offense and $83 per day after the first day.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">49 App. U.S.C. 16(8) (1988), Sec. 16(8) of the Interstate Commerce Act</ENT>
                        <ENT>$16,170 per violation, per day</ENT>
                        <ENT>$16,590 per violation, per day.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">49 App. U.S.C. 19a(k) (1988), Sec. 19a(k) of the Interstate Commerce Act</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,617 per offense, per day</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,659 per offense, per day.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">49 App. U.S.C. 20(7)(a) (1988), Sec. 20(7)(a) of the Interstate Commerce Act</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,617 per offense, per day</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,659 per offense, per day.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Administrative Findings</HD>
                <P>
                    9. Congress directed that agencies issue final rules to adjust their maximum civil monetary penalties notwithstanding the requirements of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA).
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Because the Commission is required by law to undertake these inflation adjustments notwithstanding the notice and comment requirements that otherwise would apply pursuant to the APA, and because the Commission lacks discretion with respect to the method and amount of the adjustments, prior notice and comment would be impractical, unnecessary, and contrary to the public interest.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at (3)(b)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Flexibility Statement</HD>
                <P>
                    10. The Regulatory Flexibility Act, as amended, requires agencies to certify that rules promulgated under their authority will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small businesses.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act apply only to rules promulgated following notice and comment.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The requirements of the Regulatory Flexibility Act do not apply to this rulemaking because the Commission is issuing this final rule without notice and comment.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         5 U.S.C. 601 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         5 U.S.C. 603, 604.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>
                    11. This rule does not require the collection of information. The Commission is therefore not required to submit this rule for review to the Office of Management and Budget pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         44 U.S.C. 3507(d).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Document Availability</HD>
                <P>
                    12. In addition to publishing the full text of this document in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , the Commission provides all interested persons an opportunity to view and print the contents of this document via the internet through the Commission's Home Page (
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>13. From the Commission's Home Page on the internet, this information is available on eLibrary. The full text of this document is available on eLibrary in PDF and Microsoft Word format for viewing, printing, and downloading. To access this document in eLibrary, type the docket number (excluding the last three digits) in the docket number field.</P>
                <P>
                    14. User assistance is available for eLibrary and the Commission's website during normal business hours from the Commission's Online Support at (202) 502-6652 (toll free at 1-866-208-3676) or email at 
                    <E T="03">ferconlinesupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     or the Public Reference Room at (202) 502-8371, TTY (202) 502-8659, or email at 
                    <E T="03">public.referenceroom@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Effective Date and Congressional Notification</HD>
                <P>
                    15. For the same reasons the Commission has determined that public notice and comment are unnecessary, impractical, and contrary to the public interest, the Commission finds good cause to adopt an effective date that is less than 30 days after the date of publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     pursuant to the APA,
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and therefore, the regulation is effective upon publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         5 U.S.C. 553(d)(3).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>16. The Commission has determined, with the concurrence of the Administrator of the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of the Office of Management and Budget, that this rule is not a “major rule” as defined in section 351 of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996. This final rule is being submitted to the Senate, House, and Government Accountability Office.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                    <CFR>18 CFR Part 250</CFR>
                    <P>Natural gas, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                    <CFR>18 CFR Part 385</CFR>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Electric power, Penalties, Pipelines, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: January 6, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>
                    In consideration of the foregoing, the Commission amends parts 250 and 385, chapter I, title 18, 
                    <E T="03">Code of Federal Regulations</E>
                     as follows:
                </P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 250—FORMS</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="18" PART="250">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 250 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 15 U.S.C. 717-717w, 3301-3432; 42 U.S.C. 7101-7352; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="18" PART="250">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Revise § 250.16(e)(1) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <PRTPAGE P="2932"/>
                        <SECTNO>§ 250.16</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Format of compliance plan for transportation services and affiliate transactions.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(e) * * *</P>
                        <P>(1) Any person who transports gas for others pursuant to subpart B or G of part 284 of this chapter and who knowingly violates the requirements of §§ 358.4 and 358.5 of this chapter, this section, or § 284.13 of this chapter will be subject, pursuant to sections 311(c), 501, and 504(b)(6) of the Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978, to a civil penalty, which the Commission may assess, of not more than $1,584,648 for any one violation.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 385—RULES OF PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="18" PART="385">
                    <AMDPAR>3. The authority citation for part 385 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 5 U.S.C. 551-557; 15 U.S.C. 717-717w, 3301-3432; 16 U.S.C. 791a-825v, 2601-2645; 28 U.S.C. 2461; 31 U.S.C 3701, 9701; 42 U.S.C. 7101-7352, 16441, 16451-16463; 49 U.S.C. 60502; 49 App. U.S.C. 1-85 (1988); 28 U.S.C. 2461 note (1990); 28 U.S.C. 2461 note (2015).</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="18" PART="385">
                    <AMDPAR>4. Revise § 385.1504(a) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 385.1504</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Maximum civil penalty (Rule 1504).</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the Commission may assess a civil penalty of up to $28,618 for each day that the violation continues.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="18" PART="385">
                    <AMDPAR>5. Revise § 385.1602 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 385.1602</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Civil penalties, as adjusted (Rule 1602).</SUBJECT>
                        <P>The current inflation-adjusted civil monetary penalties provided by law within the jurisdiction of the Commission are:</P>
                        <P>(a) 15 U.S.C. 3414(b)(6)(A)(i), Natural Gas Policy Act of 1978: $1,584,648 per violation, per day.</P>
                        <P>(b) 16 U.S.C. 823b(c), Federal Power Act: $28,618 per violation, per day.</P>
                        <P>(c) 16 U.S.C. 825n(a), Federal Power Act: $3,738 per violation.</P>
                        <P>(d) 16 U.S.C. 825o-1(b), Federal Power Act: $1,584,648 per violation, per day.</P>
                        <P>(e) 15 U.S.C. 717t-1, Natural Gas Act: $1,584,648 per violation, per day.</P>
                        <P>(f) 49 App. U.S.C. 6(10) (1988), Interstate Commerce Act: $1,659 per offense and $78 per day after the first day.</P>
                        <P>(g) 49 App. U.S.C. 16(8) (1988), Interstate Commerce Act: $16,590 per violation, per day.</P>
                        <P>(h) 49 App. U.S.C. 19a(k) (1988), Interstate Commerce Act: $1,659 per offense, per day.</P>
                        <P>(i) 49 App. U.S.C. 20(7)(a) (1988), Interstate Commerce Act: $1,659 per offense, per day.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00516 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Highway Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>23 CFR Part 635</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FHWA-2023-0037]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2125-AG13</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Buy America Requirements for Manufactured Products</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Highway Administration (FHWA), U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule amends FHWA's Buy America regulation to terminate FHWA's general waiver for manufactured products and establish Buy America requirements for manufactured products with respect to Federal-aid highway projects. The standards for applying Buy America to manufactured products are generally consistent with the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB) guidance implementing the Build America, Buy America Act (BABA) provisions of the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act (also known as the Bipartisan Infrastructure Law (BIL)).</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule is effective March 17, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For questions about this final rule, please contact Mr. Brian Hogge, FHWA Office of Infrastructure, 202-366-1562, or via email at 
                        <E T="03">Brian.Hogge@dot.gov.</E>
                         For legal questions, please contact Mr. David Serody, FHWA Office of Chief Counsel, 202-366-4241, or via email at 
                        <E T="03">David.Serody@dot.gov.</E>
                         Office hours for FHWA are from 8:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., eastern time (E.T.), Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Electronic Access and Filing</HD>
                <P>
                    This document, the notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM), all comments received, and all supporting material may be viewed online at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     using the docket number listed above. Electronic retrieval assistance and guidelines are available on the website. It is available 24 hours each day, 365 days each year. An electronic copy of this document may also be downloaded from the Office of Federal Register's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.federalregister.gov</E>
                     and the U.S. Government Publishing Office's website at 
                    <E T="03">www.GovInfo.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Executive Summary</HD>
                <P>FHWA is required, by statute, to ensure that all projects funded under title 23 of the United States Code (U.S.C.) (Federal-aid projects) use only steel, iron, and manufactured products that are produced in the United States. 23 U.S.C. 313. FHWA refers to these requirements as “Buy America” requirements. In other words, FHWA's Buy America requirement for manufactured products mandates that all such products used on Federal-aid projects must be “produced in the United States.” 23 U.S.C. 313. The Buy America requirement for manufactured products has existed in some form since the enactment of the Surface Transportation Assistance Act of 1978 (1978 STAA), Public Law 95-599 (1978), with those requirements being modified close to their current form by section 165 of the Surface Transportation Assistance Act of 1982 (1982 STAA), Public Law 97-424 (1983).</P>
                <P>
                    In 1983, following the passage of the 1982 STAA, FHWA determined that it would be in the public interest to waive the Buy America requirements for manufactured products, with that waiver known as the Manufactured Products General Waiver. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     48 FR 1946 (Jan. 17, 1983); 48 FR 53099 (Nov. 25, 1983). Under the Manufactured Products General Waiver, manufactured products that were permanently incorporated into Federal-aid projects did not need to be produced domestically, apart from predominantly iron or steel components of manufactured products.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Through this rule, FHWA is establishing specific dates on which the Manufactured Products General Waiver will be terminated and is amending its Buy America regulation at 23 CFR 635.410 to establish standards regarding Buy America requirements that will apply to manufactured products on Federal-aid projects. These standards are substantially similar to those established by OMB that apply to manufactured products subject to BABA.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This means that to be considered “produced in the United States” and therefore Buy America-compliant, manufactured products must 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2933"/>
                    be manufactured in the United States (“final assembly requirement”) and have greater than 55 percent of the manufactured product's components, by cost, be mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States (“55 percent requirement”).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         2 CFR part 184 established in 88 FR 57750 (Aug. 23, 2023) and M-24-02 (Oct. 25, 2023).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Under this final rule, a manufactured product is defined as an article, material, or supply that has been processed into a specific form and shape, or combined with other articles, materials, or supplies to create a product with different properties than the individual articles, materials, or supplies. If, however, an article, material, or supply meets this definition but could also be classified as an iron or steel product, excluded material, or other product category as specified by law or in 2 CFR part 184, that article, material, or supply is not a manufactured product. Further, mixtures of excluded materials delivered to a work site without final form for incorporation into a project are also not manufactured products. For the purpose of this rule, an article, material, or supply is generally only subject to one set of requirements. For example, a manufactured product is only subject to FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products in § 635.410(c), meaning that the product must meet the final assembly and 55 percent requirements. An iron or steel product, on the other hand, must meet FHWA's existing Buy America requirements for iron and steel in § 635.410(b), generally requiring that all manufacturing processes, including application of a coating, for these materials must occur in the United States. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     23 CFR 635.410(b)(1)(ii).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to § 635.410(c)(2)(i), however, precast concrete products that are classified as manufactured products must have their predominantly iron or steel components meet FHWA's Buy America requirements for iron and steel.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Similarly, pursuant to § 635.410(c)(2)(ii), the cabinets or other enclosures of intelligent transportation systems (ITS) and other electronic hardware systems that are installed in the highway right of way or other real property and classified as manufactured products must comply with FHWA's Buy America requirements for iron and steel if the cabinet or enclosure is predominantly iron or steel. These specified manufactured products must also comply with FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products. However, the predominantly iron or steel components for precast concrete and the predominantly iron or steel cabinet or enclosure for ITS and other electronic hardware systems will be considered for the purpose of the 55 percent content requirement.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         As described in more detail in the discussion of 23 CFR 635.410(c)(1)(iv) below, while precast concrete may be considered a manufactured product, wet concrete delivered to a work site is not a manufactured product, as wet concrete is a mixture of excluded materials delivered to a work site without final form.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The requirements established in this rule are substantially similar to those proposed in the NPRM. 89 FR 17789 (March 12, 2024). FHWA notes, however, that the final assembly requirement will become effective for Federal-aid projects obligated on or after October 1, 2025. The Manufactured Products General Waiver will remain in place until this date. In addition, unlike the NPRM, the 55 percent requirement will subsequently become effective for Federal-aid projects obligated on or after October 1, 2026. This means that, to be Buy America-compliant, for Federal-aid projects obligated on or after October 1, 2026, all manufactured products permanently incorporated into the project must both be manufactured in the United States and have the cost of the components of the manufactured product that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States be greater than 55 percent of the total cost of all components of the manufactured product.</P>
                <P>The regulatory impact analysis (RIA) prepared for this final rule pursuant to Executive Order (E.O.) 12866, as amended by E.O. 14094, is available in the rulemaking docket. The RIA estimates the costs and benefits associated with establishing Buy America requirements for manufactured products. The RIA discusses anticipated benefits of the rule qualitatively, as they could not be quantified. Expected benefits include protecting and expanding domestic manufacturing, increasing supply chain resiliency, and increasing consistency in applying domestic content procurement preferences for manufactured products between FHWA and other Federal agencies that are subject to the requirements of BABA. Expected costs of this rule relate to increased material costs for manufactured products used in Federal-aid highway construction projects, project delay, and the administrative costs to FHWA and recipients of FHWA financial assistance. FHWA is able to quantify only increased material costs and the administrative costs to FHWA and recipients of FHWA financial assistance. FHWA estimates the increased material costs for manufactured products permanently incorporated into Federal-aid projects to range from $41 million to $980 million per year. FHWA further estimates an additional $167,000 per year in increased FHWA administrative costs and an additional $22 million per year in increased administrative costs to recipients of FHWA financial assistance. FHWA estimates the 10-year cost of this rule to range from $545 million to $8,466 million at a 2 percent discount, with annualized costs of $61 million to $942 million.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Regulatory History  </HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. History of the Manufactured Products General Waiver</HD>
                <P>
                    FHWA's Buy America requirements were first established in 1978 by section 401 of the 1978 STAA, which imposed a Buy America requirement to certain unmanufactured and manufactured articles, materials, and supplies. Following enactment of the 1978 STAA, FHWA issued an emergency rule to implement the Buy America requirement of section 401; that rule temporarily waived the provisions of section 401 to all products and materials other than structural steel. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     43 FR 53717 (Nov. 17, 1978).
                </P>
                <P>
                    In 1980, following the issuance of that emergency rule, FHWA issued an NPRM to establish regulations implementing section 401 of the 1978 STAA. 45 FR 77455 (Nov. 24, 1980). In that NPRM, FHWA proposed to extend the coverage of Buy America requirements to all steel construction materials used in highway construction projects, while excluding all other materials and products from being subject to Buy America. 45 FR 77455. Prior to the 1980 rulemaking being finalized, Congress enacted the 1982 STAA, which instituted new Buy America requirements that are similar to those that exist today. Section 165(a) established Buy America requirements for all steel, cement,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and manufactured products used on Federal-aid projects, requiring that they be produced in the United States.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In 2005, Congress codified the current Buy America requirements for steel, iron, and manufactured products at 23 U.S.C. 313, and those Buy America requirements remain in effect today.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The Buy America requirement for cement was eliminated by Congress in 1984. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Public Law 98-229.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Congress also added a Buy America requirement for iron in 1991. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Public Law 102-240.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 1903 of Public Law 109-59.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In late 1983, FHWA issued its final rule implementing section 165 of the 1982 STAA, creating its current Buy America regulations at 23 CFR 635.410.
                    <FTREF/>
                    <SU>6</SU>
                      
                    <PRTPAGE P="2934"/>
                    48 FR 53099 (Nov. 25, 1983). In this rule, FHWA found that a waiver of Buy America requirements for manufactured products was in the public interest, thereby creating the Manufactured Products General Waiver. 48 FR 53102. FHWA stated that product manufacturers did not generally express approval of applying Buy America requirements to manufactured products. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 53101. For those that did, FHWA stated that they were primarily opposed to unfair foreign trade practices. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     Rather than apply Buy America requirements for manufactured products to remedy this concern, FHWA stated that unfair practices could be instead addressed through import laws. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 53102. Further, FHWA determined that it was not the intent of Congress in enacting the 1982 STAA for FHWA to apply a Buy America requirement to manufactured products; FHWA noted that it had consistently waived manufactured products from coverage under Buy America laws and Congress did not specifically direct a change in that policy by enacting the 1982 STAA. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 53101-02. FHWA thus interpreted that to mean that not all manufactured products had to be covered by the Buy America requirements of section 165. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     Finally, FHWA stated that materials and products other than steel, cement, asphalt, and natural materials comprised a small percent of the highway construction program; that other manufactured products were minimally used and there would be little economic effect to applying Buy America requirements to them; and that it would be difficult and administratively burdensome to identify the various materials comprising manufactured products and trace their origin. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 53102.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         FHWA's regulations implementing Buy America have also remained consistent since 1983, apart from reacting to statutory changes by removing a 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        reference to a Buy America requirement for cement (49 FR 18820 (May 3, 1984)) when Congress removed that requirement and adding a reference to a Buy America requirement for iron (58 FR 38973 (July 21, 1993)) after Congress added that requirement.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Build America, Buy America Act</HD>
                <P>On November 15, 2021, the President signed the BIL (Pub. L. 117-58) into law. The BIL includes BABA, which expands the coverage and application of domestic content procurement preferences in Federal financial assistance programs for infrastructure. BIL, div. G sections 70901-70927. Among other requirements, BABA mandates that all iron, steel, manufactured products, and construction materials used in projects supported by funds made available for a Federal financial assistance program for infrastructure be produced in the United States. BABA section 70914. The BABA, however, provides that this mandate applies to iron, steel, manufactured products, and construction materials only to the extent that a domestic content procurement preference that meets the requirements of section 70914 does not already apply. BABA section 70917(a)-(b). As FHWA has an existing statutory Buy America requirement for steel, iron, and manufactured products at 23 U.S.C. 313, BABA's savings provision results in FHWA applying its existing Buy America requirements under 23 U.S.C. 313 to iron, steel, and manufactured products, not the requirements of BABA. FHWA does, however, apply BABA's domestic content procurement preference to construction materials.</P>
                <P>Under BABA, all manufactured products must be “produced in the United States.” BABA section 70914. For manufactured products, BABA defines “produced in the United States” to mean that (1) the manufactured product was manufactured in the United States and (2) the cost of the components of the manufactured product that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States is greater than 55 percent of all components of the manufactured product, unless another standard for determining the minimum amount of domestic content of the manufactured product has been established under applicable law or regulation. BABA section 70912(6)(B).</P>
                <P>
                    The BABA also expresses a general policy preference against general applicability waivers like the Manufactured Products General Waiver. For example, section 70913(c) of BABA requires Federal Agencies to identify “deficient programs,” which includes programs subject to general applicability waivers. Section 70914(d) of BABA also requires Federal Agencies to review existing general applicability waivers by publishing in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     a document that: (i) describes the justification for the general applicability waiver; and (ii) requests public comments on the need for the waiver. Following consideration of comments received, BABA then requires Federal Agencies to publish in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     a determination on whether to continue or discontinue the general applicability waiver. BABA section 70914(d)(2)(B). On March 17, 2023, FHWA initiated the review required by section 70914(d) of BABA for the Manufactured Products General Waiver, publishing in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     at 88 FR 16517 a notice and request for comments on the waiver (“2023 RFC”).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. OMB's Guidance on BABA</HD>
                <P>
                    On August 23, 2023, at 88 FR 57750, OMB revised its guidance in title 2 of the CFR to add a new part 184 that provides additional guidance on implementing BABA.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Part 184 includes definitions for key terms, including iron or steel products, predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, manufactured products, component, and manufacturer. 2 CFR 184.3. In line with section 70912(6)(B) of BABA, 2 CFR 184.3 states that a manufactured product is “produced in the United States” if the product was manufactured in the United States and the cost of components of the manufactured product that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States is greater than 55 percent of the total cost of all components of the manufactured product, unless another standard that meets or exceeds this standard has been established under applicable law or regulation for determining the minimum amount of domestic content of the manufactured product. Part 184 also provides guidance for determining the cost of components of manufactured products. Pursuant to 2 CFR 184.5, in determining whether the cost of components for manufactured products is greater than 55 percent of the total cost of all components, there are two standards depending on the origin of the component. For components purchased by the manufacturer, the cost of the component is the acquisition cost, including transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the manufactured product (whether or not such costs are paid to a domestic firm) and any applicable duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued). 2 CFR 184.5(a). For components manufactured by the manufacturer, the cost of the component is all costs associated with the manufacture of the component, including transportation costs described in 2 CFR 184.5(a), plus allocable overhead costs, but excluding profit and any costs associated with the manufacture of the manufactured product. 2 CFR 184.5(b).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         Throughout this document, references to part 184 refer to both the text in 2 CFR part 184 and the preamble published at 88 FR 57750 in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Part 184 also states that an article, material, or supply should be classified as only either an iron or steel product, manufactured product, construction material, or section 70917(c) material, that the classification must be made based on the status of the material at the time it is brought to the work site for incorporation into an infrastructure project, and that the material must meet 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2935"/>
                    the Buy America standards for only the single category in which it is classified. 2 CFR 184.4(e) and (f). Part 184 defines a section 70917(c) material as cement and cementitious materials; aggregates such as stone, sand, or gravel; or aggregate binding agents or additives. 2 CFR 184.3. These materials are named section 70917(c) materials in 2 CFR part 184 because they are referred to in section 70917(c) of BABA.
                </P>
                <P>As stated earlier, part 184 does not, by its own terms, apply to FHWA's Buy America requirements for steel, iron, and manufactured products; it applies only to FHWA's domestic content procurement preference for construction materials. 2 CFR 184.2(a). Part 184 does, however, apply to all Federal financial assistance programs for infrastructure that are administered by Federal agencies that did not have a domestic content procurement preference for steel, iron, and manufactured products meeting or exceeding BABA's requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    On October 25, 2023, OMB issued memorandum M-24-02, “Implementation Guidance on Application of Buy America Preference in Federal Financial Assistance Programs for Infrastructure” (“OMB Implementation Guidance”).
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Section VI of the Implementation Guidance warns against overly broad waivers, stating that they “undermine market signals designed to boost domestic supply chains, particularly for key articles, materials, and supplies in critical supply chains,” and that “[w]aivers that are overly broad will tend to undermine domestic preference policies.” Section VI also states that public interest waivers of domestic content procurement preferences “must be used judiciously and construed to ensure the maximum utilization of goods, products, and materials produced in the United States.”
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2023/10/M-24-02-Buy-America-Implementation-Guidance-Update.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Notice of Proposed Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>
                    Based on the comments received to the 2023 RFC, and after considering the President's policy, as embodied E.O. 14005, “Ensuring the Future is Made in All of America by All of America's Workers,” to maximize the use of goods, products, and materials produced in the United States; the intent of Congress, as expressed in BABA's preference against general applicability waivers; the purpose and goals of domestic content procurement preferences and waivers; and FHWA's original rationale for issuing the Manufactured Products General Waiver, FHWA proposed to discontinue the Manufactured Products General Waiver and proposed regulatory standards for applying Buy America to manufactured products should the waiver be discontinued. 89 FR 17789 (Mar. 12, 2024).
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         Throughout this document, the NPRM refers to both FHWA's proposal to discontinue the Manufactured Products General Waiver and to propose standards for applying Buy America to manufactured products.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In proposing to discontinue the Manufactured Products General Waiver, FHWA noted that the intent of Congress, as expressed in sections 70933 and 70935 of BABA, and the President's policy for the Federal Government, as expressed in section 1 of E.O. 14005, is that Federal agencies should use terms and conditions in Federal financial assistance awards to maximize the use of goods, products, and materials produced in the United States, which would not be consistent with continuing the Manufactured Products General Waiver. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 17795. FHWA also noted that continuing the waiver would undermine the purposes that domestic content procurement preferences, such as FHWA's Buy America requirement, are intended to serve. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     Further, FHWA considered the Implementation Guidance's policy on waivers, that they should not be overly broad in order to ensure that they appropriately convey market signals on where the domestic supply chain can be bolstered and that they should be time-limited to ensure that, once available, Buy America-compliant materials can receive appropriate consideration for inclusion in federally funded projects. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     Again, FHWA noted that the Manufactured Products General Waiver was inconsistent with these principles. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    FHWA further observed that the Manufactured Products General Waiver was overly broad, disincentivizing manufacturers from domestically producing manufactured products by broadly covering all products, even those that are or could be produced domestically. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 17795-96. Finally, FHWA noted that the waiver fails to provide domestic manufacturers with knowledge of the current gaps in the domestic manufacturing sector by covering all manufactured products, failing to provide market signals that distinguish between manufactured products that are domestically produced and those that are not. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 17796. FHWA observed that this lack of clarity hinders manufacturers who wish to enter the market from understanding the competitive landscape, again disincentivizing them from attempting to provide domestic manufactured products on Federal-aid projects. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     FHWA stated its belief that, in line with OMB's Implementation Guidance, waivers should aim to proactively encourage domestic manufacturing by providing clear market signals about which markets domestic manufacturers can enter with the reasonable expectation that their products could adequately compete for use on Federal-aid projects. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                      
                </P>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, in the NPRM, FHWA stated its belief that the Manufactured Products General Waiver is overly broad, no longer in line with the purpose of domestic content procurement preferences and waivers, and therefore no longer in the public interest. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     FHWA thus proposed to discontinue the Manufactured Products General Waiver. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    In the NPRM, FHWA acknowledged that discontinuing the Manufactured Products General Waiver and applying Buy America requirements to manufactured products may result in cost increases, project delays, and product unavailability if not done carefully. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     To mitigate this concern, FHWA stated that it would consider proposing targeted waivers. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     Accordingly, FHWA published a Request for Information (RFI), seeking specific and detailed information on what products are not and cannot be produced in the United States in the near future. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 17796-97. FHWA stated in the NPRM that, based on the information received from this RFI, it would propose time-limited and targeted waivers covering domestically unavailable products if it would be appropriate to do so. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 17797.
                </P>
                <P>
                    FHWA also stated that were the Manufactured Products General Waiver to be rescinded, manufactured products would fall under the coverage of DOT's “Waiver of Buy America Requirements for De Minimis Costs and Small Grants” (“De Minimis and Small Grants Waiver”). 88 FR 55817 (Aug. 16, 2023). The De Minimis Costs and Small Grants Waiver would then waive the application of FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products under a single financial assistance award for which (1) the total value of non-compliant products is no more than the lesser of $1 million or 5 percent of total applicable costs 
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     for the project (“departmental de minimis waiver”); or (2) the total amount of Federal financial assistance applied to the project, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2936"/>
                    through awards or subawards, is below $500,000 (“small grants waiver”). 88 FR 55820.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         Per the De Minimis Costs and Small Grants Waiver, “total applicable project costs” are defined as the cost of materials used in the project that are subject to a domestic preference requirement, including materials that are within the scope of an existing waiver.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    At the same time as FHWA proposed discontinuing the Manufactured Products General Waiver, the NPRM proposed adopting standards that would define, per the language in 23 U.S.C. 313, when a manufactured product is “produced in the United States.” 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     In doing so, FHWA recognized that while it had the discretion to define Buy America requirements for manufactured products, those standards would have to meet or exceed those under BABA.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                      
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     To minimize burden and ensure consistency with other Federal agencies implementing BABA, FHWA proposed to adopt standards closely similar to those under BABA. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     Thus, FHWA proposed to adopt the definition of when a manufactured product is “produced in the United States” that is found in section 70912(6)(B) of BABA. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     FHWA proposed to replace current § 635.410(c), which discusses the process for requesting a Buy America waiver and the procedures FHWA will take to respond to that request, with a new paragraph that would discuss these Buy America requirements for manufactured products. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 17799.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         Per section 70917(a) and (b) of BABA, BABA's domestic content procurement preferences apply unless a Federal Agency has a domestic content procurement preference that meets or exceeds the requirements of section 70914 of BABA. This means that were FHWA to enact less stringent Buy America requirements to manufactured products than in BABA, both those requirements and BABA's requirements would become effective, essentially raising the requirements to BABA's level of stringency.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Further, FHWA proposed to replace mentions of “steel or iron materials” and “steel and iron materials” in § 635.410(b) with the single phrase of “iron or steel products,” which FHWA proposed to define at § 635.410(c)(1)(ii). FHWA did not otherwise propose to modify the application of the current Buy America requirements to steel and iron in § 635.410(b).</P>
                <P>FHWA received 136 comments to the NPRM and 41 comments to the RFI from State departments of transportation (State DOTs), local governments, manufacturers, associations, and individual citizens. FHWA first discusses comments on the proposal to rescind the Manufactured Products General Waiver.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Rescission of the Manufactured Products General Waiver</HD>
                <P>Many commenters to the NPRM and RFI expressed their opinion on whether FHWA should finalize its proposal to discontinue the Manufactured Products General Waiver. While many of these comments are similar to those submitted to the 2023 RFC and discussed in the NPRM, FHWA summarizes them below.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Comments in Favor of Rescinding the Manufactured Products General Waiver</HD>
                <P>Generally, commenters in favor of recission argued that doing so would have positive economic impacts. These commenters argued that rescinding the waiver would stimulate economic growth, create and protect American jobs, and restore America's manufacturing base. Commenters in favor of rescinding the waiver also stated that doing so would fortify America's domestic supply chains, increasing national security by minimizing dependence on foreign sources and preventing supply chain shocks due to foreign pressures. Such commenters argued that fortifying domestic supply chains may even curb the rising cost of materials.</P>
                <P>Those in favor of rescission further argued that doing so is important to domestic manufacturers and workers, ensuring that taxpayer funds go to U.S. businesses. FHWA received comments from manufacturers stating that they produce manufactured products domestically but have to compete with cheaper foreign products on Federal-aid projects. Commenters stated that, contrary to the current situation, rescinding the waiver would provide domestic manufacturers and workers the first opportunity to supply products on Federal-aid projects. Commenters, particularly manufacturers, also argued that rescinding the waiver would both incentivize domestic manufacturers to onshore production and incentivize current domestic manufacturers and manufacturers who might onshore in the near future to increase their domestic manufacturing capacity. Commenters also indicated that manufacturers may be waiting for regulatory certainty before increasing domestic capacity.</P>
                <P>Other commenters espoused their belief in the benefits of domestically produced products themselves, stating they are of higher quality and manufactured with improved labor and environmental standards versus foreign products. Commenters further argued that domestic manufacturing is likely to spur innovation and the development of new technologies.</P>
                <P>Commenters in favor of rescission further pressed that the Manufactured Products General Waiver is inconsistent with the Administration's priorities, the clear text of 23 U.S.C. 313, and the congressional intent of BABA. With respect to BABA, such commenters argued that the findings in section 70911, the requirement in section 70914 to apply requirements to manufactured products, the definition of “deficient programs” in sections 70912 and 70913(c), and the requirement for Federal agencies to review existing waivers of general applicability in section 70914(d) all indicated congressional disapproval of existing waivers of general applicability like the Manufactured Products General Waiver.</P>
                <P>Finally, commenters in favor of rescinding the Manufactured Products General Waiver argued that it is inconsistent with the purpose of waivers of domestic content procurement preferences. Such commenters stated that waivers of domestic content procurement preferences should be transparent, targeted, time-limited, and used only when necessary; these commenters argued that the Manufactured Products General Waiver is inapposite to these principles as it covers all manufactured products for an indeterminate period of time. Commenters continued that the overbroad nature of the Manufactured Products General Waiver makes the current supply of domestic products unclear, disincentivizing manufacturers from attempting to produce manufactured products domestically.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Comments in Favor of Continuing the Manufactured Products General Waiver</HD>
                <P>Some commenters in favor of continuing the Manufactured Products General Waiver expressed opposition to domestic content procurement preferences entirely, stating that they run counter to free trade agreements and negatively affect the economies of countries that use them.</P>
                <P>For those specifically suggesting that FHWA maintain the Manufactured Products General Waiver, many argued that there will be an insufficient number of Buy America-compliant manufactured products, either because of a lack of current supply or because the current supply would be insufficient given the increased demand for compliant products that would result if the waiver were rescinded. Some commenters suggested that some products and components may never be able to be produced domestically, due, for example, to a lack of domestic raw materials or prohibitive environmental regulations.</P>
                <P>In comments to the NPRM and RFI, commenters expressed particular concern over the domestic availability of certain products, as listed below.</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• luminaires (including light-emitting diode (LED) luminaires)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• LED lighting systems</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    • road weather information systems
                    <PRTPAGE P="2937"/>
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• bridge joints and bearing pads</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• video imaging systems</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• video imaging vehicle detection system</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• closed-circuit television cameras</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• permanent crash cushions</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• generators</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• pumps and other products used in pump stations</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• spread spectrum radios</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• electronic screening equipment</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• electronic message signs</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• rolled erosion control products</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• traffic signals and signal systems  </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• traffic buttons</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• traffic signal controllers</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• traffic cabinets</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• lane use control signals</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• pedestrian crossing beacons</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• traffic sensors</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• other products in traffic management systems</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• environmental sensors</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• avalanche control systems</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• aeration equipment</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• battery backup systems</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• retroreflective sheeting</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• ultraviolet disinfection equipment</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• crossarms and crossarm braces</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• railroad ties</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• railroad spikes and other supports</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• precast concrete</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• rolling stock</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• various other ITS technologies and electrical equipment</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• various other information communication technologies and network communication devices</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• various pieces of utility equipment</FP>
                <P>FHWA notes, however, that some products commenters described as being unavailable domestically were described by others as being available. FHWA also notes that it has not made any determinations on whether these items would be considered manufactured products under the standards promulgated in this final rule, and that some could be classified as iron or steel products or construction materials, or as components of manufactured products, rather than manufactured products themselves. FHWA discusses how to determine the classification of a single item below in the analysis of § 635.410(c)(2).</P>
                <P>Commenters also argued that rescinding the waiver would increase the cost of manufactured products and the cost of the projects using them. Commenters generally stated that this cost increase would be caused by reducing the supply of manufactured products that could be used on Federal-aid projects by removing the ability to use foreign products. Commenters also indicated that costs may increase if imposing Buy America requirements for manufactured products limited the number of compliant manufacturers to the point where monopolies for certain products formed. Commenters also argued that foreign products are, on average, less costly than domestically produced products, noting that, otherwise, domestic products would already be used in Federal-aid projects and Buy America requirements would be unnecessary. Further, commenters argued that the imposition of Buy America requirements on manufactured products may incentivize manufacturers to use more expensive domestic components to ensure that their products meet the 55 percent requirement. Certain commenters also stated that project costs would increase from higher bid prices due to contractors pricing the risk of not procuring compliant manufactured products into their bids. Other commenters raised concern that project costs may increase because there would be fewer bidders, as some contractors may not place bids if they are unsure about procuring compliant products.</P>
                <P>Commenters also raised concerns about the increased costs that imposing Buy America requirements on manufactured products may cause to contractors and manufacturers. Commenters stated that costs to contractors could increase from a lack of compliant products, producing delays that could result in increased incidental costs and the costs of repeated demobilization and mobilization. Similarly, commenters also raised concern over the imposition of penalties related to contract administration if contractors were unable to acquire compliant products. Other commenters stated that the imposition of requirements would require manufacturers to redevelop, redesign, and resource their products, all of which trigger increased costs.</P>
                <P>Commenters also questioned whether the new requirements would increase the amount of domestically manufactured products at all. Such commenters contended that manufactured products make up a minor portion of the total material cost of Federal-aid projects, which they alleged indicated that the market for any Buy America-compliant manufactured products may be too small to incentivize onshoring. In addition, these commenters argued that products that would be Buy America-compliant may not be competitive in the global market, further reducing the incentive for manufacturers who compete internationally to onshore production. In short, these commenters stated that manufactured products are not used in Federal-aid projects in large enough quantities to justify the additional costs that they alleged would be triggered by imposing Buy America requirements on manufactured products.</P>
                <P>In addition, commenters in favor of retaining the Manufactured Products General Waiver argued that removing the waiver and imposing Buy America requirements on manufactured products may cause project delay or cancellation. Such commenters argued that reducing the supply of products that could be used on Federal-aid projects is likely to create material shortages. If a Buy America-compliant product is unavailable, commenters warned that contracting agencies would need to either acquire a waiver to procure a non-compliant product, which would require time and cost to try to procure; wait for the product to be produced domestically; or redesign the project. Commenters also noted the delay in developing projects that would result from the time needed for contracting agencies to modify contract specifications and bid documents, for contractors to prepare bids based on the new requirements, and for manufacturers to produce sufficient amounts of compliant products.</P>
                <P>Commenters also raised concerns that imposing Buy America requirements on manufactured products may hinder the ability of contracting agencies and contractors to change project design or scope quickly, given the inability to turn to foreign products. Similarly, manufacturers presented concerns that imposing requirements would prevent them from being able to quickly switch to foreign suppliers if required by circumstances.</P>
                <P>
                    Overall, many commenters opposing removing the Manufactured Products General Waiver and imposing Buy America requirements on manufactured products argued that doing so would result in fewer projects or projects of lesser quality. These commenters alleged that by making projects more costly and causing increased project delays and potential cancellations, imposing Buy America requirements on manufactured products would result in contracting agencies being able to complete fewer projects. This would then eliminate the benefits such projects would otherwise bring, such as safety, quality of life, sustainability, resiliency, and economic development improvements. Commenters also argued that imposing requirements may result in modifications to projects that would reduce their benefits, stating that contracting agencies and contractors may attempt to avoid using manufactured products on projects to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2938"/>
                    avoid triggering the new requirements. In addition, commenters complained that imposing Buy America requirements on manufactured products would exacerbate the current obstacles facing the construction industry, such as the unavailability of certain products, supply chain disruptions, inflation and other price increases, and labor shortages.
                </P>
                <P>Another common criticism raised by commenters involved the administrative burden of ensuring compliance with new requirements. Commenters protested the time and difficulty they thought would be needed to trace the origin and cost of components, particularly on smaller companies and disadvantaged business enterprises. Commenters also raised concerns that it may be laborious to identify the cost and origin of components as manufacturers may not know this information, have an incentive to provide this information, or want to provide detailed and potentially proprietary information on their products. These commenters further argued that this process of identifying components would be unduly burdensome when purchasing products from third parties. Commenters also raised the concern that, because the proposed Buy America standards require that more than 55 percent of components, by cost, must be produced in the United States, the fluctuation in the cost of components may result in sudden changes to whether a product is compliant. Other commenters raised concerns over the administrative burden to test and reevaluate new, compliant products. In general, commenters argued that these concerns are particularly heightened because parties are still adjusting to the burden caused by the addition of BABA's construction material requirements.</P>
                <P>A different set of concerns was raised by commenters who procure manufactured products for both Federal-aid projects and other projects. In general, many of these commenters stated that their process was to procure manufactured products in large quantities to be used for later projects, some of which may be federally funded but some of which might not be. Such commenters stated that imposing Buy America requirements on manufactured products would likely require them to procure products on a project-specific basis, which would increase costs and cycle times; purchase only Buy America-compliant products, which may result in the compatibility concerns described below; or maintain inventories of both Buy America-compliant and non-compliant products. These commenters stated that this last option would result in more variability, necessitating increased training and knowledge to complete common maintenance, repair, and replacement functions and to manage infrastructure. Commenters also expressed concern that procuring compliant and non-compliant products would require more physical space to house and segregate the products.</P>
                <P>Those in favor of retaining the Manufactured Products General Waiver also expressed concern that domestic components and products will not be compatible with currently used components, products, and systems. These commenters warned that a lack of compatibility between existing non-compliant components, products, and systems and compliant components and products may necessitate the complete replacement of products or systems when a component or product has to be replaced. Commenters also argued that imposing requirements on manufactured products may prevent entities from using specialized products that are necessary to meet regulatory requirements or required specifications if such products are not domestically produced.  </P>
                <P>Other commenters that were in favor of maintaining the Manufactured Products General Waiver, contrary to those in favor of rescinding the waiver, argued that foreign products may be of higher quality than domestic products, have a track record of quality that domestic products lack, be more technologically advanced or innovative, or have reduced environmental impacts. Commenters raised particular concerns that, in order to meet the proposed Buy America requirements, manufacturers may opt to incorporate lower-quality domestic components into their products. Commenters warned that imposing requirements on manufactured products may also stifle economic development of manufacturers, leading to job loss.</P>
                <P>Finally, commenters argued that the problems with imposing Buy America requirements to manufactured products would not be solved through the application of the De Minimis and Small Grants waiver. These commenters stated that projects procuring manufactured products may not be covered by the De Minimis and Small Grants waiver because the project heavily involves the procurement of manufactured products or the procurement of manufactured products is itself the focus of the project, or because the project simply is of too large a scale. Commenters also criticized the burden needed to track the costs of materials for purpose of the departmental de minimis waiver, particularly for utilities.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. FHWA Response</HD>
                <P>FHWA again notes that many of the comments received to the NPRM reflect the same concerns commenters made in response to the 2023 RFC. As stated in the NPRM, FHWA does not believe they reflect justified reasons to continue the Manufactured Products General Waiver without change. In general, these comments do not reflect concern over rescinding the Manufactured Products General Waiver entirely, but the effect such rescission may have on specific products or categories of products if rescission of the waiver results in them not being domestically produced in sufficient quantities. For instance, FHWA does not believe that commenters claiming that there will not be sufficient numbers of Buy America-compliant products justifies retaining the waiver; it, instead, calls for manufacturers, recipients of FHWA financial assistance, and FHWA to work together to identify the products that are not in fact domestically manufactured in sufficient amounts and for FHWA to issue waivers for those products. As described in more detail in section V, below, FHWA intends to mitigate this concern by phasing in the requirements of this rule, analyzing which products and categories of products may require waivers, and issuing waivers if appropriate.</P>
                <P>To take another example, while FHWA understands that some Buy America-compliant manufactured components and products will not be compatible with existing components, products, and systems, FHWA does not find this a sufficient reason to continue the Manufactured Products General Waiver in its entirety, given that the Manufactured Products General Waiver sweeps much more broadly than just products that are replacing existing products and systems. This may be a reason to consider granting a product-specific waiver, but FHWA does not believe it justifies maintaining the Manufactured Product General Waiver's coverage of unrelated products. Similarly, FHWA does not believe that the fact that some entities may use specialized products or that some specific products may be preferred by entities justifies retaining the Manufactured Product General Waiver for unrelated products; they, at best, are reasons for considering waivers for specific products when these specific occurrences arise.</P>
                <P>
                    Similarly, many commenters argued that because domestic manufacturers 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2939"/>
                    will not spring up to provide Buy America-compliant products and components, removing the Manufactured Products General Waiver will result in negative consequences, such as higher costs, reduced flexibility, and potential project delays and cancellations. FHWA does not believe that this concern justifies maintaining the Manufactured Products General Waiver; it suggests that were domestic manufacturers not to emerge, FHWA should consider issuing waivers for products of limited domestic availability. Again, as described in more detail in section V, FHWA believes it important to first consider the impacts of this final rule on manufacturers before issuing any waivers. As provided in E.O. 14005 and section 70911 of BABA concerning the benefits of Buy America in general, this rule will provide a powerful incentive for manufacturers to onshore production that does not currently exist under the Manufactured Products General Waiver. During the transition period before the new Buy America requirements for manufactured products become effective, FHWA will be able to more fully analyze the extent of this onshoring. In the event that a market for some manufactured products does not develop, FHWA will be able to identify those products and consider waivers accordingly.
                </P>
                <P>Overall, FHWA does not believe that these arguments answer FHWA's concern, discussed in the NPRM, that the Manufactured Products General Waiver is overly broad and no longer in line with the purpose of domestic content procurement preferences and waivers. Instead, they suggest either that commenters believe that no categories of manufactured products will ever be domestically produced in sufficient quantities or that commenters believe that the overbroad nature of the Manufactured Products General Waiver is justified because of the issues that specific products or categories of products may face when complying with Buy America requirements.</P>
                <P>Based on comments from manufacturers who currently produce domestic products and who stated that they would increase capacity if the waiver were rescinded, FHWA believes that at least some manufactured products will be domestically produced in sufficient quantities. Further, FHWA does not believe that continuing the overbroad Manufactured Products General Waiver is necessary because of the difficulties some products or categories of products may face in complying with Buy America requirements. FHWA understands the concern that some products may not be domestically available; FHWA further believes this concern is heightened for certain ITS and other electronic products, utility products, and products used in railroad work. As stated in the NPRM, however, FHWA believes that the more preferable approach is to issue waivers, as appropriate, for those products and categories of products. In this way, such targeted waivers can provide manufacturers with insight into market demand that can trigger investments into domestic manufacturing in specific products, which cannot happen under the Manufactured Products General Waiver. FHWA believes that this approach can ensure that manufactured products needed for Federal-aid projects are available while also providing an opportunity to domestic manufacturers who can provide manufactured products to these projects where a waiver is not needed. FHWA discusses its intended process for implementing such waivers, where necessary, in section IV.</P>
                <P>FHWA does recognize that some concerns over removing the Manufactured Products General Waiver and imposing Buy America requirements on manufactured products apply regardless of whether domestic manufacturers ever produce sufficient amounts of domestic products. These include concerns that imposing such requirements is contrary to free trade agreements; that imposing Buy America requirements will inherently increase the cost of all products that are not currently compliant and require manufacturers to redevelop, redesign, and resource their products; that projects may be delayed as parties modify contract specifications and bid documents and contractors prepare bids; and the administrative burden of imposing new requirements.</P>
                <P>Some of these concerns inherently reflect the fact that FHWA is imposing new Buy America requirements on Federal-aid projects. For instance, FHWA believes it apparent that many manufacturers will have to shift to making products compliant with requirements that would otherwise not exist; that contract specifications and bid documents will have to be changed to include new requirements, and that contractors will need time to prepare bids after considering the new requirements; and that the new requirements will pose administrative burden on those responsible with complying with them. FHWA acknowledges the burden that such activities could place on affected parties, but FHWA believes that the overall public interest in the policies behind Buy America (as described in E.O. 14005 and section 70911 of BABA) is better served by considering these issues when determining the date on which to first apply the new Buy America requirements as well as the need for potential future waivers rather than whether to rescind the Manufactured Products General Waiver and impose Buy America requirements at all. Were these concerns sufficient to continue the Manufactured Products General Waiver, the waiver would seemingly be required to remain in effect indefinitely, even if there were sufficient sources of all manufactured products used on Federal-aid projects. FHWA does not believe this can be a sensible outcome. FHWA believes that the better approach is to allow for time for affected parties to set up processes to handle the change in regulatory requirements, which FHWA intends to do by implementing the final assembly and 55 percent requirements over time, as described in more detail below in section V.  </P>
                <P>
                    FHWA also acknowledges, as explained in more detail in the RIA, that rescinding the Manufactured Products General Waiver and applying Buy America requirements to manufactured products may lead to an increase in cost in some products. While the price of products and components may increase, FHWA believes that this is the natural result of achieving the goal of increasing domestic manufacturing, as stated in E.O. 14005 and BABA.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Were domestic products available at the same or a lower price than foreign products, FHWA would expect contracting agencies to purchase domestic products even if no Buy America requirements existed, creating a domestic supply of manufactured products. The fact that commenters indicated that this is not the case demonstrates that contracting agencies procure foreign products because they are less expensive than domestic alternatives. The imposition of domestic content procurement preferences should thus be expected to increase the cost of procuring the projects covered by those preferences. For manufactured products where manufactures onshore production of Buy America-compliant products, FHWA expects that the increase of the cost of the products will occur alongside 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2940"/>
                    the creation of domestic manufacturing jobs. For manufactured products where manufacturers elect not to onshore production, FHWA intends to issue waivers to allow for the continued use of lower-priced foreign products, reducing or eliminating any burden from cost increases. While FHWA cannot determine at this point the extent to which manufacturers will onshore specific products, FHWA believes that this rulemaking will either have no effect on the cost of products or result in both increases in product costs and in increases in domestic manufacturing jobs.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         FHWA does not believe it is likely that manufacturers will use more expensive domestic components than necessary to ensure that their products have 55 percent of components, by cost, be produced in the United States. FHWA believes that such manufacturers would not be competitive in a market with other manufacturers who use less expensive domestic components.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    FHWA also acknowledges commenters who expressed opposition to Buy America requirements on the grounds that such requirements are counter to free trade agreements. Many free trade agreements, such as the United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement (USMCA), expressly exempt grants, loans, cooperative agreements, and other forms of Federal financial assistance from coverage. Other trade agreements, such as the World Trade Organization Agreement on Government Procurement, specifically exclude highway and mass transit projects from coverage. To the extent that FHWA's Buy America requirements would conflict with a trade agreement, FHWA believes that specific situation may justify a waiver of the requirements; FHWA does not believe that it would justify a waiver of Buy America requirements to all manufactured products.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         For instance, the OMB Implementation Guidance states: “If a recipient is a State that has assumed procurement obligations pursuant to the Government Procurement Agreement or any other trade agreement, a waiver of a Made in America condition to ensure compliance with such obligations may be in the public interest.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Finally, FHWA again notes that, once Buy America requirements apply to manufactured products, such products may be exempted by the De Minimis and Small Grants waiver. FHWA acknowledges that the De Minimis and Small Grants waiver will not exempt all manufactured products from Buy America requirements, as that was not the intention of the De Minimis and Small Grants waiver. As stated in the NPRM, the purpose of that waiver is to prevent the recission of the Manufactured Products General Waiver from affecting “small projects and projects using limited amounts of manufactured products.” 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     at 17797.
                </P>
                <P>In conclusion, after a careful review of all the comments received to the 2023 RFC and NPRM, FHWA believes that the Manufactured Products General Waiver is no longer in the public interest and is rescinding it for all recipients of FHWA financial assistance. As discussed in more detail in section V, FHWA recognizes that some products and categories of products may not be currently domestically produced in sufficient amounts. Rather than continue the Manufactured Products General Waiver, FHWA intends to analyze which products and categories of products may require waivers, and issue waivers where appropriate.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. General Comments</HD>
                <P>FHWA next discusses general issues raised by commenters regarding the final rule. Section V then includes a discussion of specific regulatory provisions of the final rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Process for Rescission of Waiver</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                     In the NPRM, FHWA proposed to rescind the Manufactured Products General Waiver and, at the same time, issue time-limited and targeted waivers covering any manufactured products that FHWA determines are not currently produced in the United States and might not be able to be produced in the United States in the near future. Some commenters argued that FHWA should rescind the Manufactured Products General Waiver only when these time-limited and targeted waivers are in place. Others stated that FHWA should institute a delayed effective date for the rescission of the Manufactured Products General Waiver in general, and then set later effective dates for the application of Buy America requirements to particular products. Still other commenters argued for a different model, stating that FHWA should apply Buy America requirements to specific manufactured products based on their availability. Under this approach, FHWA would not set an effective date for the final rule upfront but rather gradually narrow the scope of the Manufactured Products General Waiver as FHWA removes specific manufactured products from its coverage as they become domestically available; FHWA would thus only fully rescind the waiver when suppliers could demonstrate the ability to provide Buy America-compliant versions of all manufactured products used on Federal-aid projects. Other commenters suggested that FHWA should proceed with a stepped approach, first identifying products that are Buy America-compliant and applying Buy America requirements to them, then identifying products that are manufactured in the United States and applying the final assembly requirement to them, and finally identifying products that are manufactured in the United States and meet the 55 percent requirement and apply both the manufactured and 55 percent requirements to them. Other approaches raised by commenters include that FHWA should rescind the waiver for products only when there is a clear basis for expecting the emergence of U.S. sources, that FHWA should prioritize industry use cases and applications that are high value in national security where necessary investments are made domestically, and that FHWA should allow contracting agencies to continue to use existing systems and product sources while requiring them to study and develop a transition plan towards procuring Buy America-compliant products.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     After reviewing the comments, FHWA concludes that the best approach is a transition to the final assembly and 55 percent requirements for Federal-aid projects. FHWA believes that this approach is similar to the approach discussed in the NPRM, where FHWA proposed to issue waivers at the same time as it would rescind the Manufactured Products General Waiver.
                </P>
                <P>While the NPRM indicated that FHWA would issue waivers at the same time as it issued a final rule, FHWA believes, after analyzing the comments received, that it is not necessary to issue waivers at this time. Based on comments received, FHWA recognizes that there are both domestic manufacturers of products used in Federal-aid projects and products for which there are no domestic manufacturers at the moment. For the latter group, FHWA does not believe it necessary to issue waivers at this time, as FHWA believes doing so will negatively affect onshoring that would otherwise be incentivized by the promulgation of this final rule. FHWA believes that by stating that it will impose the final assembly requirement on October 1, 2025, and the 55 percent requirement on October 1, 2026, manufacturers will be incentivized to begin onshoring production.</P>
                <P>
                    FHWA does not believe that it is sensible to continue to apply the Manufactured Products General Waiver but only remove products from its coverage when it is shown that those products are domestically produced in sufficient amounts. Under this approach suggested by many commenters, Buy America requirements would not apply to manufactured products until a domestic market for those products has emerged. FHWA, however, does not believe it reasonable to apply Buy America requirements, which are designed to incentivize domestic production, only after domestic 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2941"/>
                    production has been established. In addition, it is unclear if domestic markets for manufactured products would ever develop in this scenario; commenters did not provide sufficient evidence that manufacturers would onshore production if there were no immediate incentive to do so. FHWA finds it equally likely in such a scenario that the majority of manufacturers would elect not to onshore and that the Manufactured Products General Waiver would apply indefinitely for some products. That is not FHWA's intention; while there may be some manufactured products that require time-limited, targeted waivers, FHWA believes that those waivers should be granted when the incentive of Buy America requirements has failed to function, not when manufacturers have chosen to continue producing products abroad because FHWA has actively chosen to weaken that incentive.
                </P>
                <P>FHWA disagrees with commenters that it should only apply the final assembly and the 55 percent requirement to products when they are shown to meet them. For the same reasons stated above, FHWA believes that doing so removes the incentive for manufacturers to comply with the requirements. FHWA believes that Buy America requirements should apply to all manufactured products unless it can be shown that the specific products or categories of products require a waiver based on the conditions in 23 U.S.C. 313(b).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Transition Period for Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     In the NPRM, FHWA sought comment on whether a transition period would be needed for its proposed Buy America requirements for manufactured products. This transition period would provide time between the publication of the final rule and the date on which the Buy America requirements for manufactured products would come into effect, requiring them to be produced in the United States. If commenters believed such a period was necessary, FHWA requested comment on what commenters believed the effective date of the proposed Buy America requirements should be.
                </P>
                <P>A small number of commenters argued that FHWA should not provide any sort of transition period, and that the proposed Buy America requirements should be effective immediately when the final rule became effective. These commenters argued that the Manufactured Products General Waiver was in effect for over 40 years, so it was necessary to act expediently to avoid continuing what these commenters viewed as its negative effects. These commenters also stated that BABA was enacted in November 2021, so affected parties had time to prepare for the imposition of Buy America requirements to manufactured products. Finally, these commenters argued that affected parties had additional time to prepare for the imposition of Buy America requirements to manufactured products as DOT and other Federal agencies employed various phase-in waivers for BABA's requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    Other commenters suggested that FHWA provide a transition period for the imposition of Buy America requirements for all manufactured products, with commenters presenting various lengths that they believed were appropriate. Two commenters suggested a period of 180 days, one commenter suggested a transition period of 6 months, one commenter suggested a period of 9 months, four commenters suggested a period of 1 year, one commenter suggested a period of 1 year after FHWA puts in place any product-specific waivers, six commenters suggested a period of 18 months, one commenter suggested a period of between 18 and 24 months, one commenter suggested a period of 2 years, one commenter suggested a period of 2 years for Federal awards obligated after the effective date of the final rule, one commenter suggested a period of 30 months, seven commenters suggested a period of 3 years, one commenter suggested a period of 38 months, one commenter suggested a period of 4 years, and two commenters suggested a period of 5 years.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, one commenter suggested that the Manufactured Product General Waiver should be continued for at least a few more years and another suggested that FHWA should delay implementation of any requirements for 3 to 5 years.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         In addition, one commenter stated that FHWA should withdraw its proposed rule and continue its general applicability waiver for eighteen months and another commenter stated that FHWA should review the Manufactured Products General Waiver after 5 years. As neither commenter indicated that FHWA would rescind the Manufactured Products General Waiver at the end of these time periods, FHWA does not view these comments as commenting on a proposed transition period, but rather comments arguing that FHWA should continue the Manufactured Products General Waiver. FHWA's response to comments arguing to continue the Manufactured Products General Waiver can be found in section IV.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         Other commenters stated what they believed the effective date should be for specific categories of manufactured products. While useful in providing information on the necessity of waivers for those specific products, FHWA does not believe it appropriate to base the effective date of imposing Buy America requirements on all manufactured products on the effective date for specific products.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Commenters gave various reasons for why they believed a transition period was necessary. These include that DOT imposed a phase-in period for BABA's construction material requirements; 
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     that other Federal agencies imposed a phase-in period for BABA's requirements; the time required for FHWA to formulate, review, and approve any product-specific waivers, including the time for FHWA to determine which products used on Federal-aid projects are BABA-compliant and conduct market research on those that are not; the time required for FHWA to provide any guidance on the new requirements; the time required for manufacturers, contractors, and contracting agencies to determine if the products they manufacture and use are compliant with the new requirements; the time for manufacturers, contractors, and contracting agencies to update and modify their current Buy America processes, including the time to set up systems for compliance, train personnel and other stakeholders on the new requirements and processes, rewrite standard specifications, materials lists, and bid documents, and modify any guidance documents; the time for manufacturers to onshore domestic production of manufactured products and components, including the time for manufacturers to exit long-term leases, contracts, and other obligations manufacturers might have overseas, establish domestic manufacturing sites and supply chains, redesign products, test and certify products; the time for manufacturers to produce a sufficient amount of compliant products to have on hand; the time for project designers to incorporate the new Buy America requirements into future projects; the time for affected parties to understand and process how the new requirements will impact the design, construction, and costs of future projects; the time for contracting agencies to test and approve newly designed manufactured products; the time for contracting agencies and contractors to identify new vendors and adjust any product occurs; the time for affected parties to consume their stock of existing manufactured products and retire existing contractual agreements; and the time for contracting agencies and contractors to stockpile materials.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         87 FR 31931 (May 25, 2022), issuing a general waiver of the BABA requirements for DOT-funded programs for a period of 180 days.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     After reviewing the comments received, FHWA believes that a transition period is necessary for the reasons identified by commenters to implement the new Buy America requirements, and FHWA thus disagrees 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2942"/>
                    with commenters arguing against the imposition of any such period. While FHWA understands the urgency some commenters feel to rescind the Manufactured Products General Waiver, FHWA believes it must do so with consideration of the issues raised by commenters to ensure that affected parties are ready to apply Buy America requirements to manufactured products used on Federal-aid projects. Further, FHWA does not believe that the fact that BABA was enacted in November 2021 and that other Federal agencies have imposed phase-in waivers for its requirements justifies not having a transition period for the imposition of FHWA's Buy America requirements. While BABA was enacted in November 2021, FHWA has been consistent in stating that, due to section 70917(a)-(b), BABA's manufactured product requirements do not apply to Federal-aid projects.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     FHWA thus does not believe it reasonable to now state that contracting agencies, contractors, and manufacturers should have been preparing for the implementation of Buy America requirements on manufactured products on Federal-aid projects because BABA applied a domestic content procurement preference to manufactured products on projects funded by other agencies.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Similarly, FHWA does not find it reasonable to believe that contracting agencies, contractors, and manufacturers should have been preparing for the implementation of Buy America requirements on manufactured products on Federal-aid projects during transitional waivers granted by other agencies for other programs.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.fhwa.dot.gov/construction/contracts/buyam_qa_baba_pre10232023.cfm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         FHWA recognizes that there may be entities that produce or utilize products in some projects that are covered by FHWA's Buy America statute and in other projects that are covered by BABA or Buy America requirements applicable to other DOT agencies. Indeed, FHWA believes that one of the benefits of imposing Buy America requirements on manufactured products that are similar to the requirements in BABA is the uniformity provided to contracting agencies, contractors, and manufacturers. At the same time, FHWA believes, based on the comments received to the NPRM, that contracting agencies, contractors, and manufacturers that are involved in Federal-aid projects have not completely shifted their processes and production of products used on Federal-aid projects to be BABA-compliant. Thus, while uniformity may provide some benefits to certain entities and products in the future, FHWA believes that there is a current lack of uniformity. In short, FHWA does not believe that the transition period given for BABA should be thought of as serving as a transition period for FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In determining the appropriate time to apply the new Buy America requirements, FHWA carefully reviewed the different periods suggested and the reasoning behind them. Based on this review, FHWA believes that it is appropriate to have a longer transition period for the 55 percent requirement than the final assembly requirement, given that many of the reasons provided by commenters for why a transition period is needed do not apply or apply with less force to the imposition of the final assembly requirement. For instance, determining whether a product is manufactured in the United States is much simpler and clearer than determining whether more than 55 percent of its components, by cost, are produced in the United States. Similarly, FHWA expects the time for manufacturers to shift production to be compliant with the final assembly requirement to be much less than the time needed to be compliant with the 55 percent requirement, which requires shifting supply chains and component manufacturing to the United States. Further, FHWA does not believe that a manufacturer's decision to shift manufacturing products from overseas to the United States will impact the product itself to the same degree as changing the source of the product's components; thus, FHWA does not believe that requiring products to be manufactured in the United States will result in the same effects to project development that the 55 percent requirement may.</P>
                <P>At the same time, FHWA recognizes that even imposing this final assembly requirement will require contracting agencies, contractors, and manufacturers to devote time to modifying their processes to account for this new requirement. FHWA acknowledges that these parties may be required to update standard specifications, material lists, and bid documents; modify guidance documents; and identify new vendors that can provide products meeting the final assembly requirements. After considering the range of transition periods suggested by commenters and the reasoning behind those dates, FHWA believes it appropriate to apply the final assembly requirement for Federal-aid projects on October 1, 2025. While this is on the lower end of the range of dates suggested by commenters, FHWA notes that commenters suggested ranges for the transition periods of both the final assembly and 55 percent requirements. As FHWA believes that many of the concerns raised by commenters reflect more heavily concerns with implementing the 55 percent requirement, FHWA believes that a choice on the lower end of the suggested range is appropriate. Based on the comments received, FHWA believes that this will provide time for contracting agencies, contractors, and manufacturers to be prepared for the imposition of the final assembly requirement with minimal disruption to the construction of Federal-aid projects. Simultaneously, FHWA believes that this date will provide an incentive for manufacturers to begin moving final assembly of manufactured products to the United States.</P>
                <P>At the same time, FHWA recognizes that some manufacturers may not ultimately move final assembly of their products to the United States and that domestic companies may not emerge that manufacture certain products in the United States. For that reason, from the effective date of this rule to October 1, 2025, FHWA will monitor the status of the domestic market of manufactured products that can comply with the final assembly requirement. Based on FHWA's analysis, FHWA may choose to delay the start date for the final assembly requirement by issuing a temporary waiver of the final assembly requirement for manufactured products if more time is needed to onshore domestic production; however, FHWA maintains that it is important for this rulemaking to send out a clear market signal to begin that process of onshoring, even if it takes longer than FHWA currently expects. While commenters suggested a shorter transition period before imposing the final assembly requirement may be possible, such a shorter period may not provide FHWA time to properly monitor changes in the market and adjust accordingly.</P>
                <P>
                    FHWA believes that a longer transition period is necessary before imposing the 55 percent requirement. Based on the range of comments received on the preferred duration of a transition period, from 6 months to 5 years, FHWA finds it reasonable to begin the 55 percent requirement for Federal-aid projects on October 1, 2026. At this point, starting on October 1, 2026, manufactured products permanently incorporated into Federal-aid projects will need to comply with both the final assembly and 55 percent requirements. FHWA believes that a transition period ending on September 30, 2026, for the 55 percent requirement, which also serves as a transition period for the full imposition of FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products, reflects the general middle ground of dates suggested by commenters. FHWA believes that a shorter transition period may not give contracting agencies, contractors, and manufacturers time to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2943"/>
                    adjust to the new requirements. Conversely, FHWA believes that a longer transition period may not send the proper market signals to manufacturers to incentivize them to begin onshoring as soon as they are able to. FHWA believes that the transition period should reflect the minimum amount of time for affected parties to ready themselves for the new requirements. While some parties may desire a longer timeframe, FHWA believes that transition period through September 30, 2026, before imposing the 55 percent requirement provides this minimum amount of time.
                </P>
                <P>FHWA nonetheless will monitor the status of the domestic market and the progress contracting agencies, contractors, and manufacturers are making to ready themselves for the imposition of the 55 percent requirement. FHWA may modify the start date of the 55 percent requirement based on information received by issuing a temporary, time-limited waiver of its Buy America requirements for manufactured products. In addition, prior to imposing the 55 percent requirement, FHWA intends to continue to perform market research, analyzing the effects issuance of this final rule has on the domestic market for manufactured products and listening to affected parties, including any parties requesting prospective waivers of the 55 percent requirement. Based on that research and considering the comments to the RFI and any future RFIs, FHWA may propose targeted waivers covering products that do not meet the 55 percent requirement prior to those requirements taking effect.</P>
                <P>As discussed in more detail below, the start date for the final assembly and 55 percent requirements being promulgated in this final rule means that all Federal-aid projects obligated on or after those dates are subject to the applicable requirements.</P>
                <P>FHWA emphasizes that while the final assembly requirement does not begin until October 1, 2025, and the 55 percent requirement does not begin until October 1, 2026, the other regulatory changes in this final rule become operative for all Federal-aid projects obligated on or after March 17, 2025. This means that for all Federal-aid projects obligated on or after March 17, 2025, all iron or steel products, as defined in § 635.410(c)(1)(iii), must comply with FHWA's Buy America requirements for steel and iron in § 635.410(b). This also means that, for all Federal-aid projects obligated on or after March 17, 2025, per § 635.410(c)(2), articles, materials, and supplies should be classified as an iron or steel product, a manufactured product, or another product as specified by law or in 2 CFR part 184; an article, material, or supply must not be considered to fall into multiple categories. In other words, starting for all Federal-aid projects obligated on or after March 17, 2025, all iron or steel products must comply only with § 635.410(b) and all manufactured products must comply only with § 635.410(c), with the final assembly and 55 percent requirements taking effect later.</P>
                <P>In addition, for Federal-aid projects obligated on or after October 1, 2025, manufactured products must comply with the final assembly requirement, and for Federal-aid projects obligated on or after October 1, 2026, manufactured products must generally comply with both the final assembly and 55 percent requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    As stated in the NPRM, FHWA does not intend for these new Buy America requirements to supplant current FHWA waivers that cover specific manufactured products. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     89 FR 17798. As noted in the NPRM, FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products are substantively similar to those in FHWA's Electric Vehicle (EV) Charger Waiver, which waives FHWA's Buy America requirements to EV chargers under certain circumstances.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, the EV Charger Waiver waives FHWA's Buy America requirements for EV chargers manufactured on or after March 23, 2023, and before July 1, 2024, if final assembly of the charger occurs in the United States and installation of the charger began by October 1, 2024. The EV Charger Waiver further waives FHWA's Buy America requirements for EV chargers manufactured on or after July 1, 2024, if final assembly of the charger occurs in the United States and more than 55 percent of the charger's components, by cost, are manufactured in the United States. For all EV chargers covered by the waiver, if the charger's housing is predominantly iron or steel, it is not covered by the EV Charger Waiver and that housing must meet FHWA's existing Buy America requirements for steel and iron.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         Waiver of Buy America Requirements for EV Chargers, 88 FR 10619, February 21, 2023.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Presently, EV chargers covered by the EV Charger Waiver should either have already begun installation or be compliant with both the final assembly and 55 percent requirements. FHWA does not intend for its imposition of Buy America requirements to all manufactured products through this rulemaking to require EV chargers that have already begun installation to be pulled out of the ground, nor to set less stringent Buy America requirements on EV chargers than those that already exist under the EV Charger Waiver. FHWA therefore intends the EV Charger Waiver to continue to apply to EV chargers procured in FHWA funded projects, not the requirements and transition period set in this final rule. FHWA nonetheless notes that, for projects obligated on or after October 1, 2026, the requirements that apply to EV chargers and those that apply to other manufactured products will effectively be the same.</P>
                <P>In addition, besides manufactured products covered by existing FHWA waivers, per § 635.410(c)(2)(i) and (ii), precast concrete products classified as manufactured products using the definition in § 635.410(c)(1)(iv) and ITS and other electronic hardware systems that are installed in the highway right of way or other real property and classified as manufactured products using the definition in § 635.410(c)(1)(iv) are subject to requirements on a different timeline than other manufactured products. For precast concrete products classified as manufactured products, components of the precast concrete products that consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, as defined in § 635.410(c)(1)(vi), must continue to comply with FHWA's existing Buy America requirements for iron and steel at § 635.410(b) in every Federal-aid project. Precast concrete products will then have to additionally comply with the final assembly requirement and the 55 percent requirement for Federal-aid projects obligated on or after October 1, 2026. This same timeframe applies to the application of the requirements in § 635.410(c)(2)(ii). The cabinets or other enclosures of ITS and other electronic hardware systems that are installed in the highway right of way or other real property and classified as manufactured products per § 635.410(c)(1)(iv) that consist predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both, as defined in § 635.410(c)(1)(vi), must continue to comply with FHWA's existing Buy America requirements for iron and steel at § 635.410(b) in all projects. The systems must then additionally comply with the final assembly requirement for Federal-aid projects obligated on or after October 1, 2025, and the 55 percent requirement for Federal-aid projects obligated on or after October 1, 2026.</P>
                <P>
                    FHWA discusses the requirements in § 635.410(c)(2)(i) and (ii) in more detail below. FHWA notes that the specified steel and iron components of these products should currently be compliant 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2944"/>
                    with FHWA's existing Buy America requirements for iron and steel if they are used on Federal-aid. FHWA is therefore continuing its existing requirements for these products and components without break, and FHWA is not adding any additional requirements in this respect.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Effect on Projects in Development</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     In the NPRM, FHWA sought comment on whether there should be a buffer period for certain projects that are in development that have not had Federal awards obligated or authorized but have relied on the Manufactured Products General Waiver in project development. FHWA notes that this is distinct from the question regarding the transition period for the new Buy America requirements. The issue of the effect of rescission on projects in development concerns which projects, at the start of imposition of the final assembly requirement and later the 55 percent requirement, are subject to those requirements based on their developmental status at the time.
                </P>
                <P>Commenters presented various views regarding what they believed was the appropriate point in project development to apply the new Buy America requirements for manufactured products. Some commenters suggested that the requirements should not apply to projects in the design stage at the time the requirements become effective; these commenters argued that doing so would avoid costly redesigns that delay construction and allow project designers to begin designing projects knowing which requirements would apply to those projects.</P>
                <P>Other commenters argued that the requirements should not apply to projects that have already gone out for advertisement or already solicited applications. Such commenters stated that this approach enables bidders and applicants to estimate project costs more accurately and prevents those costs from exceeding application estimates; in addition, these commenters stated that if price is a factor in award selection, this approach avoids reopening advertisements and solicitations and delaying awards. Commenters also stated that this would enable bidders and applicants to evaluate the domestic availability of manufactured products before responding to advertisements or solicitations, allowing the project to avoid delays that might occur if awarded contractors had to search for compliant products or potentially redesign the project. Commenters presented similar reasons for why any new requirements should not apply to projects that have already opened bidding when the new requirements become effective. One commenter argued that the requirements should not apply to projects that have been put out to bid or are put to bid within one year of final agency action, stating that this would allow contracting agencies to rely on the Manufactured Products General Waiver for projects already in the developmental process and avoid the loss of time and money that would occur if they had to be redesigned or rebid.</P>
                <P>Still other commenters argued that any new Buy America requirements for manufactured products should not apply to projects already obligated or authorized at the time the requirements become effective; such commenters stated that this would allow projects to be completed on time without significant cost changes and allow contracting agencies to include appropriate language in their contracts.</P>
                <P>Various commenters also suggested that the new Buy America requirements for manufactured products should not apply to projects already in the procurement phase to prevent unnecessary delays; that they should not apply to contracts already executed; that they should not apply to products already purchased prior to the final rule's effective date; that they should not apply to material procurement contracts for at least eighteen months after the final rule is issued; and that they should not apply to products purchased prior to the start dates of the requirements, provided that they are installed at least twelve months after delivery as parties may have acquired non-compliant products with long lead times.</P>
                <P>Finally, some commenters argued that any new requirements should not apply to projects at any stage in the project development process at the time the new requirements become effective. Commenters favoring this broad approach stated that it would avoid the loss of time and money that would occur if projects had to be redesigned or rebid.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     After carefully reviewing the comments received, FHWA believes that the most appropriate choice is to have the new Buy America requirements for manufactured products apply to all Federal-aid projects obligated after the start dates of the requirements.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This means that Federal-aid projects must comply with the final assembly requirement if obligated on or after October 1, 2025, and must comply with both the final assembly and 55 percent requirements if obligated on or after October 1, 2026. Federal-aid projects that have already obligated FHWA financial assistance before October 1, 2025, do not need to comply with the final assembly or 55 percent requirements. FHWA believes that the point of obligation represents a clear point after which Federal requirements, including Buy America, apply to a project. By applying FHWA's requirements at the point of obligation, FHWA also believes this aligns with the date on which Federal requirements, including FHWA's requirements, are generally triggered for a project. This is in contrast to more nebulous points suggested by commenters, such as the start of project development or design. While FHWA recognizes that some Federal-aid projects may be currently being designed based on the existing Manufactured Products General Waiver, FHWA believes that delaying the start dates of the Buy America requirements on manufactured products will allow changes to be made to those projects, if necessary, during the transition period to minimize disruption.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         FHWA discusses comments on projects using alternate delivery methods below.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Similarly, for Federal-aid projects using advance construction (AC), FHWA believes that the new Buy America requirements for manufactured products should become effective for Federal-aid projects where FHWA approves the AC designation by the applicable start date.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This means that for Federal-aid projects where FHWA approves the AC designation on or after October 1, 2025, the project must comply with the final assembly requirement. For Federal-aid projects where FHWA approves the AC designation on or after October 1, 2026, the project must comply with the final assembly and 55 percent requirements. For Federal-aid projects where FHWA approves the AC designation on or after October 1, 2025, but before October 1, 2026, the project must comply with the final assembly requirement but does not need to comply with the 55 percent requirement.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         Pursuant to 23 U.S.C. 115, AC allows a State DOT to begin work and incur costs that can later be reimbursed with Federal funding after FHWA approves a request to convert the AC from eligible for funding to an obligation to fund and reimburse.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Per 23 U.S.C. 115(a)(2), a project proceeding under AC must generally be in accordance with all procedures and requirements applicable to the project. FHWA accordingly believes that, before requesting AC approval, a State DOT should be aware that the approval for the project will require the project to proceed in accordance with the Federal procedures and requirements generally 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2945"/>
                    applicable to the project, including Buy America requirements for manufactured products. In addition, FHWA believes that the date of AC approval represents a clear point that makes clear to all affected parties which requirements apply to a given project.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Buffer Period for Projects in Development Using Alternate Delivery Methods  </HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     In the NPRM, FHWA also requested comment on the appropriate buffer period, if any, for alternate project delivery methods. These alternative delivery methods are where contracts are awarded and work is authorized and obligated in phases, such as with design-build. Under this delivery method, FHWA may, for instance, obligate funds for the design phase of a project and then later obligate funds for the construction phase of a project.
                </P>
                <P>Commenters presented various arguments as to when any new Buy America requirements for manufactured products should take effect for projects using alternate delivery methods. Some commenters suggested that the requirements should not apply to the physical construction phase if FHWA financial assistance is obligated before the effective date of the new requirements or, similarly, that the requirements should only apply to new awards issued prior to the design and development phase. Other commenters relatedly suggested that the requirements should not apply to projects that have been initiated before the final rule's effective date, using the earliest obligation date for any phase of the project to serve as the date of initiation. Such commenters argued that this would allow projects to continue to rely on the Manufactured Products General Waiver when the project's estimates, designs, and scope have been prepared based on that waiver. Commenters stated that this would also prevent retroactive adjustments after contractors or consultants have been selected, which could otherwise cause delays, and avoid requirements from changing when a project advances from preconstruction to construction. Other commenters suggested that requirements should not apply to projects that have issued a Request for Qualifications (RFQ), stating that this would prevent wasting efforts taken by funding recipients to develop a cost estimate in advance of issuing the RFQ and ensure that the project is delivered as initially envisioned. Other commenters suggested that the new Buy America requirements for manufactured products should not apply to projects using alternate delivery methods when those projects have already entered the procurement phase or should be determined at the contracting officer's discretion.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     FHWA has carefully analyzed the comments regarding alternate delivery methods. FHWA believes that the new Buy America requirements for manufactured products should apply to all Federal-aid projects where a contract providing for both the preconstruction (such as preliminary design under a design-build contract) and construction phases is in place, but the construction phase has not been obligated by the time of this final rule's start dates. In other words, for Federal-aid projects using alternate delivery methods, if the construction phase of the project is obligated on or after October 1, 2025, the project must comply with the final assembly requirement, even if funds have been obligated for preconstruction phases prior to October 1, 2025. Similarly, if the construction phase for a Federal-aid project using alternate delivery methods is obligated on or after October 1, 2026, the project must comply with the final assembly and 55 percent requirements, even if funds have been obligated for preconstruction phases prior to this date.
                </P>
                <P>While FHWA understands the opinion expressed by commenters to allow projects that have been obligated funds for preconstruction work to continue to rely on the Manufactured Products General Waiver if such obligation occurs prior to this rule's start dates, FHWA believes that the focus point should be on the obligation of funds for construction. In addition, FHWA generally believes that the transition period in this final rule should allow many Federal-aid projects currently in design to proceed to construction by the time the new requirements become effective. For Federal-aid projects that do not, the delayed start dates for the requirements will provide the necessary time for changes to occur to prepare for the imposition of the new requirements. FHWA has concerns that allowing Federal-aid projects to be covered by the Manufactured Products General Waiver if they are in preconstruction stages when the final assembly and 55 percent requirements become effective may be used to delay the full application of the new Buy America requirements for manufactured products, allowing foreign products to be purchased even when domestic ones are available. FHWA does not intend to disrupt the progress of projects but also does not intend to continue to allow the Manufactured Products General Waiver continue longer than needed; FHWA believes that allowing Federal-aid projects that have FHWA financial assistance obligated for construction before the start dates of this final rule provides an appropriate middle ground.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Compliance</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     In the NPRM, FHWA stated that it was not proposing any required method of compliance to ease the burden that tracking the origin and cost of components may pose. FHWA requested comment on any specific provisions that it should consider in easing the administrative burden in demonstrating compliance with the Buy America requirements for manufactured products.
                </P>
                <P>Many commenters nonetheless indicated that they desired FHWA to specifically clarify what constitutes compliance, such as what level of detail is required to prove compliance and what penalties FHWA could bring about in cases of noncompliance. These commenters further suggested that FHWA should clearly state who is responsible for tracking and providing information on the compliance of manufactured products. One commenter, however, agreed with FHWA that not prescribing any specific method of compliance will ease administrative burden.</P>
                <P>Commenters desiring FHWA to clarify a specific method of compliance suggested various possible methods. One commenter suggested that FHWA should allow recipients of FHWA financial assistance to rely on a fair inference that a manufactured product meets Buy America requirements, such as by relying on a certification, absent material evidence to the contrary. Other suggested that FHWA should clarify that a certification from a contractor or manufacturer would demonstrate compliance. Some commenters also suggested that FHWA itself should provide certification forms. Other commenters went further, suggesting that FHWA should itself certify manufactured products as compliant or develop a list of manufactured products that are compliant with its standards. Finally, some commenters stated that once a product in a product line is certified as compliant, that certification should cover other products from that product line for a certain period of time.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     After analyzing the comments received on this topic, FHWA believes that commenters did not indicate that they desired FHWA to prescribe a specific form of compliance but rather sought clarification on what might constitute compliance. While not 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2946"/>
                    prescribing any form of compliance, FHWA believes that the manufacturer will be in the best position to certify that a specific product meets these requirements. FHWA notes, however, that recipients of FHWA financial assistance are ultimately responsible for compliance with FHWA's Buy America requirements. FHWA therefore believes that the recipient is in the best position to determine the best form of any certification.
                </P>
                <P>Due to the nature of the Buy America requirements for manufactured products, each product's compliance must be determined individually. Given that the compliance of products might change, FHWA does not believe that it is in a position to certify compliance or have a list of compliant products; a product from one product line may be compliant at one point and that same product may then become non-compliant later in a different product line based on choices made by the manufacturer. Any certification from FHWA would only provide a brief snapshot of a specific manufactured product, which would be minimally helpful for other parties seeking to procure similar products. FHWA instead believes that it is more appropriate for parties to consult with product manufacturers, who are in the best position to provide current information on the compliance of their products.  </P>
                <P>
                    In determining the proper remedy for resolving an after-the-fact discovery of the incorporation of noncompliant manufactured products, FHWA intends to follow the same process as it does for determining the remedy for a discovery of the incorporation of noncompliant iron or steel. FHWA will review relevant information to determine the appropriate resolution, which may include removing the noncompliant products, making the noncompliant products non-participating, or determining that all project costs are ineligible.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Q#48 of FHWA's Buy America Q and A for Federal-aid Program for more information: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fhwa.dot.gov/construction/contracts/buyam_qageneral.cfm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Scope of Buy America Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     In the NPRM, FHWA noted that 23 U.S.C. 313(h) requires FHWA's Buy America requirements to apply to all contracts that are eligible for FHWA assistance, regardless of the funding source for the specific contracts, if any contract within the scope of a finding, determination, or decision under the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) is funded with amounts made available to carry out title 23, U.S.C. In the NPRM, FHWA stated that because of this provision, were FHWA to rescind the Manufactured Products General Waiver and impose Buy America requirements for manufactured products, those Buy America requirements would apply to all contracts eligible for FHWA financial assistance for a project carried out within the scope of the applicable finding, determination, or decision under NEPA so long as one contract for the project is funded with amounts made available to carry out title 23, U.S.C.
                </P>
                <P>Commenters expressed confusion over the scope of FHWA's Buy America requirements under 23 U.S.C. 313(h) versus BABA's domestic content procurement preferences. For instance, commenters suggested that certain manufactured products are not used in infrastructure projects or are not integral to the construction of an infrastructure project and therefore should not be covered by any Buy America requirements. Commenters representing utility companies in particular argued that FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products should not apply to utility relocations, stating that the utility relocation is not an infrastructure project, that the utility company does not receive any Federal funds for the relocation but is only reimbursed for its costs, and that the involvement of the utility company in the project is involuntary.</P>
                <P>Other commenters, particularly those involved in the electric vehicle (EV) charging industry, expressed confusion over how 23 U.S.C. 313(h) functions if the NEPA determination is a categorical exclusion (CE). These commenters suggested that 23 U.S.C. 313(h) would require them to seek a NEPA determination on a project's scope, even though the project is an approved CE, to determine the applicability of Buy America requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     FHWA wishes to clarify that 23 U.S.C. 313(h) represents a unique Buy America provision that is exclusive to FHWA. This provision applies to FHWA's Buy America statute, not other domestic content procurement preferences, such as those in BABA; thus, FHWA's Buy America requirements will be different from those applied by other Federal agencies.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Under 23 U.S.C. 313(h), FHWA's Buy America requirements, including its Buy America requirement for manufactured products, apply not just to the Federal-aid project itself but also to contracts under the scope of the applicable NEPA finding, determination, or decision. This means that a manufactured product does not need to be integral to the Federal-aid project itself to be subject to FHWA's Buy America requirements. For instance, with respect to FHWA's existing Buy America requirements for iron and steel, FHWA has long made clear that 23 U.S.C. 313(h) requires that all utility work eligible for FHWA financial assistance must meet its Buy America requirements for iron and steel, even if FHWA does not fund the utility work.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Given that 23 U.S.C. 313(h) applies to manufactured products to the same extent as it does to iron and steel, FHWA thus believes that it is clear that these new requirements will similarly apply to all utility work eligible for FHWA financial assistance. In other words, a manufactured product must comply with the Buy America requirements if it is permanently incorporated into the Federal-aid project or if it is permanently incorporated as part of work done under a contract within the scope of the applicable NEPA finding, determination, or decision of a Federal-aid project and is eligible for FHWA financial assistance. FHWA discusses the issue of permanent incorporation in more detail below when discussing the introductory text to § 635.410(c).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">https://www.fhwa.dot.gov/utilities/buyam.cfm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>With respect to commenters raising concerns about the applicability of CEs to 23 U.S.C. 313(h), FHWA notes that a CE is a form of a NEPA finding, determination, or decision. FHWA would not require or believe it necessary for a party to seek a further NEPA determination after obtaining an approved CE solely for the purpose of determining the extent of Buy America requirements under 23 U.S.C. 313(h). The CE itself would dictate the scope; all contracts eligible for FHWA financial assistance under the scope of the CE would need to comply with FHWA's Buy America requirements if one such contract received Federal-aid funding.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Section-by-Section Discussion</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 635.410(b)—Recipient</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     FHWA proposed to remove the word “State” in existing § 635.410(b)(2) and (3) and (d) and replace it with the word “recipient.” FHWA also proposed to use the word “recipient” throughout § 635.410(c). One commenter requested that FHWA provide a definition of the word “recipient,” stating that it was unclear whether this term referred to the contracting agency, contractor, manufacturer, or a combination of such entities.
                    <PRTPAGE P="2947"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     For the purpose of the final rule, the word “recipient” in § 635.410(b), which discusses FHWA's Buy America requirements for iron and steel, refers to the recipient of FHWA financial assistance. The change to “recipient” in § 635.410(b) and (d) from “State” is simply meant to reflect that rather than providing funds to States, FHWA also provides discretionary grant funds directly to other entities, such as local governments and metropolitan planning organizations. In addition, FHWA notes that its current Buy America requirements apply to Territorial governments, who receive funding from FHWA through the Territorial Highway Program under 23 U.S.C. 165(c). The definition of “State” for purposes of § 635.410 does not include such Territories, even though such Territories are subject to the same Buy America requirements as States. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     23 CFR 635.403(f); 23 U.S.C. 101(a)(28). In making this change, FHWA does not intend to change the existing practice as it currently applies to States.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 635.410(b)—Iron or Steel Products</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     FHWA proposed to maintain its existing Buy America requirements for steel and iron found in § 635.410(b), with the only change being replacing references to “steel and iron materials” and “steel or iron materials” with the phrase “iron or steel products.” FHWA further proposed to define “iron or steel products” in § 635.410(c)(1)(iii). This change was meant to create a distinction between the category of iron and steel materials and manufactured products that may contain iron and steel. FHWA discusses the effect of this change in further detail when discussing § 635.410(c)(2) below.
                </P>
                <P>With respect to the requirements in § 635.410(b), FHWA received several comments on § 635.410(b)(4), which allows for a de minimis amount of foreign iron and steel to be used in Federal-aid projects. Under this provision, foreign iron and steel can be used in a Buy America-compliant project if the cost of such materials does not exceed 0.1 percent of the total contract cost or $2,500, whichever is greater. Commenters expressed confusion over how this de minimis provision would apply to manufactured products and how it is connected with the departmental de minimis waiver. Other commenters suggested changes to the de minimis provision in § 635.410(b)(4), such as by setting a total contract cost above the current $2,500 figure. Other commenters argued that FHWA should codify the departmental de minimis waiver in the regulatory text, similar to how the de minimis provision is currently codified at § 635.410(b)(4).</P>
                <P>In addition, one commenter stated that the proposed language in § 635.410(b)(1)(ii), that all manufacturing processes for iron or steel products must occur in the United States, could suggest that all manufacturing processes for components of the products that are not made of iron or steel must be domestically produced. This commenter suggested modifying the language to state that “if iron or steel products are to be used, all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel components, including application of a coating, for these materials must occur in the United States.”  </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     FHWA is clarifying that § 635.410(b)(4) only applies to iron or steel products; it does not apply to materials properly classified as manufactured products under § 635.410(c)(1)(iv). The de minimis provision applicable to manufactured products is found in the departmental de minimis waiver. Other comments discussing changes to existing § 635.410(b)(4) or codifying the departmental de minimis waiver in § 635.410 are beyond the scope of this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <P>With respect to changes made to § 635.410(b)(1)(ii), FHWA notes that the current language states that all manufacturing processes for steel or iron materials must occur in the United States. FHWA does not intend for its change in language, from “steel or iron materials” to “iron or steel products” to change the scope of the requirements in § 635.410(b)(1)(ii) with respect to the category of iron or steel products. The intent is for FHWA's current Buy America steel and iron requirements, codified in § 635.410(b), to continue to apply to all steel and iron in a product classified as an iron or steel product. The only functional change FHWA is making in § 635.410(b)(1)(ii) is to distinguish between iron or steel products and manufactured products that contain iron and steel. FHWA also notes that the language used in § 635.410(b)(1)(ii) substantially mirrors the language used in 2 CFR 184.3 to determine when an iron or steel product is manufactured in the United States.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Existing § 635.410(c)</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     In the NPRM, FHWA proposed to replace the current § 635.410(c), which discusses the process for requesting Buy America waivers and the procedures FHWA will take to respond to that request, with a new paragraph detailing FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products.
                </P>
                <P>FHWA received multiple comments expressing concern with removing existing § 635.410(c). Commenters stated their reservations with this approach, arguing that it appeared FHWA was removing the ability for recipients of FHWA financial assistance to request Buy America waivers. These commenters also indicated that FHWA should codify its waiver process in its Buy America regulation, similar to how it is done by OMB in 2 CFR 184.7. Other commenters also expressed dissatisfaction with FHWA's current Buy America waiver process and suggested what they viewed as potential solutions.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     FHWA did not intend for removing current § 635.410(c) to remove the ability for recipients of FHWA financial assistance to request Buy America waivers. The authority for recipients to request waivers is found in 23 U.S.C. 313(b), and FHWA is not altering, nor could it alter, that ability through this rule. As stated in the NPRM, FHWA made the choice to remove existing § 635.410(c) because the current provision is out of date and does not reflect FHWA's current statutory requirements regarding waivers, FHWA's current organizational structure, or FHWA's current procedure for processing waivers. FHWA believes that recipients of FHWA financial assistance understand the current Buy America waiver process and therefore does not believe that codifying this process is necessary.
                </P>
                <P>FHWA also notes that comments on modifying its current waiver process are out of the scope of this rulemaking.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 635.410(c)—Introductory Text</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     In § 635.410(c), FHWA proposed to state that manufactured products used and permanently incorporated in Federal-aid highway construction projects must be produced in the United States. Commenters, particularly those representing the utility industry, questioned what it meant for a manufactured product to be permanently incorporated into a Federal-aid project. These commenters argued that utility infrastructure that is being relocated, replaced, or modified does not become a permanent part of the Federal-aid project because it is being relocated, replaced, or modified only to accommodate project construction. Other commenters also suggested that FHWA should clarify that its Buy America requirements do not apply to existing in-use equipment.
                    <PRTPAGE P="2948"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     FHWA chose the language used in § 635.410(c) for FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products to align with the language currently in § 635.410(b)(1)(i) regarding FHWA's Buy America requirements for steel and iron. FHWA intends for the standard for permanent incorporation of manufactured products to be the same as FHWA currently uses to determine whether steel and iron is permanently incorporated. In other words, FHWA would apply its Buy America requirements to iron, steel, and manufactured products permanently incorporated into Federal-aid projects. The requirements do not apply to steel, iron, or manufactured products used on a temporary basis on Federal-aid projects, meaning when contract specifications provide that the iron, steel, and manufactured products used on the project either must be removed at the end of the project or may be removed at the contractor's convenience. FHWA believes that continuation of this current policy, along with the discussion of 23 U.S.C. 313(h) above, should provide the necessary guidance on whether the relocation, replacement, or modification of utilities constitutes permanent incorporation of the products. In short, any contract or agreement involving utility work that uses any amount of Federal-aid Highway Program funding must comply with FHWA's Buy America requirements, including the new requirement for manufactured products.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.fhwa.dot.gov/utilities/buyam.cfm</E>
                         for more information on the application of Buy America requirements to utility work on projects.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In terms of applicability of the Buy America requirements to manufactured products to existing in-use equipment, FHWA also notes that the final assembly requirement will apply to all Federal-aid projects obligated on or after October 1, 2025, and the 55 percent requirement will apply to all Federal-aid projects obligated on or after October 1, 2026. Where FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products apply, all permanently incorporated manufactured products must be produced in the United States.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 635.410(c)(1)(ii)—Excluded Materials</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     In the NPRM, FHWA defined “excluded materials” as “section 70917(c) materials as defined in 2 CFR 184.3.” Under 2 CFR 184.3, “section 70917(c) materials” are defined as “cement and cementitious materials; aggregates such as stone, sand, or gravel; or aggregate binding agents or additives.” Commenters suggested that FHWA should, instead of cross-referencing to 2 CFR 184.3, provide a definition of the terms “aggregates,” “aggregate binding agents,” and “additives” in the regulatory text of § 635.410.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     As noted in the NPRM, section 70917(c) of BABA does not explicitly comment on whether excluded materials could be considered manufactured products. By providing a definition of excluded materials and then stating in the definition of manufactured products that excluded materials cannot be manufactured products, FHWA seeks to make clear, in alignment with 2 CFR part 184, that excluded materials are not, standing alone, manufactured products. As stated in more detail below when discussing § 635.410(c)(1)(iv), FHWA believes that excluded materials may nonetheless constitute components of manufactured products when combined with other materials, including other excluded materials, to create a manufactured product. In other words, excluded materials may be standalone materials, and this not subject to FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products, or components of manufactured products, and thus the manufactured product would be subject to the final assembly and 55 percent requirement. For manufactured products containing excluded materials as components, the excluded material must be considered in determining whether the manufactured product has more than 55 percent of its components, by cost, produced in the United States.
                </P>
                <P>In terms of determining whether an excluded material is itself not a manufactured product, FHWA views an aggregate as a broad category of particulate matter, such as stone, sand, or gravel. FHWA views aggregate binding agents as materials used to bind together small aggregates, and FHWA views additives as materials added to other materials to improve their properties. FHWA, however, does not believe that a definition more specific than this is necessary for the purpose of this rulemaking; FHWA doubts that aggregates, aggregate binding agents, or additives will generally be considered standalone manufactured products. If such outlier cases occur, FHWA believes they are more appropriately dealt with on a case-by-case basis or through the issuance of future guidance.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 635.410(c)(1)(iii), (vi)—Iron or Steel Products</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     In the NPRM, FHWA defined “iron or steel products” as articles, materials, or supplies that consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both. FHWA further defined “predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both” as a material where the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. Both of these definitions mirror the definitions of the terms in 2 CFR part 184.
                </P>
                <P>Commenters raised concerns regarding the difficulty in evaluating the steel and iron content of products to determine whether those products would be considered manufactured products, and subject to the new Buy America requirements for manufactured products, or iron or steel products, and subject to the existing Buy America requirements for iron and steel. These commenters suggested that it may be difficult for recipients of FHWA financial assistance to determine the cost of the iron and steel content of a product. One commenter suggested that FHWA allow recipients to use another metric, such as weight percentage, to determine how to classify a product, arguing that determining the weight of iron and steel in a product is easier to determine than the cost of the iron and steel.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     FHWA believes that adopting a definition that distinguishes between iron or steel products and manufactured products that contain iron or steel is important to allow contracting agencies, contractors, and manufacturers to understand which requirements apply to a given material. FHWA acknowledges that recipients of FHWA financial assistance may need to consult with manufacturers to determine the cost of a product's iron or steel content. FHWA, however, believes that using the standard proposed, which is the standard under BABA and 2 CFR part 184, provides a single standard that applies to iron or steel products across Federal agencies; this is important to provide certainty to contracting agencies, contractors, and manufacturers regarding the requirements that apply to a given material no matter the Federal agency that is funding the procurement of the material.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 635.410(c)(1)(iv)—Distinguishing Manufactured Products From Other Materials</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     In the NPRM, FHWA proposed to define a manufactured product as an article, material, or supply that has been processed into a specific form and shape, or combined with other articles, materials, or supplies to create a product with different properties than the individual articles, materials, or 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2949"/>
                    supplies. FHWA noted, however, that if an item is classified as an iron or steel product, an excluded material, or other product category as specified by law or in 2 CFR part 184, it should not be classified as a manufactured product.
                </P>
                <P>Commenters expressed confusion about what materials should be classified as manufactured products, with one commenter requesting FHWA to clarify whether FHWA's definition meant that a manufactured product included all permanent materials or products incorporated into a project outside of the categories specifically listed in the definition. Other commenters requested for FHWA to specifically state that certain materials are not manufactured products and therefore not subject to FHWA's Buy America requirements. One commenter requested clarity on the meaning of FHWA's statement in the preamble to the NPRM that “products brought to the work site in an unprocessed or minimally processed state, such as topsoil, compost, and seed, would not be considered manufactured products” and that “non-manufactured or raw materials mixed off of the work site with other non-manufactured or raw materials of similar types would not necessarily result in the mixed material brought to the work site being classified as a manufactured product if it remains in an unprocessed or minimally processed state, such as minimally-processed fill dirt.”</P>
                <P>Other commenters requested that FHWA provide clarity on distinguishing between manufactured products and construction materials. Certain commenters requested that FHWA specifically classify specific products as either a manufactured product or a construction material. Commenters in particular raised concerns over how to classify construction materials that have articles, materials, supplies, or binding agents added to them, as the definition of “construction material” in 2 CFR 184.3 states that minor additions of articles, materials, supplies, or binding agents to a construction material do not change the categorization of the combined material as a construction material. Such commenters requested that FHWA define when a construction material has minor additions and should be classified as a construction material versus when a construction material has non-minor additions and should be classified as a manufactured product. One commenter requested that FHWA provide a list of manufactured products that include construction materials that have undergone non-minor additions for this purpose. Other commenters requested that FHWA clearly state that a product that is a combination of two construction materials should be classified as a manufactured product, not a construction material.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     The definition of “manufactured product” has two steps. First, to be a manufactured product, the material must either (1) be processed into a specific form and shape; or (2) combined with other articles, materials, or supplies to create a product with different properties than the individual articles, materials, or supplies. Like OMB, FHWA finds it necessary to have a positive definition for what constitutes a “manufactured product.” For example, FHWA would not classify a raw material as a manufactured product because it is not manufactured under FHWA's meaning of the term. Raw materials are not (1) processed into a specific form and shape; or (2) combined with other articles, materials, or supplies to create a product with different properties than the individual articles, materials, or supplies.
                </P>
                <P>In terms of determining whether a material is processed into a specific form and shape, FHWA wishes to make clear that some materials, like raw materials, are not processed into a specific form and shape. Alternatively, some products may exist in such a minimally processed state that they should not be considered “processed into a specific form and shape,” such as topsoil, which should not be considered a manufactured product.</P>
                <P>For the purpose of determining whether a material is combined with other articles, materials, or supplies to create a product with different properties than the individual articles, materials, or supplies, FHWA clarifies that some materials may be combined with other materials but produce a product that lacks different properties than the individual materials. For example, a mixture of raw materials in an unprocessed or minimally processed state, such as minimally processed fill dirt, should not be classified as a manufactured product because the fill dirt does not have different properties than its individual components.</P>
                <P>In short, some materials may not be classified as a manufactured product under this first step. A material properly classified as a manufactured product under this first step is then analyzed under the second step of the definition. Under this second step, a material is excluded from classification as a manufactured product if it could also be classified as an iron or steel product, an excluded material, or other product category as specified by law or in 2 CFR part 184. Except for a specific subset of products discussed in § 635.410(c)(2)(i) and (ii), below, FHWA intends for materials to be classified as only one category of material and, based on that classification, only subject to one set of requirements, as applicable to the classification.</P>
                <P>
                    FHWA recognizes that without this second step, certain materials could be viewed as both manufactured products under the first step and as another category, which would make it unclear what requirements applied to that material. For instance, a material could be considered a manufactured product under the first step of the definition but also contain such a high amount of iron and steel to be considered an iron or steel product, such as might be the case for some vehicles. This second step makes clear that such a material is properly classified as an iron or steel product and subject to FHWA's Buy America requirements for iron and steel under § 635.410(b), not FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products under § 635.410(c).
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Similarly, a material that falls under the definition of an excluded material could also be considered a manufactured product under the first step of the definition of “manufactured product,” such as cement. Again, in such a case, such a material would be properly classified as an excluded material, not a manufactured product. As excluded materials are not subject to any Buy America requirements standing alone, such a material would not have any domestic content procurement preference placed on it. To use another example, certain materials classified as construction materials under 2 CFR 184.3 could also be considered a manufactured product under the first step of the definition of “manufactured product,” such as fiber optic cable. Once more, such a material is properly classified as a construction material and is subject to BABA's construction material requirements under 2 CFR part 184, not FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         This rule applies generally to manufactured products. FHWA discusses the specific exceptions to it below when discussing § 635.410(c)(2)(i) and (ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    FHWA acknowledges that, to determine whether a material should be classified as a construction material or manufactured product during this step two, parties need to understand the definition of what constitutes a construction material in 2 CFR 184.3. Per 2 CFR 184.3, a construction material is an article, material, or supply that consists of only one of the following 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2950"/>
                    eight items: non-ferrous metals; plastic and polymer-based products (including polyvinylchloride, composite building materials, and polymers used in fiber optic cables); glass (including optic glass); fiber optic cable (including drop cable); optical fiber; lumber; engineered wood; or drywall. In addition, these eight materials may have minor additions of articles, materials, supplies, or binding agents added to them and remain properly categorized as a construction material. In discussing minor additions in 2 CFR part 184, OMB did not provide a specific definition but instead stated that “Federal agencies should exercise reasonable discretion in applying this term within their respective Federal financial assistance programs for infrastructure.” 88 FR 57767. FHWA does not believe that this rulemaking, which concerns FHWA's requirements for manufactured products under 23 U.S.C. 313, is the proper place to define what constitutes non-minor additions for the purpose of determining whether a material should be considered a construction material; if necessary, FHWA would instead seek to do so through additional guidance.
                </P>
                <P>FHWA notes that a material properly classified as a manufactured product under this two-step definition may include components that, on their own, would be categorized as iron or steel products, excluded materials, construction materials, or other categories of products. FHWA emphasizes that it is the classification of the material itself that determines whether it is a manufactured product versus an iron or steel product, excluded material, or construction material. For example, a traffic light may contain iron and steel components and glass, a construction material, as a component. In determining how to classify the traffic light, the first step is to determine whether the traffic light is processed into a specific form and shape or combined with other articles, materials, or supplies to create a product with different properties than the individual articles, materials, or supplies. The second step is to determine whether the traffic light itself should be classified as an iron or steel product, excluded material, or other product category as specified by law or in 2 CFR part 184. The fact that components of the traffic light might be iron or steel products or construction materials may be relevant to determining the proper classification of the traffic light; for example, if the iron or steel components represent more than 50 percent of the cost of all the traffic light's components, the traffic light should be classified as an iron or steel product. It is important to note, however, that merely containing such iron or steel components and construction materials as components does not mean that the traffic light is automatically classified as an iron or steel product or a construction material. This determination must be made by looking at the specific definition applicable to each category of material.  </P>
                <P>If a material meets the definition of a manufactured product under the first step and is not excluded under the second step, it is properly classified as a manufactured product, unless it is a mixture of excluded materials delivered to a work site without final form for incorporation into a project, as discussed below in the analysis of § 635.410(c)(1)(iv). FHWA reiterates, however, that a material properly classified as a manufactured product is only subject to FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products if the material is permanently incorporated into a Federal-aid project.</P>
                <P>FHWA believes that this guidance should allow contracting agencies, contractors, and manufacturers to properly determine the proper classification of articles, materials, and supplies.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 635.410(c)(1)(iv)—Excluded Materials</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     Under FHWA's definition of a manufactured product, discussed in detail above, an excluded material, by itself, should not be classified as a manufactured product. FHWA stated in the NPRM, however, in alignment with 2 CFR part 184, that excluded materials may constitute a component of a manufactured product when combined with other materials, including other excluded materials. If a manufactured product contains components that are excluded materials, those excluded materials must be considered in determining whether 55 percent of the product's components, by cost, are produced in the United States. FHWA once again, notes, however, that mixtures of excluded materials delivered to a work site without final form for incorporation into a project are not considered manufactured products; comments on this topic are discussed in detail below.
                </P>
                <P>Some commenters expressed opposition to having a combination of excluded materials be classified as a manufactured product. Others expressed opposition to applying a Buy America requirement to excluded materials in any form. One commenter requested that FHWA should make it clear in the final rule that excluded materials do not have a Buy America requirement placed on them.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     FHWA clarifies that, consistent with 2 CFR part 184, an individual item listed in section 70917(c) of BABA that is brought to the work site for permanent incorporation into a Federal-aid project should be classified as an excluded material and not subject to a Buy America requirement. For example, cement brought to the work site for permanent incorporation into a Federal-aid project is not subject to FHWA's Buy America requirements. If the individual excluded material is combined with another excluded material, such as cement combined with aggregates, that combined material should be considered to be a manufactured product, assuming that it means the definition of a manufactured product in § 635.410(c)(1)(iv). In this case, each excluded material (the cement and aggregates) is a component of the manufactured product and must be considered when determining whether 55 percent of the components, by cost, of the product are produced in the United States. On the other hand, an excluded material combined with the same excluded material would remain an excluded material and not be subject to FHWA's Buy America requirements. In short, a Buy America preference may apply to excluded materials as a component of a manufactured product; it cannot apply to an excluded material standing alone.
                </P>
                <P>
                    FHWA agrees with OMB that the language in section 70917(c) of BABA indicates that Congress did not intend for excluded materials to be considered construction materials and did not intend excluded materials, standing alone, to be classified as manufactured products. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     88 FR 57771-73. In addition, FHWA agrees with OMB that section 70917(c) does not prevent excluded materials from being components of manufactured products and considered the same as any other component of a manufactured product. 
                    <E T="03">See id.</E>
                     at 57772. FHWA further believes that it is useful to align the treatment of excluded materials under FHWA's Buy America requirements with the requirements of these materials under 2 CFR part 184 where appropriate. FHWA believes that this promotes uniformity for contracting agencies, contractors, and manufacturers operating between different Federal Agency programs and will allow for these entities to build up a greater amount of experience with these requirements.
                    <PRTPAGE P="2951"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 635.410(c)(1)(iv)—Reference to Construction Materials</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     In the definition of manufactured product, FHWA stated that: “If an item is classified as an iron or steel product, an excluded material, or other product category as specified by law or in 2 CFR part 184, then it is not a manufactured product.” Many commenters suggested that FHWA should remove the reference to “other product category as specified . . . in 2 CFR part 184” and instead just list the specific construction materials referenced in 2 CFR part 184.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     Pursuant to section 70915(b) of BABA, OMB is given the authority to determine which construction materials are covered by BABA's requirements and to define the manufacturing processes that must occur in the United States for those construction materials. As stated above, except for specific products, described in more detail in the discussion of § 635.410(c)(2)(i) and (ii), below, FHWA believes that materials should be classified as only one category of material and, based on that classification, be subject to only one set of requirements, as applicable to the classification. The purpose of referring to “other product category as specified by law or in 2 CFR part 184” is to make clear that products that could be classified as both another category and a manufactured product should not be considered manufactured products and are not subject to FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products. Thus, items classified as construction materials by OMB are not properly classified as manufactured products and are not subject to FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products. Given that OMB has the authority to define construction materials and thereby impose BABA's construction material requirements on them, FHWA does not find it appropriate to separately list construction materials in its own regulation.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 635.410(c)(1)(iv)—Mixtures of Concrete or Asphalt Delivered to a Job Site Without Final Form</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     In the definition of manufactured products in the NPRM, FHWA stated that “[m]ixtures of concrete or asphalt delivered to a job site without final form for incorporation into a project are not a manufactured product.” Many commenters stated that FHWA should clarify that this exception should apply to all mixtures of excluded materials, not just mixtures of concrete or asphalt. Other commenters suggested that FHWA should reference a “work site” instead of a “job site,” given that § 635.410(c)(2) stated that classification of a material should occur based on its status at the time it is brought to the work site for incorporation into an infrastructure project. Still other commenters disagreed, stating that FHWA should clarify that the exemption should apply to mixtures delivered to or proximate to a work site. Finally, some commenters opposed treating mixtures of concrete or asphalt without final form from those that are in a settled form, contesting that there is no reason to treat the two differently.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     In the preamble to 2 CFR part 184, OMB stated: “In the case of section 70917(c) materials, OMB clarifies . . . to the extent that section 70917(c) materials were only combined as an unsettled mixture without final form when reaching the work site, such as in the case of wet concrete or hot mix asphalt, the unsettled mixture should not be considered a manufactured product.” 88 FR 57772. In the NPRM, FHWA stated its agreement with OMB on this topic and that FHWA intended for its proposed regulations to have the same reach as 2 CFR part 184 in this respect.  
                </P>
                <P>
                    FHWA disagrees with commenters suggesting that settled mixtures of excluded materials should not be considered manufactured products like FHWA proposed for unsettled mixtures of excluded materials. FHWA agrees with OMB that unsettled mixtures are not processed into a specific shape or form like settled mixtures. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     While settled mixtures may have different properties than individual excluded materials, FHWA agrees with OMB that it is more appropriate to only treat excluded materials that have set or dried into a particular shape or form prior to reaching the work site as manufactured products. FHWA also notes that aligning its Buy America requirements with the BABA requirements in 2 CFR part 184 will promote uniformity and allow contracting agencies, contractors, and manufacturers that work with different Federal agencies a greater ability to increase their knowledge of how these requirements work.
                </P>
                <P>FHWA does agree with commenters that the language in the final rule should better reflect the intent of OMB. For this reason, FHWA believes it appropriate to modify its regulatory text to make clear that this exception applies to all mixtures of excluded materials without final form. FHWA also agrees that it is appropriate to reference a “work site” instead of a “job site,” given that is the language used by OMB and the language included in § 635.410(c)(2). FHWA intends the use of “work site” in § 635.410(c)(1)(iv) to mirror the use of “work site” in § 635.410(c)(2). Thus, the work site is generally the location of the infrastructure project at which the mixture will be incorporated; however, there may be circumstances where it is more appropriate for the work site to be considered to be broader than the location of the infrastructure project. As the definition of the work site will depend on the specific project and material being delivered, FHWA does not believe it necessary to state that the mixtures can be delivered proximate to a work site.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 635.410(c)(1)(vii)—Produced in the United States</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     In the NPRM, FHWA defined when a manufactured product was “produced in the United States” and thereby when a manufactured product would be compliant with FHWA's Buy America requirements. FHWA proposed to adopt the definition of “produced in the United States” found in section 70912(6)(B) of BABA, which would require a manufactured product be manufactured in the United States and the cost of components of the manufactured product that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States be greater than 55 percent of the total cost of all components of the manufactured product. FHWA stated in the NPRM that it believed it was required by BABA to adopt general standards that meet or exceed those under BABA. Further, FHWA stated in the NPRM that it was proposing to choose requirements similar to BABA's manufactured product requirements to minimize the burden placed on contracting agencies, contractors, and manufacturers. FHWA also stated that aligning its Buy America requirements for manufactured products with those applicable to manufactured products under BABA would provide consistency between the two regimes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Some commenters noted the benefit of aligning FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products with BABA's domestic content procurement preference for manufactured products, with one manufacturer stating that similar standards would enable it to use the same compliant products in projects subject to BABA and FHWA's Buy America statute. Other commenters suggested various other methods for FHWA to determine when a manufactured product is “produced in the United States.” One commenter stated that the requirements should vary based on product or product type. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2952"/>
                    Others suggested that FHWA should allow products to be sourced from countries for which the United States has trade agreements. One commenter argued that FHWA should remove the 55 percent requirement altogether.
                </P>
                <P>Other commenters sought clarification over how to determine whether a manufactured product was produced in the United States under FHWA's proposed standards. Commenters questioned how to determine when a product was manufactured in the United States for the purpose of the final assembly requirement. Commenters also sought clarification on how to determine if a component was mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States for the purpose of meeting the 55 percent requirement.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     FHWA believes its Buy America requirements for manufactured products must meet or exceed those under BABA pursuant to section 70917(a) and (b) of BABA, that choosing requirements meeting BABA's is the minimally burdensome option, and that doing so allows for the benefit of consistency between projects subject to FHWA's Buy America requirements and those subject to BABA.
                </P>
                <P>With respect to what it means for a product to be manufactured in the United States, and what it means for a component to be mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States, FHWA intends for the requirements to reflect the same principles found in BABA and the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR). FHWA intends to issue further guidance on these topics in the future. FHWA notes, however, that the manufactured and 55 percent requirements apply to the manufactured product itself, not the components of a manufactured product. For example, a component of a manufactured product does not need more than 55 percent of its components—the subcomponents of the manufactured product -by cost, to be mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 635.410(c)(2)—Buy America Requirements for Iron and Steel</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     In the NPRM, FHWA proposed for an article, material, or supply to only be classified as an iron or steel product, a manufactured product, or other products as specified by law or in 2 CFR part 184. FHWA further proposed that an iron or steel product must meet FHWA's existing Buy America requirements for iron and steel in § 635.410(b). Finally, FHWA proposed that, except as otherwise provided in § 635.410(c)(2)(i) and (ii), an article, material, or supply should not be considered to fall into multiple categories.
                </P>
                <P>Several commenters expressed confusion about what it meant for a material to meet the requirements of § 635.410(b). Others expressed confusion over whether the rule would require that predominantly iron and steel components of manufactured products be compliant with § 635.410(b).</P>
                <P>Commenters representing the iron and steel industry expressed opposition to not requiring predominantly iron or steel components of manufactured products to be subject to FHWA's Buy America requirements for iron and steel. These commenters stated that this would be contrary to longstanding FHWA practice. They further stated their belief that not requiring predominantly iron or steel components of manufactured products to meet FHWA's Buy America requirements for steel and iron would be in conflict with BABA's savings provision, arguing that, pursuant to the savings provision in section 70917(a) and (b) of BABA, BABA cannot be used to modify an agency's existing requirements that meet or exceed BABA's. These commenters argued that BABA's savings provision does not merely allow FHWA to preserve its existing Buy America policies but explicitly preserves such policies. Commenters also argued that they believed changing Buy America policies is in conflict with BABA's intent to expand the application of Buy America requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    Commenters further argued that legislative history demonstrates that Congress intended the 1982 STAA to cover all steel products, including steel components of manufactured products. Commenters also pointed to a statement in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice where FHWA instituted the Manufactured Products General Waiver which they believed indicated that FHWA acknowledged Congress' intent in expanding Buy America coverage to include all steel products. At the time, FHWA stated: “Congressional concern that Federal money spent to improve highways should also aid U.S. industry is apparent in the first sentence of Section 165, which requires the Secretary of Transportation to ensure that funds authorized for Federal-aid highway projects would only buy U.S.-made steel. The FHWA therefore has expended the Buy America rule to include all steel products.” 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     48 FR 53102. Finally, commenters opposed to FHWA changing current policy argued that doing so would harm the domestic steel and iron industry and would allow foreign steel and iron to be used, which they stated was unfairly traded and higher-emitting.
                </P>
                <P>Other commenters, however, argued for removing the policy of applying FHWA's Buy America requirements to predominantly iron and steel to iron and steel components of manufactured products. These commenters stated that the current policy is creating a burden on contracting agencies, contractors, and manufacturers, as well as marketplace confusion as FHWA's policy does not apply to projects subject to BABA. One commenter stated that the history of iron and steel of components is not generally tracked, making compliance with the current policy difficult.  </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     FHWA does not intend for its Buy America requirements on manufactured products to substantially modify its existing Buy America requirements for iron and steel, codified at § 635.410(b). For manufactured products containing sufficient amounts of iron and steel, by cost, to be classified as “iron or steel products” under the definition in § 635.410(c)(1)(iii), FHWA believes that those products are properly subject to FHWA's existing Buy America requirements for iron and steel. Accordingly, FHWA is making clear in § 635.410(c)(2) that such iron or steel products remain covered by FHWA's existing Buy America requirements for iron and steel in § 635.410(b). Under these requirements, pursuant to § 635.410(b)(1)(ii), all manufacturing processes of the iron or steel product, including application of a coating, must generally occur in the United States.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         Under FHWA's Buy America requirements for iron or steel, a recipient of FHWA financial assistance can demonstrate compliance through other methods as well. For instance, § 635.410(b)(2) allows a recipient to satisfy the requirements through having standard contract provisions mandating the use of domestic materials and products, including steel and iron materials, to the same or greater extent as the provisions of § 635.410(b). Per § 635.410(b)(3), recipients may also demonstrate compliance with FHWA's Buy America requirements for iron and steel through including alternate bid provisions in conformance with that provision. Finally, FHWA notes, as stated above, that the de minimis provision for iron or steel products under § 635.410(b)(4) continues to apply to iron or steel products.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    FHWA, however, is making clear what products are subject to its existing steel and iron requirements and what are subject to its new manufactured product requirements. Except for the specific products and components discussed below, FHWA believes that manufactured products containing predominantly iron or steel components should not be subject to both FHWA's existing steel and iron requirements and its new manufactured product 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2953"/>
                    requirements. In other words, for Federal-aid projects, predominantly iron or steel components of a product classified as a manufactured product do not need to comply with FHWA's Buy America requirements for iron and steel; the manufactured product itself only needs to comply with FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products. FHWA believes that, with the imposition of Buy America requirements for manufactured products, it is generally unnecessary to continue to apply Buy America requirements to predominantly iron and steel components of those manufactured products. Manufacturers may continue to use domestically manufactured iron and steel components for the purpose of meeting the 55 percent requirements, and FHWA expects manufacturers of products with more costly iron and steel components to continue to do so. FHWA is not, however, imposing a requirement that predominantly iron and steel components, no matter the value, must be domestically manufactured. FHWA believes, however, that for iron and steel components of lesser costs, it would be unduly burdensome to require tracking the origin and cost of these components as well as other components that are higher priced, which would be necessary to meet the 55 percent requirements.
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         FHWA notes that recipients of FHWA financial assistance may need to track the cost of iron or steel components of a material to determine whether that material is properly classified as an iron or steel product or a manufactured product. In situations where the iron and steel content of a material is close to 50 percent of the total cost of all its components, this may require tracking the cost of components of lesser costs. If the material is properly classified as an iron or steel product, FHWA's Buy America requirements for iron and steel would require the iron and steel components, including the iron and steel components of lesser cost, to be domestically manufactured; however, larger, components that are not iron or steel would not need to be domestically produced. Alternatively, if the material is properly classified as a manufactured product, the origin of the iron and steel components of lesser cost would not need to be tracked. In either case, FHWA expects the burden of tracking the origin and cost of all components of lesser cost to be more burdensome than the requirements under this final rule.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Further, requiring all predominantly iron and steel components to be domestically produced would create discrepancies between FHWA's Buy America requirements and BABA's requirements, which FHWA seeks to avoid when not justified. Under BABA, an article, material, or supply should not be considered to fall into multiple categories and must meet the specific Buy America preference for only the single category in which it is classified. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     2 CFR 184.4(e) and (f). Maintaining FHWA's current policy would result in some materials being BABA-compliant but not Buy America-compliant. As stated below in the discussion of § 635.410(c)(2)(i) and (ii), FHWA believes that there may be some products and components for which the continued application of this policy may be justified, and the departure from BABA's requirements, based on the circumstances surrounding the manufacture of the products and components. FHWA does not believe that the same rationale exists for all predominantly steel and iron components, no matter what size or what cost, in all manufactured products.
                </P>
                <P>FHWA does not believe that requiring manufactured products containing predominantly iron and steel components to generally be subject to only FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products is contrary to BABA's savings provision in section 70917(a) and (b) of BABA. Section 70917(a) of BABA states that BABA “shall apply to a Federal financial assistance program for infrastructure only to the extent that a domestic content procurement preference as described in section 70914 does not already apply to iron, steel, manufactured products, and construction materials.” Section 70917(b) states that nothing in BABA “affects a domestic content procurement preference for a Federal financial assistance program for infrastructure that is in effect and that meets the requirements of section 70914.” FHWA interprets these provisions to mean that BABA only applies to FHWA's programs only to the extent that a domestic content procurement preference for iron, steel, manufactured products, and construction materials meeting or exceeding the requirements of section 70914 does not already exist. Further, FHWA interprets section 70917(b) to mean that, where a domestic content procurement preference for iron, steel, manufactured products, and construction materials meeting or exceeding the requirements of section 70914 does exist, BABA has no effect on such domestic content procurement preferences.</P>
                <P>FHWA also disagrees that the legislative history of the 1982 STAA demonstrates that Congress intended the 1982 STAA to cover all steel components of manufactured products.</P>
                <P>
                    Similarly, FHWA finds commenters' reference to FHWA's statement in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice that created the Manufactured Products General Waiver as failing to indicate congressional intent to apply Buy America requirements for steel to all steel components. In that statement, FHWA said that congressional intent in section 165 of the 1982 STAA indicated that its Buy America requirements for steel should extend to all steel products. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     48 FR 53102. At the time, FHWA was referencing the fact that it had previously applied its Buy America requirements for steel to only structural steel when implementing section 401 of the 1978 STAA, and that it was then applying its Buy America requirements for steel to all steel products.
                </P>
                <P>Finally, FHWA believes that the effects of this rule on the domestic iron and steel industries will be minimal. Currently, predominantly iron and steel components of manufactured products used on Federal-aid projects are required to be produced domestically. FHWA believes it likely that, where such components represent a large cost of the manufactured product, manufacturers will continue to use such domestically produced components. Doing so will allow manufacturers to more easily satisfy the 55 percent requirement, while requiring minimal changes to product design. For less expensive iron and steel components, FHWA believes that manufacturers should have the option to replace them in their products with foreign components. FHWA agrees with commenters that tracing the origin of the iron and steel for these minor components is burdensome and, given their cost, does not provide sufficient value to the iron and steel industry to justify these burdens.  </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 635.410(c)(2)—Classification at the Work Site</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     In the NPRM, FHWA proposed the classification of an article, material, or supply into a specific category to be based on its status at the time it is brought to the work site for incorporation into an infrastructure project; this classification would then determine which requirements, if any, the article, material, or supply would be subject to. In addition, FHWA proposed to state that the work site is generally the location of the infrastructure project at which the iron or steel product or manufactured product will be incorporated.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Many commenters expressed confusion over how to distinguish between a component of a manufactured product and the manufactured product itself. Commenters were particularly concerned when components for a product were brought to the work site separately, with commenters expressing confusion over the fact that a material may be seemingly classified differently depending on whether its components 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2954"/>
                    are assembled on or away from the work site. Some commenters wondered whether bringing components separately to a work site and assembling them there would result in the components constituting a kit for a manufactured product versus separate manufactured products. In contrast, other commenters stated that FHWA should not adopt a principle that components can be brought to a work site separately but still be considered a kit and classified as a single manufactured product; such commenters stated there is no authority in title 23, U.S.C. for FHWA to adopt such a principle. Commenters similarly argued that FHWA should not adopt a method for classification that would allow a system to be classified as a single manufactured product; however, other commenters pushed for the opposite. Finally, some commenters argued that FHWA should not base classification on the status of a product when it is brought to the work site at all but instead on the status of a product when it is procured.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     FHWA believes that it is essential to set a point at which an article, material, or supply is classified into a specific category—whether that be an iron or steel product, a manufactured product, or any category specified in law such as a construction material—or not classified into any category. For manufactured products, this point is especially important to distinguish between the manufactured product itself and its components. FHWA believes that the point chosen by OMB, when the product is brought to the work site, appropriately allows for distinguishing among systems, which would be comprised of multiple manufactured products with Buy America requirements applied to each; manufactured products; and components. FHWA is concerned that alternative points of classification may lead to diluting the Buy America requirements. For instance, allowing for classification at the point a material is incorporated into a project may result in multiple manufactured products, iron or steel materials, and construction materials being combined together and classified as one single manufactured product. In particular, this kind of classification could result in iron and steel products generally being considered components of manufactured products, thereby functionally eliminating FHWA's longstanding requirement that all iron and steel products must be produced in the United States. FHWA further notes that were it to choose a different point, that could result in certain materials being classified differently under FHWA's Buy America requirements versus under 2 CFR part 184; this, in turn, may lead to multiple, different requirements applying to the same material. To ensure uniformity, FHWA believes it appropriate to classify materials at the same point as is done by Federal agencies subject to BABA.
                </P>
                <P>
                    FHWA recognizes, however, that certain manufactured products may be acquired for incorporation into an infrastructure project from a single manufacturer or supplier as separate components, which are then assembled together to form a single product at the work site. FHWA refers to such products as “kits.” FHWA, in alignment with OMB, believes that these kits should be classified as a single manufactured product; the individual components of the kit should not, in other words, be classified as separate manufactured products when they are brought to the work site. 
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     FHWA believes that this approach avoids a situation where contractors are incentivized to assemble a kit offsite and then bring the finished product to the work site, even if it is inefficient to do so. FHWA further disagrees with commenters suggesting that this notion of kits is prohibited by title 23, U.S.C. Again, FHWA is not suggesting that multiple manufactured products can be brought to the work site, assembled into one system or finished project, and then only be subject to FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products. FHWA is merely reflecting the notion, echoed by commenters, that while the point of classification is important to prevent the classification system from being abused to dilute the stringency of Buy America requirements, it should also not result in the same product being classified differently purely by the location where it is assembled.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         88 FR 57776 for OMB's discussion of kits.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>FHWA notes that the concept of kits has similarities with the idea of classifying a product based on its status at the time of procurement. FHWA emphasizes, however, that a kit represents a single product purchased from a single manufacturer or supplier. FHWA believes that classifying a product based on its status at the time of procurement may allow for the classification of entire systems as a single manufactured product, which would dilute the stringency of the Buy America requirements and not be in concert with classification under 2 CFR part 184.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 635.410(c)(2)(i), (ii)—Specified Products</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     In the NPRM, as stated above, FHWA proposed to generally require that iron or steel materials only comply with FHWA's existing Buy America requirements for iron and steel found in § 635.410(b) and that manufactured products only comply with FHWA's manufactured product requirements found in § 635.410(c). In § 635.410(c)(2)(i), however, FHWA proposed to require precast concrete products that are classified as manufactured products to have all predominantly iron or steel components comply with FHWA's existing Buy America requirements for iron and steel. Similarly, in § 635.410(c)(2)(ii), FHWA proposed to require the cabins or other enclosures of ITS and other electronic hardware systems installed in the highway right of way or other real property and classified as manufactured products, if predominantly iron or steel, to comply with FHWA's existing Buy America requirements for iron and steel.
                </P>
                <P>Multiple commenters expressed opposition to the separate requirements placed on these specific manufactured products in § 635.410(c)(2)(i) and (ii). These commenters argued that such separate requirements prevented uniformity of FHWA's Buy America requirements to all manufactured products and uniformity with BABA's requirements for manufactured products. Commenters also argued that manufacturers do not know the ultimate owner of items when manufacturing and shipping them. Thus, commenters argued that these separate requirements created risks of non-compliance if a contractor purchases a product that is BABA-compliant but not compliant with § 635.410(c)(2)(i) or (ii), as the contractor may not know whether the product needs to be BABA-compliant versus FHWA-compliant when purchasing the product or may receive the wrong version of the product from the manufacturer. Another commenter argued that manufacturers would merely shift from using iron and steel to other materials where possible to avoid these requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    Commenters representing the iron and steel industry argued that there is no distinction between iron and steel in the specific products referenced in § 635.410(c)(2)(i) and (ii) and the iron and steel in the components of other manufactured products. These commenters argued that there is no reason to require the iron and steel in the specific products referenced in § 635.410(c)(2)(i) and (ii) to be domestically produced but not the iron 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2955"/>
                    and steel in other products. Finally, commenters sought clarification over the definition of “intelligent transportation systems and other electronic hardware systems” found in § 635.410(c)(2)(ii).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     FHWA generally believes that a single material, if classified as an iron or steel product, should only be subject to its Buy America requirements for iron and steel in § 635.410(b); if classified as a manufactured product, FHWA generally believes the product should only be subject to its Buy America requirements for manufactured products in § 635.410(c). FHWA also believes, however, that iron or steel components of precast concrete and iron or steel enclosures of ITS and other electronic hardware systems installed in the highway right of way or other real represent unique situations justifying FHWA to generally apply its Buy America requirements for manufactured products to the products as a whole and its Buy America requirements for iron and steel to specific components.
                </P>
                <P>
                    As stated in the NPRM, FHWA believes that the products referenced in § 635.410(c)(2)(i) and (ii) are regularly used in highway construction projects and that manufacturers have formed longstanding supply chains to incorporate Buy America-compliant iron or steel components into them. FHWA believes that these products are currently used extensively in Federal-aid projects, where, currently, all their predominantly iron and steel components are required to comply with FHWA's Buy America requirements for iron and steel. FHWA further believes that the iron and steel in the precast concrete and the iron and steel in the enclosures of ITS and other electronic hardware systems represent a significant portion of the value of those manufactured products.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     FHWA thus believes that the requirements of § 635.410(c)(2)(i) and (ii) will have a limited impact on the manufacture of these specifically-referenced products. While FHWA acknowledges that the requirements that apply to these products are distinct from those that apply to other manufactured products under FHWA's Buy America regulation and BABA, FHWA believes this is justified by the significant market for these products solely within FHWA's funding programs. FHWA therefore believes that manufacturers of these products will be incentivized to produce products compliant with these unique requirements in sufficient amounts and that contractors should be able to determine whether any particular product is compliant with FHWA's regulations.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         For example, as indicated in the responses to an RFI published collectively by DOT and the U.S. Department of Energy, the housing of an EV charger may comprise over 50 percent of the costs of the charger. 86 FR 67115 (Nov. 24, 2021).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>FHWA emphasizes that the specific requirements of § 635.410(c)(2)(i) and (ii) apply only to the specifically referenced products and components. While FHWA understands that the iron and steel in these products is similar to the iron and steel in all manufactured products, FHWA believes that the specific nature of these products, as stated above, justifies different requirements from other manufactured products.</P>
                <P>With respect to “intelligent transportation systems and other electronic hardware systems,” FHWA clarifies that its requirements in § 635.410(c)(2)(ii) apply to the cabinets or other enclosures of the physical electronic hardware system, or other physical ITS, if (1) the system is classified as a manufactured product under § 635.410(c)(1)(iv); (2) the system is installed in the highway right of way or other real property; and (3) the cabinets or other enclosures of such system consists wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both. Where the requirements of § 635.410(c)(2)(ii) do apply, the cabinet or other enclosure must comply with FHWA's existing Buy America requirements for iron and steel, meaning that all iron and steel of the cabinet or other enclosure must be domestically produced.</P>
                <P>Finally, for the components specified in § 635.410(c)(2)(ii), FHWA is modifying a reference from components that are “manufactured predominantly or iron or steel or a combination of both” to components that “consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both.” FHWA does not intend this to be a substantive change but instead to mirror the language used in the definition of “iron or steel products.” Through this change, FHWA seeks to make clear that the determination of whether components of precast concrete products or the cabinets or other enclosures of intelligent transportation systems and other electronic hardware systems that are installed in the highway right of way or other real property should be determined as iron or steel products and subject to FHWA's Buy America requirements for iron and steel should be based on the same definition that iron or steel products are subject to generally.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 635.410(c)(3)—Cost of Components</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     In § 635.410(c)(3), FHWA proposed to determine whether the cost of components for manufactured products is greater than 55 percent of the total cost of all components through the same method as used under 2 CFR 184.5 for projects subject to BABA. Per 2 CFR 184.5(a), the cost of a component purchased by the manufacturer is the acquisition cost, including transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the manufactured product (whether or not such costs are paid to a domestic firm), and any applicable duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued). For components manufactured by the manufacturer, 2 CFR 184.5(b) the cost of a component is all costs associated with the manufacture of the component, including transportation costs as described in 2 CFR 184.5(a), plus allocable overhead costs, but excluding profit; the cost of such components also does not include any costs associated with the manufacture of the manufactured product. FHWA copied this definition verbatim into proposed § 635.410(c)(3).
                </P>
                <P>Some commenters disagreed with FHWA's approach to determining the cost of components entirely, requesting that FHWA should allow additional costs to factor into the cost of any component, including the cost of domestic manufacturing, the cost of software and firmware, the value added at each manufacturing stage, the cost of the intellectual property, and the cost of the research and development for the product. One commenter argued that the cost of components should be determined at the overall system level.</P>
                <P>Other commenters sought clarification on FHWA's proposed definition. Commenters expressed confusion over what were allowable manufacturing costs for the component versus unallowable manufacturing costs for the manufactured product. Others sought clarification over what FHWA meant by allocable overhead costs.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">FHWA Response:</E>
                     FHWA disagrees with commenters suggesting that FHWA depart from the standard used in 2 CFR 184.5 to determine the cost of components. FHWA believes that uniformity with BABA's requirements is important and beneficial where appropriate to ensure that manufactured products are compliant under FHWA's Buy America statute and BABA and to allow for contracting agencies, contractors, and manufacturers to build up a greater amount of experience with these requirements.
                    <PRTPAGE P="2956"/>
                </P>
                <P>FHWA notes that § 635.410(c)(3)(ii) differentiates between costs associated with the manufacture of a component, which are to be considered in determining the cost of the component, and costs associated with the manufacture of the manufactured product, which are not. Costs associated with the manufacture of the manufactured product itself, outside of the cost to manufacture a component, should not be considered in valuing the component. For example, the cost of assembling the component into the manufactured product is a cost of manufacturing the manufactured product, not a cost of manufacturing the component.</P>
                <P>Finally, FHWA is correcting an error in the proposed regulatory text, where § 635.410(c)(3)(ii) made reference to “paragraph (a) of this section.” That reference is from 2 CFR 184.5(b) and refers to 2 CFR 184.5(a). FHWA is thereby correcting the reference to § 635.410(c)(3)(i) to properly align with 2 CFR part 184.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Rulemaking Analyses and Notices</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Executive Order 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review), Executive Order 13563 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review), and DOT Regulatory Policies and Procedures</HD>
                <P>The OMB has determined that this rulemaking is a significant regulatory action within the meaning of E.O. 12866, as amended by E.O. 14094.</P>
                <P>A more detailed discussion of the economic analysis associated with this rulemaking can be found in the RIA, which is available on the docket. The RIA estimates the costs and benefits associated with imposing Buy America requirements to manufactured products. The expected benefits of this rule relate to protecting and expanding domestic manufacturing, increasing the resiliency of supply chains, and increasing consistency in applying domestic content procurement preferences for manufactured products between FHWA and other Federal agencies that are subject to BABA's requirements. None of these benefits have been quantified.</P>
                <P>The costs of this rule relate to increased material costs for manufactured products used in highway construction projects, administrative costs to FHWA and recipients of FHWA financial assistance, and potential delays in project delivery. FHWA estimates that total costs associated with this rule, between FY 2026 and FY 2035, will range from $545 million to $8,466 million at a 2 percent discount rate. The estimated increase in material costs for manufactured products ranges from $41 million to $980 million per year. Much of the wide range of uncertainty surrounding the estimates stems from the difficulty of estimating (1) the fraction of inputs to highway construction that are manufactured products; (2) the fraction of manufactured products that are currently domestically supplied but fail to meet the 55 percent requirement; and (3) the likely price premiums for purchasing manufactured products that would be compliant with this rule, compared to non-compliant manufactured products currently used in highway construction. FHWA further estimates an additional $167,000 per year in increased FHWA administrative costs to cover the salary and employer-provided benefits of an additional Federal employee to help administer the Buy America program. We also estimate an additional $22 million per year in administrative costs to recipients of FHWA financial assistance related to verifying product compliance. Those costs do not include additional administrative costs related to setting up systems to track compliance or applying for any project-specific waivers that may be necessary based on specific circumstances.</P>
                <P>The 10-year discounted totals of these costs are provided in the table below at a 2 percent discount rate. The rest of the costs could not be quantified with the information available.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,tp0,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s25,xs50">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            10-Year
                            <LI>total at 2%</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Benefits:</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="02">Promote Domestic Manufacturing</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not quantified.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="02">Supply Chain Resiliency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not quantified.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="02">Consistency</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not quantified.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Total Benefits</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not quantified.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Costs:</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="02">Materials Costs</ENT>
                        <ENT>$361 to $8,282.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="02">FHWA and State Administrative Costs</ENT>
                        <ENT>$184.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="02">Other Administrative Costs</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not quantified.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="02">Project Delay</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not quantified.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="02">Negative Secondary Impacts</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not quantified.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Total Costs</ENT>
                        <ENT>$545 to $8,466.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Annualized Costs</ENT>
                        <ENT>$61 to $942.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>Annualized costs are $61 million to $942 million per year at a 2 percent discount rate, $60 million to $932 million per year at a 3 percent discount rate, and $58 million to $890 million per year at a 7 percent discount rate.</P>
                <P>FHWA has responded to comments made regarding the preliminary regulatory impact analysis in the RIA. This rule will not adversely affect in a material way the economy, any sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, territorial, or Tribal governments or communities. These changes do not create a serious inconsistency with any other agency's action or materially alter the budgetary impact of any entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>In compliance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act (Pub. L. 96-354, 5 U.S.C. 601-612), FHWA has evaluated the effects of this rule on small entities and has determined that it is not anticipated to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This rule would impose Buy America requirements for manufactured products on recipients of FHWA financial assistance, including States, local governments, and other grant recipients. These recipients are primarily States, who receive apportioned funding from FHWA, and who are not included in the definition of small entity set forth in 5 U.S.C. 601.</P>
                <P>FHWA believes the projected impact on small entities that utilize FHWA funding would be negligible. This final rule will require such small entities to purchase manufactured products that are manufactured in the United States and have the cost of components that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States be greater than 55 percent of the total cost of all components of the manufactured product under contracts subject to FHWA's Buy America requirements. FHWA acknowledges that some Buy America-compliant manufactured products may be more expensive than manufactured products that are non-compliant. Thus, this final rule may result in increased project costs. To the extent this rule requires expenditures by State, local governments, and other grant recipients on Federal-aid projects, they are reimbursable. In addition, to the extent that small governmental jurisdictions expend additional funds to purchase Buy America-compliant manufactured products, based on FHWA's regulatory impact analysis, FHWA does not believe that any additional expenditure would be economically significant.</P>
                <P>
                    FHWA recognizes that small businesses, as defined by 5 U.S.C. 601(3), who are also considered small entities, may be affected indirectly by this final rule when they seek to provide manufactured products to recipients of FHWA financial assistance who are subject to the new Buy America requirements. For small businesses not currently compliant with FHWA's Buy America requirements for manufactured products who wish to provide Buy America-compliant products, they may need to change manufacturing processes or component suppliers. Small entities 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2957"/>
                    that may be impacted indirectly by a rulemaking, however, are not subject to analysis under the Regulatory Flexibility Act. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Mid-Tex Electric Cooperative, Inc. v. Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 773 F.2d 327 (D.C. Cir. 1985).
                </P>
                <P>Therefore, FHWA certifies that the action would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995</HD>
                <P>This rule does not impose unfunded mandates as defined by the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4, 109 Stat. 48). Section 202(a) of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires Federal agencies to prepare a written statement, which includes estimates of anticipated impacts, before proposing “any rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in the expenditure by State, local, and Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million or more (adjusted annually for inflation) in any one year.” The current threshold after adjustment for inflation is $177 million, using the most current (2022) Implicit Price Deflator for the Gross Domestic Product. The definition of “Federal mandate” in the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act excludes financial assistance of the type in which State, local, or Tribal governments have authority to adjust their participation in the program in accordance with changes made in the program by the Federal Government. The Federal-aid highway program permits this type of flexibility.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Executive Order 13132 (Federalism Assessment)</HD>
                <P>The E.O. 13132 requires agencies to ensure meaningful and timely input by State and local officials in the development of regulatory policies that may have a substantial, direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. FHWA has analyzed this rule in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in E.O. 13132. FHWA has determined that this rule would not have sufficient federalism implications to warrant the preparation of a federalism assessment. FHWA has also determined that this rule would not preempt any State law or State regulation or affect the States' ability to discharge traditional State governmental functions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501, 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from OMB for each collection of information they conduct, sponsor, or require through regulations. FHWA has determined that this rule does not contain collection of information requirements for the purposes of the PRA.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. National Environmental Policy Act</HD>
                <P>FHWA has analyzed this rule pursuant to the NEPA and has determined that it is categorically excluded under 23 CFR 771.117(c)(2), which applies to the promulgation of rules, regulations, and directives. Categorically excluded actions meet the criteria for categorical exclusions under the Council on Environmental Quality regulations and under 23 CFR 771.117(a) and normally do not require any further NEPA approvals by FHWA. This rule will establish Buy America requirements for manufactured products. FHWA does not anticipate any adverse environmental impacts from this final rule, and no unusual circumstances are present under 23 CFR 771.117(b).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Executive Order 13175 (Tribal Consultation)</HD>
                <P>FHWA has analyzed this rule in accordance with the principles and criteria contained in E.O. 13175, “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments.” FHWA does not believe that the final rule would have substantial direct effects on one or more Indian Tribes, would not impose substantial direct compliance costs on Indian Tribal governments, and would not preempt Tribal laws. Therefore, a Tribal summary impact statement is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Executive Order 12898 (Environmental Justice)</HD>
                <P>The E.O. 12898 requires that each Federal Agency make achieving environmental justice part of its mission by identifying and addressing, as appropriate, disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects of its programs, policies, and activities on minorities and low-income populations. FHWA has determined that this rule does not raise any environmental justice issues.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Regulation Identifier Number</HD>
                <P>A RIN is assigned to each regulatory action listed in the Unified Agenda of Federal Regulations. The Regulatory Information Service Center publishes the Unified Agenda in the spring and fall of each year. The RIN contained in the heading of this document can be used to cross reference this action with the Unified Agenda.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 23 CFR Part 635</HD>
                    <P>Grant programs—transportation, Highways and roads, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <P>Issued under authority delegated in 49 CFR 1.85.</P>
                    <NAME>Gloria M. Shepherd,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Director, Federal Highway Administration.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons stated in the preamble, FHWA amends title 23, Code of Federal Regulations, part 635, as set forth below:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 635—CONSTRUCTION AND MAINTENANCE</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="23" PART="635">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 635 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>
                             Sections 1525 and 1303 of Public Law 112-141, Sec. 1503 of Public Law 109-59, 119 Stat. 1144; 23 U.S.C. 101 (note), 109, 112, 113, 114, 116, 119, 128, and 315; 31 U.S.C. 6505; 42 U.S.C. 3334, 4601 
                            <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                             Sec. 1041(a), Public Law 102-240, 105 Stat. 1914; 23 CFR 1.32; 49 CFR 1.85(a)(1).
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—General Material Requirements</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="23" PART="635">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 635.410 by:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Removing the words “steel or iron materials” and adding, in their place, the words “iron or steel products” in paragraph (b)(1);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Removing the word “State” and adding in its place the word “recipient” in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>c. Removing the words “steel and iron materials” and adding, in their place, the words “iron or steel products” in paragraphs (b)(2), (3), and (4);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>d. Revising paragraph (c); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>e. Removing the word “State” and adding in its place the word “recipient” in paragraph (d).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The revision reads as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 635.410 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Buy America requirements.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(c) No Federal-aid highway construction project is to be authorized for advertisement or otherwise authorized to proceed unless the manufactured products used and permanently incorporated in such project are produced in the United States. To meet the requirement in this paragraph (c), the manufactured product must meet the following:</P>
                        <P>(1) The following definitions apply to this section:</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Component</E>
                             means an article, material, or supply, whether 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2958"/>
                            manufactured or unmanufactured, incorporated directly into a manufactured product or, where applicable, an iron or steel product.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Excluded materials</E>
                             means 
                            <E T="03">section 70917(c) materials</E>
                             as defined in 2 CFR 184.3.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Iron or steel products</E>
                             means articles, materials, or supplies that consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iv) 
                            <E T="03">Manufactured products</E>
                             means articles, materials, or supplies that have been processed into a specific form and shape, or combined with other articles, materials, or supplies to create a product with different properties than the individual articles, materials, or supplies. If an item is classified as an iron or steel product, an excluded material, or other product category as specified by law or in 2 CFR part 184, then it is not a manufactured product. However, an article, material, or supply classified as a manufactured product may include components that are iron or steel products, excluded materials, or other product categories as specified by law or in 2 CFR part 184. Mixtures of excluded materials delivered to a work site without final form for incorporation into a project are not a manufactured product.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (v) 
                            <E T="03">Manufacturer,</E>
                             in the case of manufactured products, means the entity that performs the final manufacturing process that produces a manufactured product.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (vi) 
                            <E T="03">Predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both</E>
                             means that the cost of the iron and steel content exceeds 50 percent of the total cost of all its components. The cost of iron and steel is the cost of the iron or steel mill products (such as bar, billet, slab, wire, plate, or sheet), castings, or forgings utilized in the manufacture of the product and a good faith estimate of the cost of iron or steel components.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (vii) 
                            <E T="03">Produced in the United States,</E>
                             in the case of manufactured products, means:
                        </P>
                        <P>(A) For projects obligated on or after October 1, 2025, the product was manufactured in the United States; and</P>
                        <P>(B) For projects obligated on or after October 1, 2026, the product was manufactured in the United States and the cost of the components of the manufactured product that are mined, produced, or manufactured in the United States is greater than 55 percent of the total cost of all components of the manufactured product.</P>
                        <P>(2) An article, material, or supply shall only be classified as an iron or steel product, a manufactured product, or other products as specified by law or in 2 CFR part 184. An iron or steel product must meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (c), an article, material, or supply shall not be considered to fall into multiple categories. In some cases, an article, material, or supply may not fall under any of the above-listed categories. The classification of an article, material, or supply as falling into one of the categories listed in this paragraph (c) must be made based on its status at the time it is brought to the work site for incorporation into an infrastructure project. In general, the work site is the location of the infrastructure project at which the iron or steel product or manufactured product will be incorporated.</P>
                        <P>(i) With respect to precast concrete products that are classified as manufactured products, components of precast concrete products that consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both shall meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. The cost of such components shall be included in the applicable calculation for purposes of determining whether the precast concrete product is produced in the United States.</P>
                        <P>(ii) With respect to intelligent transportation systems and other electronic hardware systems that are installed in the highway right of way or other real property and classified as manufactured products, the cabinets or other enclosures of such systems that consist wholly or predominantly of iron or steel or a combination of both shall meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. The cost of cabinets or other enclosures shall be included in the applicable calculation for purposes of determining whether systems referred to in the preceding sentence are produced in the United States.</P>
                        <P>(3) In determining whether the cost of components for manufactured products is greater than 55 percent of the total cost of all components, recipients shall determine the cost as follows:</P>
                        <P>(i) For components purchased by the manufacturer, the acquisition cost, including transportation costs to the place of incorporation into the manufactured product (whether or not such costs are paid to a domestic firm), and any applicable duty (whether or not a duty-free entry certificate is issued); or</P>
                        <P>(ii) For components manufactured by the manufacturer, all costs associated with the manufacture of the component, including transportation costs as described in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, plus allocable overhead costs, but excluding profit. Cost of components does not include any costs associated with the manufacture of the manufactured product.</P>
                        <P>(4) The provisions of this paragraph (c) are separate and severable from one another and from the other provisions of this section. If any provision is stayed or determined to be invalid, the remaining provisions shall continue in effect.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-31350 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-22-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>26 CFR Part 1</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[TD 10028]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1545-BR07</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Certain Partnership Related-Party Basis Adjustment Transactions as Transactions of Interest</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This document contains final regulations that identify certain partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions and substantially similar transactions as transactions of interest, a type of reportable transaction. Material advisors and certain participants in these transactions are required to file disclosures with the IRS and are subject to penalties for failure to disclose. The final regulations affect participants in these transactions as well as material advisors.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Effective date:</E>
                         These regulations are effective on January 14, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Applicability date:</E>
                         For the date of applicability, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         § 1.6011-18(h) and (i).
                    </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Concerning these final regulations, contact Elizabeth Zanet of the Office of Associate Chief Counsel (Passthroughs and Special Industries), (202) 317-6007 (not a toll-free number).</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority</HD>
                <P>
                    This document amends the Income Tax Regulations (26 CFR part 1) by adding final regulations under section 6011 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code). The document adds § 1.6011-18 to identify certain partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions and substantially similar transactions as transactions of interest, a type of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2959"/>
                    reportable transaction (final regulations). These regulations are issued pursuant to the authority conferred on the Secretary of the Treasury or her delegate (Secretary) under the following provisions of the Code.
                </P>
                <P>Section 6001 of the Code provides an express delegation of authority to the Secretary of the Treasury or her delegate (Secretary), requiring every taxpayer to keep the records, render the statements, make the returns, and comply with the rules and regulations that the Secretary deems necessary to demonstrate tax liability, as prescribed, either by notice served or by regulations.</P>
                <P>Section 6011(a) provides an express grant of regulatory authority for the Secretary to prescribe regulations requiring any person who is liable for any tax imposed by the Code, or with respect to the collection thereof, to make a return or statement according to the forms and regulations prescribed by the Secretary. Section 6011(a) adds that every person who is required to make a return or statement must include the information required by forms or regulations.</P>
                <P>In addition, section 6707A(c)(1) of the Code defines the term “reportable transaction” for purposes of imposing penalties under section 6707A(a) relating to persons who fail to include on any return or statement any information with respect to a reportable transaction that is required under section 6011 to be included with such return or statement. In doing so, it provides an express delegation of authority to the Secretary, stating that, “[t]he term 'reportable transaction' means any transaction with respect to which information is required to be included with a return or statement because, as determined under regulations prescribed under section 6011, such transaction is of a type which the Secretary determines as having a potential for tax avoidance or evasion.”</P>
                <P>Section 6111(a) provides an express grant of regulatory authority for the Secretary to require that each material advisor with respect to any reportable transaction make a return setting forth any information as the Secretary may prescribe. Such return must be filed not later than the date specified by the Secretary.</P>
                <P>Finally, section 7805(a) of the Code authorizes the Secretary to “prescribe all needful rules and regulations for the enforcement of [the Code], including all rules and regulations as may be necessary by reason of any alteration of law in relation to internal revenue.”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Basis Adjustments Under Subchapter K</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. In General</HD>
                <P>Under subchapter K of chapter 1 of the Code (subchapter K), a distribution by a partnership of the partnership's property (partnership property) or a transfer of an interest in a partnership (partnership interest) may result in an adjustment to the basis of the distributed property, partnership property, or both. A key factor is whether an election made by the partnership in accordance with regulations prescribed by the Secretary under section 754 of the Code (section 754 election) is in effect.</P>
                <P>Section 754 provides that if a section 754 election is in effect for a partnership, the basis of its partnership property will be adjusted, in the case of a distribution of property, in the manner provided by section 734 of the Code, and in the case of a transfer of a partnership interest, in the manner provided in section 743 of the Code. Unless a section 754 election is revoked in accordance with the regulations under section 754, the section 754 election applies to all distributions of property by the partnership and to all transfers of interests in the partnership in the taxable year for which the section 754 election was properly made and all subsequent taxable years.</P>
                <P>In the case of a distribution of partnership property to a partner by a partnership for which a section 754 election is in effect, or with respect to which there is a substantial basis reduction as described in section 734(d), the distribution may result in an adjustment to the basis of the partnership's remaining property (remaining partnership property) under section 734(b). A distribution of partnership property may also result in an adjustment to the basis of the distributed property under section 732(a), (b), or (d) of the Code.</P>
                <P>If a partnership interest is transferred by sale or exchange or on the death of a partner, and the partnership either has a section 754 election in effect or has a substantial built-in loss with respect to the transfer of the partnership interest as described in section 743(d), the transfer may result in an adjustment to the basis of partnership property under section 743(b) with respect to the transferee partner.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Basis Adjustments Under Section 732</HD>
                <P>Section 732 applies to determine a distributee partner's basis in distributed property other than money. In the case of a distribution of partnership property other than in liquidation of the distributee partner's partnership interest (current distribution), and except as provided under section 732(a)(2), section 732(a)(1) provides that the distributee partner's basis in distributed property (other than money) is equal to the partnership's adjusted basis in the distributed property immediately before the distribution. Under section 732(a)(2), however, a distributee partner's basis in distributed property is limited to the adjusted basis of the distributee partner's partnership interest reduced by any money distributed to such partner in the same transaction.</P>
                <P>In the case of a distribution of partnership property in liquidation of the distributee partner's partnership interest (liquidating distribution), section 732(b) provides that the distributee partner's basis in distributed property (other than money) is equal to the adjusted basis of the distributee partner's partnership interest reduced by any money distributed to such partner in the same transaction.</P>
                <P>
                    In the case of a distribution of more than one property from a partnership, the basis of the distributed properties to which section 732(a)(2) and (b) apply must be allocated among the distributed properties under the rules of section 732(c). Section 732(d) through (f) provide additional rules applicable to certain distributed property. 
                    <E T="03">See also</E>
                     §§ 1.732-1 through 1.732-3.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Basis Adjustments Under Section 734</HD>
                <P>In the case of a distribution of property by a partnership for which a section 754 election is in effect, and for which either the distributee partner recognizes gain or loss on the distribution, or for which the basis of the distributed property in the distributee partner's hands, as determined under section 732, differs from the partnership's adjusted basis in the distributed property immediately before the distribution, section 734(b) requires the partnership to increase or decrease (as applicable) the basis of its remaining partnership property. Also, in the case of a distribution of property by a partnership that results in a substantial basis reduction under section 734(d), the basis of remaining partnership property must be adjusted under section 734(b), even if no section 754 election is in effect for the partnership.</P>
                <P>
                    Section 734(b)(1) requires a partnership to increase the basis of its remaining partnership property if a distribution of partnership property by the partnership results in the distributee partner recognizing gain under section 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2960"/>
                    731(a)(1) of the Code, or if property (other than money) to which section 732(a)(2) or (b) applies is distributed to the distributee partner and the property's adjusted basis to the partnership immediately before the distribution is greater than the distributee partner's basis in the distributed property as determined under section 732. Section 731(a)(1) requires a distributee partner to recognize gain in a current or liquidating distribution to the extent that any money distributed to that partner in the distribution exceeds the adjusted basis of that partner's partnership interest immediately before the distribution. The amount of the basis increase to the partnership's remaining property under section 734(b)(1) following a distribution of partnership property to a partner is equal to the amount of gain recognized by the distributee partner in the distribution under section 731(a)(1), and the excess of the partnership's adjusted basis in the distributed property immediately before the distribution, over the distributee partner's basis in the distributed property as determined under section 732.
                </P>
                <P>Section 734(b)(2) requires a partnership to decrease the basis of its remaining property if a distribution of property by the partnership results in the distributee partner recognizing loss under section 731(a)(2), or if property (other than money) is distributed to the distributee partner in a distribution to which section 732(b) applies and the property's adjusted basis to the partnership immediately before the distribution is less than the distributee partner's basis in the distributed property as determined under section 732. Under section 731(a)(2), a distributee partner may recognize a loss in a liquidating distribution of that partner's interest in the partnership to the extent that such partner received in the distribution only money, unrealized receivables described in section 751(c) of the Code, or inventory items described in section 751(d). In such a case, the distributee partner is required to recognize a loss to the extent that such partner's adjusted basis in the partnership interest exceeds the sum of any money distributed to that partner in the distribution and the basis to the distributee partner (determined under section 732) of any unrealized receivables or inventory items received by that partner in the distribution. The amount of the basis decrease to the partnership's remaining property under section 734(b)(2) following a distribution of partnership property to a partner is equal to the amount of loss recognized by the distributee partner in the distribution under section 731(a)(2), and the excess of the distributee partner's basis in the distributed property as determined under section 732, over the partnership's adjusted basis in the distributed property immediately before the distribution.</P>
                <P>A partnership for which no section 754 election is in effect is subject to a mandatory basis adjustment under section 734(b)(2) if there is a substantial basis reduction with respect to a distribution of partnership property. Under section 734(d), a substantial basis reduction with respect to a distribution of partnership property occurs if the sum of the amount of loss recognized to the distributee partner on the distribution, plus any increase in basis in the distributed property to the distributee partner under section 732(b), exceeds $250,000.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">D. Basis Adjustments Under Section 743(B)</HD>
                <P>Generally, if a partnership interest is transferred in a sale or exchange or on the death of a partner, the transferee partner's basis in the transferred partnership interest is determined under section 742 of the Code and the basis of partnership property is determined under section 743(a). Section 742 provides that the transferee partner's basis in a partnership interest acquired other than by contribution is determined under part II of subchapter O of chapter 1 of the Code, beginning at section 1011 of the Code and following. Thus, for example, a transferee partner's basis in a partnership interest acquired by purchase generally is the transferee partner's cost basis under section 1012 of the Code. Section 743(a) provides that, in the case of a transfer of a partnership interest by sale or exchange or on the death of a partner, the basis of partnership property is not adjusted unless either a section 754 election is in effect for the partnership, or the partnership has a substantial built-in loss with respect to the transfer of the partnership interest.</P>
                <P>Under section 743(b), in the case of a transfer of a partnership interest by sale or exchange or on the death of a partner, a partnership for which a section 754 election is in effect or that has a substantial built-in loss with respect to the transfer of the partnership interest must increase or decrease (as applicable) the adjusted basis of partnership property with respect to the transferee partner.</P>
                <P>Section 743(b)(1) provides that the adjusted basis of partnership property is increased by the excess of the transferee partner's basis in the transferred partnership interest, over the transferee partner's proportionate share of the adjusted basis of partnership property.</P>
                <P>Section 743(b)(2) provides that the adjusted basis of partnership property is decreased by the excess of the transferee partner's proportionate share of the adjusted basis of partnership property, over the transferee partner's basis in the transferred partnership interest.</P>
                <P>A partnership for which no section 754 election is in effect is subject to a mandatory basis adjustment under section 743(b) with respect to a transfer of a partnership interest if the partnership has a substantial built-in loss with respect to the transfer of the partnership interest. Under section 743(d)(1), a partnership has a substantial built-in loss with respect to a transfer of an interest in the partnership if either the partnership's adjusted basis in its property exceeds the fair market value of such property by more than $250,000, or the transferee partner would be allocated a loss of more than $250,000 if the partnership assets were sold for cash equal to their fair market value immediately after the transfer.</P>
                <P>
                    The flush language at the end of section 743(b) provides that, under regulations prescribed by the Secretary, a basis adjustment under section 743(b) is an adjustment to the basis of partnership property with respect to the transferee partner only. 
                    <E T="03">See generally</E>
                     § 1.743-1. The transferee partner's proportionate share of the partnership's adjusted basis in its property generally is determined in accordance with the transferee partner's interest in the partnership's previously taxed capital (including the transferee partner's share of partnership liabilities) under § 1.743-1(d).
                </P>
                <P>In the case of a transferee partner who acquired all or part of the partner's partnership interest by a transfer with respect to which no section 754 election was in effect for the partnership, and to whom a distribution of property (other than money) is made with respect to the transferred interest within two years, section 732(d) and the regulations thereunder allow the partner to make an election to treat as the adjusted basis of the distributed property the adjusted basis such property would have if the adjustment under section 743(b) were in effect with respect to the partnership property.</P>
                <P>
                    Under § 1.732-1(d)(4), the special basis adjustment under section 732(d) is required to apply to a distribution of property to a partner who acquired all or part of the partner's partnership interest by a transfer from a partnership 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2961"/>
                    for which no section 754 election is in effect for the taxable year of such transfer, whether or not the distribution is made within two years of such transfer, if at the time the partnership interest was transferred, (i) the fair market value of all partnership property (other than money) exceeded 110 percent of its adjusted basis to the partnership, (ii) an allocation of basis under section 732(c) upon a liquidation of the transferee partner's interest in the partnership immediately after the transfer of such interest would have resulted in a shift of basis from property not subject to an allowance for depreciation, depletion, or amortization to property subject to such an allowance, and (iii) a basis adjustment under section 743(b) would change the basis to the transferee partner of the property actually distributed.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">E. Allocation of Basis Adjustments Under Sections 734 and 743</HD>
                <P>Section 734(c) states that a basis adjustment under section 734(b) is allocated among partnership properties under the rules of section 755 of the Code. Section 743(c) states that a basis adjustment under section 743(b) is allocated among partnership properties under the rules of section 755.</P>
                <P>Section 755(a) generally requires basis adjustments under section 734(b) or section 743(b) to be allocated in a manner that has the effect of reducing the difference between the fair market value and the adjusted basis of partnership properties or in any other manner permitted by regulations prescribed by the Secretary. In addition, section 755(b) requires these basis adjustments to be allocated to partnership property of a like character or to subsequently acquired partnership property of a like character if such property is not available or has insufficient basis at the time of the basis adjustment (because a decrease in the adjusted basis of the property would reduce the basis of such property below zero). Section 755(c) provides a special rule that prohibits allocating a basis decrease under section 734(b) to the stock of a corporation that is a partner of the partnership (or that is related to a partner in the partnership within the meaning of section 267(b) of the Code or section 707(b)(1) of the Code).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">F. Common Terminology for Bases With Respect to a Partnership Interest</HD>
                <P>A partner's adjusted basis in its partnership interest commonly is referred to as the partner's “outside basis” in its partnership interest. A partnership's adjusted basis in its property commonly is referred to as the “inside basis” of the partnership's property. Each partner has a share of inside basis.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">II. Proposed Regulations</HD>
                <P>
                    On June 18, 2024, the Department of the Treasury (Treasury Department) and the IRS published a notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-124593-23) in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (89 FR 51476) containing proposed regulations under section 6011 (proposed regulations).
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposed regulations would have added § 1.6011-18 identifying certain partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions as “transactions of interest” for purposes of sections 6011, 6111, and 6112 and § 1.6011-4(b)(6). The provisions of the proposed regulations are explained in greater detail in the preamble to the proposed regulations.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         On July 24, 2024, a notice of correction was published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         (89 FR 59864) to correct minor typographical errors in the preamble of REG-124593-23.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Treasury Department and the IRS received written comments in response to the proposed regulations. The comments are available for public inspection at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or upon request. A public hearing on the proposed regulations was conducted in person and telephonically on September 17, 2024, during which two presenters provided comments. After full consideration of the comments received, these final regulations adopt the proposed regulations with modifications in response to the comments as described in the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions</HD>
                <P>This Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions summarizes the comments received in response to the proposed regulations, and describes and responds to comments concerning: (1) transactions of interest generally, (2) the usefulness and burden of reporting the transactions of interest identified by the proposed regulations, (3) the specific transactions of interest identified by the proposed regulations, (4) the proposed $5 million threshold amount for reporting (proposed $5 million threshold amount), (5) the relatedness standard, (6) substantially similar transactions, and (7) participation in a transaction of interest identified by the proposed regulations. In general, as described herein, the final regulations adopt several commenters' suggestions, which limit the scope of the transactions identified by the proposed regulations in an effort to exclude from additional reporting certain common business transactions that do not meet large economic thresholds.</P>
                <P>Comments merely summarizing the statute or proposed regulations, recommending revisions to the Code, addressing unrelated issues, or recommending changes to IRS forms or procedures are generally not addressed in this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions or adopted in these final regulations. Additionally, this Treasury decision does not address comments addressing the issues and rules specific to Notice 2024-54, 2024-28 IRB 24, which the Treasury Department and the IRS continue to consider. Unless otherwise indicated in this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, provisions of the proposed regulations with respect to which no comments were received are adopted without substantive change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Transactions of Interest Generally</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. General Reporting Rules Under § 1.6011-4</HD>
                <P>Section 1.6011-4(e)(2)(i) requires a taxpayer to report a transaction entered into prior to the publication of guidance identifying the transaction as a transaction of interest after the filing of the taxpayer's tax return (including an amended return) reflecting the taxpayer's participation in the transaction of interest (later identified transaction) if the statute of limitations for assessment of tax is still open when the transaction becomes a transaction of interest. Under § 1.6011-4(e)(2)(i), taxpayers are generally required to report a later identified transaction by filing a disclosure statement with the Office of Tax Shelter Analysis (OTSA) within 90 calendar days after the date on which a transaction becomes a transaction of interest.</P>
                <P>
                    Some commenters asserted that taxpayers should not be required to report later identified transactions because taxpayers were not on notice that certain partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions would be identified as transactions of interest. These commenters asserted that certain of the transactions identified in the proposed regulations are typical business transactions for which taxpayers would not have known to keep records. Two commenters requested that the required time for filing a disclosure statement with the OTSA should be expanded to one year. Another commenter recommended that the final regulations apply prospectively to transactions of interest that occur in taxable years beginning on or after the date of the final regulations.
                    <PRTPAGE P="2962"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Although the reporting required by § 1.6011-4(e)(2)(i) may apply to transactions undertaken before the identification of the transactions as transactions of interest, the disclosure obligation is prospective rather than retroactive, since it arises only when the transaction becomes a transaction of interest after the final regulations are published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Additionally, taxpayers have been on notice since the issuance of the proposed regulations that reporting of partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions may soon be required. Nevertheless, given the additional time that taxpayers may need to identify and prepare disclosures for already-completed transactions, § 1.6011-18(h)(1) provides an extension of time of 90 additional calendar days after the date specified in § 1.6011-4(e)(2)(i) for taxpayers to meet their obligations to disclose to the OTSA their participation in such later identified transactions.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Material Advisor Rules</HD>
                <P>The proposed regulations provided no special rules for material advisors. One commenter requested that the final regulations add an “actual knowledge” qualifier for material advisors such that advisors would be required to disclose and list only those transactions described by the proposed regulations that would be reportable based on their actual knowledge. The rules for material advisors under sections 6111 and 6112, and the corresponding regulations under §§ 301.6111-3 and 301.6112-1 of the Procedure and Administration Regulations (26 CFR part 301), which apply to all transactions of interest, do not have a knowledge qualifier. After consideration of this comment, the Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that adding a knowledge qualifier for this transaction of interest is not warranted. Accordingly, this comment is not adopted in the final regulations.</P>
                <P>One commenter requested that the final regulations apply reporting requirements for material advisors only prospectively for transactions of interest that occur in taxable years beginning on or after the date of the final regulations, or, alternatively, that material advisors be permitted to report transactions of interest to the OTSA within one year as opposed to by the last day of the month following the end of the calendar quarter in which the final regulations are published. Section 301.6111-3 sets forth the requirements for disclosures from material advisors. In particular, § 301.6111-3(e) provides that a material advisor's disclosure statement must be filed with the OTSA by the last day of the month that follows the end of the calendar quarter in which the advisor became a material advisor with respect to the transaction. Section 301.6111-3(b)(4)(iii) provides that for a transaction that was not a reportable transaction but is identified as a transaction of interest in published guidance after the occurrence of the events described in § 301.6111-3(b)(4)(i), the person will be treated as becoming a material advisor on the date the transaction is identified as a transaction of interest. Additionally, material advisors have been on notice since the issuance of the proposed regulations that reporting of partnership related-party basis shifting transactions may soon be required. However, given the additional time that may be needed for material advisors to identify and prepare disclosures for already-completed transactions, § 1.6011-18(h)(2) provides an extension of 90 additional calendar days after the date specified in § 301.6111-3(e) for material advisors to meet their disclosure obligations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">II. Usefulness and Burden of Reporting the Transactions of Interest Identified by the Proposed Regulations</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Comments Suggesting the IRS Already Has the Information It Needs</HD>
                <P>
                    One commenter stated that the Treasury Department and the IRS already have sufficient information to determine that the transactions identified by the proposed regulations are abusive and thus the proposed regulations are unnecessary.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This commenter stated that the Treasury Department and the IRS have already concluded that the transactions identified in the proposed regulations are abusive through IRS positions taken in litigation and the issuance of Rev. Rul. 2024-14, 2024-28 IRB 18 (advising taxpayers that the IRS would challenge certain partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions under the codified economic substance doctrine in section 7701(o) of the Code). The commenter also asserted that transactions of interest are reserved for transactions that have the potential for tax avoidance, but that the Treasury Department and the IRS failed to articulate a rational connection between “the facts found and the choice made.” Another commenter suggested that the proposed regulations relied on the application of Rev. Rul. 2024-14, implying that the proposed regulations cannot have effect if the IRS does not prevail in pending litigation.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The commenter also argued that it would be inappropriate to identify the transactions identified in the proposed regulations as listed transactions under § 1.6011-4(b)(2). This comment is not relevant to these final regulations, which solely identify certain transactions as transactions of interest and not as listed transactions.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Treasury Department and the IRS do not agree with these comments. The final regulations identify certain partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions as transactions of interest under § 1.6011-4(b)(6), rather than as listed transactions under § 1.6011-4(b)(2). This is because the Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that these transactions have the potential for tax avoidance through the IRS's examination of certain transactions that are abusive but are not aware of the entire universe of partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions and whether every transaction is per se abusive. As explained in the preamble to the proposed regulations, the Treasury Department and the IRS have become aware of related persons using partnerships to engage in transactions that inappropriately exploit the basis adjustment provisions of subchapter K applicable to distributions of partnership property or transfers of partnership interests and wish to gather additional information. This awareness results from the IRS's examination of various partnership transactions involving related parties in which basis in distributed property or partnership property is shifted in a manner that results in significant tax benefits attributable to the basis shift for the related parties but with little or no tax or economic cost (abusive partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions), thus artificially generating (or regenerating) Federal income tax benefits that results in significant tax savings without a corresponding economic outlay. The transactions identified as transactions of interest in these final regulations have the potential for tax avoidance because they share certain indicia with these abusive partnership related-party transactions. Rev. Rul. 2024-14 contains several examples of abusive transactions discovered by the IRS, and the legal analysis it contains is independent of the requirement to disclose the transactions described in these regulations as transactions of interest. In other words, the issuance of a revenue ruling does not preclude further scrutiny of partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions by identifying those transactions as transactions of interest. Similarly, pending litigation is irrelevant to the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2963"/>
                    identification of these transactions as transactions of interest. Accordingly, the final regulations do not adopt these comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    A few commenters questioned why the Treasury Department and the IRS need to identify certain partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions as transactions of interest if these transactions are already disclosed as part of the Form 1120, 
                    <E T="03">U.S. Corporation Income Tax Return,</E>
                     or Form 1065, 
                    <E T="03">U.S. Return of Partnership Income.</E>
                     These commenters generally contended that existing reporting requirements already accomplish the objectives of the proposed regulations and that adding these transactions as transactions of interest is therefore unnecessary. One commenter recommended that instead of identifying the transactions described in the proposed regulations as transactions of interest, the Form 1065 should be modified to ask questions to determine whether partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions occurred during the taxable year.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Forms 1120 and 1065, including statements or schedules required to be attached thereto, are filed as a part of a taxpayer's tax return and do not include all the information contained on Form 8886, 
                    <E T="03">Reportable Transaction Disclosure Statement.</E>
                     The Forms 1120 and 1065 also do not alert the OTSA to the taxpayer's participation in a transaction of interest, nor does the filing of a tax return result in disclosure and other obligations of material advisors to the transaction. Moreover, the purpose of the reporting requirements for a transaction of interest is to allow the OTSA and the IRS to learn detailed information about the identified transaction using limited resources, and without having to distill information obtained through annual filing requirements or to open taxpayer examinations. Accordingly, these comments are not adopted in the final regulations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Comments Addressing Compliance Burdens and Costs</HD>
                <P>Several commenters asserted that complying with the reporting requirements for the transactions identified by the proposed regulations would be unduly burdensome and result in excessive costs for small businesses. One commenter asserted that the proposed regulations stray from Congressional intent of simplicity by subjecting family business owners and their advisors to substantial reporting obligations and penalties. Another commenter asserted that the proposed regulations would result in many protective disclosures that the Treasury Department and the IRS could not handle.</P>
                <P>The impact on taxpayers who engage in legitimate business transactions with related parties resulting in positive partnership basis adjustments that meet the increased threshold amounts in these final regulations (applicable threshold amounts) discussed in Part IV of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, or who may decide they need to file a protective disclosure, is far outweighed by the benefit of requiring disclosure for the identified transactions, which have the potential for tax avoidance. Combatting abusive tax avoidance is a priority for the Federal Government and partnership transactions that shift basis among related parties without a corresponding economic or tax impact have the potential for tax avoidance. Moreover, the identification of the transactions described in these final regulations should not impact small business owners. If a taxpayer is engaging in one or more of the complex transactions identified by these final regulations with a related party that results in positive basis adjustments in a single taxable year that exceed the applicable threshold amounts of $10 million or more (or $25 million for later identified transactions), the taxpayer is not likely a small business owner and the reporting obligations outlined in these final regulations should not be unduly burdensome. Accordingly, these comments are not adopted in the final regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Comments Requesting That the Proposed Regulations Be Withdrawn or Reissued</HD>
                <P>A few commenters suggested that the proposed regulations be withdrawn, stating that they are overbroad. One commenter suggested that due to the number of their recommendations, the proposed regulations should be reproposed. Another commenter suggested that the proposed regulations be withdrawn and reproposed after the forthcoming proposed regulations described in Notice 2024-54 are finalized. The final regulations are narrowly tailored to identify transactions in which taxpayers may be exploiting the mechanical basis adjustment provisions in subchapter K to produce significant tax benefits with little to no economic cost to the partners. Taxpayers are able to engage in these transactions because the parties are related. In most cases, these transactions would not likely occur between partners negotiating on an arm's length basis. The purpose of the final regulations is to determine the ways in which related taxpayers are inappropriately shifting basis using the provisions of subchapter K, how they are creating opportunities to engage in transactions that generate inappropriate basis shifts (for example, how inside-outside basis disparities are being created), and the economic impact of the Federal income tax consequences created by the basis shifting transactions (for example, the extent to which gain is reduced or cost recovery is increased). It is in the interest of sound tax administration to gather this information now. As disclosures pursuant to this regulation will inform the Treasury Department and the IRS on transactions for which further examination or further guidance may be warranted, it does not make sense to withdraw the proposed regulations and wait to repropose them until the forthcoming regulations described in Notice 2024-54 are both proposed and finalized. Moreover, these final regulations are separate from, and do not rely on, the forthcoming proposed regulations described in Notice 2024-54. The comments to these proposed regulations have been helpful and have allowed the Treasury Department and the IRS to make several modifications in response to comments that limit the scope of the rules, as described in this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">III. Transactions of Interest Identified in the Proposed Regulations</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed regulations would have identified four kinds of partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions as transactions of interest. A basis adjustment transaction under proposed § 1.6011-18(c)(1)(i) would occur if a partnership distributes property to a person who is a related partner in a current or liquidating distribution, the partnership increases the basis of one or more of its remaining properties under section 734(b) and (c), and a proposed $5 million threshold amount is met (section 734(b) TOI). A basis adjustment transaction under proposed § 1.6011-18(c)(1)(ii) would occur if a partnership distributes property to a partner who is related to one or more partners in liquidation of a partnership interest (or in complete liquidation of the partnership), the basis of one or more distributed properties is increased under section 732(b) and (c), and a proposed $5 million threshold amount is met (section 732(b) TOI). A basis adjustment transaction under proposed § 1.6011-18(c)(1)(iii) would occur if a partnership distributes property to a partner who is related to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2964"/>
                    one or more partners, the basis of one or more distributed properties is increased under section 732(d), the related partner acquired all or a part of its interest in the partnership in a transaction that would have been a transaction described in proposed § 1.6011-18(c)(2) if the partnership had a section 754 election in effect for the year of transfer, and a proposed $5 million threshold amount is met (section 732(d) TOI). A basis adjustment transaction under proposed § 1.6011-18(c)(2) would occur if a partner transfers an interest in the partnership to a related transferee or to a person who is related to one or more existing partners in a nonrecognition transaction (as defined in proposed § 1.6011-18(b)(6)), the basis of one or more partnership properties is increased under section 743(b)(1) and (c), and a proposed $5 million threshold amount is met (section 743(b) TOI).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. General Reporting Exclusions</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Tax-Avoidance Indicators</HD>
                <P>One commenter recommended requiring reporting only for transactions with defined indicators of potential tax avoidance or evasion, rather than the involvement of a related or tax-indifferent party, but did not suggest other indicators or explain how the current indicators are insufficient. The Treasury Department and the IRS have made modifications to the proposed regulations as described herein to better target the identification of transactions for which reporting is required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Basis Shifts Between Assets of Like Character</HD>
                <P>One commenter recommended excluding transactions identified as a basis adjustment transaction of interest in cases in which (1) basis is shifted between assets of like character (that is, capital asset to capital asset or ordinary income asset to ordinary income asset), (2) basis is shifted from non-recoverable property to non-recoverable property or the basis adjustment does not provide a shorter recovery period, and (3) the property receiving the basis increase is not sold within two years of the basis increase. The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that a basis shift to a like-kind asset that has the same or a longer recovery period than the asset to which the basis was shifted from presents less risk of tax avoidance. However, the Treasury Department and the IRS do not agree that it would be appropriate in such circumstances to require reporting only if the property is disposed of within two years after the basis increase as there is still a potential for abuse if the property is disposed of after two years. A two-year rule would allow related taxpayers to increase the basis in property in anticipation of a future sale and would exclude transactions that present significant risks of tax avoidance. Accordingly, it is in the interest of sound tax administration to identify certain partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions as transactions of interest in the year of the basis shift and the commenter's recommendation is not adopted in the final regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Requiring Knowledge or Intent</HD>
                <P>A few commenters recommended including an intent requirement for the transactions identified by the proposed regulations as transactions of interest. One commenter recommended that taxpayers that are unaware of or have no reason to know that a transaction identified by the proposed regulations is reportable be excused from disclosure. Another commenter recommended including a subjective test for intent and providing safe harbors and exceptions for business separations and succession-planning transactions.</P>
                <P>Including an intent requirement for the transactions identified by the proposed regulations would introduce a subjective element, which is inconsistent with the IRS's need to gather additional information on the identified transactions to ascertain their potential for tax avoidance. Including an intent requirement in these regulations would also frustrate the IRS's ability to determine which of the basis adjustment transactions are impermissible tax avoidance transactions and to effectively and efficiently address the tax avoidance. Moreover, the general transaction of interest reporting requirements under section 6011 do not include a knowledge component; taxpayers are required to report the tax consequences of their transactions identified as transactions of interest regardless of whether they are aware of the reporting requirements. As further described in Parts III.A.4 and III.E of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, it is not appropriate to incorporate an exception or safe harbor for business separations or succession-planning transactions into the final regulations as these transactions are no less likely to be structured to avoid tax, and thus may also have the potential for tax avoidance. Accordingly, these comments are not adopted in the final regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Excluding Certain Basis-Adjustment Transactions</HD>
                <P>One commenter recommended excluding certain basis-adjustment transactions that cure inside-outside basis disparities created by section 734(b) adjustments, section 704(c) methods, contributions, distributions, and revaluations. Another commenter recommended that the final regulations consider common reasons why an inside-outside basis disparity might arise, such as transaction costs required to be capitalized to outside basis, certain income exclusions related to foreign corporations owned through a partnership, or the use of various section 704(c) methods. This commenter recommended that certain acquisitions of partnership businesses that may involve or create related-partner relationships, including distributions of lower-tier partnership interests to an upper-tier partnership and liquidations of blocker subsidiaries, be excluded as transactions of interest. Another commenter requested that the final regulations exclude partnership-incorporation transactions, including transactions described in Rev. Rul. 84-111, 1984-2 C.B. 88, Situation 2 (assets-up incorporation) and Situation 3 (interests-over incorporation). A few commenters requested that the final regulations exclude from the transactions identified as section 732(b) TOIs and section 734(b) TOIs any basis adjustments resulting from an actual or deemed distribution in the case of a partnership merger or division done for commercial reasons, such as to allow a partial sale and continuation of certain investments held by a private equity or other investment fund.</P>
                <P>
                    In response to comments received on the proposed regulations, these final regulations adopt several suggestions to limit the scope of the transactions identified by the proposed regulations to exclude from reporting common business transactions that do not meet large, economic thresholds. However, providing a blanket exclusion for certain transactions that may be common business transactions under specific circumstances, but may also have the potential for tax avoidance, would defeat the purpose of identifying the transactions as transactions of interest. For example, a partnership merger or division involving related parties may be undertaken with the intent to increase the basis of an asset that is subsequently disposed of in a recognition transaction or to increase cost recovery deductions. Moreover, one of the purposes of the final regulations is to gather additional information on 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2965"/>
                    how taxpayers are creating opportunities to shift basis between related parties using the provisions of subchapter K (for example, information related to how inside-outside basis disparities are being created). Providing an exclusion from reporting for transactions that cure inside-outside disparities created through certain section 704(c) methods, contributions, adjustments, distributions or revaluations would nullify most of the disclosures required by the final regulations as these are the techniques used to create opportunities for partnership related-party basis shifting. For these reasons, the commenters' suggestions for exclusions of certain transactions are not adopted in the final regulations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Publicly Traded Partnerships</HD>
                <P>One commenter expressed concern that publicly traded partnerships within the meaning of section 7704 of the Code (PTPs) are unable to identify the buyers and sellers of interests therein, making it impossible to determine whether a transfer is made between related parties. This commenter stated that PTPs frequently engage in transactions that result in section 743(b) adjustments as part of normal public trading and capital-markets transactions and that the final regulations should add carveouts for transactions of PTPs. At a minimum, the commenter recommended that the final regulations implement an ownership threshold for related partners of five percent or more of the PTP to allow such persons to be identified by disclosures required to be made to the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission. Another commenter recommended that basis adjustments resulting from an acquisition of a unit in a PTP, including as part of any redemption of publicly traded units by the PTP, should be excluded from the transactions identified as transactions of interest.</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that due to PTPs having a large number of PTP unitholders that are not related partners within the meaning of the final regulations, and the unlikelihood that unrelated PTP unitholders would engage in the transactions identified as transactions of interest in the final regulations, it is appropriate to exclude basis adjustments involving a transfer of or a distribution with respect to partnership interests in a PTP, except basis adjustments resulting from certain material transactions involving partnership interests held by related partners in a PTP. Accordingly, the final regulations provide that in the case of a PTP, a participating partner means a partner of the PTP but only to the extent that the partner engages in a private transfer (as described in § 1.7704-1(e)), redemption and repurchase agreement (as described in § 1.7704-1(f)), or private placement (as described in § 1.7704-1(h)) of a partnership interest with a related partner and the transaction is not otherwise excluded as a transaction of interest described in the final regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Cash as Property for Purposes of Section 734(b) TOIs</HD>
                <P>One commenter requested that the final regulations clarify that cash is not included as “property” for purposes of a section 734(b) TOI and thus positive basis adjustments resulting from a distribution of cash be excluded from transactions identified as transactions of interest. Another commenter asked for clarification that cash distributions in excess of basis that result in positive basis adjustments under section 734(b) are identified as transactions of interest only to the extent that the distributions are made to a tax-indifferent party.</P>
                <P>As a general matter, the text of section 734 makes no distinction between cash and other partnership property. A cash distribution to a related partner could be treated as a section 734(b) TOI to the extent that any basis increases generated under section 734(b)(1) exceed the gain recognized under section 731(a)(1) (or otherwise) with respect to which any tax imposed under subtitle A of the Code (subtitle A) is required to be paid by the related partners. However, the Treasury Department and the IRS note that if gain is recognized on a distribution of cash that results in a basis adjustment under section 734(b)(1)(A) and tax imposed under subtitle A is required to be paid on such gain by any of the related partners, that portion of the basis adjustment would not be counted towards the overall applicable threshold amount in determining whether disclosure of a transaction of interest is required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Acquisition and Integration Transactions for Purposes of Section 743(b) TOIs</HD>
                <P>A few commenters recommended excluding from a section 743(b) TOI transactions in which a party purchases a partnership interest in an arm's-length transaction, receives a basis adjustment under section 743(b), then transfers the partnership interest to a related person in a nonrecognition transaction (for example, a transfer to a corporation under section 351(a) or to a partnership under section 721(a)) that causes a re-computation and re-allocation of the section 743(b) adjustment for the benefit of the related-party transferee. Under the proposed regulations, assuming the proposed $5 million threshold amount was met, such a transaction would be reportable if the nonrecognition transfer to the related transferee results in a positive basis increase.</P>
                <P>
                    The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that a positive section 743(b) basis adjustment acquired through an arm's-length transaction (for example, a transaction that would not be a reportable transaction under these final regulations, without regard to the six-year lookback period) to which a related transferee succeeds should not be a reportable transaction, except to the extent of any additional positive basis adjustment resulting from the nonrecognition transfer. This is because if the original section 743(b) adjustment was acquired through an arm's length transaction that would not be reportable under the final regulations, a corresponding amount of gain should have been recognized and tax imposed under subtitle A should have been paid by the original transferor. Thus, a subsequent nonrecognition transfer by the original transferee that results in the same section 743(b) adjustment has little potential for tax abuse. Accordingly, the final regulations provide that if a partner receives an interest in a partnership from a person in a recognition transaction (first transfer) and the basis of one or more partnership properties is increased under section 743(b)(1) and (c), and subsequently the partner (transferor) transfers the partnership interest to a person related to the transferor (transferee) in a nonrecognition transaction (subsequent transfer), the subsequent transfer is a transaction of interest only if the transferee's basis adjustment under section 743(b)(1) and (c) resulting from the subsequent transfer exceeds the amount of the transferor's remaining basis adjustment that is attributable to the transferred partnership interest (excess amount), and the applicable threshold amount is met. The final regulations further provide that only the excess amount is counted towards the applicable threshold amount and that a transferor's remaining basis adjustment is equal to the amount of the transferor's basis adjustment under section 743(b)(1) and (c) resulting from the first transfer as adjusted under section 1016(a)(2) to reflect any recovery of the basis adjustment or as otherwise adjusted prior to the subsequent transfer.
                    <PRTPAGE P="2966"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">D. Transfers Between Unrelated Partners for Purposes of Section 743(b) TOIs</HD>
                <P>Many commenters recommended excluding transfers between unrelated parties from a section 743(b) TOI if the transferee is related to one or more existing partners. Several of these commenters recommended that the transaction identified by proposed § 1.6011-18(c)(2) should be limited to transfers between related transferors and transferees. The Treasury Department and the IRS agree with this suggestion as transfers between related parties have a clear potential for tax avoidance whereas transfers between unrelated parties if the transferee is related to one or more existing partners may be much harder to structure to achieve the desired tax avoidance. Additionally, an unrelated transferor may not have reason to know that a transferee is related to one or more existing partners. Accordingly, the definition of “related partner” in § 1.6011-18(b)(9) in the final regulations provides that in the case of a section 743(b) TOI, a related partner means a transferor and transferee of a partnership interest that are related to each other immediately before or immediately after a section 743(b) TOI. The definition in the final regulations does not include a transferee that is unrelated to a transferor but is related to one or more of the partners in the partnership.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">E. Transfers Upon Death</HD>
                <P>For purposes of a section 743(b) TOI, proposed § 1.6011-18(b)(2) would have defined a nonrecognition transaction as defined in section 7701(a)(45)—that is, any disposition of property in a transaction in which gain or loss is not recognized in whole or in part for purposes of subtitle A—other than a transfer on the death of a partner.</P>
                <P>One commenter requested clarification that a step up in basis that results from the transfer of an interest on the death of a partner is not a transaction of interest. Another commenter requested clarification that the following transactions are “transfers on the death of a partner” excluded from the definition of a nonrecognition transaction under the final regulations: (1) any deemed transfer to what had been a grantor trust, including an intentionally defective grantor trust; and (2) a transfer on the death of a beneficiary of a trust that is a partner. This same commenter requested clarification that a “transfer on the death of a partner” is neither a “nonrecognition transaction,” nor a “recognition transaction” as defined in the proposed regulations. Section 1.6011-18(c)(4) of the final regulations clarifies that transfers on the death of a partner are not identified as transactions of interest or as substantially similar transactions. Section 1.6011-18(b)(13) of the final regulations also provides that the term “transfer on the death of a partner” means a transfer of a partnership interest from a partner to the partner's estate or a deemed transfer from a grantor trust owned by the partner to a trust that becomes a separate entity for Federal income tax purposes by reason of the partner's death.</P>
                <P>One commenter recommended excluding distributions of partnership property to transferees of an interest in a partnership owned (or deemed owned) by a decedent at the time of death that occur during the administration of the decedent's estate, or a trust created by the decedent. This commenter also recommended excluding transfers of partnership interests owned (or deemed owned) by a decedent that occur during the administration of the decedent's estate or by a trust that was created by the decedent. Although not specifically stated in the commenter's letter, presumably, both of the commenter's recommendations would not be relevant in cases in which a section 754 election was made at the time of the decedent's death because there would be no disparity between the outside basis in the decedent's partnership interest and its share of inside basis in the partnership's properties. The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that transfers of partnership interests resulting from the death of a partner should be excluded from the transactions identified as transactions of interest and thus these transfers are not identified as such by the final regulations. However, if a section 754 election is not made for the taxable year that includes the death of the partner, subsequent transactions that generate positive basis adjustments, such as distributions of partnership property to the estate or transfers of partnership interests to beneficiaries that may resolve an inside-outside basis disparity created by a step-up to the basis of the decedent's partnership interest upon death, will be included as transactions of interest, provided that the applicable threshold amount is met. The Treasury Department and the IRS appreciate that a section 754 election, once made, is irrevocable without seeking permission from the IRS, and that a section 754 election at the time of a partner's death may require the partnership to maintain a separate set of calculations of the transferee beneficiaries' distributive shares of partnership items that reflect the section 743(b) adjustment. But making a section 754 election at the time of death would be the mechanism by which to avoid the reporting requirements imposed by the regulations (assuming the applicable threshold amount is met). Providing an exception to reporting for transactions that result in basis adjustments because a section 754 election was not made on the death of a partner due to potential administrative burdens would result in additional requests for reporting exceptions in other fact patterns in which a section 754 election was not made on an original transaction due to potential administrative burdens, and a subsequent nonrecognition transaction results in a basis adjustment that would otherwise be reportable. Including such exceptions in the final regulations would defeat the purpose of identifying the transactions of interest, as there may be circumstances in which the lack of a section 754 election was part of a strategy to generate more beneficial results using a transaction identified as a transaction of interest by the regulations. Thus, these final regulations do not exclude transactions in which a basis increase arises because a section 754 election was not made for a transaction that would have provided a basis adjustment to offset an inside-outside basis disparity. The Treasury Department and the IRS note that relief under §§ 301.9100-1 through 301.9100-3 may be available for section 754 elections should a partnership fail to make the election in the time prescribed by the Code and regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">IV. Threshold Amount for Reporting</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Amount Generally</HD>
                <P>
                    Under proposed § 1.6011-18(c)(3), a partnership related-party basis adjustment transaction would have included those transactions in which the total basis increases from all transactions described in proposed § 1.6011-18(c)(1) or (2), (d)(1) or (2) engaged in by the same partner or partnership during the taxable year (without netting for any basis adjustment that results in a basis decrease in the same transaction or another transaction), reduced by the gain recognized, if any, on which tax imposed under subtitle A is required to be paid by any of the related parties to the transaction, equal or exceed $5 million. Accordingly, a transaction of a partner or partnership described in proposed § 1.6011-18(c)(1) or (2) that resulted in a basis increase of less than $5 million during the taxable year would have been a transaction of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2967"/>
                    interest under proposed § 1.6011-18(a) if, in the same taxable year, the partner or partnership participated in another transaction or transactions described in proposed § 1.6011-18(c)(1) or (2) and, in the aggregate, the transactions resulted in a basis increase that equals or exceeds $5 million, without regard to any basis decrease resulting from the transactions and after reducing the resulting aggregate amount by the gain recognized, if any, on which tax imposed under subtitle A is required to be paid by any of the related parties to the transactions.
                </P>
                <P>Many commenters recommended increasing the proposed $5 million threshold amount, asserting that the $5 million threshold was too low, particularly considering the aggregation requirement, and would catch common business transactions. Several commenters recommended increasing the proposed $5 million threshold amount to an amount between $10 million and $100 million. One commenter recommended making the threshold amount $10 million for transactions of interest occurring after the applicability date of these final regulations and $50 million for transactions of interest occurring before that date.</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that increasing the proposed $5 million threshold amount is appropriate to reduce the administrative burden imposed on taxpayers. The purpose of these final regulations is to learn more about partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions and the Treasury Department and the IRS are conscious of overburdening taxpayers in that pursuit. Accordingly, the final regulations provide that, in the case of related-party basis adjustment transactions occurring within the six-year lookback period described in § 1.6011-18(c)(3)(ii), the applicable threshold amount is $25 million. For related-party basis adjustment transactions occurring after the six-year lookback period, the final regulations provide an applicable threshold amount of $10 million. In each case, the applicable threshold amount is met for a taxable year if the sum of all related-party basis increases (as determined under Part IV.B. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions) resulting from all transactions described in the final regulations of a participant during the taxable year (without netting for any downward basis adjustment in the same transaction or another transaction) exceeds by at least the applicable threshold amount the gain recognized from such transactions, if any, on which tax imposed under subtitle A is required to be paid by any of the related partners (or tax-indifferent party) who are a party to such transactions. If the applicable threshold amount is met for a taxable year, all transactions of the participant described in the final regulations for the taxable year are reportable as transactions of interest regardless of whether an individual transaction meets the applicable threshold amount.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Calculation of Threshold Amount</HD>
                <P>Commenters also recommended changing how the threshold amount is calculated. A few commenters recommended allowing basis increases to be offset by basis decreases for purposes of determining whether the threshold amount has been reached. Another commenter recommended taking basis increases into account only to the extent that corresponding basis decreases are borne by related parties. The same commenter recommended exempting transactions from the proposed regulations for which only a small portion (for example, 10 percent) of an overall basis decrease impacts parties related to those with corresponding basis increases, or vice versa. One commenter recommended that if its recommendation to limit reporting to the year of the transaction of interest is not adopted, that the threshold amount look to net taxable income—that is, reporting should be required only if the tax benefit reduced taxable income by the threshold amount. This commenter also suggested eliminating aggregation of basis increases. Another commenter recommended using a threshold amount that is not related to basis (for example, the book value of distributed property).</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that the calculation of the applicable threshold amount for purposes of section 734(b) TOIs should include only related partners' shares of basis increases and not the shares of unrelated parties, who can negotiate transactions at arm's length to protect their interests. The Treasury Department and the IRS also agree that the calculation of the applicable threshold amount for purposes of section 732(b) TOIs should exclude basis increases that correspond to basis decreases borne by unrelated partners (other than tax-indifferent parties) as basis decreases borne by unrelated partners should be negotiated at arm's length unless the unrelated partner is a tax-indifferent party. Accordingly, § 1.6011-18(c)(3)(iii) of the final regulations provide that in the case of a section 734(b) TOI, other than a substantially similar transaction described in § 1.6011-18(d)(1), for determining whether the applicable threshold amount is met for a taxable year, a basis increase is an increase to the adjusted basis of the partnership's property under section 734(b)(1) and (c) only to the extent of each related partner's share of the basis increase. Section 1.6011-18(c)(3)(iv) of the final regulations provides that in the case of a section 732(b) TOI, other than a substantially similar transaction described in § 1.6011-18(d)(1), for determining whether the applicable threshold amount is met for a taxable year, a basis increase is an increase to the basis of property distributed to one of the related partners under section 732(b) or (c), but excluding the amount of any basis increase that corresponds to a decrease to the basis of property distributed to unrelated partners (other than tax-indifferent parties) under section 732(b) and (c) or to unrelated partners' (other than tax-indifferent parties') shares of a corresponding decrease to the basis of the partnership's remaining property under section 734(b)(2) and (c). In the case of a substantially similar transaction described in § 1.6011-18 (d)(1), for purposes of determining whether the applicable threshold amount is met for a taxable year, a basis increase is an increase to the basis of property distributed to one of the partners under section 732(b) or (c) only to the extent of a corresponding decrease to the basis of property distributed to a tax-indifferent party under section 732(b) and (c) or to one or more tax-indifferent party's shares of a corresponding decrease to the basis of the partnership's remaining property under section 734(b)(2) and (c). For purposes of all of these rules, a partner's share of a basis decrease is determined immediately after the distribution under rules similar to the rules of § 1.197-2(h)(12)(iv)(D).</P>
                <P>
                    The Treasury Department and the IRS do not agree, however, that additional changes to the calculation of the applicable threshold amount, such as eliminating aggregation, calculating the applicable threshold amount based on increases to taxable income, or using an economic threshold that is based on book amounts, are appropriate in light of the modifications made. If aggregation were eliminated from the calculation of the applicable threshold amount, taxpayers would be incentivized to separate transactions described in the final regulations into multiple transactions that result in positive basis adjustments in an amount below the applicable threshold amount to avoid reporting obligations. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2968"/>
                    Incentivizing such behavior would defeat the purpose of the final regulations, which is to gather information on partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions. Additionally, calculating the applicable threshold amount based on taxable income or book amounts would introduce unnecessary complexity for both taxpayers and the IRS in identifying the transactions described in the final regulations. The calculation of the applicable threshold amount in the final regulations represents an appropriate methodology for quantifying the magnitude of partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions a taxpayer engages in for a taxable year. As described in Part IV.A of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, the increases to the threshold amount made by these final regulations should also address concerns that the applicable threshold amount is overly inclusive.
                </P>
                <P>Finally, one commenter requested clarification that substantially similar transactions are subject to the threshold amount. The Treasury Department and the IRS clarify that a transaction cannot be a substantially similar transaction if the applicable threshold amount is not met. As described in part VI of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, transactions would be “substantially similar” transactions if they are (1) expected to obtain the same or similar types of tax consequences as the transactions described in the final regulations, (2) factually similar or based on the same or similar tax strategy, and (3) the applicable threshold amount is met.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">V. Relatedness Standard</HD>
                <P>Proposed § 1.6011-18(b)(8) would have defined “related” as having a relationship described in section 267(b) (without regard to section 267(c)(3)) or section 707(b)(1). Proposed § 1.6011-18(b)(9) would have defined “related partners” as partners of a partnership that are related in the following manner—(i) in a transaction described in proposed § 1.6011-18(c)(1), the partnership has two or more direct or indirect partners that are related to each other within the meaning of proposed § 1.6011-18(b)(8), or (ii) in a transaction described in proposed § 1.6011-18(c)(2), the transferor of a partnership interest is related to the transferee, or the transferee is related to one or more of the partners in the partnership, within the meaning of proposed § 1.6011-18(b)(8). Under the proposed regulations, this relatedness requirement would have been met if the requisite relatedness exists either immediately before or immediately after a partnership related-party basis adjustment transaction described in proposed § 1.6011-18(c)(1) or (2).</P>
                <P>Several commenters recommended changes to the relatedness requirement, stating that it was overbroad and difficult to comply with as partnerships and partners may not be able to identify their related parties. One commenter recommended importing concepts found in section 1563(a)(2) of the Code (related to brother-sister controlled groups of corporations) that would limit the definition of related partnerships by taking into account common ownership of capital or profits interests in the partnerships only to the extent that such ownership is identical with respect to each partnership.</P>
                <P>In the case of transactions of interest involving section 734(b) or section 732(b) or (d), one commenter recommended requiring related partners to own 80 percent or more of the capital or profits interests of the partnership. Similarly, another commenter recommended that for all purposes of the final regulations, reporting should be required only if related parties own 80 percent or more of the capital or profits of a participating partnership. This commenter also recommended that the standard for relatedness be modified by substituting “80 percent” for “50 percent” in the relevant relationships defined within sections 267(b) or section 707(b)(1).</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS appreciate that the standard of relatedness used in the proposed regulations, combined with the scope of the transactions identified as transactions of interest, the proposed $5 million threshold amount, and the proposed definition of participation could result in administrative burdens on partnerships and their partners. The final regulations address these burdens by limiting the scope of the transactions identified, increasing the applicable threshold amounts, and limiting the application of the subsequent realization of tax benefit rule as described in Part VII.A. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions. For example, in response to comments requesting that the standard of relatedness be narrowed, in the case of a section 734(b), 732(b) or 732(d) TOI, the final regulations provide that only directly related partners (and not also indirectly related partners) are considered in determining whether partners are related within the meaning of § 1.6011-18(b)(8) of the final regulation.</P>
                <P>The final regulations do not adopt the additional changes to the standard of relatedness recommended by commenters because the Treasury Department and the IRS are concerned that counting only identical ownership as between related partnerships, or requiring related partners to own 80 percent or more of the capital or profits interests in a partnership, would more easily permit partnership structures with only marginally different ownership, including through the use of accommodation parties, to avoid such higher ownership thresholds without substantially affecting the partners' economics. Likewise, the Treasury Department and the IRS are concerned that increasing the relatedness standard from 50 percent to 80 percent could allow taxpayers to structure their affairs to stay below an 80-percent-relatedness standard, while simultaneously engaging in abusive partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions. Adding an ownership threshold or increasing the relatedness standard would frustrate the purpose of identifying the transactions described in the proposed regulations as transactions of interest. Accordingly, the commenters' recommendations are not adopted in the final regulations.</P>
                <P>
                    A commenter recommended excluding transactions between family members from those defined as transactions of interest and focusing instead on transactions involving controlled corporations described in section 267(f). The commenter noted that if relatedness is determined immediately before or after a transaction, parties undergoing divorce may be subject to these rules even though they have competing interests and will not be related after the divorce. Another commenter recommended excluding brothers and sisters from a person's family for purposes of determining relatedness, stating that, in the commenter's experience, siblings often have a contentious business relationship and are less likely to engage in transactions that confer large, gratuitous economic or tax benefits to one another. The Treasury Department and the IRS do not agree that familial relationships, including sibling relationships, should be excluded from the definition of relatedness. Family members, including siblings, often work in concert in ways that arm's-length parties do not. For those reasons, Congress included these familial relationships as part of the limitation rules in sections 267 and 707(b). Additionally, section 1041 of the Code is intended to address transfers of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2969"/>
                    property between spouses incident to divorce. For these reasons, the final regulations retain familial relationships, including sibling relationships, in the definition of relatedness.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">VI. Substantially Similar Transactions</HD>
                <P>Section 1.6011-4(b)(6) defines a “transaction of interest” as a transaction that is the same as or substantially similar to one of the types of transactions that the IRS has identified by notice, regulation, or other form of published guidance as a transaction of interest. For purposes of proposed § 1.6011-18, transactions would be “substantially similar” transactions if the transactions are substantially similar within the meaning of § 1.6011-4(c)(4)—that is, if they are expected to obtain the same or similar types of tax consequences and are either factually similar or based on the same or similar tax strategy. Proposed § 1.6011-18(a) would have provided that substantially similar transactions include, but are not limited to, the transactions described in proposed § 1.6011-18(d).</P>
                <P>Some commenters recommended clarifying or narrowing the definition of “substantially similar” transactions generally. Several commenters noted that the broad definition of “substantially similar transactions” in § 1.6011-4 increases uncertainty and compliance costs. Suggestions to amend § 1.6011-4, including that provision's definition of a “substantially similar” transaction, are outside the scope of these final regulations. As a result, the commenters' suggestions are not adopted in the final regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Tax-Indifferent Parties</HD>
                <P>Under proposed § 1.6011-18(d)(1), a transaction would have been substantially similar to a transaction described in proposed § 1.6011-18(c) if the transaction is a basis adjustment transaction described in proposed § 1.6011-18(c)(1) or (2), except that it does not involve related partners and one or more partners of the partnership is a tax-indifferent party. Under proposed § 1.6011-18(b)(11), a tax-indifferent party would have meant a person that is either not liable for Federal income tax because of its tax-exempt or, in certain cases, foreign status, or to which gain from a transaction described in proposed § 1.6011-18(c) would not result in Federal income tax liability for the person's taxable year within which such gain is recognized (for example, because the taxpayer has a net operating loss carryforward or capital loss carryforward).</P>
                <P>Two commenters recommended eliminating transactions involving tax-indifferent parties from those identified as transactions of interest. Many commenters noted that partners and partnerships may be unaware that a person engaging in a transaction identified by the proposed regulations is a tax-indifferent party. Some commenters requested clarification to the definition of tax-indifferent party, such as whether it includes direct or indirect partners that are exempt from Federal income tax under section 115 of the Code (relating to the income of State, territorial, or local governments), entities treated as partnerships or S corporations for Federal tax purposes, or a person that, due to tax attributes or for other reasons, is subject to tax on only part of its income. One commenter requested confirmation that the definition of a tax-indifferent party does not include a party with a capital loss carryover. The commenter raised that a capital loss carryover may be unrelated to a partner's partnership interest and unknown by other partners, particularly if the partner is unrelated.</P>
                <P>One commenter recommended limiting the rule to situations in which the tax-indifferent party knows or has reason to know of the tax benefits arising in connection with its participation in a basis-adjustment transaction and that the other partners that are party to the transaction know of the partner's tax-indifferent status. One commenter recommended an exception for taxpayers who do not have knowledge or reason to know that its transaction is reportable because a person that is a party to the transaction is tax-indifferent. Another commenter recommended modifying the tax-indifferent party rule to apply only to situations in which the taxpayer knowingly participates in the transaction to which the tax-indifferent party facilitates a basis step-up.</P>
                <P>Eliminating the tax-indifferent party rule would frustrate the purpose of identifying substantially similar transactions to the identified transactions of interest that use tax-indifferent parties instead of related parties to achieve the same economic or tax results. Accordingly, the Treasury Department and the IRS decline to eliminate the tax-indifferent party rule entirely in the final regulations. However, in response to these comments, the Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that certain changes to the scope of transactions of interest involving tax-indifferent parties are appropriate.</P>
                <P>Accordingly, the final regulations include a knowledge element in the definition of a tax-indifferent party. Section 1.6011-18(b)(12) of the final regulations provides that a tax-indifferent party means a person that is either not liable for Federal income tax by reason of its tax-exempt or, in certain cases, foreign status, or to which any gain, or portion of any gain, that would have resulted from a section 732(b) TOI or a section 734(b) TOI if the property subject to a basis decrease in such transaction were sold immediately after such transaction, would not result in Federal income tax liability for the person's taxable year within which such gain would have been recognized, and whose status as a tax-indifferent party is known or should be known to any other person that participates in the transaction or to a partner in a partnership that participates in such a transaction. Thus, a tax-indifferent party would include a person that is partially taxable, for example, due to tax attributes, to the extent that the person's status as a tax-indifferent party is known or should be known by any other person participating in the transaction or to a partner in a partnership that participates in such a transaction. Because partnerships or S corporations are generally not liable for tax, and because the tax status of their partners or shareholders could be diverse, the final regulations also provide that partnerships or S corporations are not tax-indifferent parties except in cases in which a principal purpose of the use of the partnership or S corporation is to avoid tax-indifferent party status.</P>
                <P>
                    Additionally, the final regulations limit the scope of a substantially similar transaction with a tax-indifferent party under § 1.6011-18(d)(1) by limiting the calculation of the applicable threshold amount to basis increases that correspond to a basis decrease to the tax-indifferent party for sections 732 and 734 TOIs. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Part IV.B. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions. These modifications are intended to address concerns that the tax-indifferent party rules in the proposed regulations were overbroad.
                </P>
                <P>The final regulations also clarify that a transaction with a tax-indifferent party includes a transaction in which the tax-indifferent party facilities the increase in the basis of partnership property in a section 732 TOI by having a share of a corresponding decrease to the basis of partnership property.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Recognition Transactions</HD>
                <P>
                    Proposed § 1.6011-18(d)(2) would have defined as a substantially similar transaction a transaction in which a partner transfers the partner's partnership interest in a recognition 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2970"/>
                    transaction to a related transferee or to a person related to one or more existing partners, and the proposed $5 million threshold amount was met. Proposed § 1.6011-18(b)(6) would have defined a “recognition transaction” as a transaction other than a nonrecognition transaction.
                </P>
                <P>One commenter requested clarification that proposed § 1.6011-18(d)(2) applies only to transfers between related parties, meaning the transferor and transferee must be related. The Treasury Department and the IRS agree with this comment and have made clarifying changes to confirm that the rule in § 1.6011-18(d)(2) does not apply to transfers of partnership interests between persons that are not related.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">VII. Participation in a Transaction of Interest Identified by the Proposed Regulations</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Subsequent Realization of Tax Benefit Rule</HD>
                <P>Under proposed § 1.6011-18(e)(2)-(4), a participating partnership, participating partner, or related subsequent transferee would have participated in a transaction of interest in any taxable year in which it participates in a transaction described in proposed § 1.6011-18(c). Additionally, under proposed § 1.6011-18(e)(5), a participating partnership, participating partner, or related subsequent transferee would have participated in a transaction of interest in any taxable year in which its tax return reflected the tax consequences of a basis increase resulting from a transaction described in proposed § 1.6011-18(c) (subsequent realization of tax benefit rule). Therefore, under the proposed regulations, as a result of the subsequent realization of tax benefit rule, a transaction described in proposed § 1.6011-18(c) that occurred many years ago could require reporting if a taxpayer's tax return in an open tax year reflected the tax consequences (such as cost-recovery deductions) arising from the transaction of interest.</P>
                <P>Several commenters recommended eliminating the retroactive effect of the subsequent realization of tax benefit rule. These commenters stated that complying with the rule would be burdensome given that it could require taxpayers and their advisors to reconstruct transactions and their resulting tax consequences from many years ago. Commenters asserted that, in many cases, taxpayers and their advisors will not have sufficient information to comply with the rule.</P>
                <P>Several commenters recommended that the proposed regulations apply prospectively to transactions that occur in taxable years beginning on or after the date the final regulations are adopted, whereas one commenter recommended applying the proposed regulations solely to transactions effected on or after January 1, 2023. One commenter recommended applying the subsequent realization of tax benefit rule only to partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions that occur within partnership tax years that remain open under the period of limitations set forth in section 6235 of the Code. Section 6235 provides rules on the period of limitations for making adjustments with respect to partnerships subject to the Centralized Partnership Audit Regime under the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2015 (BBA partnerships). Under section 6235(a)(1), the time for the IRS to make an adjustment for a taxable year of a BBA partnership generally is the later of the date which is three years after the latest of (1) the date on which the partnership return for the taxable year was filed, (2) the return due date for the taxable year, or (3) the date on which the partnership filed an administrative adjustment request under section 6227 of the Code with respect to the taxable year. In the case of a BBA partnership that makes a substantial omission of gross income within the meaning of section 6501(e)(1), section 6235(c)(2) provides that the period of limitations on making adjustments is six years instead of three years.</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS do not agree with eliminating all reporting that would occur under the subsequent realization of tax benefit rule as this would defeat the purpose of providing the IRS with information regarding transactions with tax consequences occurring over more than one taxable year. However, the Treasury Department and the IRS agree that it is appropriate to limit the retroactive information effect of the subsequent realization of tax benefit rule because of administrative concerns with compliance for transactions that would meet the elements of § 1.6011-18(c) and (d) except that they occurred many years ago.</P>
                <P>In determining the appropriate limitation for the subsequent realization of tax benefit rule, limiting the look back period to the prior six years as recommended by one commenter allows the IRS to preserve its ability to assess tax in cases in which the statute of limitations for assessment of tax is six years pursuant to section 6501(e) or section 6235(c)(2). In addition, a six-year lookback period aligns with the requirement under § 301.6112-1(b)(2) that material advisors of transactions of interests maintain lists of advisees, but not if the person entered into the transaction more than six years from the date the transaction was identified as a transaction of interest under published guidance. Accordingly, the final regulations adopt a six-year lookback period for required disclosures. Under the final regulations at § 1.6011-18(f)(2), for a taxable year described in § 1.6011-4(e)(2)(i), a participant must provide the information described in the final regulations only if the transaction of interest occurred within the six-year lookback period. Section 1.6011-18(b)(11) of the final regulations provides that the six-year lookback period means the seventy-two months immediately preceding the first month of the taxpayer's most recent taxable year that began before January 14, 2025. The final regulations include examples demonstrating the six-year lookback period rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Limiting the Definition of Participation</HD>
                <P>Several commenters recommended requiring reporting only in the taxable year the transaction of interest occurs and eliminating the subsequent realization of tax benefit rule. These commenters asserted that reporting only in the year in which the transaction of interest first arises would reduce compliance burdens and costs for taxpayers and limit the potential for missed reporting. One commenter suggested adopting a one-time disclosure mechanism like that adopted in Form 1065, Schedule B, questions 11 and 12 for the “drop and swap” or “swap and drop” transactions to which section 1031 of the Code applies. Another commenter recommended requiring reporting only at the partnership level to avoid duplicative reporting. Reporting by all participants in any taxable year in which the participant's tax return reflects the tax consequences of a basis increase resulting from a transaction of interest is the most appropriate for tax compliance and administration. Accordingly, the commenters' recommendations are not adopted in the final regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Analyses</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>
                    The collection of information contained in these final regulations is reflected in the collection of information for Form 8886 and Form 8918, 
                    <E T="03">Material Advisor Disclosure Statement,</E>
                     that have been reviewed and approved by the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2971"/>
                    Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3507(c)) under control numbers 1545-1800 and 1545-0865.
                </P>
                <P>To the extent there is a change in burden as a result of these final regulations, the change in burden will be reflected in the updated burden estimates for the Forms 8886 and 8918. The requirement to maintain records to substantiate information on Forms 8886 and 8918 is already contained in the burden associated with the control number for the forms and remains unchanged.</P>
                <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid OMB control number.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">II. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. chapter 6) requires agencies to “prepare and make available for public comment an initial regulatory flexibility analysis,” which will “describe the impact of the rule on small entities.” Section 605(b) of the RFA allows an agency to certify a rule if the rulemaking is not expected to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.</P>
                <P>The Secretary of the Treasury hereby certifies that these final regulations will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities pursuant to the RFA. This certification is based on IRS data that estimates the percentage of partnerships that would have been required to file a disclosure statement under the proposed regulations and those that may be required to file a disclosure statement under the final regulations.</P>
                <P>
                    The IRS's Research, Applied Analytics, and Statistics division (RAAS) provided data that indicated the percentage of partnerships with gross receipts or sales of $25 million or less that might have been subject to the disclosure obligations under the proposed regulations because of a basis adjustment under section 743(b) of more than $5 million during the taxable year. In addition, RAAS provided data that indicated the percentage of partnerships with gross receipts or sales of $25 million or more that might have been subject to the disclosure obligations under the proposed regulations because of a basis adjustment under section 743(b) of more than $5 million during the taxable year. The data suggested that of all partnerships with related parties and a basis adjustment under section 743(b) of more than $5 million during the taxable year, approximately two-thirds of the partnerships would have gross receipts or sales of $25 million or less and approximately one-third would have gross receipts or sales of $25 million or more. The Treasury Department and the IRS determined that the data did not indicate that the proposed regulations would have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities because not all partnerships with gross receipts or sales of $25 million or less are considered small businesses,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the data did not provide information on whether the partnerships with gross receipts or sale of $25 million or less were part of larger enterprises.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See,</E>
                         13 CFR 121.201.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As discussed in Part II of the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, several commenters stated that the scope of the proposed regulations would be overbroad and the number of entities that would be subject to disclosure was underestimated. In addition, commenters asserted that taxpayers would be subject to substantial costs for complying with the proposed regulations because compliance required reviewing transactions from prior taxable years to determine whether a continuing tax benefit was attributable to a transaction identified as a transaction of interest under the proposed regulations. These comments are addressed in Parts II and VII of the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions.</P>
                <P>One commenter asserted that the Treasury Department and the IRS underestimated the likely cost of complying with the proposed regulations. Specifically, the commenter asserted that the likely wage of tax preparers and costs of due diligence, as well as the number of parties affected by each transaction of interest were underestimated.</P>
                <P>As indicated in the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, the final regulations include changes that should significantly limit the total number of entities and more specifically, small businesses, subject to the disclosure obligations. Most significantly, the applicable threshold amount is increased from $5 million to $10 million; the period for reporting under § 1.6011-4(e)(2)(i) is limited to a six-year lookback period and the applicable threshold amount for the six-year lookback period is $25 million; in the case of a section 734(b) TOI, the applicable threshold amount is determined by generally only taking into account only the amount of the basis increase shared by related partners; in the case of a section 732(b) TOI, the applicable threshold amount is determined by generally only taking into account only the amount of the basis increase that corresponds to a basis decrease shared by the related partners.</P>
                <P>In addition, more recent data from the IRS indicates that, in the case of partnerships with gross assets of less than $25 million that reported basis adjustments under section 734(b) or section 743(b) for the taxable year, the average basis adjustment was less than the applicable threshold amount of $10 million or more in the final regulations. Thus, the Treasury Department and the IRS anticipate that many partnerships with gross assets of less than $25 million should not be subject to the disclosure obligations under the final regulations. Further, the data indicates that partnerships with gross assets of more than $25 million that reported basis adjustments under section 734(b) or section 743(b) for the taxable year that met the applicable threshold amount of $10 million or more in the final regulations represent less than one percent of all partnerships that filed tax returns for the taxable year. Accordingly, as a result of the changes made to the final regulations in response to comments received on the proposed regulations, the disclosure obligations in the final regulations should affect a low percentage of partnerships and most of those partnerships will be partnerships with less than $25 million of gross assets.</P>
                <P>The final regulations should not have a significant economic impact on small entities subject to the reporting requirements of the final regulations because the final regulations merely implement sections 6011, 6111 and 6112 and § 1.6011-4 by specifying the manner in which and the time at which a transaction identified as a transaction of interest in the final regulations must be reported. Accordingly, because the final regulations will be limited in scope to time and manner of information reporting, their economic impact is expected to be minimal. The Treasury Department and the IRS expect that the reporting burden is low because the information sought is necessary for regular annual return preparation and ordinary recordkeeping. The estimated burden for any taxpayer required to file Form 8886 is approximately 10 hours, 16 minutes for recordkeeping, 4 hours, 50 minutes for learning about the law or the form, and 6 hours, 25 minutes for preparing, copying, assembling, and sending the form to the IRS.</P>
                <P>
                    RAAS estimated that the appropriate wage rate for complying with the proposed regulations is $102.00 (2022 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2972"/>
                    dollars) per hour. Thus, it was estimated that persons required to comply with the proposed regulations would have incurred costs totaling approximately $2,194.70 per filing. One commenter indicated that this per hour dollar amount is too small and that a better estimate is approximately $177.29 per hour or approximately $3,814.69 per filing (subject to the taxpayer potentially seeking specialists with a higher hourly fee to comply with the proposed regulations). Either of these amounts is small in comparison to an aggregate basis increase of $10 million or more as the result of a transaction identified as a transaction of interest under the final regulations. Thus, the relatively small cost to comply with the final regulations will not pose any significant economic impact to any small entities that would be subject to the final regulations.
                </P>
                <P>For the reasons stated, a regulatory flexibility analysis under the RFA is not required. Pursuant to section 7805(f) of the Code, the proposed rule preceding this rulemaking was submitted to the Chief Counsel for the Office of Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on its impact on small business, and no comments were received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">III. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits and take certain other actions before issuing a final rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in expenditures in any one year by a State, local, or Tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. This rule does not include any Federal mandate that may result in expenditures by State, local, or Tribal governments, or by the private sector in excess of that threshold.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">IV. Executive Order 13132: Federalism</HD>
                <P>Executive Order 13132 (Federalism) prohibits an agency from publishing any rule that has federalism implications if the rule either imposes substantial, direct compliance costs on State and local governments, and is not required by statute, or preempts state law, unless the agency meets the consultation and funding requirements of section 6 of the Executive order. These final regulations do not have federalism implications and do not impose substantial direct compliance costs on State and local governments or preempt state law within the meaning of the Executive order.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">V. Regulatory Planning and Review</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to the Memorandum of Agreement, Review of Treasury Regulations under Executive Order 12866 (June 9, 2023), tax regulatory actions issued by the IRS are not subject to the requirements of section 6 of Executive Order 12866, as amended. Therefore, a regulatory impact assessment is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">VI. Congressional Review Act</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has designated this rule as not a “major rule,” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Statement of Availability of IRS Documents</HD>
                <P>
                    Guidance cited in this preamble is published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin and is available from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Publishing Office, Washington, DC 20402, or by visiting the IRS website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.irs.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Drafting Information</HD>
                <P>The authors of these regulations are Elizabeth Zanet and Cameron Williamson, Office of the Associate Chief Counsel (Passthroughs and Special Industries). However, other personnel from the Treasury Department and the IRS participated in their development.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 26 CFR Part 1</HD>
                    <P>Income taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Amendments to the Regulations</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, the Treasury Department and the IRS propose to amend 26 CFR part 1 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1—INCOME TAXES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Paragraph 1.</E>
                         The authority citation for part 1 is amended by adding an entry for § 1.6011-18 in numerical order to read in part as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>Section 1.6011-18 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6001 and 26 U.S.C. 6011.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 2.</E>
                         Section 1.6011-18 is added to read as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.6011-18</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Certain partnership related-party basis adjustment transactions as transactions of interest.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Identification as transaction of interest.</E>
                             Transactions that are the same as or substantially similar (within the meaning of § 1.6011-4(c)(4)) to the transactions described in paragraph (c) of this section are identified as transactions of interest for purposes of § 1.6011-4(b)(6). Transactions that are substantially similar (within the meaning of § 1.6011-4(c)(4)) to the transactions described in paragraph (c) of this section include, but are not limited to, transactions described in paragraph (d) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             The following definitions apply for purposes of this section:
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Code</E>
                             means the Internal Revenue Code.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Nonrecognition transaction</E>
                             means a nonrecognition transaction within the meaning of section 7701(a)(45) of the Code.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Participating partner</E>
                             means—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(ii), (iii), or (iv) of this section, any partner that directly receives a distribution of property from, or an interest in, a participating partnership, or directly transfers an interest in a participating partnership, in a transaction described in paragraph (c) or (d) of this section, including a person that becomes or ceases to be a partner as a result of such transaction.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) In the case of a participating partnership interest held by an entity that is disregarded as separate from its owner within the meaning of § 301.7701-2(c)(2)(i) of this chapter, 
                            <E T="03">participating partner</E>
                             means the owner of the disregarded entity for Federal income tax purposes.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) In the case of a participating partnership interest held by a trust for which the grantor or another person is treated as the owner of the trust that holds the participating partnership interest as provided in section 671 of the Code, 
                            <E T="03">participating partner</E>
                             means the grantor or other person designated under sections 671 through 679 of the Code as the owner of the trust that holds the participating partnership interest.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iv) In the case of a publicly traded partnership within the meaning of section 7704 of the Code, 
                            <E T="03">participating partner</E>
                             means a partner of the publicly traded partnership but only to the extent that the partner engages in a private transfer (as described in § 1.7704-1(e)), redemption or repurchase agreement (as described in § 1.7704-1(f)), or private placement (as described in § 1.7704-1(h)) of a partnership interest with a related partner and the transaction is not otherwise excluded as a transaction described in paragraph (c) or (d) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Participating partnership</E>
                             means any partnership—
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) That makes a distribution of property to a participating partner in a 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2973"/>
                            transaction described in paragraph (c)(1) or (d)(1) of this section, or
                        </P>
                        <P>(ii) A partnership interest in which is transferred by a participating partner in a transaction described in paragraph (c)(2) or (d)(2) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">Participating partnership interest</E>
                             means any partnership interest in a participating partnership.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (6) 
                            <E T="03">Recognition transaction</E>
                             means a transaction other than a nonrecognition transaction within the meaning of paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (7) 
                            <E T="03">Recoverable property</E>
                             means property of a character subject to an allowance for depreciation, amortization, or depletion under subtitle A of the Code (subtitle A).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (8) 
                            <E T="03">Related</E>
                             means having a relationship described in section 267(b) of the Code (without regard to section 267(c)(3)) or section 707(b)(1) of the Code.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (9) 
                            <E T="03">Related partners</E>
                             means:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) In the case of a transaction described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, two or more direct partners of a partnership that are related immediately before or immediately after a transaction described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(ii) In the case of a transaction described in paragraph (c)(2) or (d)(2) of this section, a transferor and transferee of a partnership interest that are related to each other immediately before or immediately after a transaction described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (10) 
                            <E T="03">Related subsequent transferee</E>
                             means any person that is related to a participating partner and directly received in a nonrecognition transaction a transfer (including a distribution) of property that was subject to an increase in basis from a transaction described in paragraph (c) or (d) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (11) 
                            <E T="03">Six-year lookback period</E>
                             means the seventy-two months immediately preceding the first month of the taxpayer's most recent taxable year that began before January 14, 2025.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (12) 
                            <E T="03">Tax-indifferent party</E>
                             means a person that is either not liable for Federal income tax by reason of the person's tax-exempt or, in certain cases, foreign status, or to which any gain, or portion of any gain, that would have resulted from a transaction described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section if the property subject to a basis decrease in such transaction were sold immediately after such transaction would not result in Federal income tax liability for the person's taxable year within which such gain would have been recognized, and whose status as a tax-indifferent party is known or should be known to any other person that participates in a transaction described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section or to a partner in a partnership that participates in such a transaction. A tax-indifferent party does not include a partnership or S corporation except in a case in which a principal purpose of the use of the partnership or S corporation is to avoid tax-indifferent party status.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (13) 
                            <E T="03">Transfer on the death of a partner</E>
                             means a transfer of a partnership interest from a partner to the partner's estate or a deemed transfer from a grantor trust owned by the partner to a trust that becomes a separate entity for Federal income tax purposes by reason of the partner's death.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Transaction description.</E>
                             A transaction is described in this paragraph (c) if the factual elements of the transaction described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) through (iii) or (c)(2) of this section are met.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Distributions by a partnership.</E>
                             A partnership with two or more related partners engages in any of the transactions described in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section as follows:
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The partnership distributes property to one of the related partners in a current or liquidating distribution, the partnership increases the basis of one or more of its remaining properties under section 734(b) and (c) of the Code, and the applicable threshold described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section is met.</P>
                        <P>(ii) The partnership distributes property to one of the related partners in liquidation of that person's partnership interest (or in complete liquidation of the partnership), the basis of one or more of those distributed properties is increased under section 732(b) and (c) of the Code, and the applicable threshold described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section is met.</P>
                        <P>(iii) The partnership distributes property to one of the related partners, the basis of one or more of those distributed properties is increased under section 732(d) of the Code, the distributee acquired all or a part of its interest in the partnership in a transaction that would have been a transaction described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section if the partnership had a section 754 election in effect for the year of transfer, and the applicable threshold described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section is met.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Transfers of a partnership interest</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) or (c)(4) of this section, a partner transfers all or a portion of a partnership interest to a related partner in a nonrecognition transaction, the basis of one or more partnership properties is increased under section 743(b)(1) and (c) of the Code, and the applicable threshold described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section is met.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Subsequent nonrecognition transfers</E>
                            —(A) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             If a partner receives an interest in a partnership from a person in a recognition transaction (first transfer) and the basis of one or more partnership properties is increased under section 743(b)(1) and (c) of the Code, and subsequently the partner (transferor) transfers the partnership interest to a person related to the transferor (transferee) in a transaction described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section (subsequent transfer), the subsequent transfer is a transaction described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section only to the extent, if any, that the transferee's basis adjustment under section 743(b)(1) and (c) resulting from the subsequent transfer exceeds the amount of the transferor's remaining basis adjustment described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section that is attributable to the transferred partnership interest (excess amount), and the applicable threshold described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section is met. Only the excess amount is counted towards the applicable threshold described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) 
                            <E T="03">Transferor's remaining basis adjustment.</E>
                             A 
                            <E T="03">transferor's remaining basis adjustment</E>
                             is equal to the amount of the transferor's basis adjustment under section 743(b)(1) and (c) resulting from the first transfer as adjusted under section 1016(a)(2) of the Code to reflect the recovery of the basis adjustment or as otherwise adjusted prior to the subsequent transfer.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Applicable threshold</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section, for determining whether a transaction is described in paragraph (c)(1) or (2), (d)(1) or (2) of this section, the applicable threshold is met for a taxable year if the sum of all basis increases resulting from all such transactions of a partnership or partner during the taxable year (without netting for any basis adjustment that results in a basis decrease in the same transaction or another transaction) exceeds by at least $10 million the gain recognized from such transactions during the same taxable year, if any, on which tax imposed under subtitle A is required to be paid by any of the related partners (or tax-indifferent party, in the case of a transaction described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section) who are a party to such transactions.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Six-year lookback period threshold.</E>
                             In the case of a transaction described in (c) or (d) of this section that 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2974"/>
                            occurred within the six-year lookback period, paragraph (c)(3)(i) applies by substituting “$25 million” for “$10 million” for determining whether the applicable threshold is met for a taxable year.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Basis increase under section 734(b) and (c) only for shares of basis increase to related partners.</E>
                             In the case of a transaction described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section for determining whether the applicable threshold is met for a taxable year, a basis increase is an increase to the adjusted basis of the partnership's property under section 734(b)(1) and (c) only to the extent of a related partner's share of the basis increase. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3)(iii), a partner's share of a basis increase is determined immediately after the distribution under rules similar to the rules of § 1.197-2(h)(12)(iv)(D).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iv) 
                            <E T="03">Basis increase under sections 732(b) or (c) only for shares of corresponding basis decreases under section 734(b) to related partners or tax-indifferent parties.</E>
                             In the case of a transaction described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section for determining whether the applicable threshold is met for a taxable year, a basis increase is an increase to the basis of property distributed to one of the related partners under section 732(b) or (c), but excluding the amount of any basis increase that corresponds to a decrease to the basis of property distributed to unrelated partners (other than tax-indifferent parties) under section 732(b) and (c) or to unrelated partners' (other than tax-indifferent parties') shares of a corresponding decrease to the basis of the partnership's remaining property under section 734(b)(2) and (c). For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3)(iv), a partner's share of a basis decrease is determined immediately after the distribution under rules similar to the rules of § 1.197-2(h)(12)(iv)(D). In the case of a transaction described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, for purposes of determining whether the applicable threshold is met for a taxable year, a basis increase is an increase to the basis of property distributed to one of the partners under section 732(b) or (c) only to the extent of a corresponding decrease to the basis of property distributed to a tax-indifferent party under section 732(b) and (c) or to one or more tax-indifferent party's shares of a corresponding decrease to the basis of the partnership's remaining property under section 734(b)(2) and (c).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Exclusion of a transfer on the death of a partner.</E>
                             A transaction described in paragraph (c)(2) or (d)(2) of this section does not include a transfer of a partnership interest that is a transfer on the death of a partner within the meaning of paragraph (b)(13) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Substantially similar transaction.</E>
                             A transaction that is substantially similar (within the meaning of § 1.6011-4(c)(4)) to a transaction described in paragraph (c) of this section includes, but is not limited to:
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) A transaction that is described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section except that the partners of the partnership are not related and one or more partners of the partnership is a tax-indifferent party that facilitates an increase in the basis of partnership property or an increase in the basis of property held by another partner in the partnership by receiving a distribution of property from the partnership or having a share of a corresponding decrease to the basis of partnership property, and the applicable threshold described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section is met; and</P>
                        <P>(2) A transaction in which a transferor transfers an interest in a partnership to a transferee that is related to the transferor in a recognition transaction, and the applicable threshold described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section is met.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Participation</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             Whether a taxpayer has participated in a transaction of interest described in paragraph (c) of this section or a substantially similar transaction described in paragraph (d) of this section during a taxable year is determined under this paragraph (e).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Participating partners.</E>
                             A participating partner participates in a transaction of interest described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section or a substantially similar transaction described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section in any taxable year in which the partner directly receives a distribution of property, or directly transfers or receives an interest in a participating partnership, in a transaction described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section or a substantially similar transaction described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Participating partnerships.</E>
                             A participating partnership participates in a transaction of interest described in paragraph (c) or a substantially similar transaction described in paragraph (d) of this section in any taxable year in which the partnership makes a distribution of property to a participating partner in a transaction described in paragraph (c)(1) or (d)(1) of this section, or a participating partnership interest is transferred in a transaction described in paragraph (c)(2) or (d)(2) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Related subsequent transferees.</E>
                             A related subsequent transferee participates in a transaction of interest described in paragraph (c) of this section or a substantially similar transaction described in paragraph (d) of this section in any taxable year in which the related subsequent transferee directly receives, in a nonrecognition transaction, a transfer (including a distribution) of property that was subject to an increase in basis as a result of a transaction described in paragraph (c) or (d) of this section that was required to be disclosed under paragraph (f) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">Subsequent realization of tax benefit.</E>
                             A participating partnership, participating partner, or related subsequent transferee also participates in a transaction of interest described in paragraph (c) or a substantially similar transaction described in paragraph (d) of this section in any taxable year in which its tax return reflects the tax consequences of a basis increase resulting from a transaction of interest described in paragraph (c) or (d) of this section, taking into account the limitations provided in paragraphs (c)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section. For example, if a participating partner sells property the basis of which has been increased as a result of a transaction of interest described in paragraph (c) of this section during a taxable year after the taxable year in which the transaction of interest occurred, the participating partner participates in a transaction of interest described in paragraph (c) of this section in the taxable year of the basis increase and in the taxable year of the sale.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Disclosure requirements</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (f)(1), participants must provide the information required under § 1.6011-4(d) and the Instructions to Form 8886, 
                            <E T="03">Reportable Transaction Disclosure Statement</E>
                             (or successor form), and in the manner described in § 1.6011-4(e), for each taxable year in which the participant participated in a transaction described in paragraph (c) or (d) of this section as determined under paragraph (e) of this section. For all participants, describing the transaction in sufficient detail includes describing the information described in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section, as applicable, on Form 8886 (or successor form) for the taxable year of a transaction described in paragraph (c) or (d) of this section. In the case of a participant that is a tax-indifferent party, the disclosure requirements of this paragraph (f) apply only if the tax-indifferent party is otherwise required to file a tax return (or an information return) for the taxable year of the 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2975"/>
                            transaction described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The names and identifying numbers of all participants, including the participating partnership, participating partners and any related subsequent transferees.</P>
                        <P>(ii) All basis adjustments resulting from a transaction described in paragraph (c) or (d) of this section, including—</P>
                        <P>(A) Basis information, including the participating partnership's adjusted basis in the distributed property immediately before the distribution,</P>
                        <P>(B) Any adjustments to basis under section 732(a)(2), (b), (d) or section 734(b),</P>
                        <P>(C) Any adjustments to basis under section 743(b) with respect to a participating partner that is transferred an interest in a participating partnership, and</P>
                        <P>(D) With respect to a participating partner that transfers an interest in a participating partnership, that participating partner's adjusted basis in the participating partnership interest and share of the participating partnership's adjusted basis in its property immediately before the transfer.</P>
                        <P>(iii) Any Federal income tax consequences realized during the taxable year as a result of a transaction described in paragraph (c) or (d) of this section, including any cost recovery allowances attributable to any increase in basis as a result of a transaction described in paragraph (c) of this section, and any gain or loss attributable to the disposition of property that was subject to an increase in basis as a result of a transaction described in paragraph (c) or (d) of this section. The Federal income tax consequences attributable to an increase in basis resulting from a transaction described in paragraph (c) or (d) of this section are limited to those attributable to the increase in basis, taking into account the limitations of paragraph (c)(3)(iii) or (iv) of this section. For example, in the case of a distribution of depreciable property that was subject to an increase in basis because of a transaction described in paragraph (c) or (d) of this section, the Federal income tax consequences realized during the taxable year include the basis increase and cost recovery allowances attributable to the basis increase during the taxable year.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Six-year lookback period for taxable years described in special rule of § 1.6011-4(e)(2)(i).</E>
                             For purposes of the special rule of § 1.6011-4(e)(2)(i) (describing the disclosure requirement with respect to a transaction that is identified as a transaction of interest after the filing of the taxpayer's tax return (including an amended return) reflecting the taxpayer's participation in the transaction of interest but before the end of the period of limitations for assessment of tax for such taxable year), a participant must provide the information described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section for such open years only if the transaction described in paragraph (c) or (d) of this section occurred within the six-year lookback period described in paragraph (b)(11) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Examples.</E>
                             The following examples illustrate the provisions of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Example 1: Reporting by a participating partner and participating partnership in the taxable year of the transaction, including cost recovery allowances</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             ABC Partnership is owned by partners A, B, and C. Partners A, B, and C are related within the meaning of paragraphs (b)(8) and (9) of this section. At the beginning of taxable year 2025, ABC Partnership distributes a depreciable asset, Property X, to Partner A in liquidation of Partner A's interest in ABC Partnership. The distribution is a transaction described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. As a result of the distribution, the basis of Property X is increased by $10 million in Partner A's hands. On its tax return for taxable year 2025, Partner A reports deductions for depreciation expense attributable to the $10 million increase in the basis of Property X resulting from the transaction under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. In addition, ABC Partnership must reduce the basis of its remaining property under section 734(b)(2) as a result of the distribution of Property X to Partner A by $10 million. ABC Partnership and Partner A use the calendar year as their taxable year.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             Partner A is a participant during taxable year 2025 within the meaning of paragraph (e) of this section because it is a participating partner within the meaning of paragraph (b)(3) of this section since it directly received a distribution of property during taxable year 2025 in a transaction described in paragraph (c) of this section. ABC Partnership is a participant during taxable year 2025 within the meaning of paragraph (e) of this section because it is a participating partnership within the meaning of paragraph (b)(4) of this section since it made a distribution of property to a participating partner during taxable year 2025 in a transaction described in paragraph (c) of this section. As part of its disclosure requirements under paragraph (f) of this section and § 1.6011-4(d) and (e), Partner A must disclose the distribution as a transaction of interest under this section on Form 8886 (or successor form) and file the form with its tax return for taxable year 2025. Partner A must include the information described in paragraph (f) of this section, including the amount of the deductions attributable to the $10 million increase in the basis of Property X resulting from the transaction described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. As part of its disclosure requirements under paragraph (f) of this section and § 1.6011-4(d) and (e), ABC Partnership must disclose the distribution as a transaction of interest under this section on Form 8886 (or successor form) and file the form with its tax return for taxable year 2025, including the information described in paragraph (f) of this section. In addition, Partner A and ABC Partnership must send a copy of their respective Form 8886 (or successor form) to the Office of Tax Shelter Analysis (OTSA).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Example 2: Reporting of the Federal income tax consequences (cost recovery allowances) of the transaction in all taxable years</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Under the same facts as in paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 1),</E>
                             on its tax returns for taxable years 2026 through 2030, Partner A reports deductions for depreciation expense attributable to the $10 million increase in the basis of Property X related to the transaction described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, which occurred in taxable year 2025.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             As part of its disclosure requirements under paragraph (f) of this section and § 1.6011-4(d) and (e), Partner A must disclose the deductions on Form 8886 (or successor form) for taxable years 2026 through 2030 as the Federal income tax consequences of the transaction described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. As a result, for each of taxable years 2026 through 2030, Partner A must file the form with its tax return for the taxable year with the information described in paragraph (f) of this section, including the amount of the deductions for the taxable year attributable to the $10 million increase in the basis of Property X resulting from the transaction described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Example 3: Reporting by a participating partner, participating partnership, and related subsequent transferee in the taxable year of the transaction</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             The facts are the same as in paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 1),</E>
                             except that at the beginning of taxable year 2025, instead of distributing a depreciable asset, ABC Partnership distributes a nondepreciable asset, Land with an adjusted basis of $5 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2976"/>
                            million, to Partner A in liquidation of Partner A's interest in ABC Partnership. The distribution is a transaction described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. As a result of the distribution, the basis of Land is increased to $15 million in Partner A's hands. Subsequently in the same taxable year 2025, Partner A contributes Land to another partnership, AX Partnership, in a transfer that is treated as a contribution of property under section 721(a). Partner A and AX Partnership are related within the meaning of paragraph (b)(8) of this section. ABC Partnership, Partner A and AX Partnership use the calendar year as their taxable year.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             Partner A is a participant during taxable year 2025 within the meaning of paragraph (e) of this section because it is a participating partner within the meaning of paragraph (b)(3) of this section since Partner A directly received a distribution of property during taxable year 2025 in a transaction described in paragraph (c) of this section. ABC Partnership is a participant during taxable year 2025 within the meaning of paragraph (e) of this section because it is a participating partnership within the meaning of paragraph (b)(4) of this section since it made a distribution of property to a participating partner during taxable year 2025 in a transaction described in paragraph (c) of this section. AX Partnership is a participant during taxable year 2025 within the meaning of paragraph (e) of this section because it is a related subsequent transferee within the meaning of paragraph (b)(10) of this section since it directly received in a nonrecognition transaction a transfer of property during taxable year 2025 that was subject to an increase in basis because of a transaction described in paragraph (c) of this section. As part of its disclosure requirements under paragraph (f) of this section and § 1.6011-4(d) and (e), Partner A must disclose the distribution as a transaction of interest under this section on Form 8886 (or successor form) and file the form with its tax return for taxable year 2025. Partner A must include the information described in paragraph (f) of this section. As part of its disclosure requirements under paragraph (f) of this section and § 1.6011-4(d) and (e), ABC Partnership must disclose the distribution as a transaction of interest under this section on Form 8886 (or successor form) and file the form with its tax return for taxable year 2025, including the information described in paragraph (f) of this section. Further, AX Partnership is subject to the disclosure requirements under paragraph (f) of this section and § 1.6011-4(d) and (e). AX Partnership must disclose that it is a related subsequent transferee within the meaning of paragraph (b)(10) of this section that received, in a nonrecognition transaction, a transfer of property that was distributed in a transaction of interest under this section on Form 8886 (or successor form) and file the form with its tax return for taxable year 2025. In addition, Partner A, ABC Partnership and AX Partnership must send a copy of their respective Form 8886 (or successor form) to the OTSA.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Example 4: Reporting of the Federal income tax consequences (reduced taxable gain) of the transaction in the taxable year of disposition of the property</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Under the same facts as in paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 3),</E>
                             in taxable year 2026, AX Partnership disposes of Land in a taxable sale for its fair market value of $15 million and recognizes no gain or loss.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             As part of its disclosure requirements under paragraph (f) of this section and § 1.6011-4(d) and (e), AX Partnership must disclose the taxable gain (zero) on the disposition of Land on Form 8886 (or successor form) for taxable year 2026 as the Federal income tax consequences of the transaction described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. AX Partnership must file the form with its tax return for taxable year 2026. Partner A does not have a disclosure requirement with respect to AX Partnership's disposition of Land because the disposition is a subsequent realization of a tax benefit within the meaning of paragraph (e)(5) of this section with respect to AX Partnership.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">Example 5. Reporting of a transaction of interest that occurred within the six-year lookback period—</E>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             The facts are the same as in paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 1),</E>
                             except that instead of ABC Partnership distributing Property X in taxable year 2025, the distribution is made in May of taxable year 2022, which is within the six-year lookback period described in paragraph (b)(11) of this section. That is, the distribution occurred within the seventy-two months immediately preceding January 2025, the first month of the taxpayer's most recent taxable year that began before January 14, 2025. Further, taxable year 2022 is an open taxable year subject to the special rule of § 1.6011-4(e)(2)(i). Additionally, neither Partner A nor ABC Partnership engages in any other transaction described in paragraph (c) or (d) of this section for taxable year 2022.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             Because the transaction occurred within the six-year lookback period described in paragraph (b)(11) of this section, the applicable threshold described in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section is $25 million as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section. The distribution of Property X to Partner A is not a transaction described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section with respect to either Partner A or ABC Partnership because the applicable threshold is not met for taxable year 2022. Had the applicable threshold for taxable year 2022 been met, all the information required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section must be reported in its disclosure for taxable year 2022 and for any subsequent taxable year for which the taxpayer's return reflected the tax consequences of the transaction.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (6) 
                            <E T="03">Example 6. No reporting of a transaction of interest for transaction that occurred prior to the six-year lookback period—</E>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             The facts are the same as in paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 1),</E>
                             except that as a result of the distribution of Property X to Partner A, the basis of Property X is increased by $30 million, and the distribution occurred in December of taxable year 2018, which is prior to the six-year lookback period described in paragraph (b)(11) of this section. That is, the transaction occurred prior to January 2019, which is the beginning of the seventy-two-month period that ends in December 2024. In addition, taxable year 2018 is an open taxable year subject to the special rule of § 1.6011-4(e)(2)(i). Further, Partner A realized Federal income tax consequences (depreciation expense) in taxable year 2019 attributable to the $30 million increase to the basis of Property X and taxable year 2019 is an open taxable year subject to the special rule of § 1.6011-4(e)(2)(i).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             Because taxable year 2018 is not within the six-year lookback period, under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, neither the distribution of Property X to Partner A, nor any of the Federal income tax consequences arising in that taxable year or later taxable years (such as depreciation expense in taxable year 2019 or any later taxable year) from such distribution, is required to be disclosed under paragraph (f) of this section and §§ 1.6011-4(d) and (e).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (7) 
                            <E T="03">Example 7. Corresponding basis decrease under section 734(b)(2)(B) shared by an unrelated partner—</E>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             The facts are the same as in paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 1),</E>
                             except Partner C is unrelated to Partners A and B and is not a tax-indifferent party. As a result of the 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2977"/>
                            distribution of Property X to Partner A, and the increase to the basis of Property X by $10 million in Partner A's hands, ABC Partnership is required to reduce the adjusted basis of its remaining properties under section 734(b)(2)(B) by $10 million. Partner B's and Partner C's share of ABC Partnership's basis decrease to its remaining properties is $5 million each. Neither Partner A nor ABC Partnership engages in any other transaction described in paragraph (c) of this section for taxable year 2025.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             For purposes of paragraphs (c)(1)(ii) and (c)(3)(i) of this section, under paragraph (c)(3)(iv) of this section, only $5 million of the $10 million basis increase to Property X counts toward the applicable threshold because $5 million of the basis increase corresponds to unrelated Partner C's share of the decrease to the basis of ABC Partnership's remaining properties under section 734(b)(2)(B) and thus, is excluded from the calculation of the applicable threshold. Thus, the distribution of Property X to Partner A is not a transaction described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section with respect to either Partner A or ABC Partnership because the applicable threshold is not met for taxable year 2025.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (h) 
                            <E T="03">Extension of time—(1) Taxpayer disclosures.</E>
                             Taxpayers will be treated as having met their requirements to disclose timely under § 1.6011-4(e)(2)(i) if they file their disclosure with the OTSA by July 14, 2025.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Material advisor disclosures.</E>
                             Material advisors who have made a tax statement before January 14, 2025 will be treated as having met their requirements to disclose timely under § 301.6111-3(e) of this chapter if they file their disclosure with the OTSA by the date that is an additional 90 days beyond the last day for filing specified in § 301.6111-3(e) of this chapter.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability date</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             This section's identification of transactions that are the same as or substantially similar (within the meaning of § 1.6011-4(c)(4)) to the transactions described in paragraph (c) of this section as transactions of interest for purposes of § 1.6011-4(b)(6) and sections 6111 and 6112 of the Code is effective January 14, 2025.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Material advisors.</E>
                             Notwithstanding §  301.6111-3(b)(4)(i) and (iii) of this chapter, material advisors are required to disclose only if they have made a tax statement on or after January 14, 2019.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Douglas W. O'Donnell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Commissioner.</TITLE>
                    <DATED>Approved: January 3, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Aviva R. Aron-Dine,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Treasury (Tax Policy).</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00324 Filed 1-10-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4830-01-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>26 CFR Part 1</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[TD 10022]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1545-BM41</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Classification of Digital Content Transactions and Cloud Transactions</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final regulations.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This document contains final regulations modifying the rules for classifying transactions involving computer programs, including by applying the rules to transfers of digital content. These final regulations also provide rules for the classification of cloud transactions. These rules apply for purposes of the international provisions of the Internal Revenue Code and generally affect taxpayers engaging in transactions involving digital content or cloud transactions.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Effective date:</E>
                         These regulations are effective on January 14, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Applicability date:</E>
                         For dates of applicability, see §§ 1.861-18(i) and 1.861-19(e).
                    </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Christopher E. Fulle, (202) 317-5367, or Michelle L. Ng, (202) 317-6989 (not toll-free numbers).</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority</HD>
                <P>These final regulations are issued under the express delegation of authority under section 7805 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code). Section 7805(a) directs the Secretary of the Treasury or her delegate to prescribe all needful rules and regulations for the enforcement of that section and others in the Code, including all rules and regulations as may be necessary by reason of any alteration of law in relation to internal revenue.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On August 14, 2019, the Department of the Treasury (Treasury Department) and the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) published proposed regulations (REG-130700-14) under section 861 of the Code in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (84 FR 40317) (the proposed regulations). The Treasury Department and the IRS received written comments on the proposed regulations, and a public hearing was held on February 11, 2020. All written comments received in response to the proposed regulations are available at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or upon request. Terms used but not defined in this preamble have the meaning provided in these final regulations.
                </P>
                <P>These regulations (the final regulations) extend the classification rules in existing § 1.861-18 to transfers of digital content other than computer programs and clarify the source of income for certain transfers of digital content. The final regulations also clarify the classification of transactions involving on-demand network access to computing and other similar resources.</P>
                <P>The final regulations retain the overall approach of the proposed regulations, with certain revisions discussed in the preamble. The preamble also discusses comments received in response to the solicitation of comments in the notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. General Classification Issues</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Replacement of De Minimis Rule With a Predominant Character Rule</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 1.861-18(b)(1), as in effect before this Treasury decision, described four transactions involving computer programs: the transfer of a copyright right, the transfer of a copyrighted article, the provision of services for the development or modification of a computer program, and the provision of know-how relating to the development of a computer program. Section 1.861-18(b)(2) required any transaction that consisted of more than one of the transactions described in § 1.861-18(b)(1) to be treated as separate transactions, unless a transaction was de minimis, in which case it would be treated as part of another transaction. The proposed regulations generally retained the four types of transactions (with the expansions described in Part II.A of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions) and preserved the de minimis rule, but for clarification purposes, § 1.861-18(b)(2) was proposed to be modified by introducing the term 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2978"/>
                    “arrangement” and providing that multiple transactions in an arrangement generally must be characterized separately.
                </P>
                <P>Proposed § 1.861-19(b) defined a cloud transaction as a transaction through which a person obtains on-demand network access to computer hardware, digital content (as defined in proposed § 1.861-18(a)(3)), or other similar resources, other than on-demand network access that is de minimis taking into account the overall arrangement and the surrounding facts and circumstances. Similar to proposed § 1.861-18(b)(2), proposed § 1.861-19(c)(3) required separate classification of each transaction comprising an arrangement, except that any transaction that was de minimis would be treated as part of another transaction rather than being classified separately.</P>
                <P>Comments recommended replacing these rules in proposed §§ 1.861-18(b)(1) and (b)(2), and 1.861-19(c)(3), with a predominant character rule, such that a transaction consisting of more than one category of transactions described in proposed § 1.861-18(b)(1), or a transaction consisting of one or more categories of transactions described in both proposed §§ 1.861-18(b)(1) and 1.861-19(b), would be characterized as only one of those categories of digital content transactions or as a cloud transaction in accordance with the predominant character of that transaction. As an example of a mixed transaction that would be difficult to characterize under the proposed regulations, comments pointed to video game business models where the customer purchases a copy of the game but primarily plays the video game online with other players. As another example, comments pointed to software antivirus programs that include code that executes on the user's equipment as well as code that is deployed in the cloud to detect and capture viruses before they reach the user's equipment. The comments argued that the predominant character rule would avoid the difficult and burdensome task of determining whether an element is de minimis in the context of the overall transaction and allocating income from the transaction among the non-de minimis categories as if they were separate transactions. The comments also argued that a de minimis standard is imprecise, and a predominant character rule that compares components of a transaction to determine which component is predominant would be much more administrable. Furthermore, one comment suggested that a predominant character standard would better align with existing Treasury regulations and other authorities, for instance, § 1.954-1(e)(3), which provides for a predominant character approach in the subpart F context. Finally, the comments noted confusion arising from the use of the term “transaction” to mean two different things in the same provision under proposed § 1.861-18(b)(2), and also recommended removing the term “arrangement” on the grounds that the term was unclear, particularly because it was not defined and rarely appears in other tax rules.</P>
                <P>The comments recommended that the predominant character of a transaction be determined based on the facts and circumstances. Comments suggested that the relevant facts may include the overall commercial purpose, the taxpayer's treatment for non-tax purposes, the relative cost of each component (including the cost of maintaining online and offline components), and a comparison of unit prices for components sold separately. Comments suggested that the facts and circumstances should provide at least a reasonable basis for determining the predominant character of the transaction.</P>
                <P>Further, the comments suggested defining a transaction based on the facts and circumstances or as an agreement entered into in the ordinary course. Several comments suggested that relevant factors for determining the scope of a transaction could include the availability of separate pricing, the use of separate stock keeping units (“SKUs”), and the taxpayer's definition for non-tax purposes.</P>
                <P>
                    The final regulations adopt these comments, in part. The final regulations replace the de minimis rule and the concept of an arrangement with a predominant character rule, which applies to both digital content transactions and cloud transactions. The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that, for purposes of the final regulations, a transaction with multiple elements (including de minimis elements) should be characterized based on the predominant character of the transaction. Predominant character rules also exist in other regulations for international provisions of the Code, such as foreign-derived intangible income and subpart F, and thus are familiar to taxpayers. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     §§ 1.250(b)-3(d) and 1.954-1(e)(3). Further, in many business models that include both online and offline functionality it may be difficult to bifurcate a single transaction into a digital content transaction and a cloud transaction. The Treasury Department and the IRS expect that bifurcation will remain difficult and may increase in difficulty as business models and technology evolve. Therefore, § 1.861-18(b)(2) of the final regulations provides that, taking into account the overall transaction and the surrounding facts and circumstances, a transaction that has multiple elements, one or more of which would be a digital content transaction if considered separately, is classified in its entirety as a digital content transaction under one of the categories described in § 1.861-18(b)(1) if the predominant character of the transaction is described in one of the categories in that paragraph. Section 1.861-19(c)(2) of the final regulations provides a corresponding rule for transactions that have multiple elements, one or more of which is a cloud transaction. Further, the references to “de minimis” and “arrangement” are also removed in § 1.861-19(a) of the final regulations so that the final regulations define a cloud transaction as a transaction through which a person obtains on-demand network access to computer hardware, digital content (as defined in § 1.861-18(a)(2)), or other similar resources.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The final regulations define a digital content transaction as a transaction that constitutes a transfer of digital content or the provision of modification or development services or of know-how with respect to digital content. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.861-18(b)(1). The final regulations do not, however, define the term transaction. The Treasury Department and the IRS have concluded that it is not necessary to introduce a specialized definition in these regulations because the concept is already well-established under general tax principles, case law, and existing administrative guidance.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Section 1.861-18(b)(3) of the final regulations (cross-referenced in § 1.861-19(c)(2)) provides a general rule and a special rule for determining the predominant character of a transaction that contains multiple elements, one or more of which would be a digital content transaction or a cloud transaction if considered separately. Under the general rule, the predominant character is determined by the primary benefit or value received by the customer. If that information is not reasonably ascertainable, the special rule provides that the predominant character is determined by the primary benefit or value received by a typical customer in a substantially similar transaction, which is determined by data on how a typical customer uses or accesses the digital content. If data on how a typical customer uses or accesses the digital content is not available, then all factors indicative of the primary benefit or value received by a typical 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2979"/>
                    customer must be examined, including how the transaction is marketed, the relative development costs of each element of the transaction, and the relative price paid in an uncontrolled transaction for one or more elements compared to the total contract price of the transaction in question.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Distinction Between Temporary Downloads and Streaming</HD>
                <P>One comment requested guidance on “streaming” and “temporary downloading” transactions. The comment expressed the view that whether a customer can download digital content should not determine whether a transaction is characterized as a service or a lease. The comment noted that when a customer's rights are limited to downloading and viewing a discrete item of digital content, such as a movie, for a limited time, the transaction would be treated as a lease of digital content. However, if the customer can access and download as many movies as desired from a catalog of thousands of movies for a monthly fee, and once the subscription ends access to the downloaded movies ends, the transaction would be treated as a cloud transaction and classified as a service according to the comment. The comment suggested that the characterization of these two transactions should not depend on whether the content is actually downloaded by any particular customer.</P>
                <P>Another comment asserted that on-demand access to digital content should not be treated differently than temporary downloads of digital content because the two transactions are functionally equivalent in that both provide temporary access to digital content. The comment observed that the decision to provide on-demand access or temporary downloads of digital content is typically driven by the nature of the technology involved (for example, the memory capacity of a user's computer or the download speeds available), and generally has no bearing on the economic substance of the transaction.  </P>
                <P>Where the provider chooses whether to offer either temporary downloads or streaming the Treasury Department and the IRS disagree that these two types of transactions should be treated the same. A fundamental requirement of a digital content transaction, unlike a cloud transaction involving digital content, is that there must be a transfer of digital content to the customer. This distinction between property and services transactions has been in place since the original issuance of § 1.861-18 in 1998 and applying it consistently provides a degree of certainty for an otherwise factual case-by-case determination.</P>
                <P>
                    When a customer downloads digital content, there is a transfer of a copy of that digital content to the customer and the customer must use its own device to host the copy of content for viewing or listening, for example. In contrast, when a customer streams digital content, there is no transfer of digital content. Instead, the customer receives access to the digital content through the provider's servers. Especially for large file-size content, performing the hosting function in order to allow the customer continuous access places a higher burden on the provider. Similarly, for a temporary download, the customer must have sufficient storage on its device for the temporary download that is not necessary in a streaming transaction. There are also differences in how the customer may experience the digital content. For example, once a customer downloads digital content, the customer is able to access the content regardless of whether the customer is connected to the internet and could thus watch a downloaded movie or read a downloaded book when the customer is unable to connect to the internet. In these ways, there are fundamental differences in character between a temporary download and streaming that warrant different characterization and sourcing rules for each type of transaction. Where the customer may choose whether to temporarily download or stream content, the predominant character rule in the final regulations would apply to characterize the transaction. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.861-19(d)(7) (Example 7) and (d)(9) (Example 9) of the final regulations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">II. Transactions Involving Digital Content</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Definition of Digital Content</HD>
                <P>Section 1.861-18, as in effect before this Treasury decision, applied only to computer programs. The proposed regulations expanded the scope of § 1.861-18 to apply to transactions involving “digital content,” defined as “a computer program or any other content in digital format that is either protected by copyright law or no longer protected by copyright law solely due to the passage of time.”</P>
                <P>Several comments recommended broadening the definition of digital content to encompass content not protected by copyright law that is transferred electronically and is similar to copyrightable content, such as consumer or user data, text files of recipes, government-produced documents, and sets of font and typefaces. One comment suggested expansion to any property in digital format in which a person has a right or interest, including any property bought and sold in real marketplaces, in virtual marketplaces and in in-game economies. These comments generally suggested that transfers of this non-copyrightable digital property are economically and functionally equivalent to the transfer of digital content and that characterization of the transfers should be treated the same. One comment asserted that such content may be subject to other forms of intellectual property protection such as contractual restrictions and non-disclosure agreements, such that transfers of that content are functionally similar to transfers of digital content.</P>
                <P>The final regulations do not broaden the definition of digital content beyond content protectable by copyright law. Section 1.861-18, as in effect before this Treasury decision, generally followed copyright law, and the Treasury Department and the IRS are of the view that it is appropriate to continue to apply this longstanding copyright law framework. This framework is not workable for non-copyrightable content given that the legal rights associated with such content generally are not the same as those associated with content protectable by copyright law. For example, in a digital transfer of property that is not protected by copyright law, the transferee may (unless otherwise restricted, such as by contract) have the unfettered ability to make and distribute copies to the public, to prepare derivative works, or to publicly display or publicly perform the property. As a result, if the framework of § 1.861-18 were applied to the transaction, such a transfer would generally be characterized as a license or sale of a copyright right, regardless of whether the transferee intends to exploit those abilities or whether those powers have any value or relevance in the context of the transaction. Therefore, the existing framework could result in a classification at odds with the economics and reality of the transaction. Further, where non-copyrightable digital property is transferred subject to contractual or other restrictions, those restrictions may not fit cleanly within the existing framework and may require a different analysis to determine the correct characterization. Accordingly, including non-copyrightable content would require a different set of rules that are beyond the scope of § 1.861-18.</P>
                <P>
                    One comment noted that under the proposed regulations, an online database that allows customers on-demand access to a collection of non-
                    <PRTPAGE P="2980"/>
                    copyrightable content such as recipes or court opinions is a cloud transaction. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.861-19(d)(8) (Example 8). This is because the definition of a cloud transaction in proposed § 1.861-19(b) refers to on-demand network access to computer hardware, digital content, or “other similar resources.” The comment suggested that the inclusion of “other similar resources” in the definition of cloud transaction may provide a road map for expanding the definition of digital content in proposed § 1.861-18. The Treasury Department and the IRS disagree. The cloud transaction definition includes access to non-copyrightable content because curation of such content is a common business model that, unlike the framework of § 1.861-18, does not depend on whether the content is copyrightable because there is no transfer to the customer.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The final regulations therefore do not adopt these comments and continue to characterize digital content transactions based on the distinction between a transfer of a copyrighted article and a transfer of copyright rights, which depends on whether the customer receives copyright rights as part of the transfer. The Treasury Department and the IRS may, however, consider these comments for possible future guidance specific to types of digital property that are not protectable by copyright law. The final regulations do provide, however, that digital content includes content that is not protected by copyright law solely because the creator dedicated the content to the public domain. The regulations include this refinement because monetization of such content generally also involves digital content that is protected by copyright law and therefore fits within the framework of § 1.861-18. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.861-18(a)(2).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Provision of Know-How Relating To Development of Digital Content</HD>
                <P>Section 1.861-18(b)(1)(iv), as in effect before this Treasury decision, provided that one of the categories of transactions relating to computer programs was “[t]he provision of know-how relating to computer programming techniques.” Section 1.861-18(e) provided that the provision of information with respect to computer programs will be treated as the provision of know-how for purposes of § 1.861-18 only if the information (1) relates to computer programming techniques; (2) is furnished under conditions preventing unauthorized disclosure, specifically contracted for between the parties; and (3) is considered property subject to trade secret protection. The proposed regulations would modify § 1.861-18(b)(1)(iv) and (e)(1) by replacing “computer programming techniques” with “development of digital content,” but would not otherwise change § 1.861-18(b)(1)(iv) and (e)(1).  </P>
                <P>One comment asked for confirmation that the changes to § 1.861-18(b)(1)(iv) and (e)(1) would not change the scope of § 1.861-18(b)(1)(iv), and that § 1.861-18(b)(1)(iv) in the final regulations describes only know-how transferred under terms that constitute a license for United States Federal tax purposes. The Treasury Department and the IRS confirm that § 1.861-18(b)(1)(iv) in the proposed and final regulations is intended to describe the same type of know-how covered by § 1.861-18(b)(1)(iv) as in effect before this Treasury decision, except that know-how may relate to any development of digital content and not merely computer programming techniques. The Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that § 1.861-18(b)(1)(iv) and (e)(1) are sufficiently clear in this regard and that additional guidance on the treatment of such know-how is unnecessary.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Rights To Prepare Derivative Digital Content</HD>
                <P>Section 1.861-18(c)(2)(ii), as in effect before this Treasury decision, provided that one of the copyright rights referred to in that paragraph was the right to prepare derivative computer programs based upon a copyrighted computer program. The proposed regulations would replace the references to computer programs with references to digital content but would not otherwise change § 1.861-18(c)(2)(ii). One comment recommended that the right to prepare derivative digital content based upon digital content should be treated as a copyright right only if it is coupled with the right to distribute the derivative digital content to the public. The comment expressed the belief that this change would be consistent with one of the underlying policies of these regulations, which is to treat as a license a transaction in which the transferee exercises a copyright right to exploit the rights in the market, and to treat as a sale or lease a transaction in which the transferee consumes the digital content. The comment also suggested that this change would address the ambiguity in copyright law as to what modifications of a copyrighted work are necessary to create a derivative work, and whether, for example, rights to modify software during installation or customization would constitute rights to create a derivative work.</P>
                <P>
                    The final regulations do not adopt this comment. The preamble to Treasury Decision 8785 (which promulgated § 1.861-18 in 1998) stated in response to similar comments to the proposed regulations (REG-251520-96) that were finalized in Treasury Decision 8785 that the right to make copies (which must be coupled with the right to distribute the copies to the public to constitute a copyright right under the regulations, despite such a requirement not being present under copyright law) is treated differently from the other copyright rights in the context of the regulations because of the unique characteristics of computer programs, including the ease with which computer programs can be copied. However, as explained in that preamble, it is generally consistent with copyright law to treat as a copyright right a non-de minimis right to make a derivative work, regardless of whether it is coupled with the right to distribute to the public, and there is no sufficiently unique aspect of digital content that would compel a different result for purposes of § 1.861-18. The Treasury Department and the IRS continue to be of the view that that the right to make a derivative work without further rights to distribute to the public should be treated as a copyright right and that the unique characteristics of digital content do not compel a different result. However, the predominant character rule in § 1.861-18(b)(2) and (3) of the final regulations (discussed in Part I.A of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions) should alleviate concerns about minor customization rights causing what would otherwise be a transfer of digital content to be treated as a license of a copyright right. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.861-18(h)(18) (Example 18) of the final regulations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">D. Right To Make a Public Performance or Public Display for Purposes of Advertising</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 1.861-18(c)(2), as in effect before this Treasury decision, designated as copyright rights the right to make a public performance of a computer program and the right to display a computer program to the public. The proposed regulations would replace the references to computer programs with references to digital content, and also provide exceptions for the right to publicly perform or publicly display digital content for the purpose of advertising the sale of the digital content performed or displayed. Proposed § 1.861-18(c)(2)(iii) and (iv). The preamble to the proposed regulations used an example of rights provided to a video game retailer that allow the retailer to display screenshots of a video game on television commercials promoting the game, and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2981"/>
                    noted that these rights, on their own, would not be significant. Two comments agreed with the addition of the regulatory language and one of the comments suggested that the preamble example be included in the regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The final regulations retain the exceptions for the public performance or public display of digital content for the purpose of advertising the sale of the digital content performed or displayed. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.861-18(c)(2)(iii) and (iv). The Treasury Department and the IRS have determined, however, that the language of the regulation is sufficiently clear without an example and therefore the final regulations do not include the example in the regulatory text.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">E. Copyright Rights Related to Digital Content Used for Cloud Transactions</HD>
                <P>One comment questioned whether the transfer of the right to use software or other digital content for a cloud transaction should be treated as the transfer of a copyright right. The comment included an example wherein A, a domestic corporation, transfers computer software to B, a foreign affiliate. B also gets the right to use the software to provide software-as-a-service transactions, but does not get the right to sell copies of the software or make derivative works. The comment stated that it appears that a copyright right has been transferred in this scenario, but that it is not clear which of the enumerated copyright rights is transferred. The comment recommend that the final regulations allow taxpayers to elect to characterize this type of transaction as a transfer of a copyright right.</P>
                <P>
                    The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that a transfer of digital content accompanied by the right to use the digital content to provide a cloud transaction will generally result in the transfer of the right to either publicly display or publicly perform the digital content, depending on the type of digital content and specific rights transferred. To display a work means to show a copy of it, either directly or by means of a film, slide, television image, or any other device or process or, in the case of a motion picture or other audiovisual work, to show individual images nonsequentially. 17 U.S.C. 101. To perform a work means to recite, render, play, dance, or act it, either directly or by means of any device or process or, in the case of a motion picture or other audiovisual work, to show its images in any sequence or to make the sounds accompanying it more audible. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     Further, 17 U.S.C. 101 includes a “transmit clause” that provides that to publicly display or perform a work means, in relevant part, to transmit or otherwise communicate a performance or display of the work to the public, by means of any device or process, whether the members of the public capable of receiving the performance or display receive it in the same place or in separate places and at the same time or at different times. Reading these provisions of 17 U.S.C. 101, the Treasury Department and the IRS have concluded that the use of digital content to provide a cloud transaction should be treated as the exercise of a copyright right under both copyright law and the final regulations. 
                    <E T="03">See American Broadcasting Companies, Inc.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Aereo, Inc.,</E>
                     573 U.S. 431 (2014) (holding that capture of broadcast copyrighted content and retransmission to subscribers who stream the content to their personal devices was a public performance of a copyrighted work under the transmit clause of 17 U.S.C. 101). However, whether the transferred right is a right to display or a right to perform will depend on the type of digital content, the type of copyright obtained, and the manner in which the digital content is used in the cloud transaction. Due to the factual nature of these issues and the important role of copyright law in those determinations, the final regulations do not specify which copyright right has been transferred when digital content is transferred for use in a cloud transaction.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">F. Examples Illustrating § 1.861-18</HD>
                <P>Several comments requested new examples describing common business models or modifications to examples provided in the proposed regulations. In response to these comments, the final regulations contain several new examples and make certain modifications to the examples in the proposed regulations. In addition, pre-existing examples that were in effect before the issuance of this Treasury decision have been modified to follow the same analytical structure as the examples added by the final regulations.</P>
                <P>
                    One comment requested an example of a wholesaler of computer software buying and selling a limited number of product keys. A product key is a specific software-based key for a computer program that certifies the copy of the program is original. Instead of using physical media such as a CD or DVD to install software onto a computer or other electronic device, a user can enter a product key to download the software and then install it from their computer's hard drive. A customer that purchases software through electronic channels often receives a link to download and a product key to activate the software. The comment asserted that an underlying principle of these regulations is to treat economically similar income equally, regardless of whether the income is earned through electronic means or through more conventional channels of commerce, and therefore the income earned by a wholesaler of product keys for software should be treated the same as a wholesaler of physical copies of software. The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that § 1.861-18 does not characterize otherwise similar transactions differently solely because one transaction was effected through electronic means and the other was not. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.861-18(g)(2) of the final regulations. In response to the comment, a new example added in the final regulations, § 1.861-18(h)(24) (Example 24), addresses a business model in which a video game copyright owner transfers product keys to retailers, and then the retailers transfer those keys to customers. Based on the facts in the example, the transfer of product keys to the retailers is characterized as a sale of copyrighted articles, and the transfer of product keys from the retailers to customers is also classified as the sale of copyrighted articles.
                </P>
                <P>Two comments asked for an example addressing a business model in which an operator of a platform offers for download digital content (for example, video games or electronic books) as an agent of the digital content developers. The platform operator receives the copyright right to make and sell digital copies of the digital content, but this right is granted only so that the platform operator can act in its capacity as an agent facilitating sales of the digital content between digital content developers and customers. As such, the comments asserted that the transaction between the platform operator and digital content developers should not be treated as the transfer of copyright rights. One of these comments also suggested several clarifying changes to proposed § 1.861-18(h)(19) (Example 19) to distinguish the business model described in that example, which involves a licensed reseller that utilizes an online platform, from the agency platform operator described in the comment.</P>
                <P>
                    The Treasury Department and the IRS recognize that an agency platform operator business model exists, and therefore the final regulations include a new example at § 1.861-18(h)(20) (Example 20) that describes a scenario in which a platform operator offers applications for sale as an agent of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2982"/>
                    application developers. The facts in Example 20 assume that the platform operator acts as an agent of the application developers under general tax principles and concludes that the characterization of the transaction between the platform operator and application developers is not a digital content transaction nor a cloud transaction. Whether a taxpayer is acting as an agent on behalf of another taxpayer is determined under general tax principles and that determination is outside the scope of these final regulations. Additionally, § 1.861-18(h)(19) (Example 19) of the final regulations contains certain changes to the facts in the proposed regulations that are intended to distinguish the licensed reseller platform operator business model described in that example from the agency platform operator model described in Example 20, namely that the primary benefit or value that the distributor (Corp A) receives in the transaction in Example 19 is the right to reproduce and distribute an unlimited number of copies of the book.
                </P>
                <P>One comment recommended adding an example describing a business model in which a video game that can be played on a particular game console or a computer is sold in physical copies through retailers, or digitally through the game console's store or through an internet store for a one-time fee. The game's core functionality is accessed online and, if played on the game console, requires paying an annual or monthly subscription fee to the console maker which grants the customer access to the online functionality of the console, thereby allowing the customer to play the online component of the video game (and all other video games) on the console. This fee is charged by the console maker for purposes of using the console online, so if the game is played on a computer, there is no additional fee to access the online content. The example in the comment concluded that the purchase of the console version of the video game, whether from a retailer, the game console store, or the internet store, is a cloud transaction because most customers purchase the game primarily to enjoy the online functionality. This comment also recommended another similar example, except the core functionality of the video game is offline content, and therefore the purchase of the video game is the sale of a copyrighted article.</P>
                <P>The comment underscores the fact that there are many different business models and types of transactions in the video game industry. The determination of the character of each transaction will necessarily be fact-specific based on the rights obtained by the customer and, if relevant, the predominant character of the transaction. However, to address certain aspects of these scenarios, a new example at § 1.861-18(h)(24) (Example 24) of the final regulations describes the purchase of a video game for a one-time fee that has online and offline functionality, and that does not require paying a periodic subscription fee that is specific to that game to access the online content. Additionally, a new example at § 1.861-19(d)(11) (Example 11) of the final regulations describes the purchase of a video game for a one-time fee whose primary functionality is online and requires paying a monthly fee to the game developer to access the online content specific to the game. The examples conclude in both cases that, under the facts presented, a customer's purchase of a game has the predominant character of a sale of a copyrighted article. Neither example introduces additional complexity by describing a separate subscription fee that the customer must pay to a console maker to enable the online functionality of the console for all games played on that console. The Treasury Department and the IRS have concluded that such a fee would not be relevant to determining the character of transactions specific to the game itself under the final regulations. Such a fee is more akin to the monthly amount that a customer may pay to an internet service provider for internet access to play games online in general, because the fee is not specific to the game and is instead required to enable online functionality on a device that has other functions.</P>
                <P>One comment recommended changes to the facts in § 1.861-18(h)(19) through (21) (Examples 19 through 21) of the proposed regulations, which contained a restriction on the transfer of the digital content by limiting the number of devices onto which the customer could download the content. Specifically, the comment recommended modernizing these examples by replacing the “limited number of devices” restriction with more general background that explains that the user agreement and the conditions and features of the provider's website and applications adequately restrict the end-user's ability to lend or otherwise transfer the digital content. In § 1.861-18(h)(19) and (21) (Examples 19 and 21) of the final regulations, the restriction on the number of devices is removed, and facts were added to make clear that no copyright rights were granted. Proposed § 1.861-18(h)(20) (Example 20), which discussed a business that offered end-users membership to a catalog of copyrighted music and required the end-users to download the songs, was removed from the final regulations because the Treasury Department and the IRS determined the facts described in the example were unrealistic.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">III. Cloud Transactions</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Classification of Cloud Transactions</HD>
                <P>Proposed § 1.861-19(c)(1) would provide that a cloud transaction is classified solely as either a lease of property or the provision of services, based on all relevant factors. Proposed § 1.861-19(c)(2) would enumerate a non-exhaustive list of potentially relevant factors, most of which come from section 7701(e) of the Code. The preamble to the proposed regulations requested comments as to whether the classification as either a lease or a service was correct, or whether cloud transactions are more properly classified in another category of income. The preamble also requested comments on realistic examples of cloud transactions that would be treated as leases under proposed § 1.861-19.</P>
                <P>Several comments recommended that all cloud transactions be classified as services because the commentators could not identify any realistic cloud transaction that could be classified as a lease. One comment requested that the final regulations include an example of a cloud transaction that would be treated as a lease, but did not suggest a scenario in which a cloud transaction would be a lease. Alternatively, the comments recommended that the final regulations include a rebuttable presumption that all cloud transactions are classified as services.</P>
                <P>In the absence of a rule stating all cloud transactions are services, several comments expressed concerns with, and suggested modifications to, certain factors listed in proposed § 1.861-19(c)(2). For example, some comments suggested that certain factors were not relevant for cloud transactions, or would generally weigh towards a lease characterization, but that overall, a cloud transaction should still be classified as the provision of services. Comments also recommended clarifying the treatment as services of related party data hosting transactions that involve cost-plus payments from a company under common control with the hosting company.</P>
                <P>
                    One comment suggested adding an example that commonly exists in practice that is similar to proposed § 1.861-19(d)(2) (Example 2), involving the provision of designated servers to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2983"/>
                    the customer, but with a shifted focus to analyze the access that a remote user may have to data and software on those servers.
                </P>
                <P>Two comments expressed concerns that the proposed regulations may be used to characterize transactions of infrastructure providers, such as real estate investment trusts, who lease and otherwise make available real property and other infrastructure to cloud providers and similar tenants. These comments were concerned that the proposed regulations referenced the section 7701(e) factors to determine whether a cloud transaction was a service or a lease, and that these interpretations could affect the interpretation of the section 7701(e) factors in the context of non-cloud transactions.</P>
                <P>The final regulations treat all cloud transactions solely as the provision of services and remove the section 7701(e) and other factors listed in the proposed regulations. Like the comments, the Treasury Department and the IRS could not identify a transaction that satisfies the definition of a cloud transaction that would be properly classified as a lease. Further, the Treasury Department and the IRS would expect future business models that meet the definition of a cloud transaction to constitute services rather than leases or other types of transactions. The services classification is appropriate because in a typical business model that includes a cloud transaction, the cloud provider retains economic control and possession over the relevant property (such as servers, software, or digital content, depending on the transaction) and the cloud transaction meets other hallmarks of a service transaction such as the provider having the ability to determine the specific property used to provide the cloud transaction and to replace such property with similar property. Note, however, that business models may include transactions involving computer hardware, such as a server, that is located at the customer's premises, and such a transaction may fall outside the definition of a cloud transaction (for example, because there is no on-demand network access provided in that transaction) and would therefore be classified under section 7701(e) and general tax principles. The Treasury Department and the IRS have also concluded that a more definite rule for characterization based on the definition of a cloud transaction will allow for better compliance and tax administration than the factors test in the proposed regulations. Because the final regulations classify all cloud transactions as the provision of services, examples applying the factors from the proposed regulations to determine whether a cloud transaction is a service or a lease have been removed (and no example concluding that the cloud transaction is a lease has been added).</P>
                <P>Finally, one comment recommended expanding the characterization of cloud transactions to include licenses for transactions in which non-de minimis copyright rights are transferred. The comment described an example where an owner of digital content (a movie) streams that digital content to a movie theater and grants the movie theater the right to show the streamed content to customers. The comment concluded that the transaction between the content owner and the movie theater is a license. The comment expressed the belief that the manner in which digital content and accompanying public display or performance rights are delivered should not alone change the character of a transaction from a license to a service or lease.</P>
                <P>The final regulations do not adopt this comment. In the scenario posited by the comment, the movie theater would be much more likely to download or otherwise obtain a copy of the movie than to stream the movie simultaneously with displaying the movie to customers, given the possibility of buffering or other technology issues that might occur while streaming and negatively impact the movie theater's customers. However, a somewhat similar scenario could occur if a bar or similar establishment streams music, sporting events, or other content as entertainment for customers eating or drinking at the establishment. While the agreement with the streaming service may grant the bar the right to perform or to display the streamed content to its customers, if there is no transfer of digital content (that is, no option to download of digital content), the transaction falls outside the digital content rules in § 1.861-18 and may be properly characterized as a cloud transaction. Whether there is a transfer of a copyright right that is not described in § 1.861-18(c)(2) would depend on copyright law. As described in Part I.B of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, a fundamental requirement for a digital content transaction such as a license of copyright rights, as opposed to a cloud transaction involving digital content, is that the former involves a transfer of the digital content to the customer. If, however, the theater or the bar has the choice to download or stream the content, then § 1.861-18, including the predominant character rule, would apply to the transaction.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Inclusion of Common Cloud Business Models</HD>
                <P>One comment suggested that the final regulations explicitly include as cloud transactions certain common cloud-based business models, namely: (1) advertising models where customers obtain “free” services and advertisers pay for access to those customers; (2) marketplace sites and apps that function as sales agents; (3) gig-economy sites and apps that put service providers and customers together; (4) job recruiting sites and apps that find candidates for employers; (5) travel sites and apps that act like sales agents for hotels, flights, etc.; and (6) game sites that allow users access to a range of games for a subscription price.</P>
                <P>
                    The final regulations do not adopt this comment, though some similar examples are included in § 1.861-18(h). Although each of the comment's suggested scenarios include services or goods accessed through the internet, whether each scenario is a cloud transaction (as defined by § 1.861-19(b)) is fact-specific and cannot be determined solely on the basis of the type of offering provided. Section 1.861-19(b) defines a cloud transaction as a transaction through which a person obtains on-demand network access to computer hardware, digital content (as defined in § 1.861-18(a)(2)), or other similar resources. The first scenario, involving customers' “free” access to content that is funded by advertising, is similar to § 1.861-18(h)(22) (Example 22) of the final regulations. The example addresses the transfer of content to the platform by content creators (a digital content transaction) and the access to the content by customers (a cloud transaction). However, the example does not address the transaction between the advertisers and the platform because while the ads are viewable online, the advertising services are likely not cloud transactions because there is likely no on-demand network access to computer hardware, digital content, or similar resources provided by the platform to the advertisers (though specific fact patterns may differ). The second scenario, involving marketplace sites and apps that function as sales agents, may result in a transaction that has a digital content transaction element and a cloud transaction element if the marketplace site or app is used to transfer digital content to customers. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.861-18(h)(20) (Example 20). Similarly, the sixth scenario, involving game sites allowing access to a range of games for a subscription price, may require a predominant character analysis to determine whether the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2984"/>
                    primary benefit to the customer (or a typical customer) is the download of games or access to play the games online. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.861-18(h)(24) (Example 24). In the remaining scenarios proposed by the comment, the website or app may provide a service, but it is likely that the service would not be a cloud transaction because the recipient of the service does not receive on-demand network access to computer hardware, digital content, or similar resources. The framework of the final regulations should be applied to the facts of each specific transaction rather than making generalizations about broad categories of content offerings.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Examples Illustrating § 1.861-19</HD>
                <P>Many comments requested modifications to the examples provided in proposed § 1.861-19, or new examples describing common business models. In response to these comments, the final regulations contain several new examples and make certain modifications to the pre-existing examples. The final regulations also remove examples illustrating the proposed regulations' application of factors to distinguish between the characterization of a cloud transaction as a service or a lease because the final regulations characterize all cloud transactions as services.</P>
                <P>Proposed § 1.861-19(d)(11) (Example 11) would describe a scenario in which a taxpayer operates an online database of industry-specific materials that utilizes a proprietary search engine. Certain materials in the database constitute digital content. The example concluded that the taxpayer's provision of on-demand access to its computer hardware and software is a cloud transaction. One comment requested clarification that the characterization of this transaction would not be different if the online database contained no copyrightable materials. In the final regulations, the analysis of this example (which has been redesignated § 1.861-19(d)(8) (Example 8)) explains that the cloud transaction is access to the search engine and online database, rather than online access to the digital content, and therefore the conclusion that the transaction is a cloud transaction would not change if none of the content in the database was copyrightable. This conclusion is consistent with § 1.861-19(b)'s definition of a cloud transaction as a transaction through which a person obtains on-demand network access to computer hardware, digital content (as defined in § 1.861-18(a)(2)), or other similar resources. In this case, the content accessed would be an “other similar resource.”</P>
                <P>Two comments expressed concern that certain jurisdictions around the world treat income earned by a reseller of services, such as software-as-a-service, as royalties subject to withholding. These comments asked for an example in the final regulations addressing a reseller of services that concludes the reseller's income is services income. In response to these comments, section 1.861-19(d)(10) (Example 10) of the final regulations addresses a reseller of software-as-a-service and concludes the transaction between the reseller and its customers is a cloud transaction classified as the provision of services.</P>
                <P>Proposed § 1.861-19(d)(9) (Example 9) would describe a scenario in which a taxpayer maintains a catalogue of videos and music that it streams to customers in exchange for a monthly fee. To better reflect current and developing business practices, comments recommended adding a fact to this example that customers have the ability to download the digital content for offline viewing, and that such ability is de minimis in the context of the overall transaction. Proposed § 1.861-19(d)(9) (Example 9) is redesignated § 1.861-19(d)(7) (Example 7) of the final regulations, and the ability to download the digital content has been added to the facts in the example. As discussed in Part I.A of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, a predominant character rule in the final regulations replaced the de minimis rule in the proposed regulations. Under the facts described in Example 7 of the final regulations, the predominant character of the transaction is a cloud transaction.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">IV. Sourcing Rules</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Source Rule for Sales of Copyrighted Articles Transferred Through an Electronic Medium</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. In General</HD>
                <P>Section 1.861-18(f)(2), as in effect before this Treasury decision, provided that income from sales of copyrighted articles is sourced under sections 861(a)(6), 862(a)(6), 863, 865(a), (b), (c), or (e), as appropriate. Proposed § 1.861-18(f)(2)(ii) would provide that when a copyrighted article is sold and transferred through an electronic medium, the sale is deemed to have occurred at the location of download or installation onto the end-user's device used to access the digital content for purposes of § 1.861-7(c). If information about the location of download or installation was not available, proposed § 1.861-18(f)(2)(ii) would provide that the sale is deemed to have occurred at the location of the customer, as determined based on the taxpayer's recorded sales data for business or financial reporting purposes.</P>
                <P>Comments observed practical challenges with applying a rule based on the location of download or installation, including that: (i) data privacy laws may prevent taxpayers from collecting or retaining this information, (ii) internet Protocol (IP) addresses may be unreliable because virtual private networks may obscure an end-user's IP address, (iii) it would be burdensome and expensive for taxpayers to collect new data on the location of download or installation, (iv) there may be difficulties in determining the location of download or installation onto an end-user's device when software is sold through multi-level distribution channels, and (v) it may be difficult to identify the end-user. One comment suggested that the final regulations provide examples that illustrate the application of the download test in various circumstances.</P>
                <P>Instead of endorsing the proposed rule, most comments addressing this topic recommended a rule that uses the billing address of the first unrelated purchaser to determine the location of the sale. Some comments observed that the billing address of the purchaser is information sellers already collect and is a more reliable indicator of where the purchaser will use the digital content. Several comments suggested that taxpayers be permitted to elect to use the location of download or installation instead of the billing address of the purchaser if the taxpayer has access to that information. Some comments recommended permitting taxpayers to elect to use the location of actual use of the digital content, such as when an employer purchases digital content that is used by an employee not located in the same jurisdiction as the employer.</P>
                <P>Finally, another comment recommended that the rule in § 1.861-7(c) (which provides that the place of sale is the place where the rights, title, and interest of the seller in the property are transferred to the buyer (the title passage rule)) should be retained for purposes of sourcing sales of copyrighted articles transferred through an electronic medium.</P>
                <P>
                    The final regulations adopt these comments in part. Consistent with the proposed regulations, § 1.861-18(f)(2)(ii) of the final regulations moves away from the “title passage” rule for sales of copyrighted articles transferred through an electronic medium. One reason for the change is that the title passage rule allowed taxpayers to artificially elect the source of income from sales of copyrighted articles through an 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2985"/>
                    electronic medium using contractual terms that had no real-world impact due to the nature of digital content. A digital download is an almost instantaneous transfer that occurs with limited risk of loss; even when a file is corrupted in the download or installation process, a noncorrupted copy can be provided to the customer at virtually no cost to the seller, and the precise location of the corruption is typically not relevant. In contrast, a contractual agreement as to when and where title passes for physical property moved through physical distribution chains has real-world impact because the property may be lost or become damaged in transit and the location of title passage determines whether the seller or buyer bears the burden of that loss. Because the nature of the supply chain means that the seller retains risk of loss until a successful download, § 1.861-18(f)(2)(ii) treats the sale as having occurred at the customer's location, using the customer's billing address as a proxy. The Treasury Department and IRS generally agree that a billing address is more administrable than the location of download or installation as a suitable proxy for the place of sale of electronically transferred copyrighted articles (subject to the anti-abuse rule discussed below).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Treasury Department and IRS disagree, however, that the billing address of a subsequent unrelated purchaser of the same copyrighted article should be the general rule for sales between related parties, given the focus of the statutory sourcing provisions on place of sale. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     sections 861 through 865. It would also be complex and potentially inaccurate to attempt to determine whether every sale is intended for a related or unrelated purchaser. Therefore, § 1.861-18(f)(2)(ii) of the final regulations provides that when a copyrighted article is sold and transferred through an electronic medium, the sale is deemed to have occurred at the location of the billing address of the purchaser for purposes of § 1.861-7(c), regardless of whether that purchaser is a related or unrelated party. This billing address rule also resolves the issue raised by comments regarding who the end-user is in certain transactions because the sourcing rule is based on the immediate purchaser in the transaction. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.861-18(h)(25) (Example 25).
                </P>
                <P>The final regulations also do not provide for an election to treat the sale of a copyrighted article as occurring at the location of download or installation. As noted earlier in this part, one of the reasons for moving away from “title passage” for sales of copyrighted articles transferred through an electronic medium was that it allowed sellers the ability to artificially elect the source of the income. Consistent with this concern about electivity, the final regulations provide a single, administrable rule that applies to all sales (subject to the anti-abuse rule).</P>
                <P>
                    The final regulations also add a new anti-abuse rule for any case in which the sales transaction is arranged in a particular manner for a principal purpose of tax avoidance. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.861-18(f)(2)(ii) and (h)(26) (Example 26). In such cases, the foregoing billing address rule will not be applied, and instead all relevant facts and circumstances of the transaction will be considered to treat the sale as having occurred where the substance of the transaction occurred. This anti-abuse rule replaces the anti-abuse rule in § 1.861-7(c) with respect to sales of copyrighted articles sold and transferred through an electronic medium.
                </P>
                <P>Finally, several comments asked for clarification that this source rule applies solely for purposes of the title passage rule of § 1.861-7(c). The Treasury Department and the IRS have concluded that these comments were already addressed in proposed § 1.861-18(f)(2)(ii) by the language that limited application of the rule “for purposes of § 1.861-7(c),” and the final regulations retain this language.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Coordination With Section 863(b)</HD>
                <P>Some comments recommended allowing taxpayers to elect to apply a billing address source rule for sales of digital content where section 863(b) may otherwise apply. Section 863(b) provides, in part, that the gains, profits, and income from the sale or exchange of inventory property produced (in whole or in part) by the taxpayer within the United States and sold or exchanged without the United States, or produced (in whole or in part) by the taxpayer without the United States and sold or exchanged within the United States, shall be allocated and apportioned between sources within and without the United States solely on the basis of the production activities with respect to the property.</P>
                <P>The final regulations do not adopt the comment recommending allowing taxpayers to elect to apply a billing address source rule for sales of digital content where section 863(b) would apply. When section 863(b) applies, property produced and sold by a taxpayer must be sourced “solely on the basis of the production activities with respect to the property.” There is nothing to suggest that the billing address of the customer is relevant to this statutory rule based on place of production, and so the final regulations do not adopt this comment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Interaction With Rules for Sourcing Leases and Licenses of Digital Content</HD>
                <P>One comment supported the location of download or installation rule for determining the place of sale for copyrighted articles, and recommended the final regulations explicitly adopt a uniform rule for sourcing income from sales, leases, and licenses of digital content based on the location of the end-user. The comment also recommended allowing taxpayers to rely on recorded sales data to determine the location of the end-user for purposes of determining place of use for leases and licenses of digital content.</P>
                <P>
                    The final regulations do not adopt this comment. Section 1.861-18(f)(2)(ii) clarifies how the place of sale of digital content is determined for purposes of sections 861 through 865. Those sections contain different rules for determining the source of income from leases and licenses, for which the place of transfer is not the relevant statutory rule (generally, the determination is based on where the property subject to the lease or license is used, or where the possessor of the interest has the right to use the property). 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     sections 861(a)(4), 862(a)(4). Section 1.861-18(f)(2)(ii) looks to the customer's billing address for purposes of determining the place of sale for purposes of § 1.861-7(c). While that may sometimes also be the location in which the digital content is used, that is not necessarily the case. For example, where copyright rights are transferred in a transaction that is classified as a license, the copyright rights may be used in multiple locations, and not just the location of the customer's billing address. Similarly, not all income from sales is sourced to the place where the sale occurred. In those cases, the statute provides the relevant determination, such as the place of production in section 863(b) or the residence of the seller in section 865(a). The location of download or installation is not necessarily indicative of any of those things, and the Treasury Department and the IRS only intend for the rule in § 1.861-18(f)(2)(ii) to be used to determine the place where the sale occurred for purposes of statutory sourcing rules that rely on that determination. Therefore, § 1.861-18(f)(2)(ii) of the final regulations is not extended to provide a sourcing rule for all sales, licenses, and leases of digital content.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Finally, a comment suggested that the regulations clarify that a license of copyright rights from a copyright owner 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2986"/>
                    to a distributor is sourced under section 861(a)(4) or 862(a)(4). Because § 1.861-18(f)(2), as in effect before this Treasury decision, already provides that income derived from licensing copyright rights is sourced under section 861(a)(4) or 862(a)(4), no changes have been made in response to this comment.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Source Rule for Gross Income From a Cloud Transaction</HD>
                <P>Proposed § 1.861-19 would not provide a source rule for cloud transactions. As such, the proposed regulations indicated that existing law, regulations, and IRS guidance regarding sourcing services and leases would apply to sourcing cloud transactions. Numerous comments were received regarding whether a specific source rule for cloud transactions would be appropriate and several of these comments included suggestions for such a rule.</P>
                <P>
                    The Treasury Department and the IRS are of the view that that there would be benefits for taxpayer compliance and administrability if gross income from cloud transactions were sourced using a uniform rule. Thus, the Treasury Department and the IRS are issuing proposed regulations (REG-107420-24) published elsewhere in this same issue of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     that provide rules for determining the source of gross income from a cloud transaction.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Removal of Example 5 From § 1.937-3(e)</HD>
                <P>The proposed regulations would have removed Examples 4 and 5 from § 1.937-3(e). Section 937 provides residence and source rules involving territories. Examples 4 and 5 of § 1.937-3(e) relate to the sourcing of income from digital content transactions and cloud transactions, respectively. One comment suggested that the proposal to remove Example 5 was premature because the proposed regulations did not include a source rule for cloud transactions. The final regulations do not accept this comment. As discussed in Part IV.B of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, the Treasury Department and the IRS are issuing a companion notice of proposed rulemaking addressing the source of income from cloud transactions concurrent with these final regulations. Therefore, to avoid potentially inconsistent inferences, the final regulations remove both Examples 4 and 5 of § 1.937-3(e).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">V. Comments Outside the Scope of This Treasury Decision</HD>
                <P>The preamble to Treasury Decision 8785, which promulgated § 1.861-18 in 1998, stated that the Treasury Department and the IRS were considering whether to issue guidance regarding whether transactions in copyrighted articles are transactions in tangible property, and whether transactions in copyright rights are transactions in intangible property, in each case for purposes of section 482. The proposed regulations did not contain further guidance on this topic.</P>
                <P>One comment to the proposed regulations recommended that the Treasury Department and the IRS reconsider this matter and issue guidance on this topic because the characterization of a transfer of digital content as tangible or intangible property is important for purposes of sections 250, 367(d), and 482. The Treasury Department and IRS have determined that guidance on whether the categories of transactions in § 1.861-18 are considered tangible or intangible property for purposes of such Code sections is outside the scope of these regulations.</P>
                <P>One comment suggested that section 904 should be amended as it relates to certain sales income earned by U.S. residents to prevent “cross-crediting” of high-taxed income and zero- or low-taxed income within the same foreign tax credit basket under section 904(d)(1). The comment noted that such “cross-crediting” results in the U.S. partially or fully bearing the cost of the high tax rates in some foreign jurisdictions because a credit related to the high-taxed income may offset U.S. tax on the income from low-tax jurisdictions. Amendments to section 904 are outside the scope of this Treasury Decision.</P>
                <P>
                    Two comments suggested changes to the regulations under section 250 pertaining to foreign-derived intangible income (FDII). One comment requested that the Treasury Department and the IRS introduce a rule under § 1.250(b)-4 stating that intangible property used in providing a service that is a cloud transaction within the meaning of § 1.861-19 is, for purposes of section 250, used at the location of the employees engaged in, and tangible property used in, providing the cloud transaction service. That comment also suggested adding a de minimis rule under § 1.250(b)-4 providing that any de minimis use of intangible property is disregarded in a cloud transaction. A second comment noted that the characterization of a cloud transaction would impact whether income is eligible for the FDII deduction because there are different rules for establishing “foreign use” for services and lease transactions. That comment also suggested that the “foreign use” rule for intangible property should replicate the rule governing foreign use of general property. These comments are outside the scope of this Treasury Decision, but were considered in finalizing the section 250 regulations. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     T.D. 9901 (85 FR 43042, July 15, 2020).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">VI. Final Regulations Apply Only for Certain International Provisions of the Code</HD>
                <P>Section 1.861-18, as in effect before this Treasury decision, applied only to certain listed international provisions of the Code. When § 1.861-18 was promulgated in 1998, the preamble stated that the Treasury Department and the IRS were considering whether the principles of § 1.861-18 should apply to other provisions of the Code. The proposed regulations retained the scope of § 1.861-18 by applying only to certain listed international provisions of the Code, although additional sections of the Code were added to the scope of the proposed regulations due to changes in law between 1998 and the date of the proposed regulations. Proposed § 1.861-19 would also apply only to the same listed international provisions of the Code.</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS received comments recommending expanding the scope of the final regulations to apply for all purposes of the Code, particularly with respect to § 1.861-18 for which all comments received on this topic recommended expansion to all purposes of the Code. Multiple comments expressed that the framework of the proposed regulations provides sensible rules and certainty with respect to transactions involving digital content. One comment also expressed concern that limiting the scope of the final regulations to only international provisions of the Code could lead to the same transaction being characterized differently depending on which Code section was applied. Another comment expressed the belief that both taxpayers and the IRS will utilize the guidance in the final regulations by analogy even if the final regulations apply only to international provisions of the Code, and that it would be better to make it clear that the final regulations apply to all provisions of the Code so that taxpayers and the IRS will not have to go through the rigors of trying to convince the other party that the final regulations are relevant in a particular case.</P>
                <P>
                    Unlike § 1.861-18, some comments recommended that § 1.861-19 not be applied beyond the scope provided in the proposed regulations. These comments expressed concern that the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="2987"/>
                    preamble to § 1.861-19 referenced section 7701(e) (pertaining to the treatment of certain contracts as leases rather than service contracts), and recommended against any guidance providing that section 7701(e) could apply throughout the Code, including Subchapter M. One comment explained that the extent to which the provision of services affects the definition of “rents from real property” for real estate investment trust purposes is addressed not only in Subchapter M and the regulations thereunder, but also in numerous items of IRS sub-regulatory guidance and private letter rulings specifically interpreting Subchapter M. The comments recommended adding an explicit disclaimer in the preamble and the text of the final regulations that any purported interpretation and application of section 7701(e) principles in the final regulations do not apply outside the intended scope of the final regulations, and therefore do not apply to lease-versus-service determinations under other provisions of chapter 1 of the Code. As discussed under Part III.A of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, the final regulations treat all cloud transactions as the provision of services, and accordingly remove the section 7701(e) factors from the regulatory text.
                </P>
                <P>More broadly, the Treasury Department and the IRS continue to study issues related to applying the final regulations to all provisions of the Code. Concurrently with the issuance of the final regulations, the Treasury Department and the IRS are issuing a Notice (Notice 2025-6) requesting comments regarding issues to consider in deciding whether to apply the characterization rules in §§ 1.861-18 and 1.861-19, as amended and added, respectively, by the final regulations to all provisions of the Code.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">VII. Change in Method of Accounting</HD>
                <P>The proposed regulations would treat a change in method of accounting that a taxpayer made in order to comply with the proposed regulations as a change initiated by the taxpayer. Accordingly, the change in method of accounting would have to be implemented under the rules of § 1.446-1(e) and the applicable administrative procedures that govern voluntary changes in method of accounting under section 446(e).</P>
                <P>Two comments suggested that if a taxpayer must change its method of accounting in order to comply with the final regulations, then such change should be eligible for automatic consent.</P>
                <P>The final regulations do not adopt these comments. The Treasury Department and the IRS generally do not anticipate taxpayers needing to change methods of accounting as a result of the final regulations. Additionally, in light of the aforementioned Notice requesting comments on applying the characterization rules in §§ 1.861-18 and 1.861-19, as amended and added, respectively, by the final regulations for all purposes of the Code, the Treasury Department and IRS have determined that it is important to ensure that any accounting method changes due to these regulations are consistent with the appropriate treatment of the transactions at issue under all appropriate Code or regulation sections.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">VIII. Applicability Date</HD>
                <P>The proposed regulations were proposed to apply to transactions entered into pursuant to contracts entered into in taxable years beginning on or after the date of publication of final regulations.</P>
                <P>Comments recommended the final regulations apply to transactions entered into in taxable years beginning on or after the date that final regulations are published, regardless of the date of the contracts pursuant to which such transactions were entered into. One comment noted that it would be difficult to trace particular transactions to contracts that were entered into in taxable years that begin on or after the date of publication of final regulations. Other comments noted that the proposed applicability date may result in different rules applying to similar transactions of the same taxpayer long after these regulations are finalized.</P>
                <P>One comment suggested allowing taxpayers to elect application of the final regulations to taxable years ending after the date of publication of the proposed regulations. Another comment recommended that taxpayers be allowed to elect to apply the final regulations to transactions taking place before the effective date of the final regulations.</P>
                <P>
                    In response to these comments, the final regulations generally apply to taxable years beginning on or after the date of publication of this Treasury decision in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . However, taxpayers may elect to apply all of the rules of the final regulations to taxable years beginning on or after August 14, 2019 and all subsequent taxable years as long as all related persons (within the meaning of sections 267(b) and 707(b)) also apply all of the rules of the final regulations to taxable years beginning on or after August 14, 2019 and all subsequent taxable years, the period of limitations on assessment for each taxable year of the taxpayer and all related parties (within the meaning of sections 267(b) and 707(b)) is open under section 6501, and the taxpayer would not be required under this section to change its method of accounting as a result of such election.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Analyses</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Regulatory Planning and Review—Economic Analysis</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to the Memorandum of Agreement, Review of Treasury Regulations under Executive Order 12866 (June 9, 2023), tax regulatory actions issued by the IRS are not subject to the requirements of section 6 of Executive Order 12866, as amended. Therefore, a regulatory impact assessment is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">II. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) (PRA) generally requires that a Federal agency obtain the approval of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) before collecting information from the public, whether such collection of information is mandatory, voluntary, or required to obtain or retain a benefit. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid control number assigned by the Office of Management and Budget.</P>
                <P>The collections of information in these final regulations contain reporting and recordkeeping requirements that are necessary to ensure the correct classification of digital content transactions and cloud transactions. The collections will be used by the IRS for tax compliance purposes.</P>
                <P>The final regulation mentions a reporting requirement where a taxpayer may be required to change its method of accounting. For PRA purposes, Form 3115, Application for Change in Accounting Method, is already approved by OMB under Control Numbers 1545-0047 for tax-exempt entities, 1545-0074 for individuals, 1545-0123 for business filers and 1545-0092 for trust and estate filers.</P>
                <P>
                    The recordkeeping requirements include that entities keep records of their transactions to substantiate the transaction classification. These recordkeeping requirements are considered general tax records under § 1.6001-1(e). For PRA purposes, general tax records are already approved by OMB under 1545-0047 for tax-exempt entities, 1545-0074 for individuals, 1545-0123 for business filers and 1545-0092 for trust and estate filers.
                    <PRTPAGE P="2988"/>
                </P>
                <P>These final regulations are not creating new information collections or changing information collections already approved by OMB.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">III. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act requires consideration of the regulatory impact on small businesses. It is hereby certified that these final regulations will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of section 601(6) of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 6).</P>
                <P>Although data are not readily available to estimate the number of small entities that would be affected by the final regulations, the Treasury Department and the IRS project that any economic impact of the regulations would be minimal for businesses regardless of size. These final regulations generally provide clarification of definitions regarding how transactions are classified, and thus are not expected to have an impact on burden for large or small businesses. The Treasury Department and the IRS project that any economic impact would be small because current industry practice is generally consistent with the principles underlying the final regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">IV. Section 7805(f)</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to section 7805(f) of the Code, the proposed regulations (REG-130700-14) preceding these final regulations were submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on the impact on small businesses and no comments were received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">V. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits and take certain other actions before issuing a final rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in expenditures in any one year by a State, local, or Tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. The final regulations do not include any Federal mandate that may result in expenditures by State, local, or Tribal governments, or by the private sector in excess of that threshold.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">VI. Executive Order 13132: Federalism</HD>
                <P>Executive Order 13132 (entitled “Federalism”) prohibits an agency from publishing any rule that has federalism implications if the rule either imposes substantial, direct compliance costs on State and local governments, and is not required by statutes, or preempts State law, unless the agency meets the consultation and funding requirements of section 6 of the Executive order. The final regulations do not have federalism implications, do not impose substantial direct compliance costs on State and local governments, and do not preempt State law within the meaning of the Executive order.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Drafting Information</HD>
                <P>The principal authors of these final regulations are Christopher E. Fulle and Michelle L. Ng of the Office of the Associate Chief Counsel (International). However, other personnel from the Treasury Department and the IRS participated in their development.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 26 CFR Part 1</HD>
                    <P>Income taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adoption of Amendments to the Regulations</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, the Treasury Department and the IRS amend 26 CFR part 1 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1—INCOME TAXES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Paragraph 1.</E>
                        The authority citation for part 1 continues to read in part as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P>26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 2.</E>
                         Section 1.861-7 is amended by revising paragraph (c) to read as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.861-7</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Sale of personal property.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Country in which sold.</E>
                             For purposes of part I (section 861 and following), subchapter N, chapter 1 of the Code, and the regulations thereunder, a sale of personal property is consummated at the time when, and the place where, the rights, title, and interest of the seller in the property are transferred to the buyer. Where bare legal title is retained by the seller, the sale shall be deemed to have occurred at the time and place of passage to the buyer of beneficial ownership and the risk of loss. However, in any case in which the sales transaction is arranged in a particular manner for the primary purpose of tax avoidance, the foregoing rules will not be applied. In such cases, all factors of the transaction, such as negotiations, the execution of the agreement, the location of the property, and the place of payment, will be considered, and the sale will be treated as having been consummated at the place where the substance of the sale occurred. For determining the place of sale of copyrighted articles transferred through an electronic medium, see § 1.861-18(f)(2)(ii).
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 3.</E>
                         Section 1.861-18 is amended by:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. Revising the section heading;</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. Revising paragraphs (a), (b), (c)(1), (c)(2)(i) through (iv), (c)(3), (d), (e), (f)(1) through (3), (g)(2), (g)(3)(i) and (ii), and (h) through (j); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>c. Removing paragraph (k).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The revisions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.861-18</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Classification of, and source of gross income from, digital content transactions.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">General</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Scope.</E>
                             This section provides rules for classifying digital content transactions (as defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section) for purposes of subchapter N of chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue Code, sections 59A, 245A, 250, 267A, 367, 404A, 482, 679, 1059A, chapters 3 and 4, sections 842 and 845 (to the extent involving a foreign person), and transfers to foreign trusts not covered by section 679.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Digital content</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Digital content defined.</E>
                             For purposes of this section, digital content means a computer program or any other content, such as books, movies, and music, in digital format that is—
                        </P>
                        <P>(A) Protected by copyright law; or</P>
                        <P>(B) Not protected by copyright law solely—</P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) Due to the passage of time; or
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ) Because the creator dedicated the content to the public domain.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Computer program defined.</E>
                             For purposes of this section, a computer program is a set of statements or instructions to be used directly or indirectly in a computer in order to bring about a certain result and includes any media, user manuals, documentation, data base, or similar item if the media, user manuals, documentation, data base, or other similar item is incidental to the operation of the computer program.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Categories of transactions</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">General.</E>
                             A transaction that constitutes a transfer of digital content, or the provision of services or of know-how with respect to digital content (each a digital content transaction), is treated as being solely one of the following—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) A transfer of a copyright right in the digital content;</P>
                        <P>(ii) A transfer of a copy of the digital content (a copyrighted article);</P>
                        <P>(iii) The provision of services for the development or modification of the digital content; or</P>
                        <P>(iv) The provision of know-how relating to development of digital content.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Transaction with multiple elements.</E>
                             Taking into account the 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2989"/>
                            overall transaction and the surrounding facts and circumstances, a transaction that has multiple elements, one or more of which would be a digital content transaction if considered separately, is classified in its entirety as a digital content transaction under one of the categories described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section if the predominant character of the transaction is described in one of the categories in that paragraph.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Determination of predominant character</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">General rule.</E>
                             For purposes of paragraph (b)(2) of this section and § 1.861-19(c)(2), the predominant character of a transaction is determined by ascertaining the primary benefit or value received by the customer in the transaction.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Special rule.</E>
                             If the primary benefit or value received by the customer in the transaction is not reasonably ascertainable, the predominant character of a transaction is instead determined by ascertaining the primary benefit or value received by a typical customer in a substantially similar transaction as determined under paragraphs (b)(3)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (A) The primary benefit or value received by a typical customer is determined by data on how a typical customer uses or accesses the digital content. See paragraph (h)(17) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 17</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) If data described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(A) of this section is not available, then the predominant character of a transaction subject to the special rule in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section is determined by examining other factors that are indicative of the primary benefit or value received by a typical customer, including the following—</P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) How the transferor or provider markets the transaction;
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ) The relative development costs to the transferor or provider of each element of the transaction; and
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">3</E>
                            ) The relative price paid in an uncontrolled transaction for one or more elements compared to the total contract price of the transaction in question.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Identification and development of data.</E>
                             A transferor or provider must use reasonable efforts to identify the data specified in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii)(A) of this section, or if necessary, to apply the factors relevant to paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(B) of this section. However, a transferor or provider is not required to develop any of the data specified in those paragraphs that it does not develop in the course of business.
                        </P>
                        <P>(c) * * *</P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Transfers involving transfers of copyright rights.</E>
                             A digital content transaction involves a transfer of a copyright right if, as a result of the transaction, a person acquires one or more of the rights described in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>(2) * * *</P>
                        <P>(i) The right to make copies of the digital content for purposes of distribution to the public by sale or other transfer of ownership, or by rental, lease or lending;</P>
                        <P>(ii) The right to prepare derivative digital content based upon the digital content;</P>
                        <P>(iii) The right to make a public performance of digital content, other than a right to publicly perform digital content for the purpose of advertising the sale of the digital content performed; or</P>
                        <P>(iv) The right to publicly display digital content, other than a right to publicly display digital content for the purpose of advertising the sale of the digital content displayed.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Copyrighted articles.</E>
                             A copyrighted article includes a copy of digital content from which the work can be perceived, reproduced, or otherwise communicated, either directly or with the aid of a machine or device. The copy of the digital content may be fixed in any medium.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Provision of services.</E>
                             The determination of whether a transaction involving newly developed or modified digital content involves the provision of services described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is based on all the facts and circumstances of the transaction, including, as appropriate, the intent of the parties (as evidenced by their agreement and conduct) as to which party is to own the copyright rights in the digital content and how the risks of loss are allocated between the parties. See paragraph (h)(15) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 15</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Provision of know-how.</E>
                             The provision of information with respect to digital content involves the provision of know-how for purposes of this section only if the information is—
                        </P>
                        <P>(1) Information relating to the development of digital content;</P>
                        <P>(2) Furnished under conditions preventing unauthorized disclosure, specifically contracted for between the parties; and</P>
                        <P>(3) Considered property subject to trade secret protection.</P>
                        <P>(f) * * *</P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Transfers of copyright rights.</E>
                             The determination of whether a transfer of a copyright right is a sale or exchange of property is made on the basis of whether, taking into account all facts and circumstances, there has been a transfer of all substantial rights in the copyright. A transfer of a copyright right that does not constitute a sale or exchange because not all substantial rights have been transferred will be classified as a license. For this purpose, the principles of sections 1222 and 1235 apply. Income derived from the sale or exchange of a copyright right will be sourced under section 865(a), (c), (d), (e), or (h), as appropriate. Income derived from the licensing of a copyright right will be sourced under section 861(a)(4) or 862(a)(4), as appropriate.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Transfers of copyrighted articles</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Classification.</E>
                             The determination of whether a transfer of a copyrighted article is a sale or exchange is made on the basis of whether, taking into account all facts and circumstances, the benefits and burdens of ownership have been transferred. A transfer of a copyrighted article that does not constitute a sale or exchange because insufficient benefits and burdens of ownership of the copyrighted article have been transferred, such that a person other than the transferee is properly treated as the owner of the copyrighted article, will be classified as a lease.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Source.</E>
                             Income from transactions that are classified as sales or exchanges of copyrighted articles will be sourced under section 861(a)(6), 862(a)(6), 863, or 865(a), (b), (c), or (e), as appropriate. When a copyrighted article is sold and transferred through an electronic medium, the sale is deemed to have occurred at the location of the billing address of the purchaser for purposes of § 1.861-7(c). However, in any case in which the sales transaction is arranged in a particular manner for a principal purpose of tax avoidance, the foregoing rules will not be applied. In such a case, all of the facts and circumstances relevant to the transaction, such as the place where the copyrighted article will be used, the place where negotiations and the execution of the agreement occurred, and the terms of the agreement, will be considered, and the sale will be treated as having occurred where the substance of the sale occurred. Income derived from leasing a copyrighted article will be sourced under section 861(a)(4) or 862(a)(4), as appropriate.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Special circumstances of digital content.</E>
                             In connection with determinations under this paragraph (f), consideration must be given as appropriate to the special characteristics of digital content in transactions that take advantage of these characteristics (such as the ability to make perfect 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2990"/>
                            copies at minimal cost). For example, a transaction in which a person acquires a copy of digital content on a disk subject to a requirement that the disk be destroyed after a specified period is generally the equivalent of a transaction subject to a requirement that the disk be returned after such period. Similarly, a transaction in which the digital content deactivates itself after a specified period is generally the equivalent of a transaction subject to a requirement that the disk be returned after a specified period.
                        </P>
                        <P>(g) * * *</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Means of transfer not to be taken into account.</E>
                             The rules of this section shall be applied irrespective of the physical or electronic or other medium used to effectuate a digital content transaction.
                        </P>
                        <P>(3) * * *</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             For purposes of paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, a transferee of digital content shall not be considered to have the right to distribute copies of the digital content to the public if it is permitted to distribute copies of the digital content to only either a related person, or to identified persons who may be identified by either name or by legal relationship to the original transferee. For purposes of this subparagraph, a related person is a person who bears a relationship to the transferee specified in section 267(b)(3), (10), (11), or (12), or section 707(b)(1)(B). In applying section 267(b), 267(f), 707(b)(1)(B), or 1563(a), “10 percent” shall be substituted for “50 percent.”  
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Use by individuals.</E>
                             The number of employees of a transferee of digital content who are permitted to use the digital content in connection with their employment is not relevant for purposes of this paragraph (g)(3). In addition, the number of individuals with a contractual agreement to provide services to the transferee of digital content who are permitted to use the digital content in connection with the performance of those services is not relevant for purposes of this paragraph (g)(3).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (h) 
                            <E T="03">Examples.</E>
                             The examples in this paragraph (h) illustrate the provisions of this section. Unless otherwise specified, assume that Corp A is a domestic corporation, the digital content described in each example does not contain any online functionality, and all facts in each example occur as part of a single transaction.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Example 1: Sale of a computer program on a disk</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A owns the copyright in a computer program, Program X. It copies Program X onto disks. The disks are placed in boxes covered with a wrapper on which is printed what is generally referred to as a shrink-wrap license. The license is stated to be perpetual. Under the license no reverse engineering, decompilation, or disassembly of the computer program is permitted. The transferee receives, first, the right to use the program on two of its own computers (for example, a laptop and a desktop) provided that only one copy is in use at any one time, and second, the right to make one copy of the program on each machine as an essential step in the utilization of the program. The transferee is permitted by the shrink-wrap license to sell the copy so long as it destroys any other copies it has made and imposes the same terms and conditions of the license on the purchaser of its copy. These disks are made available for sale to the general public in Country Z. In return for valuable consideration, P, a Country Z resident, receives one such disk.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) Under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the transfer of a disk containing a copy of Program X from Corp A to P is a digital content transaction with one element, which is the transfer of a copy of Program X. Therefore, the transaction is treated solely as a transfer of a copyrighted article under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. Under paragraph (g)(1) of this section, the label license is not determinative.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Taking into account all of the facts and circumstances, P is properly treated as the owner of a copyrighted article. Therefore, under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, there has been a sale of a copyrighted article rather than the grant of a lease.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Example 2: Sale of a computer program via download from the internet</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             The facts are the same as those in paragraph (h)(1) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 1</E>
                            ), except that instead of selling disks, Corp A decides to make Program X available, for a fee, on a World Wide Web home page on the internet. P, the Country Z resident, in return for payment made to Corp A, downloads Program X (via modem) onto the hard drive of his computer. As part of the electronic communication, P signifies his assent to a license agreement with terms identical to those in 
                            <E T="03">Example 1,</E>
                             except that in this case P may make a back-up copy of the program on to a disk.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) Under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the digital transfer of a copy of Program X from Corp A to P is a digital content transaction with one element, which is the transfer of a copy of Program X. Therefore, the transaction is treated solely as a transfer of a copyrighted article under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. Although P did not buy a physical copy of the disk with the program on it, paragraph (g)(2) of this section provides that the means of transferring the program is irrelevant.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) As in paragraph (h)(1) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 1</E>
                            ), P is properly treated as the owner of a copyrighted article. Therefore, under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, there has been a sale of a copyrighted article rather than the grant of a lease.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Example 3: Lease of a computer program with requirement to return disk—</E>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             The facts are the same as those in paragraph (h)(1) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 1</E>
                            ), except that Corp A only allows P, the Country Z resident, to use Program X for one week. At the end of that week, P must return the disk with Program X on it to Corp A. P must also destroy any copies made of Program X. If P wishes to use Program X for a further period he must enter into a new agreement to use the program for an additional charge.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) Under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the transfer of a disk with a copy of Program X from Corp A to P is a digital content transaction with one element, which is the transfer of a copy of Program X. Therefore, the transaction is treated solely as a transfer of a copyrighted article under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Taking into account all of the facts and circumstances, P is not properly treated as the owner of a copyrighted article. Therefore, under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, there has been a lease of a copyrighted article rather than a sale. Taking into account the special characteristics of digital content as provided in paragraph (f)(3) of this section, the result would be the same if P were required to destroy the disk at the end of the one-week period instead of returning it since Corp A can make additional copies of the program at minimal cost.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Example 4: Lease of a computer program with electronic lock</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             * * *
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) Under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the digital transfer of a copy of Program X from Corp A to P is a digital content transaction with one element, which is the transfer of a copy of Program X. Therefore, the transaction is treated solely as a transfer of a copyrighted article under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) As in paragraph (h)(3) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 3</E>
                            ), P is not properly treated as the owner of a copyrighted article. Therefore, under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, there has been a lease of a copyrighted article rather than a sale. 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2991"/>
                            While P does retain Program X on its computer at the end of the one-week period, as a legal matter P no longer has the right to use the program (without further payment) and, indeed, cannot use the program without the electronic key. Functionally, Program X is no longer on the hard drive of P's computer. Instead, the hard drive contains only a series of numbers which no longer perform the function of Program X. Although in 
                            <E T="03">Example 3,</E>
                             P was required to physically return the disk, taking into account the special characteristics of digital content as provided in paragraph (f)(3) of this section, the result in this paragraph (h)(4) (
                            <E T="03">Example 4</E>
                            ) is the same as in 
                            <E T="03">Example 3.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">Example 5: Sale of copyright rights to a computer program</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A transfers a disk containing Program X to Corp B, a Country Z corporation, and grants Corp B an exclusive license for the remaining term of the copyright to copy and distribute an unlimited number of copies of Program X in the geographic area of Country Z, prepare derivative works based upon Program X, make public performances of Program X, and publicly display Program X. Corp B will pay Corp A a royalty of $y a year for three years, which is the expected period during which Program X will have commercially exploitable value (a period shorter than the copyright term). Corp A has ascertained that the primary benefit or value from the transaction to Corp B is derived from the four legal rights obtained in Program X from Corp A and not from the receipt of a copy of Program X. The transfer of a copy of Program X is merely the means by which Corp A provides Corp B access to Program X in order to exercise its copyright rights.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) The transaction between Corp A and Corp B has multiple elements. One element is the transfer of a disk with a copy of Program X, which would be a digital content transaction described under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section (transfer of a copyrighted article) if considered separately. Another element is the grant of the right to make an unlimited number of copies of Program X and distribute those copies to the public, the right to prepare derivative works based upon Program X, the right to make public performances of Program X, and the right to publicly display Program X, which would be described under paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (c)(2) of this section (transfer of a copyright right) if considered separately.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Because the transaction has multiple elements, one or more of which would be a digital content transaction if considered separately, paragraph (b)(2) of this section provides that the transaction is classified within a single category under paragraph (b)(1) of this section if its predominant character is described in that paragraph. Pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, the predominant character of the transaction is based on the primary benefit or value of the transaction to the customer, if it is reasonably ascertainable. The predominant character of this transaction is therefore the transfer of copyright rights because the primary benefit or value received by Corp B from the transaction is the ability to exercise the copyright rights described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. Therefore, this transaction is classified solely as a transfer of copyright rights described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(C) Applying the all substantial rights test under paragraph (f)(1) of this section, Corp A will be treated as having sold copyright rights to Corp B. Corp B has acquired all of the copyright rights in Program X, has received the right to use them exclusively within Country Z, and has received the rights for the remaining life of the copyright in Program X. The fact the payments cease before the copyright term expires is not controlling. Under paragraph (g)(1) of this section, the fact that the agreement is labelled a license is not controlling nor is the fact that Corp A receives a sum labelled a royalty. (The result in this case would be the same if the copy of Program X to be used for the purposes of reproduction were transmitted electronically to Corp B, as a result of the application of the rule of paragraph (g)(2) of this section.)  </P>
                        <P>
                            (6) 
                            <E T="03">Example 6: License of copyright right to make copies of a computer program and distribute to the public</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A transfers a disk containing Program X to Corp B, a Country Z corporation, and grants Corp B the non-exclusive right to reproduce and distribute for sale to the public an unlimited number of disks containing Program X at its factory in Country Z in return for a payment related to the number of disks copied and sold. The term of the agreement is two years, which is less than the remaining life of the copyright. Corp A has ascertained that the primary benefit or value from the transaction to Corp B is derived from the right to reproduce and distribute Program X and not from the receipt of a copy of Program X. The transfer of a copy of Program X is merely the means by which Corp A provides Corp B access to Program X in order to exercise its copyright rights.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) The transaction between Corp A and Corp B has multiple elements. One element is the transfer of a disk with a copy of Program X, which would be described under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section (transfer of a copyrighted article) if considered separately. Another element is the grant of the right to reproduce and distribute for sale to the public an unlimited number of disks containing Program X, which would be described under paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (c)(2)(i) of this section (transfer of a copyright right) if considered separately.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Because the transaction has multiple elements, one or more of which would be a digital content transaction if considered separately, paragraph (b)(2) of this section provides that the transaction is classified within a single category under paragraph (b)(1) of this section if its predominant character is described in that paragraph. Pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the predominant character of the transaction is based on the primary benefit or value of the transaction to the customer, if it is reasonably ascertainable. The predominant character of this transaction is therefore the transfer of a copyright right because the primary benefit or value received by Corp B is the right to reproduce and distribute for sale to the public copies of Program X. Therefore, this transaction is classified solely as a transfer of copyright rights described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(C) Taking into account all of the facts and circumstances, there has been a license of Program X to Corp B. Under paragraph (f)(1) of this section, there has not been a transfer of all substantial rights in the copyright to Program X because Corp A has the right to enter into other licenses with respect to the copyright of Program X, including licenses in Country Z (or even to sell that copyright, subject to Corp B's interest). Corp B has acquired no right itself to license the copyright rights in Program X. Finally, the term of the license is for less than the remaining life of the copyright in Program X.</P>
                        <P>
                            (7) 
                            <E T="03">Example 7: Sale of disks containing copies of a computer program to a distributor</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp C, a distributor, enters into an agreement with Corp A to purchase as many copies of Program X on disk as it may from time-to-time request. Corp C will then sell these disks to retailers. The disks are shipped in boxes covered by shrink-wrap licenses (identical to the license described in paragraph (h)(1) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 1</E>
                            )).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) Under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the transfers of 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2992"/>
                            disks with copies of Program X from Corp A to Corp C are digital content transactions with one element, which is the transfer of copies of Program X. Therefore, the transactions are classified solely as the transfer of copyrighted articles under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. The use of the term license is not dispositive under paragraph (g)(1) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Taking into account all of the facts and circumstances, Corp C is properly treated as the owner of copyrighted articles. Therefore, under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, there has been a sale of copyrighted articles.</P>
                        <P>
                            (8) 
                            <E T="03">Example 8: License to a computer manufacturer of copyright rights to make and load copies of a computer program onto the hard drive of computers</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A transfers a disk containing Program X to Corp D, a foreign corporation engaged in the manufacture and sale of personal computers in Country Z. Corp A grants Corp D the non-exclusive right to copy Program X onto the hard drive of an unlimited number of computers, which Corp D manufactures, and to distribute those copies (on the hard drive) to the public. The term of the agreement is two years, which is less than the remaining life of the copyright in Program X. Corp D pays Corp A an amount based on the number of copies of Program X it loads on to computers. Corp A has ascertained that the primary benefit or value from the transaction to Corp D is the ability to copy and distribute Program X onto computers manufactured by Corp D, not from the receipt of a copy of Program X. The transfer of a copy of Program X is merely the means by which Corp A provides Corp D access to Program X in order to exercise its right to make and distribute copies.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) The transaction between Corp A and Corp D has multiple elements. One element is the transfer of a disk with a copy of Program X, which would be described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section (transfer of a copyrighted article) if considered separately. Another element is the grant of the non-exclusive right to copy Program X onto the hard drive of an unlimited number of computers and distribute those copies (on the hard drive) to the public, which would be described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (c)(2)(i) of this section (transfer of a copyright right) if considered separately.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Because the transaction has multiple elements, one or more of which would be a digital content transaction if considered separately, paragraph (b)(2) of this section provides that the transaction is classified within a single category under paragraph (b)(1) of this section if its predominant character is described in that paragraph. Pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the predominant character of the transaction is based on the primary benefit or value of the transaction to the customer, if it is reasonably ascertainable. The predominant character of this transaction is therefore the transfer of copyright rights because the primary benefit or value received by Corp D is the right to copy Program X onto the hard drive of an unlimited number of computers and sell those copies (on the hard drive) to the public. Therefore, this transaction is classified solely as a transfer of copyright rights described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(C) Taking into account all of the facts and circumstances, there has been a license of Program X to Corp D. Under paragraph (f)(1) of this section, there has not been a transfer of all substantial rights in the copyright to Program X because Corp A has the right to enter into other licenses with respect to the copyright of Program X, including licenses in Country Z (or even to sell that copyright, subject to Corp D's interest). Corp D has acquired no right itself to license the copyright rights in Program X. Finally, the term of the license is for less than the remaining life of the copyright in Program X. The result would be the same if Corp D included with the computers it sells a copy of Program X on a disk.</P>
                        <P>
                            (9) 
                            <E T="03">Example 9: Sale of disks containing a copy of computer program to a computer manufacturer</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             The facts are the same as those in paragraph (h)(8) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 8</E>
                            ), except that Corp D, the Country Z corporation, receives physical disks. The disks are shipped in boxes covered by shrink-wrap licenses (identical to the licenses described in paragraph (h)(1) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 1</E>
                            )). The terms of these licenses do not permit Corp D to make additional copies of Program X. Corp D uses each individual disk only once to load a single copy of Program X onto each separate computer. Corp D transfers the disk with the computer when it is sold.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) Under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the transfers of disks with copies of Program X from Corp A to Corp D are digital content transactions with one element, which is the transfer of copies of Program X. Therefore, the transaction is classified solely as the transfer of copyrighted articles under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. Corp D acquires the disks without the right to reproduce and distribute publicly further copies of Program X.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Taking into account all of the facts and circumstances, Corp D is properly treated as the owner of copyrighted articles. Therefore, under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the transaction is classified as the sale of a copyrighted article. The result would be the same if Corp D used a single physical disk to copy Program X onto each computer, and transferred an unopened box containing Program X with each computer, if Corp D were not permitted to copy Program X onto more computers than the number of individual copies purchased.</P>
                        <P>
                            (10) 
                            <E T="03">Example 10: Sale of a computer program with right to load onto multiple employee workstations</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A transfers a disk containing Program X to Corp E and grants Corp E the right to load Program X onto 50 individual workstations for use only by Corp E employees at one location in return for a one-time per-user fee (generally referred to as a site license or enterprise license). If additional workstations are subsequently introduced, Program X may be loaded onto those machines for additional one-time per-user fees. The license which grants the rights to operate Program X on 50 workstations also prohibits Corp E from selling the disk (or any of the 50 copies) or reverse engineering the program. The term of the license is stated to be perpetual.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) It must be determined whether the transfer from Corp A to Corp E of a disk containing a copy of Program X and the right to load Program X onto 50 individual workstations is a transaction with multiple elements. There is at least one element, which is the transfer of a disk containing a copy of Program X, which either is a digital content transaction under paragraph (b)(1) of this section or would be a digital content transaction if considered separately. If there is no additional element, then the transaction is classified as a transfer of a copyrighted article pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. If there is a second element, then paragraph (b)(2) of this section applies and the transaction is classified within a single category under paragraph (b)(1) of this section if its predominant character is described in that paragraph. The grant of a right to copy, unaccompanied by the right to distribute those copies to the public, is not the transfer of a copyright right described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. Therefore, there is no second element in this transaction and it is classified solely as the transfer of 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2993"/>
                            copyrighted articles (50 copies of Program X).  
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Taking into account all of the facts and circumstances, Corp E is properly treated as the owner of copyrighted articles. Therefore, under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, there has been a sale of copyrighted articles rather than the grant of a lease. Notwithstanding the restriction on sale, other factors such as, for example, the risk of loss and the right to use the copies in perpetuity outweigh, in this case, the restrictions placed on the right of alienation.</P>
                        <P>(C) The result would be the same if Corp E were permitted to copy Program X onto an unlimited number of workstations used by employees of either Corp E or other persons that had a relationship to Corp E specified in paragraph (g)(3) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (11) 
                            <E T="03">Example 11: Sale of a computer program with right to make available to multiple employees via local area network</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             The facts are the same as those in paragraph (h)(10) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 10</E>
                            ), except that Corp E, the Country Z corporation, acquires the right to make Program X available to workstation users who are Corp E employees by way of a local area network (LAN). The number of users that can use Program X on the LAN at any one time is limited to 50. Corp E pays a one-time fee for the right to have up to 50 employees use the program at the same time.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             Under paragraph (g)(2) of this section the mode of utilization is irrelevant. Therefore, as in paragraph (h)(10) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 10</E>
                            ), this is a digital content transaction with a single element that is classified as the transfer of a copyrighted article pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. Under the benefits and burdens test of paragraph (f)(2) of this section, this transaction is a sale of copyrighted articles. The result would be the same if an unlimited number of Corp E employees were permitted to use Program X on the LAN or if Corp E were permitted to copy Program X onto LANs maintained by persons that had a relationship to Corp E specified in paragraph (g)(3) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (12) 
                            <E T="03">Example 12: Lease of a computer program with right to receive upgrades and technical support services</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             The facts are the same as in paragraph (h)(11) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 11</E>
                            ), except that instead of paying a one-time fee, Corp E pays a monthly fee to Corp A calculated with reference to the permitted maximum number of users (which can be changed) and the computing power of Corp E's server. In return for this monthly fee, Corp E receives the right to receive upgrades of Program X when they become available. The agreement may be terminated by either party at the end of any month. When the disk containing the upgrade is received, Corp E must return the disk containing the earlier version of Program X to Corp A. If the contract is terminated, Corp E must delete (or otherwise destroy) all copies made of the current version of Program X. The agreement also requires Corp A to provide technical support in the form of troubleshooting and configuration assistance to Corp E, but the agreement does not allocate the monthly fee between the right to use Program X, the right to receive upgrades of Program X, and the technical support services. The amount of technical support that Corp A will provide to Corp E is not foreseeable when the contract is entered into but is expected to be minimal. Corp A has ascertained that the primary benefit or value to Corp E from the transaction is the right to use Program X on the LAN (without the ability to exercise any of the rights described in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section), not the receipt of technical support services with respect to Program X.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) The transaction between Corp A and Corp E has multiple elements. One element is the transfer of a disk with a copy of Program X, which would be described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section (transfer of a copyrighted article) if considered separately. Another element is the provision of technical support services, which are not services for the development or modification of Program X described in paragraph (d) of this section because Corp E has received no copyright rights with respect to Program X. Thus, the technical support services would not be described in any of the categories in paragraph (b)(1) of this section if considered separately.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Because the transaction has multiple elements, one or more of which would be a digital content transaction if considered separately, paragraph (b)(2) of this section provides that the transaction is classified within a single category under paragraph (b)(1) of this section if its predominant character is described in that paragraph. Pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the predominant character of the transaction is based on the primary benefit or value of the transaction to the customer. The predominant character of this transaction is therefore the transfer of a copyrighted article because the primary benefit or value received by Corp E is the right to use Program X. Accordingly, this transaction is classified solely as a transfer of a copyrighted article described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(C) Taking into account all facts and circumstances, under the benefits and burdens test Corp E is not properly treated as the owner of the copyrighted article. Corp E does not receive the right to use Program X in perpetuity, but only for so long as it continues to make payments. Corp E does not have the right to purchase Program X on advantageous (or, indeed, any) terms once a certain amount of money has been paid to Corp A or a certain period has elapsed (which might indicate a sale). Once the agreement is terminated, Corp E will no longer possess any copies of Program X, current or superseded. Therefore, under paragraph (f)(2) of this section there has been a lease of a copyrighted article.</P>
                        <P>
                            (13) 
                            <E T="03">Example 13: Sale of a computer program along with right to receive upgrades</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             The facts are the same as those in paragraph (h)(12) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 12</E>
                            ), except that, while Corp E must return copies of Program X as new upgrades are received, if the agreement terminates, Corp E may keep the latest version of Program X (although Corp E is still prohibited from selling or otherwise transferring any copy of Program X).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             For the reasons stated in paragraph (h)(10)(ii)(B) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 10</E>
                            ), the transfer of the program will be treated as a sale of a copyrighted article rather than as a lease.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (14) 
                            <E T="03">Example 14: Sale of a modified computer program</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp G enters into a contract with Corp A for Corp A to modify Program X so that it can be used at Corp G's facility in Country Z. Under the contract, Corp G is to acquire one copy of the program on a disk and the right to use the program on 5,000 workstations. The contract requires Corp A to rewrite elements of Program X so that it will conform to Country Z accounting standards and states that Corp A retains all copyright rights in the modified Program X. The agreement between Corp A and Corp G is otherwise identical as to rights and payment terms as the agreement described in paragraph (h)(10) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 10</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) It must be determined whether the transfer of disks with modified copies of Program X from Corp A to Corp G is a transaction with multiple elements. There is at least one element, the transfer of copies of Program X, which either is a digital content transaction under paragraph (b)(1) of this section or would be a digital content transaction if considered separately. If there is no additional 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2994"/>
                            element, then the transaction is classified as a transfer of a copyrighted article pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. If there is a second element, then paragraph (b)(2) of this section applies and the transaction is classified within a single category under paragraph (b)(1) of this section if its predominant character is described in that paragraph. Pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section, the modifications made by Corp A before transferring Program X to Corp G do not constitute the provision of services for the development or modification of digital content because Corp A retains all copyright rights with respect to the modified software. Therefore, there is no second element in this transaction and it is classified solely as the transfer of copyrighted articles.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Taking into account all facts and circumstances, Corp G is properly treated as the owner of copyrighted articles. Therefore, under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, there has been the sale of a copyrighted article rather than the grant of a lease.</P>
                        <P>
                            (15) 
                            <E T="03">Example 15: Provision of services for development of a computer program</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp H enters into a license agreement for a new computer program. Program Q is to be written by Corp A. Corp A and Corp H agree that Corp A is writing Program Q for Corp H and that, when Program Q is completed, the copyright in Program Q will belong to Corp H. Corp H gives instructions to Corp A programmers regarding program specifications. Corp H agrees to pay Corp A a fixed monthly sum during development of the program. If Corp H is dissatisfied with the development of the program, it may cancel the contract at the end of any month. In the event of termination, Corp A will retain all payments, while any procedures, techniques or copyrightable interests will be the property of Corp H. All of the payments are labelled royalties. There is no provision in the agreement for any continuing relationship between Corp A and Corp H, such as the furnishing of updates of the program, after completion of the modification work.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             Under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the provision of computer program development services by Corp A to Corp H is a digital content transaction with one element, which is the provision of services for the development or modification of digital content. Under paragraph (d) of this section, the transaction between Corp A and Corp H involves the provision of services for the development of a computer program because Corp H bears all of the risks of loss associated with the development of Program Q and is the owner of all copyright rights in Program Q. Taking into account all of the facts and circumstances, Corp A is treated as providing services to Corp H described in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section. Under paragraph (g)(1) of this section, the fact that the agreement is labelled a license is not controlling (nor is the fact that Corp A receives a sum labelled a royalty).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (16) 
                            <E T="03">Example 16: Provision of know-how by computer programmers</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A and Corp I, a Country Z corporation, agree that a development engineer employed by Corp A will travel to Country Z to provide know-how relating to certain techniques not generally known to computer programmers, which will enable Corp I to more efficiently create computer programs. These techniques represent the product of experience gained by Corp A from working on many computer programming projects, and are furnished to Corp I under nondisclosure conditions. Such information is property subject to trade secret protection.  
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             The provision of know-how with respect to computer programming techniques by Corp A's development engineer to Corp I is described in paragraph (e) of this section. Therefore, the transaction is a digital content transaction with one element, which is the provision of know-how. The transaction is classified solely as the provision of know-how pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (17) 
                            <E T="03">Example 17: Sale of development program in transaction with multiple elements</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A transfers a disk containing Program Y to Corp E in exchange for a single fixed payment. Program Y is a computer program development program, which is used to create other computer programs, consisting of several components, including libraries of reusable software components that serve as general building blocks in new software applications. Because a computer program created with the use of Program Y will not operate unless the libraries are also present, the license agreement between Corp A and Corp E grants Corp E the right to distribute copies of the libraries with any program developed using Program Y. The license agreement is otherwise identical to the license agreement in paragraph (h)(1) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 1</E>
                            ). Corp A cannot reasonably ascertain the primary benefit or value of the transaction to Corp E. A customer like Corp E derives two benefits from this or a substantially similar transaction, the first of which is the ability to use Program Y to develop new software and the second of which is the right to utilize the libraries and reusable software components in Program Y in distributed programs. Corp A possesses data arising from market research and customer surveys indicating that customers utilize Program Y primarily for its computer program development features and do not make significant use of the libraries of reusable software components. The libraries and reusable software components are not significant components of any overall new program created by using Program Y.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) The transaction between Corp A and Corp E has multiple elements. One element is the transfer of a disk with a copy of Program Y, which would be described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section (transfer of a copyrighted article) if considered separately. Another element is the grant of the right to distribute copies of the libraries of reusable software components with any program developed using Program Y, which would be described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (c)(2)(i) of this section (transfer of a copyright right) if considered separately.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) Because the transaction has multiple elements, one or more of which would be a digital content transaction if considered separately, paragraph (b)(2) of this section provides that the transaction is classified within a single category under paragraph (b)(1) of this section if its predominant character is described in that paragraph. Pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, the predominant character of a transaction is generally based on the primary benefit or value of the transaction to the customer. If the primary benefit or value is not reasonably ascertainable, paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section provides that the predominant character of a transaction may be determined based on the primary benefit or value to a typical customer of a substantially similar transaction. This primary benefit or value to a typical customer can be identified through actual data about use or access pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, or if that data is not available, by other evidence indicative of the primary benefit or value to a typical customer pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(B) of this section. Although there are two benefits in this type of transaction, Corp A possesses data indicating that a typical customer primarily uses Program Y because of its computer program development features, rather than the right to 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2995"/>
                            distribute reusable components. This is reinforced by the fact that programs created using Program Y do not contain libraries of reusable software components as significant components. These facts indicate that the primary benefit or value to a typical customer arises from the ability to use Program Y, rather than the right to distribute reusable components. Therefore, the predominant character of this transaction is the transfer of a copy of Program Y, and this transaction is thus classified solely as the transfer of a copyrighted article described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>(C) Taking into account all the facts and circumstances, Corp E is properly treated as the owner of a copyrighted article. Therefore, under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, there has been the sale of a copyrighted article rather than the grant of a lease.</P>
                        <P>
                            (18) 
                            <E T="03">Example 18: Sale of a computer program with right to make modifications</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A transfers a disk containing Program X to Corp E. The disk contains both the object code and the source code to Program X, and the license agreement grants Corp E the right to modify the source code to correct minor errors and make minor adaptations to Program X so it will function on Corp E's computer; as well as the right to recompile the modified source code. The license does not grant Corp E the right to distribute the modified Program X to the public. The license is otherwise identical to the license agreement in paragraph (h)(1) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 1</E>
                            ). Corp A has ascertained that the primary benefit or value received by Corp E from the transaction is the core functionality of Program X rather than the limited rights to modify the source code.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) The transaction between Corp A and Corp E has multiple elements. One element is the transfer of a disk with a copy of Program X, which would be described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section (transfer of a copyrighted article) if considered separately. Another element is the grant of the right to modify the source code to Program X and recompile the modified source code to create new code to correct minor errors, and to make minor adaptations to Program X, which would be described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (c)(2)(ii) of this section (transfer of a copyright right) if considered separately.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Because the transaction has multiple elements, one or more of which would be a digital content transaction if considered separately, paragraph (b)(2) of this section provides that the transaction is classified within a single category under the categories described under paragraph (b)(1) of this section if its predominant character is described in that paragraph. Pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the predominant character of the transaction is based on the primary benefit or value of the transaction to the customer, if it is reasonably ascertainable. Since the primary benefit or value received by Corp E is the core functionality of Program X, rather than the limited rights to modify the source code, the predominant character of this transaction is the transfer of a copyrighted article. Therefore, this transaction is classified solely as a transfer of a copyrighted article under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.  </P>
                        <P>(C) Taking into account all the facts and circumstances, Corp E is properly treated as the owner of a copyrighted article. Therefore, under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, there has been the sale of a copyrighted article rather than the grant of a lease.</P>
                        <P>
                            (19) 
                            <E T="03">Example 19: License to website operator to make and sell copies of electronic books via download</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A operates a website that offers electronic books for download onto customers' computers or other electronic devices. The books offered are protected by copyright law. In a transaction between Corp A and a content owner, Corp A receives from the content owner a digital master copy of a book, which Corp A downloads onto its server. Corp A receives the non-exclusive right to reproduce an unlimited number of copies of the book for purposes of distribution and sale to the public. Corp A pays the content owner a specified amount for each copy sold to a customer. Corp A may not transfer any of the rights it receives from the content owner. The term of the agreement Corp A has with the content owner is shorter than the remaining life of the copyright. The content owner has ascertained that the primary benefit or value Corp A receives in the transaction is the right to reproduce and distribute an unlimited number of copies of the book and not the transfer of a copy of the book. In a separate transaction, Corp A charges a customer a fixed fee for each book purchased. When purchasing a book from Corp A on Corp A's website, the customer must acknowledge the terms of a license agreement with the content owner that states that the customer may download and view the electronic book in perpetuity but may not reproduce, distribute, or sell copies of it. Once the customer downloads the book from Corp A's server onto a device, the customer may access and view the book from that device, which does not need to be connected to the internet for the customer to view the book. The customer owes no additional payment to Corp A for the ability to view the book in the future.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) Notwithstanding the license agreement between each customer and the content owner granting the customer rights to use the book, the relevant transactions are the transfer of a master copy of the book along with the grant from the content owners to Corp A of the right to reproduce and sell to the public copies of the books, and the transfers of copies of the books by Corp A to customers. Although the content owner is identified as a party to the license agreement memorializing the customer's rights with respect to the book, each customer obtains those rights directly from Corp A, not from the content owner. Under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the download of a copy of a book by a customer is a digital content transaction with one element, which is the transfer of a digital copy of a book. Therefore, the transaction is treated solely as a transfer of a copyrighted article under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. Under the benefits and burdens test of paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the transaction is classified as a sale and not a lease, because the customer receives the right to view the book in perpetuity on its device.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) The transaction between the content owner and Corp A has multiple elements. One element is the transfer of a master copy of the book, which would be described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section (transfer of a copyrighted article) if considered separately. Another element is the grant of the right to reproduce and sell an unlimited number of copies to customers, which would be described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (c)(2)(i) of this section (transfer of a copyright right) if considered separately. Because the transaction has multiple elements, one or more of which would be a digital content transaction if considered separately, paragraph (b)(2) of this section provides that the transaction is classified within a single category under the categories described under paragraph (b)(1) of this section if its predominant character is described in that paragraph. Pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the predominant character of the transaction is based on the primary benefit or value of the transaction to the customer, if it is reasonably ascertainable. Since the primary benefit or value Corp A receives in the transaction is the right to reproduce and distribute an unlimited 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2996"/>
                            number of copies, the predominant character of this transaction is the transfer of a copyright right. Therefore, this transaction is classified solely as a transfer of copyright rights described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>(C) Taking into account all of the facts and circumstances, there has been a license of books to Corp A. Under paragraph (f)(1) of this section, there has not been a transfer of all substantial rights in the copyright rights to the books because each content owner has the right to enter into other licenses with respect to the copyright of their book. Corp A has acquired no right itself to license the copyrights in the books. Finally, the terms of the licenses are for less than the remaining lives of the copyrights in the books.</P>
                        <P>
                            (20) 
                            <E T="03">Example 20: internet platform operator as agent for application developers</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A operates a platform on the internet that offers applications for download onto a customer's mobile phone. Under general tax principles, Corp A and an application developer establish an agency relationship whereby Corp A acts as the agent to offer the application for sale to customers on behalf of the application developer. The applications are protected by copyright law. Under the agreement between Corp A and the application developer, Corp A agrees to provide the application developer with platform and agency services to facilitate the sale of the application to customers. Corp A also provides the application developer with hosting services to host the application on Corp A's servers for download by the customers. Corp A receives a digital master copy of the application along with a non-exclusive right to make copies of the application and allow customers to download copies of the application from Corp A's platform. Corp A has ascertained that the primary benefit or value from the transaction received by the application developer is the platform and agency services that Corp A provides. Corp A receives the right to make copies of the application merely to perform its activities as an agent on behalf of the application developer. When purchasing an application on Corp A's platform, the customer must acknowledge the terms of a license agreement with the application developer that states that the customer may use the application but may not reproduce or distribute copies of it. In addition, the agreement provides that the customer may download the application onto only one mobile phone at a time. A customer does not need to be connected to the internet to access the application. The customer owes no additional payment to Corp A or the application developer for the ability to use the application in perpetuity. Corp A retains a fixed percentage of each purchase price of the application and remits the remaining balance to the application developer.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) The transaction between Corp A and the application developer has multiple elements. One element is the transfer of a master copy of an application by the application developer to Corp A, which would be described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section (transfer of a copyrighted article) if considered separately. Another element is the transfer of the right to make and distribute copies of the application by the application developer to Corp A, which would be described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (c)(2) of this section (transfer of a copyright right) if considered separately. A third element is the platform and agency services provided by Corp A to the application developer, which would not be described in this section if considered separately. A fourth element is the hosting services provided by Corp A to the application developer, which would be described in § 1.861-19 if considered separately. Under the facts and circumstances, although Corp A receives a copy of the application and the right to make and distribute copies of the application, Corp A receives this copy and right merely to facilitate the sale of applications on behalf of the application developer.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Because the transaction has multiple elements, one or more of which would be a digital content transaction if considered separately, paragraph (b)(2) of this section provides that the transaction is classified within a single category under the categories described under paragraph (b)(1) of this section if its predominant character is described in that paragraph. Pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the predominant character of the transaction is based on the primary benefit or value of the transaction to the customer, if it is reasonably ascertainable. Since the primary benefit or value the application developer receives in the transaction is the platform and agency services, the predominant character of this transaction is the platform and agency services and not a digital content transaction nor a cloud transaction.</P>
                        <P>(C) The transfer of a copy of an application from the application developer to a customer is a digital content transaction with one element, which is the transfer of a copy of a digital program. Therefore, the transaction is treated solely as a transfer of a copyrighted article under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. Under the benefits and burdens test of paragraph (f)(2) of this section, this transaction is a sale of a copyrighted article because a customer has the right to use the application in perpetuity.</P>
                        <P>
                            (21) 
                            <E T="03">Example 21: Movies and TV shows available for stream, rent, or purchase</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A offers a catalog of movies and TV shows, all of which are subject to copyright protection. Corp A gives customers several options for viewing the content, each of which has a separate price. A “streaming” option allows a customer to view the video, which is hosted on Corp A's servers, while connected to the internet for as many times as the customer wants during a limited period. A “rent” option allows a customer to download the video to its computer or other electronic device (which does not need to be connected to the internet for viewing) and watch the video as many times as the customer wants for a limited period, after which an electronic lock is activated and the customer may no longer view the content. A “purchase” option allows a customer to download the video and view it as many times as the customer chooses with no end date. Under all three options, the customer may view the video but may not reproduce or distribute copies of it, prepare derivative works based on it, or publicly display it.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) With respect to the “rent” option, under paragraph (b)(1) of this section the download of a video by a customer is a digital content transaction with one element, which is the transfer of a copy of the video. Therefore, the transaction is treated solely as the transfer of a copyrighted article under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. Although a customer will retain a copy of the content at the end of the payment term, the customer cannot access the content after the electronic lock is activated. The activation of the electronic lock is the equivalent of having to return the copy. Therefore, the transaction is classified as a lease of a copyrighted article under paragraph (f)(2) of this section because the customer's right to view the videos is for a limited period.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) With respect to the “purchase” option, under paragraph (b)(1) of this section the download of a video by a customer is a digital content transaction with one element, which is the transfer of a copy of the video. Therefore, the transaction is treated solely as the transfer of a copyrighted article under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. The transaction is classified as a sale of a copyrighted article under paragraph 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2997"/>
                            (f)(2) of this section because the customer receives the right to view the videos in perpetuity.  
                        </P>
                        <P>(C) With respect to the “streaming” option, the transaction is Corp A's grant of the right to its customers to view the movies or shows while connected to the internet for a limited period. There is no transfer of any copyright rights described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. There is also no transfer of a copyrighted article because the content is not downloaded by a customer, but rather, is accessed through an on-demand network. The transaction also does not constitute the provision of services for the development of digital content or the provision of know-how under paragraph (b)(1) of this section. Therefore, the transaction is not a digital content transaction described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. Instead, the transaction is a cloud transaction that is classified under § 1.861-19. See § 1.861-19(b).</P>
                        <P>
                            (22) 
                            <E T="03">Example 22: Website offering third-party videos via stream</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A operates a website that allows customers to stream videos that third-party content creators upload to Corp A's website. Corp A has advertising contracts with third-party advertisers pursuant to which Corp A earns advertising revenue when a customer views a video. Customers can either stream videos for free with advertisements or can pay a subscription fee to stream videos without advertisements. Under the contract between Corp A and content creators, content creators retain all ownership rights in their videos and must own or have the necessary rights to publish their videos. The contract also states that content creators grant Corp A a non-exclusive license to use, reproduce, distribute, and display their videos in connection with Corp A's website, and grant customers a non-exclusive license to view the videos. These licenses terminate within a commercially reasonable time after a content creator removes or deletes a video from Corp A's website. Content creators have ascertained that the primary benefit or value Corp A receives from transactions with content creators is the right to use, reproduce, distribute, and display their videos. Corp A pays content creators a percentage of advertising revenue generated from the videos and a percentage of subscription fees.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) The transaction between Corp A and the content creators has multiple elements. One element is the uploading of a video by a content creator, which would be described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section (transfer of a copyrighted article) if considered separately. Another element is the grant by content creators to Corp A of the right to use, reproduce, distribute, and display their videos, which would be described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section (transfer of a copyright right) if considered separately. Content creators are not providing content development services to Corp A under paragraph (d) of this section because content creators own the copyright rights in the videos.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Because the transaction has multiple elements, one or more of which would be a digital content transaction if considered separately, paragraph (b)(2) of this section provides that the transaction is classified within a single category under the categories described under paragraph (b)(1) of this section if its predominant character is described in that paragraph. Pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the predominant character of the transaction is based on the primary benefit or value of the transaction to the customer. The predominant character of the transaction is therefore the transfer of copyright rights because the primary benefit or value received by Corp A is the right to use, reproduce, distribute, and display videos. Accordingly, this transaction is characterized solely as a transfer of a copyright right as described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(C) Taking into account all of the facts and circumstances, there has been a license of videos to Corp A. Under paragraph (f)(1) of this section, there has not been a transfer of all substantial rights in the copyright rights to the videos because each content owner has the right to enter into other licenses with respect to the copyright of their videos. Corp A has acquired no right itself to license the copyrights in the videos. Finally, the terms of the licenses are for less than the remaining lives of the copyrights in the videos.</P>
                        <P>(D) For both the free streaming and subscription streaming transactions between Corp A and customers, there is no transfer of any copyright rights described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. There is also no transfer of a copyrighted article, because the content is not downloaded by a customer, but rather is accessed through an on-demand network. The transactions also do not constitute the provision of services for the development of digital content or the provision of know-how under paragraph (b)(1) of this section. Therefore, paragraph (b)(1) of this section does not apply to such transactions. Instead, both transactions are cloud transactions that are classified under § 1.861-19. See § 1.861-19(b).</P>
                        <P>
                            (23) 
                            <E T="03">Example 23: Sale of computer programs electronically through a reseller</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A owns the copyright to software (Program S). Corp A hosts Program S on its servers. Corp A grants Corp B, a foreign corporation wholly owned by Corp A, the right to distribute copies of Program S (without the right to reproduce copies of Program S) to Corp B's customers that are located in Corp B's country. Under the agreement between Corp A and Corp B, Corp B pays Corp A a fixed fee for each copy of Program S that Corp A delivers to a customer. In separate transactions, customers pay Corp B for the right to receive digital copies of Program S that they may then use in perpetuity without further payment. Corp B is responsible for managing the purchase/sale interaction with Corp B's customers, including invoicing and collections. Corp A is responsible for creating and delivering the digital copies of Program S to Corp B's customers from Corp A's servers. Corp B does not perform any functions to provide access to Program S.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) Although there is a single contract between Corp A and Corp B that grants a legal right to Corp B with respect to Program S, that right (the right to distribute) is not a copyright right described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (c)(2) of this section. Instead, the transactions between Corp A and Corp B and then Corp B and its customers are functionally and economically equivalent to back-to-back transfers of copyrighted articles. The transfers are only superficially different from those described in paragraph (h)(24) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 24</E>
                            ) where the reseller acquires product keys and sells them on to customers. Therefore, each sale of a copy of Program S by Corp B to a customer should be viewed as a transfer of a copyrighted article from Corp A to Corp B and then from Corp B to the customer.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) The transaction between Corp A and Corp B is a digital content transaction with a single element that is classified as a transfer of a copyrighted article described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. There are no additional elements because Corp B's receipt of the right to distribute copies of Program S (without the right to make copies) is not a copyright right described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. Under the benefits and burdens test of paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the transfer is classified as the sale of a copyrighted article.  </P>
                        <P>
                            (C) The transaction between Corp B and a customer is a digital content transaction with a single element that is classified as a transfer of a copyrighted article described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2998"/>
                            of this section. Under the benefits and burdens test of paragraph (f)(2) of this section, this transaction is a sale of a copyrighted article because the customer has the right to use the application in perpetuity.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (24) 
                            <E T="03">Example 24: Sale of video games with online and offline functionality through retailers using digital keys</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A owns the copyright in a computer program (Program Y). Corp A creates digital keys that allow for the download of one copy of Program Y from Corp A's website. Corp A sells these digital keys to retailers for a one-time fee per key, and the retailers do not use Program Y, but instead sell them in separate transactions to customers for a one-time fee per key. Corp A ascertains that the primary benefit or value to retailers from the purchase of digital keys from Corp A is the right to further transfer the digital keys to customers. The retailers cannot reasonably ascertain the primary benefit or value that their specific customers derive from Program Y, nor is there data available to the retailers about how their customers typically use Program Y. Program Y is a video game that contains online and offline features, both of which can be played without paying an additional game-specific cost after paying the one-time fee to purchase a key. The offline feature is comprised of a single-player story that does not require any internet connection to play. The online feature is comprised of the ability to play competitive matches against other players that are hosted on servers owned by Corp A. The competitive matches require an ongoing connection to the internet to play. Neither the customers nor the retailer receives any copyright rights described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section with respect to Program Y. Customers can use Program Y in perpetuity. Program Y is primarily marketed as a single-player game in television and online advertising, with only brief mentions of the multiplayer mode in print advertising. The development cost for Program Y was allocated 40% to developing the single-player content, 20% to developing the multiplayer content, and 40% to developing content that is used by both types of content (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             cost of developing the game engine).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) The transaction between Corp A and a retailer has multiple elements. One element is the transfer of a key with the right to download a copy of Program Y for use to play the offline story, which would be a digital content transaction described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section (transfer of a copyrighted article) if considered separately. Another element is the transfer of the same key with a copy of Program Y providing on-demand network access to digital content in the form of competitive multiplayer functionality, which would be a cloud transaction described in § 1.861-19(b) if considered separately.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Because the transaction has multiple elements, one of which would be a digital content transaction if considered separately and one of which would be a cloud transaction if considered separately, paragraph (b)(2) of this section provides that the transaction is classified within a single category under paragraph (b)(1) of this section if its predominant character is described in that paragraph, or the transaction is classified solely as a cloud transaction if its predominant character is a cloud transaction pursuant to § 1.861-19(c)(2). Pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, the predominant character of the transaction is based on the primary benefit or value of the transaction to the customer, if it is reasonably ascertainable. The predominant character of this transaction is therefore the transfer of copyrighted articles because the primary benefit or value received by a retailer is the right to further transfer the same copyrighted articles to customers in the form of digital keys. The retailers do not have any intent to utilize the cloud functionality of the digital keys, although they do have the right to do so. Therefore, this transaction is classified solely as a transfer of copyrighted articles described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(C) Under the benefits and burdens test of paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the transfer between Corp A and a retailer is classified as the sale of a copyrighted article because the retailer has the right to use, or sell, Program Y in perpetuity without further payment.</P>
                        <P>(D) The transfer of a key (with the right to download a copy of Program Y) by a retailer to a customer also contains the same two elements as each transaction between Corp A and a retailer. However, a retailer cannot reasonably ascertain the primary benefit or value derived by a specific customer from Program Y. In such situations, paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section provides that the predominant character of a transaction may be determined based on the primary benefit or value to a typical customer of a substantially similar transaction. This primary benefit or value to a typical customer can be identified through actual data about use or access pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, or if that data is not available, by using other evidence indicative of the primary benefit or value to a typical customer pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(B) of this section. Because the retailers do not have available data about how customers use Program Y, they may use the marketing with respect to Program Y to determine that its predominant character is that of a transfer of a copyrighted article described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. The relative development costs of the offline and online components of the game could also be used if they are known to a retailer. Therefore, the transfer between a retailer and a customer of a digital key containing the right to download a copy of Program Y is classified solely as a transfer of a copyrighted article.</P>
                        <P>(E) Under the benefits and burdens test of paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the transfer between a retailer and a customer is classified as the sale of a copyrighted article because the customer has the right to use Program Y in perpetuity without further payment.</P>
                        <P>
                            (25) 
                            <E T="03">Example 25: Source of income from the sale of a copyrighted article transferred through an electronic medium</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A is the parent company of a world-wide group of affiliated companies. Corp B is a foreign corporation wholly owned by Corp A. In the ordinary course of business, Corp B acts as a procurement hub for Corp A's affiliated companies. In this role, Corp B regularly purchases products that will be distributed amongst Corp A's affiliated companies to be used by them in their respective businesses. Corp B purchases digital copies of a computer program (Program Y) from Corp C, an unrelated company. Corp B may use Program Y in perpetuity without further payment. Corp B receives no copyright rights in Program Y. Corp B does not use Program Y, and instead distributes all of its copies of Program Y to various affiliates. Corp C sources income from the sale of Program Y using sections 861(a)(6) and 862(a)(6).  
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) Under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the transfer of Program Y from Corp C to Corp B is a digital content transaction with one element, which is the transfer of a copy of Program Y. Therefore, the transaction is treated solely as transfers of a copyrighted articles under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. Taking into account all of the facts and circumstances, there have been sales of copies of Program Y to Corp B under paragraph (f)(2) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) Income from the sale of Program Y by Corp C is sourced pursuant to sections 861(a)(6) and 862(a)(6) to the place where the sale occurred. Pursuant to paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, a transfer of a copyrighted article through 
                            <PRTPAGE P="2999"/>
                            an electronic medium is treated as occurring at the billing address of the purchaser, in this case Corp B, unless the sales transaction is arranged for a principal purpose of tax avoidance. In this case, the sale is treated as occurring at the billing address of Corp B, and Corp C's income is foreign source, even though Corp B will not use Program Y, because Corp B regularly purchases products that will be distributed amongst its affiliates to be used in their respective businesses, and therefore there is no evidence that Corp B was used by Corp A to purchase Program Y with a principal purpose of tax avoidance.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (26) 
                            <E T="03">Example 26: Application of anti-abuse rule for sale of a copyrighted article transferred through an electronic medium</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A is the parent company of a world-wide group of affiliated companies. Corp B is a foreign affiliate of Corp A. In the ordinary course of business, Corp B does not act as a procurement hub regularly purchasing products for use by Corp A's affiliated companies. Corp A negotiates an agreement with Corp C, an unrelated company, to purchase digital copies of a computer program (Program Y) for use in Corp A's business. The agreement grants Corp A the right to use Program Y in perpetuity for a one-time payment. Corp C requests that Corp B be the purchaser of the copies of Program Y even though Corp B will not use Program Y and is not otherwise involved in the transaction between Corp A and Corp C for a principal purpose of tax avoidance. Corp A agrees, and Corp B purchases the copies of Program Y and subsequently distributes them to Corp A. Corp C sources income from the sale of Program Y using sections 861(a)(6) and 862(a)(6).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) Under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the transfer of Program Y from Corp C to Corp B is a digital content transaction with one element, which is the transfer of a copy of Program Y. Therefore, the transaction is classified solely as a transfer of a copyrighted article under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. Taking into account all of the facts and circumstances, there have been sales of copies of Program Y to Corp B under paragraph (f)(2) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Income from the sale of Program Y by Corp C is sourced pursuant to sections 861(a)(6) and 862(a)(6) to the place where the sale occurred. Pursuant to paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, a transfer of a copyrighted article through an electronic medium is treated as occurring at the billing address of the purchaser, in this case Corp B, unless the sales transaction is arranged for a principal purpose of tax avoidance. In this case, Corp B does not regularly purchase products that will be used by other companies within Corp A's group of affiliated companies, and Corp B was instead used as the purchaser of Program Y on behalf of Corp A with a principal purpose of tax avoidance. Therefore, the place where the sale occurred must be determined based on all relevant facts and circumstances. Corp A negotiated the purchase, and the software will be used by Corp A in its business. As a result, under paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, the sale is treated as occurring at the location of Corp A and the income derived by Corp C from the sale is U.S. source.</P>
                        <P>(C) The same result would apply if, instead of using Corp B for the purchase, Corp A made the purchase but rented a P.O. Box outside the United States to serve as the billing address for the transaction with a principal purpose of tax avoidance.</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability date</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             This section applies to taxable years beginning on or after January 14, 2025.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Early application.</E>
                             A taxpayer can apply this section to taxable years beginning on or after August 14, 2019 and all subsequent taxable years not described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section (early application years) if—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The taxpayer also applies § 1.861-19 to the early application years;</P>
                        <P>(ii) This section and § 1.861-19 are applied to the early application years by all persons related to the taxpayer (within the meaning of sections 267(b) and 707(b));</P>
                        <P>(iii) The period of limitations on assessment for each early application year of the taxpayer and all related parties (within the meaning of sections 267(b) and 707(b)) is open under section 6501; and</P>
                        <P>(iv) The taxpayer would not be required under this section to change its method of accounting as a result of such election.</P>
                        <P>
                            (j) 
                            <E T="03">Change in method of accounting required by this section.</E>
                             In order to comply with this section, a taxpayer may be required to change its method of accounting. If so required, the taxpayer must secure the consent of the Commissioner in accordance with the requirements of § 1.446-1(e) and the applicable administrative procedures for obtaining the Commissioner's consent under section 446(e) for voluntary changes in methods of accounting. 
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 4</E>
                         Section 1.861-19 is added to read as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.861-19</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT> Classification of cloud transactions.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             This section provides rules for classifying cloud transactions (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section). The rules of this section apply for purposes of Internal Revenue Code sections 59A, 245A, 250, 267A, 367, 404A, 482, 679, and 1059A; subchapter N of chapter 1; chapters 3 and 4; and sections 842 and 845 (to the extent involving a foreign person), and apply with respect to transfers to foreign trusts not covered by section 679.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Cloud transaction defined.</E>
                             A cloud transaction is a transaction through which a person obtains on-demand network access to computer hardware, digital content (as defined in § 1.861-18(a)(2)), or other similar resources. A cloud transaction does not include network access to download digital content for storage and use on a person's computer or other electronic device.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Classification of cloud transactions</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             A cloud transaction is classified as the provision of services.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Transaction with multiple elements.</E>
                             Taking into account the overall transaction and the surrounding facts and circumstances, a transaction that has multiple elements, one or more of which would be a cloud transaction if considered separately, is classified in its entirety as a cloud transaction if the predominant character of the transaction as determined under § 1.861-18(b)(3) is a cloud transaction.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Examples.</E>
                             The examples in this paragraph (d) illustrate the provisions of this section. Unless otherwise specified, assume that Corp A is a domestic corporation, no rights described in § 1.861-18(c)(2) (copyright rights) are transferred as part of the transactions described, and all facts in each example occur as part of a single transaction.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Example 1: Computing capacity</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A operates data centers on its premises in various locations. Corp A provides Corp B computing capacity on Corp A's servers in exchange for a monthly fee based on the amount of computing power made available to Corp B. Corp B provides its own software to run on Corp A's servers.  
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             The provision of on-demand network computing capacity by Corp A to Corp B is a cloud transaction with one element. Therefore, the transaction is treated solely as a cloud transaction under paragraph (b) of this section and is classified as the provision of services under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
                            <PRTPAGE P="3000"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Example 2: Computing capacity on dedicated on-premises servers</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             The facts are the same as in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section (the facts in 
                            <E T="03">Example 1</E>
                            ), except that, in order to offer more security to Corp B, Corp A provides Corp B computing capacity exclusively through designated servers, which are owned and operated by Corp A and located at Corp B's facilities. Corp A agrees not to use the designated server for any other customer for the duration of its arrangement with Corp B. Although the server is located at Corp B's facilities, Corp B accesses the server through Corp A's network and the monthly fee is based on the amount of computing power made available to Corp B.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             As in paragraph (d)(1) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 1</E>
                            ), the transaction between Corp A and Corp B is the provision of on-demand network computing capacity and is therefore a cloud transaction with one element. Therefore, the transaction is treated solely as a cloud transaction under paragraph (b) of this section and is classified as the provision of services under paragraph (c)(1) of this section. If the transaction between Corp A and Corp B involved only the provision of a server by Corp A for use by Corp B, and not on-demand network access to computing capacity, the transaction would not be a cloud transaction and this section would not apply.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Example 3: Access to software development platform and website hosting</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A provides Corp B a software platform that Corp B uses to develop and deploy websites with a range of features, including blogs, message boards, and other collaborative knowledge bases. The software development platform consists of an operating system, web server software, scripting languages, libraries, tools, and back-end relational database software and allows Corp B to use in its websites certain visual elements subject to copyrights held by Corp A. The software development platform is hosted on servers owned by Corp A and located at Corp A's facilities. Corp B's finished websites are also hosted on Corp A's servers. Corp B accesses the software development platform via a standard web browser. Corp B has no ability to alter the software code. A small amount of copyrighted scripting code is downloaded onto Corp B's computers to facilitate secure logins and access to the software development platform. All other functions of the software development platform execute on Corp A's servers, and no portion of the core software code is ever downloaded by Corp B or Corp B's customers. Corp A has ascertained that the primary benefit or value to Corp B from the transaction is the right to use the software development platform. Corp B pays Corp A a monthly fee for the platform and website hosting.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) There is one transaction with multiple elements between Corp A and Corp B. One element is Corp A's provision to Corp B of on-demand network access to the software platform, which would be a cloud transaction described in paragraph (b) of this section if considered separately. Another element is Corp A's hosting of Corp B's finished websites, which would be a cloud transaction described in paragraph (b) of this section if considered separately. A third element is the grant by Corp A to Corp B of the right to use in Corp B's websites certain visual elements subject to copyrights held by Corp A, which would be a transfer of copyright rights under § 1.861-18(b)(1)(i) if considered separately. A fourth element is the download of scripting code by Corp B, which would be a transfer of a copyrighted article under § 1.861-18(b)(1)(ii) if considered separately.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Because the transaction has multiple elements, one or more of which would be a cloud transaction if considered separately, paragraph (c)(2) of this section provides that the transaction is classified as a cloud transaction if its predominant character is a cloud transaction. Pursuant to § 1.861-18(b)(3), the predominant character of the transaction is based on the primary benefit or value of the transaction to the customer, if it is reasonably ascertainable. The predominant character of this transaction is therefore a cloud transaction because the primary benefit or value received by Corp B is the right to use the software development platform. Accordingly, this transaction is classified solely as a cloud transaction described in paragraph (b) of this section and is classified as the provision of services under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Example 4: Access to online software via an application</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A provides Corp B word processing, spreadsheet, and presentation software and allows employees of Corp B to access the software over the internet through a web browser or an application (“app”) that can be downloaded from Corp A's servers onto a computer or mobile device. Corp B's employees usually download Corp A's app onto their mobile devices. To access the full functionality of the app, the device must be connected to the internet. Only a limited number of features on the app are available without an internet connection. Corp B has no ability to alter the software code. The software is hosted on servers owned by Corp A and located at Corp A's facilities and is used concurrently by other Corp A customers in addition to Corp B. Corp B pays a monthly fee based on the number of employees with access to the software. Users have the option to save files either online using the storage provided by Corp B, or offline on their own hard drives. Corp B's employees can also download updates to the app as part of the monthly fee arrangement. Upon termination of the arrangement, Corp A activates an electronic lock preventing Corp B's employees from further utilizing the app, and Corp B's employees are no longer able to access the software via a web browser. Corp A has ascertained that the primary benefit or value to Corp B from the transaction is the right to access Corp A's software over the internet, whether via web browser or after downloading the app.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) There is one transaction with multiple elements between Corp A and Corp B. One element is Corp A's provision to Corp B of on-demand network access to Corp A's computer hardware and software resources for the purpose of fully utilizing Corp A's software, which would be a cloud transaction described in paragraph (b) of this section if considered separately. Another element is the download of Corp A's app by Corp B employees, which would be a transfer of a copyrighted article under § 1.861-18(b)(1)(ii) if considered separately.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Because the transaction has multiple elements, one or more of which would be a cloud transaction if considered separately, paragraph (c)(2) of this section provides that the transaction is classified as a cloud transaction if its predominant character is a cloud transaction. Pursuant to § 1.861-18(b)(3), the predominant character of the transaction is based on the primary benefit or value of the transaction to the customer, if it is reasonably ascertainable. The predominant character of this transaction is therefore a cloud transaction because the primary benefit or value received by Corp B is the right to access Corp A's software over the internet. Accordingly, this transaction is classified solely as a cloud transaction described in paragraph (b) of this section and is classified as the provision of services under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.  </P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">Example 5: Access to offline software with limited online functions</E>
                            —
                            <PRTPAGE P="3001"/>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A provides Corp B word processing, spreadsheet, and presentation software that is functionally similar to the software in paragraph (d)(4) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 4</E>
                            ). The software is made available for access over the internet but only to download the software from servers owned by Corp A onto a computer or mobile device in the form of an app. The downloaded software contains all the core functions of the software. Employees of Corp B can use the software on their computers or mobile devices regardless of whether their computer or mobile device is online. When online, the software provides a few ancillary functions that are not available offline, such as access to document templates and data collection for diagnosing problems with the software. Whether working online or offline, Corp B employees can store their files only on their own computer or mobile device, and not on Corp A's data storage servers. Corp B's employees can also download updates to the software as part of the monthly fee arrangement. Upon termination of the arrangement, an electronic lock is activated so that the software can no longer be accessed. Corp A has ascertained that the primary benefit or value to Corp B from the transaction is the right to download and use Corp A's software offline.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) The transaction between Corp A and Corp B contains multiple elements. One element is the transfer of a copy of Corp A's software via download, which would be a transfer of a copyrighted article described under § 1.861-18(b)(1)(ii) if considered separately. Another element is the provision of online ancillary functionality of the software, which would be a cloud transaction described in paragraph (b) of this section if considered separately.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Because the transaction has multiple elements, one or more of which would be a cloud transaction if considered separately, paragraph (c)(2) of this section provides that the transaction is classified as a cloud transaction if its predominant character is a cloud transaction. Pursuant to § 1.861-18(b)(3), the predominant character of the transaction is based on the primary benefit or value of the transaction to the customer, if it is reasonably ascertainable. The predominant character of this transaction is therefore the transfer of a copyrighted article because the primary benefit or value received by Corp B is the right to download and use Corp A's software offline. Accordingly, this transaction is classified solely as a transfer of a copyrighted article described in § 1.861-18(b)(1)(ii). The provision of the software constitutes a lease of a copyrighted article under § 1.861-18 because access to the app is terminated when the monthly fee is no longer paid, even though Corp B employees retain the locked files on their devices. See § 1.861-18(h)(4).</P>
                        <P>
                            (6) 
                            <E T="03">Example 6: Data storage, separate from access to offline software</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             The facts are the same as in paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section (the facts in 
                            <E T="03">Example 5</E>
                            ), except that Corp A also provides on-demand network data storage to Corp B on Corp A's servers in exchange for a monthly fee based on the amount of data storage used by Corp B. Under the data storage terms, Corp B employees may store files created by Corp B employees using Corp A's software or other software. Although Corp A's word processing software is compatible with Corp A's data storage systems, the core functionality of Corp A's software is not dependent on Corp B's purchase of the storage plan. Corp A's provision of software and data storage capacity constitute separate transactions.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) As explained in paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section, Corp B's download of fully functional software, along with on-demand network access to certain limited online features, does not constitute a cloud transaction, but rather constitutes a lease of a copyrighted article under § 1.861-18.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) The provision of on-demand network data storage by Corp A to Corp B is a cloud transaction with one element. Therefore, the transaction is treated solely as a cloud transaction under paragraph (b) of this section and is classified as the provision of services under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (7) 
                            <E T="03">Example 7: Streaming and temporary download of digital content using third-party servers</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A offers via stream or temporary download digital content in the form of videos and music to customers from servers located in data centers owned and operated by Data Center Operator. Each customer uses a computer or other electronic device to access unlimited streaming or temporary downloads of video and music in exchange for payment of a flat monthly fee to Corp A. The customer may select from among the available content the particular video or song to be streamed or downloaded. Corp A continually updates its content catalog, replacing content with higher quality versions and adding new content at no additional charge to the customer. It also provides additional functionality such as various methods of filtering and sorting the library, a watchlist, and recommendations based on a customer's preferences. Content that is streamed to the customer is not stored locally on the customer's computer or other electronic device and therefore can be played only while the customer's computer or other electronic device is connected to the internet. Content that is temporarily downloaded is stored on the customer's computer or other electronic device for 1 week and therefore can be played while the customer's computer or other electronic device is not connected to the internet. Corp A cannot reasonably ascertain the primary benefit or value that its specific customers derive from accessing Corp A's catalog of digital content. Data collected by Corp A indicates that the vast majority of customers stream digital content rather than temporarily download the content. Corp A pays Data Center Operator a fee based on the amount of data storage used and computing power made available in connection with Corp A's content offerings.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) The provision of data storage and computing power by Data Center Operator to Corp A is a cloud transaction with one element. Therefore, the transaction is treated solely as a cloud transaction under paragraph (b) of this section, and is classified as the provision of services under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) A transaction between Corp A and a customer has two elements. One element is streaming access to a curated and routinely updated library of digital content, which would be a cloud transaction described in paragraph (b) of this section if considered separately. Another element is the transfer of a copy of digital content via temporary download, which would be a transfer of a copyrighted article under § 1.861-18(b)(1)(ii) if considered separately.</P>
                        <P>
                            (C) Because the transaction has multiple elements, one or more of which would be a cloud transaction if considered separately, paragraph (c)(2) of this section provides that the transaction is classified as a cloud transaction if its predominant character is a cloud transaction. Pursuant to § 1.861-18(b)(3), the predominant character of the transaction is based on the primary benefit or value of the transaction to the customer if it is reasonably ascertainable. However, Corp A cannot reasonably ascertain the primary benefit or value derived by a specific customer from Corp A's offering. In such situations, § 1.861-18(b)(3)(ii) provides that the predominant character of a transaction may be determined based on the 
                            <PRTPAGE P="3002"/>
                            primary benefit or value to a typical customer of a substantially similar transaction. This primary benefit or value to a typical customer can be identified through actual data about use or access pursuant to § 1.861-18(b)(3)(ii)(A), or if that data is not available, by using other evidence indicative of the primary benefit or value to a typical customer pursuant to § 1.861-18(b)(3)(ii)(B). Because Corp A has data that shows the typical customer streams digital content rather than temporarily downloading it, the primary benefit or value received by a typical customer is streaming access to digital content. Therefore, the predominant character of the transaction is a cloud transaction. Under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the cloud transaction is classified as the provision of services.  
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (8) 
                            <E T="03">Example 8: Access to online database</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A offers an online database of industry-specific materials. Customers access the materials through Corp A's website, which aggregates and organizes information topically and hosts a proprietary search engine. Corp A hosts the website and database on its own servers and provides multiple customers access to the website and database concurrently. Most materials in Corp A's database are publicly available by other means, but Corp A's website offers an efficient way to locate and obtain the information on demand. Certain materials in Corp A's database constitute digital content within the meaning of § 1.861-18(a)(2), and Corp A pays the copyright owners a license fee for using them. Each customer may download any of the materials to its own computer and keep such materials without further payment. The customer pays Corp A a fee based on the number of searches or the amount of time spent on the website, and such fee is not dependent on the amount of materials the customer downloads. The fee that the customer pays is substantially higher than the stand-alone charge for accessing the same digital content outside of Corp A's system. Corp A cannot reasonably ascertain the primary benefit or value that a specific customer derives from accessing Corp A's database. Corp A does not have data indicating whether the typical customer downloads materials from the database. Corp A markets its website and online database as user-friendly and an efficient way to find relevant materials because of its proprietary search engine. Developing the proprietary search engine was the largest cost Corp A incurred in creating its website and online database.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) The transaction between Corp A and a customer has multiple elements. One element is Corp A's provision to a customer of access to Corp A's website and online database, which is a cloud transaction described in paragraph (b) of this section if considered separately. Another element is the transfer of digital content via download, which is the transfer of a copyrighted article under § 1.861-18 if considered separately.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Because the transaction has multiple elements, one or more of which would be a cloud transaction if considered separately, paragraph (c)(2) of this section provides that the transaction is classified as a cloud transaction if its predominant character is a cloud transaction. Pursuant to § 1.861-18(b)(3), the predominant character of the transaction is based on the primary benefit or value of the transaction to the customer, if it is reasonably ascertainable. However, Corp A cannot reasonably ascertain the primary benefit or value derived by a specific customer from access to Corp A's database. In such situations, § 1.861-18(b)(3)(ii) provides that the predominant character of a transaction may be determined based on the primary benefit or value to a typical customer of a substantially similar transaction. This primary benefit or value to a typical customer can be identified through actual data about use or access pursuant to § 1.861-18(b)(3)(ii)(A), or if that data is not available, by using other evidence indicative of the primary benefit or value to a typical customer pursuant to § 1.861-18(b)(3)(ii)(B). That Corp A focuses on its proprietary search engine when marketing its website and database, as well as the facts that the search engine was the most expensive cost incurred by Corp A in creating its website and database, and that customers pay a substantially higher fee to access Corp A's system than they would otherwise pay to access the content outside of Corp A's system, indicates that the primary benefit or value received by a typical customer is the right to use the search engine. Therefore, under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the predominant character of the transaction between Corp A and a customer is a cloud transaction. Under paragraph (c)(1) of this section the cloud transaction is classified as the provision of services.</P>
                        <P>
                            (9) 
                            <E T="03">Example 9: Temporary or perpetual access to a single movie via stream or download</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A hosts movies on its website and allows customers to view a single movie for a limited period or perpetually for a one-time fee, with perpetual viewing rights costing a higher fee. Corp A does not charge customers a separate fee for access to the website. In addition, Corp A's website provides recommendations for movies based on a customer's search for a particular title and/or the customer's purchase history. Customers have no ability to alter the servers, website, or movies available on the website. The movies in Corp A's database constitute digital content within the meaning of § 1.861-18(a)(2), and Corp A pays the copyright owners a license fee for using them. Corp A allows customers to view the movies by either streaming the movies from Corp A's servers, or by downloading the movies onto the customer's computer or other electronic device. The file size of movies offered by Corp A is generally large and so customers may be expected to download movies only in certain situations such as when traveling without internet access. Upon the expiration of the rental period, customers will no longer have access to stream the movies, and any movie that was downloaded onto a customer's computer or other electronic device will auto-delete from the customer's computer or other electronic device. Whether a customer chooses to view the movie via stream or download, Corp A charges the same one-time fee. Corp A cannot reasonably ascertain the primary benefit or value that a specific customer derives from accessing Corp A's website. Corp A maintains aggregate data on whether a given movie is viewed via stream or download, and this data shows that most movies are viewed by streaming, even in the case where a customer pays for the right to view a movie in perpetuity.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) A transaction between Corp A and a customer contains multiple elements. One element is Corp A's provision to a customer of access to Corp A's website in order to view a movie via stream, which is a cloud transaction described in paragraph (b) of this section if considered separately. Another element is Corp A's provision to a customer of access to Corp A's website in order to download a movie, which is the transfer of a copyrighted article under § 1.861-18 if considered separately.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) Because the transaction has multiple elements, one or more of which would be a cloud transaction if considered separately, paragraph (c)(2) of this section provides that the transaction is classified as a cloud transaction if its predominant character is a cloud transaction. Pursuant to § 1.861-18(b)(3), the predominant character of the transaction is based on 
                            <PRTPAGE P="3003"/>
                            the primary benefit or value of the transaction to the customer, if it is reasonably ascertainable. However, Corp A cannot reasonably ascertain the primary benefit or value derived by a specific customer from access to Corp A's database. In such situations, § 1.861-18(b)(3)(ii) provides that the predominant character of a transaction may be determined based on the primary benefit or value to a typical customer of a substantially similar transaction. This primary benefit or value to a typical customer can be identified through actual data about use or access pursuant to § 1.861-18(b)(3)(ii)(A), or if that data is not available, by using other evidence indicative of the primary benefit or value to a typical customer pursuant to § 1.861-18(b)(3)(ii)(B). Corp A has data that shows that the typical customer views movies by streaming rather than download. Accordingly, under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the predominant character of the transaction is a cloud transaction because the primary benefit or value a typical customer receives is access to stream movies on Corp A's website. Under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the cloud transaction is classified as the provision of services.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (10) 
                            <E T="03">Example 10: Reseller of software as a service</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A owns the copyright to software (Program S). Corp A hosts Program S on its servers. Customers access Program S only through an internet connection. Corp A grants Corp B, a foreign corporation wholly owned by Corp A, the right to sell access to Program S to Corp B's customers that are located in Corp B's country. Corp B is responsible for managing the purchase/sale interaction with Corp B's customers, including invoicing and collections. Corp A is responsible for providing customers with access to Program S. Corp B does not perform any functions to provide access to Program S.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) The transaction between Corp A and Corp B is treated as Corp A providing on-demand access to Program S to Corp B even though Corp B resells that access. This transaction is a cloud transaction with one element. Under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the cloud transaction is classified as the provision of services. The transaction does not involve the transfer of any copyright rights described in § 1.861-18(c)(2), and therefore is governed solely by this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) The transaction between Corp B and its customers is the provision of on-demand access to Program S by Corp B, which is a cloud transaction with one element. Under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the cloud transaction is classified as the provision of services. The transaction does not involve the transfer of any copyright rights described in § 1.861-18(c)(2), and therefore is governed solely by this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (11) 
                            <E T="03">Example 11: Computer game with online functionality and in-game purchases</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Corp A owns the copyright to a computer game (Game X). Customers can purchase Game X for a one-time fee and download it onto their computers. A customer may play certain aspects of Game X while not connected to the internet, but most of the core functionality of Game X is available only when the customer is connected to the internet, including the ability to play with other customers. In order to access the additional online functionality specific to Game X, customers must pay a monthly fee to Corp A. The additional functionality of Game X is hosted on servers owned by Corp A. Customers may also pay a one-time fee to access an in-game item that can be utilized only when playing Game X online.  
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             (A) There are three transactions between Corp A and a customer. The first transaction is the transfer of a copy of Game X, which is a digital content transaction with one element because a customer receives from Corp A access only to offline content in exchange for purchasing a copy of the game. Therefore, this transaction is treated solely as a transfer of a copyrighted article under § 1.861-18.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) The second transaction between Corp A and a customer is the payment of a monthly fee to play Game X online on Corp A's servers, which is a cloud transaction with one element. Therefore, this transaction is treated solely as a cloud transaction, and is classified as the provision of services under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.</P>
                        <P>(C) The third transaction between Corp A and a customer is the payment of a one-time fee in exchange for an in-game item. Because a customer can utilize the item only when playing Game X through an internet connection, the transaction is a cloud transaction with one element. Therefore, this transaction is treated solely as a cloud transaction, and is classified as the provision of services under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability date</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             This section applies to taxable years beginning on or after January 14, 2025.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Early application.</E>
                             A taxpayer can apply this section to taxable years beginning on or after August 14, 2019 and all subsequent taxable years not described in paragraph (e)(1) (early application years) if—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The taxpayer also applies § 1.861-18 to the early application years;</P>
                        <P>(ii) This section and § 1.861-18 are applied to the early application years by all persons related to the taxpayer (within the meaning of sections 267(b) and 707(b));</P>
                        <P>(iii) The period of limitations on assessment for each early application year of the taxpayer and all related parties (within the meaning of sections 267(b) and 707(b)) is open under section 6501; and</P>
                        <P>(iv) The taxpayer would not be required under this section to change its method of accounting as a result of such election.</P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Change in method of accounting required by this section.</E>
                             In order to comply with this section, a taxpayer may be required to change its method of accounting. If so required, the taxpayer must secure the consent of the Commissioner in accordance with the requirements of § 1.446-1(e) and the applicable administrative procedures for obtaining the Commissioner's consent under section 446(e) for voluntary changes in methods of accounting.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 1.937-3</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 5.</E>
                         Section 1.937-3 is amended by removing 
                        <E T="03">Examples 4</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">5</E>
                         from paragraph (e). 
                    </AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Douglas W. O'Donnell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Commissioner.</TITLE>
                    <DATED>Approved: December 18, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Aviva R. Aron-Dine,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Treasury (Tax Policy).</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-31372 Filed 1-10-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4830-01-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>26 CFR Parts 1 and 301</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[TD 10026]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1545-BQ72</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Rules Regarding Certain Disregarded Payments and Dual Consolidated Losses</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This document contains final regulations regarding certain disregarded payments that give rise to deductions for foreign tax purposes and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3004"/>
                        avoid the application of the dual consolidated loss (“DCL”) rules. The final regulations affect domestic corporate owners that make or receive such payments. This document also announces additional transition relief for the application of the DCL rules to certain foreign taxes that are intended to ensure that multinational enterprises pay a minimum level of tax.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Effective date:</E>
                         These regulations are effective on January 10, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Applicability dates:</E>
                         For dates of applicability, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         §§ 1.1503(d)-8(b)(11), (15), (17), and (18), and 301.7701-2(e)(10).
                    </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Andrew L. Wigmore at (202) 317-5443 (not a toll-free number).</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority</HD>
                <P>This document contains amendments to 26 CFR parts 1 and 301 (the “final regulations”) under sections 1503(d) and 7701 of the Internal Revenue Code (the “Code”). The final regulations are issued pursuant to the express delegations of authority under section 7805(a), which authorizes the Secretary of the Treasury (the “Secretary”) to “prescribe all needful rules and regulations for the enforcement” of the Code, section 1503(d)(2)(B), which authorizes the Secretary to provide exceptions to the term “dual consolidated loss,” and section 1503(d)(3), which authorizes the Secretary to address losses of “separate units.”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On December 11, 2023, the Department of Treasury (“Treasury Department”) and the IRS released Notice 2023-80, 2023-52 IRB 1583, which, among other things, described the interaction of the DCL rules with model rules published by the OECD/G20 Inclusive Framework on BEPS (the “GloBE Model Rules”) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and requested comments on such interaction. The notice also announced limited transition relief from the application of the DCL rules to the GloBE Model Rules for “legacy DCLs,” which in general are DCLs incurred before the effective date of the GloBE Model Rules.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         OECD/G20, Tax Challenges Arising from the Digitalisation of the Economy Global Anti-Base Erosion Model Rules (Pillar Two). As the context requires, references to the GloBE Model Rules include references to a foreign jurisdiction's legislation implementing the GloBE Model Rules. Capitalized terms used in this preamble, but not defined herein, have the meanings ascribed to such terms under the GloBE Model Rules.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On August 7, 2024, the Treasury Department and the IRS published proposed regulations (REG-105128-23) in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (89 FR 64750) under sections 1502, 1503(d), and 7701 of the Code, with a correction published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on September 3, 2024 (89 FR 71214) (the “2024 proposed regulations”), that would address certain issues arising under the DCL rules. In general, the 2024 proposed regulations would clarify how the DCL rules interact with the intercompany transaction rules in § 1.1502-13, modify how items arising from stock ownership are taken into account when computing the amount of a DCL, and address the application of the DCL rules to foreign taxes that are based on the GloBE Model Rules. The 2024 proposed regulations also included disregarded payment loss (“DPL”) rules, under which domestic corporations would be required to include amounts in income in certain cases involving disregarded payments. Further, the 2024 proposed regulations included an anti-avoidance rule applicable for both DCL and DPL purposes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This document finalizes certain rules from the 2024 proposed regulations. These rules and related comments received in response to the 2024 proposed regulations are discussed in the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions section of this preamble. All comments are available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or upon request. A public hearing was held on the 2024 proposed regulations on November 22, 2024, but the speaker requesting to testify did not attend the hearing. The Treasury Department and the IRS intend to finalize, in future guidance, the remaining rules from the 2024 proposed regulations.
                </P>
                <P>This document also announces additional transition relief for the application of the DCL rules to foreign taxes that are based on the GloBE Model Rules. This relief is discussed in the Additional Transition Relief with respect to the GloBE Model Rules section of this preamble.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Scope</HD>
                <P>This document finalizes the rules from the 2024 proposed regulations that relate to DPLs, including portions that are also relevant for DCLs, such as the anti-avoidance rule and the deemed ordering rule. The document retains the basic approach and structure of these rules, with certain revisions.</P>
                <P>Part II of the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions summarizes the DPL rules, including the purposes and general approach of the rules under the 2024 proposed regulations, and discusses related comments and revisions. Part III discusses comments and revisions related to rules applicable to both DCLs and DPLs. Part IV discusses applicability dates of the final regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">II. DPL Rules</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Overview</HD>
                <P>The DPL rules are a component of the entity classification regulations under §§ 301.7701-1 through 301.7701-3 (the “check-the-box regulations”). The check-the-box regulations were intended to bring simplicity and administrability to entity classifications under section 7701. They permit certain business entities to be classified for U.S. tax purposes as entities disregarded as separate from their owners. The classification may be determined either pursuant to default rules or by election. However, the application of these regulations to foreign entities, particularly where a foreign entity is treated as a disregarded entity, has led to unintended tax consequences, including avoidance of international provisions of the Code. The purpose of the DPL rules is to prevent certain arrangements involving disregarded entity classifications from avoiding the DCL rules.</P>
                <P>
                    As an example, when a domestic corporation borrows from a bank and on-lends the loan proceeds to its foreign disregarded entity, the single economic borrowing could give rise to deductions under both U.S. tax law (for interest payments to the bank) and foreign tax law (for interest payments to the domestic corporation). As a result, if the U.S. deduction is used to offset U.S. income that is not subject to foreign tax, and the foreign tax deduction generates a foreign loss that is used to offset foreign income that is not subject to U.S. tax (for example under a consolidation regime), then the single economic borrowing would give rise to a double deduction outcome. Such double deduction outcome, however, would not be addressed by the existing DCL rules because the loss of the disregarded entity would not be recognized for U.S. tax purposes. Conversely, if the disregarded entity's interest payments were regarded for U.S. tax purposes (for example, if the arrangement involved direct financing of the disregarded entity by the bank), the loss would be subject to the existing DCL rules. This avoidance of the DCL rules is an unintended consequence of the check-
                    <PRTPAGE P="3005"/>
                    the-box regulations which, as noted above, were issued for the simplification and administrability of entity classification determinations.
                </P>
                <P>The DPL rules are intended to address these concerns by (i) tracking whether certain payments involving a disregarded entity and its owner give rise to potential double deduction outcomes, and (ii) neutralizing any resulting double deduction outcome through an income inclusion similar to the one that that the owner would have had with respect to the payments had the payments been regarded for U.S. tax purposes (that is, had the classification as a disregarded entity under the check-the-box regulations not been taken into account). As revised under the final regulations, the DPL rules also treat the income inclusion as giving rise to a deduction, the use of which is suspended until the entity takes into account certain disregarded income, with the result that the rules are consistent with what would have occurred if certain disregarded payments were regarded for U.S. tax purposes (as discussed in part II.F of the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions). In this way, the check-the-box regulations continue to permit certain entities to be disregarded for U.S. tax purposes (including by election), but such classifications are subject to new (targeted) rules that prevent the classifications from giving rise to avoidance of the DCL rules. Alternative approaches to addressing these concerns would include more broadly restricting disregarded entity classifications (for example, by requiring a foreign entity to be classified as an association for U.S. tax purposes if the entity is a foreign tax resident, or classifying single-owner foreign entities as associations in all cases).</P>
                <P>
                    Under the 2024 proposed regulations, the DPL rules would apply with respect to a domestic corporation and a disregarded entity of the domestic corporation (or a disregarded entity in which the domestic corporation indirectly owns an interest) if transactions involving the entity and domestic corporation are deductible under a foreign tax law, such as where the entity is a tax resident of a foreign country. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 301.7701-3(c)(4). In these cases, the 2024 proposed regulations described the domestic corporation as consenting to such application of the DPL rules (generally by reason of the entity's check-the-box election) and generally referred to the disregarded entity and the domestic corporation as a disregarded payment entity (“DPE”) and specified domestic owner, respectively. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed §§ 1.1503(d)-1(d)(1) and 301.7701-3(c)(4). This document retains the nomenclature of the 2024 proposed regulations, with certain simplifications or other modifications, such as referring to a specified domestic owner as a DPE owner and eliminating references to consent (discussed in part II.B.2 of the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions).
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The final regulations also clarify that the DPL rules address the avoidance of the DCL rules, which has been described differently in prior guidance. 
                        <E T="03">See, for example,</E>
                         REG-104352-18, 83 FR 67612, 67624 (noting that the DCL regulations do not apply to DPL structures, and that such structures give rise to outcomes similar to “D/NI outcomes . . . and double-deduction outcomes . . .”) and REG-105128-23, 89 FR 64750, 64762 (noting that an income inclusion under the proposed DPL rules “generally neutralizes the D/NI outcome”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Under the proposed DPL rules, the DPE owner would monitor whether the DPE incurs a DPL or derives disregarded payment income (“DPI”). 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(1). A DPL or DPI would be determined by taking into account only certain items under the relevant foreign tax law (generally interest or royalties) that are not regarded for U.S. tax purposes. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(6)(ii). The DPE would have a DPL to the extent that, under the foreign tax law, its deductions for such items exceed its income from such items, and it would have DPI to the extent the reverse is true. 
                    <E T="03">See id.</E>
                     Under the 2024 proposed regulations, a DPE's cumulative amounts of DPL and DPI would be tracked in the DPE's “DPL cumulative register” through negative and positive adjustments, respectively, to the register. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(5)(ii).
                </P>
                <P>
                    In the case of a DPL, the DPE owner generally would disclose the DPL on an initial certification statement and file annual certifications for a 60-month period affirming that the DPL has not been put to a foreign use. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(1). A failure to comply with this certification requirement, or a foreign use of the DPL within the certification period (each, a “triggering event”), would require the DPE owner to include in gross income the DPL inclusion amount. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(1) and (3). The DPL inclusion amount would be equal to the amount of the DPL, reduced by the positive balance (if any) in the DPL cumulative register. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(2) through (5). Requiring the DPL inclusion amount in the year of the triggering event (rather than the year in which the DPL is incurred) would be consistent with the approach under the current DCL rules and avoids any administrative or compliance burdens that could result by instead requiring taxpayers to extend the statute of limitations and amend tax returns upon a triggering event of the DPL.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Rulemaking Authority</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. In General</HD>
                <P>
                    Comments asserted that the DPL rules do not reflect a proper exercise of the Treasury Department and the IRS's rulemaking authority for a variety of reasons. Some comments claimed that Congress has not expressed a concern with deduction/no inclusion outcomes arising from disregarded payments because those types of outcomes are not explicitly described in sections 245A(e), 267A, or 1503(d), the Code's anti-hybrid provisions. These comments asserted that the DPL rules in effect implement the recommendations from the OECD reports 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     relating to disregarded payments but noted that Congress has not adopted those recommendations—whereas Congress did adopt other OECD recommendations in enacting sections 245A(e) and 267A. The comments accordingly argued that the 2024 proposed regulations inappropriately circumvent Congress by implementing OECD policies that Congress has rejected.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         OECD/G20, Neutralising the Effects of Hybrid Mismatch Arrangements, Action 2: 2015 Final Report (October 2015) (“Hybrid Mismatch Report”) and OECD/G20, Neutralising the Effects of Branch Mismatch Arrangements, Action 2: Inclusive Framework on BEPS (July 2017) (“Branch Mismatch Report”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Other comments asserted that the DPL rules have no basis in section 1503(d), because section 1503(d) operates by disallowing a domestic corporation's net operating loss. These comments contended that the DPL rules go beyond what section 1503(d) permits because they impose an income inclusion (rather than deny a loss) based on disregarded transactions that cannot give rise to a net operating loss (which is computed by reference to regarded items only). Comments similarly argued that section 7701 provides no basis for the DPL rules because section 7701 pertains to an entity's tax classification and does not authorize income inclusions. One comment also contended that the Treasury Department and the IRS cannot rely on section 7805(a)'s general grant of rulemaking authority for the DPL rules because section 7805(a) authorizes the Secretary to issue regulations “for the enforcement” of the Code, and, according to the comment, the DPL rules do not relate to any Code provision.</P>
                <P>
                    Another set of comments argued that the DPL rules are arbitrary and capricious. According to the comments, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3006"/>
                    the DPL rules address the erosion of foreign tax bases and thus are not in furtherance of any recognized U.S. tax policy, which, one comment stated, has historically permitted taxpayers to reduce their foreign tax liability. One comment further argued that taxpayers have a reliance interest on the certainty afforded by the check-the-box regulations, which, according to the comment, Congress has impliedly endorsed by leaving the regulations undisturbed since their issuance in 1996. The comment stated that the Treasury Department and the IRS cannot upset those reliance interests by adding the DPL rules to the check-the-box regime and asserted that changes to the regime to address hybridity-related concerns should not be made absent direction from Congress. The comment referred to Notice 98-11, 1998-1 C.B. 433, and the temporary and proposed regulations issued under the notice that treated a disregarded entity that engaged in certain transactions as a foreign corporation for purposes of subpart F of the Code. The Senate Finance Committee proposed a six-month moratorium on implementing the regulations to provide Congress time to consider the issues. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     S. Rept. 105-174, at 107-110 (1998).
                </P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS disagree with these comments. The DPL rules prevent certain disregarded entity classifications from giving rise to avoidance of the DCL rules (as discussed in part II.A of the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions). Because these classifications arise under the check-the-box regulations, revising the regulations to prevent abuse, other misuse, or unintended consequences that only arise due to the classification rules under the check-the-box regime is an appropriate exercise of the authority underlying the regulations, including the express delegation of authority under section 7805(a) of the Code. These revisions generally produce outcomes consistent with what would have occurred if certain disregarded payments were regarded for U.S. tax purposes (as discussed in part II.F of the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions).</P>
                <P>
                    As a limitation on disregarded entity classifications, the DPL rules are consistent with other special rules in the check-the-box regulations that regard an entity for certain limited purposes, while generally retaining the entity's disregarded entity classification. For example, disregarded entity status is not respected for purposes of certain rules related to banking, federal tax liabilities, and employment and excise taxes. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 301.7701-2(c)(2)(ii) through (v). Similarly, § 301.7701-2(c)(2)(vi) treats certain domestic disregarded entities as corporations for purposes of section 6038A to provide the IRS with access to information to satisfy its obligations under international agreements and strengthen the enforcement of U.S. tax laws.
                </P>
                <P>
                    When the check-the-box regulations were issued, the preamble made clear that additional rules may be required to prevent inappropriate outcomes. TD 8697 (61 FR 66584, 66585) (describing that, in light of the increased flexibility under an elective regime for entity classifications, the Treasury Department and the IRS will monitor for, and take appropriate action to address, results that are inconsistent with the policies and rules of particular Code provisions). Further, the history of Notice 98-11 and the regulations issued thereunder do not support the conclusion that the Treasury Department and the IRS lack authority for the DPL rules. In fact, the Senate report specifically stated that the proposed moratorium on the regulations described in Notice 98-11 should not be interpreted as the Treasury Department and the IRS lacking authority to impose limitations on disregarded entity classifications. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     S. Rept. 105-174, at 110 (1998).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Moreover, the DPL rules are a reasonable response to significant policy concerns resulting from the check-the-box regulations. Addressing these concerns by requiring an income inclusion (that neutralizes the double deduction outcome by, in effect, offsetting the related deduction that would otherwise be allowed for U.S. tax purposes) prevents taxpayers from circumventing the DCL rules through the artifice of causing payments to be disregarded. The approach in this rulemaking maintains the simplicity and flexibility (including the electivity component) of the check-the-box regulations while preventing inappropriate outcomes through new rules with narrow application. Further, taxpayers that prefer to avoid the application of the DPL rules can do so by restructuring to avoid these inappropriate outcomes, as illustrated in § 1.1503(d)-7(c)(45) (Example 45). 
                    <E T="03">See also</E>
                     parts II.D.1, II.D.2, II.F, and G.1 of the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions (discussing certain revisions in response to comments, which have the effect of further narrowing and deferring the application of the DPL rules). Thus, by preventing the check-the-box regulations from enabling inappropriate outcomes, the DPL rules are a reasonable modification of the regulations. Furthermore, the Treasury Department and the IRS disagree that DPL rules inappropriately promote the policy underlying the OECD recommendations to address double non-taxation resulting from hybridity. Instead, the DPL rules promote the U.S. tax policy underlying section 1503(d), which was enacted in 1986 (and modified in a technical correction in 1988), to prevent double deduction outcomes; the OECD policy that was set forth in the Hybrids Mismatch Report and Branch Mismatch Report, issued in 2015 and 2017, respectively, is simply consistent with the existing, longstanding U.S. policy.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Finally, the Treasury Department and the IRS have consistently raised the concern that the check-the-box regulations could expand the use of hybrid structures. This concern was identified in Notice 95-14, 1995-14 IRB 7, which first announced that an elective entity classification regime was under consideration and solicited comments on the propriety of extending an elective regime to foreign entities, noting the increased potential for hybrid entities. Since then, the check-the-box regime has increased the prevalence of hybrid structures to an extent not initially foreseen, and many of these structures are designed for tax avoidance. The Treasury Department and the IRS have addressed this avoidance through targeted rules where feasible. 
                    <E T="03">See, for example,</E>
                     § 1.894-1(d)(2)(ii) and TD 8999 (67 FR 40157) (relating to the use of domestic reverse hybrid entities to obtain inappropriate treaty benefits); §§ 1.1503(d)-1(c) and 301.7701-3(c)(3) (relating to the use of domestic reverse hybrid entities to obtain double-deduction outcomes). Taxpayers therefore should not have an expectation that a disregarded entity classification can be used to circumvent the DCL rules, and in any case, the Treasury Department and the IRS are of the view that any such expectations would not constitute a significant reliance interest that would caution against this rulemaking, given the limited extent to which the DPL rules impose a condition on certain payments involving disregarded entities. Reliance interests, if any, are significantly outweighed by the need to prevent inappropriate results.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Default Disregarded Entity Status and Non-Consolidated DPE Owners</HD>
                <P>
                    Comments also asserted that the Treasury Department and the IRS do not have authority to apply the DPL rules in specific fact patterns. According to these comments, the DPL rules should not apply where no entity classification 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3007"/>
                    election is made under § 301.7701-3, such as where a foreign entity defaults to disregarded entity classification, because in these cases there is no affirmative act by reason of which the taxpayer consents to the application of the DPL rules. Another comment claimed that the DPL rules should not apply where the DPE owner is not part of a group that files a consolidated return, asserting that sections 1502 and 1503(d) cannot apply to a corporation that is not a member of a consolidated group.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Treasury Department and the IRS disagree with these comments. As discussed in part II.B.1 of the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, the DPL rules are a component of the check-the-box regime. Under the check-the-box regulations, promulgated in 1996, the Treasury Department and the IRS permit certain entities with a single owner to choose whether or not to be treated as disregarded as separate from their owner for most federal income tax purposes. However, even entities that choose to be disregarded as separate from their owner for most federal income tax purposes are not disregarded for all purposes. For example, these entities are regarded for purposes of federal income tax liability, excise taxes, and employment taxes. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 301.7701-2(c)(2). The treatment of an entity as disregarded for some purposes and regarded for other purposes under § 301.7701-2(c)(2) does not depend on whether the entity is treated as disregarded pursuant to the default rules or by election.
                </P>
                <P>Like the other rules in § 301.7701-2(c)(2) and as discussed in part II.F of the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, the DPL regulations effectively provide that a DPE is regarded for purposes of recognizing certain interest and royalty payments between a DPE and its owner or between a DPE and other disregarded entities. However, for purposes of administrability, these rules do not regard the payment more broadly or require the filing of amended returns to reflect the revocation of a disregarded entity classification.</P>
                <P>
                    Further, the check-the-box regime is an elective regime that allows eligible entities to choose their entity classification. The check-the-box regulations provide default classification rules that aim to match taxpayers' expectations and thus reduce the number of elections that taxpayers must file to select their entity classification of choice. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     TD 8797 (61 FR 66584). Thus, through the check-the-box regulations, an eligible entity chooses to be classified as a disregarded entity, regardless of whether that choice occurs by accepting the default classification (that is, by choosing not to elect an alternative treatment) or by filing an election; it is merely the mechanics of obtaining a disregarded entity classification that differ. On the other hand, absent regulations under section 7701, no foreign business entity would generally be treated as a disregarded entity.
                </P>
                <P>Moreover, applying the DPL rules without regard to whether disregarded entity classification is obtained by election or pursuant to the default rules ensures consistency. Otherwise, similarly situated taxpayers could have different outcomes based solely on whether the entity they choose to use is an entity that satisfies the default rule to be treated as a disregarded entity rather than requiring an election to achieve that result.</P>
                <P>Lastly, the DPL rules are not issued under section 1502 authority (and section 1503(d) is not limited in application to consolidated groups). The DPL rules are issued under the authority of sections 1503(d), 7701, and 7805(a) and are located under section 1503(d) because the rules leverage concepts from, and prevent the avoidance of, the DCL rules.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Integration of DPL and DCL Regimes</HD>
                <P>As discussed in part II.C of the Explanation of Provisions of the 2024 proposed regulations, the DPL rules operate independently of the DCL rules. For example, only items that are regarded for U.S. tax purposes are taken into account in computing a DCL (or the DCL cumulative register), and only items that are disregarded for U.S. tax purposes would be taken into account in computing a DPL (or the DPL cumulative register). The view of the Treasury Department and the IRS as expressed in the 2024 proposed regulations was that integrating the two regimes would result in considerable complexity and administrative burden. For example, fully integrating the regimes would likely require a significantly broader scope of the DPL rules to take into account all disregarded payments (consistent with the scope of the DCL rules, which take into account all regarded payments) and to take into account all of the triggering events that apply with respect to DCLs (rather than only two triggering events that apply under the DPL rules).</P>
                <P>Comments requested integration or coordination of the DPL rules and DCL rules, suggesting that an integrated or coordinated set of rules could ensure consistent treatment of similar transactions (regardless of whether regarded or disregarded for U.S. tax purposes) and simplify compliance. For example, one comment proposed withdrawing the DPL rules and revising the DCL rules to ignore disregarded and intercompany transactions (as defined in § 1.1502-13(b)(1)) in calculating the amount of a DCL, while at the same time taking such transactions into account under a modified DCL register. Specifically, under this approach, a separate unit would calculate its income or loss both with and without disregarded and intercompany transaction items that offset in amount, with the smaller amount of income being dual income and thus increasing the DCL register, or with the smaller amount of loss being a dual loss and thus a DCL. The difference between the with-and-without calculation in a year would be tracked as an attribute—excess income or excess loss—for purposes of applying the with-and-without calculation in subsequent years. The comment stated that this approach would provide parity between disregarded and intercompany transactions, parity between calculation of a DCL register and the amount of a DCL, and parity between different types of items.</P>
                <P>The final regulations do not adopt these comments because the Treasury Department and the IRS remain of the view that integration or other coordination would result in considerable complexity and administrative burden. Additionally, the with-and-without approach proposed by a comment would not address the double deduction outcome arising from a disregarded entity classification in a prototypical case involving a DPL arising from back-to-back financing where the disregarded entity does not also incur a DCL—that is, the excess loss carried forward for purposes of the with-and-without calculation would be relevant only to the extent that the disregarded entity's regarded items of deduction or loss in a year exceed the regarded items of income or gain in that year.</P>
                <P>
                    Another comment suggested that the DPL rules be replaced with an approach that would treat a disregarded entity as a regarded pass-through entity (for example, a one-partner partnership) solely for purposes of the DCL rules, citing section 1503(d) as authority for such an approach. The comment noted that the application of the DPL rules to a disregarded entity can be avoided by introducing another owner (thereby converting the entity to a partnership) and that the suggested approach avoids the administrative complexity of this 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3008"/>
                    type of restructuring. The final regulations do not adopt this approach because it would require broader changes to check-the-box regulations (for example, by creating a new type of regarded pass-through entity), and it could increase complexity and compliance or administrative burden as a result of regarding items that are outside the scope of the DPL rules, such as payments for services and property transactions giving rise to ordinary income or loss.
                </P>
                <P>Lastly, a comment suggested that because the DPL rules were issued as part of a notice of proposed rulemaking that also addresses the DCL rules and those would operate independently of each other, the DPL rules should be withdrawn and issued as a standalone notice of proposed rulemaking. According to the comment, this approach would afford taxpayers a more adequate notice-and-comment period and more clearly signal to affected taxpayers the standalone nature of the DPL rules. The Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that finalizing the DPL rules is appropriate regardless of whether the proposed version of the rules was included in a notice of proposed rulemaking that included other concepts and that the proposed version of the rules provided sufficient notice-and-comment, including about the standalone nature of the DPL rules.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">D. Scope of DPL Rules</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. In General</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the 2024 proposed regulations, the DPL or DPI of a DPE would be determined by taking into account only items that both (i) give rise to deductions or income of the DPE under a foreign tax law (in the case of deductions, determined with regard to any application of foreign hybrid mismatch rules), and (ii) are disregarded for U.S. tax purposes but would be interest, structured payments, or royalties if the items were regarded.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                      
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(6)(ii) and (d)(7)(v). This limited application of the DPL rules would address transactions that are likely structured to avoid the DCL rules.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         References to interest throughout this preamble include a reference to a structured payment, as the context requires.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Comments suggested narrowing the scope of the DPL rules in several respects (and not expanding the rules to cover other payments such as for disregarded services), so that the rules better address transactions likely to give rise to double non-taxation and minimize compliance burden. Some comments suggested that the DPL rules not apply to royalties, or at least royalties paid pursuant to a license executed before the date of the 2024 proposed regulations. A comment asserted that most foreign entities enter into intercompany licensing arrangements for non-tax business reasons and that restructuring these licenses is not always easy or feasible, including because of legal restrictions or foreign tax costs. Other comments asserted that the licenses generally create substantial dual inclusion income (either through exploiting the intangible property or sub-licenses) and, therefore, do not give rise to double non-taxation; one of these comments, however, noted that absent at least partial integration of the DCL and DPL regimes, the dual inclusion income attributable to a license agreement could be double counted by both reducing a DPL and a DCL.</P>
                <P>Comments also suggested not applying the DPL rules to payments that are subject to tax in another foreign country (for example, payments between DPEs that are tax residents of different foreign countries), or possibly only to the extent that the other foreign country has a sufficiently high statutory or effective tax rate. A comment noted that an effective tax rate analysis for purposes of such an exception could rely on existing methods, like the GloBE Model Rules or the GILTI high-tax exception in § 1.951A-2(c)(7) but acknowledged resulting compliance and administrative burdens. Comments also suggested not applying the DPL rules if the disregarded entity has net income for foreign tax purposes (for example where the DPE's net regarded income or net disregarded services income exceeds its DPL), asserting that, absent such an exception, the entity classification regime would be more complex to administer and taxpayers would be incentivized to restructure in a manner that is adverse to U.S. tax policy and results in additional foreign tax and, in turn, additional foreign tax credits. Further, comments recommended not applying the DPL rules to payments subject to hybrid mismatch rules in the payor jurisdiction, contending that such jurisdiction has taken the necessary steps to address erosion of its tax base.</P>
                <P>The final regulations generally do not adopt these specific comments. The Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that excluding all royalties from the DPL rules could incentivize new licensing structures intended to give rise to avoidance of the DCL rules given the ease with which licenses can be put in place.</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS have also determined that a deduction in both the United States and a foreign country is not adequately neutralized by an income inclusion in another foreign country. Additionally, to the extent that taxpayers generally minimize payments from entities in low-tax countries to related entities in high-tax countries, an exception for payments taxed at a sufficiently high tax rate would likely have limited effect while adding significant complexity.</P>
                <P>Further, the Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that an exception under which the DPL rules do not apply if the disregarded entity has net income for foreign tax purposes would be contrary to the approach of maintaining separate DCL and DPL rules, and give rise to inappropriate results, as discussed in parts II.C and III.B of the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, respectively. Also, taking into account the application of foreign hybrid mismatch rules in determining a DPL or DPI will in many cases limit the application of the DPL rules to DPEs subject to foreign hybrid mismatch rules. Moreover, if there is no foreign use of a DPL and annual certification requirements are satisfied, the DPL rules have no further effect. The Treasury Department and the IRS remain of the view that the filing of certification requirements is necessary, even in situations where there may not be a net loss for foreign tax purposes in that particular year, to ensure that any deduction or loss composing a DPL is not put to a foreign use during the certification period. Moreover, this approach is consistent with the requirement in the DCL rules that a domestic use agreement be filed (to put a DCL to a domestic use) even in cases where it may be unlikely that a DCL can be put to a foreign use in a particular year, such as due to disregarded income that is not taken into account for DCL purposes.</P>
                <P>Finally, structures involving hybridity that produce double deduction outcomes are contrary to the U.S. tax policies underlying section 1503(d). Consistent with the current DCL rules, the DPL rules apply even in circumstances where the absence of DPL rules could reduce the amount of foreign income tax that would otherwise be creditable for U.S. tax purposes or where the adoption of such rules may cause some taxpayers to restructure in a manner that increases the amount of creditable foreign income tax.</P>
                <P>
                    However, in response to these comments, the final regulations provide a de minimis exception and (consistent with a comment) do not apply the DPL 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3009"/>
                    rules to royalties paid pursuant to a license agreement executed before the date of the 2024 proposed regulations. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(5)(ii)(E) and (d)(6)(vii). Together, these modifications are intended to further limit application of the DPL rules to cases that are likely structured to produce double deduction outcomes. The Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that this approach strikes an appropriate balance between that goal and considerations like those discussed in the preceding paragraphs, while also eliminating compliance burden in certain cases.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Under the de minimis exception, a DPL with respect to a DPE and a foreign taxable year is deemed to be zero if it is incurred in connection with the conduct of an active trade or business (based on rules set forth under § 1.367(a)-2(d)), and the amount of the DPL is less than the lesser of $3 million or 10 percent of the aggregate amount of all items of the DPE that are deductible under a foreign tax law. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(6)(vii). This de minimis threshold is determined based on the foreign tax law and, therefore, takes into account items regardless of whether regarded or disregarded for U.S. tax purposes.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Types of DPEs and Minority Interests</HD>
                <P>
                    In addition to certain disregarded entities, the 2024 proposed regulations would treat certain foreign branches and dual resident corporations as DPEs. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(1). This is because a payment treated as made by a foreign branch of a domestic corporation, including a dual resident corporation, under foreign tax law to a disregarded entity of the corporation could give rise to a deduction for foreign tax purposes without an inclusion for U.S. tax purposes, and any resulting double deduction generally would not occur if the payee were regarded for U.S. tax purposes. Further, where a DPE is owned through a partnership, the DPL rules would apply as to a DPE owner on a proportionate basis, based on the percentage of interests (by value) of the DPE that the DPE owner indirectly owns. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(7)(ii).
                </P>
                <P>Comments expressed concerns about applying the DPL rules to minority interests in DPEs, contending that such interests do not present the same related-party tax structuring concerns that the DPL rules are intended to address, and noting that a foreign use triggering event under the DPL rules requires a use by a person related to the DPE owner. The comments further noted that the DPE combination rule would exacerbate these concerns because, for example, a DPE owner's inability to comply with certification requirements with respect to a minority interest in a DPE could cause a triggering event with respect to a DPL attributable to that DPE and other DPEs in the same foreign country. Accordingly, the comments recommended applying the DPL rules with respect to a DPE owner and DPE only if the entities are related (determined under section 954(d)(3), for instance). A comment also asserted that applying the DPL rules on a proportionate basis by reference to the value of a partnership interest is burdensome because it requires an annual valuation of the partnership, and the comment suggested retaining this approach only to the extent that other partnership rules require similar valuations.</P>
                <P>
                    The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that the DPL rules should not apply to minority interests. Accordingly, the final regulations revise the DPE definition to exclude entities that are not related, within the meaning of section 954(d)(3), to a DPE owner. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(5)(i). In addition, where a DPE owner indirectly owns less than all the interests (but more than a minority interest) in a DPE, the final regulations remove the requirement in the 2024 proposed regulations that would apply the DPL rules on a proportionate basis based on value, because the Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that a DPE owner's proportionate interest can be determined under other reasonable methods.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Further, the final regulations clarify that a foreign branch owned by a domestic corporation through one or more partnerships may be a DPE. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(5)(i)(B). Thus, if a partnership makes a payment to a disregarded entity of the partnership and the payment is attributed to a foreign branch under foreign tax law, then (because the foreign branch may be a DPE) a domestic corporate partner's proportionate share of a resulting deduction under the foreign tax law can give rise to a DPL. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(6)(ii). Similarly, to address deductions arising under foreign tax law by reason of the partnership being a tax resident of a foreign country (rather than by reason of the partnership having a foreign branch), the final regulations provide that an entity that is treated as a partnership for U.S. tax purposes, but is a foreign tax resident, may be a DPE. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(5)(i)(C).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. “True” Foreign Branches</HD>
                <P>Because the DPL rules are a component of the check-the-box rules, the rules do not apply with respect to deductions resulting under a foreign tax law from payments treated as made between a “true” foreign branch (that is, a foreign taxable presence not conducted through a disregarded entity) and its owner. One comment expressed concerns with disparate treatment resulting from this limitation, asserting that it would incentivize structures involving true foreign branches.</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that this concern does not detract from the utility of the DPL rules. To the extent disregarded entity classifications facilitate structures intended to give rise to avoidance of the DCL rules, addressing those structures through new rules is appropriate regardless of whether the new rules would also address structures that are less common or more burdensome to implement.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">E. Foreign Use Issues</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. “All or Nothing” Principle</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the 2024 proposed regulations, a foreign use of a DPL would be determined under the principles of the rules determining the foreign use of a DCL, which are in § 1.1503(d)-3. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(3)(i). Thus, for example, under the so-called “made available” standard, a foreign use of a DPL would occur if any portion of a deduction taken into account in computing the DPL is made available under a relevant foreign tax law to offset an item of income that, for U.S. tax purposes, is an item of income of a foreign corporation that is related to the DPE owner. Generally, a foreign use of a DPL (or DCL) would occur as a result of structures intended to avoid the application of the DCL rules.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The concept of the entirety of a DPL (or DCL) being put to a foreign use by reason of the availability under a relevant foreign tax law of any portion of a deduction composing the DPL (or DCL) is, in conjunction with the “made available” standard, referred to as the “all or nothing” principle. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     TD 9315 (72 FR 12902, 12910-11). As indicated in the preamble to the 2024 proposed regulations, the all or nothing principle addresses a concern of the Treasury Department and the IRS that alternative approaches, such as treating a foreign use as occurring only to the extent that a deduction actually offsets income of a foreign corporation, would lead to significant administrative complexity and the need for detailed ordering rules.
                </P>
                <P>
                    A comment recommended against the all or nothing principle, asserting that the administrability concerns underlying the principle in the DCL 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3010"/>
                    context are not applicable in the DPL context because a DPL is defined only by reference to certain deductions existing for foreign tax purposes and, thus, the DPL rules do not require an analysis of whether an item that exists for U.S. tax purposes composes an item that exists for, and has been made available for use under, a foreign tax law. Additionally, the comment stated that the all or nothing principle is inconsistent with OECD reports and can give rise to inappropriate outcomes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Treasury Department and the IRS remain of the view that departing from the all or nothing principle in the DPL context would (like in the DCL context) give rise to significant administrability and compliance concerns. 
                    <E T="03">See also</E>
                     TD 9315, 72 FR 12902, 12911 (“The IRS and Treasury Department continue to believe that, even under the approaches suggested by these commentators, departing from the all or nothing principle would lead to substantial administrative complexity.”) For example, specific rules would be needed to address a situation where portions of each of a DPL and a non-DPL loss are shared through foreign tax consolidation or a similar regime, as well as a situation where a foreign corporation has a net operating loss that forms part of a net operating loss carryforward that includes the DPL. Additionally, the Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that consistency is needed between the DCL rules and DPL rules because the DPL rules are intended to prevent the avoidance of the DCL rules. Accordingly, the final regulations do not adopt the comment.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Carrybacks and Carryforwards of Losses Under Foreign Tax Law</HD>
                <P>A comment stated that a foreign use of a DPL can occur only if, under a foreign tax law, deductions composing a DPL are included in a net operating loss that is carried forward or carried back to another taxable year, and the comment suggested that the DPL certification rules should be limited to monitoring whether such a carryover occurs. According to the comment, the scenarios presenting the risk of a foreign use of a DPL are more limited than the scenarios presenting the risk of a foreign use of a DCL because, unlike DCLs, DPLs do not give rise to timing differences between U.S. and foreign tax systems.</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that a foreign use of a DPL may occur through carryforwards or carrybacks of losses but have determined that a foreign use would more commonly occur in the year in which the DPL is incurred. A foreign use could also result from a merger or similar transaction (such as the transfer of the interests in the DPE that incurs the DPL to a related CFC). Accordingly, the final regulations do not adopt this comment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Mirror Legislation Rule</HD>
                <P>
                    The final regulations narrow the definition of a foreign use for DPL purposes by excluding the deemed foreign use that may occur under the mirror legislation rule. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-3(e)(4). This exception, which is consistent with the exception in § 1.1503(d)-3(e)(3) for domestic consenting corporations, clarifies that any denial of a deduction for a disregarded payment under foreign hybrid mismatch rules is not treated as giving rise to a DPL or a foreign use of a DPL. 
                    <E T="03">See also</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(6)(v) (coordination with foreign hybrid mismatch rules).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">F. DPL Cumulative Register and Deduction for a DPL Inclusion</HD>
                <P>
                    The 2024 proposed regulations would provide that a DPL cumulative register with respect to a DPE is, for each foreign taxable year of the DPE, increased by the DPE's DPI or decreased by its DPL. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(5)(ii). When a DPL of the DPE is triggered, any positive balance in the cumulative register would be applied to the DPL and, accordingly, would reduce the amount that the DPE owner must include in income with respect to the DPE under the DPL rules. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(2) and (5).
                </P>
                <P>Comments recommended that the DPL cumulative register be adjusted to include a DPL inclusion amount that has been included in the DPE owner's gross income. The comments noted that, without such an adjustment, a single DPL could be included in the DPE owner's income more than once. Comments also recommended treating a DPL inclusion as giving rise to a deduction (or similar offset) of the DPE owner in subsequent taxable years to prevent the DPL rules from permanently increasing U.S. taxable income. These comments suggested allowing such a deduction (or similar offset) once the DPE has sufficient DPI or “dual inclusion income” (determined as the lesser of certain foreign taxable income and certain U.S. taxable income) in subsequent years. Further, a comment recommended treating the deduction as having the same U.S. tax characteristics (for example, character and source) as the DPL inclusion.</P>
                <P>
                    The Treasury Department and the IRS agree with these comments. The final regulations thus modify the determination of a DPL cumulative register so that a DPL does not decrease the register, thereby preventing a negative balance in the register. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(2)(iii); 
                    <E T="03">see also</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-7(c)(42) (example illustrating this rule). This approach generally achieves the same outcomes as those recommended by comments, while also facilitating the application of any positive register balance to a triggered DPL in cases where there are multiple DPLs but not all the DPLs are triggered.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Additionally, to reflect a DPL inclusion (and consistent with comments), the final regulations provide the DPE owner a deduction (not to exceed the DPL inclusion) to the extent that the DPE derives DPI in a year following the year of the DPL inclusion. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(1) and (d)(2)(ii). Regardless of the extent to which the DPI is derived from interest or royalties, the deduction has the same character and source as the DPL inclusion to which it relates. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(2)(iv)(B). In this way, the DPE owner's items of income and deduction under the DPL rules are similar to the items that the DPE owner would have had if the payments composing the DPL were regarded for U.S. tax purposes. To illustrate, consider a case where a disregarded entity makes a payment to its domestic corporate owner and the payment gives rise to an interest deduction under foreign tax law that is put to a foreign use in the current year. If the payment were instead regarded for U.S. tax purposes (for example, if the payment were instead a § 1.1502-13 intercompany transaction), the payment would give rise to an income inclusion in the current year and a deduction, the use of which generally would be suspended under the DCL rules until there is sufficient income in subsequent years. The DPL rules produce a similar outcome.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Finally, to prevent a single DPL from giving rise to more than one DPL inclusion, the final regulations terminate the certification period with respect to a DPL as a result of a DPL inclusion. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(6)(iii).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">G. Computation of a DPL or DPI for Partial-Year DPE Status</HD>
                <P>
                    Comments requested clarification on how to compute a DPL or DPI for the first foreign taxable year in which an entity or branch is treated as a DPE of a DPE owner. In such a case, some comments suggested a rule pursuant to which the DPL or DPI would be computed without regard to items incurred (or allocable to, including 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3011"/>
                    under the principles of § 1.1502-76(b)) during the portion of the foreign taxable year that precedes the first day that the DPL rules apply with respect to the DPE owner and DPE.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Treasury Department and the IRS agree with these comments, and the final regulations therefore clarify that items incurred or derived in the portion of a foreign taxable year that an entity or foreign branch is not a DPE are not taken into account for purposes of calculating DPI or DPL. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(5)(ii). On the other hand, if an entity or foreign branch is a DPE at all times during the foreign taxable year, this pro-ration rule does not apply even though the DPE owner's U.S. taxable year may differ from the DPE's foreign taxable year.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">H. Additional Reporting and Documentation</HD>
                <P>One comment supported the DPL rules, noting that closing this existing loophole and providing clarity is important to ensure tax fairness, prevent abuse, and provide consistency. The comment also suggested that the rules provide detailed guidance on the documentation and reporting requirements for disregarded payments, such as specifying that taxpayers must maintain detailed records and submit these records as part of their tax filings.</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that the documentation and reporting requirements in the proposed regulations, as modified in these final regulations (such as to require additional reporting in § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(4)(iv) related to the suspended deduction), are sufficient for the IRS to administer the rules effectively. Further, the IRS may request additional information regarding DPLs on audit, as necessary. Accordingly, this comment is not adopted.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">III. Rules That Apply to Both DCLs and DPLs</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Anti-Avoidance Rule</HD>
                <P>
                    The 2024 proposed regulations would include an anti-avoidance rule that applies with respect to both DCLs and DPLs. This rule generally would provide that appropriate adjustments may be made with respect to a transaction, series of transactions, plan, or arrangement that is engaged with a view to avoid the purposes of section 1503(d) and the regulations thereunder. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 1.1503(d)-1(f). The preamble to the 2024 proposed regulations noted that the anti-avoidance rule could address new avoidance structures or interpretations, rather than continuing to address these transactions on a case-by-case basis through the adoption of new rules. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     part I.C. of the Explanation of Provisions of the 2024 proposed regulations.
                </P>
                <P>Some comments asserted that the application of the anti-avoidance rule is unclear and should therefore be withdrawn. Other comments requested that, rather than applying the anti-avoidance rule based on whether there is “a view” to avoid the purposes of section 1503(d) and the regulations thereunder, it should apply based on the more common principal purpose-based standard, or if the taxpayer is attempting to “evade” the purposes of section 1503(d). Comments also requested additional examples illustrating the application or nonapplication of the anti-avoidance rule, including examples that would clarify that the anti-avoidance rule does not apply if taxpayers restructure their operations to avoid the application of the DPL rules. Finally, one comment requested that, consistent with the general approach in the DCL rules to calculate the amount of a DCL based on U.S. tax items, the anti-avoidance rule should be revised to ignore the treatment of items under foreign law.</P>
                <P>
                    In response to the comments, the anti-avoidance rule is modified to make clear that the purpose of section 1503(d) and the regulations thereunder is to prevent double deduction and similar outcomes. Thus, if taxpayers restructure their arrangements to avoid the application of the DPL rules or the DCL rules, such as by converting disregarded payments into regarded payments or terminating agreements that give rise to disregarded payments, the anti-avoidance rule does not apply if the restructured arrangement does not give rise to the potential for two deductions—one for foreign tax purposes, and one for US. tax purposes. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-1(f). The final regulations also provide additional examples that illustrate the application, and nonapplication, of the anti-avoidance rule. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-7(c)(44) and (45). The Treasury Department and the IRS continue to study how the intercompany transaction rules of § 1.1502-13 would apply to the facts such as those presented in the example in § 1.1503(d)-7(c)(44).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The final regulations add certain exceptions to the application of the anti-avoidance rule, as it applies to DCLs, for transactions or interpretations that would be addressed by rules in the 2024 proposed regulations. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-1(f)(2). For example, the anti-avoidance rule does not apply to structures that may reduce or eliminate a DCL by reason of items of income arising from the ownership of stock and taken into account under § 1.1503(d)-5(b)(1) or (c)(4)(iv) (the “stock ownership rule”). This exception is intended to make clear that the anti-avoidance rule does not apply in such a case even though the 2024 proposed regulations would eliminate the stock ownership rule (other than with respect to certain portfolio interests) and the preamble to the 2024 regulations states that taxpayers may be affirmatively structuring into the rules to produce inappropriate double-deduction outcomes. The Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that the anti-avoidance rule should not apply in such cases at this time, despite the policy concerns underlying the transactions, because the substantive rules that would address the transactions have not yet been finalized. These exceptions to the anti-avoidance rule would be removed or modified if, after taking into account comments, the corresponding rules in the 2024 proposed regulations are finalized in a subsequent guidance project. The non-application of the anti-avoidance rule in these cases does not affect the potential application of other rules or judicial doctrines, such as the substance-over-form or step-transaction doctrines. The Treasury Department and the IRS request comments on the modification or removal of these exceptions upon finalization of the corresponding proposed rules.
                </P>
                <P>In light of the additional certainty and clarity provided by the modification to the rule and the additional examples, these final regulations do not adopt the recommendations to withdraw the anti-avoidance rule or employ a new standard based on a principal purpose or evasion. Finally, because the anti-avoidance rule applies with respect to the DPL rules, which are premised on the treatment of items under foreign law, these final regulations do not adopt the recommendation to ignore foreign law treatment in applying the anti-avoidance rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Deemed Ordering Rule</HD>
                <P>
                    In determining the foreign use of a DPL, the 2024 proposed regulations would provide that the principles of the exceptions in § 1.1503(d)-3(c) apply, which include the deemed ordering rule under § 1.1503(d)-3(c)(3). 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(3)(i). This rule generally would provide that if losses or deductions are available under foreign law both to offset income that would constitute a foreign use and income that would not constitute a foreign use, and the foreign law does not provide applicable rules for determining which 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3012"/>
                    income is offset by the losses or deductions, then the losses or deductions are first deemed to be available to offset the income that would not constitute a foreign use, to the extent thereof, before being considered to be made available to offset the income that would constitute a foreign use. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-3(c)(3).
                </P>
                <P>In cases where a DPE has both a DPL and income that is not DPI, such as items of income other than interest and royalties that are disregarded for U.S. tax purposes or income that is regarded for U.S. tax purposes, comments asserted that the application of the deemed ordering rule is unclear, and that income that is not DPI should be taken into account in determining whether the exception prevents a foreign use of the DPL (or, alternatively, prevents the creation of a DPL). Under this approach, a DPL would be treated as first offsetting the DPE's income under the foreign tax law, regardless of whether that income is regarded or disregarded. Accordingly, no foreign use of a DPL would generally occur if the DPE has net positive income under the foreign tax law.</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS disagree with these comments. The deemed ordering rule is related to, and therefore must apply in a manner consistent with, the rules that calculate a DCL or DPL and related cumulative register. Thus, because the calculation of a DCL and DCL cumulative register only takes into account regarded items, the deemed ordering rule as applied to DCLs also must only take into account such items. Similarly, because the calculation of a DPL and DPL cumulative register only takes into account disregarded interest and royalties, so too should the deemed ordering rule only take such items into account. This consistent approach promotes coordinated outcomes, ensures that all relevant items are appropriately taken into account, and avoids double-counting concerns. A partial integration of the DCL and DPL rules only in the deemed ordering rule would not be appropriate without providing comprehensive rules to address, for example, the opposite fact pattern where regarded items of deduction or loss could be viewed as offsetting disregarded interest and royalty income and thereby creating or increasing the amount of a DPL that is put to a foreign use.</P>
                <P>
                    One comment requested clarification regarding the condition that the deemed ordering rule applies only if the laws of the foreign country do not provide applicable rules for determining which income is offset by the losses or deductions. The comment noted, as an example, that such uncertainty can arise in connection with the steps required in applying the GloBE Model Rules. It has also been observed that the method by which the foreign country takes into account items that would, or would not, give rise to a foreign use likely would not change the arithmetic result of determining taxable income under foreign law or otherwise have economic significance. Further, there is no similar condition in the rules that determine a DCL or DPL, or the related cumulative registers, and as noted above these regimes should operate in a consistent manner. As a result, the final regulations eliminate this condition from the deemed ordering rule for purposes of both the DPL and DCL rules. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-3(c)(3).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">IV. Applicability Dates</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. DPL Rules</HD>
                <P>
                    The 2024 proposed regulations would apply the DPL rules as of the date those regulations were filed with the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (August 6, 2024), subject to a one-year delay for certain entities in existence on that date. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 301.7701-3(c)(4)(vi). Comments requested a deferred application of the DPL rules, with some suggesting specific dates (such as taxable years beginning after publication of final regulations) and others generally suggesting additional time for taxpayers to implement new processes and systems or undertake restructurings to avoid the application of the DPL rules. Comments also requested clarification on when the DPL rules would apply in cases like one where a domestic corporation owns multiple disregarded entities that are tax residents of foreign countries, with some (but not all) formed or acquired after August 6, 2024, but before August 6, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Treasury Department and the IRS agree with the suggestions to defer application of the DPL rules. Accordingly, the final regulations apply the DPL rules to taxable years of DPE owners beginning on or after January 1, 2026. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     §§ 1.1503(d)-8(b)(11) and 301.7701-2(e)(10). This use of a single applicability date obviates the need for additional rules clarifying application of the DPL rules in cases like ones where a domestic corporation owns multiple disregarded entities.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Other Rules</HD>
                <P>
                    The final regulations apply the anti-avoidance rule to DCLs incurred in taxable years ending on or after August 6, 2024, consistent with the approach in the 2024 proposed regulations. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-8(b)(15). Further, consistent with the applicability date of the DPL rules, the anti-avoidance rule applies to DPLs for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2026. 
                    <E T="03">See id.</E>
                     Additionally, the final regulations apply revisions to the deemed ordering rule in § 1.1503(d)-3(c)(3) to DCLs incurred in taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2026, and to DPLs in taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2026 (each consistent with the applicability date of the DPL rules). 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-8(b)(17). Finally, the final regulations apply the rule regarding the non-application of the sixty-month limitation for an entity that, absent an election to change its classification, would become a DPE as of August 6, 2024. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 301.7701-2(e)(10).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Additional Transition Relief With Respect to the GloBE Model Rules</HD>
                <P>
                    As noted in the Background of this preamble, the 2024 proposed regulations would address the application of the DCL rules to the GloBE Model Rules. For example, the 2024 proposed regulations would provide that an IIR or QDMTT may be an income tax for purposes of the DCL rules.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The 2024 proposed regulations also would address the effect of an IIR or a QDMTT on certain entities and foreign business operations, the application of the DCL rules to the Transitional CbCR Safe Harbour, and the interaction of the duplicate loss arrangement rules with the mirror legislation rule under § 1.1503(d)-3(e). In addition, the 2024 proposed regulations would extend and broaden, the transition relief announced in Notice 2023-80 such that the DCL rules (including the DPL rules) would generally apply without taking into account QDMTTs or Top-up Taxes collected under an IIR or UTPR with respect to losses incurred in taxable years beginning before August 6, 2024. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 1.1503(d)-8(b)(12). This extension, and broadening, would provide taxpayers more certainty, allow for further consideration of the proposed regulations and related comments, and allow for consideration of further developments at the OECD.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The Qualified Domestic Minimum Top-up Tax (“QDMTT”), IIR (also referred to as the income inclusion rule), and UTPR (also referred to as the under-taxed profits rule) are defined in Article 10 of the GloBE Model Rules.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Several comments requested additional transition relief for the application of the DCL rules and DPL rules to the GloBE Model Rules. For example, comments suggested that the applicability date be delayed until taxable years beginning on or after 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3013"/>
                    January 1, 2025, or through 2026; another comment suggested that the rules not apply until there are final DCL rules and final GloBE Model Rules. Some comments requested additional transition relief because the GloBE Model Rules are still evolving, and relief would allow for additional time to take into account additional OECD guidance and legislation enacted by jurisdictions to incorporate the GloBE Model Rules. One comment stated that if the DCL rules and DPL rules apply with respect to UTPRs that transition relief be provided for such application for at least 2025. Finally, one comment requested clarification that the transition relief is also available with respect to DPLs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that additional transitional relief is warranted. As some comments noted, such relief would allow additional time to consider future OECD guidance and legislation enacted by foreign jurisdictions that would implement the GloBE Model Rules. Accordingly, when the 2024 proposed regulations addressing the application of the DCL rules to the GloBE Model Rules are finalized, the applicability date set forth in the 2024 proposed regulations will be modified. The final regulations will provide that the DCL rules will apply without taking into account QDMTTs or Top-up Taxes collected under an IIR or UTPR incurred in taxable years beginning before August 31, 2025. The additional transition relief does not affect the application of the DPL rules because the DPL rules do not apply until taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2026. Taxpayers may rely on the guidance described in this paragraph until final regulations are published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . The transition relief is limited to an additional year to minimize the double deduction outcomes that may result.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Analyses</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Regulatory Planning and Review</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to the Memorandum of Agreement, Review of Treasury Regulations under Executive Order 12866 (June 9, 2023), tax regulatory actions issued by the IRS are not subject to the requirements of section 6 of Executive Order 12866, as amended. Therefore, a regulatory impact assessment is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">II. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) (“PRA”) requires that a Federal agency obtain the approval of the OMB before collecting information from the public, whether such collection of information is mandatory, voluntary, or required to obtain or retain a benefit. Section 1.1503(d)-1(d)(4) of these regulations requires the collection of information.</P>
                <P>As discussed in part II.B.3 of the Explanation of Provisions of the 2024 proposed regulations, to avoid or reduce a DPL inclusion amount certain taxpayers are required to make certifications, for example, that no foreign use has occurred with respect to a disregarded payment loss. The IRS will use this information to determine the extent to which these taxpayers need to recognize income under these final regulations.</P>
                <P>The reporting burden associated with this collection of information will be reflected in the PRA submissions associated with Form 1120 (OMB control number 1545-0123). The Treasury Department and the IRS do not have readily available data to determine the number of taxpayers affected by this collection of information because no reporting module currently identifies these types of disregarded payments.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">III. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>
                    When an agency issues a rulemaking proposal, the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 6) (“RFA”) requires the agency to prepare and make available for public comment an initial regulatory flexibility analysis that will describe the impact of the proposed rule on small entities. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     5 U.S.C. 603(a). Section 605 of the RFA provides an exception to this requirement if the agency certifies that the proposed rulemaking will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. A small entity is defined as a small business, small nonprofit organization, or small governmental jurisdiction. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     5 U.S.C. 601(3) through (6).
                </P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS do not expect that these final regulations will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. However, because there is a possibility of significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis was provided in the 2024 proposed regulations. No comments were received in response to the request for comments concerning the number of small entities that may be impacted and whether that impact will be economically significant.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Reasons Why Action Is Being Considered</HD>
                <P>As explained in part II.A of the Explanation of Provisions of the 2024 proposed regulations, the disregarded payment loss rules in these final regulations address certain hybrid payments that can give rise to double deduction outcomes.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Objectives of, and Legal Basis for, the 2024 Proposed Regulations</HD>
                <P>The disregarded payment loss rules in these final regulations require an income inclusion for U.S. tax purposes to prevent the avoidance of the DCL rules that would otherwise arise from certain disregarded payments. Sections 1503(d)(2)(B) and (d)(3), 7701, and 7805 of the Code are the legal basis for these regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Small Entities to Which These Regulations Will Apply</HD>
                <P>Because an estimate of the number of small businesses affected is not currently feasible, this regulatory flexibility analysis assumes that a substantial number of small businesses will be affected. The Treasury Department and the IRS do not expect that these final regulations will affect a substantial number of small nonprofit organizations or small governmental jurisdictions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">D. Projected Reporting, Recordkeeping, and Other Compliance Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    The final regulations impose a certification requirement that is filed with a domestic corporation's tax return, and to comply with that requirement the domestic corporation may need to keep records such as its DPL cumulative register as defined in § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(2)(iii). 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(4)(iii).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">E. Duplicate, Overlapping, or Relevant Federal Rules</HD>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS are not aware of any Federal rules that duplicate, overlap, or conflict with these final regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">F. Alternatives Considered</HD>
                <P>
                    These final regulations address policy concerns that are similar to the concerns underlying the enactment of section 1503(d), which applies uniformly to large and small business entities. The Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that these final regulations should generally apply without regard to the size of the corporation—a small business exception would undermine the anti-hybridity policies underlying these regulations. Accordingly, there is no viable alternative to these final regulations for small entities. The Treasury Department and the IRS expect that the revisions in these final regulations to apply a de minimis threshold, and exclude royalties from 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3014"/>
                    pre-August 6, 2024, licenses and minority interests, will reduce any economic impact that the regulations could have on small entities.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">IV. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (“UMRA”) requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits and take certain other actions before issuing a final rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in expenditures in any one year by a State, local, or Tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. The final rules do not include any Federal mandate that may result in expenditures by State, local, or Tribal governments, or by the private sector in excess of that threshold.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">V. Executive Order 13132: Federalism</HD>
                <P>Executive Order 13132 (Federalism) prohibits an agency from publishing any rule that has federalism implications if the rule either imposes substantial, direct compliance costs on State and local governments, and is not required by statute, or preempts State law, unless the agency meets the consultation and funding requirements of section 6 of Executive Order 13132. The final rules do not have federalism implications and do not impose substantial direct compliance costs on State and local governments or preempt State law within the meaning of Executive Order 13132.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Effect on Other Documents</HD>
                <P>Section 3 of Notice 2023-80 (2023-52 IRB 1583) is obsolete as of August 6, 2024.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Statement of Availability of IRS Documents</HD>
                <P>
                    IRS Revenue Procedures, Revenue Rulings, Notices, and other guidance cited in this document are published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin or Cumulative Bulletin and are available from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Publishing Office, Washington, DC 20402, or by visiting the IRS website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.irs.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Drafting Information</HD>
                <P>The principal author of these regulations is Andrew L. Wigmore of the Office of the Associate Chief Counsel (International). However, other personnel from the Treasury Department and the IRS participated in their development.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                    <CFR>26 CFR Part 1</CFR>
                    <P>Income taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                    <CFR>26 CFR Part 301</CFR>
                    <P>Employment taxes, Estate taxes, Excise taxes, Gift taxes, Income taxes, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Adoption of Amendments to the Regulations</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, the Treasury Department and the IRS amend 26 CFR parts 1 and 301 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1—INCOME TAXES</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Paragraph 1.</E>
                         The authority citation for part 1 is amended by removing the entry for § 1.1503(d) and adding entries for §§ 1.1503(d)-1 through 1.1503(d)-8 in numerical order to read as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <STARS/>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>Sections 1.1503(d)-1 through 8 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 953(d), 1502, 1503(d) and (d)(2)(B), (d)(3), and (d)(4), and 7701.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 2.</E>
                         Section 1.1503(d)-1 is amended by:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>1. Revising the section heading;</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>2. Revising and republishing paragraph (a);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>3. Redesignating paragraph (d) as paragraph (e);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>4. Adding a new paragraph (d);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>5. Revising the paragraph heading for newly redesignated paragraph (e);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>6. In newly redesignated paragraphs (e)(1) through (3), removing the language “section 1503(d) and these regulations” in each place it appears and adding the language “this section and §§ 1.1503(d)-2 through 1.1503(d)-8” in its place; and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>7. Adding paragraph (f).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The revisions and additions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.1503(d)-1 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Definitions, special rules, and filings.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             This section and §§ 1.1503(d)-2 through 1.1503(d)-8 provide rules concerning the determination and use of dual consolidated losses pursuant to section 1503(d). Paragraph (b) of this section provides definitions that apply for purposes of this section and §§ 1.1503(d)-2 through 1.1503(d)-8. Paragraph (c) of this section provides rules for a domestic consenting corporation. Paragraph (d) of this section provides rules for disregarded payment losses. Paragraph (e) of this section provides relief for certain compliance failures due to reasonable cause, and a signature requirement for filings. Paragraph (f) of this section provides an anti-avoidance rule.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Disregarded payment loss (DPL) rules</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             The disregarded payment loss rules of this paragraph (d) only apply to a domestic corporation (including a dual resident corporation) that directly or indirectly owns an interest in a disregarded entity, regardless of whether the disregarded entity is domestic or foreign (such a domestic corporation, a 
                            <E T="03">disregarded payment entity owner,</E>
                             or 
                            <E T="03">DPE owner</E>
                            ). If these rules apply to a DPE owner, then the DPE owner determines disregarded payment income or disregarded payment loss of its disregarded payment entities (if any) described in paragraph (d)(5)(i)(A), (B), (C), or (D) of this section in accordance with paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section and, in the case of a disregarded payment loss for which a triggering event occurs under paragraph (d)(3) of this section, includes an amount equal to the DPL inclusion amount in gross income and establishes a suspended deduction in accordance with paragraph (d)(2) of this section. The inclusion required under this paragraph (d)(1) and paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section is included in the taxable year of the DPE owner in which the triggering event occurs, and the corresponding suspended deduction under this paragraph (d)(1) and paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section is established in the subsequent taxable year of the DPE owner. See § 1.1503(d)-7(c)(42) for an example illustrating the application of the disregarded payment loss rules.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">DPL amounts</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">DPL inclusion amount.</E>
                             A 
                            <E T="03">DPL inclusion amount</E>
                             means, with respect to a disregarded payment loss as to which a triggering event occurs during the DPL certification period, an amount equal to the disregarded payment loss. Such amount is reduced (but not below zero) to the extent of the balance in the DPL cumulative register of the disregarded payment entity if the certification requirement under paragraph (d)(4)(iii) of this section is satisfied.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Suspended deduction.</E>
                             With respect to a DPL inclusion amount, a DPE owner establishes a suspended deduction in an amount equal to the DPL inclusion amount. The suspended deduction is allowed as a deduction under the principles of § 1.1503(d)-6(h)(6) by treating the suspended deduction as if it were a reconstituted net operating loss that becomes deductible only to the extent of 
                            <PRTPAGE P="3015"/>
                            disregarded payment income derived in the taxable year in which the suspended deduction is established or subsequent taxable years (as measured by the disregarded payment entity's DPL cumulative register), provided that the certification requirement under paragraph (d)(4)(iv) of this section is satisfied.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">DPL cumulative register.</E>
                             The term 
                            <E T="03">DPL cumulative register</E>
                             means, with respect to the disregarded payment entity, an account the balance of which is computed at the end of each foreign taxable year of the entity, and which is—
                        </P>
                        <P>(A) Increased by the amount of disregarded payment income of the entity for the foreign taxable year, and then, after determining the DPL inclusion amount for the year,</P>
                        <P>(B) Decreased by the amount of the cumulative register balance that is used under paragraph (d)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section.</P>
                        <P>
                            (iv) 
                            <E T="03">Character and source</E>
                            —(A) 
                            <E T="03">DPL inclusion amount.</E>
                             A DPE owner's income inclusion for a DPL inclusion amount is, for all U.S. tax purposes, treated as ordinary income, and characterized and sourced, including for purposes of sections 904(d) and 907, in the same manner as if the disregarded payment entity were a foreign corporation and the amount were interest or royalty income paid by the foreign corporation (taking into account, for example, section 904(d)(3) if such foreign corporation would be a controlled foreign corporation). For these purposes, the DPL inclusion amount is considered comprised of interest or royalty income based on the proportion of interest or royalty deductions taken into account, respectively, in computing the disregarded payment loss relative to all the deductions taken into account in computing the disregarded payment loss. Further, for these purposes, a deduction attributable to a structured payment or a deduction with respect to equity is treated as an interest deduction.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) 
                            <E T="03">Suspended deduction.</E>
                             A DPE owner's deduction with respect to a suspended deduction is, for all U.S. tax purposes, characterized and sourced in the same manner as the income for the DPL inclusion amount to which it relates. If the income from the DPL inclusion amount is assigned to multiple statutory and residual groupings, the deduction is allocated and apportioned to each grouping in the same proportions as the DPL inclusion amount.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Triggering events.</E>
                             An event described in paragraph (d)(3)(i) or (ii) of this section is a triggering event with respect to a disregarded payment loss of a disregarded payment entity.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Foreign use.</E>
                             A foreign use of the disregarded payment loss. For this purpose, a foreign use is determined under the principles of § 1.1503(d)-3 (including the exceptions in § 1.1503(d)-3(c)), by treating the disregarded payment loss as a dual consolidated loss, treating the disregarded payment entity as a separate unit (or, in the case of a disregarded payment entity that is a dual resident corporation, by treating the disregarded payment entity as a dual resident corporation), and, in § 1.1503(d)-3(a)(1)(i) and (ii), only taking into account a person that is related to the DPE owner of the disregarded payment entity. Thus, for example, a foreign use of a disregarded payment loss occurs if, under a relevant foreign tax law, any portion of the foreign law deduction taken into account in computing the disregarded payment loss is made available (including by reason of a foreign consolidation regime or similar regime, or a sale, merger, or similar transaction) to offset an item of income that, for U.S. tax purposes, is an item of a foreign corporation, but only if such foreign corporation is related to the DPE owner of the disregarded payment entity. When applying the principles of the deemed ordering rule in § 1.1503(d)-3(c)(3), items of income or gain are taken into account only to the extent such items are described in paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(D) of this section; thus, for example, such items include items of income that are or would be taken into account in determining the amount of disregarded payment loss or disregarded payment income, and exclude items that are regarded for U.S. tax purposes.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Failure to comply with certification requirements.</E>
                             A failure by the DPE owner of the disregarded payment entity to comply with the certification requirements of paragraphs (d)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Certification requirements.</E>
                             Except as otherwise provided in publications, forms, instructions, or other guidance, a DPE owner of a disregarded payment entity is subject to the certification requirements of this paragraph (d)(4) with respect to a disregarded payment loss of the disregarded payment entity.
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) For its taxable year that includes the date on which the foreign taxable year in which a disregarded payment loss is incurred ends, the DPE owner must attach with its timely filed tax return a certification labeled “Initial Disregarded Payment Loss Certification Under Section 1503(d),” which must contain—</P>
                        <P>(A) The information set forth in § 1.1503(d)-6(c)(2)(ii) (determined by substituting the phrase “disregarded payment entity” for the phrase “separate unit”);</P>
                        <P>(B) A statement of the amount of the disregarded payment loss; and</P>
                        <P>(C) A statement that a foreign use of the disregarded payment loss has not occurred during the DPL certification period.</P>
                        <P>(ii) During the DPL certification period, for each of its taxable years after the taxable year described in paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section that includes a date on which a foreign taxable year ends, the DPE owner must attach with its timely filed tax return a certification labeled “Annual Disregarded Payment Loss Certification Under Section 1503(d)” and satisfying the requirements of this paragraph (d)(4)(ii). Certifications with respect to multiple disregarded payment losses may be combined in a single certification, but each disregarded payment loss must be separately identified. To satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (d)(4)(ii), the certification must—</P>
                        <P>(A) Identify the disregarded payment loss to which it pertains by setting forth the foreign taxable year in which the disregarded payment loss was incurred and the amount of such disregarded payment loss;</P>
                        <P>(B) State that there has been no foreign use of the disregarded payment loss; and</P>
                        <P>(C) Warrant that arrangements have been made to ensure that there will be no foreign use of the disregarded payment loss and that the DPE owner will be informed of any such foreign use.</P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) If a disregarded payment entity has a balance in its DPL cumulative register upon a DPL triggering event and the DPE owner includes in gross income a DPL inclusion amount that is less than the amount of the disregarded payment loss, the DPE owner of the disregarded payment entity must attach a statement labeled “Reduction of Disregarded Payment Loss Amount Under Section 1503(d)” to its income tax return for the taxable year in which the triggering event occurs and provide any other information as requested by the Commissioner. The statement must show the disregarded payment income or disregarded payment loss of the disregarded payment entity for each foreign taxable year (other than a foreign taxable year where the entity or branch is not a disregarded payment entity) up to and including the foreign taxable year 
                            <PRTPAGE P="3016"/>
                            with respect to which the triggering event occurs.
                        </P>
                        <P>(iv) If a DPE owner claims an allowed deduction with respect to a suspended deduction, the DPE owner must attach a statement labeled “Release of Suspended Deduction Under Section 1503(d)” to the income tax return for the taxable year in which the deduction is allowed and provide any other information as requested by the Commissioner, including in regulations, forms, instructions or other guidance. The statement must describe the DPE owner's DPL inclusion amount to which the suspended deduction relates and show the disregarded payment income or disregarded payment loss of the disregarded payment entity for each foreign taxable year up to and including the foreign taxable year during which the deduction is allowed.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             The following definitions apply for purposes of this paragraph (d).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (i) The term 
                            <E T="03">disregarded payment entity</E>
                             means, with respect to a DPE owner, any entity, foreign branch, or dual resident corporation described in paragraph (d)(5)(i)(A), (B), (C) or (D) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>(A) A disregarded entity that is a foreign tax resident and related to the DPE owner, provided that the DPE owner directly or indirectly owns interests in the disregarded entity.</P>
                        <P>(B) A foreign branch of the DPE owner and a foreign branch of an entity that is related to the DPE owner and in which the DPE owner directly or indirectly owns an interest.</P>
                        <P>(C) An entity that is treated as a partnership for U.S. tax purposes that is a foreign tax resident and related to the DPE owner, provided that the DPE owner directly or indirectly owns an interest in the entity.</P>
                        <P>(D) The DPE owner itself if it is a dual resident corporation.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) The terms 
                            <E T="03">disregarded payment income</E>
                             and 
                            <E T="03">disregarded payment loss</E>
                             have the meanings set forth in this paragraph (d)(5)(ii). For purposes of computing the disregarded payment income or disregarded payment loss of a disregarded payment entity, a DPE owner takes into account the disregarded payment income or disregarded payments loss of each disregarded payment entity for each foreign taxable year that ends with or within its U.S. taxable year and an item is taken into account only if it gives rise to income or a deduction under the relevant foreign tax law during the portion of the foreign taxable year in which the entity or foreign branch is a disregarded payment entity; for purposes of allocating an item to a period, the principles of § 1.1502-76(b) apply. Thus, for example, if a DPE owner with a calendar U.S. taxable year becomes subject to the disregarded payment loss rules for the U.S. taxable year beginning on January 1, 2026, the disregarded payment income or disregarded payment loss of a disregarded payment entity of the DPE owner with a foreign taxable year ending on June 30, 2026, excludes items allocated (under the principles of § 1.1502-76(b)) to the pre-January 1, 2026, portion of that foreign taxable year. Items taken into account in computing disregarded payment income or disregarded payment loss are calculated in the currency used to determine tax under the relevant foreign tax law. See § 1.1503(d)-7(c)(46) for an example illustrating items that are taken into account in determining disregarded payment income or disregarded payment loss.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (A) 
                            <E T="03">Disregarded payment income.</E>
                             Disregarded payment income means, with respect to a disregarded payment entity and a foreign taxable year of the entity, the excess (if any) of the sum of the items described in paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(D) of this section over the sum of the items described in paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(C) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) 
                            <E T="03">Disregarded payment loss.</E>
                             Subject to the de minimis rule set forth in paragraph (d)(6)(vii) of this section, a disregarded payment loss means, with respect to a disregarded payment entity and a foreign taxable year of the entity, the excess (if any) of the sum of the items described in paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(C) of this section over the sum of the items described in paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(D) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (C) 
                            <E T="03">Items of deduction.</E>
                             With respect to a disregarded payment entity and a foreign taxable year of the entity, an item is described in this paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(C) to the extent that it satisfies all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (d)(5)(ii)(C)(
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) through (
                            <E T="03">3</E>
                            ) of this section. In addition, an item of a disregarded payment entity described in paragraph (d)(5)(i)(A) of this section is described in this paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(C) if, under the relevant foreign tax law, it is a deduction with respect to equity (including deemed equity) allowed to the entity in such taxable year (for example, a notional interest deduction) or a deduction for an imputed interest payment with respect to a debt instrument (such as a deduction for an imputed interest payment with respect to an interest-free loan).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) Under the relevant foreign tax law, the disregarded payment entity is allowed a deduction in such taxable year for the item.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ) The payment, accrual, or other transaction giving rise to the item is disregarded for U.S. tax purposes as a transaction between a disregarded entity and its tax owner or between disregarded entities with the same tax owner (for example, a payment by a disregarded entity to its tax owner or to another disregarded entity owned by its tax owner, a payment from a dual resident corporation or partnership to a disregarded entity it owns, or a payment from the home office of a foreign branch to a disregarded entity the home office owns that is attributable to the foreign branch).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">3</E>
                            ) If the payment, accrual, or other transaction were regarded for U.S. tax purposes, it would be interest, a structured payment, or a royalty within the meaning of § 1.267A-5(a)(12), (b)(5)(ii), or (a)(16), respectively.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (D) 
                            <E T="03">Items of income.</E>
                             With respect to a disregarded payment entity and a foreign taxable year of the entity, an item is described in this paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(D) to the extent that it satisfies all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (d)(5)(ii)(D)(
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) through (
                            <E T="03">3</E>
                            ) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) Under the relevant foreign tax law, the disregarded payment entity includes the item in income in such taxable year.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ) The payment, accrual, or other transaction giving rise to the item is disregarded for U.S. tax purposes as a transaction between a disregarded entity and its tax owner or between disregarded entities with the same tax owner (for example, because it is a payment to a disregarded entity from the disregarded entity's tax owner or from another disregarded entity of its tax owner, a payment to a dual resident corporation or partnership from a disregarded entity it owns, or a payment from a disregarded entity to the home office of a foreign branch that is attributable to the foreign branch).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">3</E>
                            ) If the payment, accrual, or other transaction were regarded for U.S. tax purposes, it would be interest, a structured payment, or a royalty with the meaning of § 1.267A-5(a)(12), (b)(5)(ii), or (a)(16), respectively.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (E) 
                            <E T="03">Translation into U.S. dollars.</E>
                             The amount of disregarded payment income or disregarded payment loss with respect to a foreign taxable year of a disregarded payment entity is translated into U.S. dollars using the yearly average exchange rate (within the meaning of § 1.987-1(c)(2)) for that foreign taxable year.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (F) 
                            <E T="03">Royalties under pre-August 6, 2024 licenses excluded.</E>
                             Royalties paid or accrued pursuant to a license agreement entered into before August 6, 2024, are not taken into account when 
                            <PRTPAGE P="3017"/>
                            determining the amount of disregarded payment income or disregarded payment loss. The preceding sentence ceases to apply with respect to any such agreement upon the significant modification of any terms of the agreement, such as a change in the licensor or licensee or a significant modification of the rights in consideration for which the royalties are paid. In such case, any amounts paid or accrued on or after the date of the significant modification are taken into account when determining the amount of disregarded payment income or disregarded payment loss. Termination of a license agreement and re-entry into a license agreement between the same parties and with the same terms (other than the term governing the period covered by the agreement), an extension of the period covered by a license agreement without modification of other terms, or an alteration of a legal right or obligation that occurs by operation of the terms of the license agreement (for example, where the license agreement provides for updating the royalty based on updated transfer pricing studies), will not be considered a significant modification of the first license agreement. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(F), a combined disregarded payment entity is treated as a single licensor or licensee, as the case may be.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) The term 
                            <E T="03">DPL certification period</E>
                             includes, with respect to a disregarded payment loss, the foreign taxable year in which the disregarded payment loss is incurred, any prior foreign taxable years, and, except as provided in paragraph (d)(6)(iii) of this section, the 60-month period following the foreign taxable year in which the disregarded payment loss is incurred.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iv) The term 
                            <E T="03">foreign branch</E>
                             means a branch (within the meaning of § 1.267A-5(a)(2)) that gives rise to a taxable presence under the tax law of the foreign country where the branch is located.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (v) The term 
                            <E T="03">foreign taxable year</E>
                             means, with respect to a disregarded payment entity, the entity's taxable year for purposes of a relevant foreign tax law.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (vi) The term 
                            <E T="03">foreign tax resident</E>
                             means a tax resident (within the meaning of § 1.267A-5(a)(23)(i)) of a foreign country.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (vii) The term 
                            <E T="03">related</E>
                             has the meaning provided in this paragraph (d)(5)(vii). A person is related to a DPE owner if the person is a related person within the meaning of section 954(d)(3) and the regulations thereunder, determined by treating the person as the “controlled foreign corporation” referred to in that section. In addition, for purposes of determining relatedness, a disregarded entity is treated as a corporation.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (viii) The term 
                            <E T="03">relevant foreign tax law</E>
                             means, with respect to a disregarded payment entity, any tax law of a foreign country of which the entity is a tax resident (within the meaning of § 1.267A-5(a)(23)(i)) or, in the case of a disregarded payment entity that is a foreign branch, the tax law of the foreign country where the branch is located.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ix) The term 
                            <E T="03">DPE owner</E>
                             has the meaning provided in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, and includes any successor to the corporation described paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (6) 
                            <E T="03">Special rules</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Disregarded payment entity combination rule.</E>
                             For purposes of this paragraph (d), disregarded payment entities for which the relevant foreign tax law is the same (for example, because the entities are tax residents of the same foreign country) are combined and treated as a combined disregarded payment entity under the principles of paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, provided that the entities have the same foreign taxable year and are owned, or interests in which are directly or indirectly owned, either by the same DPE owner or by DPE owners that are members of the same consolidated group. However, this paragraph (d)(6)(i) does not apply with respect to a dual resident corporation treated as a disregarded payment entity pursuant to paragraph (d)(5)(i)(D) of this section. In determining the disregarded payment income or disregarded payment loss of a combined disregarded payment entity, the principles of § 1.1503(d)-5(c)(4)(ii) apply. Thus, for example, if multiple individual disregarded payment entities are treated as a combined disregarded payment entity pursuant to this paragraph (d)(6)(i), then the combined disregarded payment entity has either a single amount of disregarded payment income or a single amount of disregarded payment loss.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Partial ownership of disregarded payment entity.</E>
                             If a DPE owner of a disregarded payment entity indirectly owns through a partnership less than all the interests in that disregarded payment entity, then the rules of this paragraph (d) are applied based on the DPE owner's proportionate interest in the disregarded payment entity. In such a case, as to the DPE owner, only a proportionate share of the disregarded payment entity's items of deduction or income are taken into account in computing disregarded payment income or disregarded payment loss of the entity. In addition, with respect to the disregarded payment loss as so computed, the DPE owner must comply with the certification requirements of paragraph (d)(4) of this section and, upon a triggering event, directly include in gross income an amount equal to the DPL inclusion amount.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Termination of DPL certification period.</E>
                             With respect to a disregarded payment loss of a disregarded payment entity, the DPL certification period does not include any date after the end of the DPE owner's taxable year during which the DPE owner, or a person related to the DPE owner, no longer owns directly or indirectly any of the interests in the disregarded payment entity, or, in the case of a disregarded payment entity that is a foreign branch, substantially all of the assets of the foreign branch. In such a case, the DPE owner ceases to be subject to the rules of paragraph (d) of this section with respect to the disregarded payment loss; thus, for example, after the end of such taxable year the DPE owner is not subject to the certification requirements of paragraph (d)(4)(ii) of this section with respect to the loss, and will not be required to include in gross income the DPL inclusion amount with respect to such loss. The DPL certification period will also terminate with respect to a disregarded payment loss upon a DPE owner's inclusion of the DPL inclusion amount attributable to the disregarded payment loss.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iv) 
                            <E T="03">Agent for a consolidated group.</E>
                             If a DPE owner is a member of a consolidated group, see § 1.1502-77 for agent of the group rules (generally treating the common parent as the agent of its consolidated group).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (v) 
                            <E T="03">Coordination with foreign hybrid mismatch rules.</E>
                             Whether a disregarded payment entity is allowed a deduction under a relevant foreign tax law is determined with regard to hybrid mismatch rules, if any, under the relevant foreign tax law. Thus, for example, if a relevant foreign tax law denies a deduction for an item to prevent a deduction/no-inclusion outcome (that is, a payment that is deductible for the payer jurisdiction and is not included in the ordinary income of the payee), the item is not taken into account for purposes of computing the amount of disregarded payment income or disregarded payment loss. For this purpose, the term 
                            <E T="03">hybrid mismatch rules</E>
                             has the meaning provided in § 1.267A-5(a)(10).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (vi) 
                            <E T="03">DPL inclusion amount and suspended deduction not taken into account for dual consolidated loss purposes.</E>
                             A DPL inclusion amount included in the gross income of a DPE owner, and any allowed amount of a suspended deduction attributable to a DPL inclusion amount, are not taken 
                            <PRTPAGE P="3018"/>
                            into account for purposes of determining the income or dual consolidated loss of the dual resident corporation, or the income or dual consolidated loss attributable to the separate unit, under § 1.1503(d)-5(b) or (c).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (vii) 
                            <E T="03">De minimis rule.</E>
                             A disregarded payment entity will be deemed to have no disregarded payment loss with respect to a foreign taxable year in which the conditions in paragraphs (d)(6)(vii)(A) and (B) of this section are satisfied.
                        </P>
                        <P>(A) The items that compose the disregarded payment loss are incurred in connection with the conduct of an active trade or business (within the meaning of § 1.367(a)-2(d)(2) and (3), but for this purpose treating the disregarded payment entity as the foreign corporation referenced therein) carried on by the disregarded payment entity. For purposes of the preceding sentence, the determination of whether items are incurred in connection with an active trade or business is made under § 1.367(a)-2(d)(5), but for this purpose by treating the property received by the disregarded payment entity pursuant to the arrangement that gave rise to the item (such as cash or the rights to use the intangible property) as the property described in such section.</P>
                        <P>(B) The amount of the disregarded payment loss is less than the lesser of $3 million or 10 percent of the aggregate amount of all the items of the disregarded payment entity for the foreign taxable year that satisfy the condition described in paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(C)(1) of this section. For this purpose, the items of the disregarded payment entity may include, for example, items that are regarded for both U.S. and foreign tax purposes, or foreign law items that if regarded for U.S. tax purposes would not be treated as interest, a structured payment, or a royalty within the meaning of § 1.267A-5(a)(12), (b)(5)(ii), or (a)(16), respectively.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Special rules for filings.</E>
                             * * *
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Anti-avoidance rule</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             Except to the extent provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, if a transaction, series of transactions, plan, or arrangement is engaged in with a view to avoid the purposes of the rules in this section and §§ 1.1503(d)-2 through 1.1503(d)-8, then appropriate adjustments will be made. A transaction, series of transactions, plan, or arrangement (including an arrangement to reflect, or not reflect, items on books and records) is engaged in with a view to avoid the purposes of this section and §§ 1.1503(d)-2 through 1.1503(d)-8 only if it results in a double deduction or similar outcome (for example, by putting an item of deduction or loss that composes (or would compose) a dual consolidated loss to both a domestic use and a foreign use (determined under §§ 1.1503(d)-2 and 1.1503(d)-3, respectively) or putting a foreign law item of deduction or loss that is disregarded for U.S. tax purposes to a foreign use). The appropriate adjustments may include adjustments to disregard the transaction, series of transactions, plan, or arrangement, or adjustments to modify the items that are taken into account for purposes of determining the income or dual consolidated loss of or attributable to a dual resident corporation or a separate unit, or for purposes of determining income or loss of an interest in a transparent entity under § 1.1503(d)-5. See § 1.1503(d)-7(c)(43) through (45) for examples illustrating the application of this paragraph (f).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Exceptions.</E>
                             The anti-avoidance rule in paragraph (f)(1) of this section does not apply to a reduction or elimination of a dual consolidated loss solely by reason of intercompany transactions as described in § 1.1502-13, items of income arising from the ownership of stock and taken into account under § 1.1503(d)-5(b)(1) or (c)(4)(iv), or the attribution to a hybrid entity separate unit or an interest in a transparent entity of items that have not been and will not be reflected on the entity's books and records. The anti-avoidance rule in paragraph (f)(1) of this section also does not apply with respect to the application of the dual consolidated loss rules to the GloBE Model Rules, or to cause a foreign use of a dual consolidated loss to occur solely in a period before the taxable year in which such loss was incurred.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT>
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 3.</E>
                         Section 1.1503(d)-3 is amended by:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>1. Revising and republishing paragraph (c)(3).</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>2. Adding paragraph (e)(4).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The revision and addition read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.1503(d)-3</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Foreign use.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(c) * * *</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Deemed ordering rule</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             This paragraph (c)(3) applies if the losses or deductions composing the dual consolidated loss are made available under the laws of a foreign country both in part to offset income or gain that would constitute a foreign use and in part to offset income or gain that would not constitute a foreign use. In such a case, the losses or deductions shall be deemed to be made available to offset the income or gain that does not constitute a foreign use, to the extent of such income or gain, before being considered to be made available to offset the income or gain that does constitute a foreign use. See § 1.1503(d)-7(c)(11) (
                            <E T="03">Example 11</E>
                            ).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Limitation.</E>
                             For purposes of applying this paragraph (c)(3), items of income or gain are taken into account only to the extent such items are or would be taken into account in determining the amount of income or dual consolidated loss under § 1.1503(d)-5(b) or (c). Thus, for example, this paragraph does not apply with respect to items of income or gain that are otherwise disregarded for U.S. tax purposes. But see § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(3)(i), which provides that when applying the principles of this rule for purposes of the disregarded payment loss rules, the only relevant items are those that are or would be taken into account for purposes of determining a disregarded payment loss or disregarded payment income.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(e) * * *</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Exception for disregarded payment losses.</E>
                             Paragraph (e)(1) of this section will not apply so as to deem a foreign use of a disregarded payment loss (within the meaning of § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(5)(ii)(B)).
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 4.</E>
                         Section 1.1503(d)-7 is amended by:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>1. Adding a sentence after the first sentence in paragraph (c)(6)(iii)(B);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>2. Revising the (c)(11) paragraph heading;</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>3. Removing the last sentence in paragraph (c)(11)(i);</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>4. In the first sentence of paragraph (c)(11)(ii), removing the language “§ 1.1503(d)-3(c)(3)” and adding in its place the language “§ 1.1503(d)-3(c)(3)(i)”.</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>5. Adding a sentence after the third sentence in paragraph (c)(23)(ii).</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>6. In paragraph (c)(25)(ii)(B), adding a sentence after the fifth sentence.</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>7. Adding paragraphs (c)(42) through (c)(46).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The revisions and additions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.1503(d)-7</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Examples.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(c) * * *</P>
                        <P>(6) * * *</P>
                        <P>(iii) * * *</P>
                        <P>
                            (B) * * * But see § 1.1503(d)-1(d), which takes into account certain 
                            <PRTPAGE P="3019"/>
                            payments that are otherwise disregarded for purposes of section 1503(d) and the regulations thereunder. * * *
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (11) 
                            <E T="03">Example 11. No foreign use—deemed ordering rule.</E>
                             ***
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(23) * * *</P>
                        <P>(ii) * * * But see § 1.1503(d)-1(d), which takes into account certain payments that are otherwise disregarded for purposes of section 1503(d) and the regulations thereunder. * * *</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(25) * * *</P>
                        <P>(ii) * * *</P>
                        <P>(B) * * * But see § 1.1503(d)-1(d), which takes into account certain payments that are otherwise disregarded for purposes of section 1503(d) and the regulations thereunder. * * *</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (42) 
                            <E T="03">Example 42. Disregarded payment loss rules—triggering event resulting in DPL inclusion amount and suspended deduction—</E>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             P owns DE1X, and DE1X owns FSX. In year 1, DE1X pays $100x to P pursuant to a note. For U.S. tax purposes, the payment is disregarded as a transaction between DE1X and P, but if the payment were regarded it would be interest within the meaning of § 1.267A-5(a)(12). Under Country X tax law, the $100x is interest for which DE1X is allowed a deduction in year 1. In year 1, pursuant to a Country X group relief regime, DE1X's $100x deduction is made available to offset income of FSX. At the end of year 1, DE1X extinguishes the note by repaying the outstanding principal. In year 2, P enters into a licensing arrangement with DE1X pursuant to which P makes a $60x payment to DE1X in each of years 2 and 3. For U.S. tax purposes, the payment is disregarded as a transaction between DE1X and P, but if the payment were regarded it would be a royalty within the meaning of § 1.267A-5(a)(16). Under Country X tax law, the $60x is a royalty and included in the income of DE1X in years 2 and 3.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Result.</E>
                            —(A) 
                            <E T="03">Year 1.</E>
                             Because P owns all of the interests in DE1X, a disregarded entity, P is a DPE owner. See § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(1). In addition, DE1X, a disregarded payment entity with respect to P, incurs a $100x disregarded payment loss with respect to its Country X taxable year for year 1. See § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(5)(i)(A) and (d)(5)(ii)(B). DE1X's $100x deduction being made available to offset income of FSX pursuant to the Country X group relief regime constitutes a foreign use of, and thus a triggering event with respect to, the disregarded payment loss during the DPL certification period. See § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(3)(i) and (d)(5)(iii). As a result, in year 1, P must include in gross income $100x, the DPL inclusion amount with respect to the disregarded payment loss. See § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(1) and (d)(2)(i). The $100x DPL inclusion amount is treated for U.S. tax purposes as ordinary interest income, the source and character of which is determined as if DE1X were a foreign corporation, and the amount were interest income paid by the foreign corporation to P. See § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(2)(iv)(A). The result would be the same if DE1X recognized income in year 1 that was regarded for both U.S. and Country X tax purposes, or if P made payments (other than interest, structured payments, or royalties) to DE1X that were disregarded for U.S. tax purposes but regarded for Country X tax purposes. See § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(3)(i) (describing the application of the principles of the deemed ordering rule in § 1.1503(d)-3(c)(3)).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) 
                            <E T="03">Years 2 and 3.</E>
                             In year 2, P establishes a suspended deduction of $100x related to the year 1 DPL inclusion amount. See § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(1) and (d)(2)(ii). In each of years 2 and 3, DE1X derives $60x of disregarded payment income with respect to its Country X taxable year. See § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(5)(ii)(A). For year 2, P is allowed a $60x deduction with respect to the suspended deduction, and $40x remains suspended. See § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(2)(ii). For year 3, P is allowed a $40x deduction with respect to the suspended deduction. See 
                            <E T="03">id.</E>
                             Thus, in years 2 and 3 P is allowed a $60x deduction and $40x deduction, respectively, with respect to the suspended deduction relating to the year 1 DPL inclusion amount. The deductions are treated as interest deductions the source and character of which are determined in the same manner as the income for the DPL inclusion amount to which they relate. See § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(2)(iv)(B). At the end of year 3, the DPL cumulative register is $20x (that is, the $120x of disregarded payment income for years 2 and 3, less the $100 of DPL cumulative register that is used under § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(2)(ii) in years 2 and 3). See § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(2)(iii).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (43) 
                            <E T="03">Example 43. Income from U.S. business operations to avoid the purposes of the dual consolidated loss rules</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             P owns DE1X. DE1X owns FSX. DE1X and FSX file a consolidated tax return for Country X tax purposes such that deductions and losses of DE1X are available to offset income of FSX. P conducts business operations in the United States that are expected to generate items of income or gain (U.S. business operations). With a view to avoid the purposes of the rules under §§ 1.1503(d)-1 through 1.1503(d)-8 by eliminating what would otherwise be a dual consolidated loss and obtaining a double deduction outcome, P transfers the U.S. business operations to DE1X. But for P's items of income or gain from the U.S. business operations (held indirectly through DE1X), there would be a dual consolidated loss attributable to P's interest in DE1X and a foreign use of that dual consolidated loss (as a result of the Country X consolidation regime). For purposes of determining taxable income under the income tax laws of Country X, items of income, gain, deduction, and loss attributable to a permanent establishment (or similar taxable presence) in another country, which would include the U.S. business operations, are not taken into account.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Result.</E>
                             Because P transferred the U.S. business operations to DE1X with a view to avoid the purposes of the rules under §§ 1.1503(d)-1 through 1.1503(d)-8, and the transfer would otherwise result in a double deduction outcome (that is, in effect putting DE1X's items of deduction or loss that would compose a dual consolidated loss to both a domestic use and a foreign use), the anti-avoidance rule in § 1.1503(d)-1(f)(1) applies. As a result, the income or gain that P takes into account from the U.S. business operations (held indirectly through DE1X) is not taken into account for purposes of determining the amount of income or dual consolidated loss attributable to P's interest in DE1X under § 1.1503(d)-5(c). The result would be the same if, instead of the income tax laws of Country X not taking into account the items of income, gain, deduction, and loss attributable to a permanent establishment (or similar taxable presence) in another country for purposes of determining taxable income, the income tax laws of Country X took such items into account for this purpose but provided a foreign tax credit with respect to taxes paid on the taxable income determined by taking such items into account.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (44) 
                            <E T="03">Example 44. Disallowed interest deductions</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             P owns S. S owns DE1X, a disregarded entity and, thus, is a DPE owner. See § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(1). DE1X owns FSX. DE1X and FSX file a consolidated tax return for Country X tax purposes such that deductions and losses of DE1X are available to offset income of FSX. With a view to avoid the purposes of the rules under §§ 1.1503(d)-1 through 1.1503(d)-8, and obtain a double deduction or similar 
                            <PRTPAGE P="3020"/>
                            outcome, P transfers cash to DE1X in exchange for an interest-bearing note. Under the terms of the note, payments of interest are made in cash or, at the option of DE1X, in stock of S. In year 1, DE1X accrues $100x of interest expense under the note. The taxpayer takes the position that for U.S. tax purposes, the interest expense deductions are disallowed under section 163(l) because DE1X has the option to pay the interest with S stock. Further, because S's interest expense deductions on the note held by P are disallowed, the taxpayer takes the position that P's interest income on the loan is treated as tax-exempt income under the intercompany transaction rules in § 1.1502-13. In year 1, DE1X is allowed a $100x interest expense deduction for Country X tax purposes; the $100x deduction is available to offset FSX's income for Country X tax purposes.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Result.</E>
                             DE1X issued the note to P in exchange for cash with a view to avoid the purposes of §§ 1.1503(d)-1 through 1.1503(d)-8. Moreover, under the taxpayer's position, the issuance would otherwise result in a double deduction or similar outcome (that is, a foreign use of DE1X's $100x interest expense deduction where P does not recognize a corresponding income inclusion for U.S. tax purposes). Accordingly, the anti-avoidance rule in § 1.1503(d)-1(f)(1) applies. As a result, adjustments are made such that the $100x interest expense deduction is treated as a disregarded payment loss of DE1X, a disregarded payment entity. This is the case even though the $100x interest payment is not disregarded for U.S. tax purposes as a transaction between a disregarded entity and its tax owner or between disregarded entities with the same tax owner under § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(5)(ii)(C)(
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ). Because the $100x disregarded payment loss is made available under the Country X consolidation regime to offset income of FSX, a foreign corporation, a foreign use triggering event (within the meaning of § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(3)(i)) occurs. As a result, S includes in income a $100x DPL inclusion amount in year 1 and establishes a suspended deduction of $100x in year 2. See § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(1), (d)(2)(i), and (d)(2)(ii).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (45) 
                            <E T="03">Example 45. Restructuring to avoid the application of the DPL rules</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             P owns DE1X and S. DE1X owns FSX. DE1X and FSX file a consolidated tax return for Country X tax purposes such that deductions and losses of DE1X are available to offset income of FSX. P holds an interest-bearing note issued by DE1X. For U.S. tax purposes, interest accrued and paid on the note is disregarded. For Country X tax purposes, DE1X is allowed a $100x interest expense deduction each year for interest accrued under the note. At the end of year 1, and with a view to avoid the application of the disregarded payment loss rules under § 1.1503(d)-1(d) in year 2, P transfers the note to S. In year 2, DE1X is allowed a $100x interest expense deduction for Country X tax purposes. For U.S. tax purposes, the $100x interest expense deduction in year 2 gives rise to a dual consolidated loss attributable to P's interest in DE1X, a hybrid entity separate unit, and that loss is subject to the domestic use limitation rule of § 1.1503(d)-4(b).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Result.</E>
                             Although P transferred the note to S with a view to avoid the application of the disregarded payment loss rules under § 1.1503(d)-1(d), the anti-avoidance rule in § 1.1503(d)-1(f)(1) does not apply with respect to the transfer. This is because the resulting year 2 $100x dual consolidated loss is subject to the domestic use limitation rule of § 1.1503(d)-4(b) (or the terms of a domestic use agreement, if a domestic use election were to be made) and thus cannot be put to both a domestic use and a foreign use (that is, it does not result in a double deduction or similar outcome). The same result would obtain if, instead of P transferring the note to S at the end of year 1, DE1X extinguished the note at the end of year 1 such that there are no disregarded payments in year 2 and, thus, no double non-taxation outcome.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Alternative facts.</E>
                             The facts are the same as in paragraph (c)(45)(i) of this section, except that P does not transfer the note to S in year 1. Instead, with a view to prevent a foreign use of a disregarded payment loss attributable to DE1X, at the end of year 1 FSX distributes all its property to DE1X in a complete liquidation described in section 332. The anti-avoidance rule in § 1.1503(d)-1(f)(1) does not apply because the disregarded payment loss is not put to a foreign use (that is, there is no double deduction or similar outcome).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (46) 
                            <E T="03">Example 46. Disregarded payment loss rules—scope</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             P owns DE1X. DE1X owns FBZ. FBZ is a foreign branch, within the meaning of § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(5)(iv), located in Country Z. DE1X makes a $10x payment to P, which, under the laws of Country Z, gives rise to a $10x deduction allowable to FBZ. If such payment were regarded for U.S. tax purposes, it would be interest within the meaning of § 1.267A-5(a)(12). In addition, under the laws of Country Z, FBZ is allowed a $60x interest deduction for an accrual or other transaction between FBZ and DE1X, and if such item were regarded for U.S. tax purposes, it would be interest within the meaning of § 1.267A-5(a)(12).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Result.</E>
                             P is a DPE owner because it owns DE1X, a disregarded entity. See § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(1). As such, P determines disregarded payment income or disregarded payment loss of DE1X, a disregarded payment entity described in § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(5)(i)(A), and of FBZ, a disregarded payment entity described in § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(5)(i)(B). See § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(1). The payment from DE1X to P is disregarded for U.S. tax purposes as a transaction between a disregarded entity (DE1X) and its tax owner (P) and therefore satisfies the condition in § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(5)(ii)(C)(
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ). The payment also satisfies the conditions described in § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(5)(ii)(C)(
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) and (
                            <E T="03">3</E>
                            ) because FBZ is allowed a deduction under Country Z law for a payment that, if regarded for U.S. tax purposes, would be interest within the meaning of § 1.267A-5(a)(12). As such, the $10x deduction attributable to the payment from DE1X to P is taken into account in determining whether FBZ has disregarded payment income or a disregarded payment loss under § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(5)(ii)(A) and (B), respectively. The $60x item of deduction allowed to FBZ, however, does not satisfy the condition described in § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(5)(ii)(C)(
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ), because the accrual or other transaction giving rise to the deduction is not between a disregarded entity and its tax owner (here, P), or between disregarded entities with the same tax owner. Accordingly, the $60x item of deduction is not taken into account in determining whether FBZ has disregarded payment income or a disregarded payment loss. The result would be the same with respect to the $60x deduction allowed to FBZ under the laws of Country Z if, instead of P owning FBZ indirectly through DE1X, P owned FBZ directly and the accrual or other transaction giving rise to the deduction is between FBZ and P.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 5.</E>
                         Section 1.1503(d)-8 is amended by:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>1. Revising the section heading; and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>2. Adding paragraphs (b)(9) through (17).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The revision and additions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.1503(d)-8</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Applicability dates.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(b) * * *</P>
                        <P>(9) [Reserved].</P>
                        <P>
                            (10) [Reserved].
                            <PRTPAGE P="3021"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (11) 
                            <E T="03">Disregarded payment loss rules.</E>
                             Section 1.1503(d)-1(d) applies to taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2026. See also § 301.7701-2(e)(10) of this chapter (applicability dates for the entity classification provisions relevant to the disregarded payment loss rules).
                        </P>
                        <P>(12) [Reserved].</P>
                        <P>(13) [Reserved].</P>
                        <P>(14) [Reserved].</P>
                        <P>
                            (15) 
                            <E T="03">Anti-avoidance rule.</E>
                             Section 1.1503(d)-1(f) applies to dual consolidated losses incurred in taxable years ending on or after August 6, 2024, and to disregarded payment losses in taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2026.
                        </P>
                        <P>(16) [Reserved].</P>
                        <P>
                            (17) 
                            <E T="03">Deemed ordering rule.</E>
                             Section 1.1503(d)-3(c)(3) applies to dual consolidated losses incurred in taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2026, and to disregarded payment losses in taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2026. For the application of the deemed ordering rule to dual consolidated losses incurred in taxable years beginning before January 1, 2026, but on or after April 18, 2007, see § 1.1503(d)-3(c)(3) as contained in 26 CFR part 1 revised as of April 1, 2024.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (18) 
                            <E T="03">Exception to mirror legislation rule for disregarded payment losses.</E>
                             Section 1.1503(d)-3(e)(4) applies to taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2026.
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 301—PROCEDURE AND ADMINISTRATION</HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="301">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 6.</E>
                         The authority citation for part 301 is amended by adding an entry for § 301.7701-2 to read as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <STARS/>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>Section 301.7701-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 7701.</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="301">
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 7.</E>
                         Section 301.7701-2 is amended by:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>1. In the last sentence of paragraph (a), removing the language “(vi)” and adding in its place the language “(vii)”;</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>2. Adding paragraph (c)(2)(vii); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>3. Adding paragraph (e)(10).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The additions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 301.7701-2 </SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Business entities; definitions.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(c) * * *</P>
                        <P>(2) * * *</P>
                        <P>
                            (vii) 
                            <E T="03">Special rules for certain disregarded payments</E>
                            —(A) 
                            <E T="03">Disregarded payment loss rules.</E>
                             To the extent provided in § 1.1503(d)-1(d) of this chapter, certain payments involving a business entity that, under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section is otherwise disregarded as an entity separate from its owner, are in effect taken into account as if the entity were regarded and the deduction was denied, and therefore give rise to an income inclusion, and corresponding suspended deduction, to the entity's owner.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) 
                            <E T="03">Non-application of the sixty-month limitation.</E>
                             If an eligible entity that is disregarded as an entity separate from its owner would become a disregarded payment entity (within the meaning of § 1.1503(d)-1(d)(5)(i)(A) of this chapter) when this paragraph (c)(2)(vii) applies, the sixty-month limitation under § 301.7701-3(c)(1)(iv) does not apply with respect to an election by such eligible entity to change its classification to an association effective before January 1, 2026 (such that it would not become a disregarded payment entity).
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(e) * * *</P>
                        <P>(10) Paragraph (c)(2)(vii) of this section (special rules for certain disregarded payments) applies to taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2026, except that paragraph (c)(2)(vii)(B) of this section (non-application of sixty-month limitation) applies as of August 6, 2024.</P>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Douglas W. O'Donnell, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Commissioner.</TITLE>
                    <DATED>Approved: January 2, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Aviva R. Aron-Dine,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Treasury (Tax Policy).</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00318 Filed 1-10-25; 11:15 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4830-01-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF LABOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Occupational Safety and Health Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>29 CFR Part 1992</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number: OSHA-2022-0005]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1218-AD37</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Procedures for the Handling of Retaliation Complaints Under the Anti-Money Laundering Act of 2020 (AMLA)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Labor.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Interim final rule; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This document provides the interim final text of regulations governing the anti-retaliation provisions of the Anti-Money Laundering Act of 2020 (AMLA or the Act). This rule establishes procedures and timeframes for the handling of retaliation complaints under AMLA, including procedures and timeframes for complaints to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), investigations by OSHA, appeals of OSHA determinations to an administrative law judge (ALJ) for a hearing de novo, hearings by ALJs, review of ALJ decisions by the Administrative Review Board (ARB) (acting on behalf of the Secretary of Labor (Secretary)), and judicial review of the Secretary's final decision. It also sets forth the Secretary's interpretations of the AMLA anti-retaliation provision on certain matters.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This interim final rule is effective on January 14, 2025. Comments and additional materials must be submitted (post-marked, sent or received) by March 17, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments by the following method:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Electronically:</E>
                         You may submit comments and attachments electronically at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         which is the Federal eRulemaking Portal. Follow the instructions online for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         To read or download comments or other material in the docket, go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                        . Documents in the docket are listed in the 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         index; however, some information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         copyrighted material) is not publicly available to read or download through the website. All submissions, including copyrighted material, are available for inspection through the OSHA Docket Office. Contact the OSHA Docket Office at (202) 693-2350 (TTY (877) 889-5627) for assistance in locating docket submissions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions must include the agency name and the OSHA docket number for this 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         document (OSHA-2022-0005). OSHA will place comments and requests to speak, including personal information, in the public docket, which may be available online. Therefore, OSHA cautions interested parties about submitting personal information such as Social Security numbers and birthdates. For further information on submitting comments, see the “Public Participation” heading in the section of this document titled 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Extension of comment period:</E>
                         Submit requests for an extension of the comment period on or before January 29, 2025 to the Directorate of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3022"/>
                        Whistleblower Protection Programs, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Room N-3647, Washington, DC 20210, or by fax to (202) 693-2199.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Philippe Blancáto, Investigative Specialist, Directorate of Whistleblower Protection Programs, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, U.S. Department of Labor, Room N-3647, 200 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20210; telephone (202) 693-2199 (this is not a toll-free number) or email: 
                        <E T="03">osha.dwpp@dol.gov</E>
                        . This 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         publication is available in alternative formats.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On January 1, 2021, Congress enacted the William M. (Mac) Thornberry National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2021, Public Law 116-283, 134 Stat. 3388 (January 1, 2021) which included significant reforms to the U.S. anti-money laundering framework, including the Anti-Money Laundering Act of 2020. That law was, in turn, amended by the Anti-Money Laundering Whistleblower Improvements Act, Sec. 401 of the Consolidated Appropriations Act of 2023, Public Law 117-328, 136 Stat 4459 (enacted December 29, 2022). The anti-retaliation provisions, codified at 31 U.S.C. 5323 (g)(1)-(3) &amp; (5)-(6), and referred to throughout this interim final rule as AMLA, the Act, or the AMLA anti-retaliation provisions, prohibit retaliation by an employer against a whistleblower in the terms and conditions of employment or post-employment in reprisal for the whistleblower having engaged in protected activity.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Protected activity under AMLA includes any lawful act done by a whistleblower in reporting certain information to the Secretary of the Treasury; Attorney General; a Federal regulatory or law enforcement agency; any Member of Congress or any committee of Congress; or the employer of the individual, including as part of the job duties of the individual. The employer includes “a person with supervisory authority over the whistleblower, or such other person working for the employer who has the authority to investigate, discover, or terminate misconduct.” 31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(1)(A)(iv). Protected activity also includes any lawful act done by a whistleblower in initiating, testifying in, or assisting in any investigation or judicial or administrative action of the Department of the Treasury or the Department of Justice based upon or related to such information. 31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(1)(B).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         In addition to the AMLA anti-retaliation provisions, 31 U.S.C. 5323 establishes a whistleblower award program administered by the Department of the Treasury. That award program is not a subject of this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The information must relate to violations of certain enumerated statutes, including violations of 31 U.S.C. chapter 53, subchapter II (31 U.S.C. 5311-5336), chapter 35 or section 4305 or 4312 of title 50, U.S.C., or the Foreign Narcotics Kingpin Designation Act (21 U.S.C. 1901 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), or conspiracies to violate the aforementioned provisions. 31 U.S.C. 5323(a)(5) (as amended). 31 U.S.C. chapter 53, subchapter II is part of the Bank Secrecy Act (BSA). The legislative framework generally referred to as the BSA consists of the Currency and Foreign Transactions Reporting Act of 1970, Title II of Public Law 91-508 (October 26, 1970), as amended by the Uniting and Strengthening America by Providing Appropriate Tools Required to Intercept and Obstruct Terrorism Act of 2001 (USA PATRIOT Act), Public Law 107-56 (October 26, 2001), and other legislation, including the AMLA.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Secretary of the Treasury is authorized to administer the BSA and to require financial institutions to keep records and file reports that “are highly useful in criminal, tax, or regulatory investigations or proceedings” or in the conduct of “intelligence or counterintelligence activities, including analysis, to protect against international terrorism”.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Authority to implement, administer, and enforce compliance with the BSA and its implementing regulations has been delegated to the Director of the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN), a bureau of the Department of the Treasury.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                      
                    <E T="03">See https://www.fincen.gov/resources/statutes-and-regulations/bank-secrecy-act; https://bsaaml.ffiec.gov/</E>
                    . “Chapter 35 of Title 50” refers to the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA), 50 U.S.C. 1701 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     as amended, which authorizes the President to take certain actions, including, but not limited to, the regulation of transactions subject to U.S. jurisdiction involving property in which any foreign country or foreign national has an interest, to deal with any unusual or extraordinary threat, which has its source in whole or in substantial part outside the United States, to the national security, foreign policy, or economy of the United States, if the President has declared a national emergency with respect to such threat. 50 U.S.C. 4305 and 4312 are provisions of the Trading with the Enemy Act (TWEA); section 4305 authorizes during time of war, among other measures, regulation of transactions subject to U.S. jurisdiction involving any property in which a foreign country or foreign national has an interest, while section 4312 authorizes seizure and holding of foreign-owned property in trust during times of war. The Foreign Narcotics Kingpin Designation Act, 21 U.S.C. 1901 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     effectively applies the authorities in the IEEPA, 50 U.S.C. 1701 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     to significant foreign narcotics traffickers and their organizations operating worldwide. 
                    <E T="03">See https://ofac.treasury.gov/</E>
                     (explaining the Office of Foreign Asset Control (OFAC) administration and enforcement of IEEPA, TWEA, and the Foreign Narcotics Kingpin Designation Act).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The BSA is codified at 12 U.S.C. 1829b, 12 U.S.C. 1951-1960, and 31 U.S.C. 5311-5314 and 5316-5336, and includes notes thereto, with implementing regulations at 31 CFR chapter X.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         31 U.S.C. 5311(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Treasury Order 180-01 (Jan. 14, 2020).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Providing information regarding any conduct that the whistleblower reasonably believes constitutes a violation of any law, rule, or regulation subject to the jurisdiction of the Department of the Treasury, or a violation of section 1956, 1957, or 1960 of title 18 (or any rule or regulation under any such provision) is also protected, if the information is provided to a person with supervisory authority over the whistleblower at the employer of the whistleblower; or to another individual working for the employer who the whistleblower reasonably believes has the authority to investigate, discover, or terminate the misconduct; or take any other action to address the misconduct. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(1)(C). 18 U.S.C. 1956 and 1957 are Federal criminal statutes which prohibit money laundering and related financial transactions, while 18 U.S.C. 1960 is a Federal criminal statute that prohibits unlicensed money transmitting businesses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    While the AMLA anti-retaliation provision at 31 U.S.C. 5323(g) provides broad protection against retaliation in employment and post-employment for whistleblowers, it also contains a statutory exclusion from protection under 31 U.S.C. 5323(g) for employees of federally insured depository institutions and credit unions covered by the anti-retaliation provisions of two separate federal statutes. 31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(6) (“This subsection [31 U.S.C. 5323(g)] shall not apply with respect to any employer that is subject to section 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3023"/>
                    33 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 23 1831j) or section 213 or 214 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1790b, 1790c)”).
                </P>
                <P>This interim final rule establishes procedures for the handling of retaliation complaints under the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Summary of Statutory Procedures</HD>
                <P>AMLA incorporates the rules, procedures, and burdens of proof set forth in the Wendell H. Ford Aviation Investment and Reform Act for the 21st Century (AIR21), 49 U.S.C. 42121(b), with some exceptions. 31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(3)(A). Under AMLA, a person who believes that they have been discharged or otherwise retaliated against in violation of the Act (complainant) may file a complaint with the Secretary of Labor (Secretary) within 90 days of the alleged retaliation. 31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(3)(A), incorporating the requirements of 49 U.S.C. 42121(b). Upon receipt of the complaint, the Secretary must provide written notice to each person named in the complaint alleged to have violated the Act (respondent) and to the complainant's employer (which in most cases will be the respondent) of the filing of the complaint, the allegations contained in the complaint, the substance of the evidence supporting the complaint, and the rights afforded the respondent throughout the investigation. 49 U.S.C. 42121(b)(1). The Secretary must then conduct an investigation, within 60 days of receipt of the complaint, after affording the respondent an opportunity to submit a written response and to meet with the investigator to present statements from witnesses. 49 U.S.C. 42121(b)(2)(A).</P>
                <P>The Secretary may conduct an investigation only if the complainant has made a prima facie showing that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint and the respondent has not demonstrated, through clear and convincing evidence, that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of that activity. (See § 1992.104 for a summary of the investigation process) OSHA interprets the prima facie case requirement as allowing the complainant to meet this burden through the information the complainant provides in the complaint as supplemented by interviews of the complainant.</P>
                <P>After investigating a complaint, the Secretary will issue written findings. If, as a result of the investigation, the Secretary finds there is reasonable cause to believe that retaliation has occurred, the Secretary must notify the complainant and respondent of those findings, and issue a preliminary order providing relief including reinstatement with the same seniority status that the individual would have had, but for the retaliation, two times the amount of back pay otherwise owed to the individual, with interest; compensatory damages, which shall include compensation for litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees; and any other appropriate remedy with respect to the conduct that is the subject of the complaint or action, as applicable.</P>
                <P>The complainant and the respondent then have 30 days after the date of receipt of the Secretary's notification in which to file objections to the findings and/or preliminary order and request a hearing before an ALJ. The filing of objections will not stay any reinstatement order. However, under OSHA's regulations, the filing of objections will stay any other remedy in the preliminary order. If a hearing before an ALJ is not requested within 30 days, the preliminary order becomes final and is not subject to judicial review.</P>
                <P>
                    If a hearing is held, the hearing must be conducted “expeditiously.” 49 U.S.C. 42121(b)(2)(A). The Secretary then has 120 days after the conclusion of any hearing to issue a final order, which may provide appropriate relief or deny the complaint. 49 U.S.C. 42121(b)(3)(A). Until the Secretary's final order is issued, the Secretary, the complainant, and the respondent may enter into a settlement agreement that terminates the proceeding. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     Where the Secretary has determined that a violation has occurred, the Secretary will order relief including reinstatement with the same seniority status that the individual would have had, but for the retaliation, two times the amount of back pay otherwise owed to the individual, with interest; compensatory damages, which shall include compensation for litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees; and any other appropriate remedy with respect to the conduct that is the subject of the complaint or action, as applicable. The Secretary also may award a prevailing employer reasonable attorney fees, not exceeding $1,000, if the Secretary finds that the complaint is frivolous or has been brought in bad faith. Within 60 days of the issuance of the final order, any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the Secretary's final order may file an appeal with the United States Court of Appeals for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit where the complainant resided on the date of the violation. 49 U.S.C. 42121(b)(4).
                </P>
                <P>The Act permits the whistleblower to bring an AMLA retaliation claim against the employer in the appropriate United States district court if the Secretary has not issued a final decision within 180 days after the filing of the complaint and there is no showing that the delay is due to the bad faith of the complainant. The court will have jurisdiction over the action without regard to the amount in controversy and either party is entitled to request a trial by jury.</P>
                <P>The Act also states that the rights and remedies provided in the AMLA anti-retaliation provision may not be waived by any agreement, policy form, or condition of employment, including by a predispute arbitration agreement. No predispute arbitration agreement is valid or enforceable, to the extent that the agreement requires arbitration of a dispute arising under the AMLA anti-retaliation provision. 31 U.S.C. 5323(j). Finally, under the Act, nothing in the AMLA anti-retaliation provision shall be deemed to diminish the rights, privileges, or remedies of any whistleblower under any Federal or State law, or under any collective bargaining agreement. 31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(5).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Summary and Discussion of Regulatory Provisions</HD>
                <P>The regulatory provisions in this part have been written and organized to be consistent with other whistleblower regulations promulgated by OSHA to the extent possible within the bounds of the statutory language of the Act. Responsibility for receiving and investigating complaints under the Act has been delegated to the Assistant Secretary for Occupational Safety and Health (Assistant Secretary) by Secretary of Labor's Order No. 08-2020 (May 15, 2020), 85 FR 58393 (September 18, 2020). Hearings on determinations by the Assistant Secretary are conducted by the Office of Administrative Law Judges, and appeals from decisions by ALJs are decided by the ARB. See Secretary of Labor's Order 01-2020 (Feb. 21, 2020), 85 FR 13024-01 (Mar. 6, 2020) (Delegation of Authority and Assignment of Responsibility to the Administrative Review Board).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Subpart A—Complaints, Investigations, Findings, and Preliminary Orders</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 1992.100 Purpose and Scope</HD>
                <P>
                    This section describes the purpose of the regulations in this interim final rule implementing the anti-retaliation provisions of AMLA and provides an overview of the procedures covered by these regulations.
                    <PRTPAGE P="3024"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 1992.101 Definitions</HD>
                <P>
                    This section includes the general definitions of certain terms used in this rule. In particular, 31 U.S.C. 5323(a)(5) defines the statutory term “whistleblower.” 31 U.S.C. 5323(a)(5)(A) provides that the term “whistleblower” means “any individual who provides, or 2 or more individuals acting jointly who provide, information relating to a violation of this subchapter, chapter 35 or section 4305 or 4312 of title 50, the Foreign Narcotics Kingpin Designation Act (21 U.S.C. 1901 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ),” and “for conspiracies to violate the aforementioned provisions to the employer of the individual or individuals, including as part of the job duties of the individual or individuals, or to the Secretary or the Attorney General.” 31 U.S.C. 5323(a)(5)(B) provides a special rule that expands the definition of the term “whistleblower” solely for purposes of the anti-retaliation provisions at 31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(1) to include “any individual who takes, or 2 or more individuals acting jointly who take, an action described in subsection (g)(1)(A).” Thus, a whistleblower who is protected against retaliation under AMLA includes any individual who meets the criteria in 31 U.S.C. 5323(a)(5)(A) and/or 31 U.S.C. 5323(a)(5)(B). To reflect the provisions that define a “whistleblower” that is protected from retaliation, OSHA has defined a “whistleblower” in these rules as “any individual, or two or more individuals acting jointly, who take any of the actions described in § 1992.102(b).” Section 1992.102(b) in turn, as described below, encompasses all of the activities listed in 31 U.S.C. 5323(a)(5) and (g)(1). Consistent with the broad language of the statutory definition of “whistleblower,” which refers to “any individual” or two or more individuals acting jointly (31 U.S.C. 5323(a)(5)), the approach that OSHA has taken in defining covered employees under other whistleblower protection provisions, and applicable ARB case law, the interim final rule includes in the definition of “whistleblower” the explanation that “[a] whistleblower includes an individual presently or formerly working for an employer, an individual applying to work for an employer, or an individual whose employment could be affected by an employer.” See, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     29 CFR 1979.101 (AIR21 definition of employee); 29 CFR 1980.101(g) (Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (SOX) definition of employee). This section also provides that the term “FinCEN” means the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network, a bureau of the Department of the Treasury. As explained below, under these rules FinCEN will receive copies of complaints and OSHA findings in AMLA cases and the Department of the Treasury may participate in AMLA proceedings pending before an ALJ or the ARB.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 1992.102 Obligations and Prohibited Acts</HD>
                <P>
                    This section describes the activities that are protected under the Act and the conduct that is prohibited in response to any protected activities. The Act prohibits an employer from directly or indirectly discharging, demoting, suspending, threatening, blacklisting, harassing or in any other manner discriminating against a whistleblower in the terms and conditions of employment or post-employment because of any lawful act done by the whistleblower to engage in protected activity. Protected activity under AMLA includes any lawful act done by the whistleblower in providing certain information to the Secretary of the Treasury or the Attorney General, a Federal regulatory or law enforcement agency, a Member of Congress or a Committee of Congress, or the employer. The employer includes a person with supervisory authority over the whistleblower or such other person working for the employer who has authority to investigate, discover, or terminate misconduct. The information must relate to a violation of 31 U.S.C. chapter 53, subchapter II (31 U.S.C. 5311-5336, requiring records and reports on monetary instruments transactions); 50 U.S.C. chapter 35 (50 U.S.C. 1701 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     as amended (IEEPA)); 50 U.S.C. 4305 or 4312 (provisions of the Trading with the Enemy Act); 21 U.S.C. 1901 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                     (the Foreign Narcotics Kingpin Designation Act), or conspiracies to violate any of the aforementioned provisions. 31 U.S.C. 5323(a)(5), (g)(1)(A).
                </P>
                <P>Protected activity also includes any lawful act done by the whistleblower in initiating, testifying in, or assisting in any investigation or judicial or administrative action of the Department of the Treasury or the Department of Justice based upon or related to the information described above. 31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(1)(B).</P>
                <P>Finally, protected activity also includes any lawful act done by the whistleblower in providing information regarding any conduct that the whistleblower reasonably believes constitutes a violation of any law, rule, or regulation subject to the jurisdiction of the Department of the Treasury, or a violation of section 1956, 1957, or 1960 of title 18 (or any rule or regulation under any such provision) to a person with supervisory authority over the whistleblower at the employer of the whistleblower; or another individual working for the employer who the whistleblower reasonably believes has the authority to investigate, discover, or terminate the misconduct; or take any other action to address the misconduct. 31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(1)(C).</P>
                <P>However, in keeping with the statutory exclusion for employees of federally insured depository institutions and credit unions at 31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(6), which applies only to the anti-retaliation provisions in 31 U.S.C. 5323(g), this section (29 CFR 1992.102) does not apply with respect to any employer that is subject to section 33 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831j) or section 213 or 214 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1790b, 1790c). 31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(6), which provide separate protections from retaliation for certain categories of whistleblowing for those employees.</P>
                <P>
                    To engage in protected activity under this section, the whistleblower need not show that the conduct complained of is an actual violation of one of the provisions of law listed in the statute. The statute protects the provision of information relating to a violation of a relevant law or a conspiracy to violate a relevant law (31 U.S.C. 5323(a)(5)) and information regarding conduct that the employee reasonably believes constitutes a violation of a relevant law (31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(1)(C)). In providing broad protection for such information, the statutory language reflects Congress's desire to encourage reporting not only to expose but also to prevent money laundering and related violations of law. 
                    <E T="03">Cf. Sylvester</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Parexel Int'l LLC,</E>
                     ARB No. 07-123, 2011 WL 2165854, at *18 (ARB May 25, 2011) (explaining with respect to an analogous SOX whistleblower provision that “[t]he purpose of Section 806, and the SOX in general, is to protect and encourage greater disclosure. Section 806 exists not only to expose existing fraud, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     conduct satisfying the elements of a fraud claim, but also to prevent potential fraud in its earliest stages.”). Indeed, case law under analogous anti-retaliation provisions, such as SOX, makes clear that a report based on a whistleblower's reasonable but mistaken belief that reported conduct could lead to a violation is protected. See 
                    <E T="03">Van Asdale</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Int'l Game Techs.,</E>
                     577 F.3d 989, 1001 (9th Cir. 2009); 
                    <E T="03">Allen</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Admin. Review Bd.,</E>
                     514 F.3d 468, 477 (5th Cir. 2008).
                </P>
                <P>
                    To have a reasonable belief that there is a violation of relevant law, the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3025"/>
                    whistleblower must subjectively believe that the conduct is a violation and that belief must be objectively reasonable. See, 
                    <E T="03">e.g., Rhinehimer</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">U.S. Bancorp. Invs., Inc.,</E>
                     787 F.3d 797, 811 (6th Cir. 2015) (discussing the reasonable belief standard under analogous language in the SOX whistleblower provision, 18 U.S.C. 1514A) (citations omitted); 
                    <E T="03">Harp</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Charter Commc'ns, Inc.,</E>
                     558 F.3d 722, 723 (7th Cir. 2009) (agreeing with First, Fourth, Fifth, and Ninth Circuits that determining reasonable belief under the SOX whistleblower provision requires analysis of the complainant's subjective belief and the objective reasonableness of that belief); 
                    <E T="03">Sylvester,</E>
                     2011 WL 2165854, at *11-12 (same). The requirement that the whistleblower have a subjective, good faith belief is satisfied so long as the whistleblower actually believed that the conduct at issue violated the relevant law or regulation. See 
                    <E T="03">Sylvester,</E>
                     2011 WL 2165854, at *11-12 (citing 
                    <E T="03">Harp,</E>
                     558 F.3d at 723; 
                    <E T="03">Day</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Staples, Inc.,</E>
                     555 F.3d 42, 54 n.10 (1st Cir. 2009)). The objective reasonableness of a whistleblower's belief is typically determined “based on the knowledge available to a reasonable person in the same factual circumstances with the same training and experience as the aggrieved employee.” 
                    <E T="03">Harp,</E>
                     558 F.3d at 723 (quoting
                    <E T="03"> Allen,</E>
                     514 F.3d at 477).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 1992.103 Filing of Retaliation Complaint</HD>
                <P>
                    This section explains the requirements for filing a retaliation complaint under the AMLA anti-retaliation provisions. To be timely, a complaint must be filed within 90 days of when the alleged violation occurs. Under 
                    <E T="03">Delaware State College</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Ricks,</E>
                     449 U.S. 250, 258 (1980), an alleged violation occurs when the retaliatory decision has been made and communicated to the complainant. In other words, the limitations period commences once the individual is aware or reasonably should be aware of the employer's decision to take an adverse action. 
                    <E T="03">EEOC</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">United Parcel Serv., Inc.,</E>
                     249 F.3d 557, 561-62 (6th Cir. 2001). The time for filing a complaint under AMLA may be tolled or equitably modified for reasons warranted by applicable case law. For example, OSHA may consider the time for filing a complaint to be tolled if a complainant mistakenly files a complaint with an agency other than OSHA within 90 days after an alleged adverse action. 
                    <E T="03">Xanthopoulos</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">U.S. Dep't of Labor,</E>
                     991 F.3d 823, 832 (7th Cir. 2021) (affirming ARB's refusal to toll the statute of limitations under SOX and explaining the limited circumstances in which tolling is appropriate for a timely filing in the wrong forum); see also 
                    <E T="03">Martin</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Paragon Foods,</E>
                     ARB No. 2022-0058 (June 8, 2023) (explaining the distinction between equitable estoppel and tolling). Retaliation complaints filed under this section need not be in any particular form. They may be either oral or in writing. If the complainant is unable to file the complaint in English, OSHA will accept the complaint in any language. With the consent of the whistleblower, complaints may be filed by any person on the whistleblower's behalf.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 1992.104 Investigation</HD>
                <P>This section describes the procedures that apply to OSHA's investigation of AMLA retaliation complaints. Paragraph (a) of this section outlines the procedures for notifying the respondent, the employer (if different from the respondent), and FinCEN of the complaint and notifying the respondent of the rights under these regulations. Paragraph (b) describes the procedures for the respondent to submit the response to the complaint. Paragraph (c) specifies that OSHA will request that the parties provide each other with copies of their submissions to OSHA during the investigation and that, if a party does not provide such copies, OSHA generally will do so at a time permitting the other party an opportunity to respond to those submissions. Before providing such materials, OSHA will redact them consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a and other applicable confidentiality laws. Paragraph (d) of this section discusses confidentiality of information provided during investigations.</P>
                <P>
                    Paragraph (e) of this section sets forth the applicable burdens of proof. AMLA incorporates the burdens of proof in AIR21. 31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(3)(A), incorporating the burdens of proof in 49 U.S.C. 42121(b). Thus, in order for OSHA to conduct an investigation, AMLA requires that a complainant make an initial prima facie showing that a protected activity was “a contributing factor” in the adverse action alleged in the complaint, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     that the protected activity, alone or in combination with other factors, affected in some way the outcome of the employer's decision. The complainant will be considered to have met the required burden for OSHA to commence an investigation if the complaint on its face, supplemented as appropriate through interviews of the complainant, alleges the existence of facts and either direct or circumstantial evidence to meet the required showing. The complainant's burden at this stage may be satisfied, for example, if the complainant shows that the adverse action took place shortly after the protected activity.
                </P>
                <P>
                    If the complainant does not make the required prima facie showing, the investigation must be discontinued and the complaint dismissed. See 
                    <E T="03">Trimmer</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">U.S. Dep't of Labor,</E>
                     174 F.3d 1098, 1101 (10th Cir. 1999) (noting that the burden-shifting framework of the Energy Reorganization Act of 1974, as amended, (ERA) which is the same as that under AMLA, serves a “gatekeeping function” intended to “stem[] frivolous complaints”). Even in cases where the complainant successfully makes a prima facie showing, the investigation must be discontinued if the employer demonstrates, by clear and convincing evidence, that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of the protected activity. Thus, OSHA must dismiss the complaint and not investigate further if either: (1) the complainant fails to make the prima facie showing that protected activity was a contributing factor in the alleged adverse action; or (2) the employer rebuts that showing by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action absent the protected activity.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Assuming that an investigation proceeds beyond the gatekeeping phase, the statute requires OSHA to determine whether there is reasonable cause to believe that protected activity was a contributing factor in the alleged adverse action. A contributing factor is “any factor which, alone or in connection with other factors, tends to affect in any way the outcome of the decision.” 
                    <E T="03">Wiest</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Tyco Elec. Corp.,</E>
                     812 F.3d 319, 330 (3d Cir. 2016) (discussing “contributing factor standard” under SOX); 
                    <E T="03">Feldman</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Law Enforcement Assocs. Corp.,</E>
                     752 F.3d 339, 348 (4th Cir. 2014) (same); 
                    <E T="03">Lockheed Martin Corp.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Admin. Review Bd.,</E>
                     717 F.3d 1121, 1136 (10th Cir. 2013) (same). A conclusion that protected activity was a contributing factor in an adverse action can be based on direct evidence or circumstantial evidence “such as the temporal proximity between the protected activity and the adverse action, indications of pretext such as inconsistent application of policies and shifting explanations, antagonism or hostility toward protected activity, the relation between the discipline and the protected activity, and the presence [or absence] of intervening events that independently justify” the adverse action. 
                    <E T="03">Hess</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Union Pac. R.R. Co.,</E>
                     898 F.3d 852, 858 (8th Cir. 2018) (quoted source omitted) (discussing the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3026"/>
                    contributing factor standard under the Federal Railroad Safety Act). The evidence must show that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the unfavorable personnel action but the whistleblower does not need to prove that his or her employer acted with “retaliatory intent.” 
                    <E T="03">Murray</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">UBS Securities, LLC,</E>
                     601 U.S. 23, 39 (2024).
                </P>
                <P>
                    If OSHA finds reasonable cause to believe that the alleged protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action, OSHA may not order relief if the employer demonstrates by “clear and convincing evidence” that it would have taken the same action in the absence of the protected activity. See 49 U.S.C. 42121(b)(2)(B)(iv). The “clear and convincing evidence” standard is a higher burden of proof than a “preponderance of the evidence” standard. Clear and convincing evidence is evidence indicating that the thing to be proved is highly probable or reasonably certain. 
                    <E T="03">Clarke</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Navajo Express,</E>
                     ARB No. 09-114, 2011 WL 2614326, at *3 (ARB June 29, 2011).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Paragraph (f) describes the procedures OSHA will follow prior to the issuance of findings and a preliminary order when OSHA has reasonable cause to believe that a violation has occurred and reinstatement is required. Their purpose is to ensure compliance with the Due Process Clause of the Fifth Amendment, as interpreted by the Supreme Court in 
                    <E T="03">Brock</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Roadway Express, Inc.,</E>
                     481 U.S. 252 (1987) (requiring OSHA to give a Surface Transportation Assistance Act respondent the opportunity to review the substance of the evidence and respond prior to ordering preliminary reinstatement).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 1992.105 Issuance of Findings and Preliminary Orders</HD>
                <P>This section provides that, on the basis of information obtained in the investigation, the Assistant Secretary will issue, within 60 days of the filing of a complaint, written findings regarding whether or not there is reasonable cause to believe that the complaint has merit. If the findings are that there is reasonable cause to believe that the complaint has merit, the Assistant Secretary will order reinstatement with the same seniority status that the complainant would have had, but for the retaliation; double back pay with interest; and compensatory damages, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees, as well as any other appropriate remedy for the retaliation, as applicable. The findings and, where appropriate, preliminary order, will also advise the parties of their right to file objections to the findings of the Assistant Secretary and to request a hearing. The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order, will also advise the respondent of the right to request an award of attorney fees not exceeding a total of $1,000 from the ALJ, regardless of whether the respondent has filed objections, if the respondent alleges that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith. If no objections are filed within 30 days of receipt of the findings, the findings and any preliminary order of the Assistant Secretary become the final decision and order of the Secretary. If objections are timely filed, any order of preliminary reinstatement will take effect, but the remaining provisions of the order will not take effect until administrative proceedings are completed.</P>
                <P>
                    The remedies provided under AMLA aim to make the complainant whole by restoring the complainant to the position that the complainant would have occupied absent the retaliation and to counteract the chilling effect of retaliation on protected whistleblowing in the complainant's workplace. The back pay, benefits, and other remedies appropriate in each case will depend on the individual facts of the case and the evidence submitted, and the complainant's interim earnings must be taken into account in determining the appropriate back pay award. When there is evidence to determine these figures, a back pay award under AMLA might include, for example, amounts that the complainant would have earned in commissions, bonuses, overtime, or raises had the complainant not been discharged in retaliation for engaging in protected activity under AMLA. Lost benefits may also be included in a back pay award under AMLA when there is evidence to support an award for lost benefits. Such benefits might include amounts that the employer would have contributed to a 401(k) plan, insurance plan, profit-sharing plan, or retirement plan on the complainant's behalf had the complainant not been discharged in retaliation for engaging in protected activity under AMLA. Other damages, including non-pecuniary damages, such as damages for emotional distress due to the retaliation, are also available under AMLA. See, 
                    <E T="03">e.g., Jones</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Southpeak Interactive Corp. of Del.,</E>
                     777 F.3d 658, 670-71 (4th Cir. 2015) (holding that emotional distress damages are available under an identical remedial provision in SOX); 
                    <E T="03">Halliburton, Inc.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Admin. Review Bd.,</E>
                     771 F.3d 254, 264-66 (5th Cir. 2014) (same). Consistent with the rules under other whistleblower statutes enforced by the Department of Labor, in ordering interest on any back pay award under AMLA, OSHA will compute interest due by compounding daily the Internal Revenue Service interest rate for the underpayment of taxes, which under 26 U.S.C. 6621 generally is the Federal short-term rate plus three percentage points, against back pay. See, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     29 CFR 1980.105(a) (SOX); 29 CFR 1982.105(a) (Federal Railroad Safety Act (FRSA)); 29 CFR 1988.105(a) (Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act (MAP-21)).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Consistent with the rules governing other Department of Labor-enforced whistleblower protection statutes, where appropriate, in ordering back pay, OSHA will require the respondent to submit the appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration (SSA) allocating the back pay to the appropriate periods. See, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     29 CFR 1980.105(a) (SOX); 29 CFR 1982.105(a) (FRSA); 29 CFR 1988.105(a) (MAP-21)).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The statute permits OSHA to preliminarily reinstate whistleblowers to their positions if OSHA finds reasonable cause to believe that they were discharged in violation of AMLA. See 49 U.S.C. 42121(b)(2)(A). When a violation is found, the norm is for OSHA to order immediate preliminary reinstatement. In appropriate circumstances, in lieu of preliminary reinstatement, OSHA may order that the complainant receive the same pay and benefits that the complainant received prior to termination but not actually return to work. Such “economic reinstatement” is akin to an order of front pay and is sometimes employed in cases arising under section 105(c) of the Federal Mine Safety and Health Act of 1977, which protects miners from retaliation. 30 U.S.C. 815(c); see, 
                    <E T="03">e.g., Sec'y of Labor, MSHA</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">North Fork Coal Corp.,</E>
                     33 FMSHRC 589, 2011 WL 1455831, at *4 (FMSHRC Mar. 25, 2011) (explaining economic reinstatement in lieu of temporary reinstatement in the context of section 105(c)). Front pay has been recognized as an appropriate remedy in cases under the whistleblower statutes enforced by OSHA in circumstances where reinstatement would not be appropriate. See, 
                    <E T="03">e.g., Deltek, Inc.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Dep't of Labor, Admin. Rev Bd.,</E>
                     649 Fed. App'x. 320, 333 (4th Cir. 2016) (affirming award of front pay in SOX case due to “pronounced animosity between the parties;” explaining that “front pay `is designed to place the complainant in the identical financial position' that she would have occupied had she remained employed or been reinstated.”); 
                    <E T="03">Continental Airlines, Inc.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Admin. Review Bd.,</E>
                     638 Fed. App'x. 283, 289-90, 2016 WL 97461, at *4 (5th Cir. 2016) 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3027"/>
                    (affirming front pay award under AIR21, and explaining that “front-pay is available when reinstatement is not possible”), aff'g 
                    <E T="03">Luder</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Cont'l Airlines, Inc.,</E>
                     ARB No. 10-026, 2012 WL 376755, at *11 (ARB Jan. 31, 2012); see also 
                    <E T="03">Brown</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Lockheed Martin Corp.,</E>
                     ALJ No. 2008-SOX-00049, 2010 WL 2054426, at *55-56 (ALJ Jan. 15, 2010) (noting that while reinstatement is the “presumptive remedy” under SOX whistleblower provision, front pay may be awarded as a substitute when reinstatement is inappropriate), aff'd 
                    <E T="03">Lockheed Martin Corp.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Admin. Review Bd.,</E>
                     717 F.3d 1121, 1138 (10th Cir. 2013) (noting availability of all relief necessary to make the employee whole in SOX case but remanding for DOL to quantify remedies); Indiana 
                    <E T="03">Michigan Power Co.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">U.S. Dept. of Labor,</E>
                     278 Fed. Appx. 597, 606 (6th Cir. 2008) (affirming front pay award under ERA). Neither an employer nor a whistleblower has a statutory right to choose economic reinstatement. Rather, economic reinstatement is designed to accommodate situations in which evidence establishes to OSHA's satisfaction that immediate reinstatement is inadvisable for some reason, notwithstanding the employer's retaliatory discharge of the whistleblower.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Subpart B—Litigation</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 1992.106 Objections to the Findings and the Preliminary Order and Requests for a Hearing</HD>
                <P>
                    Objections to the findings of the Assistant Secretary must be in writing and must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 18, as applicable, within 30 days of the receipt of the findings. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic transmittal is considered the date of the filing; if the objection is filed in person, by hand-delivery or other means, the objection is filed upon receipt. The filing of objections also is considered a request for a hearing before an ALJ. Although the parties are directed to serve a copy of their objections on the other parties of record, as well as on the OSHA official who issued the findings and order, the Assistant Secretary, and the U.S. Department of Labor's Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards, the failure to serve copies of the objections on the other parties of record does not affect the ALJ's jurisdiction to hear and decide the merits of the case. See 
                    <E T="03">Shirani</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Calvert Cliffs Nuclear Power Plant, Inc.,</E>
                     ARB No. 04-101, 2005 WL 2865915, at *7 (ARB Oct. 31, 2005). OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, to serve them with copies of objections to OSHA's findings.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The timely filing of objections stays all provisions of the preliminary order, except for the portion requiring reinstatement. A respondent may file a motion to stay the Assistant Secretary's preliminary order of reinstatement with the Office of Administrative Law Judges. However, such a motion will be granted only based on exceptional circumstances. The Secretary believes that a stay of the Assistant Secretary's preliminary order of reinstatement under AMLA would be appropriate only where the respondent can establish the necessary criteria for equitable injunctive relief, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     irreparable injury, likelihood of success on the merits, a balancing of possible harms to the parties, and that the public interest favors a stay. If no timely objection to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order is filed, then the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order become the final decision of the Secretary not subject to judicial review.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 1992.107 Hearings</HD>
                <P>This section adopts the rules of practice and procedure for administrative hearings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges, as set forth in 29 CFR part 18, subpart A. This section provides that the hearing is to commence expeditiously, except upon a showing of good cause or unless otherwise agreed to by the parties. Hearings will be conducted de novo, on the record. As noted in this section, formal rules of evidence will not apply, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most probative evidence will be applied. The ALJ may exclude evidence that is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 1992.108 Role of Federal Agencies</HD>
                <P>The Assistant Secretary may participate as a party or amicus curiae at any time in the administrative proceedings under AMLA. For example, the Assistant Secretary may exercise discretion to prosecute the case in the administrative proceeding before an ALJ; petition for review of a decision of an ALJ, including a decision based on a settlement agreement between the complainant and the respondent, regardless of whether the Assistant Secretary participated before the ALJ; or participate as amicus curiae before the ALJ or the ARB. Although OSHA anticipates that ordinarily the Assistant Secretary will not participate, the Assistant Secretary may choose to do so in appropriate cases, such as cases involving important or novel legal issues, multiple whistleblowers, alleged violations that appear egregious, or where the interests of justice might require participation by the Assistant Secretary. The Department of the Treasury, if interested in a proceeding, also may participate as amicus curiae at any time in the proceedings.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 1992.109 Decisions and Orders of the Administrative Law Judge</HD>
                <P>
                    This section sets forth the requirements for the content of the decisions and orders of the ALJ, and includes the standard for finding a violation under AMLA. Specifically, because AMLA incorporates the burdens of proof in AIR21, the complainant must demonstrate (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     prove by a preponderance of the evidence) that the protected activity was a “contributing factor” in the adverse action. See 49 U.S.C. 42121(b)(2)(B)(iii); see,
                    <E T="03"> e.g.,</E>
                      
                    <E T="03">Allen,</E>
                     514 F.3d at 475 n.1 (“The term `demonstrates' [under identical burden-shifting scheme in the SOX whistleblower provision] means to prove by a preponderance of the evidence.”). If the whistleblower demonstrates that the alleged protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action, then the employer must demonstrate by “clear and convincing evidence” that it would have taken the same action in the absence of the protected activity. See 49 U.S.C. 42121(b)(2)(B)(iv).
                </P>
                <P>Paragraph (c) of this section further provides that OSHA's determination to dismiss the complaint without an investigation or without a complete investigation under § 1992.104 is not subject to review. Thus, § 1992.109(c) clarifies that OSHA's determinations on whether to proceed with an investigation under AMLA and whether to make particular investigative findings are discretionary decisions not subject to review by the ALJ. The ALJ hears cases de novo and, therefore, as a general matter, may not remand cases to OSHA to conduct an investigation or make further factual findings.</P>
                <P>
                    Paragraph (d) notes the remedies that the ALJ may order under AMLA and, as discussed under § 1992.105 above, provides that interest on any back pay award will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily, and that the respondent will be required to submit appropriate documentation to the SSA allocating any back pay award to the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3028"/>
                    appropriate periods. Paragraph (e) requires that the ALJ's decision be served on all parties to the proceeding, OSHA, and the U.S. Department of Labor's Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards. OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for service of the ALJ's decision on them. Paragraph (e) also provides that any ALJ decision requiring reinstatement or lifting an order of reinstatement by the Assistant Secretary will be effective immediately upon receipt of the decision by the respondent. All other portions of the ALJ's order will be effective 30 days after the date of the decision unless a timely petition for review has been filed with the ARB. If a timely petition for review is not filed with the ARB, the decision of the ALJ becomes the final decision of the Secretary and is not subject to judicial review.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 1992.110 Decisions and Orders of the Administrative Review Board</HD>
                <P>Upon the issuance of the ALJ's decision, the parties have 30 days within which to petition the ARB for review of that decision. The date of the postmark or electronic transmittal is considered the date of filing of the petition; if the petition is filed in person, by hand delivery, or other means, the petition is considered filed upon receipt.</P>
                <P>
                    The appeal provisions in this part provide that an appeal to the ARB is only accepted at the discretion of the ARB. The parties should identify with some specificity in their petitions for review the legal conclusions or orders to which they object, or the objections may be deemed waived. Simply attaching the order objected to will not suffice for a petition for review. The ARB has 30 days to decide whether to grant the petition for review. If the ARB does not grant the petition, the decision of the ALJ becomes the final decision of the Secretary. If a timely petition for review is filed with the ARB, any relief ordered by the ALJ, except for that portion ordering reinstatement, is inoperative while the matter is pending before the ARB. When the ARB accepts a petition for review, the ALJ's factual determinations will be reviewed under the substantial evidence standard, while questions of law will be reviewed de novo. 
                    <E T="03">Sylvester,</E>
                     2011 WL 2165854, at *6.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This section also provides that, based on exceptional circumstances, the ARB may grant a motion to stay an ALJ's preliminary order of reinstatement under AMLA (which otherwise would be effective immediately), while the ARB reviews the order. The Secretary believes that a stay of an ALJ's preliminary order of reinstatement under AMLA would be appropriate only where the respondent can establish the necessary criteria for equitable injunctive relief, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     irreparable injury, likelihood of success on the merits, a balancing of possible harms to the parties, and that the public interest favors a stay.
                </P>
                <P>If the ARB concludes that the respondent has violated the law, it will issue an order providing relief. The order will require, where appropriate: reinstatement with the same seniority status that the complainant would have had, but for the retaliation; double back pay with interest; and compensatory damages, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees, as well as any other appropriate remedy for the retaliation, as applicable. Interest on any back pay award will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily, and the respondent will be required to submit appropriate documentation to the SSA allocating any back pay award to the appropriate periods. If the ARB determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ARB determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ARB may award to the respondent a reasonable attorney fee, not exceeding a total of $1,000.</P>
                <P>The decision of the ARB is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary of Labor. See Secretary of Labor's Order, 01-2020 (Feb. 21, 2020), 85 FR 13024-01 (Mar. 6, 2020). As provided in that Secretary's Order, a party may petition the ARB to refer a decision to the Secretary for further review, after which the Secretary may accept review, decline review, or take no action. If no such petition is filed, the ARB's decision shall become the final action of the Department 28 calendar days after the date on which the decision was issued. If such a petition is filed and the ARB declines to refer the case to the Secretary, the ARB's decision shall become final 28 calendar days after the date on which the petition for review was filed. If the ARB refers a decision to the Secretary for further review, and the Secretary takes no action in response to the ARB's referral, or declines to accept the case for review, the ARB's decision shall become final either 28 calendar days from the date of the referral, or on the date on which the Secretary declines review, whichever comes first.</P>
                <P>In the alternative, under the Secretary's Order, at any point during the first 28 calendar days after the date on which an ARB decision was issued, the Secretary may direct the ARB to refer the decision to the Secretary for review. If the Secretary directs the ARB to refer a case to the Secretary or notifies the parties that the case has been accepted for review, the ARB's decision shall not become the final action of the Department and shall have no legal force or effect, unless and until the Secretary adopts the ARB's decision.</P>
                <P>Under the Secretary's Order, any final decision made by the Secretary shall be made solely based on the administrative record, the petition and briefs filed with the ARB, and any amicus briefs permitted by the Secretary. The decision shall be in writing and shall be transmitted to the ARB, which will publish the decision and transmit it to the parties to the case. The Secretary's decision shall constitute final action by the Department and shall serve as binding precedent in all Department proceedings involving the same issue or issues.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Subpart C—Miscellaneous Provisions</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 1992.111 Withdrawal of Complaints, Findings, Objections, and Petitions for Review; Settlement</HD>
                <P>This section provides the procedures and time periods for withdrawal of complaints, withdrawal of findings and/or preliminary orders by the Assistant Secretary, and withdrawal of objections to findings and/or orders. It permits complainants to withdraw their complaints orally, and provides that, in such circumstances, OSHA will confirm a complainant's desire to withdraw in writing. It also provides for approval of settlements at the investigative and adjudicatory stages of the case.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 1992.112 Judicial Review</HD>
                <P>This section describes the statutory provisions for judicial review of decisions of the Secretary and requires, in cases where judicial review is sought, the ARB or the ALJ to submit the record of proceedings to the appropriate court pursuant to the rules of such court.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 1992.113 Judicial Enforcement</HD>
                <P>
                    This section describes the ability of the Secretary, the complainant, and the respondent under AMLA to obtain judicial enforcement of orders and terms of settlement agreements. Through the incorporation of the rules and procedures in AIR21, AMLA authorizes 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3029"/>
                    district courts to enforce orders issued by the Secretary under the provisions of 49 U.S.C. 42121(b). Specifically, 49 U.S.C. 42121(b)(5) provides that “[w]henever any person has failed to comply with an order issued under paragraph (3), the Secretary of Labor may file a civil action in the United States district court for the district in which the violation was found to occur to enforce such order. In actions brought under this paragraph, the district courts shall have jurisdiction to grant all appropriate relief, including injunctive relief and compensatory damages.” 49 U.S.C. 42121(b)(5). Similarly, 49 U.S.C. 42121(b)(6) provides that a person on whose behalf an order was issued “may commence a civil action against the person to whom such order was issued to required compliance with such order” in the appropriate United States district court, which will have jurisdiction without regard to the amount in controversy or the citizenship of the parties, to enforce such order. The Secretary views these provisions as permitting district courts to enforce both final orders of the Secretary and preliminary orders of reinstatement for the same reasons that the Secretary has expressed with regard to SOX, which incorporates the rules and procedures of AIR21 using identical language to that in AMLA. See Procedures for the Handling of Retaliation Complaints Under section 806 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, as Amended, Final Rule, 80 FR 11865-02, 11877 (Mar. 5, 2015) (discussing district court enforcement of preliminary reinstatement orders under SOX); see also Brief for the Intervenor/Plaintiff-Appellee Secretary of Labor, 
                    <E T="03">Solis</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Tenn. Commerce Bancorp, Inc.,</E>
                     No. 10-5602 (6th Cir. 2010); 
                    <E T="03">Solis</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Tenn. Commerce Bancorp, Inc.,</E>
                     713 F. Supp. 2d 701 (M.D. Tenn. 2010); but see 
                    <E T="03">Bechtel</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Competitive Techs., Inc.,</E>
                     448 F.3d 469 (2d Cir. 2006); 
                    <E T="03">Welch</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Cardinal Bankshares Corp.,</E>
                     454 F. Supp. 2d 552 (W.D. Va. 2006), decision vacated, appeal dismissed, No. 06-2295 (4th Cir. Feb. 20, 2008)).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 1992.114 District Court Jurisdiction of Retaliation Complaints</HD>
                <P>This section sets forth AMLA's provisions allowing a complainant to bring an original de novo civil action in district court, alleging the same allegations contained in the complaint filed with OSHA, if there has been no final decision of the Secretary within 180 days after the date of the filing of the complaint. See 31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(2)(B). This section also incorporates the statutory provision that allows for a jury trial at the request of either party in a district court action. See 31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(3)(B). A civil action may not be brought under AMLA more than 6 years after the date on which the violation occurs or more than 3 years after the date on which when facts material to the right of action are known, or reasonably should have been known, by the whistleblower alleging a violation. See 31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(3)(B)(ii).</P>
                <P>This section also requires that, within seven days after filing a complaint in district court, a complainant must provide a file-stamped copy of the complaint to OSHA, the ALJ, or the ARB, depending on where the proceeding is pending. If the ARB has issued a decision that has not yet become final under Secretary of Labor's Order 01-2020, the case is regarded as pending before the ARB for purposes of this section and a copy of any district court complaint should be sent to the ARB. A copy of the district court complaint also must be provided to the OSHA official who issued the findings and/or preliminary order, the Assistant Secretary, and the U.S. Department of Labor's Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards. This provision is necessary to notify the agency that the complainant has opted to file a complaint in district court. This provision is not a substitute for the complainant's compliance with the requirements for service of process of the district court complaint contained in the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure and the local rules of the district court where the complaint is filed.</P>
                <P>
                    Finally, it should be noted that although a complainant may file an action in district court if the Secretary has not issued a final decision within 180 days of the filing of the complaint with OSHA, it is the Department of Labor's position that complainants may not initiate an action in federal court after the Secretary issues a final decision, even if the date of the final decision is more than 180 days after the filing of the complaint. Thus, for example, after the ARB has issued a decision that has become final denying a whistleblower complaint, the complainant no longer may file an action for de novo review in federal district court. See 
                    <E T="03">Soo Line R.R., Inc.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Admin. Review Bd.,</E>
                     990 F.3d 596, 598 n.1 (8th Cir. 2021). The purpose of the “kick-out” provision is to aid the complainant in receiving a prompt decision. That goal is not implicated in a situation where the complainant already has received a final decision from the Secretary. In addition, permitting the complainant to file a new case in district court in such circumstances could conflict with the parties' rights to seek judicial review of the Secretary's final decision in the court of appeals. See 49 U.S.C. 42121(b)(4)(B) (providing that an order with respect to which review could have been obtained in the court of appeals shall not be subject to judicial review in any criminal or other civil proceeding).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Section 1992.115 Special Circumstances; Waiver of Rules</HD>
                <P>This section provides that, in circumstances not contemplated by these rules or for good cause, the ALJ or the ARB may, upon application and notice to the parties, waive any rule as justice or the administration of AMLA requires.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>This rule contains a reporting provision (filing a retaliation complaint, § 1992.103) which was previously reviewed as a statutory requirement of AMLA and approved for use by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), as part of the Information Collection Request (ICR) assigned OMB control number 1218-0236 under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). See Public Law 104-13, 109 Stat. 163 (1995). A non-material change has been submitted to OMB to include the regulatory citation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Administrative Procedure Act</HD>
                <P>
                    The notice and comment rulemaking procedures of section 553 of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) do not apply “to interpretative rules, general statements of policy, or rules of agency organization, procedure, or practice.” 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(A). This interim final rule is a rule of agency procedure, practice, and interpretation within the meaning of that section, because it provides the procedures for the handling of retaliation complaints. Therefore, publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     of a notice of proposed rulemaking and request for comments are not required for this rule. Although this interim final rule is a procedural and interpretative rule not subject to the notice and comment procedures of the APA, OSHA is providing persons interested in this interim final rule 60 days to submit comments. A final rule will be published after OSHA receives and reviews the public's comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Furthermore, because this interim final rule is procedural and interpretative rather than substantive, the normal requirement of 5 U.S.C. 553(d) that a rule be effective 30 days after publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     is inapplicable. 5 U.S.C. 553(d)(2). OSHA also finds good cause to provide 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3030"/>
                    an immediate effective date for this interim final rule. It is in the public interest that the rule be effective immediately so that parties may know what procedures are applicable to pending cases.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Executive Orders 12866: Regulatory Planning and Review, Executive Order 14094: Modernizing Regulatory Review, and Executive Order 13563: Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review; Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995; Executive Order 13132 (Federalism)</HD>
                <P>The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has concluded that this rule is not a “significant regulatory action” within the meaning of Executive Order 12866, as reaffirmed and amended by Executive Orders 14094 and 13563, because it is not likely to: (1) have an annual effect on the economy of $200 million or more or adversely affect in a material way the economy, a sector of the economy, productivity, competition, jobs, the environment, public health or safety, or State, local, Territorial or Tribal governments or communities; (2) create a serious inconsistency or otherwise interfere with an action taken or planned by another agency; (3) materially alter the budgetary impact of entitlements, grants, user fees, or loan programs or the rights and obligations of recipients thereof; or (4) raise novel legal or policy issues for which centralized review would meaningfully further the President's priorities or the principles set forth in Executive Order 12866. Modernizing Regulatory Review, 88 FR 21879, 21879 (Apr. 11, 2023). Therefore, no economic impact analysis under section 6(a)(3)(C) of Executive Order 12866 has been prepared.</P>
                <P>Also, because this rule is not significant under Executive Order 12866, and because no notice of proposed rulemaking has been published, no statement is required under section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995, 2 U.S.C. 1532. In any event, this rulemaking is procedural and interpretative in nature and is thus not expected to have a significant economic impact. Finally, this rule does not have “federalism implications.” The rule does not have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government, and therefore, is not subject to Executive Order 13132 (Federalism).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Regulatory Flexibility Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    The notice and comment rulemaking procedures of section 553 of the APA do not apply “to interpretative rules, general statements of policy, or rules of agency organization, procedure, or practice.” 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(A). Rules that are exempt from APA notice and comment requirements are also exempt from the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA). See Small Business Administration Office of Advocacy, A Guide for Government Agencies: How to Comply with the Regulatory Flexibility Act, at 9; also found at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.sba.gov/advocacy/guide-government-agencies-how-comply-regulatory-flexibility-act.</E>
                     This is a rule of agency procedure, practice, and interpretation within the meaning of 5 U.S.C. 553; and, therefore, the rule is exempt from both the notice and comment rulemaking procedures of the APA and the requirements under the RFA.
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 29 CFR Part 1992</HD>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Anti-money laundering, Employment, Whistleblower.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority and Signature</HD>
                <P>This document was prepared under the direction and control of Douglas L. Parker, Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>Signed at Washington, DC.</P>
                    <NAME>Douglas L. Parker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>Accordingly, for the reasons set out in the preamble, 29 CFR part 1992 is added to read as follows:</P>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="29" PART="1992">
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1992—PROCEDURES FOR THE HANDLING OF RETALIATION COMPLAINTS UNDER THE ANTI-MONEY LAUNDERING ACT (AMLA)</HD>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—Complaints, Investigations, Findings, and Preliminary Orders</HD>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <CONTENTS>
                            <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                            <SECTNO>1992.100 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Purpose and scope.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1992.101 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1992.102 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Obligations and prohibited acts.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1992.103 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Filing of retaliation complaint.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1992.104 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Investigation.</SUBJECT>
                            <SECTNO>1992.105 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Issuance of findings and preliminary orders.</SUBJECT>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Litigation</HD>
                                <SECTNO>1992.106 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Objections to the findings and the preliminary order and requests for a hearing.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1992.107 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Hearings.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1992.108 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Role of Federal agencies.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1992.109 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Decisions and orders of the administrative law judge.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1992.110 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Decisions and orders of the Administrative Review Board.</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Miscellaneous Provisions</HD>
                                <SECTNO>1992.111 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Withdrawal of complaints, findings, objections, and petitions for review; settlement.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1992.112 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Judicial review.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1992.113 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Judicial enforcement.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1992.114 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>District court jurisdiction of retaliation complaints.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1992.115 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Special circumstances; waiver of rules.</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                        </CONTENTS>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P> 31 U.S.C. 5323(a)(5), (g), and (j); Secretary of Labor's Order 08-2020, 85 FR 58393; Secretary of Labor's Order 01-2020, 85 FR 13024-01.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—Complaints, Investigations, Findings, and Preliminary Orders</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1992.100</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Purpose and scope.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) This part sets forth procedures for, and interpretations of the anti-retaliation protections of the Anti-Money Laundering Act of 2020 contained in section 6314 of the William M. (Mac) Thornberry National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2021, Public Law 116-283, 134 Stat. 3388 (January 1, 2021), as amended, codified at 31 U.S.C. 5323 (g)(1)-(3)and (g)(6) and referred to herein as AMLA. AMLA provides for protection from retaliation because a whistleblower has engaged in protected activity by providing information relating to a violation of 31 U.S.C. chapter 53, subchapter II (relating to records and reports on monetary instruments transactions, 31 U.S.C. 5311-5336); chapter 35 or section 4305 or 4312 of title 50; the Foreign Narcotics Kingpin Designation Act (21 U.S.C. 1901 
                                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                                    ), or conspiracies to violate the aforementioned provisions; or initiating, testifying in, or assisting in any investigation or judicial or administrative action of the Department of the Treasury or the Department of Justice based upon or related to such information; or providing information relating to any conduct that the whistleblower reasonably believes constitutes a violation of any law, rule, or regulation subject to the jurisdiction of the Department of the Treasury, or a violation of section 1956, 1957, or 1960 of title 18 (or any rule or regulation under any such provision).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) This part establishes procedures under AMLA for the expeditious handling of retaliation complaints filed by whistleblowers, or by persons acting on their behalf. This part, together with 29 CFR parts 18 and 26, set forth the procedures under AMLA for submission of complaints, investigations, issuance of findings and preliminary orders, 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3031"/>
                                    objections to findings and orders, litigation before administrative law judges (ALJs), post-hearing administrative review, and withdrawals and settlements. In addition, this part provide the Secretary's interpretations of certain statutory provisions.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1992.101</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>As used in this part:</P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">AMLA</E>
                                     means the provisions relating to anti-retaliation of the Anti-Money Laundering Act of 2020 contained in Sec. 6314 of the William M. (Mac) Thornberry National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2021, Public Law 116-283, 134 Stat. 3388 (January 1, 2021), as amended, codified at 31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(1)-(3) and (6).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Assistant Secretary</E>
                                     means the Assistant Secretary of Labor for Occupational Safety and Health or the person or persons to whom the Assistant Secretary delegates authority under AMLA.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Business days</E>
                                     means days other than Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Complainant</E>
                                     means the whistleblower who filed an AMLA complaint or on whose behalf a complaint was filed.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">FinCEN</E>
                                     means the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network, a bureau of the United States Department of the Treasury.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">OSHA</E>
                                     means the Occupational Safety and Health Administration of the United States Department of Labor.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Respondent</E>
                                     means the person named in the complaint who is alleged to have violated AMLA.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Secretary</E>
                                     means the Secretary of Labor or the person or persons to whom the Secretary delegates authority under certain anti-retaliation provisions of AMLA, 31 U.S.C. 5323(g)(1)-(3).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    <E T="03">Whistleblower</E>
                                     means any individual, or two or more individuals acting jointly, who take any of the actions described in § 1992.102(b). A whistleblower includes an individual presently or formerly working for an employer, an individual applying to work for an employer, or an individual whose employment could be affected by an employer.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1992.102</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Obligations and prohibited acts.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) No employer may directly or indirectly discharge, demote, suspend, threaten, blacklist, harass, or in any other manner discriminate against a whistleblower in the terms and conditions of employment or post-employment because of any lawful act done by the whistleblower to engage in any of the activities specified in paragraphs (b)(1), (2) and (3) of this section.</P>
                                <P>(b) A whistleblower is protected against retaliation (as described in paragraph (a) of this section) by an employer for any lawful act done by the whistleblower:</P>
                                <P>
                                    (1) In providing information relating to a violation of 31 U.S.C. chapter 53, subchapter II (Records and Reports on Monetary Instruments Transactions, 31 U.S.C. 5311-5336); chapter 35 or section 4305 or 4312 of title 50; or the Foreign Narcotics Kingpin Designation Act, 21 U.S.C. 1901 
                                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                                     or a conspiracy to violate the aforementioned provisions to:
                                </P>
                                <P>(i) The employer of the whistleblower, including as part of the job duties of the whistleblower. The employer includes a person with supervisory authority over the whistleblower or such other person working for the employer who has authority to investigate, discover, or terminate misconduct;</P>
                                <P>(ii) The Secretary of the Treasury or the Attorney General;</P>
                                <P>(iii) A Federal regulatory or law enforcement agency; or</P>
                                <P>(iv) Any Member of Congress or any committee of Congress;</P>
                                <P>(2) In initiating, testifying in, or assisting in any investigation or judicial or administrative action of the Department of the Treasury or the Department of Justice based upon or related to the information described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; or</P>
                                <P>(3) In providing information regarding any conduct that the whistleblower reasonably believes constitutes a violation of any law, rule, or regulation subject to the jurisdiction of the Department of the Treasury, or a violation of section 1956, 1957, or 1960 of title 18 (or any rule or regulation under any such provision) to:</P>
                                <P>(i) A person with supervisory authority over the whistleblower at the employer of the whistleblower; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) Another individual working for the employer who the whistleblower reasonably believes has the authority to investigate, discover, or terminate the misconduct; or take any other action to address the misconduct.</P>
                                <P>(c) This section shall not apply with respect to any employer that is subject to section 33 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831j) or section 213 or 214 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1790b, 1790c).</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1992.103</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Filing of retaliation complaint.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Who may file.</E>
                                     Any individual who believes that they have been discharged or otherwise retaliated against, or is otherwise aggrieved by an employer in violation of AMLA may file, or have filed by any person on their behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Nature of filing.</E>
                                     No particular form of complaint is required. A complaint may be filed orally or in writing. Oral complaints will be reduced to writing by OSHA. If the complainant is unable to file the complaint in English, OSHA will accept the complaint in any language.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Place of filing.</E>
                                     The complaint should be filed with the OSHA office responsible for enforcement activities in the geographical area where the complainant resides or was employed, but may be filed with any OSHA officer or employee. Addresses and telephone numbers for these officials are set forth in local directories and at the following internet address: 
                                    <E T="03">https://www.osha.gov.</E>
                                     Complaints may also be filed online using OSHA's online complaint form, currently available at 
                                    <E T="03">https://www.osha.gov/whistleblower/WBComplaint.html.</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Time for filing.</E>
                                     Within 90 days after an alleged violation of AMLA occurs, an individual who believes that they have been retaliated against in violation of AMLA must file, or have filed by any person on their behalf, a complaint alleging such retaliation. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, electronic filing or transmittal, telephone call, hand-delivery, delivery to a third-party commercial carrier, or in-person filing at an OSHA office will be considered the date of filing. The time for filing a complaint may be tolled or equitably modified for reasons warranted by applicable case law. For example, OSHA may consider the time for filing a complaint to be tolled if a complainant mistakenly files a complaint with an agency other than OSHA within 90 days after an alleged adverse action.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1992.104</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Investigation.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) Upon receipt of a complaint in the investigating office, OSHA will notify the respondent and the complainant's employer (if different) of the filing of the complaint, of the allegations contained in the complaint, and of the substance of the evidence supporting the complaint. Such materials will be redacted, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also notify the respondent of its rights under paragraphs (b) and (f) of this section and § 1992.110(e). OSHA will provide an unredacted copy of these same materials to the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) and to FinCEN.
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3032"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>(b) Within 20 days of receipt of the notice of the filing of the complaint provided under paragraph (a) of this section, the respondent may submit to OSHA a written statement and any affidavits or documents substantiating its position. Within the same 20 days, the respondent may request a meeting with OSHA to present its position.</P>
                                <P>(c) During the investigation, OSHA will request that each party provide the other parties to the whistleblower complaint with a copy of submissions to OSHA that are pertinent to the whistleblower complaint. Alternatively, if a party does not provide its submissions to OSHA to the other party, OSHA generally will provide them to the other party (or the party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) at a time permitting the other party an opportunity to respond. Before providing such materials to the other party, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a and other applicable confidentiality laws. OSHA will also provide each party with an opportunity to respond to the other party's submissions.</P>
                                <P>(d) Investigations will be conducted in a manner that protects the confidentiality of any person who provides information on a confidential basis, other than the complainant, in accordance with part 70 of this title.</P>
                                <P>(e)(1) A complaint will be dismissed unless the complainant has made a prima facie showing that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.</P>
                                <P>(2) The complaint, supplemented as appropriate by interviews of the complainant, must allege the existence of facts and evidence to make a prima facie showing as follows:</P>
                                <P>(i) The individual engaged in a protected activity;</P>
                                <P>(ii) The respondent knew or suspected that the individual engaged in the protected activity;</P>
                                <P>(iii) The individual suffered an adverse action; and</P>
                                <P>(iv) The circumstances were sufficient to raise the inference that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) For purposes of determining whether to investigate, the complainant will be considered to have met the required burden if the complaint on its face, supplemented as appropriate through interviews of the complainant, alleges the existence of facts and either direct or circumstantial evidence to meet the required showing, 
                                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                     to give rise to an inference that the respondent knew or suspected that the individual engaged in protected activity and that the protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action. The burden may be satisfied, for example, if the complainant shows that the adverse action took place shortly after the protected activity. If the required showing has not been made, the complainant (or the complainant's legal counsel if complainant is represented by counsel) will be so notified and the investigation will not commence.
                                </P>
                                <P>(4) Notwithstanding a finding that a complainant has made a prima facie showing, as required by this section, further investigation of the complaint will not be conducted if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of the complainant's protected activity.</P>
                                <P>(5) If the respondent fails to make a timely response or fails to satisfy its burden set forth in paragraph (e)(4) of this section, OSHA will proceed with the investigation. The investigation will proceed whenever it is necessary or appropriate to confirm or verify the information provided by the respondent.</P>
                                <P>(f) Prior to the issuance of findings and a preliminary order as provided for in § 1992.105, if OSHA has reasonable cause, on the basis of information gathered under the procedures of this part, to believe that the respondent has violated AMLA and that preliminary reinstatement is warranted, OSHA will contact the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if respondent is represented by counsel) to give notice of the substance of the relevant evidence supporting the complainant's allegations as developed during the course of the investigation. This evidence includes any witness statements, which will be redacted to protect the identity of confidential informants where statements were given in confidence; if the statements cannot be redacted without revealing the identity of confidential informants, summaries of their contents will be provided. The complainant will also receive a copy of the materials that must be provided to the respondent under this paragraph (f). Before providing such materials, OSHA will redact them, if necessary, consistent with the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, and other applicable confidentiality laws. The respondent will be given the opportunity to submit a written response, to meet with the investigator, to present statements from witnesses in support of its position, and to present legal and factual arguments. The respondent must present this evidence within 10 business days of OSHA's notification pursuant to this paragraph (f), or as soon thereafter as OSHA and the respondent can agree, if the interests of justice so require.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1992.105</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Issuance of findings and preliminary orders.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) After considering all the relevant information collected during the investigation, the Assistant Secretary will issue, within 60 days of the filing of the complaint, written findings as to whether or not there is reasonable cause to believe that the respondent has retaliated against the complainant in violation of AMLA.</P>
                                <P>(1) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that there is reasonable cause to believe that a violation has occurred, the Assistant Secretary will accompany the findings with a preliminary order providing relief to the complainant. The preliminary order will include, where appropriate: reinstatement with the same seniority status that the complainant would have had, but for the retaliation; two times the amount of back pay otherwise owed to the individual with interest; compensatory damages, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees; and any other appropriate remedy for the retaliation, as applicable. Interest on any back pay award will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. Where appropriate, the preliminary order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate periods.</P>
                                <P>(2) If the Assistant Secretary concludes that a violation has not occurred, the Assistant Secretary will notify the parties of that finding.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will be sent by physical or electronic means that allow OSHA to confirm delivery to all parties of record (or each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel). The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order will inform the parties of the right to object to the findings and/or order and to request a hearing, and of the right of the respondent to request an award of attorney fees not exceeding $1,000 from the ALJ, regardless of whether the respondent has filed objections, if the respondent alleges that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith. The findings and, where appropriate, the preliminary order, also will give the address of the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, or appropriate information regarding filing objections electronically with the Office 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3033"/>
                                    of Administrative Law Judges. The findings also may specify the means, including electronic means, for serving OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards with documents in the administrative litigation as required under this part. At the same time, the Assistant Secretary will file with the Chief Administrative Law Judge a copy of the original complaint and a copy of the findings and/or order.
                                </P>
                                <P>(c) The findings and any preliminary order will be effective 30 days after receipt by the respondent (or the respondent's legal counsel if the respondent is represented by counsel), or on the compliance date set forth in the preliminary order, whichever is later, unless an objection and/or a request for hearing has been timely filed as provided at § 1992.106. However, the portion of any preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and the preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the findings and/or the order.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Litigation</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1992.106</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Objections to the findings and the preliminary order and requests for a hearing.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) Any party who desires review, including judicial review, of the findings and/or preliminary order, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees under AMLA, must file any objections and/or a request for a hearing on the record within 30 days of receipt of the findings and preliminary order pursuant to § 1992.105. The objections and request for hearing and/or request for attorney fees must be in writing and must state whether the objections are to the findings, the preliminary order, or both, and/or whether there should be an award of attorney fees. The date of the postmark, facsimile transmittal, or electronic transmittal is considered the date of filing; if the objection is filed in person, by hand delivery, or other means, the objection is filed upon receipt. Objections must be filed with the Chief Administrative Law Judge, U.S. Department of Labor, in accordance with 29 CFR part 18, and copies of the objections must be served at the same time on the other parties of record, the OSHA official who issued the findings and order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for serving them with copies of the objections.</P>
                                <P>(b) If a timely objection is filed, all provisions of the preliminary order will be stayed, except for the portion requiring preliminary reinstatement, which will not be automatically stayed. The portion of the preliminary order requiring reinstatement will be effective immediately upon the respondent's receipt of the findings and preliminary order, regardless of any objections to the order. The respondent may file a motion with the Office of Administrative Law Judges for a stay of the Assistant Secretary's preliminary order of reinstatement, which shall be granted only based on exceptional circumstances. If no timely objection is filed with respect to either the findings or the preliminary order, the findings and/or the preliminary order will become the final decision of the Secretary, not subject to judicial review.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1992.107</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Hearings.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) Except as provided in this part, proceedings will be conducted in accordance with the rules of practice and procedure for administrative hearings before the Office of Administrative Law Judges, codified at 29 CFR part 18, subpart A.</P>
                                <P>(b) Upon receipt of an objection and request for hearing, the Chief Administrative Law Judge will promptly assign the case to an ALJ who will notify the parties of the day, time, and place of hearing. The hearing is to commence expeditiously, except upon a showing of good cause or unless otherwise agreed to by the parties. Hearings will be conducted de novo on the record. ALJs have broad discretion to limit discovery in order to expedite the hearing.</P>
                                <P>(c) If both the complainant and the respondent object to the findings and/or order, the objections will be consolidated and a single hearing will be conducted.</P>
                                <P>(d) Formal rules of evidence will not apply, but rules or principles designed to assure production of the most probative evidence will be applied. The ALJ may exclude evidence that is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly repetitious.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1992.108</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Role of Federal agencies.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a)(1) The complainant and the respondent will be parties in every proceeding and must be served with copies of all documents in the case. At the Assistant Secretary's discretion, the Assistant Secretary may participate as a party or as amicus curiae at any time at any stage of the proceeding. This right to participate includes, but is not limited to, the right to petition for review of a decision of an ALJ, including a decision approving or rejecting a settlement agreement between the complainant and the respondent, and the right to seek discretionary review of a decision of the Administrative Review Board (ARB) from the Secretary.</P>
                                <P>(2) Parties must send copies of documents to OSHA and to the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, only upon request of OSHA, or when OSHA is participating in the proceeding, or when service on OSHA and the Associate Solicitor is otherwise required by this part. Except as otherwise provided in rules of practice and/or procedure before the OALJ or the ARB, OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for serving them with documents under this section.</P>
                                <P>(b) The Department of the Treasury, if interested in a proceeding, may participate as amicus curiae at any time in the proceeding, at its discretion. At the request of The Department of the Treasury, copies of all documents in a case must be sent to the Department of the Treasury, whether or not it is participating in the proceeding.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1992.109</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Decisions and orders of the administrative law judge.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) The decision of the ALJ will contain appropriate findings, conclusions, and an order pertaining to the remedies provided in paragraph (d) of this section, as appropriate. A determination that a violation has occurred may be made only if the complainant has demonstrated by a preponderance of the evidence that protected activity was a contributing factor in the adverse action alleged in the complaint.</P>
                                <P>(b) If the complainant has satisfied the burden set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, relief may not be ordered if the respondent demonstrates by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same adverse action in the absence of any protected activity.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) Neither OSHA's determination to dismiss a complaint without completing an investigation pursuant to § 1992.104(e) nor OSHA's determination to proceed with an investigation is subject to review by the ALJ, and a complaint may not be remanded for the completion of an investigation or for additional findings on the basis that a determination to dismiss was made in error. Rather, if there otherwise is jurisdiction, the ALJ will hear the case on the merits or dispose of the matter 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3034"/>
                                    without a hearing if the facts and circumstances warrant.
                                </P>
                                <P>(d)(1) If the ALJ concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ALJ will issue an order providing reinstatement with the same seniority status that the complainant would have had, but for the retaliation; two times the amount of back pay otherwise owed to the individual with interest; compensatory damages, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees; and any other appropriate remedy for the retaliation, as applicable. Interest on any back pay award will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate periods.</P>
                                <P>(2) If the ALJ determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ALJ determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ALJ may award to the respondent a reasonable attorney fee, not exceeding $1,000.</P>
                                <P>(e) The decision will be served upon all parties to the proceeding, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for service of decisions on them under this section. Any ALJ's decision requiring reinstatement or lifting an order of reinstatement by the Assistant Secretary will be effective immediately upon receipt of the decision by the respondent. All other portions of the ALJ's order will be effective 30 days after the date of the decision unless a timely petition for review has been filed with the ARB. The decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless a petition for review is timely filed with the ARB and the ARB accepts the petition for review.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1992.110</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Decisions and orders of the Administrative Review Board.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) Any party desiring to seek review, including judicial review, of a decision of the ALJ, or a respondent alleging that the complaint was frivolous or brought in bad faith who seeks an award of attorney fees, must file a written petition for review with the ARB, which has been delegated the authority to act for the Secretary and issue decisions under this part subject to the Secretary's discretionary review. The parties should identify in their petitions for review the legal conclusions or orders to which they object, or the objections may be deemed waived. A petition must be filed within 30 days of the date of the decision of the ALJ. All petitions and documents submitted to the ARB must be filed in accordance with part 26 of this title. The date of the postmark, or electronic transmittal will be considered to be the date of filing; if the petition is filed in person, by hand delivery, or other means, the petition is considered filed upon receipt. The petition must be served on all parties and on the Chief Administrative Law Judge at the time it is filed with the ARB. The petition for review also must be served on the Assistant Secretary and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor. OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for service of petitions for review on them under this section.</P>
                                <P>(b) If a timely petition for review is filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary unless the ARB, within 30 days of the filing of the petition, issues an order notifying the parties that the case has been accepted for review. If a case is accepted for review, the decision of the ALJ will be inoperative unless and until the ARB issues an order adopting the decision, except that any order of reinstatement will be effective while review is conducted by the ARB, unless the ARB grants a motion by the respondent to stay that order based on exceptional circumstances. The ARB will specify the terms under which any briefs are to be filed. The ARB will review the factual determinations of the ALJ under the substantial evidence standard, and will review legal conclusions de novo. If a timely petition for review is not filed, or the ARB denies review, the decision of the ALJ will become the final order of the Secretary. If a timely petition for review is not filed, the resulting final order is not subject to judicial review.</P>
                                <P>(c) The decision of the ARB will be issued within 120 days of the conclusion of the hearing, which will be deemed to be 30 days after the decision of the ALJ, unless a motion for reconsideration has been filed with the ALJ in the interim. In such case, the conclusion of the hearing is the date the motion for reconsideration is ruled upon or 30 days after a new decision is issued. The ARB's decision will be served upon all parties and the Chief Administrative Law Judge. The decision will also be served on the Assistant Secretary and on the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor, even if the Assistant Secretary is not a party. OSHA and the Associate Solicitor for Fair Labor Standards may specify the means, including electronic means, for service of ARB decisions on them under this section.</P>
                                <P>(d) If the ARB concludes that the respondent has violated the law, the ARB will issue an order providing reinstatement with the same seniority status that the complainant would have had, but for the retaliation; two times the amount of back pay otherwise owed to the individual with interest; compensatory damages, including litigation costs, expert witness fees, and reasonable attorney fees; and any other appropriate remedy for the retaliation, as applicable. Interest on any back pay award will be calculated using the interest rate applicable to underpayment of taxes under 26 U.S.C. 6621 and will be compounded daily. The order will also require the respondent to submit appropriate documentation to the Social Security Administration allocating any back pay award to the appropriate periods. Such order is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary (as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 or any successor to that order).</P>
                                <P>(e) If the ARB determines that the respondent has not violated the law, an order will be issued denying the complaint. If, upon the request of the respondent, the ARB determines that a complaint was frivolous or was brought in bad faith, the ARB may award to the respondent a reasonable attorney fee, not exceeding $1,000. An order under this section is subject to discretionary review by the Secretary (as provided in Secretary's Order 01-2020 or any successor to that order).</P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Miscellaneous Provisions</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1992.111</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Withdrawal of complaints, findings, objections, and petitions for review; settlement.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) At any time prior to the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order, a complainant may withdraw the complaint by notifying OSHA, orally or in writing, of the withdrawal. OSHA then will confirm in writing the complainant's desire to withdraw and determine whether to approve the withdrawal. OSHA will notify the parties (or each party's legal counsel if the party is represented by counsel) of the approval of any withdrawal. If the complaint is withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3035"/>
                                    submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. A complainant may not withdraw the complaint after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or preliminary order.
                                </P>
                                <P>(b) The Assistant Secretary may withdraw the findings and/or preliminary order at any time before the expiration of the 30-day objection period described in § 1992.106, provided that no objection has been filed yet, and substitute new findings and/or a new preliminary order. The date of the receipt of the substituted findings or order will begin a new 30-day objection period.</P>
                                <P>(c) At any time before the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order become final, a party may withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order by filing a written withdrawal with the ALJ. If the case is on review with the ARB, a party may withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ's decision at any time before that decision becomes final by filing a written withdrawal with the ARB. The ALJ or the ARB, as the case may be, will determine whether to approve the withdrawal of the objections or the petition for review. If the ALJ approves a request to withdraw objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, and there are no other pending objections, the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order will become the final order of the Secretary. If the ARB approves a request to withdraw a petition for review of an ALJ decision, and there are no other pending petitions for review of that decision, the ALJ's decision will become the final order of the Secretary. If objections or a petition for review are withdrawn because of settlement, the settlement must be submitted for approval in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (d)(1) 
                                    <E T="03">Investigative settlements.</E>
                                     At any time after the filing of a complaint, but before the findings and/or order are objected to or become a final order by operation of law, the case may be settled if OSHA, the complainant, and the respondent agree to a settlement. OSHA's approval of a settlement reached by the respondent and the complainant demonstrates OSHA's consent and achieves the consent of all three parties.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Adjudicatory settlements.</E>
                                     At any time after the filing of objections to the Assistant Secretary's findings and/or order, the case may be settled if the participating parties agree to a settlement and the settlement is approved by the ALJ if the case is before the ALJ, or by the ARB if the ARB has accepted the case for review. If the Secretary has accepted the case for discretionary review, or directed that the case be referred for discretionary review, the settlement must be filed with the ARB for approval by the Secretary. A copy of the settlement will be filed with the ALJ or the ARB, as appropriate.
                                </P>
                                <P>(e) Any settlement approved by OSHA, the ALJ, the ARB or the Secretary will constitute the final order of the Secretary and may be enforced in United States district court pursuant to § 1992.113.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1992.112</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Judicial review.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) Within 60 days after the issuance of a final order for which judicial review is available (including a decision issued by the Secretary upon discretionary review), any person adversely affected or aggrieved by the order may file a petition for review of the order in the United States Court of Appeals for the circuit in which the violation allegedly occurred or the circuit in which the complainant resided on the date of the violation.</P>
                                <P>(b) A final order is not subject to judicial review in any criminal or other civil proceeding.</P>
                                <P>(c) If a timely petition for review is filed, the record of the case, including the record of proceedings before the ALJ, will be transmitted by the ARB or the ALJ, as the case may be, to the appropriate court pursuant to the Federal Rules of Appellate Procedure and the local rules of such court.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1992.113</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Judicial enforcement.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement or a final order issued under AMLA, including one approving a settlement agreement, the Secretary may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the United States district court for the district in which the violation was found to have occurred. Whenever any person has failed to comply with a preliminary order of reinstatement or a final order issued under AMLA, including one approving a settlement agreement, a person on whose behalf the order was issued may file a civil action seeking enforcement of the order in the appropriate United States district court.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1992.114</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> District court jurisdiction of retaliation complaints.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) If the Secretary has not issued a final decision within 180 days of the filing of the complaint, and there is no showing that there has been delay due to the bad faith of the complainant, the complainant may bring an action at law or equity for de novo review in the appropriate district court of the United States, which will have jurisdiction over such an action without regard to the amount in controversy. Either party shall be entitled to a trial by jury.</P>
                                <P>(b) Within seven days after filing a complaint in Federal court, a complainant must file with OSHA, the ALJ, or the ARB, depending on where the proceeding is pending, a copy of the file-stamped complaint. A copy of the complaint also must be served on the OSHA official who issued the findings and/or preliminary order, the Assistant Secretary, and the Associate Solicitor, Division of Fair Labor Standards, U.S. Department of Labor.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1992.115</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Special circumstances; waiver of rules.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>In special circumstances not contemplated by the provisions of this part, or for good cause shown, the ALJ or the ARB on review may, upon application, and after three days' notice to all parties, waive any rule or issue such orders that justice or the administration of AMLA requires.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                    </PART>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00539 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4510-26-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Department of the Army, Corps of Engineers</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>33 CFR Part 234</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket ID: COE-2023-0005]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0710-AB41</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Corps of Engineers Agency Specific Procedures To Implement the Principles, Requirements, and Guidelines for Federal Investments in Water Resources; Correction</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Army, Department of Defense (DoD).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; correction.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (Corps) ACF is correcting a final rule (FR) that was published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on December 19, 2024, with an effective date of January 17, 2025. This rule establishes Agency Specific Procedures (ASPs) for the Corps to implement the Principles, Requirements, and Guidelines (PR&amp;G) for Federal water resources investments. It provides a framework to govern how the Corps would evaluate proposed water resources investments, subject to the PR&amp;G. The rule incorporates recommendations from interested parties. This correction ensures that this final rule will be effective 30 days after 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3036"/>
                        its publication on December 19, 2024, which is January 18, 2025.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This correction is effective January 17, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mr. Milton Boyd, Acting Director for Policy and Legislation, Office of the Assistant Secretary of the Army (Civil Works), 108 Army Pentagon, Washington, DC 20310-0108, at (202) 761-8546 or 
                        <E T="03">milton.w.boyd.civ@army.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>In the final rule published December 19, 2024, there was one technical error that is now identified and corrected in this document. The provisions in this correction document are effective as if they had been included in the document published December 19, 2024. Accordingly, the following corrections are effective January 18, 2025.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Corrections to Regulations</HD>
                <P>
                    In FR Doc. 2024-29652, appearing on page 103992 in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     of Thursday, December 19, 2024, the following correction is made:
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. On page 103992, in the first column, correct the 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     section to read as follows:
                </P>
                <FP>
                    <E T="02">DATES:</E>
                     This rule is effective on January 18, 2025.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jaime A. Pinkham,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Assistant Secretary of the Army, Civil Works.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00617 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3720-58-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Patent and Trademark Office</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>37 CFR Parts 1, 41, and 42</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. PTO-P-2022-0033]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0651-AD64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Setting and Adjusting Patent Fees During Fiscal Year 2025</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>United States Patent and Trademark Office, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; correction.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) is correcting several minor typographical and other nonsubstantive inadvertent errors in the preamble and amendatory instructions to a final rule that appeared in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on November 20, 2024. That final rule set or adjusted patent fees as authorized by the Leahy-Smith America Invents Act (AIA), as amended by the Study of Underrepresented Classes Chasing Engineering and Science Success Act of 2018 (SUCCESS Act). These corrections do not result in any substantive changes to the final rule.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The final rule correction is effective January 19, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        C. Brett Lockard, Director, Forecasting and Analysis Division, at 571-272-0928 or 
                        <E T="03">Christopher.Lockard@uspto.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    On November 20, 2024, the USPTO published a final rule setting or adjusting patent fees as authorized by the AIA, as amended by the SUCCESS Act. See 89 FR 91898. Subsequent to the publication of that final rule, it was discovered that the preamble discussion and several amendatory instructions contained inadvertent errors requiring correction. For example, in the preamble, example 10, which provides guidance for “Adding timely benefit claims under 35 U.S.C. 120 after filing; multiple fees due,” contained an incorrect internal cross-reference to the subject application. The subject application in the example should be “J” and not “I.” Also, in table 20, in the entry for § 1.17(m)(2), for a “Petition to excuse applicant's failure to act within prescribed time limits in an international design application, delay less than or equal to two years,” the table reflected that the final rule fee applicable to a micro entity for this action was “$54,” which is incorrect. The correct fee should be “$452.” In addition, in the regulatory text at § 42.15(e), the description of the fee did not reflect changes made by an intervening final rule published on October 10, 2024, entitled “Expanding Opportunities To Appear Before the Patent Trial and Appeal Board” (89 FR 82172), which revised the terminology used to reference counsel recognized 
                    <E T="03">pro hac vice</E>
                     before the Patent Trial and Appeal Board. This correction updates the description of the fee in paragraph (e) to reflect the revision made by the October 10, 2024 final rule. No changes are being made to the fee amount that was published in the November 20, 2024, final rule. This final rule corrects these errors, as well as other minor typographical errors in the amendatory instructions. These changes are administrative in nature and are intended to provide clarification to impacted entities to avoid any potential confusion.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Rulemaking Considerations</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Administrative Procedure Act</HD>
                <P>
                    This final rule corrects typographical and format errors in a rulemaking setting and adjusting patent fees. The changes in this final rule involve rules of agency practice and procedure and/or interpretive rules and do not require notice-and-comment rulemaking. See 
                    <E T="03">Perez</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Mortg. Bankers Ass'n,</E>
                     135 S.Ct. 1199, 1204 (2015) (explaining that interpretive rules “advise the public of the agency's construction of the statutes and rules which it administers” and do not require notice-and-comment rulemaking when issued or amended); 
                    <E T="03">Cooper Techs. Co.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Dudas,</E>
                     536 F.3d 1330, 1336-37 (Fed. Cir. 2008) (stating that 5 U.S.C. 553, and thus 35 U.S.C. 2(b)(2)(B), do not require notice-and comment rulemaking for “interpretative rules, general statements of policy, or rules of agency organization, procedure, or practice”); and 
                    <E T="03">JEM Broadcasting Co.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">F.C.C.,</E>
                     22 F.3d 320, 328 (D.C. Cir. 1994) (explaining that rules are not legislative because they do not “foreclose effective opportunity to make one's case on the merits”).
                </P>
                <P>Moreover, the Director of the USPTO, pursuant to authority at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) and (d)(1), finds good cause to adopt the changes in this final rule without prior notice and an opportunity for public comment or a 30-day delay in effectiveness, as such procedures would be unnecessary, impracticable, and contrary to the public interest. As discussed above, the changes in this rulemaking involve correcting minor typographical and other nonsubstantive errors in the final rule published on November 20, 2024, which itself underwent notice and comment and a delay in effective date. These changes are administrative in nature and are intended to provide clarification to impacted entities to avoid any potential confusion that could result if these errors are not corrected prior to the effective date of the November 20, 2024, final rule. Therefore, good cause exists to dispense with the requirement for prior notice and an opportunity for public comment and a 30-day delay in effectiveness.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Correction</HD>
                <P>
                    In FR Doc. 2024-26821 appearing on page 91898 in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     of Wednesday, November 20, 2024, the following corrections are made:
                </P>
                <AMDPAR>
                    1. On page 91913, in the first column, 
                    <E T="03">Example 10: Adding timely benefit claims under 35 U.S.C. 120 after filing; multiple fees due</E>
                     is corrected to read as follows:
                </AMDPAR>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Example 10: Adding timely benefit claims under 35 U.S.C. 120 after filing; multiple fees due.</E>
                     Application J is a nonprovisional application filed on July 5, 2029. The ADS present upon J's filing contains a benefit claim under 35 U.S.C. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3037"/>
                    120 to nonprovisional application O filed on February 2, 2021, which is the only benefit claim in the application. J's EBD is February 2, 2021, which is more than six but not more than nine years, earlier than J's actual filing date of July 5, 2029. In this example, the § 1.17(w)(1) fee of $2,700 is due upon J's filing. The applicant pays the fee. Two months after J's filing, the applicant files a second ADS containing the previously added benefit claim to O and a new benefit claim under 35 U.S.C. 120 to nonprovisional application N filed on March 2, 2020. This newly added benefit claim causes J's EBD to become March 2, 2020, which is more than nine years earlier than J's actual filing date of July 5, 2029, and thus prompts the fee in § 1.17(w)(2). Because the fee in § 1.17(w)(1) was previously paid, the previous payment is subtracted from the amount now due under § 1.17(w)(2). Accordingly, the amount due upon filing of the second ADS is $1,300 (the current fee amount of $4,000 set forth in § 1.17(w)(2) less the $2,700 previously paid under § 1.17(w)(1)).
                </P>
                <AMDPAR>2. On page 91971, in table 20, in the third entry for “1.17(m)(2)” (fee code 3784), in the “Final rule fee” column, “$54” is corrected to read “$452”.</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 1.17</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Corrected]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="37" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>3. On page 92004, in the second column:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>a. In amendatory instruction 3.f for § 1.17, “table 21 and 22” is corrected to read “tables 21 and 22”;</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>b. In amendatory instruction 3.h. for § 1.17, “Redesigning tables 19 through 21” is corrected to read “Redesignating tables 19 through 21”. </AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="37" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>4. On page 92004, in the third column, in § 1.17, in paragraph (f), in the first line in note 1 to table 10 to paragraph (f), add “§ ” before “1.36(a)”.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="37" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>5. On page 92005, at the top of the second column, in § 1.17, in paragraph (h), in note 3 to table 14 to paragraph (h), add “§ ” before “1.84”.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.492</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Corrected]</SUBJECT>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="37" PART="1">
                    <AMDPAR>6. On page 92010, in the second column, in amendatory instruction 15 for § 1.492, the instruction “Section 1.492 is amended by revising table 1 in paragraph (a), tables 2 through 5 in paragraphs (b)(2) through (4),” is corrected to read “Section 1.492 is amended by revising table 1 in paragraph (a), tables 3 through 5 in paragraphs (b)(2) through (4),”.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 42.15</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Corrected]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="37" PART="42">
                    <AMDPAR>7. On page 92011, in the third column, in § 42.15, paragraph (e) is corrected to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        (e) Fee for counsel who are not registered practitioners, and who are not seeking automatic recognition pursuant to § 42.10(c)(2), to appear 
                        <E T="03">pro hac vice</E>
                         before the Patent Trial and Appeal Board: $269.00.
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="37" PART="42">
                    <AMDPAR>8. On page 92011, in the third column, in § 42.15, in paragraph (f), “$452” is corrected to read “$452.00”. </AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Derrick L. Brent,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Under Secretary of Commerce for Intellectual Property and Acting Director of the United States Patent and Trademark Office.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00273 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-16-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Patent and Trademark Office</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>37 CFR Parts 2 and 7</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. PTO-T-2022-0034]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0651-AD65</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Setting and Adjusting Trademark Fees During Fiscal Year 2025</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>United States Patent and Trademark Office, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule; correction.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) is correcting nonsubstantive errors in the preamble and regulatory text of a final rule that appeared in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on November 18, 2024. That final rule set or adjusted trademark fees as authorized by the Leahy-Smith America Invents Act (AIA), as amended by the Study of Underrepresented Classes Chasing Engineering and Science Success Act of 2018 (SUCCESS Act). This action is necessary to address potential confusion for impacted entities that could result if these errors are not corrected. These corrections do not result in any substantive changes to the final rule.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The final rule correction is effective January 18, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        C. Brett Lockard, Director, Forecasting and Analysis Division, at 571-272-0928 or 
                        <E T="03">Christopher.Lockard@uspto.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>On November 18, 2024, the USPTO published a final rule setting or adjusting trademark fees as authorized by the AIA, as amended by the SUCCESS Act. See 89 FR 91062. Subsequent to the publication of that final rule, it was discovered that the rule inadvertently omitted applicable cross-references in 37 CFR 2.22(a)(6) and (9) and contained an incorrect cross-reference in § 2.22(a)(8), which referenced a fee that did not apply. This correction amends these sections to provide the correct cross-references.</P>
                <P>Section 2.22 applies to all applications under section 1 and/or 44 of the Trademark Act, which includes not only trademark and service mark applications, but also applications for collective, collective membership, and certification marks. However, the cross-references in § 2.22(a)(6) and (9) referred only to §§ 2.34 and 2.33, respectively, which set out the requirements for trademark and service mark applications. Sections 2.22(a)(6) and (9) each should have included cross-references to §§ 2.44 and 2.45, which set forth the corresponding applicable requirements for collective, collective membership, and certification marks. This omission was unintentional and adding the applicable cross-references is not a substantive change to the final rule.</P>
                <P>As noted in the preamble of the final rule, the USPTO is implementing a single electronic filing option for all section 1 and/or 44 applications, which includes collective and certification marks. Applicants choosing to comply with the base application requirements set forth in § 2.22 will pay the lowest fees under the final fee schedule. Applicants were always subject to the requirements for collective, collective membership, and certification marks at §§ 2.44 and 2.45, as applicable. The addition of these sections in § 2.22(a)(6) and (9) do not impose any new limitations but provide clarity to applicants that the requirements for collective, collective membership, and certification marks apply. This correction amends the preamble and § 2.22(a)(6) and (9) to add the inadvertently omitted cross-references.</P>
                <P>In addition, § 2.22(a)(8) contained an incorrect cross-reference to § 2.6(a)(1)(ii), which is the fee for filing an application under section 66(a) of the Trademark Act and therefore does not apply to applications filed under section 1 and/or 44. This section should have cross-referenced only § 2.6(a)(1)(iii), which provides for the applicable fee. This correction amends the preamble and § 2.22(a)(9) to remove the cross-reference to § 2.6(a)(1)(ii).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Rulemaking Considerations</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Administrative Procedure Act</HD>
                <P>
                    This final rule corrects inadvertent errors in a rulemaking setting and adjusting trademark fees. The changes in this final rule involve rules of agency 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3038"/>
                    practice and procedure and/or interpretive rules and do not require notice-and-comment rulemaking. See 
                    <E T="03">Perez</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Mortg. Bankers Ass'n,</E>
                     135 S.Ct. 1199, 1204 (2015) (explaining that interpretive rules “advise the public of the agency's construction of the statutes and rules which it administers” and do not require notice-and-comment rulemaking when issued or amended); 
                    <E T="03">Cooper Techs. Co.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Dudas,</E>
                     536 F.3d 1330, 1336-37 (Fed. Cir. 2008) (stating that 5 U.S.C. 553, and thus 35 U.S.C. 2(b)(2)(B), do not require notice-and comment rulemaking for “interpretative rules, general statements of policy, or rules of agency organization, procedure, or practice”); and 
                    <E T="03">JEM Broadcasting Co.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">F.C.C.,</E>
                     22 F.3d 320, 328 (D.C. Cir. 1994) (explaining that rules are not legislative because they do not “foreclose effective opportunity to make one's case on the merits”).
                </P>
                <P>Moreover, the Director of the USPTO, pursuant to authority at 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B) and (d)(1), finds good cause to adopt the changes in this final rule without prior notice and an opportunity for public comment or a 30-day delay in effectiveness, as such procedures would be unnecessary, impracticable, and contrary to the public interest. As discussed above, the changes in this rulemaking involve corrections of errors in the final rule published on November 18, 2024, (which itself underwent notice and comment rulemaking and a 30-day delay in effective date) that provide clarity and without imposing any new requirements. The corrections will provide clarity and address potential confusion that could result if these errors are not corrected prior to the effective date of the November 18, 2024, final rule. Therefore, good cause exists to dispense with the requirement for prior notice and an opportunity for public comment and a 30-day delay in effectiveness.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Correction</HD>
                <P>
                    In FR Doc. 2024-26644 appearing on page 91062 in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     of Monday, November 18, 2024, at 89 FR 91062, the following corrections are made:
                </P>
                <AMDPAR>1. On page 91069, in the second column, the 6th, 8th, and 9th bullets are corrected to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <P>• One or more bases for filing that satisfy all the requirements of §§ 2.34, 2.44, or 2.45, as applicable. If more than one basis is set forth, the applicant must comply with the requirements of §§ 2.34, 2.44, or 2.45 for each asserted basis, as applicable;</P>
                <STARS/>
                <P>• A filing fee for each class of goods and/or services, as required by § 2.6(a)(1)(iii);</P>
                <P>• A verified statement that meets the requirements of §§ 2.33, 2.44, or 2.45, as applicable, dated and signed by a person properly authorized to sign on behalf of the owner pursuant to § 2.193(e)(1);</P>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="37" PART="2">
                    <AMDPAR>2. On page 91090, in the third column, in amendatory instruction 3, in § 2.22, paragraphs (a)(6), (8), and (9) are corrected to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 2.22</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>[Corrected]</SUBJECT>
                        <P>(a) * * *</P>
                        <P>(6) One or more bases for filing that satisfy all the requirements of §§ 2.34, 2.44, or 2.45, as applicable. If more than one basis is set forth, the applicant must comply with the requirements of §§ 2.34, 2.44, or 2.45 for each asserted basis, as applicable;</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(8) A filing fee for each class of goods and/or services, as required by § 2.6(a)(1)(iii);</P>
                        <P>(9) A verified statement that meets the requirements of § 2.33, § 2.44, or § 2.45, as applicable, dated and signed by a person properly authorized to sign on behalf of the owner pursuant to § 2.193(e)(1);</P>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Derrick L. Brent,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Under Secretary of Commerce for Intellectual Property and Acting Director of the United States Patent and Trademark Office.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00274 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-16-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">CORPORATION FOR NATIONAL AND COMMUNITY SERVICE</AGENCY>
                <CFR>45 CFR Parts 1230 and 2554</CFR>
                <RIN>RIN 3045-AA93</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Annual Civil Monetary Penalties Inflation Adjustment</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Corporation for National and Community Service.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Corporation for National and Community Service, which operates as AmeriCorps, is updating its regulations to reflect required annual inflation-related increases to the civil monetary penalties under the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (Act) and Office of Management and Budget (OMB) guidance.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective January 14, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Elizabeth Appel, Office of General Counsel, at 
                        <E T="03">eappel@americorps.gov</E>
                         or 202-967-6065.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    AmeriCorps is a Federal agency that engages millions of Americans in service. AmeriCorps members and AmeriCorps Seniors volunteers serve directly with nonprofit organizations to tackle some of our nation's most pressing challenges. For more information, visit 
                    <E T="03">americorps.gov</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    AmeriCorps has two civil monetary penalties in its regulations. A civil monetary penalty under the Act is a penalty, fine, or other sanction that: (1) is for a specific monetary amount as provided by Federal law or has a maximum amount provided for by Federal law; and (2) is assessed or enforced by an agency pursuant to Federal law; and (3) is assessed or enforced pursuant to an administrative proceeding or a civil action in the Federal courts. (
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     28 U.S.C. 2461 note.) A civil monetary penalty does not include a penalty levied for violation of a criminal statute, or fees for services, licenses, permits, or other regulatory review.
                </P>
                <P>The Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (sec. 701 of Pub. L. 114-74) (the “Act”) requires agencies to adjust their civil monetary penalties for inflation annually. This rule updates AmeriCorps' two civil penalties for inflation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Method of Calculation</HD>
                <P>
                    The inflation adjustment for each applicable civil monetary penalty is determined using the percent increase in the Consumer Price Index for all Urban Consumers (CPI-U) for the month of October of the year in which the amount of each civil money penalty was most recently established or modified. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     December 17, 2024, OMB Memo for the Heads of Executive Departments and Agencies, M-25-02, 
                    <E T="03">Implementation of Penalty Inflation Adjustments for 2025, Pursuant to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015.</E>
                     The cost-of-living adjustment multiplier for 2025, based on the CPI-U for the month of October 2024, not seasonally adjusted, is 1.02598.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The agency identified two civil penalties in its regulations: (1) the penalty associated with Restrictions on Lobbying (45 CFR 1230.400) and (2) the penalty associated with the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act (45 CFR 2554.1):
                    <PRTPAGE P="3039"/>
                </P>
                <P>• The civil monetary penalties related to Restrictions on Lobbying (45 CFR 1230.400) range from $24,497 to $244,957. Using the 2025 multiplier, the new range of possible civil monetary penalties is from $25,133 to $251,321.</P>
                <P>• The Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act of 1986 (45 CFR 2554.1) civil monetary penalty has an upper limit of $13,946. Using the 2025 multiplier, the new upper limit of the civil monetary penalty is $14,308.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Summary of Final Rule</HD>
                <P>This final rule adjusts the civil monetary penalty amounts related to Restrictions on Lobbying (45 CFR 1230.400) and the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act of 1986 (45 CFR 2554.1). The range of civil monetary penalties related to Restrictions on Lobbying increase from “$24,497 to $244,957” to “$25,133 to $251,321”. The civil monetary penalties for the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act of 1986 increase from “up to $13,946” to “up to $14,308”.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Procedures</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Determination of Good Cause for Publication Without Notice and Comment and With an Immediate Effective Date</HD>
                <P>Section 553(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553) provides that, when an agency for good cause finds that notice and public comment procedures are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest, then the agency may issue a rule without providing notice and an opportunity for prior public comment. The agency finds that there is good cause to except this rule from the public notice and comment provisions of the APA in this case. Because the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 requires the agency to update its regulations based on a prescribed formula, the agency has no discretion in the nature or amount of the change to the civil monetary penalties to reflect any views or suggestions provided by commenters. Accordingly, it would serve no purpose to provide an opportunity for public comment on this rule prior to promulgation. Thus, providing for notice and public comment is impracticable and unnecessary. Additionally, it would not be possible to meet the deadlines imposed by the Act if we were to first publish a proposed rule, allow the public sufficient time to submit comments, analyze the comments, and publish a final rule. Therefore, notice and comment for these proscribed updates is impracticable and unnecessary.</P>
                <P>
                    Furthermore, the agency finds under section 553(d)(3) of the APA that good cause exists to make this final rule effective immediately upon publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . In the Act, Congress expressly required Federal agencies to publish annual inflation adjustments to civil penalties in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     by January 15 of each year, notwithstanding section 553 of the APA. Under the statutory framework and OMB guidance, the new penalty levels take effect immediately upon the effective date of the adjustment. The statutory deadline does not allow time to delay this rule's effective date beyond publication. Moreover, a delayed effective date would delay application of the new penalty levels, contrary to Congress's intent.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, we are issuing the annual adjustments as a final rule without prior notice or an opportunity for comment and with an effective date immediately upon publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Review Under Procedural Statutes and Executive Orders</HD>
                <P>The agency has determined that making technical changes to the amount of civil monetary penalties in its regulations does not trigger any requirements under procedural statutes and Executive orders that govern rulemaking procedures.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                    <CFR>45 CFR Part 1230</CFR>
                    <P>Government contracts, Grant programs, Loan programs, Lobbying, Penalties, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                    <CFR>45 CFR Part 2554</CFR>
                    <P>Claims, Fraud, Organization and functions (Government agencies), Penalties.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons discussed in the preamble, under the authority of 42 U.S.C. 12651c(c), the Corporation for National and Community Service amends chapters XII and XXV, title 45 of the Code of Federal Regulations as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1230—NEW RESTRICTIONS ON LOBBYING </HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="45" PART="1230">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 1230 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>
                            Section 319, Pub. L. 101-121 (31 U.S.C. 1352); Pub. L. 93-113; 42 U.S.C. 4951, 
                            <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                             42 U.S.C. 5060. 
                        </P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 1230.400</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended] </SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="45" PART="1230">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 1230.400 by removing “$24,497” and “$244,957” wherever they appear and adding in their places “$25,133” and “$251,321”, respectively.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Appendix A to Part 1230 [Amended]</HD>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="45" PART="1230">
                    <AMDPAR>3. Amend appendix A to part 1230 by removing “$24,497” and “$244,957” wherever they appear and adding in their places “$25,133” and “$251,321”, respectively.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 2554—PROGRAM FRAUD CIVIL REMEDIES ACT REGULATIONS </HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="45" PART="2554">
                    <AMDPAR>4. The authority citation for part 2554 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>Pub. L. 99-509, Secs. 6101-6104, 100 Stat. 1874 (31 U.S.C. 3801-3812); 42 U.S.C. 12651c-12651d.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 2554.1</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>[Amended] </SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="45" PART="2554">
                    <AMDPAR>5. Amend § 2554.1 in paragraph (b) by removing “$13,946” and adding in its place “$14,308”.</AMDPAR>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Andrea Grill,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting General Counsel.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00635 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6050-28-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL MARITIME COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <CFR>46 CFR Part 506</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FMC-2024-0024]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 3072-AD03</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Inflation Adjustment of Civil Monetary Penalties</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Maritime Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Federal Maritime Commission (Commission) is publishing this final rule to adjust for inflation the civil monetary penalties assessed or enforced by the Commission, pursuant to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (2015 Act). The 2015 Act requires that agencies adjust and publish their new civil penalties by January 15 each year.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This rule is effective January 15, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        David Eng, Secretary; Phone: (202) 523-5725; Email: 
                        <E T="03">Secretary@fmc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This rule adjusts the civil monetary penalties assessable by the Commission in accordance with the 2015 Act, which became effective on November 2, 2015. Public Law 114-74, section 701. The 2015 Act further amended the Federal 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3040"/>
                    Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990 (FCPIAA), Public Law 101-410, 104 Stat. 890 (codified as amended at 28 U.S.C. 2461 note), in order to improve the effectiveness of civil monetary penalties and to maintain their deterrent effect.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The 2015 Act requires agencies to adjust civil monetary penalties under their jurisdiction by January 15 each year, based on changes in the consumer price index (CPI-U) for the month of October in the previous calendar year. On December 17, 2024, the Office of Management and Budget published guidance stating that based on the CPI-U for October 2024, not seasonally adjusted, the cost-of-living adjustment multiplier for 2025 is 1.02598.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In order to complete the annual adjustment, the Commission must multiply the most recent civil penalty amounts in 46 CFR part 506 by the multiplier, 1.02598.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Office of Management and Budget, M-25-02, Implementation of Penalty Inflation Adjustments for 2025, Pursuant to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015, at 2 (Dec. 17, 2024) (M-25-02).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Rulemaking Analyses and Notices</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Notice and Effective Date</HD>
                <P>
                    Adjustments under the FCPIAA, as amended by the 2015 Act, are not subject to the procedural rulemaking requirements of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) (5 U.S.C. 553), including the requirements for prior notice, an opportunity for comment, and a delay between the issuance of a final rule and its effective date.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The 2015 Act requires that the Commission adjust its civil monetary penalties no later than January 15 of each year.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, Public Law 101-410, section 4(b)(2), 104 Stat. 890 (codified at 28 U.S.C. 2461 note).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Congressional Review Act</HD>
                <P>
                    The rule is not a “major rule” as defined by the Congressional Review Act, codified at 5 U.S.C. 801 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                     The rule will not result in: (1) an annual effect on the economy of $100,000,000 or more; (2) a major increase in costs or prices; or (3) significant adverse effects on competition, employment, investment, productivity, innovation, or the ability of United States-based companies to compete with foreign-based companies. 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act (codified as amended at 5 U.S.C. 601-612) provides that whenever an agency promulgates a final rule after being required to publish a notice of proposed rulemaking under the APA (5 U.S.C. 553), the agency must prepare and make available a final regulatory flexibility analysis describing the impact of the rule on small entities or the head of the agency must certify that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. 5 U.S.C. 604-605. As indicated above, this final rule is not subject to the APA's notice and comment requirements, and the Commission is not required to either conduct a regulatory flexibility analysis or certify that the final rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521) requires an agency to seek and receive approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) before collecting information from the public. 44 U.S.C. 3507. The agency must submit collections of information in rules to OMB in conjunction with the publication of the notice of proposed rulemaking. 5 CFR 1320.11. This final rule does not contain any collection of information, as defined by 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c).</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 46 CFR Part 506</HD>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Claims, Penalties.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <P>For the reasons stated in the preamble, 46 CFR part 506 is amended as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 506—CIVIL MONETARY PENALTY INFLATION ADJUSTMENT </HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="46" PART="506">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 506 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 28 U.S.C. 2461.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                  
                <REGTEXT TITLE="46" PART="506">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Amend §  506.4 by revising paragraph (d) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 506.4</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cost of living adjustments of civil monetary penalties.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Inflation adjustment.</E>
                             Maximum civil monetary penalties within the jurisdiction of the Federal Maritime Commission are adjusted for inflation as follows:
                        </P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="xs116,r50,13,15">
                            <TTITLE>
                                Table 1 to Paragraph (
                                <E T="01">d</E>
                                )
                            </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">United States Code citation</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Civil monetary penalty description</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Maximum
                                    <LI>penalty as of</LI>
                                    <LI>January 15, 2024</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Maximum
                                    <LI>penalty as of</LI>
                                    <LI>January 15, 2025</LI>
                                </CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">46 U.S.C. 42304</ENT>
                                <ENT>Adverse impact on U.S. carriers by foreign shipping practices</ENT>
                                <ENT>$2,559,636</ENT>
                                <ENT>$2,626,135</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">46 U.S.C. 41107(a)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Knowing and Willful violation/Shipping Act of 1984, or Commission regulation or order</ENT>
                                <ENT>73,045</ENT>
                                <ENT>74,943</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">46 U.S.C. 41107(a)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Violation of Shipping Act of 1984, Commission regulation or order, not knowing and willful</ENT>
                                <ENT>14,608</ENT>
                                <ENT>14,988</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">46 U.S.C. 41108(b)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Operating in foreign commerce after tariff suspension</ENT>
                                <ENT>146,092</ENT>
                                <ENT>149,887</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">46 U.S.C. 42104</ENT>
                                <ENT>Failure to provide required reports, etc./Merchant Marine Act of 1920</ENT>
                                <ENT>11,524</ENT>
                                <ENT>11,823</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">46 U.S.C. 42106</ENT>
                                <ENT>Adverse shipping conditions/Merchant Marine Act of 1920</ENT>
                                <ENT>2,304,629</ENT>
                                <ENT>2,364,503</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">46 U.S.C. 42108</ENT>
                                <ENT>Operating after tariff or service contract suspension/Merchant Marine Act of 1920</ENT>
                                <ENT>115,231</ENT>
                                <ENT>118,225</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">46 U.S.C. 44102, 44104</ENT>
                                <ENT>Failure to establish financial responsibility for non-performance of transportation</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    29,108
                                    <LI>971</LI>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    29,864
                                    <LI>996</LI>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">46 U.S.C. 44103, 44104</ENT>
                                <ENT>Failure to establish financial responsibility for death or injury</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    29,108
                                    <LI>971</LI>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    29,864
                                    <LI>996</LI>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">31 U.S.C. 3802(a)(1)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act/making false claim</ENT>
                                <ENT>13,946</ENT>
                                <ENT>14,308</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">31 U.S.C. 3802(a)(2)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act/giving false statement</ENT>
                                <ENT>13,946</ENT>
                                <ENT>14,308</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3041"/>
                    <P>By the Commission.</P>
                    <NAME>David Eng,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00630 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6730-02-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
        <RULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">SURFACE TRANSPORTATION BOARD</AGENCY>
                <CFR>49 CFR Part 1022</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. EP 716 (Sub-No. 10)]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Civil Monetary Penalties—2025 Adjustment</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Surface Transportation Board.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Final rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Surface Transportation Board (Board) is issuing a final rule to implement the annual inflationary adjustment to its civil monetary penalties, pursuant to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This final rule is effective January 14, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Sarah Fancher at (202) 245-0355. If you require an accommodation under the Americans with Disabilities Act, please call (202) 245-0245.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>The Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (2015 Act), enacted as part of the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2015, Public Law 114-74, sec. 701, 129 Stat. 584, 599-601, requires agencies to adjust their civil penalties for inflation annually, beginning on July 1, 2016, and no later than January 15 of every year thereafter. In accordance with the 2015 Act, annual inflation adjustments are to be based on the percent change between the Consumer Price Index for all Urban Consumers (CPI-U) for October of the previous year and the October CPI-U of the year before that. Penalty level adjustments should be rounded to the nearest dollar.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Discussion</HD>
                <P>
                    The statutory definition of civil monetary penalty covers various civil penalty provisions under the Rail (Part A); Motor Carriers, Water Carriers, Brokers, and Freight Forwarders (Part B); and Pipeline Carriers (Part C) provisions of the Interstate Commerce Act, as amended. The Board's civil (and criminal) penalty authority related to rail transportation is codified at 49 U.S.C. 11901-11908. The Board's penalty authority related to motor carriers, water carriers, brokers, and freight forwarders appears at 49 U.S.C. 14901-14916. The Board's penalty authority related to pipeline carriers is codified at 49 U.S.C. 16101-16106.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Board has regulations at 49 CFR part 1022 that codify the method set forth in the 2015 Act for annually adjusting for inflation the civil monetary penalties within the Board's jurisdiction.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The Board also has various criminal penalty authority, enforceable in a federal criminal court. Congress has not, however, authorized federal agencies to adjust statutorily prescribed criminal penalty provisions for inflation, and this rule does not address those provisions.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As set forth in this final rule, the Board is amending 49 CFR part 1022 to make an annual inflation adjustment to the civil monetary penalties in conformance with the requirements of the 2015 Act. The adjusted penalties set forth in the rule will apply only to violations that occur after the effective date of this regulation.</P>
                <P>In accordance with the 2015 Act, the annual adjustment adopted here is calculated by multiplying each current penalty by the cost-of-living adjustment factor of 1.02598, which reflects the percentage change between the October 2024 CPI-U (315.664) and the October 2023 CPI-U (307.671). The table at the end of this decision shows the statutory citation for each civil penalty, a description of the provision, the adjusted statutory civil penalty level for 2024, and the adjusted statutory civil penalty level for 2025.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Final Rule</HD>
                <P>The final rule set forth at the end of this decision is being issued without notice and comment pursuant to the rulemaking provision of the Administrative Procedure Act (APA), 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(B), which does not require that process “when the agency for good cause finds” that public notice and comment are “unnecessary.” Here, Congress has mandated that the agency make an annual inflation adjustment to its civil monetary penalties. The Board has no discretion to set alternative levels of adjusted civil monetary penalties, because the amount of the inflation adjustment must be calculated in accordance with the statutory formula. Given the absence of discretion, the Board has determined that there is good cause to promulgate this rule without soliciting public comment and to make this regulation effective immediately upon publication.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Regulatory Flexibility Statement</HD>
                <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA), as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, 5 U.S.C. 601-612, generally requires an agency to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis of any rule subject to notice and comment rulemaking requirements, unless the agency certifies that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Because the Board has determined that notice and comment are not required under the APA for this rulemaking, the requirements of the RFA do not apply.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Congressional Review Act</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act, 5 U.S.C. 801-808, the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has designated this rule as a non-major rule, as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>This final rule does not contain a new or amended information collection requirement subject to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. 3501-3521.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">It is ordered:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. The Board amends its rules as set forth in this decision. Notice of the final rule will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. This decision is effective on its date of publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>Decided: January 7, 2025.</P>
                <P>By the Board, Board Members Fuchs, Hedlund, Primus, and Schultz. Board Member Primus concurred with a separate expression.</P>
                <FP>BOARD MEMBER PRIMUS, concurring:</FP>
                <P>
                    For the past couple years when the Board adjusted its civil monetary penalties, I wrote separately to express concern about the adequacy of the penalties afforded by statute. 
                    <E T="03">Civ. Monetary Penalties—2024 Adjustment,</E>
                     EP 716 (Sub-No. 9) (STB served Jan. 12, 2024), slip op. at 3 (Member Primus concurring); 
                    <E T="03">Civ. Monetary Penalties—2023 Adjustment,</E>
                     EP 716 (Sub-No. 8) (STB served Jan. 13, 2023), slip op. at 3-4 (Member Primus concurring). My concern remains today. The Board's decision, consistent with the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015, makes minor adjustments to its civil penalties—for example, increasing the penalty in 49 U.S.C. 11901(a) from $9,718 to $9,970. For the reasons I have stated previously, those penalties are unlikely to provide the deterrent effect intended by Congress, and Congress should address this inadequacy.
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 49 CFR Part 1022</HD>
                    <P>
                        Administrative practice and procedures, Brokers, Civil penalties, Freight forwarders, Motor carriers, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3042"/>
                        Pipeline carriers, Rail carriers, Water carriers.
                    </P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Eden Besera,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Clearance Clerk.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, part 1022 of title 49, chapter X, of the Code of Federal Regulations is amended as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1022—CIVIL MONETARY PENALTY INFLATION ADJUSTMENT </HD>
                </PART>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="49" PART="1022">
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 1022 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 5 U.S.C. 551-557; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; 49 U.S.C. 11901, 14901, 14903, 14904, 14905, 14906, 14907, 14908, 14910, 14915, 14916, 16101, 16103.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                </REGTEXT>
                <REGTEXT TITLE="49" PART="1022">
                    <AMDPAR>2. Revise § 1022.4(b) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1022.4</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Cost-of-living adjustments of civil monetary penalties.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(b) The cost-of-living adjustment required by the statute results in the following adjustments to the civil monetary penalties within the jurisdiction of the Board:</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="xs116,r50,13,15">
                            <TTITLE>
                                Table 1 to Paragraph (
                                <E T="01">b</E>
                                )
                            </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">U.S. Code citation</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Civil monetary penalty description</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    2024—
                                    <LI>penalty</LI>
                                    <LI>amount</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">EP 716_9 (2024)</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    2025—
                                    <LI>adjusted penalty</LI>
                                    <LI>amount</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="2">EP 716_10 (2025)</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Rail Carrier</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 11901(a)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Unless otherwise specified, maximum penalty for each knowing violation under this part, and for each day</ENT>
                                <ENT>$9,718</ENT>
                                <ENT>$9,970</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 11901(b)</ENT>
                                <ENT>For each violation under sec. 11124(a)(2) or (b)</ENT>
                                <ENT>973</ENT>
                                <ENT>998</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 11901(b)</ENT>
                                <ENT>For each day violation continues</ENT>
                                <ENT>50</ENT>
                                <ENT>51</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 11901(c)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Maximum penalty for each knowing violation under secs. 10901-10906</ENT>
                                <ENT>9,718</ENT>
                                <ENT>9,970</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 11901(d)</ENT>
                                <ENT>For each violation under sec. 11123 or 11124(a)(1)</ENT>
                                <ENT>193-973</ENT>
                                <ENT>198-998</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 11901(d)</ENT>
                                <ENT>For each day violation continues</ENT>
                                <ENT>97</ENT>
                                <ENT>100</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 11901(e)(1), (4)</ENT>
                                <ENT>For each violation under secs. 11141-11145, for each day</ENT>
                                <ENT>973</ENT>
                                <ENT>998</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 11901(e)(2), (4)</ENT>
                                <ENT>For each violation under sec. 11144(b)(1), for each day</ENT>
                                <ENT>193</ENT>
                                <ENT>198</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 11901(e)(3)-(4)</ENT>
                                <ENT>For each violation of reporting requirements, for each day</ENT>
                                <ENT>193</ENT>
                                <ENT>198</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Motor and Water Carrier</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14901(a)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Minimum penalty for each violation and for each day</ENT>
                                <ENT>1,330</ENT>
                                <ENT>1,365</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14901(a)</ENT>
                                <ENT>For each violation under secs. 13901 or 13902(c)</ENT>
                                <ENT>13,301</ENT>
                                <ENT>13,647</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14901(a)</ENT>
                                <ENT>For each violation related to transportation of passengers</ENT>
                                <ENT>33,252</ENT>
                                <ENT>34,116</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14901(b)</ENT>
                                <ENT>For each violation of the hazardous waste rules under sec. 3001 of the Solid Waste Disposal Act</ENT>
                                <ENT>26,602-53,204</ENT>
                                <ENT>27,293-54,586</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14901(d)(1)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Minimum penalty for each violation of household good regulations, and for each day</ENT>
                                <ENT>1,942</ENT>
                                <ENT>1,992</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14901(d)(2)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Minimum penalty for each instance of transportation of household goods if broker provides estimate without carrier agreement</ENT>
                                <ENT>19,436</ENT>
                                <ENT>19,941</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14901(d)(3)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Minimum penalty for each instance of transportation of household goods without being registered</ENT>
                                <ENT>48,586</ENT>
                                <ENT>49,848</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14901(e)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Minimum penalty for each violation of a transportation rule</ENT>
                                <ENT>3,887</ENT>
                                <ENT>3,988</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14901(e)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Minimum penalty for each additional violation</ENT>
                                <ENT>9,718</ENT>
                                <ENT>9,970</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14903(a)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Maximum penalty for undercharge or overcharge of tariff rate, for each violation</ENT>
                                <ENT>194,359</ENT>
                                <ENT>199,408</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14904(a)</ENT>
                                <ENT>For first violation, rebates at less than the rate in effect</ENT>
                                <ENT>388</ENT>
                                <ENT>398</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14904(a)</ENT>
                                <ENT>For all subsequent violations</ENT>
                                <ENT>487</ENT>
                                <ENT>500</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14904(b)(1)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Maximum penalty for first violation for undercharges by freight forwarders</ENT>
                                <ENT>973</ENT>
                                <ENT>998</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14904(b)(1)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Maximum penalty for subsequent violations</ENT>
                                <ENT>3,887</ENT>
                                <ENT>3,988</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14904(b)(2)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Maximum penalty for other first violations under sec. 13702</ENT>
                                <ENT>973</ENT>
                                <ENT>998</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14904(b)(2)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Maximum penalty for subsequent violations</ENT>
                                <ENT>3,887</ENT>
                                <ENT>3,988</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14905(a)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Maximum penalty for each knowing violation of sec, 14103(a), and knowingly authorizing, consenting to, or permitting a violation of sec. 14103(a) or (b)</ENT>
                                <ENT>19,436</ENT>
                                <ENT>19,941</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14906</ENT>
                                <ENT>Minimum penalty for first attempt to evade regulation</ENT>
                                <ENT>2,661</ENT>
                                <ENT>2,730</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14906</ENT>
                                <ENT>Minimum amount for each subsequent attempt to evade regulation</ENT>
                                <ENT>6,650</ENT>
                                <ENT>6,823</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14907</ENT>
                                <ENT>Maximum penalty for recordkeeping/reporting violations</ENT>
                                <ENT>9,718</ENT>
                                <ENT>9,970</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14908(a)(2)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Maximum penalty for violation of sec. 14908(a)(1)</ENT>
                                <ENT>3,887</ENT>
                                <ENT>3,988</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14910</ENT>
                                <ENT>When another civil penalty is not specified under this part, for each violation, for each day</ENT>
                                <ENT>973</ENT>
                                <ENT>998</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14915(a)(1)-(2)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Minimum penalty for holding a household goods shipment hostage, for each day</ENT>
                                <ENT>15,445</ENT>
                                <ENT>15,846</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 14916(c)(1)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Maximum penalty for each knowing violation under sec. 14916(a) for unlawful brokerage activities</ENT>
                                <ENT>13,301</ENT>
                                <ENT>13,647</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="02">Pipeline Carrier</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 16101(a)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Maximum penalty for violation of this part, for each day</ENT>
                                <ENT>9,718</ENT>
                                <ENT>9,970</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <PRTPAGE P="3043"/>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 16101(b)(1), (4)</ENT>
                                <ENT>For each recordkeeping violation under sec. 15722, each day</ENT>
                                <ENT>973</ENT>
                                <ENT>998</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 16101(b)(2), (4)</ENT>
                                <ENT>For each inspection violation liable under sec. 15722, each day</ENT>
                                <ENT>193</ENT>
                                <ENT>198</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 16101(b)(3)-(4)</ENT>
                                <ENT>For each reporting violation under sec. 15723, each day</ENT>
                                <ENT>193</ENT>
                                <ENT>198</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">49 U.S.C. 16103(a)</ENT>
                                <ENT>Maximum penalty for improper disclosure of information</ENT>
                                <ENT>1,942</ENT>
                                <ENT>1,992</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </SECTION>
                </REGTEXT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00570 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4915-01-P</BILCOD>
        </RULE>
    </RULES>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>8</NO>
    <DATE>Tuesday, January 14, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <PRORULES>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="3044"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">CONSUMER FINANCIAL PROTECTION BUREAU</AGENCY>
                <CFR>12 CFR Part 1042</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. CFPB-2024-0003]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 3170-AB16</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Fees for Instantaneously Declined Transactions; Withdrawal of Proposed Rule</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Consumer Financial Protection Bureau.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Withdrawal of proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB) is withdrawing its proposed rule to prohibit banks and other financial institutions from charging certain nonsufficient funds (NSF) fees, such as those for declined debit card purchases, Automated Teller Machine (ATM) withdrawals, and some person-to-person payments. The CFPB will determine whether a more comprehensive approach to also prohibit NSF fees charged for additional types of transactions will better protect consumers from potentially unlawful fees.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The proposed rule published January 31, 2024, at 89 FR 6031 is withdrawn as of January 14, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The docket for this withdrawn proposed rule is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/CFPB-2024-0003.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        George Karithanom, Regulatory Implementation and Guidance Program Analyst, Office of Regulations, at 202-435-7700 or 
                        <E T="03">https://reginquiries.consumerfinance.gov/.</E>
                         If you require this document in an alternative electronic format, please contact 
                        <E T="03">CFPB_Accessibility@cfpb.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Summary</HD>
                <P>
                    On January 31, 2024, the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB) published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     a notice of proposed rulemaking in which it proposed to prohibit covered financial institutions from charging fees, such as nonsufficient funds fees, when consumers initiate payment transactions that are instantaneously declined. The proposed rule preliminarily determined that charging such fees would constitute an abusive practice under the Consumer Financial Protection Act's (CFPA) prohibition on unfair, deceptive, or abusive acts or practices. For the reasons stated below, the CFPB is exercising its discretion to withdraw the notice of proposed rulemaking and terminate this rulemaking proceeding.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Market Background and Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>When a consumer attempts a withdrawal, debit, payment, or transfer that exceeds the available funds in their depository account, a financial institution will sometimes decline the transaction and charge the consumer a fee, often called a nonsufficient funds (NSF) fee. Normally, these fees are only charged on check or Automated Clearing House (ACH) transactions that take days to clear, under the theory that a fee could deter consumers from intentionally attempting payments that will be declined in order to obtain a product or service from a merchant before the transaction is declined. Financial institutions have historically not charged NSF fees on ATM and debit transactions because declinations on these types of transactions are instant and effectively costless to the financial institution, and, because there is no chance that the transaction is successful for the consumer, there is no moral hazard to deter. However, financial institutions' fee practices have been rapidly changing in recent years, and some nonbank prepaid card providers have started charging NSF fees on instantly declined transactions despite the lack of a meaningful justification for the fee.</P>
                <P>The proposal preliminarily concluded that it is an abusive practice to charge an NSF fee on a transaction that is instantaneously declined because such fees take unreasonable advantage of consumers' lack of understanding of the risks, costs, or conditions of their accounts at the time they are initiating covered transactions. In making this preliminary conclusion, the CFPB observed that, unlike the CFPA's unfairness prohibition, the statutory text for the abusive conduct prohibition does not require any inquiry into reasonable avoidability. Although the CFPB preliminarily found that consumers' lack of understanding that they would be charged an NSF fee in the circumstances addressed in the proposal is generally reasonable, the proposal noted that the statutory text of the prohibition does not require a finding that the consumer's lack of understanding was reasonable to demonstrate abusive conduct.</P>
                <P>The CFPB preliminarily determined that consumers charged NSF fees on covered transactions would lack understanding of the material risks, costs, or conditions of their account at the time they are initiating covered transactions. The proposed rule stated that the “costs” associated with a covered transaction that would result in an NSF fee would primarily be the amount of the fee itself. The proposal further stated that the amount of funds in the account and whether they are sufficient for a given transaction at the time the consumer is initiating that transaction are relevant “conditions” of the consumer's deposit account. At the time a consumer considers initiating a request to withdraw, debit, pay, or transfer funds from their account, the proposed rule explained, the relevant risks to the consumer would include the possibility the transaction will be declined and result in an NSF fee.</P>
                <P>
                    The CFPB preliminarily declined to characterize consumers' lack of understanding in the proposal as either “specific” or “general” because that binary framework—used in the 2020 partial rescission of the CFPB's 2017 rulemaking on Payday, Vehicle Title, and Certain High-Cost Installment Loans 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                    -is unhelpful for determining whether consumers understand the material risks, costs, or conditions of a consumer financial product or service, which is the statutory requirement. As discussed in the proposal, a consumer's lack of understanding can be based on one or the other, or a mixture of both, and each can inform one another. Indeed, a person's understanding of their personal risk may be intertwined with their understanding of the general risk to all consumers—if one knows that 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3045"/>
                    many are harmed, they are more likely to understand that they are likely to be harmed.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         85 FR 44382, 44421 (July 22, 2020).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The CFPB preliminarily concluded in the proposed rule that the practice of charging NSF fees on covered transactions takes unreasonable advantage of consumers' lack of understanding of the above-referenced material risks, costs, or conditions of their accounts when they initiate those transactions. The CFPB explained that a determination of unreasonable advantage-taking involves an evaluation of the facts and circumstances that may affect the nature of the advantage and the question of whether the advantage-taking was unreasonable under the circumstances.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The proposal also stated that such an evaluation does not require an inquiry into whether the advantage-taking is typical or not—that even a relatively small advantage may be abusive if it is unreasonable, and that one may rely on qualitative assessment rather than an investigative accounting of costs and benefits to determine whether a covered financial institution takes an unreasonable advantage.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Statement of Policy Regarding Prohibition on Abusive Acts or Practices (</E>
                        Abusive Policy Statement), 88 FR 21883, 21886 (Apr. 12, 2023). 
                        <E T="03">Cf., e.g., Swift &amp; Co.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Wallace,</E>
                         105 F.2d 848, 854-55 (7th Cir. 1939) (“`[U]nreasonable' is not a word of fixed content and whether preferences or advantages are unreasonable must be determined by an evaluation of all cognizable factors which determine the scope and nature of the preference or advantage.”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Abusive Policy Statement, 88 FR 21883 at 21886.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Statutory History</HD>
                <P>
                    Congress passed the prohibition on abusive conduct after the 2007-2008 financial crisis, recognizing that the unfairness and deception prohibitions were insufficient to prevent predatory mortgage lending.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The statutory authority to regulate abusive conduct was explicitly added as a new standard of fair dealing, and Congress crafted the prohibition as separate and distinct from unfairness and deception.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See generally</E>
                         2023 Abusive Policy Statement (in discussing background and legislative history regarding CFPB's authority to address abusive conduct, stating “. . . Congress concluded that the manner in which agencies had enforced the prohibitions on unfair and deceptive acts or practices was too limited to be effective at preventing the financial crisis, and once again amended existing law to better meet new challenges).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         As the 2023 Abusive Policy Statement noted, in 2007, then-FDIC Chairwoman Sheila Bair explained in congressional testimony that unfairness “can be a restrictive legal standard” and proposed that Congress consider “adding the term ‘abusive,’ ” which she noted existed in the Home Ownership and Equity Protection Act, and which “is a more flexible standard to address some of the practices that make us all uncomfortable.” 
                        <E T="03">Improving Federal Consumer Protection in Financial Services: Hearing Before the H. Comm. on Fin. Servs.,</E>
                         110th Cong. 40 (2007) (statement of Hon. Sheila C. Bair, Chairman of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation), 
                        <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/CHRG-110hhrg37556/html/CHRG-110hhrg37556.htm;</E>
                         An act or practice need fall into only one of the enumerated conditions under CFPA section 1031(d) to be abusive, but an act or practice could satisfy more than one of those conditions.
                        <SU>5</SU>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The prohibition, section 1031(b) of the CFPA provides the CFPB with the authority to “prescribe rules applicable to a covered person or service provider identifying as unlawful unfair, deceptive, or abusive acts or practices in connection with any transaction with a consumer for a consumer financial product or service, or the offering of a consumer financial product or service.” 
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     CFPA section 1031(b) further provides that rules under section 1031 may include requirements for the purpose of preventing such acts or practices.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         CFPA section 1031(b), 124 Stat. 2005-2006 (12 U.S.C. 5531(b)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Under CFPA section 1031(d), the CFPB “shall have no authority . . . to declare an act or practice abusive in connection with the provision of a consumer financial product or service” unless the act or practice meets at least one of several enumerated conditions.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     CFPA section 1031(d)(2) provides, in pertinent part, that an act or practice is abusive when it takes unreasonable advantage of a consumer's lack of understanding of the material risks, costs, or conditions of the product or service.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         12 U.S.C. 5531(d). For a more detailed discussion of the CFPB's authority under the abusive conduct prohibition, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         Abusive Policy Statement, 88 FR 21883.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Comments Received</HD>
                <P>The CFPB received nearly 8,000 comments on the proposed rule. Commenters supported and opposed the proposed rule on various grounds. A coalition of consumer advocacy groups and a number of think tanks, individuals, financial institutions, financial institution employees, and State and local governmental agencies supported the proposed rule. Some comments supporting the rule stated that: NSF fees (including those not covered by the proposal) have a particular impact on financially vulnerable populations; the proposal would simply codify the existing practice of most financial institution that do not charge NSF fees for instantaneously declined transactions; the proposal correctly described the CFPB's statutory abusive conduct authority; and the proposal properly applied that authority to prohibit NSF fees for covered transactions. A number of commenters supporting the proposal asserted that the discussion of lack of understanding in the proposal was consistent with that of the 2023 Abusive Policy Statement, agreed that the abusive conduct prohibition was a separate and distinct statutory tool from unfairness and deception and asserted that the insertion of a reasonable person standard in the lack of understanding prong of the abusive conduct prohibition would be statutorily inappropriate.</P>
                <P>
                    A number of the supportive comments stated that the proposed rule would help to protect consumers from abusive conduct, but cited evidence of current harm to consumers from NSF fees beyond the scope of the proposed rule, such as the impact on consumers of NSF fees for check, ACH and recurring debit fee transactions. One commenter stated that 87% of Americans surveyed believe that NSF fees of 
                    <E T="03">any</E>
                     kind—including fees not covered by the proposed rule—are unfair. Others reasoned that financial institutions generally should not profit from consumer misfortune. One commenter highlighted the impact of NSF fees charged for recurring debit transactions, especially for those on fixed incomes. Similarly, several other commenters inquired as to whether the proposed abusive conduct analysis of the rule, focused as it was on NSF fees for instantaneously declined transactions, might not also apply to NSF fees for other transactions not covered by the rule, including check and ACH transactions.
                </P>
                <P>A number of trade groups, financial institutions (including banks, credit unions, and non-depositories), employees of financial institutions, individuals, a group of law students, and others opposed the proposed rule. Their comments challenged provisions such as: the scope of the rule; the background analysis of the CFPB's statutory abusive conduct authority; the application of that authority to NSF fees for covered transactions; the lack of prevalence of NSF fees covered by the rule; the preventive nature of the rule; the alleged potential impact to innovation in the industry; and the alleged potential cost of the rule, even to the institutions that do not charge NSF fees covered by the rule.</P>
                <P>
                    Although the CFPB is not finalizing the proposed rule, it affirms its interpretation of the CFPA with respect to its authority as discussed in the 2023 Policy Statement and disagrees with the comments that argued against it. As a general matter, the CFPB received comments about the agency's reading of its abusive authority and the application 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3046"/>
                    to instantaneous NSF fees. Commenters discussed the CFPB's reading of the abusive standard, but those comments raised mostly policy-based concerns and did not seriously grapple with the CFPB's interpretation of the statutory language. For example, commenters did not give a plausible, much less superior, alternative textual readings of the abusive standard that justified imputing the “reasonable consumer” test for unfair practices to the statutory lack of understanding standard. Commenters did not suggest that lack of understanding of “costs” or “conditions” require, as a textual matter, an assessment of probabilities or likelihood or magnitude of harm. And commenters did not raise specific counter-arguments supporting the notion that the CFPB should, statutorily, only pursue regulations under its abusive authority if consumers lack understanding of “general” risk, as opposed to when consumers lack understanding of individual risks, costs, or conditions.
                </P>
                <P>Commenters did suggest that the CFPB's reading of the statute as prohibiting practices distinct from those prohibited by the unfairness and deception standards would have broad policy consequences. However, Congress has already spoken on these issues of policy; the legislative history and statutory text make clear that Congress intended the existence of an additional and distinct standard prohibiting abusive practices. Furthermore, the CFPB does not agree that law-abiding companies have to be allowed to take unreasonable advantage of consumer's lack of understanding in order to operate in a fair market economy. While consumers may not be expected to understand every element of a financial transaction, law-abiding companies do not take unreasonable advantage of a lack of understanding to profit unreasonably. For that reason, the CFPB continues to operate with an understanding of the abusive conduct standard consistent with the 2023 Abusive Policy Statement as well as the clarifications with respect to the payday rule discussed in the proposal.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Withdrawal of the Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>The proposed rule would have applied the analysis summarized above in section II.A. only to NSF fees charged for transactions that were instantaneously or nearly instantaneously declined. The stated purpose for this limited-scope proposal was that because technological advances might eventually make instantaneous payments ubiquitous, it was important to proactively set regulations to protect consumers from abusive practices that could emerge.</P>
                <P>However, as explained above, a number of comments highlighted that NSF fees for transactions not covered by the rule could also be abusive, such as fees for recurring Automated Clearing House (ACH) transactions. These fees are much more common under current market conditions than fees on instantaneous payments. Some comments suggested that the proposed abusive conduct analysis be extended to transactions not covered by the proposed rule.</P>
                <P>In light of the comments received and upon further consideration, the CFPB has reason to believe that practices involving the charging of NSF fees on other types of transactions may also be abusive for reasons similar to those discussed in the proposal. However, the prevalence, nature, and extent of harms from these non-instantaneous NSF fees were outside of the scope of the proposal and were not the focus of the proposed rule's evidence or analysis. Accordingly, the CFPB has determined that it would be a prudent use of its rulemaking and market monitoring resources to withdraw this rulemaking and to consider whether consumers similarly lack understanding of other NSF fees to determine whether a broader rulemaking would be appropriate.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Applicable Date</HD>
                <P>
                    The notice of proposed rulemaking published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     at 89 FR 6031 on January 31, 2024, is withdrawn as of January 14, 2025.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority and Issuance</HD>
                <P>
                    For the reasons set forth above, the CFPB uses its discretion to withdraw the proposed rule on NSF fees for instantaneously declined transactions published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on January 31, 2024.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Rohit Chopra,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Consumer Financial Protection Bureau.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-31385 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-AM-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>14 CFR Part 39</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FAA-2024-2555; Project Identifier AD-2024-00214-R]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2120-AA64</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Airworthiness Directives; Siam Hiller Holdings, Inc, Helicopters</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), DOT.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA proposes to adopt a new airworthiness directive (AD) for Siam Hiller Holdings, Inc. (Siam Hiller), Model UH-12E (Army OH-23G and H-23F) and UH-12E-L helicopters. This proposed AD was prompted by reports of cracks found in a main rotor (M/R) transmission drive shaft (drive shaft). This proposed AD would require inspecting certain M/R drive shafts for a crack, prohibit installing certain M/R drive shafts unless the inspection is done, and prohibit using certain paint removers. The FAA is proposing this AD to address the unsafe condition on these products.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this proposed AD by February 28, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may send comments, using the procedures found in 14 CFR 11.43 and 11.45, by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         202-493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, M-30, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery:</E>
                         Deliver to Mail address above between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">AD Docket:</E>
                         You may examine the AD docket at regulations.gov under Docket No. FAA-2024-2555; or in person at Docket Operations between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. The AD docket contains this NPRM, any comments received, and other information. The street address for Docket Operations is listed above.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Other Related Material:</E>
                         For Hiller Aircraft Corporation material identified in this proposed AD, contact Hiller Aircraft Corporation, 925 M Street, Firebaugh, CA 93622; phone: (559) 659-5959; or website: 
                        <E T="03">hilleraircraftcorporation.com/.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3047"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Calvin L. Hang, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712; phone: (562) 627-5254; email: 
                        <E T="03">Calvin.L.Hang@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments Invited</HD>
                <P>
                    The FAA invites you to send any written relevant data, views, or arguments about this proposal. Send your comments to an address listed under the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section. Include “Docket No. FAA-2024-2555; Project Identifier AD-2024-00214-R” at the beginning of your comments. The most helpful comments reference a specific portion of the proposal, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include supporting data. The FAA will consider all comments received by the closing date and may revise this proposal because of those comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Except for Confidential Business Information (CBI) as described in the following paragraph, and other information as described in 14 CFR 11.35, the FAA will post all comments received, without change, to 
                    <E T="03">regulations.gov,</E>
                     including any personal information you provide. The agency will also post a report summarizing each substantive verbal contact received about this NPRM.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Confidential Business Information</HD>
                <P>
                    CBI is commercial or financial information that is both customarily and actually treated as private by its owner. Under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), CBI is exempt from public disclosure. If your comments responsive to this NPRM contain commercial or financial information that is customarily treated as private, that you actually treat as private, and that is relevant or responsive to this NPRM, it is important that you clearly designate the submitted comments as CBI. Please mark each page of your submission containing CBI as “PROPIN.” The FAA will treat such marked submissions as confidential under the FOIA, and they will not be placed in the public docket of this NPRM. Submissions containing CBI should be sent to Calvin L. Hang, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712; phone: (562) 627-5254; email: C
                    <E T="03">alvin.L.Hang@faa.gov.</E>
                     Any commentary that the FAA receives which is not specifically designated as CBI will be placed in the public docket for this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>The FAA received a report of two cracks in an M/R drive shaft that were found during an inspection involving a Siam Hiller Model UH-12E helicopter. These cracks resulted from hydrogen embrittlement, possibly due to improper baking after the electroplating process, and certain paint strippers exploiting galvanic potential between the steel and cadmium. Since the affected part may also be installed on Model UH-12E-L helicopters, this model helicopter is also affected by this unsafe condition.</P>
                <P>Accordingly, this proposed AD would require inspecting certain M/R drive shafts for a crack, prohibit installing certain M/R drive shafts unless the inspection is done, and prohibit using certain paint removers. This condition, if not addressed, could result in could result in loss of the M/R drive shaft and subsequent loss of control of the helicopter.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">FAA's Determination</HD>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this NPRM after determining that the unsafe condition described previously is likely to exist or develop on other products of the same type design.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Other Related Material</HD>
                <P>The FAA reviewed Hiller Aircraft Corporation UH-12E Series Helicopters, Main Rotor Transmission Assembly, Overhaul Manual 63-20, dated June 01, 2015. This material specifies overhaul procedures for the M/R transmission assemblies.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed AD Requirements in This NPRM</HD>
                <P>This proposed AD would require, with the M/R drive shaft removed, removing the coatings from all surfaces of the M/R drive shaft by using certain paint strippers, hydrogen embrittlement relief baking the M/R drive shaft, and performing a magnetic particle inspection of the M/R drive shaft for a crack. Depending on the results of the magnetic particle inspection, this proposed AD would require removing the M/R drive shaft from service and installing an airworthy part. This proposed AD would also prohibit installing an affected M/R drive shaft on any helicopter unless the actions required by this proposed AD have been accomplished and prohibit using certain paint removers on the M/R drive shaft.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Costs of Compliance</HD>
                <P>The FAA estimates that this AD, if adopted as proposed, would affect 110 helicopters of U.S. registry. Labor costs are estimated at $85 per work-hour. Based on these numbers, the FAA estimates the following costs to comply with this proposed AD.</P>
                <P>Removing the coatings, hydrogen embrittlement relief baking, and magnetic particle inspecting the M/R drive shaft would take 5 work-hours and parts would cost $500 for an estimated cost of $925 per helicopter and $101,750 for the U.S. fleet. If required, replacing the M/R drive shaft would take 5 work-hours and parts would cost $15,000 for an estimated cost of $15,425 per helicopter.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for This Rulemaking</HD>
                <P>Title 49 of the United States Code specifies the FAA's authority to issue rules on aviation safety. Subtitle I, section 106, describes the authority of the FAA Administrator. Subtitle VII: Aviation Programs, describes in more detail the scope of the Agency's authority.</P>
                <P>The FAA is issuing this rulemaking under the authority described in Subtitle VII, Part A, Subpart III, Section 44701: General requirements. Under that section, Congress charges the FAA with promoting safe flight of civil aircraft in air commerce by prescribing regulations for practices, methods, and procedures the Administrator finds necessary for safety in air commerce. This regulation is within the scope of that authority because it addresses an unsafe condition that is likely to exist or develop on products identified in this rulemaking action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Findings</HD>
                <P>The FAA determined that this proposed AD would not have federalism implications under Executive Order 13132. This proposed AD would not have a substantial direct effect on the States, on the relationship between the national government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.</P>
                <P>For the reasons discussed above, I certify this proposed regulation:</P>
                <P>(1) Is not a “significant regulatory action” under Executive Order 12866,</P>
                <P>(2) Would not affect intrastate aviation in Alaska, and</P>
                <P>(3) Would not have a significant economic impact, positive or negative, on a substantial number of small entities under the criteria of the Regulatory Flexibility Act.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 14 CFR Part 39</HD>
                    <P>Air transportation, Aircraft, Aviation safety, Incorporation by reference, Safety.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <PRTPAGE P="3048"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Proposed Amendment</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, under the authority delegated to me by the Administrator, the FAA proposes to amend 14 CFR part 39 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 39—AIRWORTHINESS DIRECTIVES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 39 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 39.13</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>2. The FAA amends § 39.13 by adding the following new airworthiness directive:</AMDPAR>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        <E T="04">Siam Hiller Holdings, Inc.:</E>
                         Docket No. FAA-2024-2555; Project Identifier AD-2024-00214-R.
                    </FP>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (a) Comments Due Date</HD>
                    <P>The FAA must receive comments on this airworthiness directive (AD) by February 28, 2025.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (b) Affected ADs</HD>
                    <P>None.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (c) Applicability</HD>
                    <P>This AD Applies to Siam Hiller Holdings, Inc., Model UH-12E (Army OH-23G and H-23F) and UH-12E-L helicopters, certificated in any category, with a main rotor (M/R) transmission drive shaft (drive shaft) having part number (P/N) 23600, installed.</P>
                    <NOTE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 1 to paragraph (c):</HD>
                        <P> Hiller Aircraft Corporation material refers to an M/R drive shaft as a transmission M/R mast and M/R drive shaft, interchangeably.</P>
                    </NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (d) Subject</HD>
                    <P>Joint Aircraft System Component (JASC) Code 6230, Main Rotor Mast/Swashplate.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (e) Unsafe Condition</HD>
                    <P>This AD was prompted by reports of cracks in the M/R drive shaft. The FAA is issuing this AD to address non-conforming parts and the use of improper paint stripper; and detect cracking of the M/R drive shaft. The unsafe condition, if not addressed, could result in separation of the M/R drive shaft and M/R blades from the helicopter and subsequent loss of control of the helicopter.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (f) Compliance</HD>
                    <P>Comply with this AD within the compliance times specified, unless already done.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (g) Required Actions</HD>
                    <P>For an M/R drive shaft that has accumulated 1,200 or more total hours time-in-service (TIS) or 4 or more years since new, or at the next overhaul of the M/R transmission assembly after the effective date of this AD, whichever occurs first, with the M/R drive shaft removed, inspect the M/R drive shaft by accomplishing the actions required by paragraphs (g)(1) through (3) of this AD.</P>
                    <P>(1) Remove all coatings from all surfaces of the M/R drive shaft by using paint stripper TT-R-248B or TT-R-2918A Type I.</P>
                    <P>(2) Hydrogen embrittlement relief bake the M/R drive shaft for 24 hours minimum at 375 °F ± 25 °F.</P>
                    <P>(3) Magnetic particle inspect all surfaces of the M/R drive shaft for a crack. This magnetic particle inspection must be accomplished by a Level II or Level III inspector certified in the FAA-acceptable standards for nondestructive inspection personnel. If there is a crack, before further flight, remove the M/R drive shaft from service and install an airworthy M/R drive shaft.</P>
                    <NOTE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 2 to paragraph (g)(3):</HD>
                        <P> Advisory Circular 65-31B contains examples of FAA-acceptable Level II and Level III qualification standards criteria for inspection personnel doing nondestructive test inspections.</P>
                    </NOTE>
                    <NOTE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Note 3 to paragraph (g):</HD>
                        <P> Hiller Aircraft Corporation Main Rotor Transmission Assembly Overhaul Manual, Manual 63-20, for UH-12E Series Helicopters, accepted May 6, 2015, contains additional information pertaining to inspecting the M/R drive shaft.</P>
                    </NOTE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (h) Parts Installation Limitations</HD>
                    <P>(1) As of the effective date of this AD, do not install an M/R drive shaft having P/N 23600 on any helicopter unless the actions required by paragraphs (g)(1) through (3) of this AD have been accomplished.</P>
                    <P>(2) As of the effective date of this AD, do not use any other paint stripper other than TT-R-248B or TT-R-2918A Type I to remove coatings from all areas of the M/R drive shaft.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (i) Alternative Methods of Compliance (AMOCs)</HD>
                    <P>
                        (1) The Manager, West Certification Branch, FAA, has the authority to approve AMOCs for this AD, if requested using the procedures found in 14 CFR 39.19. In accordance with 14 CFR 39.19, send your request to your principal inspector or local Flight Standards District Office, as appropriate. If sending information directly to the manager of the West Certification Branch, send it to the attention of the person identified in paragraph (j)(1) of this AD. Information may be emailed to: 
                        <E T="03">AMOC@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) Before using any approved AMOC, notify your appropriate principal inspector, or lacking a principal inspector, the manager of the local flight standards district office/certificate holding district office.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (j) Additional Information</HD>
                    <P>
                        (1) For more information about this AD, contact Calvin L. Hang, Aviation Safety Engineer, FAA, 3960 Paramount Boulevard, Lakewood, CA 90712; phone: (562) 627-5254; email: 
                        <E T="03">Calvin.L.Hang@faa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) For Hiller Aircraft Corporation material identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference, contact Hiller Aircraft Corporation, 925 M Street, Firebaugh, CA 93622; phone: (559) 659-5959; or website: 
                        <E T="03">hilleraircraftcorporation.com/.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (3) For advisory circular material identified in this AD that is not incorporated by reference, go to 
                        <E T="03">faa.gov/regulations_policies/advisory_circulars/index.cfm/go/document.information/documentID/1023552.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1"> (k) Material Incorporated by Reference</HD>
                    <P>None.</P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued on December 9, 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Victor Wicklund,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Director, Compliance &amp; Airworthiness Division, Aircraft Certification Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00588 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>U.S. Customs and Border Protection</SUBAGY>
                <AGENCY TYPE="O">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>19 CFR Parts 10, 101, 128, 143, 145</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[USCBP-2025-0002]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1685-AA01 (Formerly RIN 1515-AE84)</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Entry of Low-Value Shipments</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of Homeland Security; Department of the Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This document proposes amendments to the U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) regulations pertaining to the entry of certain low-value shipments not exceeding $800 that are eligible for an administrative exemption from duty and tax. Specifically, CBP proposes to create a new process for entering low-value shipments, allowing CBP to target high-risk shipments more effectively, including those containing synthetic opioids such as illicit fentanyl. This document also proposes to revise the current process for entering low-value shipments to require additional data elements that would assist CBP in verifying eligibility for duty- and tax-free entry of low-value shipments and bona-fide gifts.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received by March 17, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Please submit comments, identified by docket number, by the following method:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                        . Follow the instructions for submitting comments via docket number USCBP-2025-0002.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         All submissions received must include the agency name and docket number for this rulemaking. All comments received will be posted without change to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information provided. Comments must be submitted in English, or an English translation must be provided.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3049"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         For access to the docket to read background documents or comments received, go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                        . In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4), a summary of this rulemaking may also be found at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Christopher Mabelitini, Director, Intellectual Property Rights &amp; E-Commerce Division, Office of Trade, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, 202-325-6915, 
                        <E T="03">ecommerce@cbp.dhs.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Public Participation</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Background and Purpose</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Statutory Authority</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Current Regulatory Procedures for Entry of Qualifying Low-Value Shipments</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Release From Manifest Process</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Partner Government Agency Requirements</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Challenges of the Release From Manifest Process</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Section 321 Data Pilot and Entry Type 86 Test</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VI. Discussion of Proposed Amendments</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Part 10</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Part 101</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Part 128</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Part 143</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Part 145</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">VII. Statutory and Regulatory Reviews</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 14094</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Additional Requirements for Regulatory Analysis</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Regulatory Flexibility Act</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Paperwork Reduction Act</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. National Environmental Policy Act</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Public Participation</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to participate in this rulemaking by submitting written data, views, or arguments on all aspects of this notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM). U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) also invites comments that relate to the economic, environmental, or federalism effects that might result from this proposed rule. Comments that will provide the most assistance to CBP will reference a specific portion of the NPRM, explain the reason for any recommended change, and include data, information, argument, or authority that supports such recommended change. CBP is also specifically seeking comments regarding the “product identifier” and “security screening report number” data elements discussed in section VI.D. In addition, CBP requests comment on the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) waiver process discussed in section VI.D and its potential for lowering the costs of the rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background and Purpose</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 321(a)(2) of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)), as amended by the Trade Facilitation and Trade Enforcement Act of 2015 (TFTEA), section 901, Public Law 114-125, 130 Stat. 122, authorizes administrative exemptions from duty and tax for three categories of articles. These categories include: bona-fide gifts valued at $100 or less ($200, if the gift is from certain island possessions) sent from persons in foreign countries to persons in the United States; certain personal or household articles valued at $200 or less accompanying persons arriving in the United States; and other articles when the value of the article is $800 or less.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These exemptions are subject to the condition that the aggregate fair retail value in the country of shipment of articles imported by one person on one day and exempted from duty cannot exceed the authorized amounts. Also, these exemptions are not to be granted if merchandise covered by a single order or contract is forwarded in separate lots to obtain the benefit of duty- and tax-free entry.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    This proposed rulemaking primarily concerns shipments covered by the administrative exemption in 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C), 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     shipments of merchandise (other than bona-fide gifts and certain personal and household goods accompanying travelers arriving from abroad) imported by one person on one day and having an aggregate fair retail value in the country of shipment of not more than $800. For simplicity, all references to “the administrative exemption” in this document will be to the administrative exemption found in 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C). References made to the other administrative exemptions in 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2) will be specified as appropriate. In addition, this document refers to shipments not exceeding $800 as “low-value shipments.” 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Low-value shipments that qualify for the administrative exemption in 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C) are referred to as “qualifying low-value shipments.” The administrative exemption is implemented in part 10 of title 19 of the Code of Federal Regulations (19 CFR part 10) at 19 CFR 10.151 and 10.153, and is also referenced in 19 CFR parts 128, 143, and 145.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         These shipments are also commonly referred to as “
                        <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                        ” shipments.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Customs Administrative Act of 1938 amended the Tariff Act of 1930 by adding section 321 and establishing the administrative exemption at $1 in order to limit the “expense and inconvenience” of collecting duty when “disproportionate to the amount of such duty.” 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The value of these shipments was deemed to be so minimal that they were not subject to the same formal customs entry procedures and extensive data requirements as higher-value shipments entering the United States. Congress has since raised the value of the administrative exemption to $5 in 1978, $200 in 1993, and most recently, to $800 in 2016.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Customs Administrative Act of 1938, Public Law  75-721, 52 Stat. 1077, 1081 (1938).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Customs Procedural Reform and Simplification Act of 1978, Public Law  95-410,  205(b)(3), 92 Stat. 888, 900 (1978) (raising the value to $5); North American Free Trade Agreement Implementation Act, Public Law  103-182, 107 Stat. 2057, 2209 (1993) (raising the value to $200 and also removing the specific authorization to the Secretary of the Treasury to diminish the dollar amount of the administrative exemption); Trade Facilitation and Trade Enforcement Act of 2015, Public Law  114-125, 130 Stat. 122 (2016) (raising the value to $800).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The framework for the current version of the regulations pertaining to the administrative exemption was promulgated through a final rule in 1995, which, among other things, amended the customs regulations to implement the legislative increase of the exemption to $200, specify the special informal entry procedures applicable to qualifying low-value shipments, set forth the parties qualified to make entry, and define the word “shipment.” 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         60 FR 18983 (Apr. 14, 1995).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In 2016, section 901(d) of TFTEA amended 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C) by increasing the daily value limit for the administrative exemption from $200 to $800.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     CBP published an interim final rule amending the regulations to implement the new statutory amount and to specify certain goods excluded from the administrative exemption.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Otherwise, CBP has not made any significant changes to the regulatory requirements by which such shipments are entered since 1995. In the nearly three decades since, however, there have been significant changes in the trade environment and supply chains, substantial increases in the volume of shipments, and advancements to CBP's capabilities that necessitate the modernization of these regulations to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3050"/>
                    better serve both CBP and the trade community.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         Section 901 did not change the administrative exemptions for bona-fide gifts and personal or household articles accompanying travelers under 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(A) and (B), respectively.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         81 FR 58831 (Aug. 26, 2016). In the interim final rule, CBP solicited comments regarding the collection of data on behalf of partner government agencies for shipments valued at $800 or less. CBP received eight public comments and intends to respond to the comments at the final rule stage of this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Firstly, e-commerce is a growing segment of the U.S. economy and has been increasing significantly for the past several years.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Consumer habits are changing as the internet empowers individuals to make purchases online. These advances in economic activity have led to increasing volumes of imports of low-value shipments, creating inspection challenges for CBP. Low-value e-commerce shipments pose the same health, safety, and economic security risks as higher-value shipments. Transnational criminal organizations and other bad actors perceive low-value shipments as less likely to be interdicted because these types of shipments are not subject to the more extensive formal entry procedures. This has resulted in attempts to enter illicit goods, such as illicit fentanyl, into the country through these types of shipments. As noted below, the information requirements for low-value shipments are less rigorous than those required for other entry types, and often do not provide sufficient detail for CBP to accurately identify the merchandise in the shipment and the parties involved in its sale and purchase. Furthermore, novel and complex e-commerce business models have complicated and added to the traditional array of parties involved in the import transaction. New or infrequent importers often possess less familiarity with U.S. customs laws and regulations, which can lead to the attempted importation of non-compliant goods. This rulemaking proposes data requirements that are tailored to capture the key parties in these modern trade transactions (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     the seller, purchaser, final deliver-to party, and marketplace), thus strengthening CBP's enforcement posture.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Although the administrative exemption is not limited to only e-commerce shipments, the reality is that e-commerce shipments comprise a significant portion of low-value shipments.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Secondly, the volume of low-value shipments has increased dramatically in recent years. The boom in e-commerce, coupled with the statutory increase in the daily value limit for the administrative exemption from $200 to $800 in 2016, greatly increased the number of shipments qualifying for the exemption, resulted in new types of products becoming eligible for the exemption, and revived the trade community's interest in the exemption. This boom in e-commerce resulted from several factors, including the development of the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Entry Type 86 Test, the COVID-19 pandemic, and new e-commerce business models structured around low-value shipments. In fiscal year (FY) 2015, prior to the passage of TFTEA, approximately 139 million shipments valued at $200 or less were imported into the United States. In FY 2017, after the TFTEA increase to $800 went into effect, low-value shipments numbered nearly 325 million. By the end of FY 2022, that number more than doubled to 685 million. Then in FY 2023, CBP cleared more than one billion low-value shipments.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Currently, approximately 4 million shipments are released each day free of duty and tax pursuant to the administrative exemption. In fact, CBP estimates that over 90 percent of the number of shipments entering the United States are low-value shipments valued at $800 or less.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The information requirements for these shipments are less rigorous than those required for other entry types, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     formal entries, and no longer provide sufficient detail for CBP to accurately identify the merchandise in the shipment and the parties involved in its sale and purchase. This overwhelming volume of low-value shipments and lack of actionable data collected pursuant to the current regulations inhibits CBP's ability to identify and interdict high-risk shipments that may contain illegal drugs such as illicit fentanyl, merchandise that poses a risk to public safety, counterfeit or pirated goods, or other contraband. The new enhanced entry process for low-value shipments proposed in this rulemaking would provide CBP with the necessary information regarding the contents of shipments to more accurately segment risk and determine eligibility for the administrative exemption in advance of a shipment's arrival in the United States. The receipt of advance electronic data would also reduce the burden for CBP officers who process these large volumes of shipments because better data would lead to more accurate targeting. With more accurate targeting, CBP resources will be better focused on accurately identifying and interdicting violative shipments. Today, the quality of targeting is often impeded by the lack of information.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         Commercial Customs Advisory Committee Holds Final Public Meeting of 2023, December 20, 2023, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cbp.gov/newsroom/national-media-release/commercial-customs-advisory-committee-holds-final-public-meeting</E>
                         (last accessed Jan. 31, 2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                          Email correspondence with the Office of Trade on Feb. 2, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Lastly, both CBP and the trade community's technological capabilities have greatly advanced since 1995, and this proposed rule would adapt the regulations to current capabilities. As explained below in section IV, in the past, CBP cleared low-value shipments exclusively through a time-consuming and burdensome manual process, and staff at the ports of entry became unable to quickly and efficiently process the increasing volume of trade. Consequently, it was not unusual for clearance to take up to eight days. Over the last several years, CBP has collaborated with the trade community to obtain input regarding how to more accurately identify the nature, origin, and ultimate destination of low-value shipments. This effort served as the foundation for two pilot programs, the Section 321 Data Pilot and the Entry Type 86 Test, which were implemented in 2019 to test CBP's capabilities to collect, and the trade community's ability to provide, certain enhanced data through CBP-approved electronic systems.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The details of the pilot programs, along with the results, are described below in section V. The innovations from the two pilots are incorporated into this proposed rule.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         Section 321 Data Pilot, 84 FR 35405 (July 23, 2019); Test Concerning Entry of Section 321 Low-Valued Shipments Through Automated Commercial Environment (ACE), 84 FR 40079 (Aug. 13, 2019).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As illustrated above, the existing regulations do not account for the complex supply chains surrounding e-commerce transactions, today's volume of trade, or recent technological advancements. Consequently, this environment is more vulnerable to various challenges, including, but not limited to, illicit substances like fentanyl and other narcotics, counterfeit or pirated goods, and goods potentially made with forced labor. CBP's enforcement efforts have brought to light violations of the right to make entry, mismanifesting of cargo, misclassification, misdelivery (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     delivery of goods prior to release from CBP custody), undervaluation, and incorrectly executed powers of attorney. Of particular concern is the threat posed by illicit fentanyl, fentanyl analogues, as well as precursor and other chemicals used in illicit drug production that are smuggled into the United States by transnational criminal organizations. In FY 2023, CBP seized more than 27,000 pounds of fentanyl nationwide.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The drugs are mostly smuggled though ports of entry at the Southwest Border via privately owned and commercial vehicles and through pedestrian lanes, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3051"/>
                    or smuggled into the United States through the mail or through express consignment carriers.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     CBP uses a multi-faceted approach to prevent illegal drugs from entering the country, and one key facet is advance information and targeting. Advance electronic shipping information allows CBP to quickly identify, target, and deter the entry of dangerous illicit drugs in all operational environments. This rulemaking contributes to the effort to stop the flow of illegal drugs into the United States by expanding the collection of enhanced advance electronic data for low-value shipments.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         CBP Releases November 2023 Monthly Update, December 22, 2023, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cbp.gov/newsroom/national-media-release/cbp-releases-november-2023-monthly-update</E>
                         (last accessed Jan. 31, 2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         Joint Written Testimony of Diane J. Sabatino, Deputy Executive Assistant Commissioner, Office of Field Operations, and James Mandryck, Deputy Assistant Commissioner, Office of Intelligence, before the U.S. Senate Committee on Appropriations, “Combatting Transnational Criminal Organizations and Related Trafficking” (May 3, 2023), 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cbp.gov/about/congressional-resources/testimony</E>
                         (last accessed Sept. 1, 2023).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>To address the above challenges, this document will explain the statutory authority that authorizes CBP to regulate the entry of low-value shipments, describe the current regulatory landscape, and propose new regulations that establish a new electronic entry process and clarify the parameters of the administrative exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Statutory Authority</HD>
                <P>All merchandise imported into the customs territory of the United States is subject to entry and clearance procedures. These procedures ensure the proper appraisement, valuation, and tariff classification of the merchandise for the purpose of collecting the lawful amount of duties owed, as well as compliance with all other laws and regulations administered and enforced by CBP. Different procedures are provided for the entry and clearance of merchandise depending upon the value of the merchandise. There are “formal entry” procedures established by 19 U.S.C. 1484 and 1485, which are generally applicable to shipments of merchandise valued in excess of $2,500. Part 142 of title 19 of the CFR (19 CFR part 142) implements 19 U.S.C. 1484, as amended, and prescribes formal entry procedures. Formal entry generally involves the completion and filing of one or more CBP forms, or their electronic equivalent, as well as the filing of commercial documents pertaining to the transaction.</P>
                <P>
                    Exempt from the requirements of 19 U.S.C. 1484 and 1485 are entries made under 19 U.S.C. 1498, which, for the most part, are limited to shipments of merchandise valued at $2,500 or less (referred to as “informal entries”). Specifically, 19 U.S.C. 1498 authorizes the Secretary of the Treasury to “prescribe rules and regulations for the declaration and entry of merchandise when the aggregate value of the shipment does not exceed an amount specified . . . by regulation, but not more than $2,500.” Informal entry regulations are found at 19 CFR part 143, subpart C. While informal entries are “excepted” from formal entry requirements, the Secretary may include any formal entry requirement in the rules and regulations governing informal entry.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The statutory framework of 19 U.S.C. 1498 authorizes, in effect, a less formal entry process than under 19 U.S.C. 1484. As a result, informal entry procedures are less burdensome and complex than the formal entry procedures. These simplified procedures reduce the overall administrative burden on informal entry filers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         19 U.S.C. 1498(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Shipments that are eligible for the administrative exemptions at 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2) are a subset of the informal entries covered by 19 U.S.C. 1498, which authorizes the Secretary to promulgate such special rules and regulations as the Secretary determines are necessary and appropriate for the declaration and entry of shipments valued at $2,500 or less. Under 19 U.S.C. 1321, the Secretary is authorized to promulgate regulations to admit certain low-value articles duty- and tax-free in order to avoid expense and inconvenience to the Government that is disproportionate to the amount of revenue that would otherwise be collected. As noted above, regulations for the entry of low-value shipments, which are authorized under 19 U.S.C. 1498 may, but are not required to, include any of the rules that are otherwise applicable for formal entry under 19 U.S.C. 1484 and 1485.</P>
                <P>Lastly, the Secretary is authorized by 19 U.S.C. 1321(b) to prescribe exceptions to an administrative exemption, if consistent with the purposes of the exemption or if “necessary for any reason to protect the revenue or to prevent unlawful importations.”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Current Regulatory Procedures for Entry of Qualifying Low-Value Shipments</HD>
                <P>
                    The regulations pertaining to the exemptions in 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2) are found throughout various parts of title 19 of the CFR. The administrative exemption at 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C) is implemented at 19 CFR 10.151, which explains that qualifying merchandise not exceeding $800 and meeting the conditions of 19 CFR 10.153 will be admitted free of duty and tax. The exemption for bona-fide gifts is implemented at 19 CFR 10.152. For low-value shipments accompanying a person, the merchandise comes in under an oral declaration pursuant to 19 CFR part 148.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Shipments imported by mail are covered by 19 CFR part 145, and shipments imported by express consignment operators and carriers are covered by 19 CFR part 128. Lastly, informal entry procedures for qualifying low-value shipments are found in 19 CFR part 143, subpart C.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         The procedures for personal or oral declarations are set forth in 19 CFR 148.12, 148.13, and 148.62, and are not affected by this proposed rule.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Release From Manifest Process</HD>
                <P>
                    With certain exceptions, low-value shipments qualifying for the administrative exemption may be entered by presenting the bill of lading or a manifest listing each bill of lading.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This type of informal entry is termed the “release from manifest process.” Generally, such shipments are released from CBP custody based on the information provided on the manifest or bill of lading. Qualifying low-value shipments may be entered, using reasonable care, by the owner, purchaser, or consignee of the shipment, or, when appropriately designated by one of these persons, a customs broker licensed under 19 U.S.C. 1641.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The information required for release from manifest may be provided by consignees, such as carriers and express consignment operators. The following information must be provided as part of the release from manifest process: the country of origin of the merchandise; shipper name, address and country; ultimate consignee name and address; specific description of the merchandise; quantity; shipping weight; and value.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     No Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) subheading is required on a manifest, and no entry summary is required, for low-value shipments.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         19 CFR 143.23(j). This same process is also used for entry of bona-fide gifts meeting the requirements of 19 CFR 10.152 and 10.153.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         19 CFR 143.26(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         19 CFR 128.21(a); 19 CFR 143.23(k).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         19 CFR 143.23(k); 19 CFR 128.24(e).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Among other things, 19 CFR 10.153 sets forth the conditions to be applied by a CBP officer in determining whether an article or parcel shall be exempted from duty and tax under 19 CFR 10.151 as a qualifying low-value shipment. In particular, 19 CFR 10.153 provides that consolidated shipments addressed to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3052"/>
                    one consignee shall be treated as one importation; alcoholic beverages and cigars (including cheroots and cigarillos) and cigarettes containing tobacco, cigarette tubes, cigarette papers, smoking tobacco (including water pipe tobacco, pipe tobacco, and roll-your-own tobacco), snuff, or chewing tobacco are not exempt; any merchandise of a class or kind provided for in any absolute or tariff-rate quota, whether the quota is open or closed, is not exempt; and, there is no exemption from any tax imposed under the Internal Revenue Code that is collected by other agencies on imported goods. In addition, any merchandise subject to antidumping and countervailing duties is not exempt.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 U.S.C. 1671h; 19 U.S.C. 1673g (requiring CBP to collect antidumping and countervailing duty deposits for “
                        <E T="03">all</E>
                         entries, or withdrawals from warehouse, for consumption of merchandise subject to [an antidumping or countervailing duty] order”) (emphasis added).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    In addition to the regulations described above, which generally apply to all low-value shipments, CBP has established regulations for express consignment operators and carriers (ECOs) in 19 CFR part 128.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The procedure for entry of qualifying low-value shipments imported by ECOs is set forth in 19 CFR 128.21 and 128.24(e). CBP requires that ECOs provide the manifest information listed in 19 CFR 128.21 in advance of arrival of all cargo (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the advance manifest). The information required on the advance manifest for qualifying low-value shipments is identical to the information required for the release from manifest process under 19 CFR 143.23(k), but, pursuant to 19 CFR 128.24(e), such shipments must be segregated on the advance manifest when it is used as the entry document.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         An “express consignment operator or carrier” is defined in 19 CFR 128.1(a) as “an entity operating in any mode or intermodally moving cargo by special express commercial service under closely integrated administrative control. Its services are offered to the public under advertised, reliable timely delivery on a door-to-door basis. An express consignment operator assumes liability to Customs for the articles in the same manner as if it is the sole carrier.”
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         19 CFR 128.21 and 128.24(e).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to 19 CFR 145.31, qualifying low-value shipments sent through the mail are generally passed free of duty and tax without the preparation of an entry in accordance with 19 CFR 145.12. The information needed for entry and release is supplied in the documentation accompanying the mail package. Generally, this documentation consists of the customs declaration and invoice or bill of sale (or, in the case of merchandise not purchased or consigned for sale, a statement of the fair retail value in the country of shipment).
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         19 CFR 145.11.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Regardless of the method or mode of transportation, CBP may require a formal entry for any merchandise if deemed necessary for import admissibility enforcement purposes, revenue protection, or the efficient conduct of customs business.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         19 CFR 143.22; 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         19 CFR 145.12(a)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Partner Government Agency Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    A low-value shipment is not exempt from partner government agency (PGA) requirements.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Many PGAs do not have exemptions from their reporting requirements for low-value shipments and require strict accountability of imported goods for national security and health and safety reasons, and to identify specific shipments of potentially violative products for reporting or enforcement purposes. Low-value shipments may also require the payment of applicable PGA duties, fees, or excise taxes collected by other agencies. Shipments that have PGA data reporting requirements or require the payment of any duties, fees, or taxes must generally be entered using the appropriate informal or formal entry process to ensure that the PGA requirements are met. Low-value shipments subject to PGA requirements are currently ineligible for entry under the release from manifest process.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         In this rulemaking, CBP uses the phrase “partner government agencies” in the preamble interchangeably with the phrase “other government agencies,” which is found in title 19 of the CFR.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Challenges of the Release From Manifest Process</HD>
                <P>The release from manifest process is a slow and labor-intensive process. A CBP officer must review each entry and provide a determination regarding release. While this process may have been sufficient decades ago, the sheer volume of imports and the limited resources at the ports of entry make it untenable today.</P>
                <P>Moreover, the data currently provided on the standard manifest is insufficient or too vague for CBP to effectively screen merchandise and provide admissibility decisions in a timely manner. The data often does not adequately identify the entity causing the shipment to cross the border, the final recipient, or the contents of the package. With the dramatic increase in shipments that only provide minimal data, CBP is left with fewer data points about a greater number of shipments. Many of these shipments are undervalued or incorrectly presented for release from manifest as non-PGA shipments, and thus do not qualify for the administrative exemption. More information about these shipments will help CBP to identify these shipments prior to release, thereby protecting consumers from purchasing goods that do not meet regulatory health and safety standards and protecting U.S. businesses from unfair competition against imported goods that would otherwise be charged duties or restricted from entry.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Section 321 Data Pilot and Entry Type 86 Test</HD>
                <P>
                    To address the challenges described above, CBP launched two voluntary pilot programs pertaining to low-value shipments in 2019: the Section 321 Data Pilot and the Entry Type 86 Test. The Section 321 Data Pilot began with nine voluntary participants from the trade community to test the feasibility of CBP accepting advance data for shipments eligible for the administrative exemption.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Currently, CBP requires carriers and other regulated parties to transmit certain information relating to commercial cargo prior to the arrival of the cargo in the United States. However, in the e-commerce environment, traditionally regulated parties, such as carriers, are unlikely to possess all of the information relating to a shipment's supply chain that CBP needs to effectively identify high-risk shipments. The Section 321 Data Pilot tests the feasibility of obtaining this advance information from parties other than those required to submit it pursuant to the existing regulations, such as online marketplaces. The Section 321 Data Pilot also tests the collection of additional data that is generally not required under current regulations. Participants in the Section 321 Data Pilot agree to transmit certain data elements for each qualifying low-value shipment. Initial pilot participants included carriers, e-commerce marketplaces, a technology firm, and logistics providers. In 2023, CBP modified the Section 321 Data Pilot to allow participants to transmit optional data elements and to permit additional trade members to participate.
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The purpose of the pilot is to improve CBP's ability to identify and target high-risk e-commerce shipments including narcotics, weapons, and products 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3053"/>
                    posing a danger to the public's health and safety.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         84 FR 35405 (July 23, 2019). The original pilot was expanded to include shipments arriving by ocean and international mail and was extended through August 2021. 84 FR 67279 (Dec. 9, 2019). It was subsequently extended through August 2023 (86 FR 48435 (Aug. 30, 2021)), and then again through August 2025 (88 FR 10140 (Feb. 16, 2023)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         88 FR 10140 (Feb. 16, 2023).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The other pilot, the Entry Type 86 Test, authorized a new entry process for qualifying low-value shipments in the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) through the development of a new informal entry type 86.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The test created a means for qualifying low-value shipments subject to PGA data requirements to benefit from the use of a section 321 entry process for the first time, allowing these shipments to claim duty- and tax-free treatment under the administrative exemption. Prior to the development of entry type 86, low-value shipments subject to PGA requirements were required to be entered using the more complex informal entry type 11 or formal entry.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Entry Type 86 Test also expedites the clearance of compliant low-value shipments into the United States through the use of an electronic release in ACE.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         84 FR 40079 (Aug. 13, 2019).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         Merchandise imported by mail is excluded from the Entry Type 86 Test and may not be entered under entry type 86.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Under this test, an owner, purchaser, or customs broker appointed by an owner, purchaser, or consignee may file an entry type 86.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Ten data elements in the entry type 86 are required to be transmitted to CBP, including the 10-digit classification for the merchandise under the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). This information allows CBP to determine whether the shipment is subject to PGA data reporting requirements. Any PGA data reporting requirements must be satisfied by the transmission of the PGA Message Set and the filing of any supporting documentation via the Document Image System (DIS). The PGA Message Set enables the trade community to electronically submit all data required by the PGAs only once to CBP, eliminating the necessity for the submission and subsequent manual processing of paper documents, and makes the required data available to the relevant PGAs for import and transportation-related decision-making. The Entry Type 86 Test has allowed CBP to test electronic release in ACE for low-value shipments, including those with PGA data requirements. It has also allowed CBP to test operational procedures involved with the new entry type, including associated challenges with electronic release in ACE and necessary coordination with PGAs.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         For example, a party with a financial interest in the merchandise could constitute an owner or a purchaser that may file an entry type 86. Additionally, a broker properly appointed by the owner or the purchaser, or for example, by a third-party warehouse receiving the merchandise as a consignee, may file an entry type 86.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Both pilots have yielded positive benefits for CBP and the trade community. Specifically, under the Section 321 Data Pilot, CBP was able to test the feasibility of collecting new data elements that identify the entities responsible for the movement of low-value shipments, the precise contents of these shipments, and their final destination after arriving in the United States. Collection of this information allows CBP to conduct faster and more accurate risk assessments, and trade members providing this more detailed data may benefit from fewer CBP holds. Similarly, as a result of the Entry Type 86 Test, the trade community has experienced fewer holds and faster clearance, often same-day clearance, versus the previous wait times of up to eight days. Trade members have also reported time and cost savings as detailed below in section VII.</P>
                <P>
                    If and when this proposed rule becomes a final rule, CBP will end the Entry Type 86 Test. CBP proposes to codify the Entry Type 86 Test's electronic entry process as part of the new enhanced entry process, with certain changes as discussed in the next section. The Section 321 Data Pilot, however, will continue with respect to those data elements and filers not covered by a final rule, for further evaluation of the pilot and the risks associated with low-value shipments. Changes to the Section 321 Data Pilot will be announced in a separate 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Discussion of Proposed Amendments</HD>
                <P>
                    This rulemaking proposes amendments to provisions found in 19 CFR parts 10, 101, 128, 143, and 145. CBP generally intends this proposed rule's provisions to be severable from each other. CBP expects to provide additional detail on severability in the final rule once CBP has considered public comments and finalized the regulatory language. CBP proposes to combine the successful aspects of the Section 321 Data Pilot and Entry Type 86 Test to create a new, alternative 
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     process for entering low-value shipments (referred to as the “enhanced entry process”) that would, among other benefits, allow CBP to target high-risk shipments more effectively in advance of the shipment's arrival in the United States, including those shipments containing synthetic opioids such as illicit fentanyl. The new enhanced entry process incorporates a selection of the most useful data elements tested in the Section 321 Data Pilot and uses an electronic entry process similar to what was tested in the Entry Type 86 Test.
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         The enhanced entry process is required for goods subject to PGA data requirements seeking duty-free entry under the administrative exemption.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         Some of the data elements collected under the enhanced entry process in this proposed rulemaking may be similar to advance data collected for cargo security purposes pursuant to regulations issued under the authority of 19 U.S.C. 1415, such as in the case of Air Cargo Advance Screening (ACAS) data. CBP notes that 19 U.S.C. 1415(a)(3)(F) prohibits data collected under that statute's implementing regulations from being used for commercial enforcement purposes, including for determining merchandise entry. This rulemaking is being proposed under the statutory authorities pertaining to the entry of merchandise as detailed in section III. Accordingly, the regulations issued under 19 U.S.C. 1415 will continue to apply without any modification by this proposed rulemaking.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The enhanced entry process would require the submission of advance data, within specified time frames, about the contents, origin, and destination of the shipments. Furthermore, the new process would allow CBP to maintain two key benefits of the Entry Type 86 Test, namely the expedited clearance of certain shipments and the availability of duty- and tax-free entry for qualifying low-value shipments, including those that are subject to PGA requirements.</P>
                <P>This document also proposes to revise the current release from manifest process for entering low-value shipments (renamed as the “basic entry process”) to require additional data elements that would assist CBP in verifying eligibility for duty- and tax-free entry of low-value shipments and bona-fide gifts.</P>
                <P>Additionally, this document proposes to define who is the “one person” to whom the $800 exemption applies, explain eligibility requirements for the exemption, and clarify the definition of a “shipment,” among other things. Lastly, this document proposes to correct typographical errors and make minor amendments for clarity and stylistic purposes.</P>
                <P>
                    Part 10, among other things, establishes the administrative exemptions for low-value shipments and bona-fide gifts in the regulations and lists the conditions that must be met to qualify for the exemptions. Part 101 contains general definitions, which includes the definition of a “shipment.” Part 143, subpart C contains the informal entry procedures. Accordingly, the new enhanced entry process is set forth in proposed § 143.23(j) and (l). The parties who can make entry of low-value shipments and the applicable standards of care are found in § 143.26. Specific procedures for shipments imported by mail are found in part 145, and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3054"/>
                    procedures for express consignment operators and carriers are found in part 128.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Part 10</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 10.151 broadly sets forth the administrative exemption of 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C) in the CBP regulations. Similarly, § 10.152 sets forth the administrative exemption for bona-fide gifts under 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(A).
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Section 10.153 sets forth the conditions to be applied by a CBP officer in determining whether an article or parcel shall be exempted from duty and tax under § 10.151 or 10.152. CBP is proposing several changes to these sections to clarify the parameters of these exemptions and more closely align the language in the regulations with the statutory text.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         The separate exemption for articles accompanying and for the personal/household use of travelers returning from abroad, under 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(B), is not implicated or changed by this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Shipments Exceeding $800</HD>
                <P>There has been some confusion in the trade community regarding how the $800 value limit is applied when multiple low-value shipments are imported by one person on the same day. To provide clarity, CBP proposes to amend § 10.151 to explain that when the aggregate fair retail value of shipments imported by one person on one day under § 10.151 exceeds $800, then all such shipments imported on that day by that person become ineligible for duty- and tax-free entry under the administrative exemption. Such shipments would have to be entered under appropriate informal or formal entry procedures.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Party Eligible for Administrative Exemption and Party Authorized To Make Entry</HD>
                <P>In order to enforce the administrative exemption, CBP must ensure that the aggregate fair retail value in the country of shipment of articles imported by one person on one day and exempted from the payment of duty does not exceed the statutory limit of $800. CBP proposes to amend § 10.151 to require that the “one person” eligible for the administrative exemption is the owner or purchaser of the merchandise imported on one day.</P>
                <P>
                    It is possible that the party who is eligible for the administrative exemption (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the owner or purchaser) is different from the party who is authorized to make entry under § 143.26(b). Accordingly, CBP proposes to include a cross-reference in § 10.151 to clarify that merchandise for which the administrative exemption is being claimed must be entered by a party authorized to make entry under § 143.26(b).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Single Orders Sent Separately To Circumvent Duties and Evidence of Fair Retail Value</HD>
                <P>The statutory text of 19 U.S.C. 1321(a) prohibits goods from a single order or contract from being forwarded in separate lots to obtain the benefit of the administrative exemption. The current regulation differs from the statute in that the regulation requires that the single order must be sent separately for the “express purpose” of obtaining free entry or avoiding compliance with pertinent laws. CBP proposes to align this provision with the statute and remove the limiting language that requires an “express purpose” to be established.</P>
                <P>CBP proposes removing the clause in § 10.151 that describes the documents (or oral declaration) used to evidence the fair retail value of a shipment. CBP believes that the informal entry procedures cited to in the last sentence of § 10.151 more comprehensively describe the required data and documents needed to file or support entry of the shipment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Other Amendments to §§ 10.151 and 10.152</HD>
                <P>
                    Currently, the regulations in §§ 10.151 and 10.152 state that the port director “shall” provide duty- and tax-free entry of shipments meeting the value limits in 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(A) and (C). The value limit, however, is not the only requirement that shipments must meet in order to obtain duty- and tax-free entry under these sections. All other applicable statutory and regulatory requirements must also be met. Furthermore, the administrative exemptions are a privilege and not an absolute right. CBP maintains the authority, pursuant to 19 CFR 143.22, to require a formal entry, and assess any attendant duties, taxes, and fees, as applicable, for any such shipment for import admissibility enforcement purposes, revenue protection, or the efficient conduct of customs business.
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Therefore, CBP proposes to replace “shall” with “may,” reflecting that the exemptions are granted based on the port director's discretion.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         CBP may require a formal consumption or appraisement entry for any merchandise if deemed necessary for import admissibility enforcement purposes, revenue protection, or the efficient conduct of customs business. 19 CFR 143.22. Any such formally entered merchandise is not eligible for the administrative exemptions. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 10.151and 10.152.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    CBP also proposes amending §§ 10.151 and 10.152 to clarify that eligible merchandise 
                    <E T="03">must</E>
                     be entered under the specific informal entry procedures listed in each section in order to enter free of duty and tax. If another form of entry is used, such as informal type 11 entry or formal entry, then applicable duties and taxes will be assessed. For clarity, in §§ 10.151 and 10.152, CBP proposes replacing the more general cross-reference to subpart C of part 143 with the specific citations to the applicable informal entry procedures in § 143.23(j).
                </P>
                <P>In § 10.152, CBP is proposing to remove the cross-references to §§ 148.12, 148.51, and 148.64 because they reference the process of entering gifts along with household or personal articles which accompany a person upon the person's arrival from abroad, all of which may be entered pursuant to an oral declaration. Section 10.152 pertains to bona-fide gifts sent from persons in foreign countries to persons in the United States subject to the exemption under 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(A), which is distinct from the separate exemption under 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(B) for personal and household goods (including gifts) accompanying persons arriving in the United States. Accordingly, CBP proposes to remove those cross-references to avoid confusion.</P>
                <P>Lastly, CBP proposes updating the undesignated center heading preceding § 10.151 to replace “$200” with “$800” to align with the current value limit in 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C). In the same heading, CBP proposes hyphenating the phrase “bona fide” for consistency with the text in § 10.152.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Antidumping and Countervailing Duties</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 10.153 sets forth, among other things, the guidance to be applied by a CBP officer in determining whether an article or parcel should be exempted from duty and tax under § 10.151. CBP proposes adding a new paragraph (i), which would clarify the existing requirement that merchandise subject to antidumping and countervailing duties (AD/CVD) is not eligible for the administrative exemption. CBP has a ministerial role in administering and enforcing AD/CVD orders in accordance with instructions from the U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce). Commerce's instructions specifically direct CBP to assess AD/CVD on all entries for consumption of subject merchandise, without any exceptions. Further, the AD/CVD statutes specifically apply to “all entries, or withdrawals from warehouse, for 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3055"/>
                    consumption of merchandise subject to [an AD/CVD] order on or after the date of publication of such order,” without any mention of the administrative exemption or other exemption from the applicability of AD/CVD to all entries of subject merchandise.
                    <SU>35</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         19 U.S.C. 1671h (CVD); 19 U.S.C. 1673g (AD).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In addition, new paragraph (i) also reinforces CBP's authority to deny the administrative exemption for any other merchandise otherwise precluded by law from eligibility.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Other Amendments to § 10.153</HD>
                <P>CBP proposes updating the nomenclature in the introductory text of § 10.153 by changing “Customs” to “CBP.” Additionally, in paragraph (a) and the introductory text of paragraph (d), CBP proposes hyphenating the phrase “bona fide” for consistency with the text in § 10.152.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Part 101</HD>
                <P>CBP proposes amending the definition of “shipment” in § 101.1 to clarify that a single shipment corresponds to an individual bill of lading. An individual bill of lading is not a consolidation of several bills of lading and is not a master bill or other consolidated document. An individual bill of lading is a bill representing an individual shipment that has its own unique bill number and tracking number, where the shipment is assigned to a single ultimate consignee, and no lower bill unit exists. An individual bill of lading, also known as a “house bill,” is used in all modes of transportation. It may be referred to as an “individual air waybill” in the air environment or a “simple bill” in the ocean environment.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Part 128</HD>
                <P>Part 128 sets forth requirements and procedures for the clearance of imported merchandise carried by ECOs, including couriers, under special procedures.</P>
                <P>
                    Current § 128.24 explains the informal entry procedures for express consignment shipments, including shipments meeting the requirements of § 10.151. As was done above in § 10.151, CBP proposes replacing the word “will” with “may” in the first sentence of the introductory text of § 128.24(e) to reflect that CBP has the discretion to require formal entry for any low-value shipment.
                    <SU>36</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     CBP proposes adding a cross-reference in the introductory text of § 128.24(e) to the entry procedures for low-value shipments in § 143.23(j). The procedures in § 143.23(j) require that an individual bill of lading must accompany each entry. Under the current regulations, an advance manifest listing each bill of lading may be used as the entry document, and shipments valued at $800 or less must be segregated on the advance manifest. Accordingly, CBP is removing the requirement to segregate shipments valued at $800 or less on an advance manifest because, although the advance manifest is still required, it is the individual bill of lading that serves as the entry document. As a result, there is no need to segregate shipments on the advance manifest. CBP is also removing paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(2), because the data and documents required for entry are explained in § 143.23(j)-(l).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>36</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 143.22.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>CBP proposes to add a new paragraph (f) to § 128.24 to specify the entry procedures to be used for entering bona-fide gifts. Bona-fide gifts may not be entered under the new enhanced entry process. CBP is also amending paragraph (d) to clarify that an entry summary is not required for qualifying low-value shipments and bona-fide gifts passing free of duty and tax pursuant to paragraphs (e) and (f), respectively.</P>
                <P>Current § 128.21(a) lists the manifest information required in advance of the arrival of all express consignment cargo. CBP proposes to amend paragraph (a)(4)(ii) to explain that the HTSUS subheading number is not required for low-value shipments entered under the basic entry process in § 143.23(k), but it is required for shipments entered under the enhanced entry process in § 143.23(l) (unless a waiver is obtained). Lastly, CBP proposes to replace the reference to “Customs” in § 128.21(b) with “CBP.”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Part 143</HD>
                <P>Under this proposed rulemaking, qualifying low-value shipments can be entered under two alternative processes to receive duty- and tax-free entry, either under the basic entry process or the enhanced entry process. This section explains the requirements of each process.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. General Requirements for Shipments Not Over $800 and Bona-Fide Gifts</HD>
                <P>The general requirements for entry of qualifying low-value shipments and bona-fide gifts are set forth in the revisions proposed in § 143.23(j). Paragraph (j) states that in order to enter qualifying shipments, the party making entry must provide the individual bill of lading (house bill or equivalent), or other shipping document used to file or support entry, as a basic requirement. In addition, the requirements of either the basic entry process in paragraph (k) or the enhanced entry process in paragraph (l) must be met.</P>
                <P>The proposed revisions to paragraphs (j)(1)-(3) explain when certain types of merchandise are limited to entry under either the basic or enhanced process in order to qualify for the administrative exemption. Proposed paragraph (j)(1) states that merchandise may be subject to other legal requirements, including the requirements of other Federal, State, or local agencies, as applicable. In the case of merchandise regulated by other Federal agencies, the merchandise may not be entered under the basic entry process under § 143.23(k), but may be entered under the enhanced entry process under § 143.23(l). However, any merchandise that is not exempt from the payment of any applicable PGA duties, fees, or taxes is not eligible for entry under either entry process. Any filing that is determined to owe any duties, fees, or taxes will be rejected by CBP and must be re-filed using the appropriate informal or formal entry process.</P>
                <P>Proposed paragraph (j)(2) explains that mail importations may not be entered using the basic entry process in § 143.23(k), but may be entered using the enhanced entry process in § 143.23(l). Further information about mail importations is found in § 145.31. Lastly, proposed paragraph (j)(3) explains that bona-fide gifts under § 10.152 are not eligible to use the enhanced entry process and must use the basic entry process in § 143.23(k).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Basic Entry Process</HD>
                <P>CBP proposes to amend the current release from manifest process described in § 143.23(j) and (k). First, CBP proposes renaming the existing process in § 143.23(j) and (k) as the “basic entry process” to differentiate it from the proposed new “enhanced entry process.” The requirements for the basic entry process will be consolidated in § 143.23(k).</P>
                <P>The proposed basic entry process maintains the general procedures of the existing release from manifest process, with slight modifications. As explained in paragraph (k), low-value shipments meeting the requirements in § 10.151 or bona-fide gifts meeting the requirements in § 10.152 may be entered under the basic entry process. Release under the proposed basic entry process will be obtained by providing an individual bill of lading (house bill or equivalent) and will require the filer to provide the data elements listed in paragraph (k). The entry data may either be transmitted electronically through a CBP-authorized electronic data interchange (EDI) system or be submitted in paper format.</P>
                <P>
                    There are some changes to the data elements from the current process. The 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3056"/>
                    following information must be provided under the existing process: the country of origin of the merchandise; shipper name, address and country; ultimate consignee name and address; specific description of the merchandise; quantity; shipping weight; and value.
                    <SU>37</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In § 143.23(k)(3), CBP proposes to also require the name and address of the person claiming the administrative exemption under § 10.151 or 10.152, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the person who is being exempted from the payment of duty for the qualifying low-value shipment. For qualifying low-value shipments, this would be the name and address of the owner or purchaser as set forth in § 10.151. For bona-fide gifts, it would be the name and address of the person receiving the articles as set forth in § 10.152.
                    <SU>38</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This is crucial information that CBP needs to enforce the cumulative statutory “one person on one day” monetary restriction.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>37</SU>
                         19 CFR 143.23(k).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>38</SU>
                         19 CFR 10.152. The exemption may be granted if the conditions in § 10.153 are met and “the aggregate fair retail value in the country of shipment of such 
                        <E T="03">articles received by one person</E>
                         on one day does not exceed $100 or, in the case of articles sent from a person in the Virgin Islands, Guam, and American Samoa, $200.” (Emphasis added.)
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Additionally, in proposed § 143.23(k)(8), CBP requires the name and address of the final deliver-to party, if distinct from the party eligible for the administrative exemption in paragraph (k)(3). This refers to the final party in the United States to whom the merchandise is to be delivered. The purpose of this data element is to enable CBP to know to whom and where the imported merchandise is destined to be delivered in the United States. To avoid duplication of data elements, CBP is proposing to remove the name and address of the ultimate consignee, currently required by § 143.23(k)(3).</P>
                <P>
                    CBP is also proposing amendments to several of the existing data elements. CBP proposes to clarify that the quantity requested is the “manifested quantity of the merchandise” and the weight is referring to the “shipment weight.” Lastly, to maintain consistency with the statutory language, CBP is specifying that the value required is the “fair retail value in the country of shipment” in U.S. dollars.
                    <SU>39</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>39</SU>
                         When duties or other charges or fees are assessed on an import, they are calculated using the appraised value of the imported good, pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1401a, which is not based on the good's retail value in the country of shipment. Alternatively, for the purposes of the administrative exception, the value to be evaluated to determine qualification for duty- and tax-free treatment is the fair retail value in the country of shipment.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Enhanced Entry Process</HD>
                <P>Proposed § 143.23(l) sets forth the enhanced entry process. This process is limited to low-value shipments meeting the requirements of § 10.151. Accordingly, qualifying bona-fide gifts under § 10.152 must use the basic entry process for duty- and tax-free entry.</P>
                <P>
                    The enhanced entry process requires the electronic transmission of the individual bill of lading (house bill or equivalent) or other shipping document used to file or support entry. In addition, enhanced entry filers must transmit the data elements in paragraph (k) and paragraphs (l)(1)-(2) to CBP. CBP acknowledges that it is possible that the required data elements do not all reside with one party. The entry, however, can only be filed by 
                    <E T="03">one</E>
                     of the parties eligible to file entry. Therefore, in such cases, the party filing the entry will need to gather the required data from others before filing.
                </P>
                <P>The enhanced entry process requires data to be transmitted to CBP in advance of arrival of the shipment to allow for CBP to timely conduct targeting and offer expedited release. For consistency with other advance data requirements, CBP proposes to adopt, for the enhanced entry process, the same time frames as currently applicable for filing advance electronic data (AED) under regulations promulgated pursuant to section 343 of the Trade Act of 2002, 19 U.S.C. 1415 (the Trade Act regulations). Therefore, all the required information and documentation must be transmitted to CBP through a CBP-authorized EDI system on or before the deadline for receipt of advance cargo information. Mail shipments using the enhanced entry process are subject to a separate filing deadline, which can be found in § 145.31. For all other shipments, the required time frame to file an enhanced entry varies depending on the mode of transportation, and will be the same as provided for AED filings for each mode under the Trade Act regulations, which are as follows:</P>
                <P>• For vessel cargo, the filing must be received by CBP 24 hours before the cargo is laden aboard the vessel at the foreign port. 19 CFR 4.7 and 4.7a.</P>
                <P>
                    • For air cargo, the filing must be received by CBP either: (1) no later than the time of the departure of the aircraft for the United States,
                    <SU>40</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in the case of aircraft that depart for the United States from any foreign port or place in North America, including locations in Mexico, Central America, South America (from north of the Equator only), the Caribbean, and Bermuda; or (2) no later than four hours prior to the arrival of the aircraft in the United States, in the case of aircraft that depart for the United States from any foreign area other than those specified in 19 CFR 122.48a(b)(1). 19 CFR 122.48a(b)(1).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>40</SU>
                         The trigger time is no later than the time that wheels are up on the aircraft, and the aircraft is en route directly to the United States. 68 FR 68140; 
                        <E T="03">see also,</E>
                         19 CFR 122.48a(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>• For rail cargo, the filing must be received by CBP no later than two hours prior to the cargo reaching the first port of arrival in the United States. 19 CFR 123.91.</P>
                <P>• For truck cargo, the filing must be received by CBP no later than either 30 minutes or one hour prior to the carrier's reaching the first port of arrival in the United States, or such lesser time as authorized, based upon the CBP-approved system employed to present the information. 19 CFR 123.92.</P>
                <P>If the required information has not been transmitted by the time frames specified, those shipments will not receive a release message upon arrival of the conveyance. Such shipments will be held for additional action, such as an exam or document review before a manual clearance may be given.</P>
                <P>In order to account for the various types of merchandise that may be entered subject to the administrative exemption, the data elements required for the enhanced entry process are split into subparagraphs (1) and (2). Subparagraph (1) data must be transmitted for all shipments. The data in subparagraph (2) may not be applicable to all shipments, but if the data exists, it must be transmitted. CBP may request supporting documentation to conduct verification of any of the data elements.</P>
                <P>Under proposed § 143.23(l)(1), the following data elements must be transmitted for all shipments:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(i) Clearance Tracing Identification Number (CTIN)</HD>
                <P>The CTIN refers to the individual bill of lading number or other unique identification number used to associate the merchandise on the individual bill of lading with the eligible imported merchandise for which entry is sought.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(ii) Country of Shipment of the Merchandise</HD>
                <P>
                    This refers to the country where the goods were located when the shipment was created for exportation to the United States. For example, a good originating in Country A is shipped to a storage facility in Country B and is then sold and prepared for exportation to the United States. It is then transshipped through Country C before arriving in the United States. In this 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3057"/>
                    scenario, the country of shipment is Country B.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(iii) 10-Digit Classification of the Merchandise in Chapters 1-97 (and Additionally in Chapters 98-99, if Applicable) of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS)</HD>
                <P>The 10-digit HTSUS classification must be provided for all shipments unless the HTSUS waiver privilege has been obtained pursuant to paragraph (m) and asserted for the entry. Regardless of whether the waiver privilege is granted, merchandise subject to requirements of other government agencies will always require the HTSUS subheading number to be filed. The intent of collecting HTSUS data is primarily for CBP to verify what partner government agency requirements may apply to the merchandise.</P>
                <P>Unless otherwise prohibited, a Chapter 98 or Chapter 99 commodity may also be entered under the enhanced entry process. In such cases, the Chapter 98 or Chapter 99 HTSUS classification must be provided in addition to the underlying Chapters 1-97 HTSUS classification for the merchandise.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(iv) Additional Data Elements</HD>
                <P>CBP is also requiring at least one of the data elements listed under paragraph (l)(1)(iv). These data elements include the internet address known as the uniform resource locator (URL) to the marketplace's product listing for the merchandise in the entry; product picture; product identifier; and/or a shipment x-ray or other security screening report number verifying completion of foreign security scanning of the shipment. These data elements would be used by CBP to verify the contents of the shipment for admissibility purposes.</P>
                <P>CBP intends for the product identifier to be a commercial product identifier such as the part number, stock keeping unit (SKU), or product code. However, CBP is seeking the trade community's input regarding suggestions for acceptable product identifiers.</P>
                <P>The security screening report number, applicable to ECOs, is also included as one of the four options. CBP seeks the trade community's input about its viability for being submitted as part of the enhanced entry process.</P>
                <P>Next, proposed § 143.23(l)(2) lists additional information that must be transmitted for all shipments, if applicable. These data elements include:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(i) Seller Name and Address</HD>
                <P>The seller is the party that made, or offered or contracted to make, a sale of the merchandise. Seller information is critical to CBP's efforts to identify and interdict shipments of goods that infringe intellectual property rights or are of a substandard quality that renders them otherwise restricted from entry. These goods undercut the competitiveness of U.S. businesses and pose health and safety concerns.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(ii) Purchaser Name and Address</HD>
                <P>
                    The purchaser is the last known party to whom the goods are sold, or the party to whom the goods are contracted to be sold, at the time of importation. Importation occurs when a vessel arrives within the limits of a port in the United States with intent then and there to unlade such merchandise.
                    <SU>41</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In the case of merchandise imported other than by vessel, importation occurs when the merchandise arrives within the customs territory of the United States.
                    <SU>42</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>41</SU>
                         19 CFR 101.1.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>42</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Although this data element may seem to overlap with the data elements in § 143.23(k)(3) and (8), that would not always be the case. One of the main purposes of this proposed rule is to try to capture 
                    <E T="03">all</E>
                     the parties involved with complex e-commerce transactions. It is possible, for example, that Party A purchases a product on an online marketplace from Party B to be sent to Party C's address in the United States. In this scenario, it is possible that the name of Party B could be provided in § 143.23(k)(3) as the owner, and the name of Party C is provided in § 143.23(k)(8) as the final deliver-to party in the United States. Without this separate data element requesting the name and address of the purchaser, CBP would not know the party who initiated this transaction (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     Party A).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(iii) Any Data or Documents Required by Other Government Agencies</HD>
                <P>
                    If the merchandise is subject to any PGA data reporting requirements, the filer must transmit the PGA Message Set and file any supporting documentation via the Document Image System (DIS).
                    <SU>43</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>43</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         the December 13, 2013 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice (78 FR 75931) for a further discussion of the PGA Message Set and the October 15, 2015 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         notice (80 FR 62082) for a further discussion of DIS.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(iv) Advertised Retail Product Description</HD>
                <P>This refers to the exact product description as listed in the advertisement for sale. This must include a description that is more detailed than what is provided on the manifest. For example, products listed on online marketplaces include detailed descriptions of the merchandise, dimensions, weight, etc.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">(v) Marketplace Name and Website or Phone Number</HD>
                <P>
                    This refers to the party that provides an internet (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     online, website, application (“app”), electronic mail) or telephonic (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     telephone, television, or catalog) means of offering products for sale. The marketplace may be a seller or a third party offering products on behalf of a seller.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. HTSUS Waiver Privilege</HD>
                <P>The proposed enhanced entry process requires the submission of a 10-digit HTSUS classification for determining whether the merchandise is subject to PGA data requirements. CBP understands that many companies have their own internal risk assessment processes, which include ways to determine whether imported merchandise is subject to PGA requirements. Accordingly, the proposed regulations provide for parties to apply for a waiver of the reporting requirement for the 10-digit HTSUS classification if the filing party has documented internal controls that ensure certain compliance measures. This waiver is intended for filers with demonstrated capabilities and histories of segmenting out goods subject to PGA requirements. The waiver lifts the data requirement for 10-digit HTSUS classification as part of the enhanced entry only for goods that are not subject to PGA requirements. Waivers do not apply to goods that are subject to PGA requirements, for which the 10-digit HTSUS classification is always required under the enhanced entry process.</P>
                <P>Proposed § 143.23(m) sets forth the application requirements for the HTSUS waiver privilege, actions CBP may take on the application, and the appeals process. Notwithstanding the availability of this privilege, a 10-digit HTSUS classification would still be required for imported merchandise subject to PGA requirements. The waiver may only be used to enter merchandise under the enhanced entry process without providing the 10-digit HTSUS classification, when the imported merchandise is not subject to PGA requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    A party eligible to make an enhanced entry may apply for the HTSUS waiver privilege by submitting an application containing the information in paragraph (m)(2) to the Director, Cargo Security and Controls Division, Office of Field Operations, at 
                    <E T="03">ecommerce@cbp.dhs.gov.</E>
                      
                    <PRTPAGE P="3058"/>
                    The application process must include information demonstrating that the applicant does not import goods subject to PGA requirements or it must have in place documented internal controls used in the ordinary course of business to identify PGA goods with certainty. An applicant must demonstrate that the internal controls allow the applicant to properly classify merchandise under the HTSUS at the 10-digit classification, determine whether merchandise is subject to the requirements of other government agencies, and determine whether merchandise is otherwise precluded by law from eligibility for the administrative exemption under 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C). Participation in the Customs Trade Partnership Against Terrorism (CTPAT) program does not guarantee approval of an application, but may be considered along with other factors on a case-by-case basis.
                </P>
                <P>The Office of Field Operations, in consultation with the Office of Trade, will make the determination to grant or deny the application on a case-by-case basis. CBP will respond to applications within 60 days of receipt. CBP will conduct periodic compliance reviews of privileges granted. CBP may revoke the privilege at any time if it determines that a company's internal controls fall below the standards set by CBP, as proposed in 19 CFR 143.23(m)(2)(ii). If a company does not agree to participate in a review, then the privilege will be revoked.</P>
                <P>
                    If an application is denied or the waiver is revoked, an appeal may be submitted by email within 30 days of the date of denial or revocation to the Executive Director, Trade Policy and Programs, Office of Trade, CBP Headquarters, at 
                    <E T="03">ecommerce@cbp.dhs.gov.</E>
                     The denial of an application or the revocation of a waiver, does not preclude a party from reapplying for the privilege in the future. Reapplications must specify and address past denials and revocations of the privilege.
                </P>
                <P>Once obtained, the waiver privilege must be asserted as part of the entry filing for a shipment. CBP will track whether the imported merchandise in a shipment is eligible for the privilege through a “flag” or certification checkbox in ACE.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Party Who May Make Entry and Standard of Care</HD>
                <P>Section 143.26 addresses the right to make entry and the standard of care for informal entries. Current § 143.26(b) addresses who has the right to make entry, and states that shipments valued at $800 or less may be entered, using reasonable care, by the owner, purchaser, or consignee of the shipment or, when appropriately designated by one of these persons, a customs broker. These parties may continue to file entry under the basic entry process, and CBP proposes to add a clarifying cross-reference to § 143.23(k). Carriers often enter low-value shipments as nominal consignees under the release from manifest process. They will continue to be able to do so under the basic entry process in proposed § 143.23(k). This is not the case, however, under the enhanced process in proposed § 143.23(l). CBP proposes to add new paragraph (c) to § 143.26 that establishes an exception for enhanced entries regarding the parties who may make entry and the standard of care required.</P>
                <P>
                    CBP proposes that an enhanced entry under § 143.23(l) may be entered using reasonable care, by the owner or purchaser of the shipment, an express consignment operator or carrier in possession of the shipment (see § 128.1(a)), or when appropriately designated by the owner, purchaser, or consignee of the shipment, a customs broker. The filing of a basic or an enhanced entry, like the filing of any entry, is considered “customs business” under 19 U.S.C. 1641.
                    <SU>44</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     CBP notes that customs brokers must be authorized to conduct customs business on behalf of another party through a valid power of attorney and must comply with all other statutory and regulatory requirements applicable to brokers.
                    <SU>45</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This proposed rule does not preclude further amendments of the regulations at a later date to include other enhanced entry filers, including possibly the United States Postal Service. Any such expansion would be considered in a future rulemaking.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>44</SU>
                         Pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1641, “customs business” is defined as those activities involving transactions with CBP concerning the entry and admissibility of merchandise, its classification and valuation, the payment of duties, taxes, or other charges assessed or collected by CBP on merchandise by reason of its importation, or the refund, rebate, or drawback of those duties, taxes, or other charges. “Customs business” also includes the preparation of documents or forms in any format and the electronic transmission of documents, invoices, bills, or parts thereof, intended to be filed with CBP in furtherance of such activities, whether or not signed or filed by the preparer, or activities relating to such preparation, but does not include the mere electronic transmission of data received for transmission to CBP.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>45</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 141.46; 
                        <E T="03">see, e.g.,</E>
                         19 U.S.C. 1641; 19 U.S.C. 1484; 19 CFR parts 111 and 141.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Unlike in the basic entry process, consignees are not permitted to file an enhanced entry without using a customs broker. However, ECOs are permitted to file an enhanced entry without using a customs broker, even though they are consignees, because they are better able to provide detailed information to CBP about the imported merchandise. ECOs, by regulation, are expected to exercise “a high degree of control over the shipments, particularly in regard to the reliability of information supplied for Customs purposes.” 
                    <SU>46</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Typically, it is the owner or purchaser (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     a party with a direct nexus to the merchandise) who provides ECOs with information about the shipment. This closely integrated administrative control over shipments from pick-up to delivery uniquely positions ECOs, as opposed to other consignees, to obtain and provide to CBP accurate information about the contents of the shipment and to determine if the merchandise is subject to PGA requirements.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>46</SU>
                         19 CFR 128.1(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>ECOs transporting eligible shipments would qualify to file without using a customs broker under the enhanced entry process. Under 19 U.S.C. 1498, CBP has broad authority to promulgate special rules for the declaration and entry of merchandise subject to the 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C) exemption, to include identifying specific parties in the implementing regulations who are permitted to make entry on their own behalf.</P>
                <P>Section 143.26 also addresses the standard of care required for informal entries, including for entries of low-value shipments. Shipments entered under the basic process in proposed § 143.23(k) are covered by § 143.26(b) and the standard of care continues to be “reasonable care.”</P>
                <P>
                    For enhanced entries under proposed § 143.23(l), proposed § 143.26(c) states that the general standard of care is reasonable care, but sets forth more specific provisions for the data elements in § 143.23(l)(1)(iv)(A)-(D) and 143.23(l)(2)(iv)-(v). Specifically, these include the URL to the product listing, product picture, product identifier, shipment x-ray or other security screening report number, advertised product description, and marketplace information. CBP recognizes that these are non-traditional data elements and may not be easily verifiable by the party filing the entry if they are being passed onto the filer by third parties. Accordingly, when a party eligible to file the entry transmits the entry information specified above and receives any of that information from another party, CBP will take into consideration how, in accordance with ordinary commercial practices, the transmitting party acquired such information, and whether and how the transmitting party is able to verify this 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3059"/>
                    information. When the transmitting party is not reasonably able to verify such information, CBP will permit the party to transmit the information on the basis of what the party reasonably believes to be true.
                </P>
                <P>CBP proposes adding a cross-reference to the first sentence in paragraph (b) to recognize the more specific provisions in new paragraph (c).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Part 145</HD>
                <P>
                    CBP proposes amending § 145.31 to allow for mail shipments to be entered though the enhanced entry process. Parties interested in using the postal service to ship merchandise using the enhanced entry process will have to ensure that all required information is transmitted to CBP using the procedure set forth in § 143.23(l).
                    <SU>47</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     A mail customs declaration and invoice will continue to be required in accordance with § 145.11. The customs declaration is the “other shipping document used to file or support entry” referenced in § 143.23(j) and (l). The data for mail shipments must be received by CBP no later than the date the merchandise departs from the country of posting. Mail shipments are not eligible to use the basic entry process because the current method of entering qualifying low-value mail shipments free of duty and tax will continue to remain available. Under the current method, the information needed for entry and release is supplied in the documentation accompanying the mail package. Generally, this documentation consists of the customs declaration and invoice or bill of sale (or, in the case of merchandise not purchased or consigned for sale, a statement of the fair retail value in the country of shipment).
                    <SU>48</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>47</SU>
                         This rulemaking does not place any new requirements on the U.S. Postal Service to provide data to CBP and does not impose any new liabilities on it.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>48</SU>
                         19 CFR 145.11.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Lastly, CBP proposes to replace the word “will” with “may” in the first sentence of § 145.31 and the word “shall” with “may” in the first sentence of § 145.32 to reflect that CBP has the discretion to require formal entry for any low-value shipment.
                    <SU>49</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>49</SU>
                         19 CFR 143.22 and 145.12(a)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Statutory and Regulatory Reviews</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 14094</HD>
                <P>Executive Orders 13563 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review) and 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review), as amended by Executive Order 14094 (Modernizing Regulatory Review), direct agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives, and if regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying both costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility.</P>
                <P>
                    This rulemaking is a “significant regulatory action” under section 3(f)(1) of Executive Order 12866, as amended by Executive Order 14094, because the rulemaking would have an annual effect of $200 million or more during at least one year of the analysis. A regulatory impact analysis, entitled 
                    <E T="03">Entry of Low-Value Shipments (ELVS) Rulemaking,</E>
                     has been included in the docket of this rulemaking (docket number [USCBP-2025-0002]). The following presents a summary of the aforementioned regulatory impact analysis.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose of the Rule</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 321(a)(2) of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)), as amended by the Trade Facilitation and Trade Enforcement Act of 2015 (TFTEA), section 901, Public Law 114-125, 130 Stat. 122, authorizes administrative exemptions from duty and tax for three categories of articles. These categories include: bona-fide gifts valued at $100 or less ($200, if the gift is from certain island possessions) sent from persons in foreign countries to persons in the United States; certain personal or household articles valued at $200 or less accompanying persons arriving in the United States; and other articles when the value of the article is $800 or less.
                    <SU>50</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These exemptions are subject to the condition that the aggregate fair retail value in the country of shipment of articles imported by one person on one day and exempted from duty cannot exceed the authorized amounts. Also, these exemptions are not to be granted if merchandise covered by a single order or contract is forwarded in separate lots to obtain the benefit of duty- and tax-free entry.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>50</SU>
                         19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    This proposed rulemaking primarily concerns shipments covered by the administrative exemption in 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C), 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     shipments of merchandise (other than bona-fide gifts and certain personal and household goods accompanying travelers arriving from abroad) imported by one person on one day having an aggregate fair retail value in the country of shipment of not more than $800. For simplicity, all references to “the administrative exemption” in this document will be to the administrative exemption found in 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C). References made to the other administrative exemptions in 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2) will be specified as appropriate. In addition, this document refers to shipments not exceeding $800 as “low-value shipments.” 
                    <SU>51</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Low-value shipments that qualify for the administrative exemption in 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C) are referred to as “qualifying low-value shipments.” The administrative exemption is implemented in part 10 of title 19 of the Code of Federal Regulations (19 CFR part 10) at 19 CFR 10.151 and 10.153, and is also referenced in 19 CFR parts 128, 143, and 145.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>51</SU>
                         These shipments are also commonly referred to as “
                        <E T="03">de minimis”</E>
                         shipments.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Goods exceeding the 
                    <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                     limit ($800) or not satisfying all other statutory and regulatory requirements are not eligible for the administrative exemption and may not use the entry procedures for qualifying low-value shipments. Such goods must be entered using the appropriate formal or informal entry procedure and may be subject to duties and tax as provided by law. Put simply, qualifying low-value shipments must be entered in limited quantities per recipient (so as not to exceed the value limit). Everyday examples of typical low-value shipments might include cosmetics, a sweater, or a phone charger purchased from an online retailer.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Over the past eight years, the number of low-value shipments entering the United States has increased dramatically, from approximately 139 million shipments in 2015 to over 1 billion in 2023.
                    <SU>52</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This increase in shipment volume poses significant challenges for CBP, which must mitigate the risk of illicit items entering the country. Illicit items may include items that pose potential health, safety, and economic security threats; however, the illegal importation of illicit fentanyl via the smaller parcels that characterize low-value shipments is of particular concern.
                    <SU>53</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>52</SU>
                         Data provided by CBP's Office of Field Operations on July 6, 2023 (FY2015) and CBP's Office of Trade on November 8, 2023 (FY2023).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>53</SU>
                         Fentanyl is a potent synthetic opioid that is contributing to the ongoing opioid crisis in the United States.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    To facilitate the flow of legitimate trade while also mitigating risks associated with the substantial increase in the number of low-value shipments, in September 2019, CBP launched a test program, called the “Entry Type 86 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3060"/>
                    Test.” The test program is voluntary and open to all trade participants, and it modernizes the submission of entry data for these low-value shipments by providing for an electronic entry and clearance process. This process results in faster clearance times for these shipments, a benefit to the trade and consumers, and reduces the amount of manual time that must be spent by CBP officers clearing goods that are considered low risk. As an additional benefit, the test program allows certain low-value shipments subject to the requirements of partner government agencies (PGAs) like the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) or the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) to be entered without filing an informal type 11 or formal entry. For any dutiable merchandise, filing an informal type 11 or formal entry requires the payment of duties even for qualifying low-value shipments that would otherwise be exempt under the administrative exemption.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In exchange for improved clearance times and the ability to use the administrative exemption for low-value goods subject to PGA requirements, as part of the electronic filing process, trade participants provide additional information about each shipment. This additional information allows CBP to better identify and focus on relatively higher-risk shipments, such as those suspected of containing illicit fentanyl. Although these shipments are low value, they pose the same potential health, safety, and economic security risks as larger and more traditional containerized shipments. In FY 2023, the overwhelming majority of CBP actions on inadmissible cargo were taken against low-value goods. Of 107,300 seizures across all cargo types, 93,065 (87 percent) were seizures of low-value cargo.
                    <SU>54</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     CBP faces significant challenges in targeting these low-value shipments, while still maintaining the clearance speeds the private sector has come to expect.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>54</SU>
                         Seizure statistics provided by CBP subject matter experts on September 27, 2024. These data are from CBP's seizure database (SEACATS) and are specifically cargo-related seizures and do not include seizures in the passenger environment or seizures performed by U.S. Border Patrol or Air and Marine Operations.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    While CBP receives some advance electronic data for low-value shipments from carriers, the transmitted data often does not adequately identify the entity causing the shipment to cross the border, the final recipient, or the contents of the package. For example, in today's environment, CBP may not receive any advance information on the entity causing the shipment to travel to the United States (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     the seller or manufacturer). Taken together, the overwhelming volume of low-value packages as well as the vague and inaccurate electronic data, pose a significant challenge to CBP's ability to identify and interdict high risk packages. The provision of additional data also facilitates CBP's ability to properly vet shipments requiring review by PGAs and request presentation of the merchandise for inspection, when necessary.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The test program has been embraced by a large portion of the trade community, which appreciates the administrative efficiency of the electronic process, substantially faster clearance of low-risk shipments, and in certain cases, lawful avoidance of duties and taxes, including for shipments subject to PGA requirements. Many members of the trade community have begun utilizing entry type 86 for some or all of their low-value shipments. Previously, these filers would have utilized release from manifest (including shipments entered through the express environment) or formal or informal entry (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     type 01 or 11).
                </P>
                <P>From CBP's perspective, the test has been successful, but certain modifications can close identified security gaps. The modernization of the filing process for these shipments was essential to facilitating the flow of trade. Absent an automated CBP process, under current funding and staffing constraints, CBP would have faced significant challenges processing the current quantity of low-value shipments under the release from manifest process. However, to achieve significant security improvements and better facilitate the flow of legitimate trade, CBP believes the transmission of additional information about the contents of each shipment is necessary.</P>
                <P>
                    In this rulemaking, CBP proposes codifying the successful elements of the Entry Type 86 Test, including the provision of an electronic entry and automated clearance process for qualifying low-value shipments and duty- and tax-free entry for qualifying low-value PGA goods, while also adding new data requirements to the entry filing. As an example, filers may choose to provide an internet address, known as the uniform resource locator (URL), to the product's online listing or another image of the product as part of the entry filing.
                    <SU>55</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The data collected through this “enhanced entry process” will further improve CBP's ability to quickly release legitimate qualifying low-value shipments, allowing its officers to focus on targeting higher-risk shipments. Ultimately, CBP anticipates this increased focus on higher-risk shipments will improve its ability to intercept illicit goods, such as fentanyl. Importantly, under the proposed rule, use by the trade of the enhanced entry process continues to be voluntary; CBP will also continue to offer a process similar to the existing release from manifest process with more limited data requirements, referred to as the “basic entry process.”
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>55</SU>
                         For a complete list of the proposed changes to the data elements required for the enhanced entry process, please see chapter 1 of the full regulatory impact analysis included in the docket of this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The report accompanying this NPRM includes two separate analyses. First, we estimate the incremental benefits and costs of the Entry Type 86 Test, beginning in 2020 and assuming that the test would continue uninterrupted in the future (through 2034) in the absence of this rulemaking effort. CBP believes this assumption is reasonable because both CBP and industry participants have made significant logistical and administrative changes in order to achieve the benefits of electronic entry and clearance.</P>
                <P>Second, we estimate the future incremental benefits and costs of the proposed rule, which creates the new, voluntary enhanced entry process and retains, with minor revisions, the current release from manifest process. We estimate these incremental benefits and costs relative to a baseline (counterfactual) scenario where entry type 86 remains an option for entering qualifying low-value shipments into the United States. In addition, we present these impacts relative to a baseline without the Entry Type 86 Test to help readers understand the combined effect of the program that is being codified in the rulemaking as well as the modifications to the program under consideration in the proposed rule. Impacts are estimated from 2025 through 2034 (10 years).</P>
                <P>
                    For the Entry Type 86 Test, our analysis finds that the benefits of automation and faster clearance are likely to outweigh the burden of providing additional data. Potential security benefits are discussed qualitatively. We also find that some parties utilizing entry type 86 benefit from reduced tariff payments relative to other entry options. Available peer-reviewed literature suggests that the reduced tariff payments associated with a portion of the affected shipments is likely to affect U.S. consumers in the form of lower prices, making the lost tariff revenue a transfer of resources 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3061"/>
                    from the U.S. Government to consumers.
                    <SU>56</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>56</SU>
                         Please see chapter 5 of the full regulatory impact analysis included in the docket of this rulemaking for additional information.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>For the proposed rule, we quantify additional administrative costs, while additional security benefits are discussed qualitatively. Processing clearance times are unchanged relative to the Entry Type 86 Test. Similarly, no additional transfers, including reduced tariff payments, result from the proposed rule. Our findings are discussed in greater detail in the remainder of this summary of the aforementioned regulatory impact analysis in the docket of this rulemaking.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Need for the Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>
                    In 2016, section 901(d) of TFTEA amended 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C) by increasing the daily value limit for the administrative exemption from $200 to $800. CBP published an interim final rule amending the regulations to implement the new statutory amount and to specify certain goods excluded from the administrative exemption.
                    <SU>57</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Otherwise, CBP has not made any significant changes to the regulatory requirements by which such shipments are entered since 1995. In the nearly three decades since, however, there have been significant changes in the trade environment and supply chains, substantial increases in the volume of shipments, and advancements to CBP's capabilities that necessitate the modernization of these regulations to better serve both CBP and the trade community.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>57</SU>
                         81 FR 58831 (Aug. 26, 2016).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Summary of the Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>In the proposed rule, CBP seeks to codify an electronic entry process for qualifying low-value shipments seeking entry into the United States. Under this process, advance data elements are transmitted to CBP via a CBP-authorized electronic data interchange (EDI) system, such as the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE). This proposed new process is termed the “enhanced entry process.” In order to file an enhanced entry, CBP will require the submission of certain advance electronic data, including data about the contents, value, origin, and final destination of eligible shipments. This information will enable CBP to more efficiently target high-risk shipments while maintaining expedited clearance for low-risk shipments submitting advance data. This rulemaking also proposes to create an HTSUS waiver that would allow certain approved entities to use the enhanced entry process without providing an HTSUS number in certain cases.</P>
                <P>
                    Filing entry under the enhanced entry process is optional. Shipments subject to PGA requirements may use the enhanced entry process or entry types 01 and 11, as well as other appropriate entry types.
                    <SU>58</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The enhanced entry process will not be available for shipments subject to PGA fees; such shipments must be entered as an informal entry type 11 or formal entry, or other appropriate entry type, subject to payment of all applicable duties, taxes, and fees.
                    <SU>59</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>58</SU>
                         While other entry types are available, entry type 01 and 11 volumes far surpass those of all other entry types to the point where they do not measurably impact the effects of the rule. Therefore, for the purposes of this analysis, CBP focuses on type 01 and 11 volumes.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>59</SU>
                         Not all PGA shipments are subject to fees, which are separate and distinct from duties and taxes. Shipments subject to PGA fees may not use the enhanced entry process for low-value shipments and instead must file a formal or informal type 11 entry, or other appropriate type of entry. Qualifying low-value PGA shipments that are not subject to any PGA fees will be eligible to use the enhanced entry process.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Finally, the current default clearance process for qualifying low-value shipments, known as the “release from manifest” process, will continue to be offered with some modifications described below, and will be referred to as the “basic entry process.” The basic entry process may not be utilized for goods subject to PGA data requirements.
                    <SU>60</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>60</SU>
                         Please see chapter 1 of the full regulatory impact analysis included in the docket of this rulemaking for a detailed discussion of the data elements required for the enhanced and basic entry processes.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    CBP considered two additional regulatory alternatives; neither alternative is embodied in this NPRM. First, CBP considered a less stringent alternative formalizing the Entry Type 86 Test through a rulemaking that would make entry type 86 permanent. This scenario represents a continuation of existing entry options for low-value shipments under the test with no changes to entry processes or required data elements. Second, CBP considered a more stringent regulatory alternative in which the enhanced entry process did not include an option for filers to obtain a HTSUS waiver privilege (“waiver”) from CBP. This waiver is intended for filers with demonstrated capabilities and histories of segmenting out goods subject to PGA requirements. The waiver lifts the data requirement for the 10-digit Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) classification as part of the enhanced entry for qualifying low-value goods that are not subject to PGA requirements. Under this regulatory alternative, such a waiver would not be made available to any filers.
                    <SU>61</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>61</SU>
                         Regulatory alternatives are discussed in greater detail in chapter 10 of the full regulatory analysis.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Entry Type 86 Test Benefits, Costs, and Transfers</HD>
                <P>
                    This analysis first estimates the past and future effects of the existing Entry Type 86 Test, assuming no new rule is promulgated. We estimate effects on CBP, customs brokers, software providers, express consignment operators and carriers (ECOs), and importers. We estimate benefits and transfers using information provided by affected entities, including impacts to clearance times, tariff payments, and express fees.
                    <SU>62</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     To estimate costs, we rely on information provided during discussions with CBP and interviews with the trade industry.
                    <SU>63</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Many of these outcomes are informed by our understanding of historical shipment volumes and expectations as to future growth in low-value shipments. Based on our analysis, effects of the Entry Type 86 Test include the following:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>62</SU>
                         Please see chapter 5 of the full regulatory impact analysis included in the docket of this rulemaking for a more detailed discussion.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>63</SU>
                         Please see chapter 4 of the full regulatory impact analysis included in the docket of this rulemaking for more detail.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Benefits:</E>
                     The primary benefit is faster release of low-value shipments into commerce resulting from the automated clearance process. These benefits are quantified based on peer-reviewed literature estimating willingness to pay for saving a day of transit time per shipment.
                    <SU>64</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In addition, the Entry Type 86 Test has improved CBP's ability to target inadmissible goods, resulting in security-related benefits.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>64</SU>
                         Please see chapters 3 and 5 of the full regulatory impact analysis included in the docket of this rulemaking for additional information.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Costs:</E>
                     Administrative implementation costs focus on activities such as software reprogramming, staff training, and additional data collection. These implementation costs are offset by administrative cost savings associated with reduced CBP officer time reviewing documentation and reduced administrative time preparing filings for shipments that switch from informal type 11 or formal entry to entry type 86. Relevant unit costs and cost savings are estimated based on 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3062"/>
                    interviews with the trade and CBP staff.
                    <SU>65</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>65</SU>
                         Please see chapters 3 and 4 of the full regulatory impact analysis included in the docket of this rulemaking for additional information.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Transfers:</E>
                     Two types of transfers are likely, including reduced revenues to the U.S. Government due to importers opting for entry type 86 instead of entry types subject to express fees 
                    <SU>66</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     manifest clearance in express hubs) and tariffs (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     informal type 11 or formal entries). These revenues are estimated based on express fees published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     and tariff rates available from the U.S. International Trade Commission.
                    <SU>67</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>66</SU>
                         19 U.S.C. 58c(b)(9)(A)(ii); 19 CFR 24.23(b). The express fee refers to the express consignment carrier/centralized hub facility fee, per individual waybill/bill of lading.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>67</SU>
                         Please see chapters 3 and 5 of the full regulatory impact analysis included in the docket of this rulemaking for additional information.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Where possible, we quantify and monetize these impacts over a 15-year period from 2020 to 2034. These outcomes are the incremental effects of the Entry Type 86 Test relative to a baseline scenario where entry type 86 is not available. Table 1 summarizes these quantified benefits, costs, and cost savings (excluding transfers) through time and presents net benefits for each year. Based on our analysis, the total net benefits of the Entry Type 86 Test are estimated to be approximately $19 billion (undiscounted, 2023 dollars) over the 15-year period. In present value terms, the net benefits are approximately $17 billion (assuming a 2 percent discount rate).</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2(,0,),nj,i1" CDEF="s50,14,12,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Summary of Total Entry Type 86 Test Benefits, Costs, and Cost Savings </TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>
                        [In 2023 dollars] 
                        <SU>c</SU>
                         
                        <SU>d</SU>
                    </TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Fiscal year</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Benefits</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Costs</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost savings</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Net benefits</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>(A)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(B)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(C)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(= A−B + C)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Past Impacts</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">2020</ENT>
                        <ENT>$43,030,483</ENT>
                        <ENT>$4,316,816</ENT>
                        <ENT>$127,208,543</ENT>
                        <ENT>$165,922,210</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2021</ENT>
                        <ENT>139,966,936</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,758,383</ENT>
                        <ENT>361,271,949</ENT>
                        <ENT>497,480,501</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2022</ENT>
                        <ENT>129,442,889</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,678,928</ENT>
                        <ENT>351,131,510</ENT>
                        <ENT>476,895,471</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2023</ENT>
                        <ENT>282,639,872</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,022,697</ENT>
                        <ENT>650,253,194</ENT>
                        <ENT>926,870,369</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">2024</ENT>
                        <ENT>311,757,221</ENT>
                        <ENT>6,547,586</ENT>
                        <ENT>717,241,795</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,022,451,430</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="03">Total undiscounted</ENT>
                        <ENT>906,837,401</ENT>
                        <ENT>24,324,410</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,207,106,990</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,089,619,981</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Total present value (2 percent) 
                            <SU>a</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>948,430,560</ENT>
                        <ENT>25,682,967</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,312,234,507</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,234,982,100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Annualized (2 percent) 
                            <SU>b</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>178,675,386</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,838,429</ENT>
                        <ENT>435,603,206</ENT>
                        <ENT>609,440,162</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Future Impacts</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>340,874,571</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,072,475</ENT>
                        <ENT>784,230,396</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,118,032,491</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2026</ENT>
                        <ENT>369,991,920</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,597,365</ENT>
                        <ENT>851,218,997</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,213,613,552</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2027</ENT>
                        <ENT>399,109,270</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,122,254</ENT>
                        <ENT>918,207,598</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,309,194,614</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2028</ENT>
                        <ENT>428,226,620</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,647,144</ENT>
                        <ENT>985,196,199</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,404,775,675</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2029</ENT>
                        <ENT>457,343,969</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,172,033</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,052,184,800</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,500,356,736</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2030</ENT>
                        <ENT>486,461,319</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,696,922</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,119,173,401</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,595,937,797</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2031</ENT>
                        <ENT>515,578,669</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,221,812</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,186,162,002</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,691,518,859</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2032</ENT>
                        <ENT>544,696,018</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,746,701</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,253,150,603</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,787,099,920</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2033</ENT>
                        <ENT>573,813,368</ENT>
                        <ENT>11,271,591</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,320,139,204</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,882,680,981</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">2034</ENT>
                        <ENT>602,930,718</ENT>
                        <ENT>11,796,480</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,387,127,805</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,978,262,042</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="03">Total undiscounted</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,719,026,442</ENT>
                        <ENT>94,344,777</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,856,791,003</ENT>
                        <ENT>15,481,472,668</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Total present value (2 percent) 
                            <SU>a</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>4,280,128,169</ENT>
                        <ENT>85,655,755</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,847,043,148</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,041,515,561</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Annualized (2 percent) 
                            <SU>c</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>423,111,089</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,467,480</ENT>
                        <ENT>973,427,194</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,388,070,803</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Past and Future Impacts (2020-2034)</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Total undiscounted</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,625,863,843</ENT>
                        <ENT>118,669,187</ENT>
                        <ENT>13,063,897,993</ENT>
                        <ENT>18,571,092,649</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Total present value (2 percent) 
                            <SU>a</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>5,228,558,729</ENT>
                        <ENT>111,338,723</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,159,277,655</ENT>
                        <ENT>17,276,497,661</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">
                            Annualized (2 percent) 
                            <SU>d</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>361,328,921</ENT>
                        <ENT>7,694,262</ENT>
                        <ENT>840,288,674</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,193,923,333</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <E T="02">Notes:</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>We present unrounded values in the table to facilitate replication of our analysis. For reporting purposes, and to reflect the uncertainty inherent in these estimates, we recommend rounding these estimates to two significant figures.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>Table does not include transfers (see Table 2 for transfers).</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>a</SU>
                         Present value calculations use 2025 as the base year.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>b</SU>
                         Benefits, costs, and net benefits for past years are annualized over a 5-year period from 2020 to 2024.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>c</SU>
                         Benefits, costs, and net benefits for future years are annualized over a 10-year period from 2025 to 2034.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>d</SU>
                         Benefits, costs, and net benefits for all years are annualized over a 15-year period from 2020 to 2034.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    Table 2 illustrates the effects of the Entry Type 86 Test from 2025 through 2034 by presenting a distribution of the benefits, costs, cost savings, transfers, and net benefits experienced by each entity type. Administrative implementation activities produce an annualized net benefit of approximately $960 million (2 percent discount rate, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3063"/>
                    2023 dollars) and improvements in clearance time produce an annualized net benefit of approximately $420 million (2 percent discount rate, 2023 dollars). Changes in express fees and tariffs paid by consignees are considered to be transfers, producing $0 in net benefits. Importantly, impacts on social welfare and fiscal impacts are not additive; the former represents estimates of willingness to pay and opportunity costs, while the latter reflects changes in revenue.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,16,16,16">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Summary of Entry Type 86 Test Annualized Impacts by Entity Type From 2025-2034 </TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[2 Percent discount rate, in 2023 dollars]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Effect</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">U.S. Government</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Trade/consumers</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Net effect</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Impacts on Social Welfare</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Administrative Implementation</ENT>
                        <ENT>$972,773,259</ENT>
                        <ENT>($7,813,546)</ENT>
                        <ENT>$964,959,714</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Transmitting Data</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>(7,267,112)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(7,267,112)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Programming</ENT>
                        <ENT>(227,558)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(612,630)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(840,188)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Training</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Collecting New Data Elements</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>(360,180)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(360,180)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Time Savings</ENT>
                        <ENT>973,000,818</ENT>
                        <ENT>426,376</ENT>
                        <ENT>973,427,194</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Improved Clearance Time</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>423,111,089</ENT>
                        <ENT>423,111,089</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="03">Total Increase in Social Welfare</ENT>
                        <ENT>972,773,259</ENT>
                        <ENT>415,297,543</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,388,070,803</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Fiscal Impacts (Transfers)</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Tariffs</ENT>
                        <ENT>(2,095,103,797)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,095,103,797</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Express Fees</ENT>
                        <ENT>(163,886,413)</ENT>
                        <ENT>163,886,413</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total Fiscal Impacts</ENT>
                        <ENT>(2,258,990,211)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,258,990,211</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <E T="02">Notes:</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>We present unrounded values in the table to facilitate replication of our analysis. For reporting purposes, and to reflect the uncertainty inherent in these estimates, we recommend rounding these estimates to two significant figures.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>Costs are shown using parentheses.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>a</SU>
                         Present value calculations use 2025 as the base year.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>b</SU>
                         Impacts are annualized over 10 years from 2025 to 2034. We estimate the annualized impacts from the perspective of an individual in 2020, when entities started incurring costs or benefits related to the Entry Type 86 Test. This reflects the equal payment that would need to be made in each of the 10 years to equal the total present value of the costs and benefits.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The full regulatory impact analysis included in the docket of this rulemaking provides detailed discussions of key sources of uncertainty related to costs, benefits, and transfers of the Entry Type 86 Test. The full regulatory impact analysis also includes a quantitative sensitivity analysis to highlight the importance of key assumptions and presents the results in appendix A.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Proposed Rule Benefits, Costs, and Transfers</HD>
                <P>
                    This proposed rule updates the data elements currently required under the Entry Type 86 Test. We estimate impacts likely to be experienced by CBP, customs brokers, software providers, ECOs, and consignees due to the provision of these additional data elements. While the proposed rule is expected to produce security benefits, we are unable to quantify these benefits in this analysis due to data limitations.
                    <SU>68</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As with our analysis of the Entry Type 86 Test, we estimate costs of the proposed rule using information obtained through discussions with CBP and interviews with the trade.
                    <SU>69</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Key cost categories include administrative implementation activities, such as software reprogramming, staff training, and additional data collection. Incremental changes in tariff or fee revenue relative to Baseline 1 are not anticipated.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>68</SU>
                         Please see chapter 9 of the full regulatory impact analysis included in the docket of this rulemaking for additional information.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>69</SU>
                         Please see chapter 8 of the full regulatory impact analysis included in the docket of this rulemaking for additional information.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>For the three regulatory alternatives considered by CBP, we estimate the anticipated benefits, costs, and transfers under two baseline scenarios. We first consider the incremental effects of the proposed rule relative to a baseline scenario where CBP continues to implement the Entry Type 86 Test. This scenario reflects the most likely forecast of available entry types absent the proposed rule. CBP is not currently equipped to handle the now-sizable low-value shipment volumes manually without any automated clearance process like entry type 86. Reverting to an entirely manual process would be infeasible and contrary to CBP's mission to facilitate the entry of legitimate goods into the United States.</P>
                <P>
                    We also present results considering an alternative baseline scenario regarding the future availability of an automated entry process in the absence of a new rule. This alternative baseline scenario assumes that, beginning in 2025, the technology and processes developed for electronic filing and automated clearance under the Entry Type 86 Test would no longer be available for low-value shipments and, effectively, are reinstated with this rulemaking. This baseline scenario is a counterfactual used to illustrate the cumulative effects of this rulemaking and not an announcement of a change to the existing Entry Type 86 Test. The practical result of applying this alternative baseline scenario is an estimate of the cumulative impacts of (1) continuing to leverage the advances made with the implementation of the Entry Type 86 Test, while also (2) making enhancements to the process via the proposed rule. CBP recognizes that the public may have an interest in understanding the combined effect of the program that is being codified in the rulemaking as well as the modifications to the program under consideration in the proposed rule and this baseline scenario allows the reader to do that—the effects, when measured against this baseline scenario, are the total prospective effects of the Entry Type 86 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3064"/>
                    Test and this rulemaking. For the purposes of this analysis, CBP considers the second baseline to be the primary baseline for this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <P>Where possible, we quantify and monetize these impacts over a 10-year period from 2025 to 2034. Table 3 provides a summary of the costs, benefits, and transfers resulting from each regulatory alternative, including relevant chapters where these impacts are presented.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,r100,r120">
                    <TTITLE>Table 3—Summary of the Incremental Impacts of Regulatory Alternatives Under Alternative Baseline Scenarios</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Regulatory alternative 
                            <SU>a</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Baseline scenario (2025-2034)</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Baseline 1: Entry Type 86 Test continues</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">Baseline 2: No Entry Type 86 Test</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1. Codify the Entry Type 86 Test</ENT>
                        <ENT>Costs, benefits, and transfers are zero</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Costs, benefits, and transfers of the proposed rule are equivalent to the future impacts estimated for Entry Type 86 Test.
                            <SU>b</SU>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2. (Preferred) Enhanced entry with HTSUS waiver available</ENT>
                        <ENT>Costs, benefits, and transfers are presented in Chapters 7 to 9 of the full analysis</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Costs, benefits, and transfers of the proposed rule are equal to the sum of the Entry Type 86 Test future impacts and the proposed rule impacts.
                            <SU>b</SU>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3. Enhanced entry with no HTSUS waiver available</ENT>
                        <ENT>Costs, benefits, and transfers are presented in Chapters 7 to 9 of the full analysis, including unquantified costs associated with no waiver provision</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Costs, benefits, and transfers of the proposed rule are equal to the sum of the Entry Type 86 Test future impacts, the proposed rule impacts, and unquantified costs associated with no waiver provision.
                            <SU>b</SU>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <E T="02">Notes:</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>a</SU>
                         Detailed discussion of regulatory alternatives is available in Chapter 10 of the full analysis.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>b</SU>
                         Detailed discussion of future Entry Type 86 Test impacts and this proposed rule's impacts is available in Chapters 3 to 6 and Chapters 7 to 9 of the full analysis respectively.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Preferred Regulatory Alternative: Baseline 1 (Entry Type 86 Test Continues)</HD>
                <P>Table 4 presents total present value costs assuming a baseline where the Entry Type 86 Test were to continue in the absence of this new regulation. Because benefits are unquantified, we are unable to calculate the likely net benefits of the proposed rule. Total present value costs of the proposed rule over the 10-year period of analysis are estimated to be approximately $110 million (2023 dollars), assuming a discount rate of 2 percent.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 4—Summary of Proposed Rule Benefits and Costs—Baseline 1: Entry Type 86 Test Continues</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[In 2023 dollars]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Fiscal year</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Benefits</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Costs 
                            <SU>c</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Net benefits 
                            <SU>d</SU>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>Positive Unquantified</ENT>
                        <ENT>$91,854,198</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2026</ENT>
                        <ENT>Positive Unquantified</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,139,656</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2027</ENT>
                        <ENT>Positive Unquantified</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,184,004</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2028</ENT>
                        <ENT>Positive Unquantified</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,228,352</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2029</ENT>
                        <ENT>Positive Unquantified</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,272,700</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2030</ENT>
                        <ENT>Positive Unquantified</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,317,048</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2031</ENT>
                        <ENT>Positive Unquantified</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,361,396</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2032</ENT>
                        <ENT>Positive Unquantified</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,405,744</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2033</ENT>
                        <ENT>Positive Unquantified</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,450,092</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">2034</ENT>
                        <ENT>Positive Unquantified</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,494,440</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="03">Total undiscounted</ENT>
                        <ENT>Positive Unquantified</ENT>
                        <ENT>112,707,628</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Total present value (2 percent) 
                            <SU>a</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Positive Unquantified</ENT>
                        <ENT>110,718,728</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Annualized present value (2 percent) 
                            <SU>b</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Positive Unquantified</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,084,247</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <E T="02">Notes:</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>a</SU>
                         Present value calculations use 2025 as the base year.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>b</SU>
                         Costs are annualized over a 10-year period from 2025 to 2034.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>c</SU>
                         We present unrounded values in the table to facilitate replication of our analysis. For reporting purposes, and to reflect the uncertainty inherent in these estimates, we recommend rounding these estimates to two significant figures.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>d</SU>
                         Net benefits are uncertain due to our inability to quantify the likely incremental security benefits of the proposed rule.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    Table 5 presents the distribution of costs and benefits by entity type assuming a baseline where the Entry Type 86 Test exists. Affected entities include the U.S. Government (representing CBP, the Department of the Treasury, and PGAs) and trade/consumers (including customs brokers, software providers, ECOs, importers, and other industry participants, including consumers). Administrative implementation activities are likely to cost approximately $12 million (2023 dollars) on an annualized basis, assuming a discount rate of 2 percent. Security-related effects, including providing the data needed to help interdict fentanyl smuggling, result in positive benefits that we are unable to quantify due to data limitations. Improvements in clearance time, and changes in express fees and tariffs paid by trade participants, are unlikely to result from the proposed rule when compared to the baseline that includes the Entry Type 86 Test.
                    <PRTPAGE P="3065"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,18,18,18">
                    <TTITLE>Table 5—Summary of Proposed Rule Annualized Impacts by Entity Type—Baseline 1: Entry Type 86 Test Continues </TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[2 Percent discount rate, in 2023 dollars]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Effect</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">U.S. Government</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Trade/consumers</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Subtotal</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Impacts on Social Welfare</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Administrative Implementation</ENT>
                        <ENT>($680,248)</ENT>
                        <ENT>($11,403,999)</ENT>
                        <ENT>($12,084,247)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Transmitting Data</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Programming</ENT>
                        <ENT>(680,248)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(10,657,045)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(11,337,293)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Training</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>(35,450)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(35,450)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Collecting New Data Elements</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>(711,504)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(711,504)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Time Savings</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Improved Clearance Time</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Security</ENT>
                        <ENT>Positive Unquantified</ENT>
                        <ENT>Positive Unquantified</ENT>
                        <ENT>Positive Unquantified</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="03">Total Increase in Social Welfare</ENT>
                        <ENT>(680,248)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(11,403,999)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(12,084,247).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Fiscal Impacts (Transfers)</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Tariffs</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Express Fees</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total Fiscal Impacts</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <E T="02">Notes:</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>We present unrounded values in the table to facilitate replication of our analysis.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>Costs are shown using parentheses.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>a</SU>
                         Present value calculations use 2025 as the base year.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>b</SU>
                         Costs are annualized over 10 years from 2025 to 2034.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The full regulatory impact analysis included in the docket of this rulemaking provides detailed discussions of key sources of uncertainty related to costs, benefits, and transfers of this proposed rule. The full regulatory impact analysis also includes a quantitative sensitivity analysis to highlight the importance of key assumptions and presents the results in appendix A.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Preferred Regulatory Alternative: Baseline 2 (No Entry Type 86 Test)</HD>
                <P>Table 6 presents total present value costs assuming a baseline where the Entry Type 86 Test does not exist. Because security benefits of the Entry Type 86 Test and the proposed rule are unquantified, the likely cumulative net benefits of these interventions are underestimated. Assuming a baseline without the Entry Type 86 Test, total present value net benefits over the 10-year period of analysis are estimated to be at least $14 billion (2023 dollars), assuming a discount rate of 2 percent.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s50,14,12,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Table 6—Summary of Cumulative Benefits and Costs—Baseline 2: No Entry Type 86 Test </TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[In 2023 dollars]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Fiscal year</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Benefits 
                            <SU>c</SU>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Costs</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Cost savings</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Net benefits 
                            <SU>d</SU>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>(A)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(B)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(C)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(= A − B + C)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2025</ENT>
                        <ENT>$340,874,571</ENT>
                        <ENT>$98,926,674</ENT>
                        <ENT>$784,230,396</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,026,178,293</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2026</ENT>
                        <ENT>369,991,920</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,737,021</ENT>
                        <ENT>851,218,997</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,211,473,897</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2027</ENT>
                        <ENT>399,109,270</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,306,258</ENT>
                        <ENT>918,207,598</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,307,010,610</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2028</ENT>
                        <ENT>428,226,620</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,875,495</ENT>
                        <ENT>985,196,199</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,402,547,323</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2029</ENT>
                        <ENT>457,343,969</ENT>
                        <ENT>11,444,733</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,052,184,800</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,498,084,036</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2030</ENT>
                        <ENT>486,461,319</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,013,970</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,119,173,401</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,593,620,750</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2031</ENT>
                        <ENT>515,578,669</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,583,208</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,186,162,002</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,689,157,463</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2032</ENT>
                        <ENT>544,696,018</ENT>
                        <ENT>13,152,445</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,253,150,603</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,784,694,176</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2033</ENT>
                        <ENT>573,813,368</ENT>
                        <ENT>13,721,682</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,320,139,204</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,880,230,890</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">2034</ENT>
                        <ENT>602,930,718</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,290,920</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,387,127,805</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,975,767,603</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="03">Total undiscounted</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,719,026,442</ENT>
                        <ENT>207,052,405</ENT>
                        <ENT>10,856,791,003</ENT>
                        <ENT>15,368,765,040</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Total present value (2 percent) 
                            <SU>a</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>4,280,128,169</ENT>
                        <ENT>196,374,484</ENT>
                        <ENT>9,847,043,148</ENT>
                        <ENT>13,930,796,832</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Annualized (2 percent) 
                            <SU>b</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>423,111,089</ENT>
                        <ENT>20,551,727</ENT>
                        <ENT>973,427,194</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,375,986,556</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <E T="02">Notes</E>
                        :
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>We present unrounded values in the table to facilitate replication of our analysis. For reporting purposes, and to reflect the uncertainty inherent in these estimates, we recommend rounding these estimates to two significant figures.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>a</SU>
                         Present value calculations use 2025 as the base year.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>b</SU>
                         Benefits, costs, and net benefits are annualized over a 10-year period from 2025 to 2034.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>c</SU>
                         Benefits are underestimated due to our inability to quantify the anticipated security-related benefits of the proposed rule. These values reflect only the quantified benefits of the Entry Type 86 Test. The total benefits associated with a baseline without the Entry Type 86 Test would be the values presented in this table as well as additional positive unquantified benefits.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>d</SU>
                         Net benefits are underestimated due to our inability to quantify the likely incremental security benefits of the proposed rule.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="3066"/>
                <P>Table 7 presents the distribution of costs and benefits by entity type assuming a baseline where the Entry Type 86 Test does not exist. Administrative implementation activities are likely to produce a positive annualized net benefit of approximately $950 million (2 percent discount rate, 2023 dollars) and improvements in clearance time produce a positive annualized net benefit of approximately $420 million (2 percent discount rate, 2023 dollars). Security-related effects, including providing the data needed to help interdict illicit fentanyl, result in positive benefits that we are unable to quantify due to data limitations. Changes in express fees and tariffs paid by consignees are considered to be revenue transfers, producing $0 in net benefits. Importantly, impacts on social welfare and fiscal impacts are not additive; the former represents estimates of willingness to pay and opportunity costs, while the latter reflects changes in revenue.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,18,18,18">
                    <TTITLE>Table 7—Summary of Proposed Rule Annualized Impacts by Entity Type—Baseline 2: No Entry Type 86 Test </TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[2 Percent discount rate, in 2023 dollars]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Effect</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">U.S. Government</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Trade/consumers</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Subtotal</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Impacts on Social Welfare</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Administrative Implementation</ENT>
                        <ENT>$972,093,012</ENT>
                        <ENT>($19,217,545)</ENT>
                        <ENT>$952,875,467</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Transmitting Data</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>(7,267,112)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(7,267,112)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Programming</ENT>
                        <ENT>(907,806)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(11,269,675)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(12,177,481)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Training</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>(35,450)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(35,450)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Collecting New Data Elements</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>(1,071,684)</ENT>
                        <ENT>(1,071,684)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Time Savings</ENT>
                        <ENT>973,000,818</ENT>
                        <ENT>426,376</ENT>
                        <ENT>973,427,194</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Improved Clearance Time</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                        <ENT>423,111,089</ENT>
                        <ENT>423,111,089</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Security</ENT>
                        <ENT>Positive Unquantified</ENT>
                        <ENT>Positive Unquantified</ENT>
                        <ENT>Positive Unquantified</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="03">Total Increase in Social Welfare</ENT>
                        <ENT>972,093,012</ENT>
                        <ENT>403,893,545</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,375,986,556</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Fiscal Impacts (Transfers)</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Tariffs</ENT>
                        <ENT>(2,095,103,797)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,095,103,797</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Express Fees</ENT>
                        <ENT>(163,886,413)</ENT>
                        <ENT>163,886,413</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total Fiscal Impacts</ENT>
                        <ENT>(2,258,990,211)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,258,990,211</ENT>
                        <ENT>0</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <E T="02">Notes:</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>We present unrounded values in the table to facilitate replication of our analysis.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>Costs are shown using parentheses.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>a</SU>
                         Present value calculations use 2025 as the base year.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>b</SU>
                         Costs are annualized over 10 years from 2025 to 2034.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The full regulatory impact analysis included in the docket of this rulemaking provides detailed discussions of key sources of uncertainty related to costs, benefits, and transfers of this proposed rule. The full regulatory impact analysis also includes a quantitative sensitivity analysis to highlight the importance of key assumptions and presents the results in appendix A.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Summary of Regulatory Alternatives</HD>
                <P>Table 8 summarizes estimates of net benefits for each regulatory alternative relative to the two different baseline scenarios described earlier. Incremental effects estimated relative to Baseline 1 reflect the net benefits of the enhancements to the existing Entry Type 86 Test that will be codified if the proposed rule is finalized. Incremental effects estimated relative to Baseline 2 reflect the cumulative net benefits of continuing to leverage the systems and processes put in place to implement the Entry Type 86 Test in combination with the enhancements included in the proposed rule. To reflect the uncertainty inherent in the analysis presented in this report, we round our results to two significant figures.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s75,r100,r100">
                    <TTITLE>Table 8—Annualized Net Benefits of Regulatory Alternatives </TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>
                        [2 Percent discount rate, in 2023 dollars] 
                        <SU>a</SU>
                         
                        <SU>b</SU>
                         
                        <SU>c</SU>
                    </TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Regulatory alternative</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Baseline scenario</CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            Baseline 1: 
                            <SU>d</SU>
                            <LI>Entry Type 86 Test continues</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="2">
                            Baseline 2: 
                            <SU>e</SU>
                            <LI>No Entry Type 86</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">1. Codify Entry Type 86 Test</ENT>
                        <ENT>$0</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1.4 billion + unquantified security benefits.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">2. (Preferred) Enhanced entry with HTSUS waiver available</ENT>
                        <ENT>−$12 million + unquantified security benefits associated with enhanced data elements (e.g., URL)</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1.4 billion + unquantified security benefits associated with HTSUS and enhanced data elements (e.g., URL).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">3. Enhanced entry with no HTSUS waiver available</ENT>
                        <ENT>−$12 million + unquantified security benefits associated with enhanced data elements (e.g., URL) −unquantified costs of obtaining HTSUS codes if no waiver is available</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1.4 billion + unquantified security benefits associated with HTSUS and enhanced data elements (e.g., URL)−unquantified costs of obtaining HTSUS codes if no waiver is available.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <E T="02">Notes:</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>a</SU>
                         To reflect the uncertainty inherent in these estimates, we round estimates to two significant figures.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>b</SU>
                         Net benefits are annualized over a 10-year period from 2025-2034.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3067"/>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>c</SU>
                         Implementation of the Entry Type 86 Test also results in substantive transfers between the U.S. Government and consumers in the form of reduced tariffs and fees. These transfers are summarized in Table 2. Because the transfers represent off-setting costs to the U.S. Government and benefits to consumers, their net benefit is $0. The enhancements considered in the proposed rule are unlikely to result in additional transfers.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>d</SU>
                         Incremental effects estimated relative to Baseline 1 reflect the net benefits of the enhancements to the existing Entry Type 86 Test that will be codified if the proposed rule is finalized.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>e</SU>
                         Incremental effects estimated relative to Baseline 2 reflect the cumulative net benefits of continuing to leverage the systems and processes put in place to implement the Entry Type 86 Test in combination with the enhancements included in the proposed rule.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Additional Requirements for Regulatory Analysis</HD>
                <P>Table 9 provides a cost accounting statement for the proposed rule where the baseline includes the Entry Type 86 Test. Table 10 provides the analogous information assuming the Entry Type 86 Test did not exist.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,r200">
                    <TTITLE>Table 9—A-4—Accounting Statement for the Proposed Rule—Baseline 1 </TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Entry Type 86 Test continues]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annualized estimate
                            <LI>
                                (in 2023 dollars) 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Benefits:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Monetized benefits</ENT>
                        <ENT>None.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Quantified, non-monetized benefits</ENT>
                        <ENT>None.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Qualitative (unquantified) benefits</ENT>
                        <ENT>Improved security resulting from more efficient targeting of inbound low-value shipments. Improved security includes the interdiction of fentanyl smuggling, among other things. Enforcement of customs regulations plays a critical role in protecting the American public, environment, and economy.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Costs:</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Monetized costs</ENT>
                        <ENT>$12 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Quantified, non-monetized costs</ENT>
                        <ENT>None.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Qualitative (unquantified) costs</ENT>
                        <ENT>None.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Transfers:</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Monetized budgetary transfers</ENT>
                        <ENT>None.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Other monetized transfers</ENT>
                        <ENT>None.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Distributional Effects:</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Effects on State, local, and/or tribal governments
                            <LI>Effects on small businesses</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Which entities are affected by the proposed rule depends on whether the costs associated with transmitting shipments through the enhanced entry process are passed on to consumers in the form of higher prices. If customs brokers and express consignment operators (ECOs) bear the costs, then at least 314 small businesses may be affected; however, only some medium and large volume brokers are projected to incur costs that exceed 1 percent of their annual revenues. If consignees bear the costs through increased prices, then any small business, organization, or government jurisdiction importing low-value shipments has the potential to be affected. The increase in the cost per shipment is estimated to be $0.01, or 0.03% of the average value of low-value shipments.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Effects on wages</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not anticipated.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Effects on growth</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not anticipated.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>Source: Calculations using data sources described throughout the main text.</TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Present value calculations use 2025 as the base year. Costs are annualized over 10 years from 2025 to 2034 and reflect a 2 percent discount rate.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s100,r200">
                    <TTITLE>Table 10—A-4—Accounting Statement for the Proposed Rule—Baseline 2</TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[No Entry Type 86 Test]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Annualized estimate
                            <LI>(in 2023 dollars)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Benefits:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Monetized benefits</ENT>
                        <ENT>$420 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Quantified, non-monetized benefits</ENT>
                        <ENT>None.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Qualitative (unquantified) benefits</ENT>
                        <ENT>Improved security resulting from more efficient targeting of inbound low-value shipments. Improved security includes the interdiction of fentanyl smuggling, among other things. Enforcement of customs regulations plays a critical role in protecting the American public, environment, and economy.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Costs:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Monetized costs</ENT>
                        <ENT>$21 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Quantified, non-monetized costs</ENT>
                        <ENT>None.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Qualitative (unquantified) costs</ENT>
                        <ENT>Costs to brokers of verifying and assigning HTSUS codes the first time a new product is shipped. Because this cost category only applies to new products, and given the potential economies of scale, the omission of this cost estimate may result in only a minor overstatement of net benefits.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Cost Savings:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Monetized costs savings</ENT>
                        <ENT>$970 million.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Quantified, non-monetized cost savings</ENT>
                        <ENT>None.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="3068"/>
                        <ENT I="03">Qualitative (unquantified) cost savings</ENT>
                        <ENT>None.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Transfers:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Monetized budgetary transfers</ENT>
                        <ENT>$2.3 billion.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Other monetized transfers</ENT>
                        <ENT>None.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Distributional Effects:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Effects on State, local, and/or tribal governments
                            <LI>Effects on small businesses</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Which entities are affected by the proposed rule depends on whether the costs associated with transmitting entry information through the enhanced entry process are passed on to consumers in the form of higher prices. If customs brokers, ECOs, and software providers bear the costs, then at least 314 small businesses may be affected; however, only some medium and large volume brokers and software providers are projected to incur costs that exceed 1 percent of their annual revenues. If consignees bear the costs through increased prices, then any small business, organization, or government jurisdiction importing qualifying low-value goods has the potential to be affected. However, costs to consignees are offset by the value of time savings and reduced tariffs and fees. The net effect is a decrease in the cost per shipment of $2.86, or a savings equal to approximately 8.9% if the value of a shipment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Effects on wages</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not anticipated.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Effects on growth</ENT>
                        <ENT>Not anticipated.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>
                    This section examines the impact on small entities as required by the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement and Fairness Act of 1996. A small entity may be a small business (defined as any independently owned and operated business not dominant in its field that qualifies as a small business per the Small Business Act); a small not-for-profit organization; or a small governmental jurisdiction (locality with fewer than 50,000 people). The following presents a summary of the small business analysis of the aforementioned regulatory impact analysis included in the docket of this rulemaking (docket number [USCBP-2025-0002]).
                </P>
                <P>
                    This rulemaking will have direct effects on consignees, brokers, ECOs, and software vendors, but it is not clear the extent to which effects are passed on from the brokers, ECOs, and software vendors to the consignees, so CBP conducted the threshold analysis under two scenarios—that all the costs are passed on and that none of the costs are passed on. The analysis demonstrates that under both scenarios, a substantial number of small businesses may be affected by the proposed rule. Assuming brokers, ECOs, and software providers fully bear the costs they incur (Scenario 1), we estimate that 75 percent of sampled entities qualify as small businesses. Extrapolating from a sample to the full population of affected brokers and software providers suggests that at least 314 affected entities are small businesses.
                    <SU>70</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Under the alternate assumption that consignees bear the cost of the rule (Scenario 2), any small entity in the United States has the potential to be affected by the rule as a consignee. Analysis of a sample of consignees for one day in 2023 demonstrates that 92 percent of businesses in the sample qualify as small businesses. As such, we conclude that this rulemaking could affect a substantial number of small entities.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>70</SU>
                         (71 percent * 364 low-volume brokers) + 16 medium- and high-volume brokers + (86 percent * 46 software providers) = 314 small businesses among the affected industries included in Scenario 1.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    We next analyze whether the effects of the rule are significant. CBP considers effects of more than one percent of gross annual revenues to be significant. We find that under Scenario 1, low-volume brokers that are small businesses are unlikely to be significantly affected by the rule while medium- and high-volume brokers and software providers that are small businesses are likely to experience costs more than one percent of annual revenues. In Scenario 2 the impact on small entities is uncertain because we lack per consignee annual shipment volumes needed to calculate entity specific costs. In the “Entry Type 86 continues” baseline, comparing the potential increase in cost per shipment with the average value per shipment suggests the impact on consignees is unlikely to be significant. In the “no Entry Type 86 Test” baseline, consignees experience a significant net benefit given the clearance time savings, reduced tariff payments, and reduced express fees.
                    <SU>71</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>71</SU>
                         Please see chapter 11 of the full regulatory impact analysis included in the docket of this rulemaking for additional information.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Due to uncertainty regarding whether impacts to various small entities are significant and because CBP does not know the extent to which the costs will be passed on from brokers and software providers to the consignees, CBP does not certify that this rulemaking has a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities and instead we have prepared an Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis. CBP requests comment on this conclusion.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Initial Regulatory Flexibility Analysis (IRFA)</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. A Description of the Reasons Why Action by the Agency Is Being Considered</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 321(a)(2) of the Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)), as amended by the Trade Facilitation and Trade Enforcement Act of 2015 (TFTEA), section 901, Public Law 114-125, 130 Stat. 122, authorizes administrative exemptions from duty and tax for three categories of articles. These categories include: bona-fide gifts valued at $100 or less ($200, if the gift is from certain island possessions) sent from persons in foreign countries to persons in the United States; certain personal or household articles valued at $200 or less accompanying persons arriving in the United States; and other articles when the value of the article is $800 or less.
                    <SU>72</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     These exemptions are subject to the condition that the aggregate fair retail 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3069"/>
                    value in the country of shipment of articles imported by one person on one day and exempted from the payment of duty cannot exceed the authorized amounts. Also, these exemptions are not to be granted if merchandise covered by a single order or contract is forwarded in separate lots to secure the benefit of duty- and tax-free entry.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>72</SU>
                         19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    This proposed rulemaking primarily concerns shipments covered by the administrative exemption in 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C), 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     shipments of merchandise (other than bona-fide gifts and certain personal and household goods accompanying travelers arriving from abroad) imported by one person on one day and having an aggregate fair retail value in the country of shipment of not more than $800.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In 2016, section 901(d) of TFTEA amended 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C) by increasing the daily value limit for the administrative exemption from $200 to $800.
                    <SU>73</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     CBP published an interim final rule amending the regulations to implement the new statutory amount and to specify certain goods excluded from the administrative exemption.
                    <SU>74</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Otherwise, CBP has not made any significant changes to the regulatory requirements by which such shipments are entered since 1995. In the nearly three decades since, however, there have been significant changes in the trade environment, substantial increases in the volume of shipments, and advancements to CBP's capabilities that necessitate the modernization of these regulations to better serve both CBP and the trade community.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>73</SU>
                         Section 901 did not change the administrative exemptions for bona-fide gifts and personal or household articles accompanying travelers under 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(A) and (B), respectively.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>74</SU>
                         81 FR 58831 (Aug. 26, 2016).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Firstly, e-commerce is a growing segment of the U.S. economy and has been increasing significantly for the past several years.
                    <SU>75</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Consumer habits are changing as the internet empowers individuals to make purchases online. These advances in economic activity have led to increasing volumes of imports of low-value shipments, creating inspection challenges for CBP. Low-value e-commerce shipments pose the same health, safety, and economic security risks as higher-value shipments. Transnational criminal organizations and other bad actors perceive low-value shipments as less likely to be interdicted because these types of shipments are not subject to the more extensive formal entry procedures. This has resulted in attempts to enter illicit goods, such as illicit fentanyl, into the country through these types of shipments. Furthermore, novel and complex e-commerce business models have complicated and added to the traditional array of parties involved in the import transaction. New or infrequent importers often possess less familiarity with U.S. customs laws and regulations, which can lead to the attempted importation of non-compliant goods. This rulemaking proposes data requirements that are tailored to capture the key parties in these modern trade transactions (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     the seller, purchaser, final deliver-to party, and marketplace), thus strengthening CBP's enforcement posture.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>75</SU>
                         Although the administrative exemption is not limited to only e-commerce shipments, the reality is that e-commerce shipments comprise a significant portion of low-value shipments.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Secondly, the volume of low-value shipments has increased dramatically in recent years. The statutory increase in the daily value limit for the administrative exemption from $200 to $800 in 2016, coupled with the boom in e-commerce, greatly increased the number of shipments qualifying for the exemption, resulted in new types of products becoming eligible for the exemption, and revived the trade community's interest in the exemption. In fiscal year (FY) 2015, prior to the passage of TFTEA, approximately 139 million shipments valued at $200 or less were imported into the United States. In FY 2017, after the TFTEA increase to $800 went into effect, low-value shipments numbered nearly 325 million. By the end of FY 2022, that number more than doubled to 685 million. Then in FY 2023, CBP cleared more than one billion low-value shipments. Currently, approximately 4 million shipments are released each day free of duty and tax pursuant to the administrative exemption. In fact, CBP estimates that over 90 percent of all shipments entering the United States are low-value shipments valued at $800 or less.
                    <SU>76</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The information requirements for these shipments are less rigorous than those required for other entry types, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     formal entries, and no longer provide sufficient detail for CBP to accurately identify the merchandise in the shipment and the parties involved in its sale and purchase. This overwhelming volume of low-value shipments and lack of actionable data collected pursuant to the current regulations inhibits CBP's ability to identify and interdict high-risk shipments that may contain illegal drugs such as illicit fentanyl, merchandise that poses a risk to public safety, counterfeits, or other contraband. The new enhanced entry process for low-value shipments proposed in this rulemaking would provide CBP with necessary information regarding the contents of shipments to accurately segment risk and determine eligibility for the administrative exemption in advance of a shipment's arrival in the United States. The receipt of advance electronic data would also reduce the burden for CBP officers who process these large volumes of shipments because better data would lead to more accurate targeting, which means CBP resources will be better focused on accurately identifying and interdicting violative shipments compared to today where the quality of the targeting is often impeded by the lack of information.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>76</SU>
                         Email correspondence with the Office of Trade on Feb. 2, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Last, both CBP and the trade community's technological capabilities have greatly advanced since 1995, and this proposed rule would adapt the regulations to current capabilities. As explained in previous sections, in the past, CBP cleared low-value shipments exclusively through a time-consuming and burdensome manual process, and staff at the ports of entry became unable to quickly and efficiently process the increasing volume of trade. Consequently, it was not unusual for clearance to take up to eight days. Over the last several years, CBP has collaborated with the trade community to obtain input regarding how to more accurately identify the nature, origin, and ultimate destination of low-value shipments. This effort served as the foundation for two pilot programs, the Section 321 Data Pilot and the Entry Type 86 Test, which were implemented in 2019 to test CBP's capabilities to collect, and the trade's ability to provide, certain enhanced data through CBP-approved electronic systems.
                    <SU>77</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>77</SU>
                         Section 321 Data Pilot, 84 FR 35405 (July 23, 2019); Test Concerning Entry of Section 321 Low-Valued Shipments Through Automated Commercial Environment (ACE), 84 FR 40079 (Aug. 13, 2019).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As illustrated above, the existing regulations do not account for the complex supply chains surrounding e-commerce transactions, today's volume of trade, or recent technological advancements. Consequently, this environment is plagued with various challenges, including, but not limited to, illicit substances like fentanyl and other narcotics, counterfeits and other goods violative of intellectual property rights, and goods made with forced labor. CBP's enforcement efforts have brought to light violations of the right to make entry, mismanifesting of cargo, misclassification, misdelivery (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     delivery of goods prior to release from CBP custody), undervaluation, and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3070"/>
                    incorrectly executed powers of attorney. Of particular concern is the threat posed by illicit fentanyl, fentanyl analogues, as well as precursor and other chemicals used in illicit drug production that are smuggled into the United States by transnational criminal organizations. CBP uses a multi-faceted approach to prevent illegal drugs from entering the country, and one key facet is advance information and targeting. Advance electronic shipping information allows CBP to quickly identify, target, and deter the entry of dangerous illicit drugs in all operational environments. This rulemaking contributes to the effort to stop the flow of illegal drugs into the United States by expanding the collection of enhanced advance electronic data for low-value shipments.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. A Succinct Statement of the Objectives of, and Legal Basis for, the Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>In the proposed rule, CBP seeks to refine and codify an electronic entry process for qualifying low-value shipments seeking entry into the United States. This proposed new process is termed the “enhanced entry process.” In order to file an enhanced entry, CBP will require the submission of additional electronic data elements, such as a product URL or picture, in addition to the data currently required under the Entry Type 86 Test. This additional information will enable CBP to more efficiently target high-risk shipments. The existing process of clearing shipments off the manifest will also remain available to the trade with some modification; however, it will now be referred to as the “basic entry process.”</P>
                <P>The legal authority for the administrative exemption is provided in 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C). The legal authority to prescribe special rules for the declaration and entry of low-value merchandise is provided in 19 U.S.C. 1498(a)(1)(A). This administrative exemption is implemented in the CBP regulations at 19 CFR 10.151 and 10.153, and the entry rules for the entry of merchandise qualifying for this exemption are provided in 19 CFR parts 128, 143, and 145.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. A Description of, and, Where Feasible, an Estimate of the Number of Small Entities to Which the Proposed Rule Will Apply</HD>
                <P>As described in section 11.2 of the full analysis attached in the docket for this rule, the proposed rule does not directly regulate any one industry. Instead, it makes the enhanced entry process available to various actors who may wish to import low-value shipments. Enhanced entries may be filed by the owner or purchaser of the shipment, an ECO in possession of the shipment, or when appropriately designated by the owner, purchaser, or consignee of the shipment, a licensed customs broker. Generally, customs brokers will file the entries; however, it is unclear which entities will experience the incremental costs of the rule.</P>
                <P>The threshold analysis presented in section 11.2.1 of the full analysis attached in the docket for this rule describes two possible alternate scenarios:</P>
                <P>1. That brokers and ECOs experience costs directly and do not pass them on to their consumers; and</P>
                <P>2. The total incremental cost of the rule is passed on to consignees (generally the final owner or purchaser) in the form of higher shipment costs.</P>
                <P>
                    No matter which category of entities bears the cost of this rule, this analysis demonstrates that a substantial number of small businesses may be affected by the proposed rule. Assuming that brokers and ECOs fully bear the costs they incur (Scenario 1), we find that 67 percent of sampled brokers and ECOs qualify as small businesses.
                    <SU>78</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Extrapolating from the sample to the full population of brokers suggests that approximately 274 brokers are small businesses. This analysis does not identify small businesses among the affected ECOs. Under the alternate assumption that consignees bear the cost of the rule (Scenario 2), any small entity in the United States has the potential to be affected by the rule as a consignee. Analysis of a sample of consignees for one day in 2023 demonstrates that 92 percent of businesses in the sample qualify as small.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>78</SU>
                         This includes 71 percent of sampled small-volume brokers, 73 percent of all medium- and large-volume brokers, and none of the sampled major ECOs.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. A Description of the Projected Reporting, Record-Keeping and Other Compliance Requirements of the Proposed Rule, Including an Estimate of the Classes of Small Entities That Will Be Subject to the Requirement and the Type of Professional Skills Necessary for Preparation of the Report or Record</HD>
                <P>This rule does not establish any new recordkeeping requirements outside of the additional data elements that will be sent to CBP. An enhanced entry may be filed for shipments which meet the requirements of 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C) and 19 CFR 10.151, by transmitting to CBP, the individual bill of lading (house bill or equivalent) or other shipping document used to file or support entry, the data elements listed in previous sections for the basic entry process, and the following additional data:</P>
                <P>1. Clearance tracing identification number (CTIN). “CTIN” means the individual bill of lading number or a unique identification number used to associate the merchandise on the individual bill of lading with the eligible imported merchandise for which entry is sought;</P>
                <P>2. Country of shipment of the merchandise. “Country of shipment” means the country in which the goods were located when the shipment was created for exportation to the United States;</P>
                <P>3. 10-digit classification for the merchandise in Chapters 1-97 (and any additional classification in Chapters 98-99, if applicable) of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS), unless the HTSUS waiver privilege has been obtained and asserted, and the merchandise is not subject to the requirements of other government agencies; and</P>
                <P>a. HTSUS Waiver Privilege: Parties who will file enhanced entries may request from CBP a waiver of the requirement to transmit the 10-digit HTSUS classification unless the merchandise is subject to the requirements of other government agencies. Parties may obtain a waiver by demonstrating, at a minimum, the following:</P>
                <P>i. The ability to properly classify merchandise to the 10-digit HTSUS classification;</P>
                <P>ii. The ability to properly determine whether merchandise is subject to the requirements of other government agencies and the ability to properly segregate such shipments; and</P>
                <P>iii. The ability to properly determine whether merchandise is otherwise precluded by law from eligibility for the administrative exemption under 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C) and the ability to properly segregate such shipments.</P>
                <P>4. One or more of the following:</P>
                <P>a. The uniform resource locator (URL) to the marketplace's product listing;</P>
                <P>b. Product picture;</P>
                <P>c. Product identifier; and/or</P>
                <P>d. Shipment x-ray or other security screening report number verifying completion of foreign security scanning of the shipment.</P>
                <P>
                    Conditional data elements for enhanced entry: In order for CBP to better assess the risks associated with low-value shipments, the enhanced entry process includes a set of conditional data elements which must be transmitted to CBP if the data 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3071"/>
                    elements are applicable to the merchandise in the shipment. (For example, if merchandise is subject to PGA requirements (for item 3 in the list below), then those documents must be submitted. If, however, PGA requirements are not applicable to the merchandise, then that data would not be provided.)
                </P>
                <P>1. Seller name and address;</P>
                <P>2. Purchaser name and address;</P>
                <P>3. Any data or documents required by other government agencies;</P>
                <P>4. Advertised retail product description; and</P>
                <P>
                    5. Marketplace name and website or phone number. “Marketplace” means the party that provides an internet (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     online, website, application (“app”), electronic mail) or telephonic (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     telephone, television, or catalog) means of offering products for sale. The marketplace may be a seller or a third party offering products on behalf of a seller.
                </P>
                <P>The data elements required for an enhanced entry must be received by CBP on or before the deadline for receipt of advance cargo information, as specified below (varies by mode):</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Vessel.</E>
                     The filing must be received by CBP 24 hours before the cargo is laden aboard the vessel at the foreign port. 19 CFR 4.7 and 4.7a.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Air.</E>
                     The filing must be received by CBP either: (1) no later than the time of the departure of the aircraft for the United States, in the case of aircraft that depart for the United States from any foreign port or place in North America, including locations in Mexico, Central America, South America (from north of the Equator only), the Caribbean, and Bermuda; or (2) no later than four hours prior to the arrival of the aircraft in the United States, in the case of aircraft that depart for the United States from any foreign area other than those specified in 19 CFR 122.48a(b)(1). 19 CFR 122.48a(b).
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Rail.</E>
                     The filing must be received by CBP no later than two hours prior to the cargo reaching the first port of arrival in the United States. 19 CFR 123.91.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Truck.</E>
                     The filing must be received by CBP no later than either 30 minutes or one hour prior to the carrier's reaching the first port of arrival in the United States, or such lesser time as authorized, based upon the CBP-approved system employed to present the information. 19 CFR 123.92.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. An Identification, to the Extent Practicable, of All Relevant Federal Rules Which May Duplicate, Overlap or Conflict With the Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>This rule does not duplicate, overlap, or conflict with any other Federal rule. CBP is considering an NPRM that would make goods subject to trade actions ineligible for the administrative exemption. If that NPRM is published and finalized, that rule would supplement this rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. A Description of Any Significant Alternatives to the Proposed Rule That Accomplish the Stated Objectives of Applicable Statutes and That Minimize any Significant Economic Impact of the Proposed Rule on Small Entities</HD>
                <P>There are no significant alternatives that accomplish the stated objectives of the proposed rule. As the majority of the regulated parties are small businesses, this rule would not be effective if CBP limited the rule to other than small businesses. Further, we note that use of the enhanced entry process established by this rule is optional. If a small business does not wish to provide the information required under the enhanced entry process, it may use the basic entry process, which is nearly identical to the release from manifest process used historically, and incur no costs as a result of this rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507), an agency may not conduct, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid control number assigned by OMB. The collection of information contained in this proposed rule, will be submitted to OMB for review under section 3507(d) of the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA). The public can direct comments to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs of OMB, Attention: Desk Officer for Customs and Border Protection. Such comments can be submitted in the regulatory docket for this proposed rule.</P>
                <P>
                    This rule, if finalized, would formalize the Entry Type 86 Test and alter the information collection under OMB control number 1651-0024 (Entry/Immediate Delivery Application and Simplified Entry). This NPRM announces the data elements required for enhanced entry submissions. Enhanced entry submissions, like entry type 86 entries, are submitted for entries at the house bill level.
                    <SU>79</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     CBP does not anticipate a change in the number of annual submissions (621,828,643) or number of annual respondents (535) compared to those caused by the Entry Type 86 Test, but will result in an increase to the time per response to submit a master bill an enhanced submission compared to the entry type 86 submission. The collection will be adjusted to reflect the additional 2 minutes per master bill and the increase in total annual burden hours due to the change. The current entry type 86 entries will be converted to the new enhanced entry upon the finalization of this proposed rulemaking and formal OMB approval which will keep the number of submissions equal to the Entry Type 86 Test. The new estimated annual burden for this information collection following OMB approval is 3,843,763 hours.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>79</SU>
                         The typical master bill contains approximately 6,000 house bills. Much of the information on the house bills is identical and the submission is largely automated. This results in a higher number of submissions with a lower time burden per submission for entry type 86 and enhanced entry submissions.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Upon finalization of this proposed rule and OMB approval, the information collection under OMB control number 1651-0024 will be revised to reflect the increased burden hours as follows:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Paper Only Entry/Immediate Delivery Form 3461</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     1,669.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     33,923.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     15 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     8,481.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">ACE Cargo Release Electronic Submission</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Form 3461 and 3461ALT Excluding Enhanced Entry</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     6,580.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     22,970,239.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     10 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     3,828,373.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Enhanced Entry</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     535.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     621,828,643.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     0.0007 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     6,909.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. National Environmental Policy Act</HD>
                <P>
                    DHS and its components analyze actions to determine whether the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (“NEPA”), 42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     applies to these actions and, if so, what level of NEPA review is required. 42 U.S.C. 4336. DHS's Directive 023-01, Revision 01 and Instruction Manual 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3072"/>
                    023-01-001-01, Revision 01 (“Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01”) establish the procedures that DHS uses to comply with NEPA and the Council on Environmental Quality (“CEQ”) regulations for implementing NEPA, 40 CFR parts 1500 through 1508.
                    <SU>80</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>80</SU>
                         CBP is aware of the November 12, 2024 decision in 
                        <E T="03">Marin Audubon Society</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Federal Aviation Administration,</E>
                         No. 23-1067 (D.C. Cir. Nov. 12, 2024). To the extent that a court may conclude that CEQ regulations implementing NEPA are not judicially enforceable or binding on this agency action, CBP has nonetheless elected to follow those CEQ regulations, in addition to DHS's Directive and Instruction Manual, to meet the agency's obligations under NEPA, 42 U.S.C. 4321 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Federal agencies may establish categorical exclusions for categories of actions they determine normally do not significantly affect the quality of the human environment and, therefore, do not require the preparation of an Environmental Assessment or Environmental Impact Statement. 42 U.S.C. 4336e(1); 
                    <E T="03">see also</E>
                     40 CFR 1501.4, 1507.3(c)(8), 1508.1(e). DHS has established categorical exclusions, which are listed in appendix A of its Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01. Under DHS's NEPA implementing procedures, for an action to be categorically excluded, it must satisfy each of the following three conditions: (1) the entire action clearly fits within one or more of the categorical exclusions; (2) the action is not a piece of a larger action; and (3) no extraordinary circumstances exist that create the potential for a significant environmental effect.
                </P>
                <P>DHS has analyzed this action under Directive 023-01 and Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01. DHS has made a determination that this rulemaking action is one of a category of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment. First, this proposed rule clearly fits within the Categorical Exclusions A3(a) and A3(d) of DHS's Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Appendix A, for the promulgation of rules of a “strictly administrative or procedural nature” and rules that “interpret or amend an existing regulation without changing its environmental effect,” respectively. The proposed rule would create a new process for entering low-value shipments, allowing CBP to target high-risk shipments more effectively. The proposed rule would also revise the current process for entering low-value shipments to require additional data elements that would assist CBP in verifying eligibility for duty- and tax-free entry of low-value shipments and bona-fide gift. Second, this NPRM is not part of a larger action. Third, this NPRM presents no extraordinary circumstances creating the potential for significant environmental effects. Therefore, a more detailed NEPA review is not necessary. DHS seeks any comments or information that may lead to the discovery of any significant environmental effects from this NPRM.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Signing Authority</HD>
                <P>In accordance with Treasury Order 100-20, the Secretary of the Treasury delegated to the Secretary of Homeland Security the authority related to the customs revenue functions vested in the Secretary of the Treasury as set forth in 6 U.S.C. 212 and 215, subject to certain exceptions. This regulation is being issued in accordance with DHS Directive 07010.3, Revision 03.2, which delegates to the Commissioner of CBP the authority to prescribe and approve/sign regulations related to customs revenue functions.</P>
                <P>
                    Pete Flores, Senior Official Performing the Duties of the Commissioner, having reviewed and approved this document, has delegated the authority to electronically sign this document to the Director (or Acting Director, if applicable) of the Regulations and Disclosure Law Division of CBP, for purposes of publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects</HD>
                    <CFR>19 CFR Part 10</CFR>
                    <P>Bonds, Exports, Imports, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Trade agreements.</P>
                    <CFR>19 CFR Part 101</CFR>
                    <P>Harbors, Organization and functions (Government agencies), Seals and insignia, Vessels.</P>
                    <CFR>19 CFR Part 128</CFR>
                    <P>Administrative practice and procedure, Freight, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                    <CFR>19 CFR Part 143</CFR>
                    <P>Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                    <CFR>19 CFR Part 145</CFR>
                    <P>Exports, Lotteries, Postal Service, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Amendments to the CBP Regulations</HD>
                <P>For the reasons stated above in the preamble, CBP proposes to amend 19 CFR parts 10, 101, 128, 143, and 145 as set forth below.</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 10—ARTICLES CONDITIONALLY FREE, SUBJECT TO A REDUCED RATE, ETC.</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The general authority citation for part 10 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 19 U.S.C. 66, 1202 (General Note 3(i), Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS)), 1321, 1481, 1484, 1498, 1508, 1623, 1624, 4513.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <STARS/>
                <AMDPAR>2. Amend the undesignated center heading preceding § 10.151 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Importations Not Over $800 and Bona-Fide Gifts</HD>
                <AMDPAR>3. Revise § 10.151 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 10.151</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Importations not over $800.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>Subject to the conditions in § 10.153, the port director may pass free of duty and tax any shipment of merchandise, as defined in § 101.1 of this chapter, imported by one person on one day having a fair retail value in the country of shipment not exceeding $800. When multiple shipments are imported by one person on one day under this section and the aggregate fair retail value of those shipments exceeds $800 in the country of shipment, then all such shipments imported on that day by that person become ineligible for the privilege of passing free of duty and tax under this section. This privilege will also be denied if a port director has reason to believe that a shipment is one of several lots covered by a single order or contract sent separately to secure free entry or avoid compliance with any pertinent law or regulation. For purposes of this section, the person whose shipment may be granted the privilege of passing free of duty and tax under 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C) is the owner or purchaser of the merchandise imported on one day. Merchandise for which this privilege is claimed must be entered under informal entry procedures (see § 143.23(j), and §§ 128.24, 145.31, 148.12, and 148.62 of this chapter) by a party authorized to make entry under § 143.26(b) of this chapter.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>4. Revise § 10.152 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 10.152</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Bona-fide gifts.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        Subject to the conditions in § 10.153, the port director may pass free of duty and tax any article sent as a bona-fide gift from a person in a foreign country to a person in the United States, provided that the aggregate fair retail value in the country of shipment of such articles received by one person on one day does not exceed $100 or, in the case of articles sent from a person in the Virgin Islands, Guam, and American 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3073"/>
                        Samoa, $200. Articles for which this privilege is claimed must be entered under informal entry procedures (see § 143.23(j) and § 145.32 of this chapter). An article is “sent” for purposes of this section if it is conveyed in any manner other than on the person or in the accompanied or unaccompanied baggage of the donor or donee.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>5. Amend § 10.153 by:</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>a. In the introductory text, removing the word “Customs” and adding in its place the term “CBP”;</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>b. In paragraphs (a) and (d) introductory text, adding a hyphen between the words “bona” and “fide”; and</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>c. Adding paragraph (i).</AMDPAR>
                <P>The addition reads as follows:</P>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 10.153</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Conditions for exemption.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(i) The exemption provided for in § 10.151 is not to be allowed with respect to imported merchandise subject to any antidumping or countervailing duty determination, instruction, or order issued by the Department of Commerce; or any other merchandise otherwise precluded by law from eligibility.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 101—GENERAL PROVISIONS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>6. The general authority citation for part 101 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>
                         5 U.S.C. 301; 6 U.S.C. 101, 
                        <E T="03">et. seq.;</E>
                         19 U.S.C. 2, 66, 1202 (General Note 3(i), Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States), 1623, 1624, 1646a.
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <STARS/>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 101.1</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>7. Amend § 101.1, in the definition of “Shipment”, by removing the words “the bill of lading” and adding in their place the words “an individual bill of lading (house bill or equivalent)”.</AMDPAR>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUBPART 128—EXPRESS CONSIGNMENTS</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <AMDPAR>8. The authority citation for part 128 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 19 U.S.C. 58c, 66, 1202 (General Note 3(i), Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States), 1321, 1484, 1498, 1551, 1555, 1556, 1565, 1624.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>9. Amend § 128.21 by:</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>a. Revising paragraph (a)(4)(ii); and</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>b. In paragraph (b), removing the word “Customs” and adding in its place the term “CBP”.</AMDPAR>
                <P>The revision reads as follows:</P>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 128.21</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Manifest requirements.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>(a) * * *</P>
                    <P>(4) * * *</P>
                    <P>(ii) If the merchandise is eligible for, and is entered under, the informal entry procedures as provided in § 128.24, except for merchandise eligible to pass free of duty and tax as provided in § 128.24(e) or § 128.24(f) and entered under § 143.23(k) of this chapter.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>10. Amend § 128.24 by revising paragraphs (d) and (e) and adding paragraph (f) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 128.24</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Informal entry procedures.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        (d) 
                        <E T="03">Entry summary.</E>
                         An entry summary (CBP Form 7501, or its electronic equivalent) must be presented in proper form, and estimated duties deposited within 10 days of the release of the merchandise under either the regular or alternative procedure described in this section, unless the shipment passes free of duty and tax under paragraph (e) or (f) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (e) 
                        <E T="03">Shipments valued at $800 or less.</E>
                         Shipments valued at $800 or less meeting the requirements of § 10.151 of this chapter may be passed free of duty and tax if entered under the procedures set forth in § 143.23(j) of this chapter by a party eligible to file entry under § 143.26(b) of this chapter.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (f) 
                        <E T="03">Bona-fide gifts.</E>
                         Shipments valued at $100 or less ($200, in the case of articles sent from persons in the Virgin Islands, Guam, and American Samoa) meeting the requirements of § 10.152 of this chapter may be passed free of duty and tax if entered under the procedures set forth in § 143.23(k) of this chapter. Such shipments are not eligible for the procedures set forth in § 143.23(l) of this chapter.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 143—SPECIAL ENTRY PROCEDURES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>11. The authority citation for part 143 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 19 U.S.C. 66, 1321, 1414, 1481, 1484, 1498, 1624, 1641.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>12. Amend § 143.23 by revising paragraphs (j) and (k) and adding paragraphs (l) and (m) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 143.23</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Form of entry.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        (j) 
                        <E T="03">Shipments not over $800 and bona-fide gifts.</E>
                         Except in the case of personal written or oral declarations (see §§ 148.12, 148.13, and 148.62 of this chapter), a shipment of merchandise eligible for informal entry under 19 U.S.C. 1498 and meeting the requirements of § 10.151 or § 10.152 of this chapter may be entered by providing the individual bill of lading (house bill or equivalent), or other shipping document used to file or support entry, and by meeting the requirements under paragraph (k) or (l) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (1) 
                        <E T="03">Requirements of other government agencies.</E>
                         Shipments of merchandise may be subject to other legal requirements, including the requirements of other Federal, State, or local agencies, as applicable. Merchandise regulated by other Federal agencies may not be entered under paragraph (k) of this section, but may be entered under paragraph (l) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Mail importations.</E>
                         Mail importations pursuant to § 145.31 may not be entered under paragraph (k) of this section, but may be entered under paragraph (l) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (3) 
                        <E T="03">Bona-fide gifts.</E>
                         Bona-fide gifts claiming the exemption in § 10.152 of this chapter must be entered under paragraph (k) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (k) 
                        <E T="03">Basic entry process.</E>
                         Shipments of merchandise meeting the requirements of 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2) and § 10.151 or § 10.152 of this chapter may be entered pursuant to paragraph (j) of this section by providing the individual bill of lading (house bill or equivalent) and the following information either electronically through a CBP-authorized electronic data interchange (EDI) system or in paper format:
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) Country of origin of the merchandise;</P>
                    <P>(2) Shipper name, address, and country;</P>
                    <P>(3) Name and address of the person claiming the exemption from duty and tax under § 10.151 or § 10.152 of this chapter;</P>
                    <P>(4) Specific description of the merchandise;</P>
                    <P>(5) Manifested quantity of the merchandise;</P>
                    <P>(6) Shipment weight;</P>
                    <P>(7) Fair retail value in the country of shipment in U.S. dollars (for conversion of foreign currency, see subpart C, part 159 of this chapter); and</P>
                    <P>(8) Name and address of the final deliver-to party, meaning the final party in the United States to whom the merchandise is to be delivered, if distinct from the party identified in paragraph (k)(3) of this section.</P>
                    <P>
                        (l) 
                        <E T="03">Enhanced entry process.</E>
                         Shipments of merchandise meeting the requirements of 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C) and § 10.151 of this chapter may be entered pursuant to paragraph (j) of this section by transmitting to CBP, through a CBP-authorized EDI system, the individual bill of lading (house bill or equivalent) or other shipping document used to file or support entry, and the information required in paragraph (k) of this section and paragraphs (l)(1) and (2) of this section. All required 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3074"/>
                        documentation and information must be received by CBP on or before the deadline for receipt of cargo information (see §§ 4.7 and 4.7a (vessel), 122.48a(b) (air), 123.91 (rail), and 123.92 (truck) of this chapter), except for mail shipments (see § 145.31 of this chapter).
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) For all shipments, the following must be transmitted:</P>
                    <P>(i) Clearance tracing identification number (CTIN). “CTIN” means the individual bill of lading number or other unique identification number used to associate the merchandise on the individual bill of lading with the eligible imported merchandise for which entry is sought;</P>
                    <P>(ii) Country of shipment of the merchandise. For purposes of this paragraph (l), “country of shipment” means the country where the goods were located when the shipment was created for exportation to the United States;</P>
                    <P>(iii) 10-digit classification of the merchandise in chapters 1-97 (and additionally in chapters 98-99, if applicable) of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS), unless the HTSUS waiver privilege has been obtained pursuant to paragraph (m) of this section and asserted for the entry, and the merchandise is not subject to requirements of other government agencies; and</P>
                    <P>(iv) One or more of the following:</P>
                    <P>(A) The uniform resource locator (URL) to the marketplace's product listing;</P>
                    <P>(B) Product picture;</P>
                    <P>(C) Product identifier; and/or</P>
                    <P>(D) Shipment x-ray or other security screening report number verifying completion of foreign security scanning of the shipment.</P>
                    <P>(2) For all shipments, the following information must be transmitted, if applicable:</P>
                    <P>(i) Seller name and address. For purposes of this paragraph (l), “seller” means the party that made, or offered or contracted to make, a sale of the merchandise;</P>
                    <P>(ii) Purchaser name and address. For purposes of this paragraph (l), “purchaser” means the last known party to whom the goods are sold or the party to whom the goods are contracted to be sold at the time of importation;</P>
                    <P>(iii) Any data or documents required by other government agencies;</P>
                    <P>(iv) Advertised retail product description; and</P>
                    <P>
                        (v) Marketplace name and website or phone number. For purposes of this paragraph (l), “marketplace” means the party that provides an internet (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         online, website, application (“app”), electronic mail) or telephonic (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         telephone, television, or catalog) means of offering products for sale. The marketplace may be a seller or a third party offering products on behalf of a seller.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (m) 
                        <E T="03">Application for HTSUS waiver privilege.</E>
                         Under the provisions of this paragraph (m), a party may request a waiver of the requirement to transmit the 10-digit HTSUS classification of the merchandise pursuant to paragraph (l)(1)(iii) of this section. The HTSUS waiver privilege cannot be used when merchandise is subject to the requirements of other government agencies under paragraph (j)(1) of this section or where otherwise required by law. If subject to such requirements, the 10-digit HTSUS classification(s) must be submitted for all the merchandise in the shipment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (1) 
                        <E T="03">Who may apply.</E>
                         Any party who is eligible to file entry under paragraph (l) of this section may apply for the HTSUS waiver privilege (see § 143.26(b) of this chapter regarding parties who may make such entries).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Contents of application.</E>
                         An applicant for the HTSUS waiver privilege must submit an application via email to the Director, Cargo Security and Controls Division, Office of Field Operations, at 
                        <E T="03">ecommerce@cbp.dhs.gov</E>
                        . The application must include the following:
                    </P>
                    <P>(i) Name and address of applicant, and an email address to be used for CBP correspondence regarding the application.</P>
                    <P>(ii) Information demonstrating the applicant has in place internal controls and procedures regarding, at a minimum, the following:</P>
                    <P>(A) The ability to properly classify merchandise under the HTSUS at the 10-digit classification;</P>
                    <P>(B) The ability to properly determine whether merchandise is subject to the requirements of other government agencies and the ability to properly segregate such shipments; and</P>
                    <P>(C) The ability to properly determine whether merchandise is otherwise precluded by law from eligibility for the administrative exemption under 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C) and the ability to properly segregate such shipments.</P>
                    <P>(iii) The applicant must state whether a previous application for an HTSUS waiver privilege was denied, or if a previous approval of such an application was revoked.</P>
                    <P>
                        (3) 
                        <E T="03">Action on application</E>
                        —(i) 
                        <E T="03">CBP review.</E>
                         CBP will review and verify all information submitted with the application. For this purpose, CBP may request additional information (including additional documents) and/or explanations of any of the information provided. The verification process may include on-site visits and demonstrations of the applicant's procedures. Based on its findings from the review and verification process, CBP will approve or deny the application.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) 
                        <E T="03">Notice to applicant.</E>
                         CBP will notify the applicant, via email to the email address provided with the application, within 60 days of receipt of the application of its decision to approve or deny the application, or of CBP's inability to approve, deny, or act on the application and the reason therefor.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (iii) 
                        <E T="03">Approval.</E>
                         The approval of an application will be effective as of the date of CBP's notification of approval, unless CBP's notification provides a different effective date.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (iv) 
                        <E T="03">Denial.</E>
                         If an application is denied, the applicant will be notified specifying the reason therefor. A denial may be appealed in the manner prescribed in paragraph (m)(3)(vi) of this section. The applicant may not reapply for the HTSUS waiver privilege until the reason for the denial is resolved.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (v) 
                        <E T="03">Revocation.</E>
                         CBP may propose to revoke its approval of an application for good cause (such as, noncompliance with any applicable customs laws and/or regulations, failure to maintain internal controls at the standards set by CBP in paragraph (m)(2)(ii) of this section, or failure to participate in periodic compliance reviews conducted by CBP). In the case of a proposed revocation, CBP will provide notice, via email to the email address provided with the application, of the proposed revocation of the approval. The notice will specify the reasons for CBP's proposed action and the procedures for challenging CBP's proposed revocation, as described in paragraph (m)(3)(vi) of this section. The revocation will take effect 30 days after the date of the proposed revocation unless timely challenged under paragraph (m)(3)(vi) of this section. If timely challenged, the revocation will take effect after completion of the challenge procedures in paragraph (m)(3)(vi) of this section unless the challenge is successful.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (vi) 
                        <E T="03">Appeal of denial or challenge to proposed revocation.</E>
                         An appeal of a denied application, or challenge to the proposed revocation of an approved application, may be made by email to the Executive Director, Trade Policy and Programs, Office of Trade, CBP Headquarters, at 
                        <E T="03">ecommerce@cbp.dhs.gov</E>
                        , and must be received within 30 days of the date of denial or proposed revocation. The 30-day period for appeal or challenge may be extended for good cause, upon written request by 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3075"/>
                        the applicant or privilege holder. The extension request must be made by email and received by the Executive Director, Trade Policy and Programs, Office of Trade, CBP Headquarters, at 
                        <E T="03">ecommerce@cbp.dhs.gov,</E>
                         within the 30-day period. The denial of an application or the revocation of a waiver, does not preclude a party from reapplying for the privilege in the future.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>13. Amend § 143.26 by revising paragraph (b) and adding paragraph (c) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 143.26</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Party who may make informal entry of merchandise.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Shipments valued at $800 or less.</E>
                         Except for merchandise subject to paragraph (c) of this section, a shipment of merchandise valued at $800 or less which qualifies for informal entry under 19 U.S.C. 1498 and meets the requirements in 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2) (see §§ 10.151, 10.152, 10.153, 143.23(k), 145.31, 145.32, 148.51, and 148.64 of this chapter) may be entered, using reasonable care, by the owner, purchaser, or consignee of the shipment or, when appropriately designated by one of these persons, a customs broker licensed under 19 U.S.C. 1641.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Exception for the enhanced entry process.</E>
                         A shipment of merchandise valued at $800 or less, which qualifies for informal entry under 19 U.S.C. 1498 and the administrative exemption under 19 U.S.C. 1321(a)(2)(C), may be entered under § 143.23(l), using reasonable care, by the owner or purchaser of the shipment, an express consignment operator or carrier in possession of the shipment (see § 128.1(a) of this chapter), or when appropriately designated by the owner, purchaser, or consignee of the shipment, a customs broker licensed under 19 U.S.C. 1641 (see part 141, subpart C). When a party eligible to file the entry transmits the entry information required under §§ 143.23(l)(1)(iv)(A) through (D) and 143.23(l)(2)(iv) through (v) of this part, and receives any of that information from another party, CBP will take into consideration how, in accordance with ordinary commercial practices, the transmitting party acquired such information, and whether and how the transmitting party is able to verify this information. When the transmitting party is not reasonably able to verify such information, CBP will permit the party to transmit the information on the basis of what the party reasonably believes to be true.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 145—MAIL IMPORTATIONS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>14. The authority citation for part 145 and the specific authority citation for §§ 145.31 and 145.32 continue to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P> 19 U.S.C. 66, 1202 (General Note 3(i)), Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States, 1624.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <STARS/>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>Section 145.31 also issued under 19 U.S.C. 1321;</P>
                    <P>Section 145.32 also issued under 19 U.S.C. 1321, 1498;</P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <STARS/>
                <AMDPAR>15. Revise § 145.31 to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 145.31</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> Importations not over $800 in value.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>The port director may pass free of duty and tax, without preparing an entry as provided for in § 145.12, packages containing merchandise having an aggregate fair retail value in the country of shipment of not over $800, subject to the requirements set forth in §§ 10.151 and 10.153 of this chapter. Such merchandise may alternatively be entered under § 143.23(l) of this chapter, in which case all required information must be transmitted to CBP no later than the date the merchandise departs from the country of posting.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 145.32</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT> [Amended]</SUBJECT>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>16. Amend § 145.32 by removing the word “shall” and adding in its place the word “may”.</AMDPAR>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Robert F. Altneu,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Regulations &amp; Disclosure Law Division, Regulations &amp; Rulings, Office of Trade, U.S. Customs and Border Protection.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00551 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-14-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>26 CFR Part 1</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[REG-107420-24]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1545-BR21</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Source of Income From Cloud Transactions</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This document contains proposed rules for determining the source of income from cloud transactions for purposes of the international provisions of the Internal Revenue Code. These proposed rules would generally affect taxpayers who earn gross income from engaging in cloud transactions.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written or electronic comments and requests for a public hearing must be received by April 14, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Commenters are strongly encouraged to submit public comments electronically. Submit electronic submissions via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         (indicate IRS and REG-107420-24) by following the online instructions for submitting comments. Requests for a public hearing must be submitted as prescribed in the “Comments and Requests for a Public Hearing” section. Once submitted to the Federal eRulemaking Portal, comments cannot be edited or withdrawn. The Department of the Treasury (Treasury Department) and the IRS will publish for public availability any comment received to its public docket, whether submitted electronically or in hard copy. Send hard copy submissions to: CC:PA:01:PR (REG-107420-24), Room 5203, Internal Revenue Service, P.O. Box 7604, Ben Franklin Station, Washington, DC 20044. Submissions may be hand-delivered Monday through Friday between the hours of 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. to: CC:PA:01:PR (REG-107420-24), Courier's Desk, Internal Revenue Service, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20224.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Concerning the proposed regulations, Christopher E. Fulle at (202) 317-5367 or Michelle L. Ng at (202) 317-6989 (not toll-free numbers); concerning submissions of comments and requests for a public hearing, contact the Publications and Regulations branch at (202) 317-6901 (not a toll-free number) or by email to 
                        <E T="03">publichearings@irs.gov</E>
                         (preferred).
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority</HD>
                <P>The proposed regulations are issued under the express delegation of authority under section 7805 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code). Section 7805(a) directs the Secretary of the Treasury or her delegate to prescribe all needful rules and regulations for the enforcement of that section and others in the Code, including all rules and regulations as may be necessary by reason of any alteration of law in relation to internal revenue.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    Proposed regulations published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (84 FR 40317) in 2019 (REG-130700-14) (the 2019 proposed regulations) set forth proposed rules for identifying and classifying cloud transactions, and the preamble to the 2019 proposed regulations requested 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3076"/>
                    comments on rules for sourcing income from cloud transactions. Comments received addressed the necessity of developing specific rules for sourcing gross income from cloud transactions and provided recommendations on the content of such rules. This notice of proposed rulemaking, which is being published with the final regulations for identifying and classifying cloud transactions (TD 10022) (the 2024 final regulations) that are being published in the Final Rules section of this same issue of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , proposes rules for sourcing gross income from cloud transactions.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Explanation of Provisions</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Source of Gross Income From Cloud Transactions</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Overview of Comments Received</HD>
                <P>
                    The Treasury Department and the IRS received more than a dozen comments in response to the request for comments on administrable rules for sourcing income from cloud transactions in a manner consistent with sections 861 through 865. Comments were split almost evenly with regard to whether specific sourcing rules are needed in this area, with a narrow majority expressing support for such guidance. Of this majority, several comments recommended that services income from cloud transactions be sourced according to the location of the assets and personnel used in providing the service. A number of these comments explained that this approach would align with the result in 
                    <E T="03">Piedras Negras Broadcasting Co.</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Comm'r,</E>
                     43 B.T.A. 297 (1941), 
                    <E T="03">nonacq.,</E>
                     1941-2 C.B. 22, 
                    <E T="03">aff'd,</E>
                     127 F. 2d. 260 (5th Cir. 1942), in which the income of a radio broadcasting corporation was determined to be foreign source because its broadcasting facilities and employees were located in Mexico, even though the corporation broadcasted programs primarily to listeners located in the United States and received almost all of its income from advertisers located in the United States. Other comments voiced the need for specific rules for sourcing income from cloud transactions, but did not recommend a particular sourcing approach, with one comment suggesting that the location of the cloud service provider's assets and personnel and the location of the end-user could be evaluated in developing the rules. Another comment proposed that given the challenges of sourcing cloud transactions when the operations, employees, and customers are dispersed, the sourcing rules could provide taxpayers with the option to source the income to the place where the contract is executed. While almost half of the comments received stated that regulations for sourcing income from cloud transactions are unnecessary because existing statutory, regulatory, and case law provides sufficient guidance, an overwhelming majority of those comments recommended that if issued, the regulations should take into account the location of the assets and people that contribute to the delivery of the cloud service.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Many of the comments discussed whether the sourcing determination should be made by taking into account solely the assets and personnel of the taxpayer that recognizes the income from the performance of the cloud service (the taxpayer-by-taxpayer approach), or whether taxpayers should be required to look through to the activities and personnel of other related legal entities that contribute to the provision of the service (the unitary approach). Nearly all comments on this issue stated that income from cloud transactions should be sourced on a taxpayer-by-taxpayer basis. Comments explained that the taxpayer-by-taxpayer approach is administrable and supported by the principles of 
                    <E T="03">Miller</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Comm'r,</E>
                     73 T.C.M. 2319 (1997), 
                    <E T="03">aff'd without published decision,</E>
                     166 F.3d 1218 (9th Cir. 1998), in which income that a foreign corporation received for performing research and development services was held to be foreign source notwithstanding that the performance of those services was subcontracted to certain related and unrelated entities, including a wholly-owned U.S. subsidiary. One comment suggested that a taxpayer-by-taxpayer rule for sourcing services income from cloud transactions could be supplemented with anti-abuse provisions requiring the income to be sourced on a look-through or unitary basis in limited circumstances. However, another comment asserted that sourcing services income from cloud transactions on a look-through or unitary basis should be required, explaining that this approach more accurately reflects the economic realities of the transaction because it accounts for the contributions made by members of the multinational group to the provision of the service. That comment also expressed the concern that sourcing on a taxpayer-by-taxpayer basis could cause U.S. source income to be understated with respect to commonly-used structures in which the development, enhancement, maintenance, protection, and exploitation functions are performed primarily by U.S. entities but the services income is recorded by a foreign entity that contracts directly with the end-users to whom the cloud transaction is provided.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Need for Proposed Regulations</HD>
                <P>
                    The development and advancement of cloud technologies has transformed both the value that businesses deliver to customers and the way that value is delivered, giving rise to cloud-based business models and cloud transactions. The 2024 final regulations classify a cloud transaction (within the definition of § 1.861-19(b)) as the provision of services. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     § 1.861-19(c)(1). Under the source rules of the Code, which were designed in the context of more traditional modes of commerce, gross income from the provision of services is sourced to the place where the service is performed. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     sections 861(a)(3) and 862(a)(3). The Code does not provide guidance on how to determine the place of performance for specific types of service transactions, including cloud transactions. Further, while section 863(b)(1) specifies that income from services rendered partly within and partly without the United States is treated as derived partly from each source, there is no statutory guidance prescribing how to source the services income, including income from cloud transactions, in such circumstances. The distinctive attributes of cloud transactions, including the network-based and increasingly automated nature of the service delivery and the role of intangible property (such as proprietary software and other proprietary digital content) in ensuring the functionality, reliability, and performance of the service, raise questions regarding how to determine the place of performance of a cloud transaction.  
                </P>
                <P>
                    The proposed regulations, which would establish specific sourcing rules that interpret the place of performance in the context of a cloud transaction, are therefore necessary to provide clarity and certainty to both taxpayers and the IRS. To determine the place of performance, the proposed sourcing rules would take into account the location of the employees and assets, including both tangible and intangible assets, that contribute to the provision of the cloud transaction. The Treasury Department and the IRS are of the view that, because of the technical nature of a cloud transaction, the place of performance for purposes of sourcing gross income is the place where the resources and personnel responsible for the development, management, and delivery of the service are located because this is where the key activities in the provision of the service occur, as 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3077"/>
                    opposed to ancillary activities such as marketing, sales, and contracting. This approach is consistent with case law on the sourcing of income involving analogous traditional business models where services are provided from a location that differs from the customers' location, specifically, the 
                    <E T="03">Piedras Negras</E>
                     case. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     43 BTA at 297, 
                    <E T="03">aff'd,</E>
                     127 F.2d at 260. In line with the approach in 
                    <E T="03">Piedras Negras,</E>
                     the proposed rules do not consider the location of the customer or end-user, as it merely reflects the place where the service is consumed, not where the performance actually takes place as prescribed by sections 861(a)(3) and 862(a)(3). Similarly, the location where a contract for a cloud transaction is executed should not dictate the source of the resulting gross income because that location may not bear any connection to where the service is performed.
                </P>
                <P>The proposed cloud transaction sourcing rules would apply on a taxpayer-by-taxpayer basis and therefore, in determining the gross income of an entity that recognizes the services income, would take into account solely the assets and personnel of the legal entity. The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that this approach is administrable and practical. By focusing on the economic contributions that the contracting entity makes to the performance of the cloud transaction, the taxpayer-by-taxpayer approach provides a clear, straightforward way of determining the source of gross income from the transaction, while allowing for appropriate deductions from that gross income in respect of amounts paid or accrued to affiliated or unaffiliated contributors to the provision of the cloud services, leading to reduced complexity in tax compliance and enforcement. This approach is also generally consistent with the current approach for sourcing other categories of income, including non-cloud services income such as gross income from certain sales of inventory that is sourced to the location of production activity under § 1.863-3(c)(1)(ii). Further, this approach would not impede the IRS's ability to assert common law principles, such as the economic substance doctrine, the step transaction doctrine, and the rules of agency, or existing statutory and regulatory provisions, such as the section 482 rules, to ensure that the Federal income tax consequences more properly reflect the economic realities of the transaction, including the contributions to a cloud transaction made by affiliates of the taxpayer. Notwithstanding the above, the Treasury Department and the IRS will continue to study the implications of applying the taxpayer-by-taxpayer approach in the context of sourcing gross income from services generally, and may refine or propose revisions to the approach if they determine that this is necessary to adequately account for the interdependencies and collaboration across entities in a multinational group, and consequently, to ensure a fair and accurate representation of where services are performed.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Explanation of Proposed Rules for Sourcing Gross Income From Cloud Transactions</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed regulations state that gross income from a cloud transaction is sourced as services income under section 861(a)(3) or 862(a)(3), as appropriate, according to where the service is performed. Proposed § 1.861-19(d)(1). The place of performance of a cloud transaction is established through a formula composed of a fraction that relies on three factors: the intangible property factor, the personnel factor, and the tangible property factor (within the meaning of proposed § 1.861-19(d)(2), (d)(3), and (d)(4), respectively). 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                </P>
                <P>As discussed in detail in Parts I.C.1 through 3 of this Explanation of Provisions, the intangible property factor is intended to reflect the contribution of intangible property to the provision of the cloud transaction; the personnel factor is intended to reflect the contribution of certain employees to the provision of the cloud transaction; and the tangible property factor is intended to reflect the contribution of tangible property to the provision of the cloud transaction. Each factor is determined by taking into account certain worldwide expenses by the entity that, in the view of the Treasury Department and the IRS, properly represent the contributions made by or through the relevant personnel and assets to the performance of the cloud transaction. Together, these factors make up the denominator of the fraction. The numerator of the fraction is determined by summing up the portion of each factor that is from sources within the United States.</P>
                <P>
                    Under the proposed regulations, the gross income from a cloud transaction multiplied by the fraction yields the portion of the gross income that is from sources within the United States. Proposed § 1.861-19(d)(1). The portion of the gross income that remains is gross income from sources without the United States. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Intangible Property Factor</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Determination of the Intangible Property Factor</HD>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS consider intangible property to be a significant contributor to the performance of cloud transactions. Intangible property, such as software, algorithms, data processing applications, and other proprietary technologies, often plays a crucial role in the performance of a cloud transaction, including by shaping the unique features of the service and ensuring the service's functionality, reliability, and delivery. This role of intangible property is becoming particularly important as cloud transactions are becoming increasingly automated, requiring less and less contribution from personnel and tangible property to deliver value to customers. In such cases, the intangible property itself may be the main force that is effectively performing the service. It would be difficult and burdensome, however, to ascertain the precise value or contribution of an item of intangible property to the performance of a cloud transaction given the challenges inherent in isolating the specific impact of various intangibles on the cloud transaction's overall performance. The Treasury Department and the IRS are of the view that certain research and experimental expenses, amortization, and royalties incurred during the taxable year in which the cloud transaction is performed could serve as an administrable proxy for reflecting the contribution of intangible property to the performance of the cloud transaction. These expenses serve as the foundation for the intangible property factor.</P>
                <P>
                    Specifically, the intangible property factor is the sum of specified research or experimental expenditures (as defined under section 174(b)) incurred during the taxable year that are associated with the cloud transaction as well as royalty and certain amortization expenses incurred during the taxable year to the extent they are for intangible property directly used to provide the cloud transaction (collectively, “intangible property costs”). Proposed § 1.861-19(d)(2)(i). Intangible property costs include payments to third-party and related-party research and experimentation providers. Because specified research or experimental expenditures are used as a proxy for current use of existing self-developed intangible property, those expenditures are taken into account as they are incurred, regardless of whether and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3078"/>
                    when they are deductible, in order to match the timing of when compensation is paid to employees performing research or experimentation activities. As discussed in Part I.C.1.b. of this Explanation of Provisions, the intangible property factor is sourced based on this compensation; therefore the Treasury Department and the IRS are of the view that taking the specified research or experimental expenditures in the year when incurred provides an administrable rule that recognizes the economic contribution of the intangible property and avoids taxpayers having to trace section 174(a)(2)(B) amortization deductions back to the year in which incurred. However, royalty and amortization expenses are taken into account for the intangible property factor when deductible because that is the most administrable proxy for measuring the economic contribution existing licensed or acquired intangible property makes to a cloud transaction.  
                </P>
                <P>
                    In computing the intangible property factor, the Treasury Department and the IRS recognize that some specified research or experimental expenditures may not be directly traceable to a single transaction because intangible property developed through research and experimentation conducted in a taxable year may not be monetized in cloud transactions until a future year. In light of this, and consistent with the approach taken for allocating and apportioning deductions for such expenditures, the proposed regulations provide that the specified research or experimental expenditures to be taken into account with respect to a cloud transaction from which the gross income is being sourced are those associated with all cloud transactions provided in that taxable year that are in the same product line as the cloud transaction. 
                    <E T="03">Id.; cf.</E>
                     § 1.861-17(b) (recognizing that research and experimentation is an inherently speculative activity, which when successful ultimately results in the creation of intangible income, and allocating expenditures for such activity to gross intangible income earned in the year of the expenditure). The Treasury Department and the IRS are of the view that the current-year approach in the proposed rules serves as a workable, reliable, and appropriate proxy for existing intangible property in the same product line. Under the proposed regulations, cloud transactions are considered to be in the same product line if they are within the same Corresponding Index Entry under a North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) code number. Proposed § 1.861-19(d)(8). The proposed regulations also include a consistency requirement to prevent taxpayers from changing Corresponding Index Entry and NAICS code numbers absent a change in facts. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     The intangible property factor focuses on work done in the same product line as the cloud transaction to balance between specificity and practicality. The factor aims to capture the contribution of intangible property to the performance of a cloud transaction, so a factual relationship between the specified research or experimentation expenditures and the cloud transaction being tested needs to exist. At the same time, the Treasury Department and the IRS are aware that it is not necessarily possible to precisely determine the product or products that will benefit from a research and experimentation process at an early stage. To prevent duplication, the proposed regulations require expenses that would be included in the intangible property factor for multiple cloud transactions in a taxable year to be allocated among those transactions (taking into account the aggregation rule described in Part I.C.4 of this Explanation of Provisions) based on the relative gross income earned from each transaction. Proposed § 1.861-19(d)(2)(i). Any intangible property costs that support cloud transactions in general but that do not relate to any specific cloud transaction should be allocated in the same manner.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Determination of the Portion of the Intangible Property Factor From U.S. Sources</HD>
                <P>
                    Once the intangible property factor is determined, the portion of this factor that is attributable to sources within the United States must be identified for inclusion in the numerator. Given the non-physical nature of intangible property, its location when used in providing a service may be challenging to ascertain. Under the proposed rules, the portion of the intangible property factor that is from sources within the United States is determined based on the extent to which certain of the taxpayer's employees perform services in the United States, determined by leveraging the principles of § 1.861-4(b)(2)(ii)(E) (relating to sourcing compensation from labor or personal services on a time basis). The employees considered for this purpose are those whose primary function is to perform research and experimentation activities associated with cloud transactions in the same product line as the cloud transaction the gross income of which is being sourced. Proposed § 1.861-19(d)(2)(ii). The proposed regulations provide that the employee's primary function is the set of tasks to which they are assigned to spend the majority of their working time. Proposed § 1.861-19(d)(5). In order to account for amounts paid to third-party research and experimentation providers, amortization, and royalties, the fraction determined by the compensation that has been paid to the research and experimentation personnel is applied to the total research and experimental expense determined under § 1.861-19(d)(2)(i). 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 1.861-19(d)(2)(ii).
                </P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS are of the view that the location of research and experimentation personnel is a logical and accurate proxy for the location of intangible property that contributes to the performance of a cloud transactions for a number of reasons. First, the research and experimentation personnel contribute to the creation, design, and refinement of the intangible property either through their own efforts or by managing and facilitating research and experimentation work carried out by third parties. Therefore, the value of the intangible property used to provide the cloud transaction depends on their personal efforts and expertise. Additionally, while intangible property does not have a physical form that can be easily located, the place where research and experimentation personnel operate is tangible and verifiable. Relatedly, taxpayers generally know or should know the location of their research and experimentation personnel, and thus, relying on the location of these personnel would avoid a burdensome compliance process that might otherwise be required to determine the location of intangible property used to provide cloud transactions. For similar reasons, in determining gross income of a taxpayer, the rule does not look to research and experimentation personnel other than those of the taxpayer, and uses the taxpayer's own personnel as a proxy for all research and experimentation personnel working on the relevant intangible property.</P>
                <P>
                    The determination of which research and experimentation employees should be taken into account focuses on the employees whose primary function is the performance of research and experimentation activities, without limiting the analysis to nonmanagerial employees or first-line managers who undertake these activities. This is because research and experimentation typically involves contributions from personnel across various levels of the organization, including senior 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3079"/>
                    leadership and technical staff, as an idea for a product or service moves from concept to design, implementation, and testing. Accordingly, focusing solely on nonmanagerial employees or first-line managers could result in missing key contributors to the research and experimentation activities associated with a cloud transaction, including individuals within the organizational structure who oversee or engage in higher-level experimentation efforts.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Personnel Factor</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Determination of the Personnel Factor and the Portion From U.S. Sources</HD>
                <P>
                    The Treasury Department and the IRS are of the view that while the underlying technology and infrastructure are important in providing a cloud transaction to customers, the employees who manage, operate, and maintain these systems are also fundamental to the provision of the service. Accordingly, the efforts of personnel employed by the taxpayer who directly contribute to the provision of the cloud transaction must be taken into account in sourcing gross income from that cloud transaction. To properly reflect the contribution of these personnel to the provision of the cloud transaction, the personnel factor is composed of the compensation paid to the taxpayer's employees whose primary function is to directly contribute to the provision of the cloud transaction. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 1.861-19(d)(3)(i). However, to avoid double counting income, compensation that is paid to research and experimentation personnel described in proposed § 1.861-19(d)(2) is excluded. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                      
                </P>
                <P>
                    As explained in Part I.C.1.b of this Explanation of Provisions, an employee's primary function is the set of tasks to which they are assigned to spend the majority of their working time. Proposed § 1.861-19(d)(5). The proposed regulations provide a rule to account for situations in which an employee's primary function is to directly contribute to more than one cloud transaction. In those cases, all of the employee's compensation must be allocated among those cloud transactions based on the relative amount of time the employee spends contributing to each transaction. Proposed § 1.861-19(d)(3)(i). To illustrate the application of these rules, if an employee spends 30 percent of their working time on Cloud Transaction 1, 30 percent of their working time on Cloud Transaction 2, and 40 percent of their working time not on cloud transactions, that employee's primary function would be working on cloud transactions because a majority of their working time (60 percent) is spent on cloud transactions. Consequently, all of this employee's compensation would be allocated among Cloud Transaction 1 and Cloud Transaction 2 based on the relative amount of time the employee spends contributing to each of the two cloud transactions. However, where an employee contributes to multiple cloud transactions simultaneously, their compensation must be allocated among those transactions based on the relative gross income earned from each transaction because it would be impossible to use a time-based allocation in such cases. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                </P>
                <P>Similar to the determination of the numerator of the intangible property factor, which is the portion of that factor from sources within the United States, the proposed regulations provide the numerator of the personnel factor, which is the portion of that factor from sources within the United States, is equal to the part of the personnel factor that is paid for services performed in the United States using the principles of § 1.861-4(b)(2)(ii)(E). Proposed § 1.861-19(d)(3)(ii).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Direct Contribution to the Provision of the Cloud Transaction</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed regulations set forth rules that define which employees are considered to directly contribute to the provision of the cloud transaction and which employees are not considered to do so. Under proposed § 1.861-19(d)(3)(iii), personnel directly contribute to the provision of a cloud transaction to the extent they personally perform technical or operational activities for the provision of the cloud transaction, or to the extent they are managers who directly support or immediately supervise such technical or operational personnel. Proposed § 1.861-19(d)(3)(iii) provides a non-exhaustive list of the functions that fall within the meaning of “technical and operational activities.” These functions are the conduct of scientific, engineering, or technical activities for the configuration, delivery, or maintenance of the cloud transaction; the provision of monitoring, diagnostics, or incident response with respect to the cloud transaction's performance, reliability, efficiency, or security; the management of the cloud transaction's infrastructure; the delivery of end-user support with respect to the cloud transaction; and the conduct of any similar functions. 
                    <E T="03">Id.</E>
                     Further, under proposed § 1.861-19(d)(3)(iv), personnel are not considered to directly contribute to the provision of the cloud transaction to the extent they conduct business strategy, leadership, legal or compliance, marketing, communications, sales, business development, finance, accounting, clerical, human resources or administrative duties, or similar functions.
                </P>
                <P>Proposed § 1.861-19(d)(3)(iii) and (iv) are intended to identify the individuals that generally have the hands-on, day-to-day involvement in the software, infrastructure, and processes that enable the cloud transaction to be provided to the customer and to function as intended. The Treasury Department and the IRS are of the view that the individuals who personally perform the technical and operational work and the immediate managers who direct and supervise that work are essential to the performance of the service, and therefore, their contributions must be included. By contrast, employees in higher-level management or executive positions who are responsible for setting the strategic direction of the business and making high-level decisions are too far removed from the hands-on, day-to-day work that ensures the delivery of any particular cloud transaction to the customer. Therefore, while their roles are important to the overall business, they do not directly contribute to the provision of the transaction itself and are not accounted for as part of the personnel factor. The Treasury Department and the IRS are of the view that this distinction properly interprets the statutory requirement to source gross income from a service to the place where the service is performed.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Tangible Property Factor</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Determination of the Tangible Property Factor and the Portion From U.S. Sources</HD>
                <P>
                    Cloud transactions depend on physical infrastructure and hardware, such as servers and networking equipment. For this reason, the Treasury Department and the IRS are of the view that tangible property that directly supports the provision of a cloud transaction must be taken into account in determining the source of gross income from a cloud transaction. Under the proposed regulations, the tangible property factor, which is intended to represent the contribution of the tangible property to the performance of the cloud transaction, is the sum of the depreciation and rental expense for the taxable year for tangible property owned or leased by the taxpayer, to the extent the property is directly used to provide the cloud transaction. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     proposed § 1.861-19(d)(4)(i). To eliminate double counting, the proposed regulations 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3080"/>
                    require any depreciation or rental expense that would be included in the tangible property factor for multiple cloud transactions in a taxable year to be allocated among those transactions based on the relative gross income earned from each transaction. The portion of the tangible property factor that is from sources within the United States and comprises the numerator is equal to the part of the tangible property factor attributable to property located within the United States.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Determination of the Depreciation Expense</HD>
                <P>For purposes of computing the tangible property factor, depreciation expense for a taxable year is determined by dividing the adjusted depreciable basis (as defined in § 1.168(b)-1(a)(4)) of the tangible property by the applicable recovery period as though the alternative depreciation system in section 168(g)(2) applied for the entire period the property has been in service. Proposed § 1.861-19(d)(4)(iii). The Treasury Department and the IRS are of the view that the determination must be made without taking into account tax incentives intended to accelerate the recovery of costs in order to provide an allocation of depreciation that more closely reflects the asset's actual economic life. Thus, the proposed regulations explicitly state that the depreciation expense is computed without regard to the election to expense certain depreciable property under section 179 and without regard to any additional first-year depreciation provision (for example, section 168(k)).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Aggregation Rule</HD>
                <P>The proposed regulations include an aggregation rule, set forth in proposed § 1.861-19(d)(7), that is intended to enhance the administrability of these regulations and to alleviate the compliance burden on taxpayers associated with the regulations. The rule allows a taxpayer to aggregate substantially similar cloud transactions and source the gross income from those transactions as if they were one transaction. However, the rule also prohibits a taxpayer from aggregating substantially similar cloud transactions if the taxpayer knows, or has reason to know, that doing so would materially distort the source of gross income from any cloud transaction.  </P>
                <P>For example, assume a cloud provider offers two distinct but substantially similar cloud transactions, Service 1 and Service 2, that are not in the same product line (within the meaning of proposed § 1.861-19(d)(8)). Further, assume the cloud provider incurs significantly more research and experimentation costs associated with Service 2 as compared to those incurred for Service 1, and all of the research and experimentation personnel of the cloud provider are located in the United States at all times. This leads a significantly larger percentage of the income from Service 2 to be sourced within the United States as compared to that of Service 1. Aggregating Service 1 and Service 2 would cause a materially larger amount of gross income from Service 1 to be sourced within the United States than if the income were sourced without aggregating Service 1 with Service 2. Therefore, under the proposed regulations, the cloud provider cannot aggregate Service 1 and Service 2 to source the gross income from these transactions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Anti-Abuse Rule</HD>
                <P>In order to prevent taxpayers from circumventing the purpose of the proposed regulations—to attribute the source of gross income from a cloud transaction to the place where the transaction is performed—the proposed regulations would provide an anti-abuse rule. That anti-abuse rule, included in proposed § 1.861-19(d)(9), would provide that if the taxpayer has entered into or structured one or more transactions with a principal purpose of reducing its U.S. tax liability in a manner inconsistent with the purpose of the proposed regulations, appropriate adjustments will be made so that the source of the taxpayer's gross income reflects the location where the cloud transaction is performed.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">II. Request for Comments</HD>
                <P>Comments are requested on all aspects of the proposed regulations, including the following topics:</P>
                <P>(1) whether there are appropriate and administrable ways to determine the portion of the intangible property factor from sources within and without the United States other than by relying on the location of research and experimental personnel;</P>
                <P>(2) whether and to what extent companies presently track specified research or experimental expenditures by product line;</P>
                <P>(3) whether there is a practicable and verifiable way to precisely link the contribution of intangible property developed in one year to a cloud transaction provided in a later year;</P>
                <P>(4) whether relative gross income is an appropriate allocation method in cases in which the same cost or expense would be included in a factor for multiple cloud transactions during a taxable year;</P>
                <P>(5) whether additional operating costs incurred with respect to tangible property directly used in the provision of the cloud transaction, such as electricity costs associated with cloud transactions, should be included in the tangible property factor, and if so, how to capture the costs that contribute to the performance of the cloud transaction in an administrable manner; and</P>
                <P>(6) whether a special rule is needed to source the gross income of resellers of cloud transactions, for example, whether assets and employees other than those described in the proposed regulations better reflect the reseller's role in the cloud transaction.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Applicability Date</HD>
                <P>
                    The regulations are proposed to apply to taxable years beginning on or after the date of publication of the Treasury decision adopting these regulations as final regulations in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Analyses</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Regulatory Planning and Review—Economic Analysis</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to the Memorandum of Agreement, Review of Treasury Regulations under Executive Order 12866 (June 9, 2023), tax regulatory actions issued by the IRS are not subject to the requirements of section 6 of Executive Order 12866, as amended. Therefore, a regulatory impact assessment is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">II. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>This proposed rulemaking does not impose or revise any information collections subject to 44 U.S.C. Chapter 35.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">III. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act requires consideration of the regulatory impact on small businesses. It is hereby certified that these proposed regulations, if adopted, will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of section 601(6) of the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 6).</P>
                <P>
                    These proposed regulations would set forth specific rules for sourcing income from cloud transactions. Specifically, the proposed regulations provide guidance on sourcing such income based on three factors that are broadly consistent with existing case law on sourcing income from analogous transactions. Although data are not readily available to estimate the economic impact of the proposed regulations, the Treasury Department and the IRS project that any economic impact of the proposed regulations 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3081"/>
                    would be minimal for businesses regardless of size. This is because the proposed regulations adopt an approach that is broadly consistent with the general principles of existing law and reflect current industry practice. Therefore, the proposed rules are not expected to materially alter taxpayer behavior and therefore the Treasury Department and the IRS expect no material economic impact.
                </P>
                <P>For the reasons stated, a regulatory flexibility analysis under the Regulatory Flexibility Act is not required. Notwithstanding the above, the Treasury Department and the IRS invite comments on the impact the proposed rules would have on small entities.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">IV. Section 7805(f)</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to section 7805(f) of the Code, this notice of proposed rulemaking will be submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on its impact on small business.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">V. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits and take certain other actions before issuing a final rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in expenditures in any one year by a State, local, or Tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. The proposed regulations do not include any Federal mandate that may result in expenditures by State, local, or Tribal governments, or by the private sector in excess of that threshold.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">VI. Executive Order 13132: Federalism</HD>
                <P>
                    Executive Order 13132 (entitled 
                    <E T="03">Federalism</E>
                    ) prohibits an agency from publishing any rule that has federalism implications if the rule either imposes substantial, direct compliance costs on State and local governments, and is not required by statute, or preempts State law, unless the agency meets the consultation and funding requirements of section 6 of the Executive Order. The proposed regulations do not have federalism implications, do not impose substantial direct compliance costs on State and local governments, and do not preempt State law within the meaning of the Executive Order.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments and Requests for a Public Hearing</HD>
                <P>
                    Before these proposed regulations are adopted as final regulations, consideration will be given to any comments that are submitted timely to the IRS as prescribed in this preamble under the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     heading. All comments will be available at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    A public hearing will be scheduled if requested in writing by any person that timely submits comments. Requests for a public hearing are also encouraged to be made electronically. If a public hearing is scheduled, notice of the date, time, and place for the public hearing will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Drafting Information</HD>
                <P>The principal authors of these proposed regulations are Christopher E. Fulle and Michelle L. Ng of the Office of the Associate Chief Counsel (International). However, other personnel from the Treasury Department and the IRS participated in their development.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 26 CFR Part 1</HD>
                    <P>Income taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Amendments to the Regulations</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, the Treasury Department and IRS propose to amend 26 CFR part 1 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1—INCOME TAXES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>
                    <E T="04">Paragraph 1.</E>
                     The authority citation for part 1 continues to read in part as follows:
                </AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P> 26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *</P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>
                    <E T="04">Par. 2.</E>
                     Section 1.861-19, as added in a final rule published elsewhere in this issue of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , effective January 14, 2025, is amended as follows:
                </AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>a. Revise the section heading and paragraph (a);  </AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>b. Redesignate paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) as paragraphs (e), (f), and (g), respectively;</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>c. Add new paragraph (d);</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>d. For each paragraph listed in the following table, remove the language in the “Remove” column and add in its place the language in the “Add” column.</AMDPAR>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Paragraph</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Remove</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Add</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">newly redesignated (e), first sentence</ENT>
                        <ENT>paragraph (d)</ENT>
                        <ENT>paragraph (e).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">newly redesignated (e)(2)(i), first sentence</ENT>
                        <ENT>paragraph (d)(1)(i)</ENT>
                        <ENT>paragraph (e)(1)(i).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">newly redesignated (e)(2)(ii), first sentence</ENT>
                        <ENT>paragraph (d)(1)</ENT>
                        <ENT>paragraph (e)(1).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">newly redesignated (e)(5)(i), first sentence</ENT>
                        <ENT>paragraph (d)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>paragraph (e)(4).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">newly redesignated (e)(6)(i), first sentence</ENT>
                        <ENT>paragraph (d)(5)(i)</ENT>
                        <ENT>paragraph (e)(5)(i).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">newly redesignated (e)(6)(ii)(A), first sentence</ENT>
                        <ENT>paragraph (d)(5)(ii)</ENT>
                        <ENT>paragraph (e)(5)(ii).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">newly redesignated (g), first sentence</ENT>
                        <ENT>paragraph (e)</ENT>
                        <ENT>paragraph (f).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <AMDPAR>e. Add paragraphs (e)(12) and (13); and</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>f. Revise newly redesignated paragraph (f).</AMDPAR>
                <P>The revisions and additions read as follows:</P>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 1.861-19 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Classification of, and source of gross income from, cloud transactions.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">In general.</E>
                         This section provides rules for classifying and sourcing gross income from cloud transactions (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section). The rules of this section apply for purposes of Internal Revenue Code sections 59A, 245A, 250, 267A, 367, 404A, 482, 679, and 1059A; subchapter N of chapter 1; chapters 3 and 4; and sections 842 and 845 (to the extent involving a foreign person), and apply with respect to transfers to foreign trusts not covered by section 679.
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        (d) 
                        <E T="03">Source of income from a cloud transaction</E>
                        —(1) 
                        <E T="03">In general.</E>
                         Gross income from a cloud transaction is sourced as services income under section 861(a)(3) or 862(a)(3), as appropriate, according to where the service is performed. The place of performance of the cloud transaction is based on the intangible property factor described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the personnel factor described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, and the tangible property factor described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section. To determine gross income from a cloud transaction from sources within the United States, gross income from the cloud transaction is multiplied by a fraction, the numerator of which is the sum of the portion of each of the intangible property factor, personnel factor, and tangible property factor that is from sources within the United States 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3082"/>
                        as calculated in paragraphs (d)(2)(ii), (d)(3)(ii), and (d)(4)(ii) of this section, and the denominator of which is the sum of the intangible property factor, personnel factor, and tangible property factor as calculated in paragraphs (d)(2)(i), (d)(3)(i), and (d)(4)(i) of this section. See paragraph (e)(12) of this section (
                        <E T="03">Example 12</E>
                        ). Any remaining gross income from a cloud transaction is gross income from sources without the United States.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Intangible property factor</E>
                        —(i) 
                        <E T="03">Total.</E>
                         For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the intangible property factor with respect to any cloud transaction performed by the taxpayer in a taxable year is equal to the sum of the taxpayer's specified research or experimental expenditures (as defined in section 174(b) and regardless of whether and when the expenses are deductible) for that taxable year that are associated with cloud transactions in the same product line as the cloud transaction performed and the taxpayer's amortization (other than amounts capitalized under section 174(a)(2)(A) and amortized under section 174(a)(2)(B)) and royalty expense for intangible property for the taxable year to the extent directly used to provide the cloud transaction. If the same cost or expense would be included by a taxpayer in the intangible property factor for more than one cloud transaction during a taxable year, such cost or expense is allocated among each such cloud transaction based on the relative gross income earned from each cloud transaction.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) 
                        <E T="03">Portion from sources within the United States.</E>
                         With respect to a cloud transaction provided in a taxable year, the portion of the intangible property factor from sources within the United States is determined using a formula based on the location of all of the taxpayer's employees whose primary function is to perform research and experimentation activities associated with cloud transactions in the same product line in that taxable year (the research and experimentation personnel). The formula is as follows: applying the principles of § 1.861-4(b)(2)(ii)(E) (relating to sourcing income from labor or personal services on a time basis), divide the sum of the total compensation paid to the research and experimentation personnel for services performed within the United States by the sum of the total compensation paid to the research and experimentation personnel, and multiply the resulting quotient by the intangible property factor described in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (3) 
                        <E T="03">Personnel factor</E>
                        —(i) 
                        <E T="03">Total.</E>
                         For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the personnel factor with respect to a cloud transaction performed in a taxable year is equal to the sum of the total compensation paid to all of the taxpayer's employees in that taxable year whose primary function is to directly contribute to the provision of the cloud transaction, excluding compensation amounts that are paid to research and experimentation personnel described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. If, however, an employee's primary function is to directly contribute to multiple cloud transactions, then all of such employee's compensation is allocated among the cloud transactions that the employee directly contributes to as part of their primary function based on the relative amount of time the employee spends contributing to each cloud transaction. If an employee contributes to multiple cloud transactions simultaneously, then that employee's compensation is allocated among those cloud transactions based on the relative gross income earned from each cloud transaction.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) 
                        <E T="03">Portion from sources within the United States.</E>
                         With respect to a cloud transaction, the portion of the personnel factor described in paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section that is from sources within the United States is equal to the part of that factor paid for services performed in the United States, as determined using the principles of § 1.861-4(b)(2)(ii)(E) (relating to sourcing income from labor or personal services on a time basis).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (iii) 
                        <E T="03">Personnel considered to directly contribute to the provision of the cloud transaction.</E>
                         Personnel are considered to directly contribute to the provision of the cloud transaction to the extent they personally perform technical or operational activities for the provision of the cloud transaction, or to the extent they are a manager who directly supports or immediately supervises such technical or operational personnel. Such technical or operational activities are the conduct of scientific, engineering, or technical activities for the configuration, delivery, or maintenance of the cloud transaction; the provision of monitoring, diagnostics, or incident response with respect to the cloud transaction's performance, reliability, efficiency, or security; the management of the cloud transaction's infrastructure; the delivery of end-user support with respect to the cloud transaction; and the conduct of any similar functions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (iv) 
                        <E T="03">Personnel not considered to directly contribute to the provision of the cloud transaction.</E>
                         Personnel are not considered to directly contribute to the provision of the cloud transaction to the extent they conduct business strategy, leadership, legal or compliance, marketing, communications, sales, business development, finance, accounting, clerical, human resources or administrative duties, or similar functions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (4) 
                        <E T="03">Tangible property factor</E>
                        —(i) 
                        <E T="03">Total.</E>
                         For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the tangible property factor with respect to a cloud transaction performed in a taxable year is equal to the sum of the depreciation expense for that taxable year for tangible property owned by the taxpayer and rental expense for that taxable year for tangible property leased by the taxpayer, in each case to the extent directly used to provide the cloud transaction. If any depreciation expense or rental expense would be included in the tangible property factor for more than one cloud transaction during the taxable year, such depreciation expense or rental expense is allocated among the cloud transactions based on relative gross income earned from each cloud transaction.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) 
                        <E T="03">Portion from sources within the United States.</E>
                         The portion of the tangible property factor described in paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section from sources within the United States is equal to the part of that factor attributable to property located within the United States.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (iii) 
                        <E T="03">Determination of depreciation expense.</E>
                         For purposes of paragraph (d)(4) of this section, depreciation expense for a taxable year is determined by dividing the adjusted depreciable basis (as defined in § 1.168(b)-1(a)(4)) of the tangible property by the applicable recovery period as though the alternative depreciation system set forth in section 168(g)(2) applied for the entire period that such property has been in service, without regard to the election to expense certain depreciable property under section 179 and without regard to any additional first-year depreciation provision (for example, section 168(k)).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (5) 
                        <E T="03">Primary function.</E>
                         For purposes of this section, an employee's primary function is the set of tasks to which they are assigned to spend the majority of their working time.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (6) 
                        <E T="03">Employee.</E>
                         For purposes of this section, the term employee has the meaning given to it in § 31.3121(d)-1(c) of this chapter.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (7) 
                        <E T="03">Aggregation rule.</E>
                         For purposes of applying this paragraph (d), a taxpayer may aggregate substantially similar cloud transactions unless it knows or 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3083"/>
                        has reason to know that doing so would materially distort the source of gross income from any cloud transaction.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (8) 
                        <E T="03">Product line.</E>
                         For purposes of this section, a product line is defined as all products within the same Corresponding Index Entry under a North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) code number. Once a taxpayer selects a Corresponding Index Entry and NAICS code number for the first taxable year for which this section applies, it must continue to use that Corresponding Index Entry and NAICS code number in following years unless the taxpayer establishes to the satisfaction of the Commissioner that, due to changes in the relevant facts, a change in Corresponding Index Entry and NAICS code number is appropriate.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (9) 
                        <E T="03">Anti-Abuse Rule.</E>
                         The purpose of this paragraph (d) is to attribute the source of the taxpayer's gross income from a cloud transaction to the location where the cloud transaction is performed. Therefore, if the taxpayer has entered into or structured one or more transactions with a principal purpose of reducing its U.S. tax liability in a manner inconsistent with the purpose of this paragraph (d), appropriate adjustments will be made so that the source of the taxpayer's gross income reflects the location where the cloud transaction is performed.
                    </P>
                    <P>(e) * * *</P>
                    <P>
                        (12) 
                        <E T="03">Example 12: Sourcing gross income from a cloud transaction</E>
                        —(i) 
                        <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                         (A) Corp A provides customers on-demand network access to Program Y in exchange for a monthly fee. All of the transactions with customers are substantially similar to one another. Customers must be connected to the internet to access the functionality of Program Y.
                    </P>
                    <P>(B) Corp A has employees whose primary function (as determined under paragraph (d)(5) of this section) is to conduct research and experimentation associated with developing new versions of Program Y and other products in the same product line (as determined under paragraph (d)(8) of this section). Corp A paid $160x in compensation to such employees, of which $80x was paid for services performed within the United States as determined in accordance with the principles of § 1.861-4(b)(2)(ii)(E). Besides employee compensation, Corp A spent an additional $200x for research and experimentation costs associated with developing new versions of Program Y and other products in the same product line. Corp A did not take any amortization deductions with respect to intellectual property used to provide Program Y.</P>
                    <P>(C) Corp A paid $400x in compensation to employees whose primary function was to directly contribute (as determined under paragraphs (d)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section) to Corp A's provision of Program Y to customers, of which $100x was paid for services performed in the United States as determined in accordance with the principles of § 1.861-4(b)(2)(ii)(E). None of these employees were research and experimentation personnel (as defined in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section).</P>
                    <P>(D) Corp A hosts Program Y on servers it owns that are located both within and without the United States. These servers are used only to host Program Y. Corp A deducted $140x for depreciation expense attributable to these servers, $80x of which was attributable to the servers located within the United States, and $60x of which was attributable to the servers located without the United States. These depreciation deductions are in accordance with the rules of section 168(g)(2).</P>
                    <P>(E) Corp A earned $800x of gross income from providing customers access to Program Y. Corp A does not know or have reason to know that any of the costs, functions or assets described in this paragraph are disproportionately allocated to certain transactions or groups of transactions among all of the transactions that generated $800x of gross income.</P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) 
                        <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                         (A) Under paragraph (b) of this section, each transaction between Corp A and a customer is a cloud transaction because Corp A provides on-demand network access to Program Y. Under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, each cloud transaction is classified as the provision of services. Under paragraph (d)(7) of this section, because all of these transactions are substantially similar and Corp A does not know or have reason to know that there is any disproportionate allocation of costs, functions or assets among them, all of the transactions may be considered in the aggregate for purposes of applying paragraph (d) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>(B) Under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the source of Corp A's $800x of gross income from providing access to Program Y to customers is determined based on the intangible property factor described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the personnel factor described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, and the tangible property factor described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section.  </P>
                    <P>(C) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the intangible property factor is equal to $360x because Corp A paid $160x in compensation to employees whose primary function was to conduct research and experimentation associated with developing new versions of Program Y and other products in the same product line, and incurred $200x in other research and experimentation costs associated with developing new versions of Program Y and other products in the same product line. $80x/$160x of such compensation, or 50%, is paid to employees for research and experimentation services performed with respect to Program Y and other products in the same product line in the United States. Corp A's $360x intangible property factor is multiplied by the same quotient to determine that $180x is from sources within the United States pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section.</P>
                    <P>(D) Under paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the personnel factor is equal to $400x because Corp A paid $400x in compensation to employees whose primary function was to directly contribute to the provision of Program Y to customers and none of these employees were research and experimentation personnel (as defined in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section). Pursuant to paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section, $100x of the personnel factor is from sources within the United States because Corp A paid $100x in compensation to employees for services performed in the United States that directly contributed to the provision of Program Y to customers.</P>
                    <P>(E) Under paragraph (d)(4) of this section, the tangible property factor is equal to $140x because Corp A deducted $140x in depreciation expense for tangible property directly used to provide Program Y to customers under the method described in section 168(g)(2). $80x of the tangible property factor is from sources within the United States because this amount of the $140x depreciation expense is attributable to tangible property located within the United States.</P>
                    <P>
                        (F) The sum of the intangible property factor ($360x), the personnel factor ($400x), and the tangible property factor ($140x) is equal to $900x. The sum of these factors from sources within the United States is $360x ($180x with respect to the intangible property factor, $100x with respect to the personnel factor, and $80x with respect to the tangible property factor). Accordingly, Corp A's $800x of gross income from providing Program Y to customers for the taxable year is multiplied by the quotient of $360x/$900x pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section to determine that $320x is from sources within the United States. Pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3084"/>
                        remaining $480x ($800x−$320x) is from sources without the United States.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (13) 
                        <E T="03">Example 13: Sourcing gross income from multiple cloud transactions</E>
                        —(i) 
                        <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                         (A) The facts are the same as in paragraph (e)(12) of this section (
                        <E T="03">Example 12</E>
                        ), except that Corp A also provides customers on-demand network access to software platform Z in exchange for a monthly fee, and Corp A hosts software platform Z on the same servers it uses to host Program Y (which generate more depreciation than in 
                        <E T="03">Example 12</E>
                        ). All of the transactions for software platform Z customers are substantially similar to one another. Customers must be connected to the internet to access the functionality of software platform Z.
                    </P>
                    <P>(B) Corp A has employees whose primary function (as determined under paragraph (d)(5) of this section) is to conduct research and experimentation associated with developing new versions of software platform Z and other products in the same product line. The software platform Z product line is not the same as the Program Y product line under the definition in paragraph (d)(8) of this section. Corp A paid $200x in compensation to such employees, all of which was paid for services performed in the United States as determined in accordance with the principles of § 1.861-4(b)(2)(ii)(E). Corp A also has employees whose primary function as determined under paragraph (d)(5) of this section is to conduct research and experimentation associated with developing functionality for new versions of both Program Y and software platform Z. Corp A paid $100x in compensation to such employees, all of which was paid for services performed in the United States as determined in accordance with the principles of § 1.861-4(b)(2)(ii)(E). Corp A did not have any other research and experimentation costs associated with software platform Z.</P>
                    <P>(C) Corp A paid $100x in compensation to employees whose primary function was to directly contribute (as determined under paragraphs (d)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section) to Corp A's provision of software platform Z to customers, and that entire amount was paid for services performed in the United States as determined in accordance with the principles of § 1.861-4(b)(2)(ii)(E). None of these employees were research and experimentation personnel (as defined in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section). Corp A also paid $80x in compensation to employees whose primary function was to directly contribute (as determined under paragraphs (d)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section) to Corp A's provision of both Program Y and software platform Z to customers, and that entire amount was paid for services performed in the United States as determined in accordance with the principles of § 1.861-4(b)(2)(ii)(E). These employees spent half their time contributing to software platform Z transactions and half their time contributing to Program Y transactions. None of these employees were research and experimentation personnel (as defined in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section).</P>
                    <P>(D) Corp A hosts software platform Z on servers it owns that are located both within and without the United States. These servers are used to host both Program Y and software platform Z. Corp A deducted $180x for depreciation expense attributable to these servers, $120x of which was attributable to the servers located within the United States, and $60x of which was attributable to the servers located without the United States. These depreciation deductions are in accordance with the rules of section 168(g)(2).</P>
                    <P>(E) Corp A earned $800x of gross income from providing customers access to software platform Z. Corp A does not know or have reason to know that any of the costs, functions or assets described in this paragraph are disproportionately allocated to certain transactions or groups of transactions among all of the transactions that generated $800x of gross income.</P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) 
                        <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                         (A) Under paragraph (b) of this section, each transaction between Corp A and a customer for software platform Z is a cloud transaction because Corp A provides on-demand network access to software platform Z. Under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, each cloud transaction is classified as the provision of services. Under paragraph (d)(7) of this section, because all of these software platform Z transactions are substantially similar and Corp A does not know or have reason to know that there is any disproportionate allocation of costs, functions or assets among them, all of the software platform Z transactions may be considered in the aggregate for purposes of applying paragraph (d) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>(B) Under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the source of Corp A's $800x of gross income from providing access to software platform Z to customers is determined based on the intangible property factor described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the personnel factor described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, and the tangible property factor described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section.</P>
                    <P>(C) Under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the intangible property factor is equal to $250x. Corp A paid $200x in compensation to employees whose primary function was to conduct research and experimentation associated with developing new versions of software Platform Z and other products in the same product line. Corp A also paid $100x in compensation to employees whose primary function was to conduct research and experimentation developing functionality for new versions of both Program Y and software platform Z, of which Corp A allocates $50x to software Platform Z and $50x to Program Y based on Corp A's relative gross income from Program Y and software platform Z transactions in the taxable year. $250x/$250x of such compensation, or 100%, is paid to employees for research and experimentation services performed in the United States with respect to software Platform Z and other products in the same product line. Corp A's $250x intangible property factor is multiplied by the same quotient to determine that $250x is from sources within the United States pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section.</P>
                    <P>(D) Under paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the personnel factor is equal to $140x. Corp A paid $100x in compensation to employees whose primary function was to directly contribute to the provision of software platform Z to customers and none of these employees were research and experimentation personnel (as defined in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section). Corp A also paid $80x in compensation to employees whose primary function was to directly contribute to the provision of both Program Y and software platform Z (and none of these employees were research and experimentation personnel (as defined in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section)), and Corp A allocated $40x to software platform Z and $40x to Program Y based on the relative amount of time these employees spent contributing to Program Y and software platform Z transactions in the taxable year. $140x/$140x of such compensation, or 100%, is paid to employees for services performed in the United States that directly contributed to the provision of software platform Z to customers.</P>
                    <P>
                        (E) Under paragraph (d)(4) of this section, the tangible property factor is equal to $90x. Corp A deducted $180x in depreciation expense for tangible property directly used to provide both Program Y and software platform Z transactions under the method described in section 168(g)(2), of which $120x is from sources within the United 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3085"/>
                        States because this amount is attributable to tangible property located within the United States. Based on Corp A's relative gross income from Program Y and software platform Z transactions in the taxable year, Corp A reasonably allocates $90x to software platform Z, of which $60x is from sources within the United States and $90x to Program Y, of which $60x is from sources within the United States.
                    </P>
                    <P>(F) The sum of the intangible property factor ($250x), the personnel factor ($140x), and the tangible property factor ($90x) is equal to $480x. The sum of these factors from sources within the United States is $450x ($250x with respect to the intangible property factor, $140x with respect to the personnel factor, and $60x with respect to the tangible property factor). Accordingly, Corp A's $800x of gross income from providing software platform Z to customers for the taxable year is multiplied by the quotient of $450x/$480x pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section to determine that $750x is from sources within the United States. Pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the remaining $50x ($800x−$750x) is from sources without the United States.</P>
                    <P>
                        (f) 
                        <E T="03">Applicability date</E>
                        —(1) 
                        <E T="03">In general.</E>
                         Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (f), this section applies to taxable years beginning on or after January 14, 2025. Paragraphs (d) and (e)(12) and (13) of this section apply to taxable years beginning on or after the date of publication of the Treasury decision adopting those paragraphs as final regulations in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Early application.</E>
                         Except for paragraphs (d) and (e)(12) and (13) of this section, a taxpayer can apply this section to taxable years beginning on or after August 14, 2019 and all subsequent taxable years not described in paragraph (f)(1) (early application years) if—
                    </P>
                    <P>(i) The taxpayer also applies § 1.861-18 to the early application years;</P>
                    <P>(ii) This section and § 1.861-18 are applied to the early application years by all persons related to the taxpayer (within the meaning of sections 267(b) and 707(b));</P>
                    <P>(iii) The period of limitations on assessment for each early application year of the taxpayer and all related parties (within the meaning of sections 267(b) and 707(b)) is open under section 6501; and</P>
                    <P>(iv) The taxpayer would not be required under this section to change its method of accounting as a result of such election.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Douglas W. O'Donnell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Commissioner.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-31373 Filed 1-10-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4830-01-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>26 CFR Part 1</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[REG-107895-24]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1545-BR20</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Base Erosion and Anti-Abuse Tax Rules for Qualified Derivative Payments on Securities Lending Transactions</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This document contains proposed regulations regarding the base erosion and anti-abuse tax imposed on certain large corporate taxpayers with respect to certain payments made to foreign related parties. The proposed regulations relate to how qualified derivative payments with respect to securities lending transactions are determined and reported. The proposed regulations would affect corporations with substantial gross receipts that make payments to foreign related parties.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written or electronic comments and requests for a public hearing must be received by April 14, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Commenters are strongly encouraged to submit public comments electronically via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         (indicate IRS and REG-107895-24) by following the online instructions for submitting comments. Requests for a public hearing must be submitted as prescribed in the “Comments and Requests for a Public Hearing” section. Once submitted to the Federal eRulemaking Portal, comments cannot be edited or withdrawn. The Department of the Treasury (Treasury Department) and the IRS will publish for public availability any comments submitted to the IRS's public docket. Send paper submissions to: CC:PA:01:PR (REG-107895-24), Room 5203, Internal Revenue Service, P.O. Box 7604, Ben Franklin Station, Washington, DC 20044.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Concerning the proposed regulations, Sheila Ramaswamy at (202) 317-6938; concerning submissions of comments, requests for a public hearing, and access to a public hearing, Publications and Regulations Section at (202) 317-6901 (not toll-free numbers) or by email to 
                        <E T="03">publichearings@irs.gov</E>
                         (preferred).
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority</HD>
                <P>This document contains proposed additions and amendments to 26 CFR part 1 (Income Tax Regulations) under sections 59A and 6038A of the Internal Revenue Code (Code). The proposed additions and amendments are issued pursuant to the express delegations of authority to the Secretary of the Treasury (or her delegate) provided under sections 59A(i) and 6038A(b)(2). The proposed regulations are also issued under the express delegation of authority under section 7805(a) of the Code.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Statutory Framework</HD>
                <P>
                    The base erosion and anti-abuse tax (“BEAT”) of section 59A imposes on each applicable taxpayer a tax equal to the base erosion minimum tax amount for the taxable year. For taxable years after 2018 and before 2026, the base erosion minimum tax amount for the taxable year is the excess of ten percent of the modified taxable income of the applicable taxpayer minus the applicable taxpayer's regular tax liability under section 26(b) reduced (but not below zero) by certain credits. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     section 59A(b)(1) and (2). To be an applicable taxpayer, generally the taxpayer must meet the following three requirements: (1) the taxpayer must be a corporation which is not a regulated investment company, a real estate investment trust, or an S corporation; (2) the taxpayer must have average annual gross receipts for the three-taxable-year period ending with the preceding taxable year that are at least $500 million; and (3) the taxpayer generally must have a base erosion percentage for the taxable year of at least three percent (or two percent for banks and registered securities dealers). 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     section 59A(e).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The applicable taxpayer determines its modified taxable income by computing its taxable income without regard to any base erosion tax benefit with respect to any base erosion payment or the base erosion percentage of any net operating loss deduction allowed under section 172 for the taxable year. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     section 59A(c)(1). Generally, a base erosion payment is any deductible amount paid or accrued by an applicable taxpayer to a foreign person as defined in section 6038A(c)(3) 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3086"/>
                    that is a related party of the applicable taxpayer. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     section 59A(d)(1) and (f). The base erosion tax benefit is the deduction allowed under Chapter 1 for the taxable year for the base erosion payment. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     section 59A(c)(2). Qualified derivative payments (“QDPs”) are not treated as base erosion payments if they are properly reported to the IRS. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     section 59A(h)(1) and (h)(2)(B).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">II. Guidance Addressing the BEAT</HD>
                <P>
                    On December 6, 2019, the Treasury Department and the IRS published final regulations (TD 9885) under sections 59A, 383, 1502, 6038A, and 6655 (the “2019 final regulations”) in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (84 FR 66968). On October 9, 2020, the Treasury Department and the IRS also published final regulations (TD 9910) under sections 59A and 6031 in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (85 FR 64346). In a series of notices, the Treasury Department and the IRS announced the intention to defer the applicability date of § 1.6038A-2(b)(7)(ix) (regarding the reporting requirements for QDPs) until taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2027. 
                    <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                     Notice 2024-43, 2024-25 IRB 1737.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Explanation of Provisions</HD>
                <P>These proposed regulations provide guidance under section 59A that would modify the rules set forth in the final regulations relating to how to determine QDPs in connection with securities lending transactions. Part A of this Explanation of Provisions summarizes the QDP exception. Part B of this Explanation of Provisions explains the reporting requirements for QDPs, particularly with respect to securities lending and borrowing transactions. Part C of this Explanation of Provisions describes the proposed amendment to the reporting requirements for QDPs.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Overview of Qualified Derivative Payments</HD>
                <P>Section 59A and the final regulations thereunder provide a number of exceptions to base erosion payments. One exception relevant to these proposed regulations is in section 59A(h), which provides that QDPs are not base erosion payments. Section 59A(h)(2)(A) defines a QDP as any payment made by a taxpayer pursuant to a derivative with respect to which the taxpayer—</P>
                <P>(i) Recognizes gain or loss as if such derivative were sold for its fair market value on the last business day of the taxable year (and additional times as required under a statute or the taxpayer's method of accounting),</P>
                <P>(ii) Treats any gain or loss recognized as ordinary, and</P>
                <P>(iii) Treats the character of all items of income, deduction, gain, or loss with respect to a payment pursuant to the derivative as ordinary.</P>
                <P>
                    Section 59A(h)(2)(B) provides that a payment is not a QDP unless the taxpayer satisfies certain reporting requirements. Section 1.59A-6(b)(2)(i) provides that a payment is not a QDP unless the taxpayer reports the information required by § 1.6038A-2(b)(7)(ix), which includes: (a) the aggregate amount of QDPs for the taxable year and (b) a representation that all payments satisfy the requirements of § 1.59A-6(b)(2). The aggregate amount of QDPs is reported on the Form 8991, 
                    <E T="03">Tax on Base Erosion Payments of Taxpayers with Substantial Gross Receipts.</E>
                     Under § 1.59A-6(b)(2)(ii), if a taxpayer fails to satisfy the reporting requirement with respect to a payment, that payment is ineligible for the QDP exception to base erosion payment status, unless another exception applies. However, until § 1.59A-6(b)(2)(i) is applicable, § 1.59A-6(b)(2)(ii) will not apply to a taxpayer who reports the aggregate amount of QDPs in good faith. § 1.59A-6(b)(2)(iv). Section 1.6038A-2(b)(7)(ix) initially applied to taxable years beginning on or after June 
                    <E T="03">7,</E>
                     2021, as a result of which § 1.59A-6(b)(2)(i) did not apply until taxable years beginning on or after June 7, 2021. § 1.6038A-2(g). Therefore, for taxable years beginning before June 7, 2021, taxpayers could satisfy the reporting requirements for QDPs by reporting the aggregate amount of QDPs in good faith. §§ 1.59A-6(b)(2)(iv) and 1.6038A-2(g). As described in more detail below, the Treasury Department and the IRS have announced the intention to defer the applicability date of § 1.6038A-2(b)(7)(ix) to taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2027. 
                    <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                     Notice 2024-43, 2024-25 IRB 1737. This means that § 1.59A-6(b)(2)(i) will not apply until taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2027.
                </P>
                <P>Once § 1.6038A-2(b)(7)(ix) becomes applicable, the reporting requirements for QDPs will no longer be satisfied by reporting the aggregate amount of QDPs in good faith. Instead, taxpayers must correctly report the aggregate amount of QDPs on Form 8991 to satisfy the reporting requirements and only those payments for which the reporting requirements have been satisfied will qualify for the QDP exception. The Treasury Department and the IRS are considering requiring taxpayers to report additional information on the Form 8991 or a schedule thereto to assist the IRS in verifying that taxpayers have accurately reported the payments that qualify for the QDP exception. Before modifications are made to the information required to reported on Form 8991 or a schedule thereto, the IRS expects to make a draft available with the proposed changes so that taxpayers may submit comments.</P>
                <P>
                    The aggregate amount of QDPs is defined under § 1.59A-6(b)(2)(iii) and (b)(3) to incorporate § 1.59A-2(e)(3)(vi) (the “BEAT Netting Rule”). The BEAT Netting Rule provides that for any position with respect to which the taxpayer applies a mark-to-market method of accounting, the taxpayer must determine its gain or loss with respect to that position for any taxable year by combining all items of income, gain, loss, or deduction arising with respect to the position during the taxable year, such as from a payment, accrual, or mark. The BEAT Netting Rule was adopted to ensure that only a single deduction is claimed with respect to each transaction that is marked to market and to prevent distortions in deductions from being included in the denominator of the base erosion percentage, including as a result of the use of an accounting method that values a position more frequently than annually. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Preamble to the 2019 final regulations, 84 FR 66971. For example, when a taxpayer is a party to an interest rate swap with a foreign related party, the BEAT Netting Rule ensures that the periodic payments made by the taxpayer to the foreign related party give rise to only a single deduction in a taxable year regardless of whether the taxpayer marks to market the swap more frequently than annually.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Reporting and Determining QDPs</HD>
                <P>
                    A comment recommended modifying the 2019 final regulation to provide that mark-to-market gains and losses with respect to the securities leg of a cross-border securities lending or borrowing transaction with a related party (an “intercompany securities lending transaction”) are not subject to the QDP reporting requirements. The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that mark-to-market gains and losses with respect to intercompany securities lending transactions should not be subject to the QDP reporting requirements; however, the Treasury Department and the IRS do not agree with the rationale suggested by the comment. Part B.1 of this Explanation of Provisions describes intercompany securities lending transactions and the QDP rules applicable to those transactions as provided by the 2019 final regulations. Part B.2 of this Explanation of Provisions summarizes the comment requesting changes to the QDP reporting requirements with respect to mark-to-
                    <PRTPAGE P="3087"/>
                    market gains and losses on intercompany securities lending transactions. Part B.3 of this Explanation of Provisions describes the proposed modifications to the QDP reporting requirements and explains why the Treasury Department and the IRS disagree with the rationale generally offered in the comment.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Application of QDP Reporting to Securities Lending or Borrowing Transactions</HD>
                <P>
                    After the publication of the 2019 final regulations, comments requested clarification as to how the QDP reporting requirements apply to mark-to-market gains and losses with respect to the securities leg of an intercompany securities lending transaction. The Treasury Department and the IRS subsequently issued three notices announcing the intent to defer the applicability date of the reporting rules of § 1.6038A-2(b)(7)(ix) while the Treasury Department and the IRS studied whether further guidance was appropriate regarding the interaction of the QDP exception, the BEAT Netting Rule, and the QDP reporting requirements with respect to intercompany securities lending transactions. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Notice 2021-36, 2021-26 IRB 1227; Notice 2022-30, 2022-28 IRB 70. The most recent notice, Notice 2024-43, announced the intent to defer the applicability date to taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2027. Notice 2024-43, 2024-25 IRB 1737.
                </P>
                <P>In a typical intercompany securities borrowing transaction, a taxpayer may borrow securities, such as stock, from a foreign related party. The terms of the securities loan agreement will require the taxpayer to return identical securities to the foreign related party and to pay amounts equivalent to all interest, dividends, and other distributions that the foreign related party would be entitled to receive during the term of the lending transaction if it had not loaned the securities (substitute payments). The securities borrower may also be required to pay a separately stated borrow fee. Additionally, under normal market terms in the United States, the securities borrower will provide cash collateral and receive interest (the cash amount of which may be reduced by an embedded borrow fee) on that collateral. A taxpayer may also lend securities to a foreign related party under similar terms. For ease of discussion, both such transactions generally are referred to in this Explanation of Provisions as a securities lending transaction. Under a taxpayer's method of accounting, intercompany securities lending transactions may be marked to market on the last business day of its taxable year.</P>
                <P>Section 1.59A-6(d) defines a derivative, for purposes of the QDP rules, as any contract the value of which, or any payment or transfer with respect to which, is determined by reference to, among other items, any share of stock of a corporation or any evidence of indebtedness. Special rules apply to securities lending transactions, pursuant to which a derivative does not include the cash collateral component of the transaction. § 1.59A-6(d)(2)(iii)(B). Accordingly, only the securities leg of a securities lending transaction—that is, the part of the contract providing for the borrowing and return of the securities, without regard to any obligation to provide cash collateral—may be treated as a derivative for purposes of the QDP rules.</P>
                <P>Like other derivatives, the amount of any QDP arising from a securities lending transaction is excluded from the numerator and the denominator of the base erosion percentage. Section 59A(h)(1); § 1.59A-6(b)(3)(i). The aggregate amount of QDPs is determined as provided by the BEAT Netting Rule. § 1.59A-6(b)(2)(iii). For intercompany securities lending transactions, however, the cash collateral component of a securities lending transaction, and the payment of interest thereon, are not taken into account for purposes of the BEAT Netting Rule. § 1.59A-6(b)(3)(ii) and (d)(2)(iii)(B).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Comments Requesting Modifications to the QDP Reporting Requirements</HD>
                <P>A comment on the QDP reporting requirements of the regulations discussed the treatment of gains and losses on the securities leg of intercompany securities lending transactions. When the taxpayer is the securities borrower, the securities leg can result in deductions with respect to substitute payments or other payments made to the securities lender and, if the taxpayer marks to market the securities lending transaction, deductions for mark-to-market losses on the obligation to return the borrowed securities if the value of the borrowed securities increases. A transaction in which a U.S. taxpayer lends securities to a foreign related party also can give rise to a deduction for mark-to-market losses on the right to the return of the loaned securities if the value of the loaned securities decreases.</P>
                <P>
                    The comment agreed that substitute payments should be reported under the QDP reporting requirements but asserted that mark-to-market gains and losses on intercompany securities lending transactions should not be required to be reported. The comment noted that the language in the preamble to the 2019 final regulations stated that “a mark-to-market loss arising from a deemed sale or disposition of a third-party security held by a taxpayer is not within the general definition of a base erosion payment because the loss is not attributable to any payment made to a foreign related party. Rather, the mark-to-market loss is attributable to a decline in the market value of the security.” 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Preamble to the 2019 final regulations, 84 FR 66972 (noting “that the BEAT Netting Rule will apply primarily for purposes of determining the amount of deductions that are taken into account in the denominator of the base erosion percentage”). The comment viewed this statement as applicable not only to mark-to-market losses on third-party securities held by the taxpayer but also to mark-to-market losses on intercompany securities lending transactions. The comment asserted that that treatment would be correct as a legal matter, arguing that mark-to-market losses on derivatives with a related party are not payments to a related party. The comment supported this conclusion on the basis of legislative history to section 475 stating that mark-to-market gains or losses on a security that is a contract with a related party are treated as arising from a sale to an unrelated party.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The comment stated that mark-to-market losses should not be captured by the QDP reporting requirement because these losses should not be considered base erosion payments, and the QDP exception is predicated on an amount being a base erosion payment. The comment noted that including mark-to-market gains and losses on intercompany securities lending transactions in the amount of QDPs reported on Form 8991 could result in a QDP number that is either over- or under-inclusive of what the comment considered to be the correct aggregate QDP amount, depending upon the facts. For example, a taxpayer that has a mark-to-market gain for the year on an intercompany securities borrowing that exceeds the amount of substitute payments it makes would report no QDPs on the transaction by operation of the BEAT Netting Rule even though, in the view of the comment, the actual amount of QDPs should equal the amount of the substitute payments. The comment requested that the regulations under section 59A be revised to provide that mark-to-market gains and losses for the securities leg of an intercompany 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3088"/>
                    securities transaction are not payments to foreign related parties and should not be included in QDP reporting.
                </P>
                <P>The same stakeholder also submitted a comment requesting that the applicability date of the reporting rules of § 1.6038A-2(b)(7)(ix) be deferred for another two years because financial institutions (a) do not have systems that maintain records of intercompany securities transactions from which mark-to-market gains or losses can be determined, including whether a particular securities lending transaction is cross-border; and (b) need certainty regarding the QDP reporting rules before building compliance systems. The stakeholder also commented that, while it believes mark-to-market amounts on other derivatives also are not base erosion payments, it is appropriate to apply the BEAT Netting Rule to the reporting of QDPs relating to those derivatives for practical reasons, including that taxpayers have the necessary information on their books and records to apply the BEAT Netting Rule to the QDP determination.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Changes to the Rule for Determining QDPs</HD>
                <P>While the Treasury Department and the IRS agree with the recommendation suggested by the comment, the Treasury Department and the IRS do not agree with the commenter's more general assertion that mark-to-market payments on derivatives with a foreign related party are not, or should not be, treated as base erosion payments. Payments on derivatives made to a foreign related party are base erosion payments, unless they qualify as QDPs. Sections 59A(d)(1) and 59A(h). They must be taken into account for BEAT purposes either when paid or when otherwise taken into account for U.S. Federal income tax purposes. If the commenter's position were correct, payments on derivatives to a foreign related party would be required to be taken into account for BEAT purposes when paid or accrued, which would deviate from when such payments are taken into account for other Federal income tax purposes for taxpayers that mark those payments to market.</P>
                <P>For derivatives, the effect of the BEAT Netting Rule generally is to aggregate all items of income, gain, loss, or deduction to ensure that a single deduction is claimed with respect to each transaction that is marked to market. Because a derivative must be marked-to-market for tax purposes in order for a payment on the derivative to qualify as a QDP, it is appropriate to determine the aggregate amount of QDPs by reference to the BEAT Netting Rule. Section 59A(h)(2)(A)(i).</P>
                <P>The QDP exception eliminates most mark-to-market gain or loss from derivative transactions from being characterized as base erosion payments. In those situations for which the QDP exception does not apply, mark-to-market losses on derivative contracts with foreign related parties generally are properly treated as base erosion payments. However, the Treasury Department and the IRS agree that it is appropriate to propose a special rule for mark-to-market losses (and gains) on intercompany securities lending transactions. Securities lending transactions have different characteristics from other derivative transactions such that it is appropriate to provide for a different treatment under the QDP rules. Unlike other derivative contracts such as forward contracts, options or notional principal contracts, securities lending transactions require the lender to transfer the securities to the borrower at the inception of the transaction and the borrower is required to return those securities (or identical securities) to the lender when the securities lending transaction is terminated. While other derivative transactions may provide either for physical delivery of a security or for cash settlement, those transactions typically function as a risk-shifting mechanism, whereas securities lending transactions are generally entered into to temporarily acquire or lend the securities. Additionally, a loss recognized on the sale or transfer of property, including securities, that results in a deduction is generally not a base erosion payment. § 1.59A-3(b)(2)(ix). As stated in the preamble to the 2019 final regulations, a mark-to-market loss from a deemed disposition of a third-party security is not a base erosion payment because the loss is not attributable to any payment made to a foreign related party; that loss is instead attributable to a decline in the market value of the security. 84 FR 66968, 66972. If the taxpayer sold the stock or debt to a foreign related party, loss on sale of the stock or debt generally would not be a deduction that would cause the payment to be treated as a base erosion payment under § 1.59A-3(b)(2)(ix).</P>
                <P>If a taxpayer borrows securities from a foreign related party, and the security rises in value during the term of the intercompany securities lending transaction, the taxpayer has an economic loss on its contractual obligation to return the securities. In some cases (for example, if the intercompany securities lending transaction is part of a short sale transaction), the taxpayer also might have a tax loss when it returns the security to the foreign related party. Similarly, if a taxpayer lends securities to a foreign related party and the security falls in value, the taxpayer would have an economic loss on its contractual right to the return of the security. If the taxpayer sold the returned security, the taxpayer would recognize that loss for tax purposes. Marking to market the securities lending transaction in these circumstances accelerates the recognition of the tax loss attributable to the transaction.</P>
                <P>For example, assume that a taxpayer that applies mark-to-market accounting for U.S. Federal income tax purposes borrows stock from a foreign related party pursuant to an intercompany securities lending transaction on September 1, when the value of the stock is $100x. The taxpayer sells the stock for $100x on September 1. The intercompany securities lending transaction is outstanding on December 31, when the value of the stock is $106x, and a $1x dividend is paid on the stock by the issuer after September 1 and prior to December 31. The taxpayer will make a $1x substitute dividend payment to the foreign related party. Under the BEAT Netting Rule, the taxpayer will have a $7x loss on this transaction ($7x) = (($100x−$106x)−$1x). The substitute dividend payment is a $1x base erosion payment on a stand-alone basis that is eligible for the QDP exception assuming all the requirements of section 59A and the regulations are met. The $6x mark-to-market loss on the securities leg of intercompany securities lending transaction is a loss on a derivative that requires the delivery of the stock at the termination of the transaction, and arises because the increase in value of the stock makes it more expensive for the taxpayer to satisfy its obligation to deliver the stock to the foreign related party. If, hypothetically, the intercompany securities lending transaction were not marked to market, and the taxpayer realized a $6x loss on the delivery of the stock to the foreign related party at the termination of the transaction, that $6x loss would not be a base erosion payment.</P>
                <P>
                    Alternatively, if the value of the stock were $94x on December 31, the taxpayer would have a gain of $5x on the transaction $5x = (($100x−$94x)−$1x)) under the BEAT Netting Rule. The taxpayer would have a $6x mark-to-market gain on the securities leg of the intercompany securities lending transaction, which would arise because the decrease in value of the stock makes it less expensive for the taxpayer to satisfy its obligation to deliver the stock 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3089"/>
                    to the foreign related party. If, hypothetically, the intercompany securities lending transactions were not marked to market, and the taxpayer realized a $6x gain on the delivery of the stock to the foreign related party at the termination of the transaction, that $6x gain would not be a base erosion payment. The substitute dividend payment is a $1x base erosion payment that is eligible for the QDP exception assuming all the requirements of section 59A and the regulations are met.
                </P>
                <P>Accordingly, the Treasury Department and the IRS are of the view that the BEAT regulations should be revised to provide that mark-to-market gains and losses on the securities leg of a securities lending transactions with a foreign related party are not treated as a QDP. Consequently, only substitute payments and other payments made to a foreign related party under an intercompany securities lending transaction that are not payments of cash collateral or interest thereon would be QDPs.</P>
                <P>The proposed regulations would provide that mark-to-market gains and losses on the securities leg of an intercompany securities lending transaction are not treated as QDPs and therefore are not netted with QDPs nor required to be included in QDP reporting. Proposed § 1.59A-6(b)(3)(iii)(A). Mark-to-market gains and losses on other derivative transactions (including other derivative transactions that provide for physical delivery) must be included in QDP reporting. The proposed regulations would not alter the rule that substitute payments and other payments to foreign related parties must be reported under §§ 1.59A-6(b)(2)(i) and 1.6038A-2(b)(7)(ix). Those amounts must be taken into account on a consistent basis when determining the amount of the taxpayer's base erosion payment, for example on a cash, accrual or mark-to-market basis, in a manner that does not omit or duplicate any payment. Proposed § 1.59A-3(b)(2)(iv)(B). Furthermore, the proposed rule achieves the compliance objectives of the QDP reporting requirement without imposing additional burden on taxpayers to create new systems to track mark-to-market gains and loss with respect to intercompany securities lending transactions.</P>
                <P>Proposed § 1.59A-3(b)(2)(iv) would provide a conforming amendment to the definition of a base erosion payment in the context of the securities leg of a securities lending transaction to provide that the BEAT Netting Rule under § 1.59A-2(e)(3)(vi) does not apply to net QDPs with mark-to-market gains and losses on securities lending transactions. Consequently, only amounts paid to a foreign related party under a securities lending transaction that do not qualify as a QDP will be taken into account for purposes of the numerator of the base erosion perentage, such as in the case where a taxpayer lends securities and pays or accrues interest to a foreign related party with respect to the cash leg of a securities lending transaction. The BEAT Netting Rule continues to apply to determine the deductions attributable to securities lending transactions for purposes of the denominator of the base erosion percentage. § 1.59A-2(e)(3)(vi).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Rule for Determining the Recipient of a Substitute Payment</HD>
                <P>Comments suggested that it may be challenging for a financial institution to determine whether it has borrowed a security from a foreign related party or an unrelated third-party customer. According to the comments, when a U.S. broker-dealer enters into securities lending transactions with third-party customers, the broker-dealer may borrow the securities required to execute the trade from a pool of available securities owned by other customers, some of which are U.S. customers, and some of which are foreign customers who have accounts with a foreign affiliate of the U.S. broker-dealer. If the borrowed security is owned by a foreign customer, the comments indicated that the U.S. broker-dealer may be treated as having entered into a securities borrowing transaction with its foreign affiliate who has the relationship with the foreign customer, who in turn borrowed the security from its foreign customer. However, the U.S. broker-dealer may not determine from which specific customer it has borrowed a security or whether it has entered into an intercompany securities borrowing transaction with its foreign affiliate. The U.S. broker-dealer may determine its counterparty only when a substitute dividend is required to be paid (for example, on the dividend record date), and only for purposes of determining the recipient of the substitute payment for U.S. Federal income or withholding tax purposes.</P>
                <P>To address this concern, the proposed regulations would provide that a taxpayer may report the amount actually paid to foreign related parties for QDP reporting purposes if the taxpayer can associate the substitute payment on securities borrowed and other payments made pursuant to a securities loan (such as borrow fees) with a specific recipient. The “lottery” method of § 1.6045-2(f)(2)(ii) is not applicable for this purpose. In response to the challenges that may exist in determining whether the recipient of a substitute payment and other payments is a foreign related party of the taxpayer, proposed § 1.59A-6(b)(3)(iv) would provide an alternative rule that treats the substitute payments that a taxpayer pays with respect to borrowed securities as having been paid first to foreign related parties (but not in excess of the amount of the payments received by the foreign related parties).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Applicability Date</HD>
                <P>
                    Proposed §§ 1.59A-3(b)(2)(iv) (application of BEAT netting rule to securities lending transactions) and 1.59A-6(b)(3)(iii) and (iv) (QDP rules relating to securities lending transactions) would apply to taxable years beginning on or after the date that final regulations are filed with the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Proposed § 1.6038A-2(b)(7)(ix) (rules relating to QDP reporting) would apply to payments made in taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2027.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Analysis</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Regulatory Planning and Review—Economic Analysis</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to the Memorandum of Agreement, Review of Treasury Regulations under Executive Order 12866 (June 9, 2023), tax regulatory actions issued by the IRS are not subject to the requirements of section 6 of Executive Order 12866, as amended. Therefore, a regulatory impact assessment is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">II. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>
                    These proposed regulations do not impose any additional information collection requirements in the form of reporting, recordkeeping requirements, or third-party disclosure statements. However, a taxpayer will continue to be required to report on Form 8991, 
                    <E T="03">Tax on Base Erosion Payments of Taxpayers with Substantial Gross Receipts,</E>
                     the aggregate amount of QDPs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For purposes of the Paperwork Reduction Act, the reporting burden associated with the collections of information with respect to section 59A will be reflected in the Paperwork Reduction Act Submission associated with Form 8991 (OMB control number 1545-0123). The overall burden estimates associated with the OMB control number 1545-0123 is an aggregate number related to the entire package of forms associated with the applicable OMB control number and will include, but not isolate, the estimated burden of the tax forms that 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3090"/>
                    will be created or revised as a result of these proposed regulations. These numbers are therefore not specific to any burden imposed by these proposed regulations. The burdens have been reported for other income tax regulations that rely on the same information collections and the Treasury Department and the IRS urge readers to recognize that these numbers are duplicates and to guard against overcounting the burdens imposed by tax provisions before Tax Cuts and Jobs Act, Public Law 115-97 (2017) (the “Act”). No burden estimates specific to the forms affected by the proposed regulations are currently available. For the OMB control number discussed in this paragraph, the Treasury Department and the IRS estimate PRA burdens on a taxpayer-type-basis rather than a provision-specific basis. Those estimates capture both changes made by the Act and those that arise out of discretionary authority exercised in the proposed regulations (when final) and other regulations that affect the compliance burden for that form.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Treasury Department and the IRS request comments on all aspects of information collection burdens related to the proposed regulations, including estimates for how much time it would take to comply with the paperwork burdens described above for each relevant form and ways for the IRS to minimize paperwork burden. In addition, when available, drafts of IRS forms are posted at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.irs.govdraft-tax-forms,</E>
                     and comments may be submitted at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.irs.gov/forms-pubs/comment-on-tax-forms-and-publications</E>
                    . Final IRS forms are available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.irs.gov/forms-instructions</E>
                    . Forms will not be finalized until after they have been approved by OMB under the PRA.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">III. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>
                    Generally, the proposed regulations affect only aggregate groups of corporations with average annual gross receipts of at least $500 million and that make payments to foreign related parties. Generally, only large businesses have both substantial gross receipts and make payments to foreign related parties. In accordance with the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) the Secretary hereby certifies that these proposed regulations will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">IV. Section 7805(f)</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to section 7805(f) of the Code, these proposed regulations will be submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on their impact on small business.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">V. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits and take certain other actions before issuing a final rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in expenditures in any one year by a State, local, or Tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. The proposed regulations do not include any Federal mandate that may result in expenditures by State, local, or Tribal governments, or by the private sector in excess of that threshold.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">VI. Executive Order 13132: Federalism</HD>
                <P>Executive Order 13132 (entitled “Federalism”) prohibits an agency from publishing any rule that has federalism implications if the rule either imposes substantial, direct compliance costs on State and local governments, and is not required by statute, or preempts State law, unless the agency meets the consultation and funding requirements of section 6 of the Executive order. The proposed regulations do not have federalism implications and do not impose substantial direct compliance costs on State and local governments or preempt State law within the meaning of the Executive order.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments and Request for Public Hearing</HD>
                <P>
                    Before these proposed amendments to the final regulations are adopted as final regulations, consideration will be given to comments that are submitted timely to the IRS as prescribed in this preamble under the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     heading. Any comments submitted will be made available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or upon request. A public hearing will be scheduled if requested in writing by any person who timely submits written comments. Requests for a public hearing are also encouraged to be made electronically. If a public hearing is scheduled, notice of the date and time for the public hearing will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Drafting Information</HD>
                <P>The principal authors of the proposed regulations are D. Peter Merkel and Sheila Ramaswamy of the Office of Associate Chief Counsel (International). However, other personnel from the Treasury Department and the IRS participated in their development.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 26 CFR Part 1</HD>
                    <P>Income taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Amendments to the Regulations</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, the Treasury Department and IRS propose to amend 26 CFR part 1 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1—INCOME TAXES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>
                    <E T="04">Paragraph 1.</E>
                     The authority citation for part 1 continues to read in part as follows:
                </AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *</P>
                </AUTH>
                <STARS/>
                <AMDPAR>
                    <E T="04">Par. 2.</E>
                     Section 1.59A-2 is amended by removing the language “§ 1.59A-3(b)(2)(iii)” from the last sentence of paragraph (e)(3)(vi) and adding the language “§ 1.59A-3(b)(2)(iv)” in its place.
                </AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>
                    <E T="04">Par. 3.</E>
                     Section 1.59A-3 is amended by revising paragraph (b)(2)(iv) to read as follows:
                </AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 1.59A-3 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Base erosion payments and base erosion tax benefits.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(b) * * *</P>
                    <P>(2) * * *</P>
                    <P>
                        (iv) 
                        <E T="03">Amounts paid or accrued with respect to mark-to-market position</E>
                        —(A) 
                        <E T="03">In general.</E>
                         For any transaction with respect to which the taxpayer applies the mark-to-market method of accounting for U.S. Federal income tax purposes, the rules set forth in § 1.59A-2(e)(3)(vi) apply to determine the amount of the base erosion payment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (B) 
                        <E T="03">Application of BEAT netting rule to securities lending transactions.</E>
                         Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(A) of this section, mark-to-market gains and losses from a securities lending transaction described in §§ 1.861-2(a)(7) and 1.861-3(a)(6) are not taken into account when applying § 1.59A-2(e)(3)(vi) for purposes of determining the amount of a taxpayer's base erosion payment. When determining the amount of the taxpayer's base erosion payment, substitute payments and other amounts that relate to the securities lending transaction must be taken into account on a consistent basis that does not result in the duplication or omission of these amounts. For purposes of the immediately preceding sentence, the term “other amounts that relate to the securities lending transaction” does not include delivery of the securities to, or receipt of securities from, the lender. This paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(B) applies to a taxpayer that is either the borrower or lender with respect to the securities lending transaction.
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3091"/>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>
                    <E T="04">Par. 4.</E>
                     Section 1.59A-6 is amended by adding paragraphs (b)(3)(iii) and (iv) to read as follows:
                </AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 1.59A-6 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Qualified derivative payment.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(b) * * *</P>
                    <P>(3) * * *</P>
                    <P>
                        (iii) 
                        <E T="03">Special rule for mark-to-market gains and losses on the securities leg of a securities lending transaction</E>
                        —(A) 
                        <E T="03">In general.</E>
                         The amount of any qualified derivative payment with respect to the securities leg component of a securities lending transaction as defined in §§ 1.861-2(a)(7) and 1.861-3(a)(6) that is excluded from the denominator of the base erosion percentage is determined under § 1.59A-3(b)(2)(iv)(B). Gains and losses on a security leg of a securities lending transaction are not included in determining the amount of the qualified derivative payment with respect to that security. The gain or loss with respect to the security leg for purposes of determining the amount of the qualified derivative payment is determined by combining only other items of income, gain, loss, or deduction during the taxable year, such as substitute payments and borrow fees, that arise from a payment or accrual to a foreign related party.
                    </P>
                    <P>(B) The following examples illustrate the application of this paragraph (b)(3)(iii).</P>
                    <P>
                        (
                        <E T="03">1</E>
                        ) 
                        <E T="03">Example 1: Securities loan—(i) Facts.</E>
                         Foreign Parent (FP) is a foreign corporation that owns all of the stock of domestic corporation (DC). FP is a foreign related party of DC under § 1.59A-1(b)(12). DC is a registered securities dealer. On September 1 of year 1, DC enters into a securities lending transaction with FP in which it borrows stock from FP. DC provides cash collateral for the loan and receives interest on that collateral from FP. On September 1, year 1, the stock has a value of $100x. On November 1, year 1, a dividend of $1x is paid by the issuer on the stock. DC pays a substitute dividend of $1x to FP on November 1, year 1 under the terms of the security loan. There are no other payments made or received in year 1. On December 31, year 1, the stock has a value of $106x. DC is required to mark-to-market the securities leg of securities lending transaction for U.S. Federal income tax purposes. DC is a calendar year taxpayer.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (
                        <E T="03">ii</E>
                        ) 
                        <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                         DC has a deduction of $1x as a result of the substitute dividend it pays to FP. Assuming that the securities lending transaction otherwise meets the requirements of this section (including reporting the information required by § 1.6038A-2(b)(7)(ix)), the amount of DC's qualified derivative payment with respect to the securities lending transaction is $1x. Payments with respect to the cash collateral are not treated as part of the securities lending transaction. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         paragraph (d)(2)(iii)(B) of this section. With respect to the securities leg of the securities lending transaction, DC has a mark-to-market loss of ($6x). Under paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(A) of this section, the amount of this mark-to-market loss is not included when determining the amount of the qualified derivative payment. Under § 1.59A-3(b)(2)(iv)(B), DC's ($6x) mark-to-market loss on the securities leg of the securities lending transaction also is not taken into account in determining the base erosion tax benefit amount for purposes of the numerator of the base erosion percentage. The ($6x) loss is taken into account in the denominator of the base erosion percentage, while the $1x substitute dividend payment is not taken into account for that purpose because it is a qualified derivative payment. See § 1.59A-2(e)(3)(vi) and (e)(3)(ii)(C).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (
                        <E T="03">2</E>
                        ) 
                        <E T="03">Example 2: Securities loan.</E>
                         The facts are the same as in paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(B)(
                        <E T="03">1</E>
                        ) of this section (
                        <E T="03">Example 1)</E>
                         except that on December 31, year 1, the stock has a value of $94x. With respect to the securities leg of the securities lending transaction, DC has a mark-to-market gain of $6x. Under paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(A) of this section, the amount of this mark-to-market gain is not included when determining the amount of the qualified derivative payment. DC has a deduction of $1x as a result of the substitute dividend payment it makes to FP. Assuming that the securities lending transaction otherwise meets the requirements of this section (including reporting the information required by § 1.6038A-2(b)(7)(ix)), the amount of DC's qualified derivative payment with respect to the securities lending transaction is $1x. Neither the $6x gain nor the $1x substitute dividend payment, which is a qualified derivative payment, are taken into account in the denominator of the base erosion percentage.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (iv) 
                        <E T="03">Rule for determining the amount of substitute payments and other payments paid to foreign related parties with respect to a securities lending transaction</E>
                        —(A) 
                        <E T="03">In general.</E>
                         When a taxpayer makes a substitute payment or other payment with respect to a securities lending transaction, the taxpayer must determine whether the substitute payment or other payment paid with respect to the securities lending transaction is paid to a foreign related party. The amount of substitute payments or other payments paid by the taxpayer to a foreign related party is determined under paragraph (b)(3)(iv)(B) or (C) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (B) 
                        <E T="03">Specific identification method.</E>
                         The taxpayer may determine the amount of substitute payments or other payments that it has paid to a foreign related party by using the amount actually paid by the taxpayer to the foreign related party if the taxpayer can specifically identify each recipient of the substitute payment or other payment.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (C) 
                        <E T="03">Alternative method.</E>
                         If the taxpayer has paid substitute payments or other payments but cannot determine the recipients of those payments, the taxpayer must use the methodology provided in this paragraph (b)(3)(iv)(C) to determine whether the recipient is a foreign related party.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (
                        <E T="03">1</E>
                        ) 
                        <E T="03">Step 1: Determining the total amount of substitute payments and other payments received by foreign related parties.</E>
                         The taxpayer must determine the total amount of substitute payments and other payments described in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section received by all foreign related parties of the taxpayer during the taxable year.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (
                        <E T="03">2</E>
                        ) 
                        <E T="03">Step 2: Determining the total amount of substitute payments and other payments paid by taxpayer.</E>
                         The taxpayer must determine the total amount of substitute payments and other payments described in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section paid by the taxpayer during the taxable year.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (
                        <E T="03">3</E>
                        ) 
                        <E T="03">Step 3: Determining the amount of substitute payments and other payments paid by taxpayer to foreign related parties.</E>
                         The amount of substitute payments and other payments described in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section paid by the taxpayer is treated as being paid first to foreign related parties of the taxpayer up to the total amount of substitute payments and other payments received by foreign related parties. Any amount of substitute payments and other payments paid by the taxpayer that exceeds the amount of substitute payments and other payments received by foreign related parties is treated as paid to unrelated parties for purposes of this paragraph (b)(3)(iv)(C)(
                        <E T="03">3</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>
                    <E T="04">Par. 5.</E>
                     Section 1.59A-10 is amended by revising paragraph (a) and adding paragraph (c) to read as follows:
                </AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 1.59A-10 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Applicability date.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">General applicability date.</E>
                         Sections 1.59A-1 through 1.59A-9, other than the provisions described in the first sentence of paragraph (b) of this section or in paragraph (c) of this section, apply to taxable years ending on or after December 17, 2018. However, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3092"/>
                        taxpayers may apply these regulations in their entirety for taxable years beginning after December 31, 2017, and ending before December 17, 2018. In lieu of applying the regulations referred to in the first sentence of this paragraph (a), taxpayers may apply the provisions matching §§ 1.59A-1 through 1.59A-9 from the Internal Revenue Bulletin (IRB) 2019-02 (
                        <E T="03">https://www.irs.gov/irb/2019-02_IRB</E>
                        ) in their entirety for all taxable years beginning after December 31, 2017, and ending on or before December 6, 2019.
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Additional applicability dates.</E>
                         Sections 1.59A-3(b)(2)(iv) and 1.59A-6(b)(3) (iii) through (iv) apply to taxable years beginning on or after January 10, 2025.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>
                    <E T="04">Par. 6.</E>
                     Section 1.6038A-2 is amended by revising the third sentence of paragraph (g) to read as follows:
                </AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 1.6038A-2 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Requirement of return.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(g) * * * Paragraph (b)(7)(ix) of this section applies to payments made in taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2027. * * *</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Douglas W. O'Donnell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Commissioner.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00186 Filed 1-10-25; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4830-01-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>26 CFR Part 1</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[REG-100669-24]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1545-BR08</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Automatic Enrollment Requirements Under Section 414A</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking and notice of public hearing.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This document sets forth proposed regulations that would provide guidance with respect to the automatic enrollment requirements that apply to certain retirement plans. The proposed regulations reflect statutory changes made by the SECURE 2.0 Act of 2022 requiring that certain cash or deferred arrangements and salary reduction agreements be eligible automatic contribution arrangements that satisfy additional specified requirements. The proposed regulations would affect participants in, beneficiaries of, employers maintaining, and administrators of certain retirement plans that include cash or deferred arrangements or annuity contracts purchased under salary reduction agreements and other retirement plans that include eligible automatic contribution arrangements. This document also provides notice of a public hearing.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written or electronic comments must be received by March 17, 2025. A public hearing on this proposed regulation has been scheduled for April 8, 2025, at 10 a.m. ET. Requests to speak and outlines of topics to be discussed at the public hearing must be received by March 17, 2025. If no outlines are received by March 17, 2025, the public hearing will be cancelled.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Commenters are strongly encouraged to submit public comments electronically. Submit electronic submissions via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov</E>
                         (indicate IRS and REG-100669-24) by following the online instructions for submitting comments. Requests for a public hearing must be submitted as prescribed in the “Comments and Public Hearing” section. Once submitted to the Federal eRulemaking Portal, comments cannot be edited or withdrawn. The Department of the Treasury (Treasury Department) and the IRS will publish for public availability any comment submitted electronically or on paper to its public docket on 
                        <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Send paper submissions to: CC:PA:01:PR (REG-100669-24), Room 5203, Internal Revenue Service, P.O. Box 7604, Ben Franklin Station, Washington, DC 20044.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Concerning the proposed regulations, call Christina M. Cerasale at (202) 317-4102 or Kara M. Soderstrom at (202) 317-6799; concerning submission of comments, the hearing, and the access code to attend the hearing by telephone, call the Publications and Regulations Section at (202) 317-6901 (not toll-free numbers) or email 
                        <E T="03">publichearings@irs.gov</E>
                         (preferred).
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority</HD>
                <P>These proposed regulations are promulgated under section 7805(a) of the Internal Revenue Code (Code), which provides that “the Secretary shall prescribe all needful rules and regulations for the enforcement of [the Code], including all rules and regulations as may be necessary by reason of any alteration of law in relation to internal revenue.” In addition, section 341 of the SECURE 2.0 Act of 2022 (SECURE 2.0 Act), enacted on December 29, 2022, as Division T of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2023, Public Law 117-328, 136 Stat. 4459 (2022), instructs the Secretaries of the Treasury and Labor (or their delegates) to adopt regulations related to the consolidation of notices required for defined contribution plans under the Code and the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, Public Law 93-406, 88 Stat. 829, as amended (ERISA).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>This notice of proposed rulemaking sets forth a proposed regulation under section 414A of the Code that would be added to the Income Tax Regulations (26 CFR part 1). Section 414A, which was added to the Code by section 101 of the SECURE 2.0 Act, provides that certain retirement plans must automatically enroll employees.</P>
                <P>In addition to adding a new regulation under section 414A of the Code, this notice of proposed rulemaking sets forth proposed amendments to the regulations under section 414(w). These amendments to § 1.414(w)-1 would reflect the application of section 414A and the exception to the notice requirements for unenrolled participants set forth in section 414(bb), as added to the Code by section 320 of the SECURE 2.0 Act. The proposed amendments to § 1.414(w)-1 also would address section 402A(e)(5)(C) of the Code, which was added to the Code by section 127 of the SECURE 2.0 Act, as well as section 341 of the SECURE 2.0 Act. Section 402A(e)(5)(C) of the Code and section 341 of the SECURE 2.0 Act permit the consolidation of certain notices required under the Code and ERISA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. In General</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Cash or Deferred Arrangements and Salary Reduction Agreements</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 401(k)(1) provides that a profit-sharing, stock bonus, pre-ERISA money purchase, or rural cooperative plan will not fail to qualify under section 401(a) merely because it includes a cash or deferred arrangement (CODA) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     that is a qualified CODA. Under section 401(k)(2), a CODA is a qualified CODA only if it satisfies certain requirements. These requirements include that elective contributions under the CODA are subject to the section 401(k)(2)(B) 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3093"/>
                    restriction on when distributions may be made, and that the arrangement satisfies the actual deferral percentage (ADP) test in section 401(k)(3)(A)(ii).
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Under § 1.401(k)-1(a)(2)(i), a CODA generally is an arrangement providing for an election by an employee to have the employer provide either contributions to a plan described in section 401(a) or payments directly in cash.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The ADP test in section 401(k)(3)(A)(ii) compares the average deferral percentage for highly compensated employees with the average deferral percentage for non-highly compensated employees. As an alternative to satisfying the annual ADP test, a plan may satisfy the provisions of section 401(k)(11), (12), (13), or (16).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Section 403(b)(1) of the Code provides for an exclusion from gross income of certain contributions that are used to purchase an annuity contract, including contributions that are made under a salary reduction agreement. Although there is no direct definition of salary reduction agreement in section 403(b), several provisions of the Code set forth rules that apply to the use of a salary reduction agreement to purchase an annuity contract described in section 403(b). For example, section 403(b)(11) provides distribution restrictions that apply to “contributions made pursuant to a salary reduction agreement.”</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Automatic Enrollment</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 902 of the Pension Protection Act of 2006, Public Law 109-280, 120 Stat. 780 (PPA `06), added sections 401(k)(13) and 414(w) to the Code to facilitate automatic contribution arrangements (also referred to as automatic enrollment) in qualified CODAs under section 401(k). Section 414(w) also applies to automatic contribution arrangements under section 403(b) plans; section 457(b) plans maintained by governmental employers described in section 457(e)(1)(A); simplified employee pensions, the terms of which provide for a salary reduction arrangement described in section 408(k)(6); and SIMPLE individual retirement accounts described in section 408(p). An automatic contribution arrangement is a CODA or other similar arrangement providing for elections on the part of eligible employees that includes a default election under which an eligible employee is treated as having elected to have a specified contribution made on the employee's behalf under the plan while permitting the employee to make an affirmative election to have contributions made in a different amount on the employee's behalf (including no contributions).
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Section 902 of PPA '06 also added a new section 514(e) to ERISA, which broadly provides that, notwithstanding any other provision of section 514, title I of ERISA supersedes State laws that would directly or indirectly prohibit or restrict the inclusion of an automatic contribution arrangement in a plan.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Qualified Automatic Contribution Arrangements Under Section 401(k)(13)</HD>
                <P>Section 401(k)(13) provides a design-based safe harbor for a CODA that provides for automatic enrollment at a specified level and meets certain employer contribution, notice, and other requirements. A CODA that satisfies these requirements, referred to as a qualified automatic contribution arrangement (QACA), is treated as satisfying the ADP test.</P>
                <P>Section 401(k)(13)(C)(ii) provides that the default election in a QACA ceases to apply to any eligible employee if the employee makes an affirmative election to not have any elective contributions made on the employee's behalf or to have elective contributions made in a specified amount or percentage of compensation on the employee's behalf. Reflecting that provision, § 1.401(k)-3(j)(1)(ii) provides that the default election ceases to apply with respect to an eligible employee for periods of time with respect to which the employee has an affirmative election that is currently in effect to have elective contributions made in a different amount on the employee's behalf (in a specified amount or percentage of compensation) or not have any elective contributions made on the employee's behalf.</P>
                <P>Section 401(k)(13)(C)(iii) sets forth a series of minimum default contribution percentages (based on the plan year that the arrangement first applies to an employee) that an automatic contribution arrangement must satisfy to be a QACA and requires that the default contribution percentages apply uniformly. Under § 1.401(k)-3(j)(2)(iii), a plan does not fail to satisfy this uniform percentage requirement merely because: (1) the percentage varies based on the number of years or portions of years an eligible employee has participated in the automatic contribution arrangement intended to be a QACA; (2) the rate of elective contributions under a cash or deferred election that is in effect immediately prior to the effective date of the default percentage under the QACA is not reduced; (3) the rate of elective contributions is limited so as not to exceed the limits of sections 401(a)(17), 402(g) (determined with or without catch-up contributions), and 415; or (4) the default election is not applied during the period an employee is not permitted to make elective contributions pursuant to section 414(u)(12)(B)(ii).</P>
                <P>Section 401(k)(13)(C)(iv) provides an exception from the application of the default election under a QACA for eligible employees who were eligible to participate in the CODA (or a predecessor CODA) immediately before the effective date of the QACA and who have an election in effect on that effective date. Reflecting that provision, § 1.401(k)-3(j)(1)(iii) provides that an automatic contribution arrangement does not fail to be a QACA merely because the default election is not applied to an employee who was eligible under the CODA (or a predecessor arrangement) immediately prior to the effective date of the QACA and on that effective date had an affirmative election in effect (that remains in effect) to have elective contributions made on the employee's behalf (in a specified amount or percentage of compensation) or not have elective contributions made on the employee's behalf.</P>
                <P>Section 1.401(k)-3(j)(2)(iv) provides that minimum percentages in a QACA are determined without regard to whether an employee has continued to be eligible to make contributions under the plan. However, § 1.401(k)-3(j)(2)(iv) provides that a plan is permitted to treat an employee who for an entire plan year did not have contributions made pursuant to a default election under a QACA as if the employee also had not had such contributions for any prior plan year.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Eligible Automatic Contribution Arrangements Under Section 414(w)</HD>
                <P>Section 414(w) facilitates automatic enrollment by providing relief from the distribution restrictions under section 401(k)(2)(B), 403(b)(7), 403(b)(11), or 457(d)(1)(A) in the case of an eligible automatic contribution arrangement (EACA). Under this relief, a plan may permit an employee who was automatically enrolled under an EACA to take a distribution within a limited period after the initial default elective contribution with respect to the employee was made.</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 414(w)(1) and (2), an applicable employer plan 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     that contains an EACA is permitted to allow employees to elect to receive a distribution, called a permissive withdrawal, equal to the amount of default elective contributions (and attributable earnings) made with respect to the employee beginning with the first payroll period to which the EACA 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3094"/>
                    applies to the employee and ending with the effective date of the election. The election must be made within 90 days after the date of the first default elective contribution with respect to the employee under the arrangement.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         Section 414(w)(5) defines an applicable employer plan for purposes of section 414(w) as a trust described in section 401(a) that is exempt from tax under section 501(a), a plan described in section 403(b), a section 457(b) plan that is maintained by a governmental employer described in section 457(e)(1)(A), a simplified employee pension the terms of which provide for a salary reduction arrangement described in section 408(k)(6), or a SIMPLE individual retirement account described in section 408(p).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Section 414(w)(1)(A) and (B) provides that the amount of the distribution is includible in the gross income of the employee for the taxable year in which the distribution is made but is not subject to the additional income tax on early distributions under section 72(t).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Section 414(w)(3) defines an EACA as an arrangement under which: (1) a participant may elect to have the employer make payments as contributions under the plan on behalf of the participant, or to the participant directly in cash; (2) the participant is treated as having elected to have the employer make such contributions in an amount equal to a uniform percentage of compensation provided under the plan until the participant specifically elects not to have such contributions made (or specifically elects to have such contributions made at a different percentage); and (3) participants are provided a notice that satisfies the requirements of section 414(w)(4).</P>
                <P>Section 414(w)(4) provides that the administrator of a plan that includes an EACA must, within a reasonable period before each plan year, provide each employee to whom the arrangement applies for the plan year written notice of the employee's rights and obligations under the arrangement that is sufficiently accurate and comprehensive to apprise the employee of the employee's rights and obligations. Section 414(w)(4)(A)(ii) requires that the notice be written in a manner calculated to be understood by the average employee to whom the arrangement applies. Section 414(w)(4)(B) provides that the notice must explain: (1) the employee's rights under the arrangement to elect not to have elective contributions made on the employee's behalf (or to elect to have contributions made at a different percentage), and (2) how contributions made under the arrangement will be invested in the absence of any investment decision by the employee. In addition, the employee must be given a reasonable period of time after receipt of the notice and before the first elective contribution is made to make an election described in the notice.</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS issued a regulation under section 414(w) on February 24, 2009 (TD 9447, 74 FR 8200). Section 1.414(w)-1(b)(2) includes rules that address the uniform percentage requirement of section 414(w)(3)(B), including rules that incorporate the exceptions to the uniform percentage requirement for a default elective contribution for a QACA set forth in § 1.401(k)-3(j)(2)(iii).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. New Automatic Enrollment Requirements and Other Changes Regarding EACAs Under the SECURE 2.0 Act</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Section 101 of the SECURE 2.0 Act</HD>
                <P>Section 101 of the SECURE 2.0 Act adds section 414A to the Code. Under section 101(c) of the SECURE 2.0 Act, the amendments made by section 101 apply to plan years beginning after December 31, 2024.</P>
                <P>Section 414A(a)(1) of the Code generally provides that a CODA will not be treated as a qualified CODA described in section 401(k) unless the CODA satisfies the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A(b). Similarly, section 414A(a)(2) generally provides that an annuity contract otherwise described in section 403(b) that is purchased under a salary reduction agreement will not be treated as described in section 403(b) unless the salary reduction agreement satisfies the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A(b).</P>
                <P>
                    Under section 414A(b)(1), a CODA or salary reduction agreement satisfies the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A(b) if the CODA or salary reduction agreement is an EACA (as defined in section 414(w)(3)) that satisfies the additional requirements of section 414A(b)(2) through (4). Section 414A(b)(2) requires the EACA to allow employees to make permissible withdrawals (as defined in section 414(w)(2)). Under section 414A(b)(3)(A)(i), the minimum initial default contribution percentage under the EACA must be at least 3 percent (but not more than 10 percent), and under section 414A(b)(3)(A)(ii), the default contribution percentage must increase by one percentage point for each plan year beginning after each completed year of participation under the EACA, up to a maximum default contribution percentage of at least 10 percent (but not more than 15 percent).
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Section 414A(b)(4) provides that amounts contributed pursuant to the EACA for which no investment is elected by a participant must be invested in accordance with the requirements of 29 CFR 2550.404c-5 
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (or any successor regulations).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         Section 414A(b)(3)(B) provides a reduced maximum default contribution percentage of 10 percent for certain plans with respect to certain plan years.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         The requirements of 29 CFR 2550.404c-5 relate to investments in qualified default investment alternatives.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Section 414A(c) sets forth certain exceptions to the requirements of section 414A(a). In general, section 414A(a) does not apply to any: (1) SIMPLE 401(k) plan described in section 401(k)(11); (2) qualified CODA established before December 29, 2022 (the date of enactment of the SECURE 2.0 Act); (3) section 403(b) plan established before December 29, 2022; (4) governmental plan described in section 414(d); (5) church plan described in section 414(e); (6) plan maintained by a new business as described in section 414A(c)(4)(A); or (7) plan maintained by a small business as described in section 414A(c)(4)(B).</P>
                <P>Certain of the exceptions in section 414A(c) include special rules for plans maintained by more than one employer. Section 414A(c)(2)(B) provides rules that apply in the case of an employer that, after December 29, 2022, adopts a plan maintained by more than one employer. Under that provision, the exception to section 414A(a) for a qualified CODA or 403(b) plan established before December 29, 2022, will not apply to that adopting employer, and the rules of section 414A(a) will apply with respect to that employer as if the plan were a single plan. In addition, under section 414A(c)(4)(C), the new business and small business exceptions to section 414A(a) are applied separately to each participating employer in a plan maintained by more than one employer, and all participating employers to which section 414A(a) applies (after the application of the new business exception in section 414A(c)(4)(A) and the small business exception in section 414A(c)(4)(B)) are treated as maintaining a separate plan for purposes of section 414A.</P>
                <P>On December 20, 2023, the Treasury Department and the IRS released Notice 2024-2, 2024-2 IRB 316, which provides initial guidance on certain provisions of the SECURE 2.0 Act. Section II.A of Notice 2024-2 provides initial guidance in the form of questions and answers regarding certain issues related to section 414A of the Code that primarily addresses the scope of the exceptions under section 414A(c)(2) to the requirements of section 414A.</P>
                <P>
                    Q&amp;A A-1 of Notice 2024-2 provides that, for purposes of section 414A(c)(2)(A)(i) (the exception to section 414A(a) for a qualified CODA established before December 29, 2022), a qualified CODA is established on the date plan terms providing for the CODA are adopted initially, even if the plan terms providing for the CODA are effective after the adoption date.
                    <PRTPAGE P="3095"/>
                </P>
                <P>Q&amp;A A-2 of Notice 2024-2 provides rules that apply in the case of a merger of a plan maintained by a single employer that includes a qualified CODA established before December 29, 2022 (a pre-enactment qualified CODA), with another plan that includes a pre-enactment qualified CODA. Under Q&amp;A A-2, the treatment of the qualified CODA included in the ongoing plan as a pre-enactment qualified CODA is unaffected by the merger (without regard to whether the ongoing plan is maintained by a single employer or more than one employer).</P>
                <P>Q&amp;A A-3 of Notice 2024-2 provides that if a plan that includes a qualified CODA that was not established before December 29, 2022, is merged with a plan that includes a pre-enactment qualified CODA, then, after the merger, the qualified CODA included in the ongoing plan generally will not be treated as a pre-enactment qualified CODA. However, if, in connection with a disposition, acquisition, or other transaction described in section 410(b)(6)(C), a plan maintained by a single employer that includes a qualified CODA that was not established before December 29, 2022, is merged with another plan maintained by a single employer that includes a pre-enactment qualified CODA, and the plan that includes the pre-enactment qualified CODA is designated as the ongoing plan, then the qualified CODA included in the ongoing plan continues to be treated as a pre-enactment qualified CODA after the merger, provided that the merger occurs by the end of the section 410(b)(6)(C) transition period.</P>
                <P>Q&amp;A A-3 also provides that if a plan maintained by a single employer includes a qualified CODA that was not established before December 29, 2022, and is merged into a plan maintained by more than one employer that includes a pre-enactment qualified CODA, then the qualified CODA included in the ongoing plan would not be treated as a pre-enactment qualified CODA with respect to that employer. However, in that case, the merger would not affect whether the qualified CODA is treated as a pre-enactment qualified CODA with respect to other employers that participate in the ongoing plan.</P>
                <P>Q&amp;A A-4 of Notice 2024-2 provides that if a plan that includes a qualified CODA is spun off from a plan that includes a pre-enactment qualified CODA, the qualified CODA included in the new spun-off plan generally is also treated as being a pre-enactment qualified CODA. However, if the plan from which the new plan was spun off was a plan maintained by more than one employer that was established before December 29, 2022, then the qualified CODA included in the spun-off plan is treated as a pre-enactment qualified CODA only if the qualified CODA in the plan maintained by more than one employer was treated as a pre-enactment qualified CODA with respect to the employer sponsoring the spun-off plan.</P>
                <P>Q&amp;A A-5 of Notice 2024-2 provides that, in general, the rules of section 414A that apply to qualified CODAs also apply to section 403(b) plans. However, the exception to section 414A(a) for a section 403(b) plan established before December 29, 2022, applies without regard to the date of adoption of plan terms that provide for salary reduction agreements.</P>
                <P>Q&amp;A A-6 of Notice 2024-2 explains that, unless an exception set forth in section 414A(c) applies (for example, the exception for a new or small business), section 414A(a) applies to a starter 401(k) deferral-only arrangement described in section 401(k)(16)(B), or to a safe harbor deferral-only plan described in section 403(b)(16)(B), for plan years beginning after December 31, 2024.</P>
                <P>
                    The Treasury Department and the IRS received 12 written comments in response to Notice 2024-2 that address the guidance provided in Section II.A of the notice. The Treasury Department and the IRS reviewed all 12 comments, and this preamble addresses those that are relevant and within scope for this notice of proposed rulemaking. All written comments responding to Notice 2024-2 are available for public inspection and copying at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     and certain of those comments that address Section II.A of Notice 2024-2 are discussed in the Explanation of Provisions portion of this preamble.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. SECURE 2.0 Act Changes Regarding EACA Notices</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Notice Requirements for Unenrolled Participants</HD>
                <P>Section 320(b) of the SECURE 2.0 Act adds section 414(bb) to the Code, effective for plan years beginning after December 31, 2022. Section 414(bb)(1) provides that, with respect to any defined contribution plan, no disclosure, notice, or other plan document is required to be furnished under the Code to any unenrolled participant if the unenrolled participant is furnished: (1) an annual reminder notice (as defined in section 414(bb)(3)) of the participant's eligibility to participate in the plan and any applicable election deadlines under the plan, and (2) any document requested by the participant that the participant would be entitled to receive notwithstanding section 414(bb).</P>
                <P>Section 414(bb)(2) defines an unenrolled participant as an employee who: (1) is eligible to participate in a defined contribution plan, (2) has been furnished the summary plan description pursuant to section 104(b) of ERISA for the plan and any other notices related to eligibility under the plan and required to be furnished under the Code or ERISA in connection with the participant's initial eligibility to participate in the plan, (3) is not participating in the defined contribution plan, and (4) satisfies any other criteria as the Secretary of the Treasury may determine appropriate, as prescribed in guidance issued in consultation with the Secretary of Labor. The last sentence of section 414(bb)(2) of the Code provides that any eligibility to participate in the plan following any period for which the employee was not eligible to participate is to be treated as initial eligibility.</P>
                <P>Section 414(bb)(3) provides that the annual reminder notice required under section 414(bb)(1) is the notice described in section 111(c) of ERISA (as added by section 320(a) of the SECURE 2.0 Act).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Combining EACA Notices With Other Notices</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 127 of the SECURE 2.0 Act provides for the creation of pension-linked emergency savings accounts (PLESAs) effective for plan years beginning after December 31, 2023. Among other changes, section 127 of the SECURE 2.0 Act redesignates section 402A(e) of the Code as section 402A(f) and adds a new section 402A(e) regarding PLESAs.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Section 402A(e)(5)(A) requires the plan administrator of a plan with a PLESA feature to furnish initial and annual notices to participants describing certain information regarding the PLESA that meet the requirements of section 402A(e)(5)(B). Section 402A(e)(5)(C) permits the initial and annual notices required under section 402A(e)(5)(A) to be included with any other notice under ERISA, including under section 404(c)(5)(B) or 514(e)(3) of ERISA, or under section 401(k)(13)(E) or 414(w)(4) of the Code, if the other notice 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3096"/>
                    is provided to the participant at the time required for that notice.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         On January 12, 2024, the Treasury Department and the IRS released Notice 2024-22, 2024-6 IRB 662, which provides initial guidance regarding anti-abuse rules under section 402A(e)(12) of the Code, as added by section 127 of the SECURE 2.0 Act, and also addresses whether Rev. Rul. 74-55, 1974-1 CB 89, and Rev. Rul. 74-56, 1974-1 CB 90, are applicable to PLESAs.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Department of Labor has provided frequently asked questions regarding PLESAs, including with respect to the permitted consolidation of notices under section 801(d)(3)(C) of ERISA (which is a parallel provision to section 402A(e)(5)(C) of the Code). 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Q&amp;A-18 of “FAQs: Pension-Linked Emergency Savings Accounts,” available at 
                    <E T="03">www.dol.gov/agencies/ebsa/about-ebsa/our-activities/resource-center/faqs/pension-linked-emergency-savings-accounts.</E>
                </P>
                <P>Section 341 of the SECURE 2.0 Act permits a plan (as defined in section 3 of ERISA) to consolidate two or more of the notices required under sections 404(c)(5)(B) and 514(e)(3) of ERISA and sections 401(k)(12)(D), 401(k)(13)(E), and 414(w)(4) of the Code into a single notice, provided that the combined notice satisfies certain requirements. Section 341 of the SECURE 2.0 Act does not prevent the consolidation of any other notices required under ERISA or the Code to the extent otherwise permitted by the Secretary of Labor or the Secretary of the Treasury (or their delegates), as applicable.</P>
                <P>
                    On October 24, 2007, the Department of Labor published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (72 FR 60452) a final regulation, 29 CFR 2550.404c-5, providing relief from certain fiduciary responsibilities under ERISA for investments made on behalf of participants or beneficiaries who fail to direct the investment of assets in their individual accounts. The preamble to that final regulation indicates that the Department of Labor anticipates that the notice requirements of sections 404(c)(5)(B) and 514(e)(3) of ERISA and sections 401(k)(13)(E) and 414(w)(4) of the Code could be satisfied in a single disclosure document. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     72 FR 60455 (regarding the notice requirements under section 404(c)(5)(B) of ERISA and sections 401(k)(13)(E) and 414(w)(4) of the Code) and 72 FR 60466 (regarding the notice requirements under sections 404(c)(5)(B) and 514(e)(3) of ERISA).
                </P>
                <P>
                    To aid plan sponsors for the 2008 plan year (the first plan year that a plan could have included a QACA or EACA), the IRS coordinated with the Department of Labor to post a sample “Automatic Enrollment Notice,” available at 
                    <E T="03">www.irs.gov/pub/irs-tege/sample_notice.pdf.</E>
                     This sample notice is intended to satisfy the notice requirements of sections 404(c)(5)(B) and 514(e)(3) of ERISA and sections 401(k)(13)(E) and 414(w)(4) of the Code.
                </P>
                <P>On April 29, 2008, the Department of Labor issued Field Assistance Bulletin 2008-03. Q&amp;A-10 of Field Assistance Bulletin 2008-03 explains that the notice required under section 401(k)(12)(D) also may be combined with the notice required under section 404(c)(5)(B) of ERISA.</P>
                <P>Q&amp;A-18 of “FAQs: Pension-Linked Emergency Savings Accounts” explains that, with respect to section 341 of the SECURE 2.0 Act, the Department of Labor retains its position regarding the consolidation of notices required under sections 404(c)(5)(B) and 514(e)(3) of ERISA and sections 401(k)(12)(D), 401(k)(13)(E), and 414(w)(4) of the Code. Q&amp;A-18 also explains that, under section 801(d)(3)(C) of ERISA, the initial and annual notices that must be furnished to PLESA participants may be included with any other notice under ERISA, including under section 404(c)(5)(B) or 514(e)(3) of ERISA, or under section 401(k)(13)(E) or 414(w)(4) of the Code, if such other notice is provided to the participant at the time required for such notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Explanation of Provisions</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Proposed § 1.414A-1</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. General Rule</HD>
                <P>In accordance with section 414A(a)(1), the proposed regulation generally would provide that a CODA will not be treated as a qualified CODA unless the plan that includes the CODA provides that any cash or deferred election under the CODA must satisfy the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A. The proposed regulation would clarify that the determination of whether a CODA fails to satisfy these automatic enrollment requirements (and, therefore, fails to be a qualified CODA) is made on a plan-year basis.</P>
                <P>Similarly, in accordance with section 414A(a)(2), the proposed regulation generally would provide that an annuity contract described in section 403(b) that is purchased pursuant to a salary reduction agreement will not be treated as purchased under a section 403(b) plan for a plan year unless the plan provides that any salary reduction agreement under the plan must satisfy the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Automatic Enrollment Requirements</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. In General</HD>
                <P>As described in section II.A of the Background portion of this preamble, section 414A(a) generally requires a qualified CODA, or an annuity contract described in section 403(b) that is purchased under a salary reduction agreement, to satisfy the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A(b), which require the CODA or salary reduction agreement to be an EACA, as described in section 414(w)(3), that meets the requirements of section 414A(b)(2) through (4). Section 414A(c) sets forth exceptions to the requirements of section 414A(a) for certain plans.</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS received comments in response to Notice 2024-2 requesting that the guidance provide that certain categories of employees need not be covered by an EACA for section 414A(b) to be satisfied. However, although section 414A(c) provides several exceptions to the requirements of section 414A(a) for certain types of plans, there is no provision in section 414A (or in section 101(c) of the SECURE 2.0 Act) that excludes any category of employee from the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A(b) of the Code if the plan is subject to section 414A(a). Accordingly, the proposed regulation would clarify that a CODA or salary reduction agreement under a plan satisfies the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A only if the plan provides for an EACA that covers all employees in the plan who are eligible to elect to have contributions made on their behalf under the CODA or pursuant to the salary reduction agreement (including long-term, part-time employees described in section 401(k)(15) of the Code or section 202(c) of ERISA).</P>
                <P>
                    Commenters also requested guidance on whether an employee must be automatically enrolled if the employee was eligible to participate in a CODA or salary reduction agreement included in a plan before the CODA or salary reduction agreement became subject to the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A(b). In response to these comments, the proposed regulation would provide an exception to automatic enrollment for certain employees who are eligible to make a cash or deferred election under a CODA or to enter into a salary reduction agreement that is comparable to the exception for certain current employees under a QACA, as set forth in § 1.401(k)-3(j)(1)(iii). Specifically, the proposed regulation would clarify that an EACA will not fail to satisfy section 414A merely because the default election under the EACA does not apply to an employee who, on the date the plan is first required to satisfy the automatic enrollment requirements of the proposed regulation, had an affirmative election in effect (that remains in effect) to have contributions made on the employee's behalf under a cash or deferred election or a salary 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3097"/>
                    reduction agreement (in a specified amount or percentage of compensation) or not have contributions made on the employee's behalf under a cash or deferred election or a salary reduction agreement.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Permissive Withdrawals</HD>
                <P>In accordance with section 414A(b)(2), the proposed regulation would provide that an EACA satisfies the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A only if the plan that includes the EACA provides that any employee who has default elective contributions made under the EACA may elect to make a permissible withdrawal, as defined in section 414(w)(2) and described in § 1.414(w)-1(c) (that is, a withdrawal of default elective contributions and earnings that satisfies certain timing and amount requirements).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Contribution Requirements</HD>
                <P>To reflect the minimum contribution percentage requirements of section 414A(b)(3), the proposed regulation would provide that an EACA satisfies the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A only if the default election made on behalf of an employee under the EACA is equal to a uniform percentage of the employee's compensation that is subject to a cash or deferred election or salary reduction arrangement under the plan. The default election would not apply if the employee affirmatively elects to have contributions made in a different amount on the employee's behalf (in a specified amount or percentage of compensation) or not have any contributions made on the employee's behalf, under a cash or deferred election or a salary reduction agreement.</P>
                <P>In accordance with section 414A(b)(3)(A)(i), the proposed regulation would provide that the contribution percentage under the default election for each employee's initial period must be a uniform percentage that is not less than 3 percent and not more than 10 percent. The proposed regulation would clarify that an employee's initial period (that is, the employee's “first year of participation” under section 414A(b)(3)(A)(i)) would begin when the employee is first eligible to elect to have contributions made on the employee's behalf under the plan (or if later, when the plan is first required to satisfy the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A), and the employee's initial period would end on the last day of the following plan year.</P>
                <P>As described in section II.A of the Background portion of this preamble, section 414A(b)(3)(A)(ii) generally requires automatic increases of one percentage point to an employee's minimum default contribution percentage for each plan year beginning after each completed year of participation under the EACA, up to a maximum default contribution percentage of at least 10 percent (but not more than 15 percent). The proposed regulation would provide that, for each plan year beginning after an employee's initial period, the percentage contribution under the default election must be increased by one percentage point until the percentage is at least 10 percent. The proposed regulation also would provide that the percentage may not exceed 15 percent (or the lower percentage specified in section 414A(b)(3)(B), if applicable).</P>
                <P>For purposes of satisfying the uniform percentage requirement of section 414A(b)(3)(A), the proposed regulation would adopt the exceptions from the uniform percentage requirement of section 414(w)(3)(B), which are based on the similar exceptions from the uniform percentage requirement for a QACA under § 1.401(k)-3(j)(2)(iii). Specifically, the proposed regulation would clarify that an EACA does not fail to satisfy the uniform percentage requirement merely because: (1) the percentage used for the default election varies based on the number of years (or portions of years) since the beginning of the initial period for an employee, (2) the rate of contributions under a cash or deferred election or salary reduction agreement that is in effect for an employee immediately prior to the date that the default election under the proposed regulation first applies to the employee is not reduced, (3) the rate of contributions under a cash or deferred election or salary reduction agreement is limited so as not to exceed certain applicable limits under the Code, or (4) the default election is not applied during the period an employee is not permitted to have contributions made on the employee's behalf under a cash or deferred election or salary reduction agreement under section 414(u)(12)(B)(ii), which provides for a six-month suspension of elective deferrals (and employee contributions) if an individual elects to receive a distribution by reason of the individual being treated as having been severed from employment while performing military service.</P>
                <P>The proposed regulation would provide rules, based on the rules for a QACA under § 1.401(k)-3(j)(2)(iv), that would address the default percentage that would apply for an employee who did not have default elective contributions made for an entire plan year. The proposed regulation would provide different rules that could be used depending on whether the employee was not eligible to have contributions made on the employee's behalf under a CODA or salary reduction agreement or had made an affirmative election to have contributions made in a different amount (including an election not to have contributions made).</P>
                <P>Specifically, the proposed regulation would permit a plan to provide that if, after an employee's initial period began, the employee did not have default elective contributions made for an entire plan year, then the employee's initial period is redetermined. If no default elective contributions were made solely because the employee was not eligible to elect to have contributions made on the employee's behalf under a cash or deferred election or salary reduction agreement for that entire plan year, then a plan would be permitted to provide that the employee's initial period would be redetermined so that it begins on the date the employee is again eligible to elect to have contributions made on the employee's behalf under the plan. An employer would likely adopt this provision to determine the default contribution rate that applies to an employee who was rehired more than one plan year after the employee terminated employment.</P>
                <P>
                    However, if no default elective contributions were made solely because the employee made an affirmative election to have contributions made on the employee's behalf under a cash or deferred election or salary reduction agreement in a different amount (including an election not to have contributions made), then a plan would be permitted to provide that the employee's initial period would be redetermined so that it begins on any date specified under the plan that is later than the date the employee's original initial period ended. For example, a plan is permitted to be amended to provide that, as of a specific date, the default election will apply to all employees who previously made an affirmative election that has been in effect for a period of at least one plan year to have contributions made on behalf of the employees under the plan at a rate that is below the uniform percentage that applies during an initial period (so that the uniform percentage that applies during the initial period will apply unless the employee makes a new affirmative election). An employer might adopt such an amendment to facilitate an increase in the rate of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3098"/>
                    contributions made on behalf of its employees.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Investment Requirements</HD>
                <P>In accordance with the investment requirements of section 414A(b)(4), the proposed regulation would provide that an EACA satisfies the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A only if amounts contributed pursuant to the EACA, and for which no investment is elected by the employee, are invested in accordance with the requirements of 29 CFR 2550.404c-5 (or any successor regulations).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Exceptions for Certain Types of Plans and Businesses</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. SIMPLE 401(k) Plans</HD>
                <P>In accordance with section 414A(c)(1), the proposed regulation would provide that the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A do not apply to any SIMPLE 401(k) plan (as described in section 401(k)(11) and § 1.401(k)-4).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Governmental and Church Plans</HD>
                <P>In accordance with section 414A(c)(3), the proposed regulation would provide that the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A do not apply to any governmental plan (within the meaning of section 414(d)) or any church plan (within the meaning of section 414(e)).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. New and Small Businesses</HD>
                <P>Section 414A(c)(4)(A) provides that the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A(a) do not apply to any qualified CODA, or any annuity contract purchased under a plan, while the employer maintaining the plan (and any predecessor employer) has been in existence for less than 3 years. However, section 414A does not specify the date as of which a plan must satisfy the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A(b) if the exception for new businesses under section 414A(c)(4)(A) ceases to apply to the plan.</P>
                <P>In response to Notice 2024-2, the Treasury Department and the IRS received a comment requesting clarification that a plan will not fail to satisfy the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A(b) if the plan includes an EACA no later than the first plan year that begins on or after the third anniversary of the employer's existence. The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that a plan should not be required to implement an EACA in the middle of a plan year. Therefore, the proposed regulation would clarify that the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A do not apply to a plan for a plan year if, as of the beginning of the plan year, the employer maintaining the plan (aggregated with any predecessor employer) has been in existence for less than 3 years.</P>
                <P>Section 414A(c)(4)(B) provides that the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A(a) do not apply to any qualified CODA, or any annuity contract purchased under a plan, earlier than the date that is 1 year after the close of the first taxable year of the employer maintaining the plan with respect to which that employer normally employed more than 10 employees. However, section 414A(c)(4)(B) does not specify any method for counting the number of employees for this purpose.</P>
                <P>In response to Notice 2024-2, the Treasury Department and the IRS received comments requesting clarification regarding the method for counting employees for purposes of the small business exception under section 414A(c)(4)(B). One commenter raised the issue of how to count employees for this purpose but did not suggest a specific method. Another commenter recommended that the Treasury Department and the IRS adopt a monthly averaging approach, which the commenter explained would be similar to the approach used for purposes of section 4980H. However, section 4980H does not use the phrase “normally employed”; instead, that phrase is used in section 4980B(d)(1). Therefore, the proposed regulation would clarify that the number of employees that the employer normally employs for a taxable year is determined using the rules of Q&amp;A-5 of § 54.4980B-2.</P>
                <P>Similar to the clarification provided in the proposed regulation for new businesses, the proposed regulation would clarify that the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A do not apply to any qualified CODA, or any annuity contract purchased under a section 403(b) plan, before the first plan year that begins at least 12 months after the close of the first taxable year of the employer maintaining the plan with respect to which that employer normally employed more than 10 employees.</P>
                <P>
                    As described in section II.A of the Background portion of this preamble, section 414A(c)(4)(C) provides special rules for the new and small business exceptions in the case of “a plan maintained by more than 1 employer.” The proposed regulation would clarify that the phrase “a plan maintained by more than 1 employer” means a multiple employer plan.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Accordingly, the proposed regulation would reflect the provisions of section 414A(c)(4)(C) by providing that, in the case of a multiple employer plan, the exceptions for new and small businesses apply on an employer-by-employer basis. Thus, if an employer participating in a multiple employer plan is a new or small business, it would be exempt from the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A, but that exemption would have no impact on whether section 414A applies to the employees of the other participating employers.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         This interpretation is consistent with the heading of section 414A(c)(4)(C) (“Treatment of multiple employer plans”) and the interpretation in § 1.413-2(a)(2) and (3) of the substantially identical language in section 413(c) (“a plan maintained by more than one employer”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Exceptions for Plans Established Before the Enactment of Section 414A</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. In General</HD>
                <P>As described in section II.A of the Background portion of this preamble, section 414A(c)(2)(A) provides an exception from the requirements of section 414A(a) in the case of a qualified CODA, or section 403(b) plan, that is established before December 29, 2022, and Q&amp;A A-1 and Q&amp;A A-5 of Notice 2024-2 provide guidance with respect to the date that a qualified CODA or section 403(b) plan is established for purposes of section 414A(c)(2)(A). Notice 2024-2 refers to a qualified CODA or section 403(b) plan that is eligible for the exception under section 414A(c)(2)(A) as a pre-enactment qualified CODA or pre-enactment section 403(b) plan, and this Explanation of Provisions uses the term pre-enactment plan to encompass both pre-enactment qualified CODAs and pre-enactment section 403(b) plans.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed regulation would reflect the provisions of section 414A(c)(2)(A)(i) and incorporate the guidance provided in Q&amp;A A-1 of Notice 2024-2 by generally providing that the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A do not apply to any plan that includes a qualified CODA if the plan terms providing for the qualified CODA were adopted initially before December 29, 2022, even if the plan terms providing for the CODA are effective after that date. The proposed regulation also would reflect the provisions of section 414A(c)(2)(A)(ii) and incorporate the guidance provided in Q&amp;A A-5 of Notice 2024-2 by providing that the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A do not apply to any section 403(b) plan adopted initially before December 29, 2022, without regard to the date of adoption of plan terms providing for salary reduction agreements.
                    <PRTPAGE P="3099"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Merger of Plans Established Before the Enactment of Section 414A</HD>
                <P>With respect to the merger of two pre-enactment plans (neither of which is a multiple employer plan) or the merger of a pre-enactment plan that is not a multiple employer plan with a pre-enactment multiple employer plan, the proposed regulation would incorporate the guidance provided in Q&amp;A A-2 of Notice 2024-2 (which, under Q&amp;A A-5 of Notice 2024-2, also applies to section 403(b) plans). Thus, the plan after the merger will be treated as a pre-enactment plan.</P>
                <P>The proposed regulation generally would extend the guidance provided in Q&amp;A A-2 of Notice 2024-2 to the merger of two pre-enactment multiple employer plans. However, the proposed regulation would clarify that a merger involving a multiple employer plan will not affect whether the merged plan is treated as a pre-enactment plan with respect to any employer that maintained the multiple employer plan prior to the merger.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Merger of Plan Established on or After the Enactment of Section 414A With a Plan Established Before the Enactment of Section 414A</HD>
                <P>With respect to the merger of a plan that is not a pre-enactment plan and a pre-enactment plan (neither of which is a multiple employer plan), the proposed regulation generally would incorporate the guidance provided in Q&amp;A A-3 of Notice 2024-2 (which, under Q&amp;A A-5 of Notice 2024-2, also applies to section 403(b) plans). With respect to the guidance provided in Q&amp;A A-3 of Notice 2024-2 regarding a plan merger in connection with a transaction described in section 410(b)(6)(C), the proposed regulation generally would incorporate that guidance by providing that a pre-enactment plan will continue to be treated as a pre-enactment plan after a merger with a plan that is not a pre-enactment plan if there is a transaction described in § 1.410(b)-2(f), the pre-merger pre-enactment plan is designated as the ongoing plan, and the plan merger occurs within the transition period described in section 410(b)(6)(C)(ii). In addition, the proposed regulation would expand the rule in Q&amp;A A-3 of Notice 2024-2 to address certain situations in which a plan maintained by a single employer that is not a pre-enactment plan is merged into a multiple employer plan. Under this expansion, the multiple employer plan would be treated as a pre-enactment plan with respect to the employer that sponsored the merged-in plan if, with respect to the participating employer that engaged in the transaction, the multiple employer plan was treated as a pre-enactment plan before the transaction. As is the case of any merger involving a multiple employer plan, the merger would not affect whether the multiple employer plan is treated as a pre-enactment plan with respect to any other employer.</P>
                <P>Under section 410(b)(6)(C)(ii), the transition period begins on the date of the change in members of a controlled group (as described in section 414(b), (c), (m), or (o)) and ends on the last day of the first plan year beginning after the date of that change. In response to Notice 2024-2, one commenter requested that the guidance provided in Q&amp;A A-3 be modified to extend the time period for a plan merger until the end of the first plan year that begins after the end of the section 410(b)(6)(C) transition period. The proposed regulation would not extend the time period set forth in Q&amp;A A-3 of Notice 2024-2 because that is the time period specified in the Code for an employer to implement changes to its plans that may be needed following a transaction described in section 410(b)(6)(C).</P>
                <P>With respect to a merger of a multiple employer plan that is a pre-enactment plan with a multiple employer plan that is not a pre-enactment plan, the proposed regulation would clarify the guidance provided in Q&amp;A A-3 of Notice 2024-2 by providing that the merger will not affect whether the merged plan is treated as a pre-enactment plan with respect to any employer that maintained either multiple employer plan prior to the merger.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Treatment of Adoption of, or Merger With, a Multiple Employer Plan</HD>
                <P>As described in section II.A of the Background portion of this preamble, section 414A(c)(2)(B) provides special rules that apply in the case of an employer that adopts, after December 29, 2022, a plan maintained by more than one employer. Consistent with the interpretation of the statutory phrase “a plan maintained by more than 1 employer” in section 414A(c)(4)(C), as described in section I.C.3 of this Explanation of Provisions, the proposed regulation would clarify that the phrase “a plan maintained by more than one employer” in section 414A(c)(2)(B) means a multiple employer plan. Thus, the proposed regulation would provide that if an employer adopts a multiple employer plan after December 29, 2022, then, with respect to that employer, the multiple employer plan will not be treated as a pre-enactment plan. However, this treatment would not affect employers who adopted the multiple employer plan on or before December 29, 2022.</P>
                <P>With respect to the merger of a plan (other than a multiple employer plan) with a multiple employer plan after December 29, 2022, the proposed regulation generally would incorporate the guidance provided in Q&amp;A A-2 and Q&amp;A A-3 of Notice 2024-2 (which, under Q&amp;A A-5 of Notice 2024-2, also applies to section 403(b) plans). Thus, for example, if an employer merged a plan that was not a pre-enactment plan into a pre-enactment multiple employer plan after December 29, 2022, the multiple employer plan generally would not be treated as a pre-enactment plan with respect to that employer after the merger.</P>
                <P>In response to Notice 2024-2, the Treasury Department and the IRS received a number of comments expressing concern that, in the case of an employer maintaining a pre-enactment plan that is merged into a multiple employer plan that was established after December 29, 2022, the multiple employer plan would not be treated as a pre-enactment plan with respect to that employer after the merger. The comments requested guidance providing that if a pre-enactment plan is merged into a multiple employer plan, then the merged-in plan does not lose its pre-enactment status with respect to the employer that maintained the merged-in plan regardless of whether the multiple employer plan was established before or after December 29, 2022. In response to these comments, the proposed regulation would provide that, if an employer maintains a pre-enactment plan that is merged into a multiple employer plan after December 29, 2022, then the post-merger multiple employer plan will be treated as a pre-enactment plan with respect to that employer. This rule would apply regardless of the date of establishment of the multiple employer plan.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed regulation also would clarify that the special rule set forth in section 414A(c)(2)(B) regarding the adoption of a multiple employer plan after December 29, 2022, applies on an employer-by-employer basis. Thus, under the proposed regulation, neither an employer's adoption of a multiple employer plan nor a merger of an employer's plan into a multiple employer plan after December 29, 2022, would affect whether the multiple employer plan is treated as a pre-enactment plan with respect to any other employer maintaining the plan.
                    <PRTPAGE P="3100"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Plan Spin-Off</HD>
                <P>The proposed regulation would incorporate the guidance provided in Q&amp;A A-4 of Notice 2024-2 by providing that if a portion of a pre-enactment plan is spun off from that plan, the resulting spun-off plan will be treated as a pre-enactment plan if either the plan from which the spin-off occurred was not a multiple employer plan, or the plan from which the spin-off occurred was a multiple employer plan that was treated as a pre-enactment plan with respect to the employer maintaining the spun-off plan.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Other Plan Amendments</HD>
                <P>In response to Notice 2024-2, the Treasury Department and the IRS received comments requesting guidance on whether changes to a plan's design or other plan amendments would affect the date the plan was established for purposes of section 414A(c)(2)(A). In response to these comments, the proposed regulation would clarify that a plan will not fail to be a pre-enactment plan merely because the plan is amended, provided that the amendment is not an amendment relating to an adoption of a multiple employer plan or a plan merger. This rule would apply even if the plan amendment expands eligibility to participate in the CODA (or to enter into a salary reduction agreement) to other employees of the employer that maintains the plan or to employees of another employer in the employer's controlled group. The proposed regulation also would clarify that if a pre-enactment plan is merged with a plan that does not include a CODA or permit any salary reduction agreements, then the merged plan will continue to be a pre-enactment plan after the merger.</P>
                <P>In response to Notice 2024-2, the Treasury Department and the IRS also received comments requesting guidance on whether a change in a plan's service provider would affect the date the plan was established for purposes of section 414A(c)(2)(A). Generally, a mere change in a plan's recordkeeper would not necessitate an amendment to the plan. However, if a plan's change of recordkeeper or any similar change required a plan amendment that does not relate to the adoption of a multiple employer plan or a plan merger, then, under the proposed regulation, the amendment would not cause the plan to fail to be a pre-enactment plan.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Applicability Date</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Statutory Applicability Date</HD>
                <P>In accordance with section 101(c) of the SECURE 2.0 Act, the proposed regulation would provide that section 414A applies to plan years beginning after December 31, 2024.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Regulatory Applicability Date</HD>
                <P>The proposed regulation would apply to plan years that begin more than 6 months after the date that final regulations under section 414A are issued. For earlier plan years, a plan would be treated as having complied with section 414A if the plan complies with a reasonable, good faith interpretation of section 414A.</P>
                <P>As explained in section I.B.1 of this Explanation of Provisions, the proposed regulation would require an EACA to cover all employees in the plan who are eligible to elect to have contributions made on their behalf for the automatic enrollment requirements of the proposed regulation to be satisfied. If a CODA or section 403(b) plan that provides for salary reduction agreements becomes subject to the requirements of section 414A(a) as of the first day of the plan year beginning after December 31, 2024 (2025 plan year), but employees who became eligible to participate in the CODA or to enter into a salary reduction agreement before the first day of the 2025 plan year (and who do not have affirmative elections in effect on that date) are not covered under the EACA, then those employees would have to be covered under the EACA on the first day of the first plan year that the final regulations apply to the CODA or to the section 403(b) plan that provides for salary reduction agreements (first applicable plan year).</P>
                <P>As a result, under the proposed regulation, unless employees who became eligible to participate in the CODA or to enter into a salary reduction agreement before the first day of the 2025 plan year have affirmative elections in effect on the first day of the first applicable plan year, those employees would need to be automatically enrolled as of that date in order for the requirements of the regulation to be satisfied. In that case, the default contribution percentage would be the percentage that would apply under the EACA for the first applicable plan year had those employees been automatically enrolled starting on the first day of the 2025 plan year. As an alternative, the plan terms could reflect the provision in the proposed regulation permitting the redetermination of the initial period in the case of an employee who did not have default elective contributions made for an entire plan year (so that the plan would be permitted to provide that the initial contribution percentage that applies to those employees is the percentage that would apply under the EACA had the initial period for those employees started on the first day of the first applicable plan year).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Other Matters</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Multiemployer Plans</HD>
                <P>As described in section I.D.4 of this Explanation of provisions, the proposed regulation would clarify that, for purposes of section 414A(c)(2)(B), the phrase “a plan maintained by more than one employer” means “a multiple employer plan.” Thus, the phrase “a plan maintained by more than one employer” would not be interpreted to include a multiemployer plan or a plan maintained by members of a controlled group. As a result, under the proposed regulation, a pre-enactment multiemployer plan would continue to be treated as a pre-enactment plan with respect to an employer that adopts the plan after December 29, 2022, or with respect to an employer that maintains a plan that is merged into the multiemployer plan after December 29, 2022 (regardless of the date the merged-in plan was established). Similarly, a pre-enactment plan would continue to be treated as a pre-enactment plan with respect to additional members of an employer's controlled group if eligibility to participate in the plan is expanded to include employees of those employers after December 29, 2022.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. PLESAs</HD>
                <P>
                    The Department of Labor published a request for information soliciting public feedback on several sections of the SECURE 2.0 Act in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (88 FR 54511). In response to comments received, this preamble addresses the interaction of the rules for a PLESA and the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A.
                </P>
                <P>If a plan with a qualified CODA includes a PLESA, then the PLESA is part of the CODA. Thus, an affirmative election to contribute to a PLESA is an affirmative election to contribute to the CODA. If the plan is subject to the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A, then an affirmative election to contribute to a PLESA would be an affirmative election under the CODA for purposes of the proposed regulation.</P>
                <P>
                    If an employee is automatically enrolled to contribute to a PLESA, the investment requirements of section 414A(b)(4) and proposed § 1.414A-1(c)(4) (which reference the Department of Labor's rules for qualified default investment alternatives under 29 CFR 2550.404c-5) generally would not be 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3101"/>
                    satisfied with respect to the automatic contributions to the PLESA.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Thus, automatic contributions to the PLESA would not be able to be used to satisfy the automatic enrollment requirements under section 414A.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         The Department of Labor published frequently asked questions online providing general compliance information under ERISA regarding PLESAs providing that, generally, the investment option designated for PLESAs cannot be the same as a plan's qualified default investment alternative under 29 CFR 2550.404c-5(e)(4)(i). However, Q&amp;A-15 does indicate that a PLESA's investment option could meet the requirements for a qualified default investment alternative for a short period of time.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Section 1.414(w)-1</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Employees Covered by the EACA</HD>
                <P>As explained in section I.B.1 of this Explanation of Provisions, proposed § 1.414A-1 would clarify that, in order for a CODA or salary reduction agreement under section 403(b) to satisfy the automatic enrollment requirements of section 414A, all employees in the plan who are eligible to elect to have contributions made on their behalf under the CODA or pursuant to a salary reduction agreement must be covered by the EACA. Section 1.414(w)-1(b)(1) currently provides that an EACA need not cover all employees who are eligible to elect to have contributions made on their behalf under the applicable employer plan. For consistency with proposed § 1.414A-1, this notice of proposed rulemaking would amend § 1.414(w)-1(b)(1) to clarify that the section 414A requirement to be covered by an EACA overrides the existing rule in the EACA regulations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Special Rules Relating to Notices</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Unenrolled Participants</HD>
                <P>
                    As described in section II.B of the Background portion of this preamble, section 320 of the SECURE 2.0 Act adds new section 414(bb) to the Code. This notice of proposed rulemaking would reflect section 414(bb) by amending § 1.414(w)-1 to add a new paragraph under which, if the requirements of section 414(bb)(1) are satisfied with respect to an unenrolled participant (as defined in section 414(bb)(2)),
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     then the requirement to give the section 414(w)(4) notice of an employee's rights and obligations does not apply to the participant. Thus, an unenrolled participant does not need to be given the annual EACA notice, provided that the participant is furnished (1) annual reminder notices under section 414(bb)(1)(A), and (2) any document requested by the participant (if the participant would be entitled to receive the document in the absence of section 414(bb) and section 111 of ERISA).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         Section 414(bb)(2) defines an unenrolled participant as an employee who: (1) is eligible to participate in a defined contribution plan, (2) has been furnished the summary plan description pursuant to section 104(b) of ERISA for the plan and any other notices related to eligibility under the plan and required to be furnished under the Code or ERISA in connection with the participant's initial eligibility to participate in the plan, (3) is not participating in the defined contribution plan, and (4) satisfies any other criteria as the Secretary of the Treasury may determine appropriate, as prescribed in guidance issued in consultation with the Secretary of Labor.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Consolidation of Notices</HD>
                <P>As described in section II.B of the Background portion of this preamble, section 402A(e)(5)(C) of the Code (as added by section 127 of the SECURE 2.0 Act) permits the initial and annual notices required under section 402A(e)(5)(A) of the Code to be included with any other notice under ERISA, including under section 404(c)(5)(B) or 514(e)(3) of ERISA, or under section 401(k)(13)(E) or 414(w)(4) of the Code, if the other notice is provided to the participant at the time required for that notice. In addition, section 341 of the SECURE 2.0 Act permits a plan to consolidate two or more of the notices required under sections 404(c)(5)(B) and 514(e)(3) of ERISA and sections 401(k)(12)(D), 401(k)(13)(E), and 414(w)(4) of the Code into a single notice, provided that the combined notice satisfies certain requirements.</P>
                <P>The proposed amendment to § 1.414(w)-1 would address section 402A(e)(5)(C) of the Code and section 341 of the SECURE 2.0 Act by adding a new paragraph that provides that the EACA notice required under § 1.414(w)-1(b)(3) generally may be combined with one or more of the notices required under section 404(c)(5)(B), 514(e)(3), or 801(d)(3)(A) of ERISA and section 401(k)(12)(D) or 401(k)(13)(E) of the Code. Consistent with section 341 of the SECURE 2.0 Act, the proposed regulation would require that the combined notice include the required content, clearly identify the issues addressed therein, be furnished at the time and with the frequency required for each notice, be presented in a manner that is reasonably calculated to be understood by the average plan participant, and not obscure or fail to highlight the primary information required for each notice.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Applicability Date</HD>
                <P>Section 1.414A-1 and the amendments to § 1.414(w)-1 are proposed to apply to plan years that begin more than 6 months after the date that final regulations under section 414A are issued. For a plan year beginning after December 31, 2024, but before the applicability date of those final regulations, a plan is treated as having complied with section 414A if the plan complies with a reasonable, good faith interpretation of section 414A.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Analyses</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Regulatory Planning and Review</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to the Memorandum of Agreement, Review of Treasury Regulations under Executive Order 12866 (June 9, 2023), tax regulatory actions issued by the IRS are not subject to the requirements of section 6 of Executive Order 12866, as amended. Therefore, a regulatory impact assessment is not required.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                <P>The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) (PRA) requires that a Federal agency obtain the approval of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) before collecting information from the public, whether such collection of information is mandatory, voluntary, or required to obtain or retain a benefit. A Federal agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid control number.</P>
                <P>The collections of information in these proposed regulations contain third-party disclosure requirements that are necessary to comply with the statutory requirement under section 414A of the Code (which requires certain CODAs or salary reduction agreements to be EACAs) and that are necessary if a plan applies section 414(bb) (which eliminates certain disclosure and notice requirements for unenrolled participants if an annual notice is provided to the unenrolled participants). These collections of information generally would be provided by businesses or other for-profit institutions, nonprofit institutions, organizations, and state or local governments that sponsor retirement plans that include EACAs to individuals in order to meet the statutory notice requirements for EACAs under section 414(w)(4).</P>
                <P>
                    The collection of information under proposed § 1.414(w)-1(b)(4) related to unenrolled participants is required in order for a plan to apply section 414(bb). Section 414(bb) provides that no disclosure, notice, or other plan document is required to be furnished under the Code to an unenrolled participant if the unenrolled participant is furnished an annual reminder notice of the unenrolled participant's 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3102"/>
                    eligibility to participate in the plan and any applicable election deadlines under the plan. In accordance with section 414(bb), the proposed regulation would allow unenrolled participants to be furnished an annual reminder notice instead of the annual notice required for EACAs under section 414(w)(4) and § 1.414(w)-1(b)(3). The burden is as follows:
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated number of respondents:</E>
                     90,000-140,000 plans.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated frequency of responses:</E>
                     Varies *. 
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">The notice would only need to be furnished to unenrolled participants once per year, however, plans have multiple unenrolled participants within a given year. For calculation purposes, IRS is estimating that each employer plan has 35 unenrolled participants that could receive the annual notice.</E>
                          
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated average annual burden per respondent:</E>
                     1 hour*, to draft the notice and provide it to unenrolled participants.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">The IRS estimates that the reporting burden per response would not be burdensome because the notice does not need to be customized per participant.</E>
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated total annual reporting burden:</E>
                     90,000-140,000 hours.
                </P>
                <P>The collections of information in these proposed regulations also contain third-party disclosure requirements that are necessary to comply with the statutory rule under section 414A, which requires certain CODAs and salary reduction agreements to be EACAs (as defined in section 414(w)(3)). Under § 1.414(w)-1(b)(3), initial and annual written notices must be given to each employee to whom the EACA applies of the employee's rights and obligations under the EACA. Proposed § 1.414A-1 would not change the notice requirements for an EACA under § 1.414(w)-1 but would subject certain CODAs and salary reduction agreements to the notice requirements for an EACA by requiring those CODAs and salary reduction agreements to be EACAs (as required by section 414A). This requirement to be an EACA would not affect pre-enactment plans. IRS anticipates about 16,000 new plans could be established within a given year that would not otherwise be EACAs except for the requirements of section 414A.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated number of respondents:</E>
                     16,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated frequency of responses:</E>
                     Varies *. 
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">Notice would need to be given to eligible employees once per year. For calculation purposes, IRS is estimating that each employer plan has 60 eligible employees that would receive the annual notice.</E>
                          
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated average annual burden per respondent:</E>
                     1 hour *, to draft the notice and provide it to eligible employees.
                </P>
                  
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        * 
                        <E T="03">The IRS estimates that the reporting burden per response would not be burdensome because the notice does not need to be customized per participant.</E>
                    </P>
                </EXTRACT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated total annual reporting burden:</E>
                     16,000 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    IRS is soliciting feedback on these third-party disclosure requirements and their associated burden. The third-party disclosure requirements contained in this notice of proposed rulemaking have been submitted to OMB for review in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act under OMB Control Number 1545-2135. Commenters are strongly encouraged to submit public comments electronically. Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent to 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain,</E>
                     with copies to the Internal Revenue Service. Find this particular information collection by using the search function at 
                    <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                     Submit electronic submissions for the proposed information collection to the IRS via email at 
                    <E T="03">pra.comments@irs.gov</E>
                     (indicate REG-100669-24 on the Subject line). Comments on the collection of information should be received by March 17, 2025. Comments are specifically requested concerning:
                </P>
                <P>Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the IRS, including whether the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>The accuracy of the estimated burden associated with the proposed collection of information;</P>
                <P>How the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected may be enhanced;</P>
                <P>How the burden of complying with the proposed collection of information may be minimized, including through the application of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and</P>
                <P>Estimates of capital or start-up costs and costs of operation, maintenance, and purchase of services to provide information.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. chapter 6), it is hereby certified that these proposed regulations will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Although section 414A provides an exception from the automatic enrollment requirements for some small entities, other small entities that sponsor section 401(k) or 403(b) plans that are established on or after December 29, 2022, may need to provide for automatic enrollment in the plans and default cash or deferred or salary reduction elections for employees who are otherwise eligible to participate in the plans. Automatic enrollment and default elections, and the resulting additional contributions to a plan, apply to compensation that employees would have otherwise received and do not require additional amounts to be paid. Section 414A does not require plans to provide for nonelective contributions or matching contributions. Before the enactment of section 101 of the SECURE 2.0 Act, plans were permitted, but not required, to provide for automatic enrollment. Accordingly, any additional recordkeeping or administrative costs resulting from the automatic enrollment requirements that apply to certain section 401(k) and 403(b) plans sponsored by small entities are not expected to be significant. Therefore, a regulatory flexibility analysis under the Regulatory Flexibility Act is not required.</P>
                <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS invite comments on the impacts these proposed regulations may have on small entities. Pursuant to section 7805(f) of the Code, these proposed regulations will be submitted to the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on their impact on small businesses.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                <P>Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits and take certain other actions before issuing a final rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in expenditures in any one year by a State, local, or Tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. The proposed regulations do not propose any rule that would include any Federal mandate that may result in expenditures by State, local, or Tribal governments, or by the private sector, in excess of that threshold.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Executive Order 13132: Federalism</HD>
                <P>
                    Executive Order 13132 (Federalism) prohibits an agency from publishing any rule that has federalism implications if the rule either imposes substantial, direct compliance costs on State and local governments, and is not required by statute, or preempts State law, unless the agency meets the consultation and funding requirements of section 6 of the Executive order. The proposed 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3103"/>
                    regulations do not propose rules that would have federalism implications, impose substantial direct compliance costs on State and local governments that are not required by statute, or preempt State law within the meaning of the Executive order. This is because section 414A, by its terms, does not apply to governmental plans.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments and Public Hearing</HD>
                <P>
                    Before final regulations are adopted to implement section 414A of the Code, or to revise the regulations under section 414(w) to reflect changes made by sections 101, 320, and 341 of the SECURE 2.0 Act, consideration will be given to comments regarding the notice of proposed rulemaking that are submitted timely to the IRS as prescribed in this preamble under the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section. The Treasury Department and the IRS request comments on all aspects of the proposed regulations. Comments specifically are requested on whether guidance is needed to define the term “predecessor employer” as used in section 414A(c)(4)(A) of the Code and on the criteria that should apply for an individual to be an unenrolled participant under section 414(bb)(2). All comments will be made available at 
                    <E T="03">www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Once submitted to the Federal eRulemaking Portal, comments cannot be edited or withdrawn.
                </P>
                <P>A public hearing has been scheduled for April 8, 2025, beginning at 10 a.m. ET in the Auditorium of the Internal Revenue Building, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC. Due to building security procedures, visitors must enter at the Constitution Avenue entrance. In addition, all visitors must present photo identification to enter the building. Because of access restrictions, visitors will not be admitted beyond the immediate entrance area more than 30 minutes before the hearing starts. Participants may alternatively attend the public hearing by telephone.</P>
                <P>
                    The rules of 26 CFR 601.601(a)(3) apply to the hearing. Persons who wish to present oral comments must submit an outline of the topics to be addressed and the time to be devoted to each topic by March 17, 2025 as prescribed in the preamble under the 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                     section. A period of 10 minutes will be allocated to each person for making comments. An agenda showing the scheduling of the speakers will be prepared after the deadline for receiving outlines has passed. Copies of the agenda will be available free of charge at the hearing. If no outline of the topics to be discussed at the hearing is received by March 17, 2025, the public hearing will be cancelled. If the public hearing is cancelled, a notice of cancellation of the public hearing will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    Individuals who want to testify in person at the public hearing must send an email to 
                    <E T="03">publichearings@irs.gov</E>
                     to have their names added to the building access list. The subject line of the email must contain the regulation number REG-100669-24 and the language TESTIFY In Person. For example, the subject line may say: Request to TESTIFY In Person at Hearing for REG-100669-24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Individuals who want to testify by telephone at the public hearing must send an email to 
                    <E T="03">publichearings@irs.gov</E>
                     to receive the telephone number and access code for the hearing. The subject line of the email must contain the regulation number REG-100669-24 and the language TESTIFY Telephonically. For example, the subject line may say: Request to TESTIFY Telephonically at Hearing for REG-100669-24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Individuals who want to attend the public hearing in person without testifying must also send an email to 
                    <E T="03">publichearings@irs.gov</E>
                     to have their names added to the building access list. The subject line of the email must contain the regulation number REG-100669-24 and the language ATTEND In Person. For example, the subject line may say: Request to ATTEND Hearing In Person for REG-100669-24. Requests to attend the public hearing must be received by 5 p.m. ET on April 4, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Individuals who want to attend the public hearing by telephone without testifying must also send an email to 
                    <E T="03">publichearings@irs.gov</E>
                     to receive the telephone number and access code for the hearing. The subject line of the email must contain the regulation number REG-100669-24 and the language ATTEND Hearing Telephonically. For example, the subject line may say: Request to ATTEND Hearing Telephonically for REG-100669-24. Requests to attend the public hearing must be received by 5 p.m. ET on April 4, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Hearings will be made accessible to people with disabilities. To request special assistance during the hearing, please contact the Publications and Regulations Branch of the Office of Associate Chief Counsel (Procedure and Administration) by sending an email to 
                    <E T="03">publichearings@irs.gov</E>
                     (preferred) or by telephone at (202) 317-6901 (not a toll-free number) by April 3, 2025.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Statement of Availability of IRS Documents</HD>
                <P>
                    IRS Revenue Procedures, Revenue Rulings notices, and other guidance cited in this document are published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (or Cumulative Bulletin) and are available from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Publishing Office, Washington, DC 20402, or by visiting the IRS website at 
                    <E T="03">www.irs.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Drafting Information</HD>
                <P>The principal authors of these proposed regulations are Christina M. Cerasale and Kara M. Soderstrom, of the Office of the Associate Chief Counsel (Employee Benefits, Exempt Organizations, and Employment Taxes (EEE)). However, other personnel from the Treasury Department and the IRS participated in the development of the proposed regulations.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 26 CFR Part 1</HD>
                    <P>Income taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Amendments to the Regulations</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, the Treasury Department and the IRS propose to amend 26 CFR part 1 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1—INCOME TAXES</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>
                    <E T="04">Paragraph 1.</E>
                     The authority citation for part 1 continues to read, in part, as follows:
                </AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *</P>
                </AUTH>
                <STARS/>
                <AMDPAR>
                    <E T="04">Par. 2.</E>
                     Section 1.414(w)-1 is amended by:
                </AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>a. Revising the second sentence of paragraph (b)(1); and</AMDPAR>
                <AMDPAR>b. Adding paragraph (b)(4).</AMDPAR>
                <P>The revision and addition read as follows:</P>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 1.414(w)-1</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Permissible withdrawals from eligible automatic contribution arrangements.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(b) * * *</P>
                    <P>(1) * * * Except to the extent required under section 414A (which applies to plan years beginning after December 31, 2024), an eligible automatic contribution arrangement need not cover all employees who are eligible to elect to have contributions made on their behalf under the applicable employer plan.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        (4) 
                        <E T="03">Special rules</E>
                        —(i) 
                        <E T="03">No requirement to provide notice to unenrolled participant.</E>
                         If the requirements of section 414(bb)(1) are satisfied with respect to an unenrolled participant described in section 414(bb)(2), then the requirement to give the notice of an employee's rights and obligations set forth in paragraph (b)(3) of this section does not apply to the participant.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3104"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) 
                        <E T="03">Consolidation of notices.</E>
                         The notice described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section may be combined with one or more of the notices required under section 404(c)(5)(B), 514(e)(3), or 801(d)(3)(A) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (Public Law 93-406, 88 Stat. 829), as amended, and any notice required under section 401(k)(12)(D) or (13)(E), provided that the combined notice—
                    </P>
                    <P>(A) Includes the required content,</P>
                    <P>(B) Clearly identifies the issues addressed therein,</P>
                    <P>(C) Is furnished at the time and with the frequency required for each notice,</P>
                    <P>(D) Is presented in a manner that is reasonably calculated to be understood by the average plan participant, and</P>
                    <P>(E) Does not obscure or fail to highlight the primary information required for each notice.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>
                    <E T="04">Par. 3.</E>
                     Section 1.414A-1 is added to read as follows:
                </AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 1.414A-1 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Automatic enrollment requirements under section 414A.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Overview.</E>
                         This section provides rules regarding the automatic enrollment requirements under section 414A. Paragraph (b) of this section provides that a plan that includes a qualified cash or deferred arrangement under section 401(k) or a salary reduction agreement under section 403(b) is required to satisfy the automatic enrollment requirements of paragraph (c) of this section unless an exception described in paragraph (d) of this section (for certain types of plans and businesses) or paragraph (e) of this section (for a cash or deferred arrangement or section 403(b) plan established before December 29, 2022) applies to the plan. The applicability date of section 414A and the applicability date of this section are set forth in paragraph (f) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">General rule</E>
                        —(1) 
                        <E T="03">Qualified cash or deferred arrangements.</E>
                         Except as provided in paragraph (d) or (e) of this section, a cash or deferred arrangement will not be treated as a qualified cash or deferred arrangement described in § 1.401(k)-1(a)(4)(i) for a plan year unless the plan that includes the arrangement provides that any cash or deferred election under the arrangement must satisfy the automatic enrollment requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Section 403(b) plans with salary reduction agreements.</E>
                         Except as provided in paragraph (d) or (e) of this section, an annuity contract described in section 403(b) that is purchased pursuant to a salary reduction agreement described in § 31.3121(a)(5)-2(a)(1) (that is, an election to reduce compensation pursuant to a cash or deferred election as defined in § 1.401(k)-1(a)(3)) will not be treated as purchased under a section 403(b) plan for a plan year unless the plan provides that any salary reduction agreement under the plan must satisfy the automatic enrollment requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Automatic enrollment requirements</E>
                        —(1) 
                        <E T="03">In general</E>
                        —(i) 
                        <E T="03">Arrangement must be an eligible automatic contribution arrangement.</E>
                         A cash or deferred arrangement or salary reduction agreement under a plan satisfies the automatic enrollment requirements of this paragraph (c) only if the plan provides for an eligible automatic contribution arrangement (as defined in section 414(w)(3)) that—
                    </P>
                    <P>(A) Covers the employees described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, and</P>
                    <P>(B) Satisfies the additional requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) through (4) of this section.</P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) 
                        <E T="03">Employees covered under the eligible automatic contribution arrangement.</E>
                         The employees who must be covered by the eligible automatic contribution arrangement are all employees in the plan who are eligible to elect to have contributions made on their behalf under a cash or deferred arrangement or pursuant to a salary reduction agreement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (iii) 
                        <E T="03">Exception to default election for employees with an affirmative election.</E>
                         An eligible automatic contribution arrangement will not fail to satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (c) merely because the default election under the arrangement does not apply to an employee who, on the date paragraph (b) of this section first applies to the plan that includes the cash or deferred arrangement or salary reduction agreement, had an affirmative election in effect (that remains in effect) to—
                    </P>
                    <P>(A) Have contributions made on the employee's behalf under a cash or deferred election or a salary reduction agreement (in a specified amount or percentage of compensation); or</P>
                    <P>(B) Not have contributions made on the employee's behalf under a cash or deferred election or a salary reduction agreement.</P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Arrangement must permit permissive withdrawals.</E>
                         An eligible automatic contribution arrangement satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (c)(2) only if the plan that includes the arrangement provides that any employee who has default elective contributions made under the arrangement may elect to make a permissible withdrawal (as defined in section 414(w)(2) and described in § 1.414(w)-1(c)).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (3) 
                        <E T="03">Contribution requirements</E>
                        —(i) 
                        <E T="03">Default election.</E>
                         An eligible automatic contribution arrangement under a plan satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (c)(3) only if, under the arrangement, the default election made on behalf of an employee is equal to a uniform percentage, as described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section, of the employee's compensation that is subject to a cash or deferred election or salary reduction arrangement under the plan, unless the employee affirmatively elects to—
                    </P>
                    <P>(A) Have contributions made in a different amount on the employee's behalf under a cash or deferred election or a salary reduction agreement (in a specified amount or percentage of compensation); or</P>
                    <P>(B) Not have contributions made on the employee's behalf under a cash or deferred election or a salary reduction agreement.</P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) 
                        <E T="03">Uniform percentage</E>
                        —(A) 
                        <E T="03">Initial period</E>
                        —(
                        <E T="03">1</E>
                        ) 
                        <E T="03">Initial percentage.</E>
                         The contribution percentage under the default election for each employee's initial period must be a uniform percentage that is not less than 3 percent and not more than 10 percent.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (
                        <E T="03">2</E>
                        ) 
                        <E T="03">Beginning of initial period.</E>
                         An employee's initial period begins when the employee is first eligible to elect to have contributions made on the employee's behalf under the plan (or if later, when section 414A first applies to the plan).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (
                        <E T="03">3</E>
                        ) 
                        <E T="03">End of initial period.</E>
                         The employee's initial period ends on the last day of the plan year that follows the plan year that includes the date the initial period begins.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (B) 
                        <E T="03">Subsequent plan years.</E>
                         For each plan year beginning after an employee's initial period under the arrangement, the percentage contribution under the default election must be increased by 1 percentage point until the percentage is at least 10 percent. However, the percentage may not exceed 15 percent (or the lower percentage specified in section 414A(b)(3)(B), if applicable).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (iii) 
                        <E T="03">Exception to uniform percentage requirement.</E>
                         An eligible automatic contribution arrangement does not fail to satisfy the uniform percentage requirement of paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section merely because—
                    </P>
                    <P>(A) The percentage used for the default election varies based on the number of years (or portions of years) since the beginning of the initial period for an employee;</P>
                    <P>
                        (B) The rate of contributions under a cash or deferred election or salary reduction agreement that is in effect for 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3105"/>
                        an employee immediately prior to the date that the default election under paragraph (c) of this section first applies to the employee is not reduced;
                    </P>
                    <P>(C) The rate of contributions under a cash or deferred election or salary reduction agreement is limited so as not to exceed the applicable limits of sections 401(a)(17), 401(k)(16), 402(g) (determined with or without catch-up contributions), 403(b)(16), and 415; or</P>
                    <P>(D) The default election provided under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section is not applied during the period an employee is not permitted to have contributions made on the employee's behalf under a cash or deferred election or salary reduction agreement in order for the plan to satisfy the requirements of section 414(u)(12)(B)(ii).</P>
                    <P>
                        (iv) 
                        <E T="03">Treatment of periods without default contributions</E>
                        —(A) 
                        <E T="03">Permissive redetermination of initial period in certain situations.</E>
                         The uniform percentages described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section are based on the date an employee's initial period begins. However, if, after the employee's initial period began, the employee did not have default elective contributions made for an entire plan year, then the plan is permitted to provide that the employee's initial period is redetermined as described in paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(B) or (C) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (B) 
                        <E T="03">Redetermination for employee who became ineligible.</E>
                         If, for an entire plan year, no default elective contributions were made solely because the employee was not eligible to elect to have contributions made on the employee's behalf under a cash or deferred election or salary reduction agreement for that plan year, then the plan is permitted to provide that the employee's initial period is redetermined so that it begins on the date the employee is again eligible to elect to have contributions made on the employee's behalf under the plan.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (C) 
                        <E T="03">Redetermination for employee who remained eligible and made an affirmative election.</E>
                         If, for an entire plan year, no default elective contributions were made solely because the employee made an affirmative election to have contributions made on the employee's behalf under a cash or deferred election or salary reduction agreement in a different amount (including an election not to have contributions made), then the plan is permitted to provide that the initial period is redetermined so that it begins on any date specified under the plan that is later than the date specified in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A)(
                        <E T="03">3</E>
                        ) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (4) 
                        <E T="03">Investment requirements.</E>
                         An eligible automatic contribution arrangement satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (c)(4) only if amounts contributed pursuant to the arrangement, and for which no investment is elected by the employee, are invested in accordance with the requirements of 29 CFR 2550.404c-5 (or any successor regulations).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (d) 
                        <E T="03">Exceptions for certain types of plans and businesses</E>
                        —(1) 
                        <E T="03">SIMPLE 401(k) plans.</E>
                         Paragraph (b) of this section does not apply to any SIMPLE 401(k) plan (as described in section 401(k)(11) and § 1.401(k)-4).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Governmental plans.</E>
                         Paragraph (b) of this section does not apply to any governmental plan (within the meaning of section 414(d)).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (3) 
                        <E T="03">Church plans.</E>
                         Paragraph (b) of this section does not apply to any church plan (within the meaning of section 414(e)).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (4) 
                        <E T="03">New and small businesses</E>
                        —(i) 
                        <E T="03">New businesses.</E>
                         Paragraph (b) of this section does not apply to any qualified cash or deferred arrangement, or any annuity contract purchased under a section 403(b) plan, for a plan year if, as of the beginning of the plan year, the employer maintaining the plan (aggregated with any predecessor employer) has been in existence for less than 3 years.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) 
                        <E T="03">Small businesses.</E>
                         Paragraph (b) of this section does not apply to any qualified cash or deferred arrangement, or any annuity contract purchased under a section 403(b) plan, before the first plan year that begins at least 12 months after the close of the first taxable year of the employer maintaining the plan with respect to which that employer normally employed more than 10 employees. For this purpose, the number of employees that the employer normally employs for a taxable year is determined using the rules of Q&amp;A-5 of § 54.4980B-2 of this chapter.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (iii) 
                        <E T="03">Applicability to multiple employer plans.</E>
                         In the case of a multiple employer plan, the exceptions provided in paragraphs (d)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section apply on an employer-by-employer basis.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (iv) 
                        <E T="03">Example</E>
                        —(A) 
                        <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                         Employer Q has been in existence since July 1, 2026, and does not have a predecessor employer. Employer Q maintains Plan X, which has a plan year that is the calendar year and includes a cash or deferred arrangement. Plan X was effective on January 1, 2027, and provides that a cash or deferred election must be an affirmative election. Employee M, who became eligible to elect to have contributions made on Employee M's behalf under Plan X on January 1, 2027, made an affirmative election not to have elective contributions made on Employee M's behalf and that affirmative election is in effect on January 1, 2030. Employee N, who also became eligible to elect to have contributions made on Employee N's behalf under Plan X on January 1, 2027, has not made any election to have (or not have) contributions made on Employee N's behalf under Plan X. Effective January 1, 2030, Plan X is amended to include an eligible automatic contribution arrangement that satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) through (4) of this section. The amendment provides that an employee who has a cash or deferred election that is an affirmative election and is in effect on January 1, 2030, is not subject to the default election under the eligible automatic contribution arrangement that is included in Plan X.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (B) 
                        <E T="03">Analysis and Conclusion.</E>
                         Because the exception for new businesses set forth in paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section ceases to apply to Plan X for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2030, paragraph (b) of this section first applies to Plan X as of that date. Pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, the eligible automatic contribution arrangement required to be included in Plan X for plan years beginning on January 1, 2030, does not fail to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section merely because the default election under the arrangement does not apply to Employee M as a result of Employee M's affirmative election. However, Plan X does not satisfy the requirements of section 414A unless the default election in paragraph (c)(3) of this section applies to Employee N because of the absence of an affirmative election made by Employee N to have elective contributions made on Employee N's behalf in a different amount (or to not have elective contributions made on Employee N's behalf).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (e) 
                        <E T="03">Exception for plans established before the enactment of section 414A—</E>
                        (1) 
                        <E T="03">In general.</E>
                         Subject to the rules of application in paragraphs (e)(2) through (6) of this section, paragraph (b) of this section does not apply to—
                    </P>
                    <P>(i) Any plan that includes a qualified cash or deferred arrangement if the plan terms providing for the qualified cash or deferred arrangement were adopted initially before December 29, 2022 (the date of the enactment of section 414A), even if the plan terms providing for the cash or deferred arrangement are effective after that date, or</P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) Any section 403(b) plan adopted initially before December 29, 2022, without regard to the date of adoption of plan terms providing for salary reduction agreements.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3106"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Merger of plans established before the enactment of section 414A</E>
                        —(i) 
                        <E T="03">General rule.</E>
                         If two plans described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section are merged, then the merged plan will be treated as a plan described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section. Similarly, if two section 403(b) plans described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section are merged, then the merged plan will be treated as a section 403(b) plan described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) 
                        <E T="03">Effect of merger of multiple employer plans on participating employers.</E>
                         If either of the plans described in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section are multiple employer plans, then the merger will not affect whether the merged plan is treated as a plan described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section with respect to any employer that maintained the multiple employer plan prior to the merger.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (3) 
                        <E T="03">Merger of a plan established on or after the enactment of section 414A with a plan established before the enactment of section 414A</E>
                        —(i) 
                        <E T="03">General rule</E>
                        —(A) 
                        <E T="03">Section 401(k) plans.</E>
                         Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(3)(ii), (iii), and (4)(ii) of this section, if a plan that includes a cash or deferred arrangement and that is not described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section is merged with a plan described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section, then the merged plan will not be treated as a plan described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (B) 
                        <E T="03">Section 403(b) plans.</E>
                         Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(3)(ii), (iii), and (4)(ii) of this section, if a section 403(b) plan that is not described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section is merged with a plan described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section, then the merged plan will not be treated as a plan described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) 
                        <E T="03">Exception for certain transactions.</E>
                         A plan that is maintained by a single employer and described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section will continue to be treated as described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section after a merger described in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section, if—
                    </P>
                    <P>(A) There is a transaction described in § 1.410(b)-2(f),</P>
                    <P>(B) The plan described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section is designated as the ongoing plan, and</P>
                    <P>(C) The plan merger occurs within the transition period described in section 410(b)(6)(C)(ii).</P>
                    <P>
                        (iii) 
                        <E T="03">Applicability to multiple employer plans—</E>
                        (A) 
                        <E T="03">Applicability of exception for certain transactions involving a merger into a multiple employer plan.</E>
                         In the case of a merger of a plan that is not a multiple employer plan and not described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section into a multiple employer plan that is designated as the ongoing plan, paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section applies even though the ongoing plan is a multiple employer plan and without regard to whether that plan is a plan described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, provided that prior to the transaction described in paragraph (e)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, the multiple employer plan was treated as a plan described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section with respect to the employer that maintained the multiple employer plan and engaged in the transaction.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (B) 
                        <E T="03">Merger of multiple employer plans.</E>
                         If both of the plans described in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section are multiple employer plans, then the exception in paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section does not apply. In such a case, the merger will not affect whether the merged plan is treated as a plan described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section with respect to any employer that maintained either multiple employer plan prior to the merger.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (4) 
                        <E T="03">Treatment of adoption of, or merger with, a multiple employer plan</E>
                        —(i) 
                        <E T="03">In general.</E>
                         If, after December 29, 2022, an employer adopts a multiple employer plan, then, with respect to that employer, the multiple employer plan will not be treated as a plan described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section. The same treatment will apply if the employer maintains a plan other than a multiple employer plan that is merged with a multiple employer plan after December 29, 2022, unless the merger is described in paragraph (e)(3)(iii) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) 
                        <E T="03">Exception for mergers involving plans established before the enactment of section 414A.</E>
                         Paragraph (e)(4)(i) of this section does not apply if the plan that is merged into the multiple employer plan is a plan described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section. Thus, if the employer maintains a plan described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section that is merged into the multiple employer plan after December 29, 2022, then the multiple employer plan will be treated as a plan described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section with respect to that employer.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (iii) 
                        <E T="03">Effect on other participating employers.</E>
                         Neither an adoption nor a merger described in paragraph (e)(4)(i) or (ii) of this section affects whether the multiple employer plan is treated as a plan described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section with respect to any other employer maintaining the plan.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (5) 
                        <E T="03">Plan spin-off.</E>
                         If a portion of a plan described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section is spun off from that plan, the resulting spun-off plan will be treated as a plan described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section if either—
                    </P>
                    <P>(i) The plan from which the spin-off occurred was not a multiple employer plan, or</P>
                    <P>(ii) The plan from which the spin-off occurred was a multiple employer plan that was treated as described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section with respect to the employer maintaining the spun-off plan.</P>
                    <P>
                        (6) 
                        <E T="03">Other plan amendments—</E>
                        (i) 
                        <E T="03">Treatment of amendments to a plan established before the enactment of section 414A.</E>
                         A plan described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section will not fail to be described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section merely because the plan is amended, provided that the amendment is not an amendment relating to an action described in paragraph (e)(2), (3), or (4) of this section. The preceding sentence applies even if the amendment expands eligibility to participate in the cash or deferred arrangement, or to enter into a salary reduction agreement, to other employees of the employer that maintains the plan or to employees of another employer that is aggregated with the employer that maintains the plan under section 414(b), (c), or (m).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) 
                        <E T="03">Mergers with plans that do not include cash or deferred arrangements or salary reduction agreements.</E>
                         If an employer maintains a plan that is described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section and that plan is merged with a plan that does not include a cash or deferred arrangement or permit a salary reduction agreement, then the merged plan will continue to be a plan described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section after the merger.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (7) 
                        <E T="03">Examples.</E>
                         The following examples illustrate the application of this paragraph (e). For purposes of the examples, each plan is maintained on a calendar-year basis, includes a cash or deferred arrangement that was adopted on the same date that the plan was adopted, and is not a SIMPLE 401(k) plan, governmental plan, or church plan. These examples assume that this section applies for plan years beginning on or after January 1, 2026, and, unless otherwise specifically provided, any plan merger does not occur in connection with a transaction described in § 1.410(b)-2(f).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (i) 
                        <E T="03">Example 1—</E>
                        (A) 
                        <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                         Plan A, which is maintained by a single employer, Employer R, was adopted on January 1, 2021. Plan B, which is maintained by a single employer, Employer S, was adopted on January 1, 2025. On July 1, 2026, Plan A is merged 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3107"/>
                        with Plan B, and Plan A is the surviving plan in the merger.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (B) 
                        <E T="03">Analysis and conclusion.</E>
                         The merger is a merger of a plan described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section with a plan that is not described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section and is not a merger described in paragraph (e)(3)(ii) or (4) of this section. Under paragraph (e)(3)(i)(A) of this section, Plan A will no longer be a plan described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section and will be subject to paragraph (b) of this section after the merger (unless an exception described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section, relating to new or small businesses, applies to Employer R).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (ii) 
                        <E T="03">Example 2</E>
                        —(A) 
                        <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                         The facts are the same as in paragraph (e)(7)(i) of this section (
                        <E T="03">Example 1</E>
                        ), except that there is an acquisition described in § 1.410(b)-2(f), and the plan merger occurs within the transition period described in section 410(b)(6)(C)(ii).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (B) 
                        <E T="03">Analysis and conclusion.</E>
                         The merger satisfies the requirements of paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section. Accordingly, Plan A will continue to be excepted from paragraph (b) of this section as a plan described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section after the merger.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (iii) 
                        <E T="03">Example 3</E>
                        —(A) 
                        <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                         Plan C, a multiple employer plan, was established on January 1, 2021. Plan D, a plan maintained by Employer T that is not a multiple employer plan, was adopted on January 1, 2024. Plan D merges with Plan C on December 31, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (B) 
                        <E T="03">Analysis and conclusion.</E>
                         The merger is described in paragraph (e)(4)(i) of this section and because Plan D is not a plan described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section, the merger is not excepted under paragraph (e)(4)(ii) of this section. Similarly, because there was no transaction described in § 1.410(b)-2(f), the merger is not described in paragraph (e)(3)(iii) of this section. Accordingly, with respect to Employer T, Plan C will not be a plan described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section and will be subject to paragraph (b) of this section after the merger (unless an exception described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section, relating to new or small businesses, continues to apply to Employer T). However, under paragraph (e)(4)(iii) of this section, the merger does not affect whether Plan C is treated as a plan described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section with respect to any other employers.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (iv) 
                        <E T="03">Example 4</E>
                        —(A) 
                        <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                         Plan E, a plan maintained by Employer U that is not a multiple employer plan, was adopted on January 1, 2021. Plan F, a multiple employer plan, was established on January 1, 2024. Plan E merges with Plan F on December 31, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (B) 
                        <E T="03">Analysis and conclusion.</E>
                         Under paragraph (e)(4)(ii) of this section, the portion of Plan F that applies with respect to Employer U will continue to be excepted from paragraph (b) of this section as a plan described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section after the merger. However, under paragraph (e)(4)(iii) of this section, the merger does not affect whether Plan F is treated as a plan described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section with respect to any other employers.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (v) 
                        <E T="03">Example 5</E>
                        —(A) 
                        <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                         Plan G, a plan maintained by Employer V that is not a multiple employer plan, was adopted on January 1, 2021. Plan G is amended, effective January 1, 2026, to add an additional participating employer, a subsidiary that is 100 percent owned by Employer V.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (B) 
                        <E T="03">Analysis and conclusion.</E>
                         Because the expansion of eligibility is not an amendment relating to an action described in paragraph (e)(2), (3), or (4) of this section, Plan G will continue to be excepted from paragraph (b) of this section as a plan described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section after the amendment pursuant to paragraph (e)(6)(i) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (vi) 
                        <E T="03">Example 6</E>
                        —(A) 
                        <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                         Plan J, a multiple employer plan, was established on January 1, 2021. Employer W adopts Plan J on January 1, 2022. Effective January 1, 2026, the assets and account balances attributable to the employees of Employer W are spun off to form a new plan, Plan K, maintained solely by Employer W.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (B) 
                        <E T="03">Analysis and Conclusion.</E>
                         Under paragraph (e)(5)(ii) of this section, Plan K will be excepted from paragraph (b) of this section as a plan described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (f) 
                        <E T="03">Applicability dates—</E>
                        (1) 
                        <E T="03">Statutory applicability date.</E>
                         Section 414A applies to plan years beginning after December 31, 2024.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Regulatory applicability date.</E>
                         This section applies to plan years beginning after [DATE SIX MONTHS AFTER DATE OF PUBLICATION OF FINAL RULE]. For earlier plan years, a plan is treated as having complied with section 414A if the plan complies with a reasonable, good faith interpretation of section 414A.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Douglas W. O'Donnell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Commissioner.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00501 Filed 1-10-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4830-01-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <CFR>40 CFR Part 751</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OPPT-2021-0277; FRL-8331-02-OCSPP]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 2070-AK87</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>C.I. Pigment Violet 29 (PV29); Regulation Under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA or Agency) is proposing to address the unreasonable risk of injury to human health presented by C.I. Pigment Violet 29 (CASRN 81-33-4, also known as PV29), under its conditions of use as documented in EPA's January 2021 Risk Evaluation for PV29 and the September 2022 Revised Risk Determination for PV29 prepared under TSCA. TSCA requires that EPA address by rule any unreasonable risk of injury to health or the environment identified in a TSCA risk evaluation and apply requirements to the extent necessary so the chemical no longer presents unreasonable risk. To address the identified unreasonable risk, EPA is proposing requirements to protect workers from the unreasonable risk of PV29 during manufacturing and processing, certain industrial and commercial uses of the chemical, and disposal, while also allowing for a reasonable transition period prior to enforcement of said requirements.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before February 28, 2025. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA), comments on the information collection provisions are best assured of consideration if the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) receives a copy of your comments on or before February 13, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPPT-2021-0277, online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Additional instructions on commenting or visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <PRTPAGE P="3108"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">For technical information:</E>
                         Carolyn Mottley, Existing Chemicals Risk Management Division (7404M), Office of Pollution Prevention and Toxics, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number (202) 566-1955; email address: 
                        <E T="03">mottley.carolyn@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">For general information:</E>
                         The TSCA-Hotline, ABVI-Goodwill, 422 South Clinton Ave., Rochester, NY 14620; telephone number: (202) 554-1404; email address: 
                        <E T="03">TSCA-Hotline@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Executive Summary</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Does this action apply to me?</HD>
                <P>You may be potentially affected by this action if you manufacture (defined under TSCA to include import), process, distribute in commerce, use, or dispose of PV29. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive, but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities include:</P>
                <P>• Synthetic Dye and Pigment Manufacturing (NAICS code 325130);</P>
                <P>• Plastics Material and Resin Manufacturing (NAICS code 325211);</P>
                <P>• Other Basic Inorganic Chemical Manufacturing (NAICS code 325180);</P>
                <P>• Paint and Coating Manufacturing (NAICS code 325510);</P>
                <P>• Custom Compounding of Purchased Resins (NAICS code 325991);</P>
                <P>• Automobile and Light Duty Motor Vehicle Manufacturing (NAICS code 336110);</P>
                <P>• Motor Vehicle Body Manufacturing (NAICS code 336211);</P>
                <P>• Automotive Body, Paint, and Interior Repair and Maintenance (NAICS code 811121);</P>
                <P>• Printing Ink Manufacturing (NAICS code 325910);</P>
                <P>• Motor Vehicle Parts (Used) Merchant Wholesalers (NAICS code 423140);</P>
                <P>• Recyclable Material Merchant Wholesalers (NAICS code 423930);</P>
                <P>• Carpet and Rug Mills (NAICS code 314110);</P>
                <P>• All Other Miscellaneous Textile Product Mills (NAICS code 314999);</P>
                <P>• Artificial and Synthetic Fibers and Filaments Manufacturing (NAICS code 325220);</P>
                <P>• Floor Covering Retailers (NAICS code 449121);</P>
                <P>• Materials Recovery Facilities (NAICS code 562920);</P>
                <P>• Sewage Treatment Facilities (NAICS code 221320);</P>
                <P>• Solid Waste Collection (NAICS code 562111);</P>
                <P>• Solid Waste Landfill (NAICS code 562212;</P>
                <P>• Solid Waste Combustors and Incinerators (NAICS code 562213); and</P>
                <P>• Other Nonhazardous Waste Treatment and Disposal (NAICS code 562219).</P>
                <P>
                    This action may also affect certain entities subject to import certification and export notification rules under TSCA (
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/tsca-import-export-requirements</E>
                    ). Persons who import any chemical substance in bulk form, as part of a mixture, or as part of an article (if required by rule) are subject to the TSCA section 13 (15 U.S.C. 2612) import certification requirements and the corresponding regulations at 19 CFR 12.118 through 12.127; see also 19 CFR 127.28. Those persons must certify that the shipment of the chemical substance complies with all applicable rules and orders under TSCA. The EPA policy in support of import certification appears at 40 CFR part 707, subpart B. In addition, any persons who export or intend to export a chemical substance that is the subject of this proposed rule are subject to the export notification provisions of TSCA section 12(b) (15 U.S.C. 2611(b)) and must comply with the export notification requirements in 40 CFR part 707, subpart D.
                </P>
                <P>
                    If you have any questions regarding the applicability of this proposed action to a particular entity, consult the technical information contact listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. What is the Agency's authority for taking this action?</HD>
                <P>Under TSCA section 6(a) (15 U.S.C. 2605(a)), if EPA determines through a TSCA section 6(b) risk evaluation that a chemical substance presents an unreasonable risk of injury to health or the environment, EPA must by rule apply one or more requirements listed in TSCA section 6(a) to the extent necessary so that the chemical substance or mixture no longer presents such risk.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. What action is the Agency taking?</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to TSCA section 6(b), EPA determined that PV29 presents an unreasonable risk of injury to health, without consideration of costs or other nonrisk factors, including an unreasonable risk to potentially exposed or susceptible subpopulations (PESS) identified as relevant to the Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 (2021 Risk Evaluation for PV29), under the conditions of use (Refs. 1, 2). The term “conditions of use” is defined in TSCA section 3(4) (15 U.S.C. 2602(4)) to mean the circumstances under which a chemical substance is intended, known, or reasonably foreseen to be manufactured, processed, distributed in commerce, used, or disposed of. A detailed description of the conditions of use that contribute to EPA's determination that PV29 presents an unreasonable risk is provided in Unit III.B. Accordingly, to address the unreasonable risk, EPA is proposing, under TSCA section 6(a) to:</P>
                <P>(i) Require use of assigned protection factor (APF) 50 respirators and equipment and area cleaning to address the risk from inhalation exposure to dry powder PV29 (also referred to as regulated PV29), where dry powder PV29 is expected to be present, for the following conditions of use, as outlined in Unit IV.A.1:</P>
                <P>• Domestic manufacture;</P>
                <P>• Import;</P>
                <P>• Incorporation into formulation, mixture or reaction products in paints and coatings;</P>
                <P>• Incorporation into formulation, mixture or reaction products in plastic and rubber products; and</P>
                <P>• Intermediate in the creation or adjustment of color of other perylene pigments;</P>
                <P>• Recycling;</P>
                <P>• Industrial and commercial use in automobile (original equipment manufacturer (OEM) and refinishing) paints and coatings;</P>
                <P>• Industrial and commercial use in coatings and basecoats paints and coatings;</P>
                <P>• Industrial and commercial use in merchant ink for commercial printing; and</P>
                <P>• Disposal.</P>
                <P>(ii) Require manufacturers (including importers), processors, and distributors in commerce of regulated PV29 to provide downstream notification of the requirements, as outlined in Unit IV.A.2.</P>
                <P>(iii) Require recordkeeping, as outlined in Unit IV.A.2.</P>
                <P>
                    EPA notes that not all TSCA conditions of use of PV29 are subject to this proposal. As described in the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 (Ref. 1) and the September 2022 revised unreasonable risk determination (Ref. 2), four conditions of use of PV29 do not contribute to the unreasonable risk: distribution in commerce; industrial/commercial use in plastic and rubber products—automobile plastics; industrial/commercial use in plastic and rubber products—industrial carpeting; and consumer use in professional quality watercolor and acrylic artist paint. Consumer use in professional quality watercolor and acrylic artist 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3109"/>
                    paint was the only consumer condition of use evaluated as part of the 2021 PV29 Risk Evaluation. EPA is requesting public comment on all aspects of this proposal.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Why is the Agency taking this action?</HD>
                <P>Under TSCA section 6(a), “[i]f the Administrator determines in accordance with subsection (b)(4)(A) that the manufacture, processing, distribution in commerce, use or disposal of a chemical substance or mixture, or that any combination of such activities, presents an unreasonable risk of injury to health or the environment, the Administrator shall by rule . . . apply one or more of the [section 6(a)] requirements to such substance or mixture to the extent necessary so that the chemical substance or mixture no longer presents such risk.” PV29 was the subject of a risk evaluation under TSCA section 6(b)(4)(A) that was issued in January 2021 (Ref. 1). In addition, EPA issued a revised unreasonable risk determination for PV29 in September 2022 (Ref. 2), determining that PV29, through a single risk determination for the chemical substance under its conditions of use, presents an unreasonable risk of injury to health under the conditions of use. As a result, EPA is proposing to take action to the extent necessary so that PV29 no longer presents such risk. The unreasonable risk and the conditions of use that contribute to the unreasonable risk are described in Unit III.B.</P>
                <P>The 2022 Revised Unreasonable Risk Determination for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 reaffirmed that the same 10 conditions of use found to present unreasonable risk of injury to health in the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 contribute to the unreasonable risk of injury to health as a single chemical substance. As part of the rulemaking process, EPA is required to assess the potential impact of its regulations on small businesses through the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA), which amended the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA). Since regulation of PV29 under TSCA was expected to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, also referred to as SISNOSE, EPA convened a Small Business Advocacy Review (SBAR) Panel to ensure future regulation of PV29 would have minimal impact on small businesses' operation while maximizing protection of human health. Small businesses selected for the panel, referred to as Small Entity Representatives (SERs), provided comments to the Agency to describe how a PV29 regulation would impact their operations, including their use of PV29, current protections taken when using PV29 in their facilities, and how possible regulatory options the Agency could take would impact their operations.</P>
                <P>Comments from multiple (ink, disposal, paint, and manufacturing) SERs during the SBAR Panel indicated that, in their experience, once a pigment is incorporated into a matrix, it no longer retains its original properties. For example, the statement from SERs would imply that dry powder PV29 would not have the same toxicological profile as PV29 mixed into paint, similar to the Proposition 65 warning position from California's EPA for titanium dioxide, which includes “airborne, unbound particles of respirable size” and states that the warning does not cover titanium dioxide when it remains bound within a product matrix (Ref. 3). One commenter cited the Proposition 65 warnings for Carbon Black in California, where the risk to human health for the pigment is limited to “airborne, unbound particles of respirable size.” EPA's interpretation of the comment and the Proposition 65 warning is that after the pigment is mixed into solution, there are no further human health inhalation risks of concern (Refs. 3, 4).</P>
                <P>Information provided by SERs and their representatives during the SBAR panel process indicates encapsulating PV29 into pigment for a paint requires dispersants and a dispersion medium to be mixed with pigment, and once PV29 is incorporated into paint, it does not retain its dry particle properties. In addition, in a memo written by the Agency to clarify assertions made in the 2021 Risk Evaluation, once PV29 is encapsulated into plastics, paints, and inks, it is not expected to be reactive or leachable, and thus would not be biologically available (Ref. 5). For the purpose of risk management, EPA has interpreted this statement to mean that encapsulated PV29 will not present the same human health hazards as dry powder PV29. This information was factored into the development of the proposed regulatory options for PV29.</P>
                <P>The Agency recognizes that strict workplace controls can be implemented to address unreasonable risk of PV29. For these reasons, this rule proposes to allow PV29's continued use, with additional worker protection for the conditions of use where PV29 is used in a dry powder form. This proposed approach will address the unreasonable risk of injury to health presented by PV29 to the extent necessary so that the chemical no longer presents unreasonable risk.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. What are the estimated incremental impacts of this action?</HD>
                <P>EPA's Economic Analysis of the estimated incremental impacts associated with this rulemaking can be found in the rulemaking docket (Ref. 6). As described in more detail in the Economic Analysis (Ref. 6), EPA was unable to quantify all incremental costs of this proposed rule. EPA's estimate of the costs of this proposed rule are estimated to range from $1.6 million to $1.7 million per year annualized over 15-years at a 2% discount rate (Ref. 6). Cost estimates are described in this Unit and more fully in Section 4 of the Economic Analysis. The cost estimates for the proposed rule include costs of rule familiarization, labeling and downstream notification, PPE, and equipment cleaning. PPE cost estimates are estimated as incremental to baseline conditions and include the costs of the equipment itself, as well as the costs of a medical evaluation, fit testing, and equipment cleaning that ensure proper use and maintenance of the PPE. There may be some unquantified costs associated with respirator use and estimates of numbers of facilities importing or using regulated PV29. The extent to which respirators might reduce worker productivity or necessitate offering higher wages to workers who must wear respirators is unknown and therefore unquantified in the Economic Analysis.</P>
                <P>
                    Unit IV. details which actions apply to which conditions of use. EPA estimates that 22 firms associated with 22 sites may be manufacturing (including importing), processing, or using regulated (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     dry powder) PV29. A single domestic firm is manufacturing and selling regulated PV29 and EPA has identified a single importer of regulated PV29, and assumes the importer uses the PV29 and does not resell PV29. Twenty firms are estimated to use but not resell regulated PV29. Therefore, EPA estimates that only one firm would be subject to the requirement to label products and provide downstream notification. Additionally, EPA estimates that approximately 50,000 firms undertake activities that fall under conditions of use subject to requirements but do not manufacture (including import), process, or use regulated PV29 when performing those activities. While these firms are not estimated to be subject to the proposed requirements because they are not expected to use dry powder PV29, they should read the proposal in order to make that determination. Information on the development of estimates of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3110"/>
                    affected facilities can be found in Section 3 of the Economic Analysis.
                </P>
                <P>EPA estimates that approximately five small entities using regulated PV29 would be subject to the requirements of the proposed rule. Additionally, EPA estimates that approximately 50,000 small businesses that may be involved in activities in affected conditions of use do not use regulated PV29 but would, nevertheless, need to familiarize themselves with the rule to determine whether there is a need to comply with specific requirements. EPA found impacts under 1% of annual revenues for all but one of the small entities.</P>
                <P>Chronic exposure to dry powder C.I. Pigment Violet 29 may increase lung burden which may result in kinetic lung overload, a pharmacokinetic phenomenon, which is not due to the overt toxicity of the chemical, but rather the possibility that C.I. Pigment Violet 29 dust overwhelms the lung clearance mechanisms over time. The inhalation toxicity data on the analogue carbon black demonstrated increased lung burden, alveolar hyperplasia, and inflammatory and morphological changes in the lower respiratory tract. These endpoints are not monetizable themselves, however there are occupational studies on carbon black that have found significant relationships between inhalable carbon black dust exposure and respiratory effects, including chronic bronchitis. Therefore, EPA's Economic Analysis provides estimates to understand the magnitude of potential chronic bronchitis cases avoided from exposure reduction to PV29 as a result of the proposed rule. The estimated monetized benefit of the proposed regulatory action ranges from approximately $271,000 to $629,000 per year annualized over 15-years at a 2% discount rate.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Overview of C.I. Pigment Violet 29</HD>
                <P>PV29 is a perylene pigment that is reddish-purple in color and is currently manufactured as a powder, slurry, or paste. It is used to dye products, such as plastics and paints, and is commonly used in automobile paints and coatings. Though PV29 was first produced in 1913, its commercialization did not occur until the late 1950s (Ref. 1). It has been recognized for its high color strength, weather fastness and heat stability. The reasons for these high-performance characteristics have been attributed to the organizational structure of the molecule (Ref. 1).</P>
                <P>EPA has identified alveolar hyperplasia (increased number of cells in the lungs where oxygen transfer occurs), inflammatory and morphological changes in the lungs from chronic inhalation exposure to PV29 in the workplace as the basis for the unreasonable risk for PV29 (Ref. 1). This proposed rule is specifically intended to address the unreasonable risk of injury to health that EPA has identified in the 2021 Risk Evaluation for PV29 and the September 2022 revised unreasonable risk determination, as described in Unit III.B.</P>
                <P>According to data collected in EPA's 2016 Chemical Data Reporting (CDR) Rule, approximately 603,500 lbs. (exclusive of imports) were manufactured in the United States in Reporting Year 2015 (Refs. 1, 6). EPA assumes that regulated PV29 is expected to be imported at unknown minor volumes under 25,000 lbs (Ref. 6). The exact production volume, including domestic manufacture and import, in the 2020 CDR was reported as confidential business information (CBI) but is estimated to be less than 1,000,000 lbs. PV29's use as a pigment in the colorant industry is described in Unit III.B.1., with a description of proposed requirements to address the unreasonable risk in Units III.B.3, and IV.A.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Regulatory Actions Pertaining to C.I. Pigment Violet 29</HD>
                <P>
                    PV29 is on multiple countries' chemical inventories but is not subject to chemical-specific statutory or regulatory restrictions in other countries and/or international treaties and/or agreements. In the United States, PV29 is regulated under the OSH Act as a Particulate Not Otherwise Regulated (PNOR) and is subject to OSHA's respirable dust requirements (29 CFR 1910.1000 Table Z-1), as there are no chemical specific requirements for PV29 (
                    <E T="03">https://www.osha.gov/chemicaldata/801</E>
                    ). PNOR substances include dust, nuisance dust, and inert dust; they are described as “dusts from solid substances” without reference to a specific CASRN (
                    <E T="03">https://www.osha.gov/chemicaldata/801</E>
                    ). Additionally, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetics Act, PV29 is approved for use as a colorant for polymers in food-related articles, such as food packaging, at or below 1 percent by weight of polymers and should follow specific conditions of use (21 CFR 178.3297). PV29 is not listed as an approved food additive (Ref. 1). PV29 is subject to CDR reporting requirements under TSCA.
                </P>
                <P>EPA did not identify information indicating that PV29 is subject to chemical-specific restrictions under state statutes or regulations implemented by state agencies or departments. A summary of the regulatory actions pertaining to PV29 can be found in Appendix A.1 of the 2021 PV29 Risk Evaluation (Ref. 1).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Summary of EPA's Risk Evaluation Activities on PV29</HD>
                <P>
                    EPA published the scope of the PV29 risk evaluation (82 FR 6545, January 19, 2017 (FRL-9958-33)), and, after receiving public comments, published the problem formulation in June 2018 (83 FR 26998, June 11, 2018 (FRL-9978-40)). In November 2018, EPA published a draft risk evaluation (83 FR 57473, November 15, 2018 (FRL-9986-45)), a revised draft risk evaluation in October 2020 (85 FR 68873, October 30, 2020 (FRL-10015-96)), and after public comment and peer review by the Science Advisory Committee on Chemicals (SACC), EPA issued the Final Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 in January 2021 in accordance with TSCA section 6(b) (86 FR 6322, January 21, 2021 (FRL-10017-50)). EPA subsequently issued a draft Revised Unreasonable Risk Determination for PV29 (87 FR 12690, March 7, 2022 (FRL-9403-01-OCSPP)), and after public notice and receipt of comments, published the Final Revised Unreasonable Risk Determination for C.I Pigment Violet 29 in September 2022 (87 FR 54491, September 6, 2022 (FRL-9403-02-OCSPP)). The 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 and supplemental materials are in docket EPA-HQ-OPPT-2018-0604, with the September 2022 revised unreasonable risk determination and additional materials supporting the risk evaluation process in docket EPA-HQ-OPPT-2016-0725, on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. 2021 Risk Evaluation</HD>
                <P>
                    In the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29, EPA evaluated risks associated with 14 conditions of use within the following life cycle stages: manufacture (including import), processing, distribution in commerce, industrial and commercial use, consumer use, and disposal (Ref. 1). Descriptions of the conditions of use that contribute to the unreasonable risk are in Unit III.B.1. The 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 identified significant adverse human health effects associated with long-term exposure to PV29, specifically alveolar hyperplasia, inflammatory and morphological changes in the lungs from chronic inhalation exposures. A further discussion of the unreasonable risk of PV29 is in Unit III.B.3.
                    <PRTPAGE P="3111"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. 2022 Revised Unreasonable Risk Determination</HD>
                <P>EPA revisited specific aspects of its first 10 TSCA existing chemical risk evaluations, including the PV29 risk evaluation, to ensure that the risk evaluations upon which risk management decisions are made were better aligned with TSCA's objective of protecting health and the environment. For PV29, EPA revised the original unreasonable risk determination based on the 2021 Risk Evaluation and issued a final revised unreasonable risk determination in September 2022 (Ref. 2). EPA revised the risk determination for the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 pursuant to TSCA section 6(b) and consistent with Executive Order 13990, (“Protecting Public Health and the Environment and Restoring Science to Tackle the Climate Crisis”) and other Biden-Harris Administration priorities (Refs. 7, 8, 9). The revisions consisted of making a single risk determination for the chemical substance instead of by individual conditions of use (which resulted in the revised risk determination superseding the prior “no unreasonable risk” determinations and the withdrawal of the associated TSCA section 6(i)(1) “no unreasonable risk” orders); and revising the risk determination to no longer reflect an assumption that all workers are always provided and appropriately wear PPE (Ref. 2).</P>
                <P>In determining whether PV29 presents unreasonable risk under the conditions of use, EPA considered relevant risk-related factors, including, but not limited to: the effects of the chemical substance on health (including non-cancer risks) and human exposure to the substance under the conditions of use (including duration, magnitude and frequency of exposure); the effects of the chemical substance on the environment and environmental exposure under the conditions of use; the population exposed (including any potentially exposed or susceptible subpopulations); the severity of hazard (including the nature of the hazard, the irreversibility of the hazard); and uncertainties.</P>
                <P>
                    EPA determined that PV29 presents an unreasonable risk of injury to human health. Inhalation exposure under 10 conditions of use contribute to the unreasonable risk of injury to health for workers and occupational non-users (ONUs, or workers who do not directly handle PV29 but perform work in an area where PV29 is present) from occupational exposures (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     during manufacture, processing, industrial and commercial uses, disposal). EPA did not identify risks of injury to the environment that contribute to the unreasonable risk for PV29. The PV29 conditions of use that contribute to EPA's determination that the chemical substance poses unreasonable risk of injury to health are listed in the unreasonable risk determination (Ref. 2) and in Unit III.B.1., with descriptions to aid chemical manufacturers, processors, and users in determining how their particular use or activity would be addressed under the proposed regulatory provisions.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Additional Information Received During Risk Management</HD>
                <P>Following the publication of the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29, the Agency received information from stakeholders during the public comment period after publication of the draft revised risk determination, the SBAR process, and through additional meetings with stakeholders (Ref. 10, 3, 11). This information was considered as part of the development of the proposed and primary alternative regulatory actions and was used to further identify where occupational worker and ONU exposure to dry powder PV29 occurs.</P>
                <P>As part of this rulemaking, EPA would like to clarify that the unreasonable risk is due to inhalation exposure to dry powder PV29 and not to PV29 already incorporated into a liquid mixture, such as wet paint or ink. This clarification is needed in part due to a more robust understanding of the PV29 downstream uses through information provided by small entity representatives and through EPA analysis as noted in EPA's memorandum described in this document (Ref. 5) and further consideration of the listing of carbon black under Proposition 65 in California (Ref. 4). In the response to comments for the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29, EPA stated that the risk of injury to health was present for PV29 in its dry powder form and when in solution or a mixture, such as wet or dry paint (Ref. 12). This included potential risk of injury to health from inhalation exposure to paint containing PV29 during automotive spray painting, sanding, grinding, and repair service activities (Ref. 12). This assertion was repeated in the response to comments for the 2022 Draft Revised Unreasonable Risk Determination in reference to automotive paint, where the Agency explained its belief that other automotive spray painting, sanding, grinding, and repair services expose workers and ONUs to PV29 aerosolized particles due to disturbance of previously painted surfaces through airborne distribution and that these exposures are drivers of the unreasonable risk presented by PV29 (Ref. 10, p. 28).</P>
                <P>In the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29, EPA stated that PV29 present in dried paint and plastic products is expected to be encapsulated and available physical and chemical property information indicates that due to a low solubility in water and octanol, it is not expected to leach out (Ref. 1, p. 59). EPA also stated in the TSCA risk evaluation for PV29 that PV29 is not expected to be reactive or leachable either as a neat material or encapsulated in plastics or paint resins (Ref. 1, p. 65). The statements in the risk evaluation support the conclusion that, pigments with a dry powder form like PV29, including carbon black, do not present the same inhalation exposure risk after they are mixed into solution and encapsulated such that PV29 particles cannot be released. Carbon black was the analogue used for PV29's toxicity in the 2021 PV29 risk evaluation. Commenters during the SBAR Panel meeting specifically mentioned the Proposition 65 regulation in California, where carbon black is listed as a carcinogen specifically for airborne, unbound particles of respirable size (Ref. 3, 4). Similar to the statements about encapsulation of PV29 in the TSCA risk evaluation, the Carbon Black Proposition 65 Listing Notice stated that exposure to carbon black, per se, does not occur when it remains bound within a product matrix, such as rubber, ink or paint (Ref. 4).</P>
                <P>EPA has issued a memo (Ref. 5), in which the Agency provides clarity about exposure-related statements made since the publication of the risk evaluation. This memo states that the risk assessed in the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 is based on the analogue carbon black and is associated with inhalation exposures of PV29 in manufacturing and processing as particles in the dry powder form. Exposure to paint aerosols containing PV29 was not assessed in the risk evaluation. The conclusions of the memo are supported by the following sections of the risk evaluation which note that PV29 encapsulated in plastics, paints, and inks are not expected to be reactive or leachable, and therefore, not likely to be biologically available when not in dry powder form:</P>
                <P>• Section 1.1 addresses the physical-chemical properties of PV29 and states that the chemical is extremely insoluble in water or other organic solvents and has a very low vapor pressure.</P>
                <P>
                    • Section 1.4.1.3 cites information provided by a stakeholder about the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3112"/>
                    encapsulation of PV29 in plastic resins due to its low solubility in water and octanol.
                </P>
                <P>• Section 1.4.1.4 states that inhalation is not identified as a route of exposure for commercially available watercolor or acrylic paints due to low vapor pressure of PV29.</P>
                <P>• Section 2.3.2 states that inhalation is not an expected route of exposure for commercially available watercolor and acrylic paints and that dermal and oral absorption is expected to be limited from the same source due to low water solubility.</P>
                <P>
                    Taken together, the information and statements in the memo clarify that EPA agrees when PV29 is incorporated into the matrix of paint and other liquid media, such as ink, it does not retain the original dry particle properties of its original form. This information applies to automotive spray painting, sanding, grinding and repair services, since they involve use of dried paint containing PV29. In these instances, PV29 has been used within a mixture and is no longer bioavailable in its dry powder form. EPA is requesting comment on the interpretations of risk when it is in other forms including bound in a matrix like paint or liquid, and if uses, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.</E>
                     aerosol spraying, sanding or grinding dry paint, could render PV29 biologically available or possibly pose an inhalation exposure risk.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Regulatory Approach</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Background</HD>
                <P>Under TSCA section 6(a), if the Administrator determines through a TSCA section 6(b) risk evaluation that the manufacture (including import), processing, distribution in commerce, use, or disposal of a chemical substance or mixture, or any combination of such activities, presents an unreasonable risk of injury to health or the environment, EPA must by rule apply one or more of the following requirements to the extent necessary so that the chemical substance or mixture no longer presents such risk.</P>
                <P>• Prohibit or otherwise restrict the manufacturing (including import), processing, or distribution in commerce of the substance or mixture, or limit the amount of such substance or mixture which may be manufactured, processed, or distributed in commerce (TSCA section 6(a)(1)).</P>
                <P>• Prohibit or otherwise restrict the manufacturing, processing, or distribution in commerce of the substance or mixture for a particular use or above a specific concentration for a particular use (TSCA section 6(a)(2)).</P>
                <P>• Limit the amount of the substance or mixture which may be manufactured, processed, or distributed in commerce for a particular use or above a specific concentration for a particular use specified (TSCA section 6(a)(2)).</P>
                <P>• Require clear and adequate minimum warnings and instructions with respect to the substance or mixture's use, distribution in commerce, or disposal, or any combination of those activities, to be marked on or accompanying the substance or mixture (TSCA section 6(a)(3)).</P>
                <P>• Require manufacturers and processors of the substance or mixture to make and retain certain records, or conduct certain monitoring or testing (TSCA section 6(a)(4)).</P>
                <P>• Prohibit or otherwise regulate any manner or method of commercial use of the substance or mixture (TSCA section 6(a)(5)).</P>
                <P>• Prohibit or otherwise regulate any manner or method of disposal of the substance or mixture, or any article containing such substance or mixture, by its manufacturer or processor or by any person who uses or disposes of it for commercial purposes (TSCA section 6(a)(6)).</P>
                <P>• Direct manufacturers or processors of the substance or mixture to give notice of the unreasonable risk determination to distributors, certain other persons, and the public, and to replace or repurchase the substance or mixture (TSCA section 6(a)(7)).</P>
                <P>As described in Unit III.B., EPA assessed how the TSCA section 6(a) requirements could be applied to address the unreasonable risk identified in the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 and the final revised unreasonable risk determination, so that PV29 no longer presents such unreasonable risk. EPA's proposed regulatory action and a primary alternative regulatory action are described in Unit IV. EPA is requesting public comment on all elements of the proposed regulatory action and the primary alternative regulatory action and is providing notice that, based on consideration of comments and any new information submitted to EPA during the comment period on this proposed rule, EPA may in the final rule modify elements of the proposed regulatory action. The public should understand that the Agency's consideration of public comments could result in changes to elements of the proposed and alternative regulatory actions when this rule is finalized. For example, elements such as timelines for implementation could be lengthened or shortened, downstream notification could have requirements added or eliminated, or elements of the primary alternative regulatory action could be incorporated.</P>
                <P>Under the authority of TSCA section 6(g), EPA may consider granting a time-limited exemption from a requirement of a TSCA section 6(a) rule for a specific condition of use if EPA finds that: (1) The specific condition of use is a critical or essential use for which no technically and economically feasible, safer alternative is available, taking into consideration hazard and exposure; (2) compliance with the requirement, as applied with respect to the specific condition of use, would significantly disrupt the national economy, national security, or critical infrastructure; or (3) the specific condition of use of the chemical substance, as compared to reasonably available alternatives, provides a substantial benefit to health, the environment, or public safety. Based on reasonably available information, EPA has analyzed the need for an exemption and is not proposing to grant an exemption from the rule requirements at this time. EPA is requesting public comment regarding the need for exemptions from the rule (and under what specific circumstances) pursuant to the provisions of TSCA section 6(g). EPA is also requesting comment on, in lieu of proposing a 6(g) exemption in a separate regulatory action, whether any elements of the primary alternative regulatory action should be considered in combination with elements of the proposed regulatory action as EPA develops the final regulatory action.</P>
                <P>TSCA section 6(c)(2)(C) requires that, in deciding whether to prohibit or restrict in a manner that substantially prevents a specific condition of use and in setting an appropriate transition period for such action, EPA consider, to the extent practicable, whether technically and economically feasible alternatives that benefit health or the environment will be reasonably available as a substitute when the proposed prohibition or restriction takes effect. As neither the proposed regulatory action nor the primary alternative regulation action would prohibit or restrict in a manner that substantially prevents activities for any conditions of use of PV29, an alternatives assessment was not conducted.</P>
                <P>
                    Section 6(c)(2)(A) of TSCA requires EPA, in proposing and promulgating TSCA section 6(a) rules, to consider and include a statement of effects addressing certain factors such as the effects of the chemical substance on health or the environment and the magnitude of exposure, the benefits of the chemical, and the economic consequences of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3113"/>
                    rule, including the cost and benefits and the cost effectiveness of the proposed regulatory action and of the one or more primary alternative regulatory actions considered. TSCA section 6(c)(2) considerations are discussed in Unit VI. EPA's proposed regulatory action and a primary alternative regulatory action are fully discussed in Unit IV. EPA is requesting public comment on the proposed regulatory action and the alternative regulatory action.
                </P>
                <P>EPA carried out required consultations as described in this unit and also considered impacts on children's environmental health as part of its approach to developing this TSCA section 6 regulatory action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Consultations</HD>
                <P>EPA conducted consultations and outreach as part of development of this proposed regulatory action. The Agency held a federalism consultation on May 13, 2021, as part of this rulemaking process and pursuant to Executive Order 13132. During the consultation, EPA met with State and local officials early in the process of developing the proposed action in order to receive meaningful and timely input into its development (Ref. 13). During the consultation, participants and EPA discussed preemption, EPA's authority under TSCA section 6 to regulate identified unreasonable risk, what activities would be potentially regulated in the proposed rule, and the relationship between TSCA and existing statutes (Ref. 13). EPA received no written comments as part of this consultation.</P>
                <P>PV29 is not manufactured (including imported), processed, distributed in commerce, or regulated by tribes. However, EPA consulted with tribal officials during the development of this proposed action. The Agency held a Tribal consultation on May 24 and June 3, 2021. Tribal officials were given the opportunity to meaningfully interact with EPA risk managers concerning the current status of risk management. During the consultation, EPA discussed risk management under TSCA section 6(a), findings from the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29, types of information that would be helpful to inform risk management, principles for transparency during the risk management process, and types of information EPA is seeking from tribes (Ref. 14). EPA received no written comments as part of this consultation.</P>
                <P>In addition to the formal consultations, EPA also conducted outreach to advocates for communities that might be subject to disproportionate exposure to PV29, such as minority populations, low-income populations, and indigenous peoples. EPA's Environmental Justice (EJ) consultation occurred on June 1 and 9, 2021. EPA held public meetings as part of this consultation which were held pursuant to and in compliance with Executive Orders 12898 and 14008 (Ref. 15). EPA received no written comments following the EJ meeting.</P>
                <P>EPA convened a SBAR Panel to obtain advice and recommendations from SERs that potentially would be subject to this proposed rule's requirements (Ref. 3). EPA met with SERs before and during Panel proceedings, on January 25, 2022, and September 14, 2023. Panel recommendations are in Unit V.A.5.; the Panel report is in the docket (Ref. 3). Additional requests for comment based on Panel recommendations are in Unit VIII.</P>
                <P>Units X.C., X.E., X.F. and X.J. provide more information regarding the consultations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Other Stakeholder Consultations</HD>
                <P>In addition to the formal consultations described in Unit X., EPA held a public webinar on February 23, 2021, and attended a Small Business Administration (SBA) Roundtable on February 26, 2021. At both events EPA staff provided an overview of the TSCA risk management process and the findings in the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 (Refs. 16, 17). Attendees of these meetings were given an opportunity to voice their concerns on both the risk evaluation and risk management.</P>
                <P>Furthermore, EPA has engaged in discussions with representatives from different industries, technical experts, and users of PV29. A list of external meetings held during the development of this proposed rule is in the docket (Ref. 11); meeting materials and summaries are also in the docket. The purpose of these discussions was to hear from importers, processors, distributors, and users about the conditions of use evaluated for PV29; substitute chemicals or alternative methods; engineering control measures and personal protective equipment currently in use or potentially feasible for adoption; and other risk reduction approaches that may have already been adopted or considered for the evaluated conditions of use.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Children's Environmental Health</HD>
                <P>The Agency's 2021 Policy on Children's Health (Ref. 18) articulates EPA's policy of protecting children from environmental exposures by consistently and explicitly considering early life exposures (from conception, infancy, early childhood and through adolescence until 21 years of age) and lifelong health in all human health decisions through identifying and integrating children's health data and information when conducting risk assessments. TSCA section 6(b)(4)(A) also requires EPA to conduct risk evaluations to determine whether a chemical substance presents an unreasonable risk of injury to health or the environment, including an unreasonable risk to a potentially exposed or susceptible subpopulation identified as relevant to the risk evaluation by the Administrator, under the conditions of use. Infants, children, and pregnant women are listed as examples of subpopulations that may be considered relevant “potentially exposed or susceptible subpopulations” in the TSCA section 3(12) definition of that term. In addition, TSCA section 6(a) requires EPA to apply one or more risk management requirements under TSCA section 6(a) so that PV29 no longer presents an unreasonable risk (including unreasonable risk to potentially exposed or susceptible subpopulations).</P>
                <P>The Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 released in January 2021 considered impacts on both children and adults from occupational use from inhalation and dermal exposures, as applicable. The risk evaluation considered males (&gt;16 years of age) and females of reproductive age (&gt;16 years of age) for inhalation exposure. While risks to children are not disproportionate, effects observed in studies include alveolar hyperplasia, inflammatory, and morphological changes in the lungs from chronic inhalation exposure. The effects related to the endpoint used for PV29 risk evaluation were alveolar hyperplasia, inflammatory, and morphological changes in the lungs, which are not associated with disproportionate effects to children. The risks identified in this section would be addressed by both the proposed regulatory action and primary alternative action described in Unit IV.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Regulatory Assessment of C.I. Pigment Violet 29</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Description of Conditions of Use That Contribute to the Unreasonable Risk</HD>
                <P>
                    This unit describes the TSCA conditions of use that contribute to EPA's unreasonable risk determination for the chemical substance PV29. Condition of use descriptions were obtained from EPA sources such as the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 and related documents, and include clarifications based on the CDR use codes, as well as the Organisation 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3114"/>
                    for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) harmonized use codes and feedback from stakeholders regarding how they describe their uses. For additional description of the conditions of use, including process descriptions and worker activities considered in the risk evaluation, see the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29, and supplemental files (Refs. 1, 19). EPA acknowledges that some of the terms used in this unit may also be defined under other statutes; however, the descriptions in this unit are intended to provide clarity to the regulated entities subject to the provisions of this rule under TSCA section 6(a).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Manufacturing</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Domestic Manufacture</HD>
                <P>Domestic manufacturing means to manufacture or produce PV29 within the United States. For purposes of PV29 risk management, this includes the complex combination of chemical substances to form PV29 and loading and repackaging (but not transport) associated with the manufacturing and production of PV29.</P>
                <P>Based on the reasonably available information before the Agency, EPA believes PV29 is currently manufactured within the United States by one company. EPA received information regarding the bagging and pack out process at the end of manufacturing (Ref. 3). The chemical reaction for PV29 production is well-established, PV29 is obtained by reacting naphthalimide (CASRN 81-83-4) with molten potassium hydroxide, causing the potassium salt of the leuco form of perylenetetracarboxylic diimide to be formed, and followed by atmosphere oxidation (Ref. 1).</P>
                <P>This domestic manufacturer of PV29 reports that it produces PV29 as a powder that is used within its own plant to produce other pigments or is sold to other manufacturers and processers in bags (Ref. 1). In addition, powder PV29 can be sold to other manufacturers in a pelleted or slurry form in addition to powder form (Ref. 3). Approximately 80% of PV29 produced in the U.S. is used to make other pigments and the remaining 20% produced is shipped out of the facility to customers or exported (Ref. 3). The paint and coatings trade organization which represents PV29's current domestic manufacturer stated that PV29 powder is produced 12 times a year over the course of one 12-hour shift by 2 workers (Ref. 3).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Import</HD>
                <P>Import refers to the import of PV29 into the customs territory of the United States and loading and repackaging (but not transport) associated with the import of PV29. In general, chemicals may be imported into the United States in bulk via water, air, land, and intermodal shipments. These shipments take the form of oceangoing chemical tankers, railcars, tank trucks, and intermodal tank containers. PV29 can be imported as a powder and liquid, including as a tint paste (Ref. 1). EPA expects that PV29 and products containing PV29 are often stored in warehouses prior to distribution for further processing and use. Only one company has been identified as an importer of PV29 (Ref. 1). This company reported to EPA's Chemical Data Rule (CDR) that it imports PV29 as a “liquid, other solid,” which, based on the Agency's knowledge of forms of PV29, is likely a paste (Ref. 6). Additionally, information provided to EPA by the company also suggests that they import both a tint paste and dry powder form PV29 in volumes less than 25,000 lbs./yr. (Ref. 19). It is possible that there are other companies importing volumes at less than 25,000 lbs/yr that EPA is not able to identify.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Processing</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Processing: Incorporation Into Formulation, Mixture, or Reaction Products in Paints and Coatings</HD>
                <P>
                    This condition of use (COU) refers to the preparation of a product, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the incorporation of dry powder PV29 into formulation, mixture, or a reaction product which occurs when a chemical substance is added to a product (or product mixture), after its manufacture, for distribution in commerce. In this case, “processing” refers to the mixing of dry powder PV29 into paints and coatings. Processors of PV29 for paint and coating manufacturing receive the chemical at 80% concentration in powder in bags that are manually opened and dumped into a mixer where it is milled and formulated into a tint paste. The paste is added to a wide variety of liquid base coats for the automobile industry (Ref. 20). EPA estimates that 14 facilities would process dry powder PV29 into paints and coatings (Ref. 6).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Processing: Incorporation Into Formulation, Mixture, or Reaction Products in Plastic and Rubber Products</HD>
                <P>
                    This COU refers to the preparation of a product, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the incorporation of dry powder PV29 into formulation, mixture, or a reaction product which occurs when a chemical substance is added to a product (or product mixture), after its manufacture, for distribution in commerce. In this case, “processing” refers to the mixing of dry powder PV29 into plastic and rubber products. A processor of PV29 for plastic manufacturing receives the chemical in bags that are manually opened and added to a vessel for weighing and dry blending with polymers and other additives. This preparation is then extruded via a continuous and closed process involving encapsulation into pellets (Ref. 20). EPA estimates that six facilities process dry powder PV29 into plastics (Ref. 6).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">iii. Processing: Intermediate in the Creation or Adjustment of Color of Other Perylene Pigments</HD>
                <P>This COU refers to the use of the dry powder PV29 in a chemical reaction for the manufacturing of another chemical substance or product. In this case, “processing” refers to the use of dry powder PV29 in the manufacturing of perylene pigment. According to information provided to EPA by the manufacturer of PV29, the production of PV29 is the starting point for the synthesis of all other perylene pigments at the manufacturing facility and other perylenes produced at the manufacturing facility may contain an estimated 0-5% residual C.I. Pigment Violet 29 in the finished pigment. (Ref. 19).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">iv. Processing: Recycling</HD>
                <P>
                    This COU refers to the process of treating generated waste streams (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     which would otherwise be disposed of as waste) containing PV29 that are collected, either on-site or transported to a third-party site, for commercial purpose. PV29 is primarily recycled commercially in the form of PV29-containing articles, including plastics and auto parts. EPA did not find PV29-specific information for recycling, including specific worker activities and commonly recycled materials (Ref 1).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Industrial and Commercial Use</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Industrial and Commercial Use in Automobile Paints and Coatings (Original Equipment Manufacturing and Refinishing)</HD>
                <P>
                    This COU refers to the industrial and commercial use of industrial or commercial automobile paints and coating products, including primers, topcoats, and basecoats containing PV29. Activities where these types of automobile paint and coatings products are used could include mixing and spray applications, including use of a spray gun, after the original 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3115"/>
                    manufacturing process for automobiles and as part of refinishing operations. These products could also be sanded after curing during automotive refinishing operations (Ref. 1).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Industrial and Commercial Use in Coatings and Basecoats for Paints and Coatings</HD>
                <P>This COU refers to the industrial and commercial use of industrial or commercial coating and basecoat products that are not specifically used as part of automobile manufacturing and refinishing operations. PV29 could be present in pigment dispersions in waterborne and solventborne systems, waterborne and solventborne basecoats, and as a colorant in solventborne coating (Ref. 21).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">iii. Industrial and Commercial Use in Merchant Ink for Commercial Printing</HD>
                <P>This COU refers to the industrial and commercial use of industrial or commercial printing ink. Public comments during the risk evaluation state PV29 could be used in inkjet ink (Ref. 1). It is estimated that about 1% of PV29 produced within the domestic market is used in merchant ink for commercial printing and packaging, especially where lightfastness and color stability are important (Ref. 22).</P>
                <P>In the risk evaluation, this COU included the use of PV29 in merchant ink; however, information provided since the publication of the risk evaluation indicates that PV29 use in merchant ink is uncommon (Ref. 3), and that PV29 is not used in any ink formulation for any of the following print processes in the graphics arts industry: screen, digital, offset lithographic, letterpress, rotogravure, or flexographic (Ref. 3).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Disposal</HD>
                <P>Each of the conditions of use of PV29 may generate waste streams of the chemical. This COU refers to PV29 in a waste stream that is collected and transported to third-party sites for disposal or treatment. This COU also encompasses PV29 contained in wastewater discharged to publicly owned treatment works or other, non-public treatment works for treatment, and other wastes. Recycling of PV29 and PV29 containing products is considered a different COU.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Terminology in This Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>For the purposes of this proposed rulemaking, “occupational conditions of use” refers to the TSCA conditions of use described in Units III.B.1.a. through d. Although EPA identified both industrial and commercial uses in the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 for purposes of distinguishing exposure scenarios, the Agency clarified then and clarifies now that EPA interprets the authority over “any manner or method of commercial use” under TSCA section 6(a)(5) to include both. In the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29, EPA identified and assessed all known, intended, and reasonably foreseen uses of PV29.</P>
                <P>EPA is not proposing to incorporate the descriptions of known, intended or reasonably foreseen conditions of use of PV29 presented and described in Unit III.B.1.a. through d. as definitions in the regulatory text. However, EPA requests comment on whether EPA should promulgate definitions for those conditions of use evaluated in the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29, and, if so, whether the descriptions in this unit are consistent with the conditions of use evaluated in the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 and whether they provide a sufficient level of detail to improve the clarity and readability of the regulation if EPA were to promulgate a regulation that contains a list of all regulated industrial and commercial conditions of use.</P>
                <P>EPA further notes that this proposed rule would not apply to any substance excluded from the definition of “chemical substance” under TSCA section 3(2)(B)(ii) through (vi). Those exclusions include, but are not limited to, any pesticide (as defined by the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act) when manufactured, processed, or distributed in commerce for use as a pesticide; and any food, food additive, drug, cosmetic, or device, as defined in section 201 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA), when manufactured, processed, or distributed in commerce for use as a food, food additive, drug, cosmetic or device.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Description of Unreasonable Risk Under the Conditions of Use</HD>
                <P>EPA has determined that PV29 presents an unreasonable risk of injury to human health under the conditions of use based on chronic toxicity for non-cancer effects. As described in the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29, EPA identified lung toxicity adverse effects from chronic non-cancer inhalation exposures to PV29. Unit VI.A. summarizes the health effects and the magnitude of the exposures in more detail (Ref. 1).</P>
                <P>To make the unreasonable risk determination for PV29, EPA evaluated exposures to human receptors, including workers (which includes occupational non-users (ONUs)), using reasonably available monitoring and modeling data for inhalation exposures. EPA did not quantitatively evaluate risks to consumers or bystanders of consumer use because PV29 is not expected to volatilize from consumer paints due to its low vapor pressure (Ref. 1).</P>
                <P>For the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29, EPA considered potentially exposed or susceptible subpopulations (PESS) identified as relevant to the risk evaluation by the Agency. Groups of individuals with greater exposure to PV29 relative to the general population include: (1) workers of either sex (&gt;16 years old), including pregnant women, (2) individuals who do not use PV29 but may be indirectly exposed due to their proximity to the user who is directly handling PV29 (ONUs), and (3) consumer users and bystanders associated with consumer use (Ref. 1). All PESS are included in the quantitative and qualitative analyses described in the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 and were considered in the determination of unreasonable risk for PV29. The 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 did not quantitatively assess the air and water exposure pathways in the published risk evaluation due to PV29's low vapor pressure, volatility, and solubility in water.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Description of TSCA Section 6 Requirements for Risk Management</HD>
                <P>EPA considered the TSCA section 6(a) requirements (listed in Unit III.A.) to identify which ones have the potential to eliminate the unreasonable risk for PV29.</P>
                <P>As required, EPA developed a proposed regulatory action and one primary alternative regulatory action, which are described in Units IV.A. and IV.B., respectively. To identify and select a regulatory action, EPA considered the route of exposure driving the unreasonable risk, inhalation, and the exposed populations. For occupational conditions of use (see Unit III.B.1), EPA considered how it could directly regulate manufacturing (including import), processing, distribution in commerce, industrial and commercial use, or disposal to address the unreasonable risk.</P>
                <P>
                    As required by TSCA section 6(c)(2), EPA considered several factors, in addition to identified unreasonable risk, when selecting among possible TSCA section 6(a) requirements. To the extent practicable, EPA factored into its decisions: (i) the effects of PV29 on health and the magnitude of exposure of human beings to PV29, (ii) the effects of PV29 on the environment and the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3116"/>
                    magnitude of exposure of the environment to PV29, (iii) the benefits of PV29 for various uses, and (iv) the reasonably ascertainable economic consequences of the rule. In evaluating the reasonably ascertainable economic consequences of the rule, EPA considered (i) the likely effect of the rule on the national economy, small business, technological innovation, the environment, and public health, (ii) the costs and benefits of the proposed regulatory action and of the primary alternative regulatory action considered, and (iii) the cost effectiveness of the proposed regulatory action and of the primary alternative regulatory action considered. See Unit VI. for further discussion related to TSCA section 6(c)(2)(A) considerations, including the statement of effects of the proposed rule with respect to these considerations.
                </P>
                <P>EPA also considered the regulatory authorities under statutes administered by other agencies such as OSHA's implementation of the OSH Act, as well as other EPA-administered statutes to examine: (1) whether there are opportunities for all or part of this risk management action to be addressed under other statutes, such that a referral may be warranted under TSCA sections 9(a) or 9(b); or (2) whether TSCA section 6(a) regulation could include alignment of requirements and definitions in and under existing statutes and regulations to minimize confusion to the regulated entities and the general public.</P>
                <P>In addition, EPA followed other TSCA requirements such as setting proposed compliance dates in accordance with the requirements in TSCA section 6(d)(1)(B) (described in the proposed and alternative regulatory action in Units IV.A and IV.B.).</P>
                <P>To the extent information was reasonably available, EPA considered pollution prevention strategies and the hierarchy of controls adopted by OSHA and NIOSH when selecting regulatory actions, with the goal of identifying risk management control methods that are permanent, feasible, and effective (Ref. 23). EPA also considered how to address the unreasonable risk while providing flexibility to the regulated entity where appropriate and took into account the information presented in the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29, as well as additional input from stakeholders (as described in Unit III.A.), and anticipated compliance strategies from regulated entities.</P>
                <P>Taken together, these considerations led EPA to the proposed regulatory action and primary alternative regulatory action described in Unit IV. Additional details related to how the requirements in this unit were incorporated into development of those actions are in Unit V.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Proposed Regulatory and Alternative Regulatory Actions</HD>
                <P>This unit describes the proposed regulatory action by EPA so that PV29 will no longer present an unreasonable risk of injury to health. In addition, as indicated by TSCA section 6(c)(2)(A), EPA must consider the costs and benefits and the cost-effectiveness of the proposed regulatory action and one or more primary alternative regulatory actions. In the case of PV29, the proposed regulatory action is described in Unit IV.A. and the primary alternative regulatory action considered is described in Unit IV.B. The rationale for the proposed and alternative regulatory actions and associated compliance timeframes are discussed in this unit and in more detail in Unit V.A. EPA is requesting public comment on the proposed regulatory action and alternative regulatory action, including whether EPA should have more prescriptive requirements for the cleaning plan.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Proposed Regulatory Action</HD>
                <P>EPA is proposing under TSCA section 6(a) to require specific workplace protections, including respiratory protection and equipment and area cleaning, for certain manufacturing, processing, industrial, and commercial conditions of use. EPA is also proposing to require recordkeeping and to require manufacturers (including importers), processors, and distributors of PV29 for any use to provide downstream notification of requirements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Administrative and Prescriptive Controls</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Overview</HD>
                <P>
                    As described in Unit III.B.3, under TSCA section 6(a), EPA is required to issue a regulation applying one or more of the TSCA section 6(a) requirements to the extent necessary so that the unreasonable risk of injury to human health or the environment from the chemical substance is no longer present. The TSCA section 6(a) requirements provide EPA the authority to limit or prohibit a number of activities, including, but not limited to, restricting or regulating the manufacture, processing, distribution in commerce, commercial use, or disposal of the chemical substance. Given this statutory authority, EPA may find it appropriate in certain circumstances to propose respiratory protection requirements for certain occupational conditions of use where dry powder PV29 would be present (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     manufacturing, processing, industrial and commercial use, or disposal). This unit describes the proposed prescriptive respiratory protection requirements.
                </P>
                <P>EPA uses the term “potentially exposed person” as defined in 40 CFR 751.5 in this unit and in the regulatory text to include workers (including occupational non-users), employees, independent contractors, employers, and all other persons in the work area where PV29 is present and who may be exposed to PV29 under the conditions of use for which the proposed respiratory protection requirements would apply. EPA's proposed respiratory protection requirement would address the unreasonable risk from PV29 to potentially exposed persons directly handling the chemical or in the work area where the chemical is being used. Similarly, the 2021 PV29 risk evaluation did not distinguish between employers, contractors, or other legal entities or businesses that manufacture, process, distribute in commerce, use, or dispose of PV29. For this reason, EPA uses the term “owner or operator” as defined in 40 CFR 751.5 to describe the entity responsible for implementing the respiratory protection requirements in any workplace where the proposed respiratory protection requirements would apply. The term includes any person who owns, leases, operates, controls, or supervises such a workplace.</P>
                <P>EPA also uses the term “regulated PV29” in the proposed regulatory action to describe PV29 in a dry powder form or in dry powder form when mixed with other types of dry powder pigments. Additional discussion is found in Unit V.</P>
                <P>EPA is proposing respiratory protection requirements and equipment and area cleaning requirements for the following conditions of use in cases in which regulated PV29 is manufactured, processed, used, or disposed of:</P>
                <P>• Domestic manufacture.</P>
                <P>• Import.</P>
                <P>• Processing: Incorporation into formulation, mixture, or reaction products in paints and coatings.</P>
                <P>• Processing: Incorporation into formulation, mixture, or reaction products in plastic and rubber products.</P>
                <P>• Processing: intermediate in the creation or adjustment of color of other perylene pigments.</P>
                <P>• Processing: recycling.</P>
                <P>• Industrial and commercial use in automobile paints and coatings (original equipment manufacturing and refinishing).</P>
                <P>
                    • Industrial and commercial use in coatings and basecoats for paints and coatings.
                    <PRTPAGE P="3117"/>
                </P>
                <P>• Industrial and commercial use in merchant ink for commercial printing.</P>
                <P>• Disposal.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. PV29 Regulated Area</HD>
                <P>
                    EPA is proposing to require that owners or operators of workplaces subject to regulated PV29 respiratory protection or cleaning requirements demarcate any area where regulated PV29 exposures can reasonably be expected to occur, meaning that where a regulated PV29 container is open or in use, equipment containing regulated PV29 is in use or has not yet been cleaned, the area where equipment for regulated PV29 has not yet been cleaned since equipment usage has ceased, or cleaning activities are occurring. PV29 regulated areas would be demarcated using administrative controls, such as warning signs or highly visible signifiers, in multiple languages as appropriate (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     based on languages spoken by potentially exposed persons), placed in conspicuous areas, and documented through training and recordkeeping. The owner or operator would be required to restrict access to the PV29 regulated area from any potentially exposed person that lacks proper training, is not wearing required respiratory protection as described in this unit or is otherwise unauthorized to enter. EPA is proposing to require owners and operators demarcate a PV29 regulated area beginning 180 days after the date of publication of the final rule. EPA is soliciting comment on requiring warning signs to demarcate PV29 regulated areas, such as the requirements found in OSHA's General Industry Standard for Beryllium (29 CFR 1910.1024(m)(2)).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Respiratory Protection Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    EPA is proposing to require the use of respirators with a minimum assigned protection factor (APF) of 50, in general alignment with OSHA's 
                    <E T="03">Respiratory Protection Standard</E>
                     at 29 CFR 1910.13
                    <E T="03">4.</E>
                     Owners and operators would be required to provide respiratory protection selected in accordance with the guidelines described in this unit, that is of safe design and construction for the work to be performed. EPA is proposing to require that owners and operators (1) provide respirators to each potentially exposed person, (2) ensure respirator use, and (3) maintain respirators in a sanitary, reliable, and undamaged condition. Owners and operators would be required to select and provide a respirator that properly fits and communicate respirators selections each potentially exposed person.
                </P>
                <P>
                    EPA is proposing to require respiratory protection with worksite-specific procedures and elements for required respirator use. The proposed respiratory protection requirements would be required when dry powder PV29 is present in the workplace as described in this unit. EPA is proposing to require each owner or operator to select respiratory protection in accordance with the requirements described in this unit and also to comply with OSHA's 
                    <E T="03">Respiratory Protection Standard</E>
                     at 29 CFR 1910.134 (a) through (l), with the exception of (d) and (a)(1), for selection, proper use, maintenance, fit-testing, medical evaluation, and training when using respirators. The respiratory protection requirements must be administered by a suitably trained administrator, in accordance with OSHA's 
                    <E T="03">Respiratory Protection Standard</E>
                     at 29 CFR 1910.134(c). This administrator would need to be qualified by appropriate training or experience that is commensurate with the complexity of the program to administer or oversee the respiratory protection program and conduct the required evaluations of program effectiveness. EPA is proposing that owners and operators would provide respirator training to each potentially exposed person who is required by this unit to wear respirators prior to or at the time of initial assignment to a job involving potential exposure to PV29. Owners and operators would also have to re-train each affected person at least once annually or whenever the owner or operator has reason to believe that a previously trained person does not have the required understanding and skill to properly use respirators, or when changes in the workplace or in the respirator to be used render the previous training obsolete.
                </P>
                <P>EPA is proposing to require each owner or operator supply a respirator, in accordance with the APF 50 requirements explained in this unit, to each potentially exposed person who enters an area with regulated PV29 present within six months after publication of the final rule and to ensure that all potentially exposed persons are using the provided respirators whenever dry powder PV29 exposures are expected. EPA recognizes that implementing respiratory protection requirements may require different compliance timeframes depending on existing health and safety programs at various facilities. EPA is soliciting comment on whether six months is a reasonable timeframe to implement respiratory protection requirements or if a different timeframe is appropriate. Additionally, EPA is proposing that the owner or operator must ensure that all filters, cartridges, and canisters associated with respiratory protection used in the workplace are labeled and color coded with the NIOSH approval label and that the label is not removed and remains legible. EPA is requesting comment on whether there should be a requirement for a minimum service life of non-powered air-purifying respirators such as the requirements found in OSHA's General Industry Standard for Benzene (29 CFR 1910.1028(g)(3)(D)).</P>
                <P>EPA is proposing to establish minimum respiratory protection requirements, with the requirement for the use of at least an APF 50 respirator, such that any respirator affording a higher degree of protection than the following proposed requirements may be used. EPA does not anticipate that respirators beyond APF 50 will be widely or regularly used to address unreasonable risk. APF 50 respirators that can be used to mitigate the unreasonable risk of injury to health were provided in the risk evaluation in Table 2-7 (Ref. 1) and include: any NIOSH-certified half-mask power air-purifying respirator; any NIOSH-certified half-mask supplied-air respirator or airline respirator in continuous flow mode or pressure-demand or other positive pressure mode; any NIOSH-certified full facepiece air-purifying respirator; any NIOSH-certified full facepiece supplied air respirator or airline respirator (demand mode); any NIOSH-certified full facepiece self-contained breathing apparatus (demand mode); or any NIOSH-certified helmet/hood self-contained breathing apparatus (demand mode). Negative-pressure respirators are acceptable for use if they meet the APF 50 requirement.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Workplace Information and Training</HD>
                <P>
                    EPA is proposing that the implementation of the respiratory protection requirements be done in compliance with the training and information requirements in OSHAs 
                    <E T="03">Respiratory Protection Standard</E>
                     at 29 CFR 1910.134(k). EPA is requesting comment on whether to require owners or operators to provide additional workplace training in areas where regulated PV29 is present.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Equipment and Area Cleaning Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    EPA is proposing that each owner or operator create and implement a cleaning plan for equipment and area cleaning where regulated PV29 has been 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3118"/>
                    manufactured, processed, used, or disposed of. As part of the cleaning plan, owners and operators would be required to describe the cleaning method, materials, and procedure to be used for cleaning activities and would be required to clean the equipment and area, as well as the procedure to be used to assess the effectiveness of the cleaning activities. The cleaning method, materials, and procedure would be determined by the owner or operator.
                </P>
                <P>As part of the equipment and area cleaning requirements, EPA is proposing to require equipment and the area in which the equipment is housed to be cleaned within 24 hours following manufacturing, processing, use or disposal of regulated PV29. Surfaces of the equipment that have contact with regulated PV29 as part of operation or the area where the equipment is located would need to be free of residue, meaning that no residue is left on surfaces in the area, such as the outer housing of equipment and places where dust-like particles typically settle, such as the floor; for example, a wet, white cloth, swab, or other similar cleaning fabric will not have visible color after contact with the surface.</P>
                <P>
                    EPA is proposing to require each owner or operator to provide information and instructions for the cleaning plan to each person prior to or at the time of initial assignment to a job involving potential exposure to equipment or an area in which regulated PV29 is manufactured, processed, used, or disposed of within six months after the date of publication of the final rule in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Compliance Timeframes</HD>
                <P>
                    EPA is proposing that each owner or operator must provide respiratory protection of at least AFF 50 to all potentially exposed persons in areas where regulated PV29 is present and develop and implement a cleaning plan for equipment and area cleaning where regulated PV29 has been manufactured, processed, used, or disposed of, within six months after the date of publication of the final rule in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . EPA is also proposing to require each owner or operator to provide information and training for each person prior to or at the time of initial assignment to a job involving potential exposure to regulated PV29 within six months after the date of publication of the final rule in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . EPA will consider compliance timeframes that may be substantially longer or shorter than the proposed timeframes for owners or operators for procedural adjustments needed to comply with the requirements outlined in this unit and is requesting comment on the feasibility of the proposed compliance timeframes, as well as longer or shorter timeframes.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Other Requirements</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Recordkeeping</HD>
                <P>EPA is proposing that manufacturers, processors, distributors, and industrial and commercial users of regulated PV29 maintain ordinary business records, such as invoices and bills-of-lading, that demonstrate compliance with the restrictions and other provisions of this proposed regulation; and maintain such records for a period of five years from the date the record is generated. EPA is proposing that this requirement begin at the effective date of the final rule. Recordkeeping requirements would ensure that owners or operators can demonstrate compliance with the regulations if necessary.</P>
                <P>Additionally, to support and demonstrate compliance, EPA is proposing that owners and operators of a workplace subject to the respiratory protection requirements and/or the area and equipment cleaning requirements retain compliance records for five years. These proposed requirements are not intended to supersede or otherwise relieve regulated entities from any recordkeeping requirement imposed by other federal laws or regulations. EPA is proposing to require records to include:</P>
                <P>(A) Implementation of the respiratory protection requirements and documentation, including as necessary, respiratory protection used and related training;</P>
                <P>(B) Information and training provided to each person prior to or at the time of initial assignment and any retraining;</P>
                <P>(C) Cleaning plan implementation and documentation, including as necessary, related instructions; and</P>
                <P>(D) Information and instructions provided to each person prior to or at the time of initial assignment and any updates to the information and instructions received.</P>
                <P>The owners and operators, upon request by EPA, would be required to make such records available to EPA for examination and copying. All records required to be maintained under this proposed rule could be kept in the most administratively convenient form (electronic or paper).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Downstream Notification and Labeling</HD>
                <P>EPA is proposing that manufacturers (including importers), processors, and distributors of regulated PV29 provide downstream notification through Safety Data Sheets (SDSs) by adding the language set forth in proposed 40 CFR 751.907(b) to sections 1(c) and 15 of the SDS. Additionally, EPA is proposing that every regulated PV29 product bear a label that appears on or is securely attached to the immediate container of the PV29 product, and that the contents of a label must show clearly and prominently the language set forth in proposed 40 CFR 751.907(c). In order to provide adequate time to undertake the changes to the SDS and ensure that all processors and distributors of regulated PV29 in the supply chain receive the revised SDS, EPA is proposing a 6-month period for manufacturers, processors, and distributors to implement the proposed SDS changes following publication of the final rule. EPA is also proposing a 6-month period for manufacturers, processors, and distributors to implement the labeling requirement following publication of the final rule.</P>
                <P>EPA requests comment on the timeframes for recordkeeping and downstream notification requirements described in this Unit.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Primary Alternative Regulatory Action</HD>
                <P>As indicated by TSCA section 6(c)(2)(A)(iv)(II) and (III), EPA must consider the cost and benefits and the cost effectiveness of the proposed regulatory action and one or more primary alternative regulatory actions considered by the Agency.</P>
                <P>The primary alternative regulatory action uses prescriptive workplace controls to address the unreasonable risk from PV29 contributed to by the various conditions of use. EPA requests comment on this primary alternative regulatory action and whether any elements of the primary alternative regulatory action described in this Unit should be considered as EPA develops the final regulatory action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Requirements for Manufacturing and Processing Conditions of Use, Other Than Recycling</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Overview</HD>
                <P>The primary alternative regulatory action considered by the EPA would require workplace controls, including engineering controls and respiratory protection for the following conditions of use in cases in which regulated PV29 is manufactured or processed:</P>
                <P>• Domestic manufacture;</P>
                <P>• Import;</P>
                <P>• Processing: Incorporation into formulation, mixture, or reaction products in paints and coatings;</P>
                <P>
                    • Processing: Incorporation into formulation, mixture, or reaction 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3119"/>
                    products in plastic and rubber products; and
                </P>
                <P>• Processing: intermediate in the creation or adjustment of color of other perylene pigments.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Engineering Controls</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed alternative regulatory action would include the use of engineering controls to mitigate the unreasonable risk of injury to health. Engineering controls, such as HEPA filters and other forms of air filtration, would be required to reduce the concentration of regulated PV29 in workplace air. As part of this effort, EPA would adopt OSHA's general monitoring method for respirable dust under 29 CFR 1910.1000 for PNORs, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     NIOSH 0600, as the workplace air monitoring method in the proposed alternative regulatory action to confirm that the air concentration of regulated PV29 is at or the NIOSH 0600 limit of detection (LOD, 0.5 mg/m
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    ). Under the proposed alternative regulatory action, EPA would use NIOSH method 0600 in place of a chemical-specific monitoring method because no analytical monitoring method currently exists for PV29. The respirable dust method would be used in place of a chemical-specific monitoring method to have a way of measuring airborne regulated PV29 workplace exposure. Monitoring would be required to occur at least once every 3 months during when regulated PV29 is manufactured or is in use. If the concentration of airborne dust is above the NIOSH 0600 LOD, monitoring would need to occur at least once every 3 months. If the concentration of airborne dust is below the LOD, monitoring would need to occur at least once every 6 months.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. PV29 Regulated Area</HD>
                <P>
                    Similar to the proposed regulatory action, under the primary alternative regulatory action EPA would require that owners or operators of workplaces subject to regulated PV29 respiratory protection or cleaning requirements demarcate any area where regulated PV29 exposures can reasonably be expected to occur, meaning where a regulated PV29 container is open or in use, equipment containing regulated PV29 is in use or has not yet been cleaned, the area where equipment for regulated PV29 has not yet been cleaned since equipment usage has ceased, or cleaning activities are occurring. Regulated areas would be demarcated using administrative controls, such as warning signs or highly visible signifiers, in multiple languages as appropriate (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     based on languages spoken by potentially exposed persons), placed in conspicuous areas, and documented through training and recordkeeping. The owner or operator would be required to restrict access to the regulated area from any potentially exposed person that lacks proper training, is not wearing required respiratory protection as described in this unit or is otherwise unauthorized to enter. EPA would propose to require owners and operators demarcate a regulated area beginning 180 days after the date of publication of the final rule. EPA is soliciting comment on requiring warning signs to demarcate regulated areas, such as the requirements found in OSHA's General Industry Standard for Beryllium (29 CFR 1910.1024(m)(2)).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Respiratory Protection Requirements</HD>
                <P>As shown in Unit IV.A.1, the proposed regulatory action would include the requirement for potentially exposed persons to wear an APF 50 respirator in the PV29 regulated area. Under the primary alternative regulatory action, potentially exposed persons would be required to wear an APF 10 respirator. Even though there would be workplace air monitoring performed under the primary alternative regulatory action, EPA is uncertain if the concentration of regulated PV29 in workplace air would be low enough to not result in unreasonable risk of injury to health. Therefore, respirator use would be required as a safeguard to ensure that the unreasonable risk is mitigated for potentially exposed persons. EPA requests comment on the approach of using respirators and engineering controls in tandem to mitigate the unreasonable risk of injury to health.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">e. Equipment and Area Cleaning Requirements</HD>
                <P>The primary alternative regulatory action equipment and area cleaning requirements would be the same as those for the proposed regulatory action. This would ensure that the concentration of regulated PV29 in workplace air is as low as possible.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">f. Recordkeeping and Labeling</HD>
                <P>The primary alternative regulatory action recordkeeping requirements would be different from those for the proposed regulatory action. The alternative regulatory action would require recordkeeping for the engineering controls implemented. The respiratory protection and equipment and area cleaning requirements for recordkeeping would be the same, as owners and operators would be required to maintain respiratory protection and equipment and area cleaning records. However, unlike the proposed regulatory action, the primary alternative regulatory action would not include a labeling requirement for containers storing regulated PV29.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Requirements for Recycling, Industrial and Commercial Conditions of Use</HD>
                <P>The primary alternative regulatory action EPA considered would require respiratory protection and equipment and area cleaning, with different recordkeeping requirements, for the following conditions of use in cases in which PV29 is processed, used, or disposed as a dry powder pigment:</P>
                <P>• Processing: recycling;</P>
                <P>• Industrial and commercial use in automobile paints and coatings (original equipment manufacturing and refinishing);</P>
                <P>• Industrial and commercial use in coatings and basecoats for paints and coatings;</P>
                <P>• Industrial and commercial use in merchant ink for commercial printing; and</P>
                <P>• Disposal;</P>
                <P>The primary alternative regulatory action respiratory protection requirements would be the same as those for the proposed regulatory action. This would include the requirement for potentially exposed persons to use AFP 50 respirators in PV29 regulated areas. It would also include the requirement for a PV29 regulated area as described in the proposed regulatory action.</P>
                <P>The primary alternative regulatory action equipment and area cleaning requirements would be the same as those for the proposed regulatory action. This would ensure that the concentration of regulated PV29 in workplace air is as low as possible.</P>
                <P>
                    The primary alternative regulatory action recordkeeping requirements would be different from those for the proposed regulatory action. The respiratory protection and equipment and area cleaning requirements for recordkeeping would be the same, as owners and operators would be required to maintain records of the respiratory protection and equipment and area cleaning records. However, unlike the proposed regulatory action, the primary alternative regulatory action would not include a recordkeeping requirement to collect and retain records of regulated PV29 purchase for a period of five years. The Agency would not require a recordkeeping requirement under the primary alternative regulatory action because the respiratory protection requirements and equipment and area cleaning requirements in cases when regulated PV29 is present would 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3120"/>
                    provide sufficient information to indicate that regulated PV29 was purchased.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Rationale for the Proposed Regulatory and Primary Alternative Regulatory Actions</HD>
                <P>This unit describes how the considerations described in Unit III.B.3 were applied when selecting among the TSCA section 6(a) requirements to arrive at the proposed and primary alternative regulatory actions described in Unit IV.A and IV.B.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Consideration of Risk Management Requirements Available Under TSCA Section 6(a)</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Prescriptive Controls</HD>
                <P>An option EPA considered was requiring specific, prescribed controls—such as engineering controls, administrative controls, and PPE (including respiratory protection)—to reduce exposures to PV29 in occupational settings. Prescriptive controls could include respirators. The Agency identified that respiratory protection could reduce exposures to PV29 to where it no longer presents unreasonable risk. However, for all conditions of use, EPA understands that the use of prescriptive respiratory protection is the lowest on the hierarchy of controls, which is in the following order of greatest to least effectiveness: elimination, substitution, engineering controls, administrative controls, and PPE (Ref. 23). EPA also understands that workplaces have unique processes and equipment in place and that varying types of respiratory protection may be needed for different workplaces. However, due to the lack of an available chemical specific monitoring method for PV29, EPA proposes the use of respiratory protection, specifically APF 50 respirators. APF 50 respirators were found to be the minimum level of respiratory protection that could mitigate the unreasonable risk of injury to health (Ref. 1).</P>
                <P>During risk management, the Agency worked to understand the industries that could be potentially impacted by EPA regulatory requirements and considered their use of PV29 and PV29-containing products compared to the inhalation exposure human health risks presented in the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 and the 2022 Revised Unreasonable Risk Determination. The 2022 Revised Unreasonable Risk Determination for PV29 states that EPA's unreasonable risk determination for PV29 is driven by risks of injury to health associated with 10 conditions of use, including manufacturing (including import), processing, and some industrial and commercial conditions of use. Five downstream conditions of use that contribute to the unreasonable risk of injury to health of PV29—processing: recycling; industrial and commercial use: paints and coatings—automobile (original equipment manufacturing and refinishing); industrial and commercial use: paints and coatings—coatings and basecoats; industrial and commercial use: merchant ink for commercial printing; and disposal—involve the use or breakdown, in the case of recycling and disposal, of products containing PV29, such as paint and plastics.</P>
                <P>During the SBAR Panel process, SERs were represented for each of the five downstream conditions of use as well as the other conditions of use that were found to contribute to the unreasonable risk of injury to health. SERs commented about how they could be impacted by a potential PV29 rulemaking in their industries, including their use of PV29, engineering controls and PPE already used, and how they use and handle PV29 (dry powder, paint, plastic, etc.). As part of the SBAR Panel meeting, SERs were asked if PV29 was used in a dry powder or non-dry powder form, such as a slurry or paste, and when after being mixed into paint, what types of equipment and PPE were used for PV29-containing paint application activities. The questions included potential risk of injury to health from inhalation exposure to paint containing PV29 during automotive spray painting, sanding, grinding, and repair service activities (Ref. 3). SERs in the automotive industry stated that they do not use dry powder PV29 and do not mix their own pigments; the paints they use for automotive refinishing activities are provided from automotive and paint and coating manufacturers (Ref. 3). Additionally, SERs in the printing ink manufacturing and graphic arts industries stated that, to their knowledge, PV29 is not used in their industries (Ref. 3). Written comments submitted to the SBAR Panel by a paint and coatings SER specifically mentioned the Proposition 65 regulation in California, where crystalline silica and titanium dioxide are listed as carcinogens specifically for airborne particles of respirable size and airborne, unbound particles of respirable size, respectively (Refs. 3, 4). Carbon black, the analog used for PV29's toxicity, is also listed in the Proposition 65 regulation under a similar description to titanium dioxide, as a carcinogen specifically when as airborne, unbound particles of respirable size.</P>
                <P>Notably, the risk evaluation and revised risk determination state that two conditions of use, industrial and commercial uses in finished plastic and rubber products for automobile plastics and industrial carpeting, do not contribute to the unreasonable risk of injury to health of PV29 because the Agency assumed that PV29 powder was incorporated into the materials under these conditions of use and there would be no exposure to PV29 as a dust (Refs. 1, 2). These two conditions of use have similar types of materials compared to the five downstream conditions of use mentioned previously: processing: recycling; industrial and commercial use: paints and coatings—automobile (original equipment manufacturing and refinishing); industrial and commercial use: paints and coatings—coatings and basecoats; industrial and commercial use: merchant ink for commercial printing; and disposal. Additionally, in the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29, where EPA stated that PV29 present in dried paint and plastic products is expected to be encapsulated and available physical and chemical property information indicates that due to a low solubility in water and octanol, it is not expected to leach out (Ref. 1, p. 59). EPA also stated in the risk evaluation that PV29 is not expected to be reactive or leachable either as a neat material or encapsulated in plastics or paint resins (Ref. 1, p. 65). Taken together, the statements in the risk evaluation support information received as part of the SBAR Panel process during the development of this proposed rule, where commenters stated that, in their experience, pigments with a dry powder form like PV29, including carbon black, do not present the same inhalation exposure risk after they are mixed into solution and encapsulated (Ref. 3).</P>
                <P>
                    The Agency considered the information in the risk evaluation and the comments provided as part of SBAR during stakeholder meetings and in public comments during the development of this rule. The comments showed that these conditions of use may not result in occupational exposures to dry powder PV29. As stated in Unit II.B.3, EPA has issued a memo (Ref. 5), in which the Agency intended to provide clarity about exposure-related statements made since the publication of the risk evaluation. This memo states that the risk assessed in the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 is associated with inhalation exposures of C.I. Pigment Violet 29 in manufacturing and processing as particles in the dry powder form. Exposure to paint aerosols 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3121"/>
                    containing PV29 was not assessed in the risk evaluation. The conclusions of the memo are supported by the following sections of the risk evaluation which note that PV29 encapsulated in plastics, paints, and inks are not expected to be reactive or leachable, and therefore, not likely to be biologically available when not in dry powder form:
                </P>
                <P>• Section 1.1 addresses the physical-chemical properties of PV29 and states it is extremely insoluble in water or other organic solvents and has a very low vapor pressure.</P>
                <P>• Section 1.4.1.3 cites information provided by a stakeholder about the encapsulation of PV29 in plastic resins due to its low solubility in water and octanol.</P>
                <P>• Section 1.4.1.4 states inhalation is not identified as a route of exposure for commercially available watercolor or acrylic paints due to low vapor pressure of PV29.</P>
                <P>• Section 2.3.2 states inhalation is not an expected route of exposure for commercially available watercolor and acrylic paints and that dermal and oral absorption is expected to be limited from the same source due to low water solubility.</P>
                <P>Taken together, the information and statements in the memo clarify that EPA agrees when PV29 is incorporated into the matrix of paint and other liquid media, such as ink, it does not retain the original dry particle properties of its original form. This information applies to automotive spray painting, sanding, grinding and repair services, since they involve use of dried paint containing PV29. In these instances, PV29 has been used within a mixture and is no longer bioavailable in its dry powder form.</P>
                <P>Per the SBAR Panel's recommendation, the Agency also considered tailoring the applicability of requirements for entities that can demonstrate they do not use dry powder PV29, if the requirements are sufficient so that PV29 no longer presents unreasonable risk.</P>
                <P>The risk evaluation states inhalation exposure to dry powder PV29 is not expected for two conditions of use in which PV29 has been incorporated into a product, similar to the five downstream conditions of use. Given that (1) unreasonable risk is dependent on exposure to a chemical substance and (2) the products used in the five downstream conditions of use are unlikely to be dry powder PV29 based on public comment and SBAR feedback, the Agency acknowledges that the likelihood of exposure to dry powder PV29 may be low for five conditions of use—processing: recycling; industrial and commercial use: paints and coatings—automobile (original equipment manufacturing and refinishing); industrial and commercial use: paints and coatings—coatings and basecoats; industrial and commercial use: merchant ink for commercial printing; and disposal. However, as there would still be unreasonable risk of injury to health if dry powder PV29 is used, the proposed regulatory requirements would be triggered only when dry powder PV29 is present. Per the SBAR Panel's recommendation, EPA is requesting comment on this approach, specifically how to mitigate the exposure to dry powder PV29, by entities that could, based on demonstrated ability through recordkeeping and utilization of a combination of controls (including engineering controls, administrative controls, and PPE requirements), eliminate inhalation exposure to PV29 to address the unreasonable risk.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Equipment and Area Cleaning Requirements</HD>
                <P>Prescriptive controls that the EPA could require include administrative controls. The use of cleaning requirements is proposed with administrative controls in mind, with the goal of reducing overall exposure to regulated PV29 in a holistic way by using multiple controls on the hierarchy of controls in place of engineering controls. The Agency acknowledges that administrative controls, in the form of a cleaning of the equipment and the area where regulated PV29 is handled, are only one step higher on the hierarchy of controls than respiratory protection but believes that their implementation would be complementary with the use of respiratory protection to address the unreasonable risk. In particular, the Agency chose this path in part because it is difficult to verify the effectiveness of engineering controls for mitigating the unreasonable risk regarding regulated PV29 because a chemical-specific air monitoring method does not currently exist. The Agency also chose this path because, as part of SBAR comments, the Agency learned that the manufacturer of regulated PV29 produces regulated PV29 infrequently over the course of twelve 12-hour shifts per year with 2 workers.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Primary Alternative Regulatory Action</HD>
                <P>EPA acknowledges that for all conditions of use in which it is proposing to require the use of respirators, the types of facilities that would use regulated PV29 may be able to implement engineering controls and respiratory protection, as these conditions of use occur in industrial settings. Therefore, for EPA's primary alternative regulatory action, described in Unit IV.B., EPA is requesting comment on whether any of the uses the Agency is proposing to implement respiratory protection requirements for could be better served by requiring exposure controls in accordance with the hierarchy of controls, including but not limited to engineering controls in tandem with respiratory protection.</P>
                <P>As discussed in this unit, in the PV29 Risk Evaluation, EPA identified that respiratory protection could reduce exposures in support of risk management efforts for PV29 and is proposing prescriptive controls, specifically respirators, as part of the primary regulatory option. EPA recognizes the potential for there to be other forms of controls to prevent inhalation exposure to regulated PV29. Therefore, as part of the alternative regulatory action, EPA considered requiring use of engineering controls for five conditions of use that contribute to the unreasonable risk of injury to health where the Agency believes regulated PV29 is commonly present—manufacturing (including import and domestic manufacturing), processing: incorporation into formulation, mixture or reaction products in paints and coatings and in plastic and rubber products, and processing: intermediate in the creation or adjustment of color of other perylene pigments.</P>
                <P>
                    For the primary alternative regulatory action, for the conditions of use where the Agency does not believe dry powder PV29 is commonly present—processing: recycling; industrial and commercial use: paints and coatings—automobile (original equipment manufacturing and refinishing); industrial and commercial use: paints and coatings—coatings and basecoats; industrial and commercial use: merchant ink for commercial printing; and disposal—the Agency would require owners and operators to follow the respiratory protection and equipment and area cleaning requirements outlined in the proposed action for these conditions of use when regulated PV29 is purchased. This includes the use of APF 50 respirators and implementation of a cleaning plan. Stakeholder feedback indicated that there could be varying workplace conditions and settings where it would be possible to use regulated PV29, so the Agency believes that respiratory protection and a cleaning plan would be more feasible to require and implement compared to engineering controls. A key difference between the primary alternative regulatory action and the proposed action is the requirement to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3122"/>
                    implement respiratory protection and cleaning requirements if PV29 is manufactured or purchased. Under the primary alternative regulatory action, respiratory protection and a cleaning plan would always be required regardless of whether an entity under the condition of use manufactures or purchases regulated PV29.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Risk Management Requirements Considered but Not Proposed</HD>
                <P>EPA considered a prohibition as a regulatory option but has found that a different regulatory action would address the unreasonable risk. In addition, EPA considered the information provided regarding alternatives for the use of PV29 as a pigment in paints and coatings. Industry described their efforts to explore alternatives but have not been successful in finding a suitable replacement (Ref. 3).</P>
                <P>
                    EPA also considered the option of establishing a Workplace Chemical Protection Program (WCPP) for occupational conditions of use, which would have included a combination of restrictions to address unreasonable risk contributed to by inhalation exposures in the workplace. A WCPP for PV29 would have encompassed restrictions on certain occupational conditions of use and could have included provisions for an Existing Chemical Exposure Limit (ECEL), an airborne concentration generally calculated as an eight (8)-hour time-weighted average (TWA), and ancillary requirements to support implementation of these restrictions. The WCPP requirement for PV29 would have been a non-prescriptive, performance-based exposure limit that would enable owners or operators to determine how to most effectively meet the exposure limits based on conditions at their workplace following the hierarchy of controls. However, EPA was unable to identify an existing chemical-specific inhalation exposure monitoring method for PV29. Additionally, EPA was also unable to identify an existing general workplace dust inhalation exposure monitoring method with a limit of detection lower than the calculated ECEL (0.014 mg/m
                    <SU>3</SU>
                     for inhalation exposures as an 8-hour Time Weighted Average in workplace settings) to ensure that there would be no unreasonable risk of injury to health for potentially exposed persons. EPA is requesting comment on monitoring for inhalation exposures to PV29, including the amount of time needed to develop an inhalation exposure monitoring method or how to use existing monitoring methods for other chemicals (See Unit V.5).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Additional Considerations</HD>
                <P>After considering the different regulatory options under TSCA section 6(a), lack of alternatives (described in Unit V.B.), compliance dates, and other requirements under TSCA section 6(c), EPA developed the proposed regulatory action described in Unit IV.A. to address the unreasonable risk from PV29. To ensure successful implementation of this proposed regulatory action, EPA considered other requirements to support compliance with the proposed regulations, such as requiring respirators and recordkeeping to demonstrate compliance with the respirator requirement, or downstream notification regarding the respirator requirements for use of dry powder PV29 in manufacturing, processing, and distribution in commerce. These proposed requirements are described in Unit IV.A.</P>
                <P>Based on reasonably available information, EPA has found that a TSCA section 6(g) exemption is not warranted at this time. Therefore, EPA is not proposing to grant exemptions from the rule requirements under TSCA section 6(g).</P>
                <P>As required under TSCA section 6(d), any rule under TSCA section 6(a) must specify mandatory compliance dates, which shall be as soon as practicable with a reasonable transition period, but no later than five years after the date of promulgation of the rule (except in the case of a use exempted under TSCA section 6(g) or for full implementation of ban or phase-out requirements). These compliance dates are detailed in Unit IV.A. and IV.B.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">SBAR Panel Recommendations.</E>
                     SBAR Panel information, including Panel's recommendations, was considered throughout the rulemaking process. The Panel's seven recommendations are specifically reflected in this document.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Recommendation 1. The Panel recommends that the EPA consider and request comment on how to mitigate the exposure to PV29, in particular the pure, dry/powder PV29, by entities that could, based on demonstrated ability through recordkeeping and utilization of a combination of controls (including engineering controls, administrative controls, and PPE requirements), eliminate inhalation exposure to PV29 to address the unreasonable risk.</E>
                </P>
                <P>EPA considered the recommendation and the Agency has considered and requests comment on how to mitigate the exposure to PV29, in particular the pure, dry/powder PV29, by entities that could, based on demonstrated ability through recordkeeping and utilization of a combination of controls (including engineering controls, administrative controls, and PPE requirements), eliminate inhalation exposure to PV29 to address the unreasonable risk.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Recommendation 2. The Panel recommends that the EPA consider not prohibiting the use of PV29. Instead, the Panel recommends that the EPA consider the assumptions in the Risk Evaluation to identify requirements that focus on the exposures that are contributing to the unreasonable risk, in particular the pure, dry/powder PV29, as compared to PV29 embedded in a matrix. Additionally, as part of this effort, the Panel recommends that the EPA provide and request comment in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) on reasonable compliance timeframes for small businesses, with emphasis on comment about how to provide longer compliance timeframes for transitioning to uses requiring reformulation.</E>
                </P>
                <P>EPA considered the recommendation and the Agency is not proposing to prohibit the use of PV29 in any fashion under the conditions of use that contribute to the unreasonable risk of injury to health. Additionally, as part of this panel recommendation, EPA considered the assumptions in the Risk Evaluation to identify requirements that focus on the exposures that are contributing to the unreasonable risk, in particular the pure, dry/powder PV29, as compared to PV29 embedded in a matrix. The Agency's consideration of these points is reflected in the proposed and alternative regulatory options, as described in Unit IV and with additional rationale provided in Unit V.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Recommendation 3. The Panel recommends that the EPA provide readily available information on potential costs that could be incurred using strategies to meet requirements for any proposed exposure controls, such as engineering, administrative, or prescriptive controls e.g., use of specialized systems, cost of new equipment, PPE use), or concentration limit, as they apply to each relevant COU. The Agency should also provide its analysis on whether it is feasible to implement these strategies for the regulated entities.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    EPA considered the recommendation and the Agency has provided readily available information on potential costs that could be incurred using strategies to meet requirements for any proposed exposure controls, such as engineering, administrative, or prescriptive controls (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     use of specialized systems, cost of new equipment, PPE use), or concentration limit, as they apply to each relevant COU, in the Economic Analysis (Ref. 6).
                    <PRTPAGE P="3123"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Recommendation 4. Based on SER comments providing diverse perspectives on preferences for exposure control technologies and methods, the Panel recommends that the EPA consider and request comment on a regulatory approach for those conditions of use where the EPA has confidence that exposures to PV29 can be effectively controlled, and what flexibility could be provided to regulated entities to incorporate the hierarchy of controls to reduce exposures so that the unreasonable risk is no longer present.</E>
                </P>
                <P>EPA considered the recommendation and the Agency also requests comment on a regulatory approach for those conditions of use where the EPA has confidence that exposures to PV29 can be effectively controlled, and what flexibility could be provided to regulated entities to incorporate the hierarchy of controls to reduce exposures so that the unreasonable risk is no longer present. The Agency's consideration of these points is reflected in the proposed and alternative regulatory options, as described in Unit IV and with additional rationale provided in Unit V.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Recommendation 5. The Panel recommends that the EPA provide an overview of information reasonably available regarding engineering or administrative controls that could address inhalation exposures expected for PV29. The panel recommends that the EPA seek comment on state-of-the-art equipment, engineering and administrative controls, and monitoring for inhalation exposures.</E>
                </P>
                <P>EPA considered the recommendation and the Agency has provided an overview of information reasonably available regarding engineering that could address inhalation exposures expected for PV29 as part of the Economic Analysis (Ref. 6). Some administrative controls are mentioned in the Economic Analysis, such as training for respirator usage, and were incorporated into the proposed and alternative proposed options as requirements for signage for regulated areas and respirator fit testing. Additionally, the EPA requests comment on state-of-the-art equipment, engineering and administrative controls, and monitoring for inhalation exposures, including the amount of time needed to develop an inhalation exposure monitoring method or how to use existing monitoring methods for other chemicals.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Recommendation 6. The Panel recommends that the EPA consider tailoring the applicability of requirements for entities that can demonstrate they do not use pure, dry/powder PV29 as long as the requirements are sufficient so that PV29 no longer presents unreasonable risk.</E>
                </P>
                <P>EPA has considered the recommendation and the Agency has tailored the applicability of requirements for entities that can demonstrate they do not use pure, dry/powder PV29 as long as the requirements are sufficient so that PV29 no longer presents unreasonable risk. The Agency's consideration of this point is reflected in the reference to and definition of “regulated PV29” in the proposed and alternative regulatory options, as described in Unit IV and with additional rationale provided in Unit V.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Recommendation 7. The Panel recommends that the EPA consider, in accordance with the scientific standards and the weight of scientific evidence required by TSCA, the data submitted after publication of the final risk evaluation for PV29 in the development of risk management options.</E>
                </P>
                <P>EPA has considered the recommendation and has considered, in accordance with the scientific standards and the weight of scientific evidence required by TSCA, the data submitted after publication of the final risk evaluation for PV29 in the development of risk management options. EPA assessed the quality of the particle size data in the study performed in 2020 by the current manufacturer of regulated PV29. This assessment can be found in the docket (Refs. 3, 24).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Consideration of Alternatives in Deciding Whether To Prohibit or Substantially Restrict PV29</HD>
                <P>Under TSCA section 6(c)(2)(C), in deciding whether to prohibit or restrict in a manner that substantially prevents a specific condition of use of a chemical substance or mixture, and in setting an appropriate transition period for such action, EPA must consider, to the extent practicable, whether technically and economically feasible alternatives that benefit human health or the environment will be reasonably available as a substitute when the proposed prohibition or other restriction takes effect. Because EPA is not proposing to prohibit or restrict in a manner that substantially prevents any conditions of use of PV29, formal consideration of alternatives was not necessary.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. TSCA Section 6(c)(2) Considerations</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. C.I. Pigment Violet 29: Health Effects and the Magnitude of Human Exposure</HD>
                <P>For assessment of risks associated with inhalation exposures to workers for PV29, EPA used an analogue, carbon black, to estimate toxicity. EPA used an analogue because no data were available for PV29 for inhalation exposure. Chronic exposure to PV29 is expected to increase lung burden which may result in kinetic lung overload, a pharmacokinetic phenomenon, which is not due to the overt toxicity of the chemical, but rather the possibility that PV29 dust overwhelms the lung clearance mechanisms over time. The inhalation toxicity data on the analogue, carbon black, demonstrated increased lung burden, alveolar hyperplasia, inflammatory and morphological changes in the lower respiratory tract. Populations exposed to PV29 include individuals age 16 to 19, men and women of reproductive age (16 to 54 years old), and the elderly (55+ years old), including pregnant women and individuals who do not use PV29 but may be indirectly exposed due to their proximity to the user who is directly handling PV29 (ONUs). EPA estimates that, annually, there are approximately between 57 and 77 workers and 78 ONUs at 22 facilities either manufacturing, processing, or using regulated PV29 for industrial and commercial conditions of use (Ref. 6).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. C.I. Pigment Violet 29: Environmental Effects and the Magnitude of Environmental Exposure</HD>
                <P>EPA identified and evaluated PV29 environmental hazard data for fish, aquatic invertebrates, amphibians, and aquatic plants across acute and chronic exposure durations. No effects were observed in acute toxicity testing with fish, aquatic invertebrates, and aquatic plants up to the limit of solubility of PV29. As a result, no concentrations of concern (COC) can be calculated for this chemical, as it is not possible to dissolve enough quantities of PV29 in water to elicit a response in aquatic organisms.</P>
                <P>
                    EPA determined that environmental exposures of PV29 for the conditions of use are expected to be limited as a result of a qualitative consideration of reasonably available physical and chemical, environmental fate, manufacturing and release, and exposure data. Considering the limited nature of the environmental exposures resulting from the conditions of use of PV29 and the lack of effects observed in the available environmental hazard studies, environmental concentrations 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3124"/>
                    of PV29 are not expected to reach a level where adverse effects to environmental receptors could occur.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Benefits of C.I. Pigment Violet 29 for Various Uses</HD>
                <P>Leading applications for PV29 include use as an intermediate to create or adjust color of other perylene pigments, incorporation into paints and coatings used primarily in the automobile industry, incorporation into plastic and rubber products used primarily in automobiles and industrial carpeting, use in merchant ink for commercial printing, and use in consumer watercolors and artistic color (Ref. 1).</P>
                <P>According to data collected in EPA's 2016 Chemical Data Reporting (CDR) database, 603,420 pounds of PV29 were manufactured in the U.S. in 2015. EPA has identified one domestic manufacturer and one importer of PV29 in the United States (Ref. 1). Stakeholder feedback during SBAR Panel proceedings indicated that industry has not been able to find a suitable alternative for PV29, which is used in automotive paints and coatings (Ref. 3).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Reasonably Ascertainable Economic Consequences of the Proposed Rule</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Likely Effect of the Rule on the National Economy, Small Business, Technological Innovation, the Environment, and Public Health</HD>
                <P>With respect to the anticipated effects of this rule on the national economy, the economic impact of a regulation on the national economy generally only becomes measurable if the economic impact of the regulation reaches 0.25 percent to 0.5 percent of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) (Ref. 25). Given the current GDP this is equivalent to a cost of $69 billion to $139 billion. Therefore, because EPA has estimated that the monetized costs of the rule to range from $1.6 to $1.7 million annualized over 15 years at a 2% discount rate, EPA has concluded that this action is highly unlikely to have any measurable effect on the national economy (Ref. 6). EPA considered the number of businesses, facilities, and workers that would be affected and the costs and benefits to those businesses and workers and society at large and did not find that there would be a measurable effect on the national economy.</P>
                <P>In addition, EPA considered the employment impacts of this proposal. While EPA does not have data to quantify employment impacts of the proposed rule. However, EPA expects the short-term and longer-term employment effects to be small. Of the approximately 50,000 small businesses estimated to be potentially impacted by this rule, greater than 99% of firms are estimated to have impacts less than 1% of revenues. Only a single firm is estimated to have impacts between 1 and 3% to their firm revenues, and no firms are expected to have impacts greater than 3% to their firm revenues.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Costs and Benefits of the Proposed Regulatory Action and of the 1 or More Primary Alternative Regulatory Actions Considered by the Administrator</HD>
                <P>The costs and benefits that can be monetized for this rule are described at length in in the Economic Analysis (Ref. 6). The monetized costs for this rule are estimated to range from $1.6 million to $1.7 million annualized over 15 years at a 2% discount rate.</P>
                <P>EPA considered the estimated costs to regulated entities as well as the cost to administer alternative regulatory actions. The primary alternative regulatory action is described in detail in Unit IV.B. The estimated annualized costs of the alternative regulatory action are $.9 million at a 2% discount rate over 15 years (Ref. 6).</P>
                <P>The proposed rule is expected to achieve health benefits for the American public. Human health hazards for regulated PV29 were assessed in the Risk Evaluation [Ref X] using carbon black as an analogue. Effects of carbon black exposure include increased lung burden, alveolar hyperplasia, and inflammatory and morphological changes in the lower respiratory tract. These endpoints are not monetizable themselves, however there are occupational studies on carbon black that have found significant relationships between inhalable carbon black dust exposure and respiratory effects, including chronic bronchitis. EPA estimates that the monetized benefits of reducing chronic bronchitis cases due to the proposed rule are estimated to range from $271 to $629 thousand annualized over 15 years at a 2% discount rate. The monetized benefits of this alternative regulatory action are estimated to range from $168 to $375 thousand annualized over 15 years at 2% (Ref. 6).</P>
                <P>Cost effectiveness of the proposed regulatory action and of the 1 or more primary alternative regulatory actions considered by the Administrator. Cost effectiveness is a method of comparing certain actions in terms of the expense per item of interest or goal. The proposed rule costs an estimated $1.9-$4.3 million per potential bronchitis case avoided while the alternative option costs an estimated $1.8-$3.9 million per potential bronchitis case avoided using annualized costs for the 2 percent discount rate. Thus, the alternative option has a slightly lower cost per case of chronic bronchitis avoided compared to the proposed option, making it the most cost-effective of the two options considered based on estimated costs and benefits. The primary differences between the proposal and alternative option are that the alternative would require engineering controls, such as HEPA filters, to control the regulated PV29 air concentration in addition to PPE and monitoring requirements to measure air concentrations for respirable dust. However, the costs of engineering controls are not monetized in the Economic Analysis.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Request for Comments Regarding the Reasonably Ascertainable Economic Consequences of the Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>EPA requests comment on its analyses of the number of affected firms, facilities, and occupational users and non-users. EPA requests comment on current PPE practices within affected facilities using regulated PV29 in any of the conditions of use. Finally, EPA requests comment on the costs firms would incur as a result of the proposed rule, as well as information that the Agency could use to improve these estimates.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. TSCA Section 9 Analysis and Section 26 Considerations</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. TSCA Section 9(a) Analysis</HD>
                <P>TSCA section 9(a) provides that, if the Administrator determines, in the Administrator's discretion, that an unreasonable risk may be prevented or reduced to a sufficient extent by an action taken under a Federal law not administered by EPA, the Administrator must submit a report to the agency administering that other law that describes the risk and the activities that present such risk. TSCA section 9(a) describes additional procedures and requirements to be followed by EPA and the other Federal agency following submission of any such report. As discussed in this unit, for this proposed rule, the Administrator proposes to exercise his discretion not to determine that the unreasonable risk from PV29 under the conditions of use may be prevented or reduced to a sufficient extent by an action taken under a Federal law not administered by EPA.</P>
                <P>
                    TSCA section 9(d) instructs the Administrator to consult and coordinate TSCA activities with other Federal agencies for the purpose of achieving the maximum enforcement of TSCA while imposing the least burden of duplicative requirements. For this 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3125"/>
                    proposed rule, EPA has coordinated with appropriate Federal executive departments and agencies, to, among other things, identify their respective authorities, jurisdictions, and existing laws with regard to risk evaluation and risk management of PV29, which are summarized in this Unit, and in Unit II. B.
                </P>
                <P>OSHA requires that employers provide safe and healthful working conditions by setting and enforcing standards and by providing training, outreach, education, and assistance. Gaps exist between OSHA's authority to set workplace standards under the OSH Act and EPA's obligations under TSCA section 6 to eliminate unreasonable risk presented by chemical substances under the conditions of use. Health standards issued under section 6(b)(5) of the OSH Act must reduce significant risk only “to the extent feasible.” 29 U.S.C. 655(b)(5). To set PELs for chemical exposure, OSHA must first establish that the new standards are economically and technologically feasible (79 FR 61384, 61387, Oct. 10, 2014). OSHA also does not have direct authority over self-employed individuals and public sector workers who are not covered by a State Plan under 29 U.S.C. 667.</P>
                <P>The 2016 amendments to TSCA altered both the manner of identifying unreasonable risk and EPA's authority to address unreasonable risk, such that risk management is increasingly distinct from provisions of the OSH Act. EPA risk evaluations under TSCA section 6(b) must determine, without consideration of costs or other nonrisk factors, whether an unreasonable risk of injury to health or the environment is presented, including an unreasonable risk to a relevant potentially exposed or susceptible subpopulation. In a TSCA section 6 risk management rule, following such an unreasonable risk determination, EPA must apply risk management requirements to the extent necessary so that the chemical no longer presents unreasonable risk and only consider costs and benefits of the regulatory action to the extent practicable, 15 U.S.C. 2605(a), (c)(2). EPA's substantive burden under TSCA section 6(a) is to apply requirements to the extent necessary so that the chemical substance no longer presents the unreasonable risk that was determined in accordance with TSCA section 6(b)(4)(A) without consideration of cost or other nonrisk factors.</P>
                <P>EPA therefore concludes that TSCA is the only regulatory authority able to prevent or reduce unreasonable risk of PV29 to a sufficient extent across the conditions of use, exposures, and populations of concern. The timeframe and any exposure reduction as a result of updating OSHA regulations cannot be estimated, while TSCA imposes a much more accelerated statutory timeframe for proposing and finalizing requirements to address unreasonable risk. Further, there are key differences between the finding requirements of TSCA and those of the OSH Act. For these reasons, in the Administrator's discretion, the Administrator has analyzed this issue and does not determine that unreasonable risk presented by PV29 may be prevented or reduced to a sufficient extent by an action taken under a Federal law not administered by EPA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. TSCA Section 9(b) Analysis</HD>
                <P>If EPA determines that actions under other Federal laws administered in whole or in part by EPA could eliminate or sufficiently reduce a risk to health or the environment, TSCA section 9(b) instructs EPA to use these other authorities to protect against that risk unless the Administrator determines, in the Administrator's discretion, that it is in the public interest to protect against such risk under TSCA. In making such a public interest finding, TSCA section 9(b)(2) requires EPA to consider, based on the reasonably available information, all relevant aspects of the risk and a comparison of the estimated costs and efficiencies of the action to be taken under TSCA and an action to be taken under another law administered by the Agency to protect against such risk.</P>
                <P>The primary exposures and unreasonable risk to workers and occupational non-users would be addressed by EPA's proposed prohibitions and restrictions under TSCA section 6(a). There are no EPA statutes or other regulations for PV29 that would result in reduced exposure to PV29 in occupational settings. EPA therefore concludes that TSCA is the most appropriate regulatory authority able to prevent or reduce risks of PV29 to a sufficient extent across the conditions of use, exposures, and populations of concern.</P>
                <P>For these reasons, the Administrator does not determine that unreasonable risk from PV29 under its conditions of use, as evaluated in the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29, could be eliminated or reduced to a sufficient extent by actions taken under other Federal laws administered in whole or in part by EPA.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. TSCA Section 26 Considerations</HD>
                <P>In accordance with TSCA section 26(h), EPA has used scientific information, technical procedures, measures, methods, protocols, methodologies, and models consistent with the best available science. As in the case of the unreasonable risk determination, risk management decisions for this proposed rule, as discussed in Units III.B.3. and V., were based on a risk evaluation that was subject to public comment and independent, expert peer review, and was developed in a manner consistent with the best available science and based on the weight of the scientific evidence as required by TSCA sections 26(h) and (i) and 40 CFR 702.43 and 702.45.</P>
                <P>The extent to which the various information, procedures, measures, methods, protocols, methodologies, or models, as applicable, used in EPA's decisions have been subject to independent verification or peer review is adequate to justify their use, collectively, in the record for this rule. Additional information on the peer review and public comment process, such as the peer review plan, the peer review report, and the Agency's response to public comments, can be found at EPA's risk evaluation dockets (Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OPPT-2016-0725 and EPA-HQ-OPPT-2018-0604).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Requests for Comment</HD>
                <P>While EPA is requesting public comment on all aspects of this proposal, the Agency is soliciting feedback from the public on specific issues throughout this proposed rule. This section summarizes those specific requests for comments.</P>
                <P>1. EPA is requesting public comment on the proposed regulatory action and alternative regulatory action, including whether EPA should have more prescriptive requirements for the cleaning plan. (Unit IV.)</P>
                <P>2. EPA is requesting comment on whether to require owners or operators to provide additional workplace training related to PV29 where regulated PV29 is present. (Unit IV.)</P>
                <P>3. EPA is requesting public comment on EPA's proposal to not grant a TSCA section 6(g) exemption.</P>
                <P>4. EPA requests public comments regarding the number of small businesses subject to the rule and the potential impacts of the rule on these small businesses.</P>
                <P>5. EPA is requesting comment on the proposed rule's rationale, including the definition of regulated PV29. (Unit V.)</P>
                <P>
                    6. EPA requests comment on whether EPA should promulgate definitions for those conditions of use evaluated in the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29, and, if so, whether the descriptions in this unit are consistent with the conditions of use evaluated in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3126"/>
                    the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 and whether they provide a sufficient level of detail to improve the clarity and readability of the regulation if EPA were to promulgate a regulation that contains a list of all prohibited or otherwise regulated industrial and commercial conditions of use. (Unit III.)
                </P>
                <P>7. EPA is soliciting comment on whether six months is a reasonable timeframe to implement respiratory protection requirements or if a different timeframe is needed. (Unit IV.)</P>
                <P>8. EPA is requesting comment on whether there should be a requirement for a minimum service life of non-powered air-purifying respirators such as the requirements found in OSHA's General Industry Standard for Benzene (29 CFR 1910.1028(g)(3)(D)). (Unit IV.)</P>
                <P>9. EPA will consider compliance timeframes that may be substantially longer or shorter than the proposed timeframes for owners or operators for procedural adjustments needed to comply with the requirements outlined in this unit (Unit IV.) and is requesting comment on the feasibility of the proposed compliance timeframes, as well as longer or shorter timeframes. (Unit IV.)</P>
                <P>10. Per the SBAR Panel's recommendation, EPA is requesting comment on this approach, specifically how to mitigate the exposure to dry powder PV29, by entities that could, based on demonstrated ability through recordkeeping and utilization of a combination of controls (including engineering controls, administrative controls, and PPE requirements), eliminate inhalation exposure to PV29 to address the unreasonable risk. (Unit V.)</P>
                <P>11. For EPA's primary alternative regulatory action, described in Unit IV.B., EPA is requesting comment on whether any of the uses the Agency is proposing to implement respiratory protection requirements for could be better served by requiring exposure controls in accordance with the hierarchy of controls, including but not limited to engineering controls in tandem with respiratory protection. (Unit V.)</P>
                <P>12. Per the SBAR Panel's recommendation, EPA requests comment on reasonable compliance timeframes for small businesses, with emphasis on comment about how to provide longer compliance timeframes for transitioning to uses requiring reformulation. (Unit V.)</P>
                <P>13. Per the SBAR Panel's recommendation, EPA requests comment on a regulatory approach for those conditions of use where the EPA has confidence that exposures to PV29 can be effectively controlled, and what flexibility could be provided to regulated entities to incorporate the hierarchy of controls to reduce exposures so that the unreasonable risk is no longer present. (Unit V.)</P>
                <P>14. Per the SBAR Panel's recommendation, EPA requests comment on state-of-the-art equipment, engineering and administrative controls, and monitoring for inhalation exposures, including the amount of time needed to develop an inhalation exposure monitoring method or how to use existing monitoring methods for other chemicals. (Unit V.)</P>
                <P>15. EPA requests comment on its analyses of the number of affected firms, facilities, and occupational users and non-users. (Unit VI.)</P>
                <P>16. EPA requests comment on current PPE practices within affected facilities using regulated PV29 in any of the conditions of use. (Unit VI.)</P>
                <P>17. EPA requests comment on the costs firms would incur as a result of the proposed rule, as well as information that the Agency could use to improve these estimates. (Unit VI.)</P>
                <P>
                    18. EPA is requesting public comment on the interpretations of risk when it is in other forms including bound in a matrix like paint or liquid, and if uses, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.</E>
                     aerosol spraying, sanding or grinding dry paint, could render PV29 biologically available or possibly pose an inhalation exposure risk. (Unit II.)
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IX. References</HD>
                <P>
                    The following is a listing of the documents that are specifically referenced in this document. The docket includes these documents and other information considered by EPA, including documents that are referenced within the documents that are included in the docket, even if the referenced document is not physically located in the docket. For assistance in locating these other documents, please consult the technical person listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">1. EPA. Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 (Anthra[2,1,9-def:6,5,10-d′e′f′]diisoquinoline-1,3,8,10(2H,9H)-tetrone). EPA Document #740-R-18-015. January 2021.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">2. EPA. Colour Index Pigment Violet 29 (PV29); Revision to the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) Risk Determination. September 2022.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">3. Small Business Advocacy Review Panel. Small Business Advocacy Review Panel on EPA's Planned Proposed Rule under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) Section 6(a) for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 (PV29). September 14, 2023.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        4. California Office of Environmental Health Hazard Assessment. Carbon Black Proposition 65 Listing Notice. 
                        <E T="03">https://oehha.ca.gov/proposition-65/crnr/chemical-listed-effective-february-21-2003-known-state-california-cause-cancer</E>
                         (accessed November 5, 2024).
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">5. EPA. Memorandum for ECRAD Response to CPMA Comments Following Small Business Advocacy Review Panel Outreach Meeting on Proposed PV29 Risk Management Rulemaking. March 20, 2024.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">6 EPA. C.I. Pigment Violet 29 (PV29); Regulation Under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA); Economic Analysis. December 2024.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        7. Executive Order 13985. Advancing Racial Equity and Support for Underserved Communities Through the Federal Government. 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         (86 FR 7009, January 25, 2021).
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        8. Executive Order 13990. Protecting Public Health and the Environment and Restoring Science to Tackle the Climate Crisis. 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         (86 FR 7037, January 25, 2021).
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        9. Executive Order 14008. Tackling the Climate Crisis at Home and Abroad. 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         (86 FR 7619, February 1, 2021).
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">10. EPA. Colour Index Pigment Violet 29 (PV29): Revision to Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) Risk Determination Response to Public Comments. August 2022.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">11. EPA. Stakeholder Meeting List for Rulemaking for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 under TSCA Section 6(a).</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">12. EPA. Summary of External Peer Review and Public Comments and Disposition for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 (PV29) (Anthra[2,1,9-def:6,5,10-d′e′f′]diisoquinoline-1,3,8,10(2H,9H)-tetrone), Response to Support the Final Risk Evaluation of C.I. Pigment Violet 29. January 2021.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">13. EPA. Federalism Consultation on Forthcoming Proposed Rulemakings under TSCA Section 6(a) for Asbestos, Part 1: Chrysotile Asbestos and C.I. Pigment Violet 29. May 13, 2021.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">14. EPA. Tribal Consultations on Risk Management Rulemakings for Asbestos, Part 1: Chrysotile Asbestos and C.I. Pigment Violet 29. May 24, 2021 and June 3, 2021.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">15. EPA. Environmental Justice Consultations Risk Management Rulemakings for Asbestos, Part 1: Chrysotile Asbestos and C.I. Pigment Violet 29. June 1, 2021 and June 9, 2021.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">16. EPA. Public Webinar on Asbestos, Part 1: Chrysotile Asbestos and C.I. Pigment Violet 29: Risk Evaluation and Risk Management under TSCA Section 6. February 23, 2021.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">17. EPA. Small Business Administration Small Business Environmental Roundtable Risk Evaluation and Risk Management under TSCA Section 6 for C.I. Pigment Violet 29. February 26, 2021.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        18. EPA. EPA's Policy on Children's Health. October 5, 2021. 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/children/childrens-health-policy-and-plan#A1.</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        19. EPA. Final Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 (PV29) Supplemental 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3127"/>
                        File: Information Received from Manufacturing Stakeholders. January 2021.
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">20. EPA. Chemical Risk Evaluation Meeting with Sun Chemical Corporation, Color Pigments Manufacturers Association and EPA to Discuss the Downstream Processors of C.I. Pigment Violet 29 (PV29). October 16, 2020.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">21. Raleigh Davis; American Coatings Association. Comments to the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency in Response to the TSCA Chemical Use Dossiers on Pigment Violet 29. March 15, 2017.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">22. David Wawer; Color Pigment Manufacturers Association, Inc. Comment to the EPA about the Toxicological Properties, Chemical Use (and Other) Information Relevant to EPA's Risk Evaluation of C.I. Pigment Violet 29. March 13, 2017.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        23. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health. Hierarchy of Controls. Page last reviewed: April 10, 2024. 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cdc.gov/niosh/hierarchy-of-controls/about/.</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">24. EPA. ECRAD Review of Ramboll's Airborne Particle Size Characterization of C.I. Pigment Violet 29 (PV29) Study and Risk Management Related-Issues. March 13, 2024.</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        25. Office of Management and Budget. Memorandum for the Heads of Executive Departments and Agencies. Guidance for Implementing Title II of S. 1. March 31, 1995. 
                        <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/legacy_drupal_files/omb/memoranda/1995-1998/m95-09.pdf.</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">26. EPA. Supporting Statement for an Information Collection Request (ICR) Under the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA); Regulation of C.I. Pigment Violet 29 under TSCA Section 6(a) (Proposed Rule; RIN 2070-AK87). December 2024.</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">X. Statutory and Executive Order Reviews</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional information about these statutes and Executive Orders can be found at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/laws-regulations/laws-and-executive-orders.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Executive Order 12866: Regulatory Planning and Review and Executive Order 13563: Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review</HD>
                <P>This action is not a significant regulatory action as defined in Executive Order 12866 (58 FR 51735, October 4, 1993), as amended by Executive Order 14094 (88 FR 21879, April 11, 2023), and was therefore not subject to a requirement for Executive Order 12866 review.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA)</HD>
                <P>
                    The information collection activities in this proposed rule have been submitted to OMB for review and comment under the PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                     The Information Collection Request (ICR) document that EPA prepared has been assigned EPA ICR No. 7797.01 (Ref. 26). You can find a copy of the ICR in the docket, and it is briefly summarized here.
                </P>
                <P>The information collection requirements contained in the proposed rule are:</P>
                <P>• The preparation and retention of records related to respiratory protection requirements in accordance with proposed 40 CFR 751.909(b)(2);</P>
                <P>• The preparation and retention of records related to the equipment and area cleaning in accordance with proposed 40 CFR 751.909(b)(1);</P>
                <P>• Third-party downstream notifications in accordance with proposed 40 CFR 751.907 from companies that ship PV29 to companies downstream in the supply chain through the SDS to communicate the proposed prohibitions; and</P>
                <P>• The preparation and retention of related records in accordance with proposed 40 CFR 751.909, including ordinary business records, such as invoices and bills-of-lading related to the continued distribution of PV29 in commerce.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/affected entities:</E>
                     Manufacturers (including importers), processors, distributors, and industrial and commercial users of C.I. Pigment Violet 29. See Unit I.A. and the ICR for more details.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's obligation to respond:</E>
                     Mandatory (15 U.S.C. 2605).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated number of respondents:</E>
                     49,670.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of response:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total estimated burden:</E>
                     16,976 hours (per year). Burden is defined at 5 CFR 1320.3(b).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total estimated cost:</E>
                     $1,646,584 (per year), includes $200 annualized capital or operation and maintenance costs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. After display in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     when approved, the OMB control numbers for EPA regulations in 40 CFR are listed in 40 CFR part 9 and displayed on the form and instructions or collection portal, as applicable.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Submit your comments on the Agency's need for this information, the accuracy of the provided burden estimates and any suggested methods for minimizing respondent burden to the EPA using the docket identified at the beginning of this rule. EPA will respond to any ICR-related comments in the final rule. You may also send your ICR-related comments to OMB's Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs using the interface at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                     Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function. OMB must receive comments no later than February 13, 2025.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA)</HD>
                <P>
                    I certify that this action will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities under the RFA, 5 U.S.C. 601 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                     The small entities subject to the requirements of this action are small businesses that manufacture/import, process or use the chemical subject to this proposed rule. The estimated annualized costs of this rule are less than $2 million at a 2% discount over 15 years. Only 22 firms are estimated to incur compliance costs associated with rule requirements and five of those are small businesses, however EPA expects that four would be impacted only at less than 1% of revenues and only a single firm would be impacted at between 1% and 3% of revenues. Approximately 50,000 small businesses firms are expected to only incur costs associated with becoming familiar with the proposed requirements and determining that they would not subject to the proposed requirements. EPA does not expect that the costs associated with simply reading and becoming familiar with the proposed requirements would result in direct costs at 1 percent of annual revenues or greater. Details of this analysis are presented in the Economic Analysis (Ref. 6).
                </P>
                <P>Although not required by the RFA to convene a Small Business Advocacy Review (SBAR) Panel because the EPA has now determined that this proposal would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, the EPA originally convened a panel to obtain advice and recommendations from small entity representatives potentially subject to this rule's requirements. A copy of the SBAR Panel Report is included in the docket for this rulemaking.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA)</HD>
                <P>
                    This action does not contain an unfunded mandate of $100 million (in 1995 dollars and adjusted annually for inflation) or more as described in UMRA, 2 U.S.C. 1531-1538, and does not significantly or uniquely affect small governments. The costs involved in this action are estimated not to exceed $183 million in 2023$ ($100 million in 1995$, adjusted for inflation using the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3128"/>
                    GDP implicit price deflator) or more in any one year.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Executive Order 13132: Federalism</HD>
                <P>EPA has concluded that this action has federalism implications, as specified in Executive Order 131312 (64 FR 43255, August 10, 1999), because regulation under TSCA section 6(a) may preempt State law. As set forth in TSCA section 18(a)(1)(B), the issuance of rules under TSCA section 6(a) to address the unreasonable risk presented by a chemical substance or mixture has the potential to trigger preemption of State laws, criminal penalties, or administrative action by a State or political subdivison of a State that: (1) is applicable to the same chemical substance or mixture as the rule under TSCA section 6(a); and (2) is to prohibit or otherwise restrict the manufacture, processing, or distribution in commerce or use of that same chemical. TSCA section 18(c)(3) applies that preemption only to the hazards, exposures, risks, and uses or conditions of use of such chemical included in the final TSCA section 6(a) rule.</P>
                <P>EPA provides the following federalism summary impact statement. The Agency consulted with State and local officials early in the process of developing the proposed action to permit them to have meaningful and timely input into its development. This included a consultation meeting on May 13, 2021. EPA invited the following national organizations representing State and local elected officials to this meeting: National Association of Attorneys General, Western States Water Council, National Water Resources Association, Association of State Drinking Water Administrators, Association of Clean Water Administrators, Association of Metropolitan Water Agencies, American Water Works Association, National Governors Association; National Conference of State Legislatures, National League of Cities, U.S. Conference of Mayors, National Association of Counties, County Executives of America, and Environmental Council of States. A summary of the meeting with these organizations, including the views that they expressed, is available in the docket (Ref. 13). EPA provided an opportunity for these organizations to provide follow-up comments in writing but did not receive any such comments.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Executive Order 13175: Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments</HD>
                <P>This action does not have tribal implications as specified in Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 9, 2000). This rulemaking would not have substantial direct effects on tribal governments because PV29 is not manufactured, processed, or distributed in commerce by tribes and would not impose substantial direct compliance costs on tribal governments. Thus, Executive Order 13175 does not apply to this action.</P>
                <P>Notwithstanding the lack of Tribal implications as specified by Executive Order 13175, EPA consulted with Tribal officials during the development of this action, consistent with the EPA Policy on Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribes, which EPA applies more broadly than Executive Order 13175. The Agency held a Tribal consultation from June 3, 2021, to August 20, 2021, with meetings on May 24 and June 3, 2021. Tribal officials were given the opportunity to meaningfully interact with EPA risk managers concerning the current status of risk management. During the consultation, EPA discussed risk management under TSCA section 6(a), findings from the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29, types of information that would be helpful to inform risk management, principles for transparency during the risk management process, and types of information EPA is seeking from tribes (Ref. 14). EPA received no written comments as part of this consultation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Executive Order 13045: Protection of Children From Environmental Health Risks and Safety Risks</HD>
                <P>
                    Executive Order 13045 (62 FR 19885, April 23, 1997) directs Federal agencies to include an evaluation of the health and safety effects of the planned regulation on children in Federal health and safety standards and explain why the regulation is preferable to potentially effective and reasonably feasible alternatives. This action is not subject to Executive Order 13045 because it is not a significant regulatory action under section 3(f)(1) of Executive Order 12866, and because the EPA does not believe the environmental health or safety risks addressed by this action present a disproportionate risk to children. Accordingly, we have evaluated associated health impacts of PV29 exposure on children and adults of reproductive age. The effects related to the endpoint used for PV29 risk evaluation were alveolar hyperplasia, inflammatory, and morphological changes in the lungs, which are not associated with disproportionate effects to children. EPA did not find evidence of reproductive and developmental toxicity as a result of exposure to PV29. This action's health and risk assessments and impacts on both children and adults from occupational use from inhalation and dermal exposures are described in Units III.A.3, III.B.3, VI.A., and the 2021 Risk Evaluation for C.I. Pigment Violet 29 (Ref. 1). However, EPA's 
                    <E T="03">Policy on Children's Health</E>
                     applies to this action. Information on how the Policy was applied is available in Unit III.A.3.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Executive Order 13211: Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution or Use</HD>
                <P>This action is not subject to Executive Order 13211 (66 FR 28355, May 22, 2001) because it is not a significant regulatory action under Executive Order 12866.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. National Technology Transfer and Advancement Act (NTTAA)</HD>
                <P>This action does not involve technical standards under the NTTAA section 12(d), 15 U.S.C. 272.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">J. Executive Orders 12898: Federal Actions To Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations and Executive Order 14096: Revitalizing Our Nation's Commitment to Environmental Justice for All</HD>
                <P>
                    EPA believes that the human health and environmental conditions that exist prior to this action result in or have the potential to result in disproportionate and adverse human health or environmental effects on communities with EJ concerns in accordance with Executive Order 14096 (88 FR 25251, April 26, 2023) (building on and supplementing Executive Order 12898 (59 FR 7629, February 16, 1994)). As described more fully in the Economic Analysis for this rulemaking (Ref. 6), EPA conducted an analysis to characterize the baseline conditions faced by workers affected by the proposed regulation to identify the potential for disproportionate impacts on communities with affected by the proposed regulatory option under current conditions, before the regulation would go into effect. The analysis drew on publicly available data provided by EPA and the U.S. Census Bureau, including data from the American Community Survey (ACS) and the Quarterly Workforce Indicators (QWI). The baseline characterization suggests that workers in affected industries are more likely to be people of color than the general population in affected areas (Ref. 6). Therefore, based on reasonably available information, EPA determined that there are potential environmental justice concerns in communities 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3129"/>
                    surrounding facilities subject to this regulation (Ref. 6).
                </P>
                <P>EPA believes that it is not practicable to assess whether this action is likely to reduce or result in new disproportionate and adverse effects on communities with environmental justice concerns. While this proposed regulatory action applies requirements to the extent necessary so that PV29 no longer presents an unreasonable risk, EPA is not able to quantify the distribution of the change in risk for affected populations. Data limitations that prevent EPA from conducting a more comprehensive analysis are summarized in the Economic Analysis (Ref. 6).</P>
                <P>EPA additionally identified and addressed potential EJ concerns by conducting outreach to advocates of communities that might be subject to disproportionate exposure to PV29. On June 1, 2021, and June 9, 2021, EPA held public meetings as part of this consultation (Ref. 15). See also Unit II.D. These meetings were held pursuant to Executive Order 12898 and Executive Order 14008, Tackling the Climate Crisis at Home and Abroad (86 FR 7619, February 1, 2021). EPA received no written comments following the EJ meetings, in addition to oral comments provided during the consultations (Refs. 13, 14, 15).</P>
                <P>
                    The information supporting this Executive Order review is contained in Unit II.D., as well as in the Economic Analysis (Ref. 6). EPA's presentations, a summary of EPA's presentation and public comments made, and fact sheets for the EJ consultations related to this rulemaking are available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/assessing-and-managing-chemicals-under-tsca/materials-june-2021-environmental-justice-consultations.</E>
                     These materials are also available in the docket for this rulemaking.
                </P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 40 CFR Part 751</HD>
                    <P>Environmental protection, Chemicals, Export notification, Hazardous substances, Import certification, reporting and recordkeeping.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Michael S. Regan,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Administrator.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>Therefore, for the reasons stated in the preamble, EPA proposes to amend 40 CFR part 751 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 751-REGULATION OF CERTAIN CHEMICAL SUBSTANCES AND MIXTURES UNDER SECTION 6 OF THE TOXIC SUBSTANCES CONTROL ACT</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 751 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>
                        15 U.S.C. 2605, 15 U.S.C. 2625(
                        <E T="03">l</E>
                        )(4).
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>2. Add new Subpart J to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SUBPART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart J—Color Index Pigment Violet 29</HD>
                </SUBPART>
                <CONTENTS>
                    <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                    <SECTNO>751.901 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>General.</SUBJECT>
                    <SECTNO>751.903 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                    <SECTNO>751.905 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Workplace requirements.</SUBJECT>
                    <SECTNO>751.907 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Labeling and downstream notification.</SUBJECT>
                    <SECTNO>751.909 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Recordkeeping requirements.</SUBJECT>
                </CONTENTS>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 751.901 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>General.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>This Subpart sets certain requirements on the manufacture (including import), processing, distribution in commerce, use, and disposal of Color Index Pigment Violet 29 (CASRN 81-33-4), also referred to as PV29, to prevent unreasonable risk of injury to health.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 751.903 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>In addition to the definitions that apply to this part established in § 751.5, the following definitions apply to this subpart:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">PV29 regulated area</E>
                         means an area where a regulated PV29 container is open or in use, an area where equipment containing regulated PV29 is in use or has not yet been cleaned, or an area where cleaning activities are occurring.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Regulated PV29</E>
                         means neat PV29 in a dry powder form or in dry powder form when mixed with other types of dry powder pigments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Residue</E>
                         means crumbly, powdery, or otherwise particulate material that can be dusted or swabbed off a surface.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 751.905 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Workplace requirements.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">Applicability.</E>
                         The provisions of this section apply to workplaces engaged in the following conditions of use of regulated PV29:
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) Domestic manufacture.</P>
                    <P>(2) Import.</P>
                    <P>(3) Processing: Incorporation into formulation, mixture, or reaction products in paints and coatings.</P>
                    <P>(4) Processing: Incorporation into formulation, mixture, or reaction products in plastic and rubber products.</P>
                    <P>(5) Processing: intermediate in the creation or adjustment of color of other perylene pigments.</P>
                    <P>(6) Processing: recycling.</P>
                    <P>(7) Industrial and commercial use in automobile paints and coatings (original equipment manufacturing and refinishing).</P>
                    <P>(8) Industrial and commercial use in coatings and basecoats for paints and coatings.</P>
                    <P>(9) Industrial and commercial use in merchant ink for commercial printing.</P>
                    <P>(10) Disposal.</P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">PV29 regulated area.</E>
                         (1) Beginning [DATE 180 DAYS AFTER DATE OF PUBLICATION OF THE FINAL RULE IN THE 
                        <E T="04">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                        ], the owner or operator must establish, maintain, and demarcate a PV29 regulated areas where exposure to regulated PV29 can reasonably be expected to occur.
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) The owner or operator must limit access to PV29 regulated areas to authorized persons.</P>
                    <P>(3) The owner or operator must demarcate PV29 regulated areas from the rest of the workplace in a manner that adequately establishes and alerts persons to the boundaries of the area and minimizes the number of authorized persons exposed to regulated PV29 within the PV29 regulated area.</P>
                    <P>(4) The owner or operator must supply a respirator that complies with the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section and must ensure that all persons within the PV29 regulated area are using the provided respirators whenever exposure to regulated PV29 can reasonably be expected to occur.</P>
                    <P>(5) An owner or operator who has established a PV29 regulated area as required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section where regulated PV29 exposure can reasonably be expected to occur only on certain days (for example, because of work or process schedule) must have persons use respirators in that regulated area on those days.</P>
                    <P>(6) The owner or operator must ensure that, within a PV29 regulated area, persons do not engage in non-work activities which may increase regulated PV29 exposure.</P>
                    <P>(7) The owner or operator must ensure that while persons are wearing respirators in the PV29 regulated area, they do not engage in activities which interfere with respirator seal or performance.</P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Respiratory protection.</E>
                         (1) Beginning [DATE 180 DAYS AFTER DATE OF PUBLICATION OF THE FINAL RULE IN THE 
                        <E T="04">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                        ], owners and operators must supply a respirator selected in accordance with this section and 29 CFR 1910.134(a) through (l), with the exception of paragraphs (a)(1) and (d) of that section, to each potentially exposed person. Owners and operators must ensure that all potentially exposed persons are using the provided respirators whenever regulated PV29 exposures can reasonably be expected to occur, meaning in any PV29 regulated area. For purposes of this paragraph:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (i) Any provision applying to “employee” in 29 CFR 1910.134 also 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3130"/>
                        applies equally to potentially exposed persons; and
                    </P>
                    <P>(ii) Any provision applying to “employer” in 29 CFR 1910.134 also applies equally to any owner or operator for the regulated area.</P>
                    <P>(2) Respiratory protection that is of safe design and construction for the work to be performed must be provided, used, and maintained in a sanitary, reliable, and undamaged condition. Owners and operators must select respiratory protection that properly fits each affected person and communicate respiratory protection selections to each affected person.</P>
                    <P>(i) Owners or operators must select and provide to potentially exposed persons appropriate respirators as follows:</P>
                    <P>(A) If there is no regulated PV29 expected to be present in an area: no respiratory protection is required.</P>
                    <P>(B) If there is regulated PV29 present or expected to be in an area, meaning that a regulated PV29 container is open or in use; equipment containing regulated PV29 is in use or has not yet been cleaned; the area where equipment for regulated PV29 is used has not yet been cleaned since equipment usage has ceased; or cleaning activities are occurring: Any NIOSH-certified half-mask power air-purifying respirator; any NIOSH-certified half-mask supplied-air respirator or airline respirator in continuous flow mode or pressure-demand or other positive pressure mode; any NIOSH-certified full facepiece air-purifying respirator; any NIOSH-certified full facepiece supplied air respirator or airline respirator in demand mode; any NIOSH-certified full facepiece self-contained breathing apparatus in demand mode; or any NIOSH-certified helmet/hood self-contained breathing apparatus in demand mode (APF 50). Negative-pressure respirators are acceptable for use if they meet the requirements stated in this paragraph.</P>
                    <P>(ii) The respiratory protection requirements in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section represent the minimum respiratory protection requirements, such that any respirator affording a higher degree of protection than the required respirator may be used.</P>
                    <P>(iii) When a potentially exposed person requires the use of a respirator and cannot use a negative-pressure respirator, the owner or operator must provide that person with a respirator that has less breathing resistance than the negative-pressure respirator, such as a powered air-purifying respirator or supplied-air respirator, when the person is able to use it and if it provides the person with adequate protection.</P>
                    <P>
                        (d) 
                        <E T="03">Equipment and area cleaning.</E>
                         (1) Owners or operators must ensure that any equipment and area where regulated PV29 has been manufactured, processed, used, or disposed is cleaned in accordance with a written cleaning plan established beginning on [DATE 180 DAYS AFTER DATE OF PUBLICATION OF FINAL RULE IN THE 
                        <E T="04">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                        ]. The exact cleaning method, materials, and procedure may be determined by the owner or operator and must meet the requirements outlined in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) Owners or operators must meet the following requirements as part of the equipment and area cleaning:</P>
                    <P>(i) Equipment and the area in which the equipment is housed must be cleaned within 24 hours after regulated PV29 has been manufactured, processed, used, or disposed.</P>
                    <P>(ii) Surfaces of the equipment that have contact with regulated PV29 as part of operation and the area where the equipment is located must be free of residue. This requirement includes ensuring that no residue is left on surfaces in the area, such as the outer housing of equipment and places where dust-like particles typically settle, such as the floor; for example, a wet, white cloth, swab, or other similar cleaning fabric will not have visible color after contact with the surface.</P>
                    <P>(iii) The cleaning plan must describe the cleaning methods, materials, and procedures to be used, as well as the procedure to be used to assess the effectiveness of the cleaning activities, as determined by the owner or operator, to meet the requirements of this section.</P>
                    <P>(iv) The owner or operator must ensure that each potentially exposed person is instructed on the requirements of the regulated PV29 cleaning plan prior to performing work related to implementation of the regulated PV29 cleaning plan.</P>
                    <P>(v) The cleaning plan must be documented in the facility with records easily accessible for review and reference by potentially exposed persons and regulatory officials. Records include a copy of the cleaning plan, implementation records required under § 751.909(b)(1), and documentation that instruction has been provided to potentially exposed persons whose job function includes cleaning plan implementation or whose job function requires them to be present in a regulated area where a cleaning plan could be executed.</P>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 751.907 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Labeling and downstream notification.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) Beginning on [DATE 180 DAYS AFTER DATE OF PUBLICATION OF FINAL RULE IN THE 
                        <E T="04">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                        ], each person who manufactures (including imports), processes, and distributes in commerce regulated PV29 for any use must, prior to or concurrent with the shipment, notify persons to whom regulated PV29 is shipped, in writing, of the restrictions described in this subpart in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
                    </P>
                    <P>(b) The following text must be inserted in Sections 1(c) and 15 of the Safety Data Sheet (SDS):</P>
                    <P>Color Index Pigment Violet 29 (regulated PV29) is subject to additional respiratory protection and cleaning requirements under 40 CFR part 751, subpart J. Please review the requirements before opening this container and using this product.</P>
                    <P>(c) Every regulated PV29 product shall bear a label. The label shall appear on or be securely attached to the immediate container of the regulated PV29 product. The contents of a label must show clearly and prominently the following:</P>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>Color Index Pigment Violet 29 (PV29) is stored within this container. Regulated PV29 is subject to additional respiratory protection and cleaning requirements under 40 CFR part 751, subpart J. Please review the requirements before opening this container and using this product.</P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                </SECTION>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 751.909 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Recordkeeping requirements.</SUBJECT>
                    <P>
                        (a) 
                        <E T="03">General records.</E>
                         After [DATE 60 DAYS AFTER DATE OF PUBLICATION OF FINAL RULE IN THE 
                        <E T="04">FEDERAL REGISTER</E>
                        ], all persons who manufacture, process, distribute in commerce, or engage in industrial or commercial use of regulated PV29 must maintain ordinary business records, such as downstream notifications, invoices, and bills-of-lading related to compliance with the restrictions and other provisions of this subpart.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (b) 
                        <E T="03">Respiratory protection records.</E>
                         Owners or operators subject to respiratory protection requirements described in § 751.905(c) must retain records of:
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) Respiratory protection used and implementation; and</P>
                    <P>(2) Information and training provided by the regulated entity to each person prior to or at the time of initial assignment to a job involving potential inhalation exposure to regulated PV29.</P>
                    <P>
                        (c) 
                        <E T="03">Equipment and area cleaning records.</E>
                         Owners or operators subject to the requirements described in § 751.905(b) must maintain records of:
                        <PRTPAGE P="3131"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) A copy of the current cleaning plan and previous versions;</P>
                    <P>(2) The dates, duration, and completion status of equipment and area cleaning each time a cleaning plan is executed;</P>
                    <P>(3) Implementation records documenting the initial date of cleaning plan implementation; and</P>
                    <P>(4) Documentation that instruction has been provided to potentially exposed persons whose job function includes cleaning plan implementation or whose job function requires them to be present in a regulated area where a cleaning plan could be executed.</P>
                    <P>
                        (d) 
                        <E T="03">Retention.</E>
                         Owners or operators must retain the records required in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section for five years from the date that such records were generated.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-30931 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Administration for Children and Families</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>45 CFR Parts 205, 260, 261, and 263</CFR>
                <RIN>RIN 0970-AC97</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Strengthening Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) as a Safety Net and Work Program; Withdrawal</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Administration for Children and Families (ACF), HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule; withdrawal.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This document withdraws a proposed rule that was published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on October 2, 2023. The proposed rule would have amended the Temporary Assistance for Needy Families (TANF) program regulations to strengthen the safety net and reduce administrative burden.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The Administration for Children and Families is withdrawing the proposed rule published October 2, 2023 (88 FR 67697) as of January 14, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Office of Family Assistance, ACF, at 
                        <E T="03">TANFquestions@acf.hhs.gov or 202-401-9275.</E>
                         Deaf and hard of hearing individuals may call 202-401-9275 through their chosen relay service or 711 between 8 a.m. and 7 p.m. Eastern Time.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The Administration for Children and Families (ACF) published a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) related to the administration of TANF in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on October 2, 2023 (88 FR 67697). The NPRM proposed to (1) establish a ceiling on the term “needy”; (2) clarify when an expenditure is “reasonably calculated to accomplish a TANF purpose”; (3) exclude as an allowable TANF maintenance-of-effort (MOE) expenditures cash donations from non-governmental third parties and the value of third-party in-kind contributions; (4) ensure that excused holidays match the number of Federal holidays, following the recognition of Juneteenth as a Federal holiday; (5) develop new criteria to allow States to use alternative Income and Eligibility Verification System (IEVS) measures; (6) clarify the “significant progress” criteria following a work participation rate corrective compliance plan; and (7) clarify the existing regulatory text about the allowability of costs associated with disseminating program information.
                </P>
                <P>
                    However, upon further consideration, the Department has elected to withdraw the Strengthening TANF as a Safety Net and Work Program Notice of Proposed Rulemaking published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on 10/02/2023, effective January 14, 2025. The Department appreciates the more than 7,000 comments received from State agencies, advocates and a broad range of additional stakeholders. In making the decision to withdraw the NPRM, the Department continues to recognize the importance of rulemaking to ensure that TANF funds are used in a manner consistent with statutory requirements. However, the Department has determined that it could benefit from additional public input and consideration on a set of issues relating to allowable TANF spending before adopting a final rule. With the time left in this Administration, the Department is focusing on other matters, including implementing the TANF provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility Act of 2023, and it is not feasible to solicit additional public comments. The Department has concluded that withdrawing the NPRM will assure agency flexibility in re-examining and exploring options and alternatives with stakeholders in the future prior to developing an NPRM that could draw from this additional stakeholder engagement. For these independently sufficient reasons, the Department is withdrawing this NPRM.
                </P>
                <P>The NPRM published on October 2, 2023, is hereby withdrawn.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Xavier Becerra,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary, Department of Health and Human Services.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00537 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4184-36-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Fish and Wildlife Service</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>50 CFR Part 17</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FWS-R4-ES-2024-0050; FXES1111090FEDR-256-FF09E21000]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 1018-BH60</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Threatened Status for the Florida Manatee and Endangered Status for the Antillean Manatee</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), propose to list the two subspecies of the West Indian manatee, the Florida manatee (
                        <E T="03">Trichechus manatus latirostris</E>
                        ) and the Antillean manatee (
                        <E T="03">Trichechus manatus manatus</E>
                        ), under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (Act). We have conducted status reviews for the two subspecies, and, as a result, we are proposing to list the Florida manatee as a threatened species with protective regulations under section 4(d) of the Act (“4(d) rule”), and the Antillean manatee as an endangered species, under the Act. These two listings would replace the current threatened species listing of the West Indian manatee (
                        <E T="03">Trichechus manatus</E>
                        ). This determination also serves as our 12-month findings on two petitions and as our completed 5-year review of the West Indian manatee. If we finalize this rule as proposed, it would remove the West Indian manatee from the Federal List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife (List), add the Florida manatee and Antillean manatee to the List, and extend the Act's protections to the Florida manatee and Antillean manatee.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        We will accept comments received or postmarked on or before March 17, 2025. Comments submitted electronically using the Federal eRulemaking Portal (see 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                        , below) must be received by 11:59 p.m. eastern time on the closing date. We must receive requests for an additional public hearing, in writing, at the address shown in 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         by February 28, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Public informational meeting and public hearing:</E>
                         On February 26, 2025, we will hold a public informational meeting followed by a public hearing from 5 p.m. to 7 p.m., Eastern-Standard time (6 p.m. to 8 p.m., Atlantic-Standard time). For more information, see 
                        <E T="03">Public Hearing,</E>
                         below.
                    </P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3132"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>You may submit comments by one of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        (1) 
                        <E T="03">Electronically:</E>
                         Go to the Federal eRulemaking Portal: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         In the Search box, enter FWS-R4-ES-2024-0050, which is the docket number for this rulemaking. Then, click on the Search button. On the resulting page, in the panel on the left side of the screen, under the Document Type heading, check the Proposed Rule box to locate this document. You may submit a comment by clicking on “Comment.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">By hard copy:</E>
                         Submit by U.S. mail to: Public Comments Processing, Attn: FWS-R4-ES-2024-0050, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, MS: PRB/3W, 5275 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041-3803.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        We request that you send comments only by the methods described above. We will post all comments on 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         This generally means that we will post any personal information you provide us (see Information Requested, below, for more information).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Availability of supporting materials:</E>
                         Supporting materials, such as the species status assessment report, are available on the Service's website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fws.gov/species/manatee-trichechus-manatus</E>
                        , at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at Docket No. FWS-R4-ES-2024-0050, or both.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Public hearing:</E>
                         We will hold a virtual public informational meeting followed by a public hearing on this proposed rule using the Zoom online video platform and teleconference. For more information, see 
                        <E T="03">Public Hearing,</E>
                         below.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Gian Basili, Deputy State Supervisor, Florida Ecological Services Office, 7915 Baymeadows Way, Suite 200, Jacksonville, FL 32256-7517; telephone 904-731-3079; or Lourdes Mena, Field Supervisor, Caribbean Ecological Services Field Office, P.O. Box 491, Boqueron, PR 00622; telephone 352-749-2462. Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States. Please see Docket No. FWS-R4-ES-2024-0050 on 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         for a document that summarizes this proposed rule.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Summary</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Why we need to publish a rule.</E>
                     The Act (16 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) defines the term “species” as including any subspecies of fish or wildlife or plants, and any distinct population segment of any species of vertebrate fish or wildlife which interbreeds when mature. Under the Act, a species warrants listing if it meets the definition of an endangered species (in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range) or a threatened species (likely to become an endangered species within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range). If we determine that a species warrants listing, we must list the species promptly and designate the species' critical habitat to the maximum extent prudent and determinable. We have determined that the Florida manatee meets the Act's definition of a threatened species, and the Antillean manatee meets the Act's definition of an endangered species; therefore, we are proposing to list them as such. We proposed to revise and/or designate critical habitat for the Florida manatee and Antillean manatee in a recent 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     publication (89 FR 78134). Listing a species as an endangered or threatened species can be completed only by issuing a rule through the Administrative Procedure Act rulemaking process (5 U.S.C. 551 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">What this document does.</E>
                     We propose to list the two accepted subspecies of the West Indian manatee, the Florida manatee (
                    <E T="03">Trichechus manatus latirostris</E>
                    ) and the Antillean manatee (
                    <E T="03">Trichechus manatus manatus</E>
                    ), under the Act. We would list the Florida manatee as a threatened species covered by the “blanket” protective regulation at 50 CFR 17.31(a) (“blanket 4(d) rule”), and the Antillean manatee as an endangered species. These two separate listings would replace the current threatened species listing of the West Indian manatee (
                    <E T="03">Trichechus manatus</E>
                    ). Therefore, if we finalize this action as proposed, we would list both of the accepted subspecies of the West Indian manatee, and therefore all of 
                    <E T="03">Trichechus manatus,</E>
                     but with a different listing status for each subspecies (threatened species status for the Florida manatee with the blanket 4(d) rule, and endangered species status for the Antillean manatee).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">The basis for our action.</E>
                     Under the Act, we may determine that a species is an endangered or threatened species because of any of five factors: (A) The present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range; (B) overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes; (C) disease or predation; (D) the inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; or (E) other natural or manmade factors affecting its continued existence. We have determined that the Florida manatee is threatened throughout its range due to the following primary threats: watercraft collisions, habitat loss (including seagrass loss) and modification from coastal development, unusual mortality events, natural processes (including cold weather events and harmful algal blooms), human interactions, loss of warm-water refugia, and climate change. We have also determined that the Antillean manatee is endangered throughout its range due to the following primary threats: watercraft collisions, habitat loss (including seagrass loss) and modification from coastal development, natural processes like harmful algal blooms, human interactions, poaching, low genetic diversity, and climate change.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Information Requested</HD>
                <P>We intend that any final action resulting from this proposed rule will be based on the best scientific and commercial data available and be as accurate and as effective as possible. Therefore, we request comments or information from other governmental agencies, Native American Tribes, the scientific community, industry, or any other interested parties concerning this proposed rule. We particularly seek comments concerning:</P>
                <P>(1) The species' biology, range, and population trends, including:</P>
                <P>(a) Biological or ecological requirements of either subspecies, including habitat requirements for feeding, breeding, and sheltering;</P>
                <P>(b) Genetics and taxonomy;</P>
                <P>(c) Historical and current range, including distribution patterns and the locations of any additional populations of either subspecies;</P>
                <P>(d) Historical and current population levels, and current and projected trends; and</P>
                <P>(e) Past and ongoing conservation measures for either subspecies, their habitats, or both.</P>
                <P>(2) Threats and conservation actions affecting either subspecies, including:</P>
                <P>
                    (a) Factors that may be affecting the continued existence of either subspecies, which may include habitat modification or destruction, overutilization, disease, predation, the inadequacy of existing regulatory 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3133"/>
                    mechanisms, or other natural or manmade factors;
                </P>
                <P>(b) Biological, commercial trade, or other relevant data concerning any threats (or lack thereof) to either subspecies; and</P>
                <P>(c) Existing regulations or conservation actions that may be addressing threats to either subspecies.</P>
                <P>(3) Additional information concerning the historical and current status of either subspecies.</P>
                <P>(4) Information to assist with applying or issuing protective regulations under section 4(d) of the Act that may be necessary and advisable to provide for the conservation of the Florida manatee. In particular, we seek information concerning:</P>
                <P>(a) The extent to which we should include any of the Act's section 9 prohibitions in the 4(d) rule for the Florida manatee; and</P>
                <P>(b) Whether we should consider any additional or different exceptions from the prohibitions in the 4(d) rule for the Florida manatee.</P>
                <P>Please include sufficient information with your submission (such as scientific journal articles or other publications) to allow us to verify any scientific or commercial information you include.</P>
                <P>Please note that submissions merely stating support for, or opposition to, the action under consideration without providing supporting information, although noted, do not provide substantial information necessary to support a determination. Section 4(b)(1)(A) of the Act directs that determinations as to whether any species is an endangered or a threatened species must be made solely on the basis of the best scientific and commercial data available.</P>
                <P>
                    You may submit your comments and materials concerning this proposed rule by one of the methods listed in 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . We request that you send comments only by the methods described in 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    If you submit information via 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     your entire submission—including any personal identifying information—will be posted on the website. If your submission is made via a hardcopy that includes personal identifying information, you may request at the top of your document that we withhold this information from public review. However, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so. We will post all hardcopy submissions on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Comments and materials we receive, as well as supporting documentation we used in preparing this proposed rule, will be available for public inspection on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>Our final determinations may differ from this proposal because we will consider all comments we receive during the comment period as well as any information that may become available after this proposal. Based on the new information we receive (and, if relevant, any comments on that new information), we may conclude the Florida manatee is endangered instead of threatened, that the Antillean manatee is threatened instead of endangered, or that either subspecies does not warrant listing as an endangered species or a threatened species. In addition, we may change the parameters of the prohibitions or the exceptions to those prohibitions in the protective regulations under section 4(d) of the Act for the Florida manatee if we conclude it is appropriate in light of comments and new information received. For example, we may expand the prohibitions if we conclude that the protective regulation as a whole, including those additional prohibitions, is necessary and advisable to provide for the conservation of the subspecies. Conversely, we may establish additional or different exceptions to the prohibitions in the final rule if we conclude that the activities would facilitate or are compatible with the conservation and recovery of the subspecies. In our final rule, we will clearly explain our rationale and the basis for our final decisions, including why we made changes, if any, that differ from this proposal.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Public Hearing</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 4(b)(5) of the Act provides for a public hearing on this proposal, if requested. At this time, we have preemptively scheduled a public informational meeting and public hearing on this proposed rule. We will hold the public informational meeting and public hearing on the date and at the time listed above under 
                    <E T="03">Public informational meeting and public hearing</E>
                     in 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                    . We are holding the public informational meeting and public hearing via the Zoom online video platform and via teleconference so that participants can attend remotely. The use of a virtual public hearing is consistent with our regulations at 50 CFR 424.16(c)(3).
                </P>
                <P>
                    For security purposes, anyone intending to listen to and view the hearing via Zoom, listen to the hearing by telephone, or provide oral public comments at the hearing by Zoom or telephone must register in advance. For information on how to register, or if you encounter problems joining Zoom on the day of the hearing, visit 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fws.gov/project/manatee-virtual-public-hearing.</E>
                     Registrants will receive the Zoom link and the telephone number for the public hearing. Interested members of the public who are not familiar with the Zoom platform should view the Zoom video tutorials (
                    <E T="03">https://learnzoom.us/show-me</E>
                    ) prior to the public hearing.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The public hearing will provide interested parties an opportunity to present verbal testimony (formal, oral comments) regarding this proposed rule. The public hearing will not be an opportunity for dialogue with the Service, but rather a forum for accepting formal verbal testimony. In the event there is a large attendance, the time allotted for oral statements may be limited. Therefore, anyone wishing to make an oral statement at the public hearing for the record is encouraged to provide a prepared written copy of that statement to us through the Federal eRulemaking Portal, or U.S. mail (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    , above). There are no limits on the length of written comments submitted to us.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Reasonable Accommodation</HD>
                <P>
                    The Service is committed to providing access to the public hearing for all participants. Closed captioning will be available during the public hearing. Participants will also have access to live audio during the public hearing via their telephone or computer speakers. Persons with disabilities requiring reasonable accommodations to participate in the hearing should contact the person listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     at least 5 business days prior to the date of the hearing to help ensure availability. An accessible version of the Service's presentation will also be posted online at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fws.gov/project/manatee-virtual-public-hearing</E>
                     prior to the hearing (see 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                    , above). See 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fws.gov/project/manatee-virtual-public-hearing</E>
                     for more information about reasonable accommodation. Finally, a full audio and video recording and transcript of the public hearing will be posted online at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fws.gov/project/manatee-virtual-public-hearing</E>
                     after the hearing.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Previous Federal Actions</HD>
                <P>
                    The Florida manatee (
                    <E T="03">Trichechus manatus latirostris</E>
                    ), a subspecies of the West Indian manatee, was listed as endangered in 1967 (see 32 FR 4001, March 11, 1967) under the Endangered Species Preservation Act of 1966 (Pub. L. 89-669; 80 Stat. 926). After adoption of the Endangered Species Conservation Act of 1969 (Pub. L. 91-135; 83 Stat. 275), the Florida manatee listing was amended in 1970 to include the West Indian manatee (
                    <E T="03">Trichechus manatus</E>
                    ) 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3134"/>
                    throughout its range, including in northern South America (see 35 FR 8491, June 2, 1970). A December 2, 1970, amendment then added the Caribbean Sea to the “Where found” information in the listing entry for the West Indian (Florida) manatee, which added the Antillean manatee to the listing (see 35 FR 18319). The West Indian manatee was subsequently grandfathered into the List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife under the Act in 1973 (16 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). In 2017, the West Indian manatee, including both subspecies, was reclassified from endangered to threatened (see 82 FR 16668, April 5, 2017).
                </P>
                <P>On October 21, 2021, we received a petition from Julio C. Colón requesting that we list the Puerto Rico population of the Antillean manatee as an endangered distinct population segment (DPS) and that we designate critical habitat for this entity under the Act. The petition provided substantial scientific or commercial information indicating that the petitioned entity may qualify as a DPS, and we found that the petition provided substantial information regarding low genetic diversity and isolation (Factor E) and boat collisions (Factor E) that may be potential threats to the Puerto Rico manatee population (see 88 FR 70634, October 12, 2023).</P>
                <P>On November 21, 2022, we received a petition from the Center for Biological Diversity (CBD) and others requesting that we reclassify (uplist) the West Indian manatee, including its subspecies the Antillean manatee and Florida manatee, as endangered species under the Act. The petition presented substantial information on the loss of seagrass (Factor A) within the range of the Florida manatee, as well as the negative impacts of this factor to the West Indian manatee's viability (see 88 FR 70634, October 12, 2023).</P>
                <P>In response to the October 21, 2021, and November 21, 2022, petitions, we initiated a status review. To ensure that status review was complete, we requested new scientific and commercial data and other information regarding the West Indian manatee throughout its range, including information specific to the Puerto Rico population of Antillean manatee, and factors that may affect their status (88 FR 70634, October 12, 2023). This document serves as our 12-month findings for those two petitions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Peer Review</HD>
                <P>Species status assessment (SSA) teams prepared SSA reports for the Florida manatee (Service 2024a, entire) and Antillean manatee (Service 2024b, entire). The SSA teams were composed of Service biologists, in consultation with other species experts. The SSA reports each represent a compilation of the best scientific and commercial data available concerning the status of each subspecies, including the impacts of past, present, and future factors (both negative and beneficial) affecting each subspecies.</P>
                <P>
                    In accordance with our joint policy on peer review published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on July 1, 1994 (59 FR 34270), and our August 22, 2016, memorandum updating and clarifying the role of peer review in listing and recovery actions under the Act, we will solicit independent scientific review of the information contained in the Florida manatee and Antillean manatee SSA reports during the comment period for this proposed rule.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Proposed Listing Determination</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    A thorough review of the taxonomy, life history, and ecology of the Florida manatee (
                    <E T="03">Trichechus manatus latirostris</E>
                    ) is available in its SSA report (version 1.1; Service 2024a, pp. 17-33) and of the Antillean manatee (
                    <E T="03">Trichechus manatus manatus</E>
                    ) in its SSA report (version 1.1; Service 2024b, pp. 15-34).
                </P>
                <P>West Indian manatees (manatees) are large, herbivorous marine mammals with short, paired flippers and a distinct paddle-shaped tail. Adults average about 3.0 meters (m) (9.8 feet (ft)) in length and 400 kilograms (kg) (900 pounds (lb)) in weight, but they may reach lengths of up to 4 m (13 ft) (Husar 1978, p. 1; Reynolds and Odell 1991, p. 38) and weigh as much as 1,620 kg (3,570 lb) (Rathbun et al. 1990, p. 23). The two subspecies appear similar, share most common morphological characteristics, and can typically only be distinguished through skeletal measurements or genetic analysis. A difference commonly reported between the two subspecies is size, with the Florida manatee larger and heavier than the Antillean manatee; however, sizes do overlap (Converse et al. 1994, p. 427; Wong et al. 2012, p. 5; Castelblanco-Martínez et al. 2021, p. 7).</P>
                <P>
                    Manatees use a wide variety of freshwater, estuarine, and marine habitats for their survival as well as life-history needs (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     feeding and drinking, traveling, resting, thermoregulation, cavorting, mating, calving, and nursing). Manatees feed on a variety of freshwater and marine vegetation, as well as seek out sources of fresh drinking water when in marine and estuarine habitats. Manatees tend to travel along the waterward edges of beds of vegetation in or near channels, and sometimes along coastal beaches. Manatees often use secluded canals, creeks, embayments, and lagoons, particularly near the mouths of rivers and sloughs, for feeding, resting, cavorting, mating, and calving.
                </P>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="321">
                    <PRTPAGE P="3135"/>
                    <GID>EP14JA25.038</GID>
                </GPH>
                <P>
                    Florida manatees are found in coastal and inland waters in Florida year-round, regularly in Georgia and the Carolinas, and in coastal Alabama and Louisiana during warmer months; vagrants can be found as far north as Massachusetts and as far west as Texas (see figure 1, above; Gunter 1941, p. 64; Lowery 1974, p. 481; Domning and Hayek 1986, p. 136; Fertl et al. 2005, p. 74; Beck 2015, unpubl. data). Florida manatees are also known to travel to and from the Bahamas, Cuba, and Mexico (Odell et al. 1978, p. 289; Alvarez-Alemán et al. 2010, p. 148; Melillo-Sweeting et al. 2011, p. 505). Antillean manatees are found in the coastal waters of the Greater Antilles (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     Cuba, Jamaica, Hispaniola, and Puerto Rico) and discontinuously along the Gulf coast of Mexico, Caribbean coast of Central and South America, and Atlantic coast of South America as far south as Bahia, Brazil (see figure 1, above; Self-Sullivan and Mignucci-Giannoni 2012, p. 36). Except for rare sightings, manatees are no longer found in the Lesser Antilles (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     Caribbean islands extending from the U.S. and British Virgin Islands to Grenada) (Lefebvre et al. 2001, p. 425). The few individuals that have been reported for the U.S. and British Virgin Islands, Turks and Caicos, Cayman Islands, St. Maarten, Curacao, and Bonaire are considered vagrant from nearby populations (Service 2007, p. 27; Self-Sullivan and Mignucci-Giannoni 2012, p. 40).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory and Analytical Framework</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Framework</HD>
                <P>Section 4 of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1533) and the implementing regulations in title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations set forth the procedures for determining whether a species is an endangered species or a threatened species, issuing protective regulations for threatened species, and designating critical habitat for endangered and threatened species.</P>
                <P>The Act defines an “endangered species” as a species that is in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range, and a “threatened species” as a species that is likely to become an endangered species within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range. The Act requires that we determine whether any species is an endangered species or a threatened species because of any of the following factors:</P>
                <P>(A) The present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range;</P>
                <P>(B) Overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes;</P>
                <P>(C) Disease or predation;</P>
                <P>(D) The inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; or</P>
                <P>(E) Other natural or manmade factors affecting its continued existence.</P>
                <P>These factors represent broad categories of natural or human-caused actions or conditions that could have an effect on a species' continued existence. In evaluating these actions and conditions, we look for those that may have a negative effect on individuals of the species, as well as other actions or conditions that may ameliorate any negative effects or may have positive effects.</P>
                <P>
                    We use the term “threat” to refer in general to actions or conditions that are known to or are reasonably likely to negatively affect individuals of a species. The term “threat” includes actions or conditions that have a direct impact on individuals (direct impacts), as well as those that affect individuals through alteration of their habitat or required resources (stressors). The term “threat” may encompass—either together or separately—the source of the action or condition or the action or condition itself.
                    <PRTPAGE P="3136"/>
                </P>
                <P>However, the mere identification of any threat(s) does not necessarily mean that the species meets the statutory definition of an “endangered species” or a “threatened species.” In determining whether a species meets either definition, we must evaluate all identified threats by considering the species' expected response and the effects of the threats—in light of those actions and conditions that will ameliorate the threats—on an individual, population, and species level. We evaluate each threat and its expected effects on the species, then analyze the cumulative effect of all of the threats on the species as a whole. We also consider the cumulative effect of the threats in light of those actions and conditions that will have positive effects on the species, such as any existing regulatory mechanisms or conservation efforts. The Secretary determines whether the species meets the definition of an “endangered species” or a “threatened species” only after conducting this cumulative analysis and describing the expected effect on the species.</P>
                <P>
                    The Act does not define the term “foreseeable future,” which appears in the statutory definition of “threatened species.” Our implementing regulations at 50 CFR 424.11(d) set forth a framework for evaluating the foreseeable future on a case-by-case basis, which is further described in the 2009 Memorandum Opinion on the foreseeable future from the Department of the Interior, Office of the Solicitor (M-37021, January 16, 2009; “M-Opinion,” available online at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.doi.gov/sites/doi.opengov.ibmcloud.com/files/uploads/M-37021.pdf</E>
                    ). The foreseeable future extends as far into the future as the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and National Marine Fisheries Service (hereafter, the Services) can make reasonably reliable predictions about the threats to the species and the species' responses to those threats. We need not identify the foreseeable future in terms of a specific period of time. We will describe the foreseeable future on a case-by-case basis, using the best available data and taking into account considerations such as the species' life-history characteristics, threat-projection timeframes, and environmental variability. In other words, the foreseeable future is the period of time over which we can make reasonably reliable predictions. “Reliable” does not mean “certain”; it means sufficient to provide a reasonable degree of confidence in the prediction, in light of the conservation purposes of the Act.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Analytical Framework</HD>
                <P>The SSA reports document the results of our comprehensive biological review of the best scientific and commercial data regarding the status of each of the subspecies, including an assessment of the potential threats to each subspecies. The SSA reports do not represent our decision on whether the subspecies should be proposed for listing as an endangered or threatened species under the Act. However, they do provide the scientific basis that informs our regulatory decisions, which involve the further application of standards within the Act and its implementing regulations and policies.</P>
                <P>To assess the Florida manatee's and Antillean manatee's viability, we used the three conservation biology principles of resiliency, redundancy, and representation (Shaffer and Stein 2000, pp. 306-310). Briefly, resiliency is the ability of the species to withstand environmental and demographic stochasticity (for example, wet or dry, warm or cold years); redundancy is the ability of the species to withstand catastrophic events (for example, droughts, large pollution events); and representation is the ability of the species to adapt to both near-term and long-term changes in its physical and biological environment (for example, climate conditions, pathogens). In general, species viability will increase with increases in resiliency, redundancy, and representation (Smith et al. 2018, p. 306). Using these principles, we identified each subspecies' ecological requirements for survival and reproduction at the individual, population, and subspecies levels, and described the beneficial and risk factors influencing the subspecies' viability.</P>
                <P>The SSA process can be categorized into three sequential stages. During the first stage, we evaluated the individual subspecies' life-history needs. The next stage involved an assessment of the historical and current condition of the subspecies' demographics and habitat characteristics, including an explanation of how the subspecies arrived at its current condition. The final stage of the SSA involved making predictions about the subspecies' responses to positive and negative environmental and anthropogenic influences. Throughout all of these stages, we used the best available information to characterize viability as the ability of the subspecies to sustain populations in the wild over time, which we then used to inform our regulatory decision.</P>
                <P>
                    The following is a summary of the key results and conclusions from the SSA reports; each SSA report can be found at Docket No. FWS-R4-ES-2024-0050 on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Biological Status and Threats</HD>
                <P>In this discussion, we review the biological condition of each subspecies and their resources, and the threats that influence each subspecies' current and future condition, in order to assess each subspecies' overall viability and the risks to that viability.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Species Needs</HD>
                <P>
                    As mentioned above, manatees use a wide variety of freshwater, estuarine, and marine habitats for their life-history needs (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     feeding and drinking, traveling, resting, thermoregulation, cavorting, mating, calving, and nursing). For all life stages, manatees require access to fresh water for drinking, travel corridors during migration to reach habitats needed for survival and reproduction, and calm waters for resting (Ortiz et al. 1999, p. 33; Deutsch et al. 2003, entire; Flamm et al. 2005, entire; Drew et al. 2012, p. 24; Favero et al. 2020, p. 1670; Ross et al. 2020, entire). For pregnant females, sheltered backwaters with little disturbance are required for parturition (Hartman 1979, p. 110; Reynolds and Odell 1991, p. 51).
                </P>
                <P>
                    All manatee life stages require appropriate forage and water temperatures (Best 1981, p. 7; Irvine et al. 1983, p. 323; Smith 1993, entire; Rommel et al. 2001, p. 339; Rommel and Caplan 2003, p. 343; Reich and Worthy 2006, p. 304; Florida Fish and Wildlife Conservation Commission (FWC) 2007, p. 2; United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) 2010, p. 8; Allen et al. 2018, p. 1931). Because seagrass is one of the largest components of the manatee's diet in coastal areas, healthy seagrass ecosystems are critical for the species' survival. Manatees predominantly feed on seagrass in near-shore, shallow waters averaging 1 to 3 meters (3.3 to 9.8 ft) in depth (Smith 1993, p. 11). Salt marsh vegetation, specifically smooth cordgrass (
                    <E T="03">Spartina alterniflora),</E>
                     is an important food source for manatees in northeastern Florida, Georgia, and South Carolina (Zoodsma 1991, pp. 54-61).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Antillean manatee inhabits the southern limits of the manatee's distribution; therefore, the subspecies is tropical and does not face cold stress risk. Florida manatees may exhibit major shifts in distribution during different times of the year largely due to the subspecies being subtropical and cold-intolerant. Because the Florida 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3137"/>
                    subspecies occurs in the northern limits of the manatee's range, it requires stable, long-term sources of warm water, such as natural springs, during colder months in order to survive. These warm-water sites buffer the lethal effects of cold temperatures. Over half of Florida manatees are known to use warm-water discharges from power plants rather than natural springs, thermal basins, or other sites (Laist et al. 2013, p. 4; Valade et al. 2020, p. 3). Florida manatees in the southernmost parts of the range depend primarily on industrial warm-water outfalls, while Florida manatees in the northernmost parts of the range rely almost exclusively on natural springs (Laist et al. 2013, p. 4). An ambient temperature of 68 degrees Fahrenheit (°F) (20 degrees Celsius (°C)) has been identified as the threshold when many Florida manatees seek out warm-water refugia, although there is considerable variability for individual tolerance to cold and when individual manatees begin to move toward warmer waters (Deutsch et al. 2003, pp. 22-25).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Threats Analysis</HD>
                <P>There are many factors affecting the viability of manatees; these factors include habitat loss (including seagrass loss) and modification from coastal development, overutilization from recreational disturbance by humans, disease and predation, pollution and harmful algal blooms, collisions from boating, entrapment in water control structures, loss of warm-water refugia, poaching, entanglement in fishing gear and marine debris, low genetic diversity, and climate change. The current and future primary influences on the Florida manatee are watercraft collisions, habitat loss (including seagrass loss) and modification from coastal development, unusual mortality events (UME), natural processes (including cold weather events and harmful algal blooms), human interactions, loss of warm-water refugia, and climate change. The current primary influences on the Antillean manatee are watercraft collisions, habitat loss (including seagrass loss) and modification from coastal development, natural processes like harmful algal blooms, human interactions, poaching, low genetic diversity, and climate change.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Watercraft Collisions</HD>
                <P>Collisions with watercraft are a primary threat to both subspecies of the manatee. Watercraft-related collisions result in direct impacts to manatees in the form of lethal and sublethal injuries, can lead to orphaning dependent calves of mothers that succumb to injuries, and can result in additional impacts to reproduction. Collisions with watercraft can occur rangewide anywhere watercraft usage overlaps with waterways accessible to manatees, and manatees are particularly vulnerable to collisions in shallow-water habitats (Edwards et al. 2016, p. 8).</P>
                <P>Within the United States, collisions with watercraft have been identified as the most significant anthropogenic threat to Florida manatees (Runge et al. 2017, p. 37; Service 2023, p. 10), causing fatalities, sublethal injuries, and the orphaning of dependent calves (Service 2023, p. 11). Ninety-six percent of Florida manatees have scars from at least one watercraft collision, and 25 percent of adults have scars from 10 or more watercraft collisions (Bassett et al. 2020, entire). From 1990 through 2021, watercraft-related collisions were the most prevalent cause of death for Florida manatees; during that time, 2,503 Florida manatee deaths (or 19.1 percent of all documented carcasses) were attributed to watercraft-related collisions. Both a potential increase in the number of manatees and boaters would lead to a greater number of expected collisions (Martin et al. 2016, pp. 43-44). There were 1,029,993 boats registered in Florida as of 2022, and an unknown number of out-of-State boats were brought in by seasonal residents and visitors. Florida has the highest number of registered boats of any U.S. State (FWC 2022, entire), and since 1990, the number of boats registered in Florida has increased by more than 33 percent, even with the reduced registrations accompanying the economic recession that began in 2008. The human population in Florida is expected to grow by millions in the next few decades (approximately 3 to 9 million more people by 2045; Rayer and Wang 2020, entire). With an increasing human population, the number of boats in Florida waters is also expected to increase, resulting in more opportunities for watercraft-related manatee injuries and deaths.</P>
                <P>Watercraft collisions that kill or injure manatees are a threat for the Antillean manatee as well. However, current information on watercraft collisions is limited and variable for most of the countries within the subspecies' range. This threat is likely widespread in portions of the range near human populations and has likely been increasing in magnitude over the last few decades and will continue to increase into the future as motorboats become more abundant.</P>
                <P>In Puerto Rico, 43 years of manatee mortality data from 1980 to 2022 indicate that a total of 54 manatees are known to have died due to watercraft collisions (Mignucci-Giannoni et al. 2000, p. 192; Mignucci-Giannoni 2006, p. 2; Puerto Rico Department of Natural and Environmental Resources (PRDNER) and Caribbean Manatee Conservation Center (CMCC) 2022, unpubl. data). This number represents approximately 18 percent of the total known mortality cases during that time (54 out of 308), with a maximum of seven manatees in 2021 and usually at least one manatee per year. Unfortunately, there appears to be a recent increasing trend of watercraft-related mortalities with three cases in 2020, seven in 2021 (highest on record), and three in 2022. In Belize, watercraft collisions are the predominant cause of death, and strandings due to watercraft collisions have been increasing over recent decades (UNEP 2010, p. 22; Galves et al. 2023, entire; Specially Protected Areas and Wildlife Regional Activity Center (SPAW-RAC) 2021, p. 20). In Mexico, watercraft-related mortalities do not seem to be a significant cause of manatee mortality, and there was a recent (March 2020) documentation of the first case in 20 years of a watercraft collision with a healthy juvenile female manatee (Castelblanco-Martínez et al. 2020, p. 14). In Brazil, increased boating activities have resulted in both lethal collisions with manatees and disruption of manatee behavior (Self-Sullivan and Mignucci-Giannoni 2012, p. 43).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Habitat Loss and Modification</HD>
                <P>
                    Human activities have caused the loss and alteration of manatee habitat used for breeding, feeding, sheltering, and seasonal migration. Seagrass, macro-algae, salt marsh, and freshwater vegetation have been affected, leading to significant losses of foraging habitat. Human activities that can result in the loss of aquatic vegetation as food resources include dredging, filling, boating, eutrophication, and coastal development (Zieman and Zieman 1989, pp. 88-96; Duarte 2002, p. 194; Orth et al. 2006, p. 991; PRDNER 2008, entire; PRDNER 2012, entire). Dredging directly removes submerged aquatic vegetation (SAV), and sediments suspended in the water column during dredge and fill activities cover adjacent SAV beds (Zieman and Zieman 1989, pp. 88-89; Auil 1998, p. 9). Boat groundings and boat propellers scar seagrass beds when boats navigate through seagrass beds in water that is too shallow for the draft (deepest point) of their boats, and even if the areas can eventually recover, the process can take many years (Sargent et al. 1995, pp. 6, 28; Hallac et al. 2012, entire). Additionally, excess nitrogen 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3138"/>
                    and phosphorus that enters the aquatic system via septic systems, stormwater runoff or outfalls, or industrial and agricultural runoff can cause eutrophication, which reduces the amount of light available for photosynthesis, which subsequently may increase SAV mortality (Ralph et al. 2007, pp. 571-577; Lapointe et al. 2020, p. 2). Coastal development can have numerous negative impacts on manatee habitat, including impacts on tidal marsh and SAV. The most significant impact development has on tidal marsh is the direct conversion of marsh to development, resulting in a direct loss of habitat and forage.
                </P>
                <P>In Florida, seagrass resources have declined along the Atlantic coast since 2011, most notably in the 156-mile (mi) (251-kilometer (km)) Indian River Lagoon (IRL), which is considered an important area for manatees in Florida (Landsberg et al. 2022, p. 1). Loss of seagrass is expected to have contributed to the unusual mortality event in the winter of 2020-2021 that affected IRL populations (described below under “Unusual Mortality Events”). Seagrass declines have also been observed in other locations in southeastern Florida estuarine systems, including northern and central Biscayne Bay. As of 2015, Statewide mapping effort estimated 2.48 million acres of seagrass coverage in the shallow coastal regions of Florida (Yarbro and Carlson 2016, p. 5). While there have been recent gains or stability in seagrass coverage in many areas due to improvements in water quality and restoration, the total acreage of seagrass in Florida today is less than half of what it was in the 1950s (Yarbro and Carlson 2016, p. 3). During the winter of 2022-2023, manatees from the upper IRL were observed foraging in the central and southern Mosquito Lagoon where seagrass beds have been reported to be in healthier condition, but to access forage in that area, manatees are traveling more than 20 miles (32 kilometers) from warm-water sites each way. In addition, the St. Johns River Water Management District (Saint Johns River Water Management District (SJRWMD) 2023, entire) reports some improvement in the condition of the seagrass in the IRL in 2023.</P>
                <P>Anthropogenic activities that result in the loss of seagrass also occur in Puerto Rico. Although there are no estimates of how much seagrass is needed to sustain the manatee population in Puerto Rico, seagrass abundance is not currently considered a limiting factor for the Antillean manatee population there (Drew et al. 2012, p. 13). Within other areas of the Antillean manatee's range, effects of habitat fragmentation from agriculture, development, resource extraction, and boating contribute to habitat loss. In Panama, manatee distribution is apparently fragmented because of discontinuous and likely depleted habitat (Lefebvre et al. 2001, p. 442). In Colombia, Antillean manatees have been cut off from important habitat by highway construction activities since the 1970s (Montoya-Ospina et al. 2001, p. 127). Agriculture and development have impacted coastal and estuarine manatee habitat in Honduras (Cerrato 1993, in Lefebvre et al. 2001, p. 440; UNEP 2010, p. 52), Costa Rica (UNEP 2010, p. 34), Jamaica (UNEP 2010, p. 55), Trinidad and Tobago (UNEP 2010, p. 76), and Mexico and Belize (UNEP 2010, pp. 23, 58-59). In Cuba, agricultural activities directly impacted manatees when residues from sugar processing killed eight manatees in 1981 and caused others to abandon Cuba's largest bay (UNEP 2010, p. 37). Furthermore, resource extraction and seagrass scarring pose a threat to manatees in Guatemala (UNEP 2010, pp. 45-46), while in the northeastern estuaries of Brazil, habitat destruction and degradation of mangrove forests are the main influencing factors for calf strandings (Dos Santos-Medeiros et al. 2021, entire). We anticipate many of these factors contributing to habitat fragmentation and loss will continue to act on both the Florida manatee and Antillean manatee into the future.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unusual Mortality Events</HD>
                <P>
                    Per the Marine Mammal Protection Act of 1972 (MMPA; 16 U.S.C. 1361 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ), an “unusual mortality event” (UME) may be declared when there is a stranding that is unexpected, involves a significant die off of any marine mammal population, and demands immediate response (16 U.S.C. 1421h(9)). When a UME is declared by the appropriate agency (for the manatee, this agency is the Service), the event will be investigated, and expertise shared through the MMPA-established Working Group on Marine Mammal Unusual Mortality Events (WGMMUME) (16 U.S.C. 1421c). In addition, funds may be made available for response and investigation through the UME Contingency Fund (16 U.S.C. 1421d).
                </P>
                <P>The first formally designated UME affecting Florida manatees occurred in 1996, with the loss of 149 manatees due to red tide toxicity (see “Pollution and Red Tides,” below) associated with brevetoxins (tasteless, odorless neurotoxic compounds) (Bossart et al. 1998, p. 277). Since that time, there have been several red tide-related UMEs or “repeat mortality events” (RMEs), as well as events in 2010 and 2011 (cold temperatures), 2013 (deaths associated with a dietary shift or change in gut flora), and an ongoing event that started in December 2020 (starvation due to loss of foraging habitat along the Atlantic Coast of Florida) (Barlas et al. 2011, pp. iii-vi; Hardy et al. 2019, p. 1).</P>
                <P>Two of the most recent UME events have occurred in the IRL area along Florida's Atlantic Coast. A “superbloom” event of phytoplankton in 2011, followed by successive blooms in 2016 and 2018, contributed to a significant loss of seagrass in this estuary (Martin et al. 2017, p. 5; Runge et al. 2017, p. 21; Service 2023, p. 47). During the winter of 2020-2021, the IRL experienced a more substantial collapse of almost all forage in Brevard County and neighboring counties along the IRL (Service 2023, p. 5; SJRWMD 2023, unpublished data). This latest UME was officially declared in March 2021, and encompasses the area of the east coast of Florida and the Lower St. Johns River north of Putnam County (referred to as the Atlantic Management Unit) (Service 2023, p. 5). The current UME is marked by a significant increase in mortality and morbidity, with affected animals—of which an unusually large proportion has been adults—showing similar signs of malnutrition and starvation (Service 2023, p. 17). From December 1, 2020, to September 27, 2024, a preliminary total of 1,693 carcasses (from all causes of death, including watercraft collisions, starvation, unknown causes, etc.) have been verified from the Atlantic Management Unit (FWC Manatee Mortality Database 2024, unpaginated). During this same period, more than 210 Florida manatees were rescued for a variety of causes, with UME-related manatees in need of rescue characterized by emaciation, sideways swimming, or impaired lung function. The long-term implications of this UME to the Florida manatee population are unknown and will take many years post-event to assess. There are no documented UMEs for the Antillean manatee.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Pollution and Harmful Algal Blooms</HD>
                <P>
                    Exposure to contaminants in the water may affect the immune response of manatees to environmental stressors. Pollution generated from agriculture, human wastewater, oil and gas production, and general urban runoff contribute contaminants that are discharged into waterways and become integrated into sediments. Some contaminants are concentrated near industry and human population centers, while others are distributed more broadly in water.
                    <PRTPAGE P="3139"/>
                </P>
                <P>Florida manatees in areas with widespread use of copper as an aquatic herbicide have been found to have high concentrations of copper in liver tissues, which can lead to jaundice, and toxic levels can lead to death (O'Shea et al. 1984, pp. 741, 746). Even Florida manatees in less agricultural outfalls in Citrus, Brevard, and Charlotte Counties have demonstrated high copper concentrations (O'Shea et al. 1984, pp. 742-743; Takeuchi et al. 2016, p. 447); however, because manatees cover such great distances in their routine migrations, it is challenging to link manatee bioaccumulation of copper to specific locations.</P>
                <P>
                    Antillean manatees can be directly and indirectly exposed to harmful toxicants in waterways, which impacts individuals' overall body condition and behavior. Exposure to these toxicants can alter behavior, reduce immune function and reproductive ability, and, depending on the magnitude and frequency of exposure, result in death. Within the Antillean manatee's range, water pollution has been shown to occur due to agricultural practices (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     cane cultivation), development, and motorized boats (Corona-Figueroa et al. 2022, entire). These practices can increase runoff (heavy metals, pesticides, herbicides, etc.), which is harmful to the subspecies and its primary food source (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     sea grass). Contaminants have been implicated in the death of one Antillean manatee calf in Puerto Rico (from a diesel spill), and mortality associated with residues from sugar processing may have also occurred in Cuba (UNEP 1995, p. 23). This contamination is considered a rationale for Antillean manatees' abandonment of Bahía de Nipe, Cuba's largest bay (UNEP 1995, p. 23). One study from Mexico found metal concentrations (arsenic, cadmium, chromium, copper, lead, nickel, and zinc) within Antillean manatee bones higher than for most other marine mammals globally, and significantly different concentrations between the sample from the Gulf of Mexico versus the Mexican Caribbean samples (Romero-Calderón et al. 2016, p. 9). Despite this knowledge, metal toxicity thresholds for the Antillean manatee are unknown.
                </P>
                <P>Increases in nutrient and chemical runoff may promote harmful algal blooms (such as red tides) or damage seagrass beds that manatees rely on for a food source. During red tide events, which occur primarily along Florida's Gulf Coast, phytoplankton (microalgae) blooms and high concentrations of the marine algae produce brevetoxins, which can have debilitating or lethal effects on manatees and other aquatic life. Observations of red tides and accompanying fish kills have been recorded in Florida and the Gulf of Mexico since at least the 1800s (note that fish kills plausibly caused by red tides in the Gulf of Mexico have been recorded since 1648), and have been documented spreading via ocean currents up the Atlantic Coast of the United States to the Carolinas (Steidinger 2009, p. 550; Fleming et al. 2011, p. 225). Brevetoxins can sicken or kill animals, including humans, through direct exposure in water, aerosolized brevetoxins in the air, or bioaccumulation up the food web (Landsberg et al. 2009, p. 600; Steidinger 2009, p. 550). Brevetoxins can also be inhaled or ingested while manatees are foraging in seagrass communities, and brevetoxins may reside in the sediments for extended periods of time. Initiation of red tide algal blooms occurs in offshore areas, after which they are transported closer to shore by upwelling ocean currents (Weisberg et al. 2016, p. 116).</P>
                <P>These red tide events occur in Florida and the Gulf of Mexico, and for the Florida manatee, these events have had the greatest impacts in southwest Florida (Lazensky et al. 2021, p. 1). While marine algae have been reported from Mexico, Trinidad and Tobago, and Jamaica (Steidinger 2009, pp. 550-551), red tide algal blooms are not known to be a significant threat to the Antillean manatee throughout its range. However, between 2018 and 2019 in Mexico, more than 50 Antillean manatee deaths were attributed to toxicity from algal blooms within the wetlands in the Tabasco region, but the algal species and cause of the bloom were not identified (Núñez-Nogueira and Uribe-López 2020, p. 257). The magnitude, timing, and frequency of harmful algal blooms may change in the future with a changing climate.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Human Interactions</HD>
                <P>The general threat from human interaction is widespread throughout both subspecies' ranges and is concentrated around human population centers and heavily used recreation sites. While it is known that interaction with and harassment by humans can cause manatees to alter their natural behavior and habitat use, impacts at the population level are not well understood.</P>
                <P>Potential overutilization of manatees and their habitats for recreational purposes may take place during viewing activities conducted by commercial tour operators and private citizens in the southeastern United States, Belize, and Mexico, and is becoming more frequent in Puerto Rico. People view manatees from the water; from boats, kayaks, paddleboards, and canoes; and from shoreline areas. The presence of motorized and nonmotorized watercraft and swimmers can disturb manatees and cause them to alter their habitat use, potentially causing them to leave the habitats on which they depend to fulfill physiological needs (Buckingham et al. 1999, entire; Sorice et al. 2003, entire). For the Florida manatee, this type of activity may be most detrimental when manatees are clustered at warm-water aggregation areas necessary for survival due to their sensitivity to cold.</P>
                <P>Disturbance from recreation can also cause manatees to alter behaviors such as resting or nursing, and sometimes could result in separation of mother/calf pairs or interfere with reproduction or socialization. There are also frequently documented accounts of the public touching, pursuing, and offering water and food to manatees. Manatees may become conditioned to these interactions and thus alter their behavior such that they may be attracted to high human-use areas, posing additional risk to manatees especially in areas of high boat traffic. This further exposes manatees to human-associated threats such as watercraft collisions.</P>
                <P>
                    Within the Florida manatee's range, the types of human interaction can vary. These include Florida manatee viewing from the water or shoreline to swimming with manatees. Human interaction with manatees may result in disruption of the manatee's natural behaviors (such as foraging, resting, thermoregulating at warm-water sites, and nursing and caring for their young) and interfere with mating herds, reproduction, or socialization behaviors. Some human activities may discourage Florida manatees' use of, or result in Florida manatees leaving, vital warm-water habitats necessary for their survival. For the Florida manatee, the highest levels of human interaction often occur during the winter months, when hundreds of manatees aggregate at warm-water sites, and effects from disturbance can be particularly detrimental due to the manatee's physiological need for warmth. During the rest of the year, many of the same types of human interactions occur at some level throughout the subspecies' range, but the magnitude of impact of these interactions is not well understood. For example, areas that are frequented by Florida manatees in South Carolina have become increasingly more well known and attract people to view the manatees; therefore, human interaction with 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3140"/>
                    Florida manatees does not occur only in Florida. Many times, these viewing opportunities are passive, but there have been reports of people touching, feeding, providing water to, swimming with, or trying to ride on manatees.
                </P>
                <P>There is evidence that Antillean manatees are facing similar human interaction pressures throughout their range. In Puerto Rico, interaction with manatees by kayak and paddleboard users, divers, and swimmers occurs in several popular beach and coastal recreational areas. There is at least one case in Puerto Rico in which a person may have separated a newborn calf from its mother and the calf had to be rescued. In Swallow Caye, Belize, manatees stopped visiting suitable manatee habitat in 1992 after swim-with-the-manatee programs were allowed without proper control (Auil 1998, p. 12). In Costa Rica, manatees appear to avoid areas of high-quality habitat during the day when they are frequented by boats (UNEP 2010, p. 34). In Mexico, there is concern over the increased boat-based tourism that targets manatees and dolphins within the Sian Ka'an Biosphere Reserve (Catesblanco-Martínez et al. 2019, entire). Specific information is lacking for other range countries, but Antillean manatees are likely influenced by human interactions wherever their populations overlap with areas of human use. It is likely the threat of overutilization of manatees and their habitats will continue in the future and increase in areas with higher human populations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Poaching</HD>
                <P>Historically, manatees were harvested for a variety of purposes including meat; bones for weapons, medicine, and artisanal crafts; hides; oil for cooking; and fat for candle-making (Lefebvre et al. 2001, p. 426; UNEP 2010, pp. 12, 31, 40; Marsh et al. 2011, p. 264; Self-Sullivan and Mignucci-Giannoni 2012, pp. 42-45). Now, they are primarily hunted for their meat (Jiménez 2002, p. 276). Manatees are particularly susceptible to overexploitation because of their low reproductive rates, and poaching continues to pose a serious threat to some Antillean manatee populations, especially in those areas where few manatees remain (Lefebvre et al. 2001, p. 12).</P>
                <P>In the past, poaching has been responsible for declining numbers throughout much of the Antillean manatee's range (in 17 of 20 range countries; Thornback and Jenkins 1982, as cited in Lefebvre et al. 2001, p. 426). Poaching is still common in areas where enforcement is lacking or where local people are unaware of laws in place to protect Antillean manatees (UNEP 2010, entire; Marsh et al. 2011, p. 386). In general, the actual level of poaching is not well-documented throughout the Antillean manatee's range. Poaching is currently not considered a threat in Puerto Rico, but it is still considered a primary threat to Antillean manatees in Cuba (Alvaréz-Alemán et al. 2021, entire) and Guatemala (Machuca-Coronado et al. 2023, entire). Poaching is not considered a threat to the Florida manatee.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Cold Stress and Loss of Warm-Water Refugia</HD>
                <P>The manatee is a subtropical species that has little tolerance for cold. Cold stress is not known to affect Antillean manatees because they inhabit warmer subtropical waters. However, for the Florida manatee, past and potential future losses of natural and human-made warm-water habitat coupled with cold stress constitute a major threat to this subspecies (Runge et al. 2017, p. 26; Valade et al. 2020, p. 2).</P>
                <P>
                    Manatees are characterized as having low metabolism and poor insulation, which inhibit their ability to retain heat and thermoregulate (Irvine 1983, entire; Worthy et al. 2000, p. 3; Rommel et al. 2001, p. 339; Bossart et al. 2002, p. 45; Rommel et al. 2002, p. 3; Hardy et al. 2019, p. 2; Martony et al. 2019, p. 86). The likelihood of cold stress is highest where water temperatures are colder or have greater fluctuations (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     shallower water depths), as well as in areas with limited warm-water or foraging habitat. Cold stress is only an immediate threat during winter but impacts to the overall health and fitness of individuals are likely to carry over after cold weather has passed (Walsh et al. 2005, entire). The magnitude of this threat varies annually depending on the severity of the winter. Cold temperatures limit the northern extent of the Florida manatee's winter range and restrict the available wintering sites to areas mostly in peninsular Florida, although anthropogenic thermal discharges have extended the winter range of the Florida manatee and altered its distribution in Florida waters (Laist and Reynolds 2005a, p. 740).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Florida's natural springs have seen substantial declines in flows and water quality, and many springs have been altered (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     dammed, silted in, or otherwise obstructed) to the point they are no longer accessible to manatees (Laist and Reynolds 2005b, p. 287; Taylor 2006, pp. 5-6; FWC 2007, p. 10). Flow declines are largely attributable to demands on aquifers (spring recharge areas) for potable water or other users such as agriculture (Marella 2014, pp. 1-2). Declining flows can result in fewer usable warm-water sites for wintering manatees, both in terms of thermal quantity and quality.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In Florida, manatees are known to utilize 67 primary and secondary warm-water sites, including 10 power plants, 23 springs and spring complexes, and 34 passive thermal basins (Valade et al. 2020 pp. 2-3, 25-30). Groundwater seeps, haloclines, solar radiation, thermal inertia, and biodegradation provide the source of heated water for passive thermal basins (Stith et al. 2012, entire; Laist et al. 2013, p. 1). Industrial outfalls are the primary warm-water sites most heavily used in the two largest Florida winter management units (Southwest and Atlantic), while Florida manatees in the two smallest and more northerly winter management units (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     Upper St. Johns River and Northwest) rely almost exclusively on natural springs (Laist et al. 2013, p. 4). If power plant outflows in the Southwest and Atlantic management units are lost, or have reduced or unpredictable flows, manatees that winter at such sites would have to overcome their strong site fidelity and shift their distribution south in order to convert to using passive thermal basins and warm ambient waters in southern Florida, or they would have to move north to utilize the springs in the Upper St. Johns River and Northwest winter management units. Experience with disruptions at sites has shown that some manatees can adapt to minor changes at these sites; during temporary power plant shutdowns, manatees have been observed to use less-preferred nearby sites when an alternate warm-water source was not provided at the primary site.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The potential loss of warm water at natural springs, passive thermal basins, and power plants in Florida is a significant threat to the subspecies, as more individuals would be susceptible to lethal and sublethal effects of cold stress (Service 2001, entire; Laist and Reynolds 2005
                    <E T="03">a,</E>
                     2005
                    <E T="03">b,</E>
                     entire; Service 2007, entire; Runge et al. 2017, entire). Loss of warm-water sites has the potential to influence population dynamics enough to significantly increase the risk of population quasi-extinction (Runge et al. 2017, p. 26). However, severity and timing of these losses and their effect on populations are uncertain. In the future, warm-water refugia loss is likely to continue to be a threat to the Florida manatee and will increase over time.
                    <PRTPAGE P="3141"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Low Genetic Diversity</HD>
                <P>Low genetic diversity has been identified in Antillean manatee populations in Puerto Rico, Belize, Brazil, Mexico, Panama, and Cuba (Hunter et al. 2010, entire; Nourisson et al. 2011, p. 833; Hunter et al. 2012, entire; Díaz-Ferguson et al. 2017, pp. 383-384; Alvarez-Alemán 2019, pp. 103, 115; Luna et al. 2021, entire). Low genetic diversity likely exists elsewhere across the Antillean subspecies' range, and genetic diversity is likely lower the more isolated a population is. Additional research is needed to understand whether low genetic diversity leads to reduced fitness or poses an imminent threat to manatee populations. When genetic diversity is substantially reduced or slowly eroded over time through loss of individuals, it can lead to an extinction vortex, which results in an inbreeding feedback loop and can lead to extinction (Nordstrom et al. 2023, p. 2). There is no evidence that low genetic diversity is an issue for the Florida manatee.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Climate Change</HD>
                <P>Climate change impacts are likely to influence the viability of manatees in several ways, including temperature increases, sea level rise, fluctuations in ocean chemistry, hydrological cycle deviations, and changes in timing and intensity of tropical storms, as well as extreme cold events. These large-scale impacts may lead to habitat changes, increased algal blooms, and new threats from diseases (Edwards 2013, pp. 727, 735; Marsh et al. 2017, entire; Osland et al. 2020, entire). The synergism of these factors will affect manatee health and habitat, and potentially reduce the future range of each subspecies.</P>
                <P>
                    More than 90 percent of the excess heat accumulated in the climate system between 1971 and 2010 has been stored in the ocean, particularly near the surface (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) 2014, pp. 40-42; IPCC 2019, p. 9). The upper ocean (0-700 m, or 0-2,297 ft) has warmed since the 1970s due to human-caused carbon dioxide emissions (IPCC Sixth Assessment Report Summary for Policymakers (AR6 SPM) 2021). The ocean will continue to warm throughout the 21st century, and the strongest warming is predicted to occur in tropical regions and Northern Hemisphere subtropical regions (IPCC 2014, p. 60). Increasing ocean temperatures will affect estuarine and freshwater systems, seagrass, and other forage plant communities by influencing photosynthetic rates and biomass, changes in plant communities and growth of competitors, changes in aspects of life history, or shifts in distribution if physiological tolerances are exceeded (Short and Neckles 1999, pp. 172-175; Bjork et al. 2008, pp. 21-23). Influences can be both positive (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     possible increased photosynthesis and growth from increased carbon) and negative (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     increased growth of competitive algae and epiphytes that shade seagrass and reduce growth) (Short and Neckles 1999, pp. 172-175; Bjork et al. 2008, pp. 21-23). Increased temperatures can also increase stress on plants, decreasing growth and reproduction and resulting in less forage for manatees (Marsh et al. 2017, p. 343).
                </P>
                <P>An increase in temperature will likely decrease the frequency and intensity of cold weather events, which in turn would decrease Florida manatees' exposure to cold stress and may reduce the time they spend at warm-water sites. However, these changes may not completely eliminate mortality events from cold weather (Osland et al. 2020, pp. 3, 13). Conversely, manatees in tropical regions may reach upper thermal tolerances due to rising water temperatures (Marsh et al. 2017, p. 336).</P>
                <P>Due to the projected sea level rise (SLR) associated with climate change, coastal systems and low-lying areas will increasingly experience submergence, coastal flooding, and coastal erosion (IPCC 2014, p. 17). In response to SLR and other climate change impacts, many terrestrial, freshwater, and marine species have shifted their geographic ranges, seasonal activities, and migration patterns (IPCC 2014, p. 4). Increases in sea level have been occurring throughout the southeastern Atlantic and Gulf coasts of the United States, and the overall magnitude of SLR in the region has been slightly higher than the global average (Mitchum 2011, p. 9). At various locations in Florida, SLR has averaged about 3.0 millimeters (mm) (0.12 inches (in)) per year since the early 1990s (Ruppert 2014, p. 2). The amount of SLR that will occur in the future will depend largely on the rate of anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions and associated warming. Salt marshes may be able to persist with SLR by either floodwater sedimentation or through landward migration. However, future SLR is expected to shift available habitat farther inland (in some cases closer to developed areas) or the habitat will be lost all together. Coastal tidal marshes are threatened by this “coastal squeeze,” the combination of SLR rise and a physical barrier that prevents the landward migration of marshes (Martinez et al. 2014, p. 180).</P>
                <P>Regarding fluctuations in ocean chemistry, rising carbon dioxide levels will directly impact seagrasses and other aquatic vegetation (Unsworth et al. 2019, p. 810). As carbon dioxide increases in the atmosphere, it will continue to increase in the ocean and lead to a decrease in pH. Under elevated carbon dioxide conditions, seagrass growth rates will increase (Koch et al. 2013, p. 103). An additional consequence of fluctuations in ocean chemistry from climate change may be harmful algal blooms. Increased ocean temperatures will influence the range, frequency, duration, size, and seasonal window of opportunity for harmful algal blooms.</P>
                <P>Hydrological cycle deviations are another potential consequence of climate change, with projections for future precipitation trends suggesting overall annual precipitation will decrease in the southeastern United States and Puerto Rico (Carter et al. 2014, p. 17; Khalyani et al. 2016, pp. 271-275; Bhardwaj et al. 2018, p. 145). Similarly, uncertain predicted changes in precipitation in Mexico, Central America, and South America indicate that the wet season could become drier, and the dry season could become either wetter or drier depending on the region, but primarily drier along the Caribbean coast of Central America and most of South America (Vera et al. 2006, p. 4; Karmalkar et al. 2011, pp. 622-626). Climate change could intensify or increase the frequency of drought events. Frequency, duration, and intensity of droughts are likely to increase in the southeastern United States where Florida manatees primarily occur (Thomas et al. 2004, pp. 145-147). Overall, the changes in rainfall patterns will likely have a geographically uneven impact on manatees.</P>
                <P>
                    Tropical cyclones, severe storms, and dust storms will bring intense flooding that may impact seagrasses and manatees through increased runoff and turbidity in coastal waters (Marsh et al. 2017, p. 343). Impacts to manatees from tropical storms and hurricanes include strandings, debris-related injuries, individuals being swept off-shore or exceedingly far inshore, entrapment in isolated water bodies, and impacts to forage (Langtimm and Beck 2003, entire; Langtimm et al. 2006, entire; Langtimm et al. 2007, p. 192; NOAA 2007, pp. 94-96). The Florida manatee survival rate is negatively correlated with more intense hurricane seasons (Langtimm and Beck 2003, p. 262). Tropical storms, hurricanes, and high tide flooding events are already contributing to increased Florida manatee rescues as manatees are gaining access to areas that were previously inaccessible, such as in golf course ponds, in culverts, in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3142"/>
                    stormwater retention areas, and behind water control structures. In Puerto Rico, tropical storms and hurricanes intensify heavy surf, and at least one manatee calf death was attributed to Hurricane Hortense in 1996 (Service 2007, p. 33). For the Antillean manatee, hurricane events may have a greater impact on some populations (Caribbean and Gulf of Mexico) than on others (coast of South America).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Other Influences</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Disease and Predation:</E>
                     Numerous infectious diseases and parasites have been reported in manatees) (Owen et al. 2018, entire). Papillomaviruses can infect individuals with suppressed immune systems have been observed in manatees and are believed to be spread via contact (Bossart et al. 2002, entire; Woodruff et al. 2005, entire; Halvorsen and Keith 2008, p. 414). However, papillomas (epithelial tumors) on infected manatees are benign. Toxoplasmosis has been identified in the Florida manatee and the Antillean manatee in Puerto Rico, but cases of the disease and evidence of antibodies to 
                    <E T="03">Toxoplasma gondii</E>
                     were rare in the Puerto Rican population (Buergelt and Bonde 1983, entire; Smith et al. 2016, entire; Bossart et al. 2012, entire).
                </P>
                <P>There is no evidence that predation is a significant threat to the viability of either the Florida manatee or the Antillean manatee. There have been documented interactions with sharks and alligators on manatees, but these instances are rare (Mou Sue et al. 1990, p. 239; Marsh et al. 2011, p. 239). As there is no evidence of predation being a significant threat to either subspecies of manatee, we do not anticipate this to change in the future. However, impacts from disease may increase over time if manatees are under stress due to climate change.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Entanglement by Fishing Gear and Marine Debris:</E>
                     Fishing gear, both active and discarded, can kill or injure both subspecies of manatee through either entanglement (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     in nets, crab traps, or monofilament line), ingestion (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     monofilament line, fishhooks, etc.), or incidental capture (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     in inshore recreational and commercial shrimp trawls). Other marine debris not related to fishing, like plastics, rope, wire, sponges, balloons, etc., can pose an issue for manatees (Reinert et al. 2017, p. 418; Service Captive Manatee Database 2024, unpaginated; Service 2020, pp. 2-3). Causes of death from ingestion of marine debris include intussusception (telescoping of the intestine into itself) of the small intestine and impaction, obstruction, and perforation of the gastrointestinal tract (Beck and Barros 1991, p. 509; Reinert et al. 2017, p. 418). Causes of death from entanglement have included secondary infection, drowning, and being tethered to an immovable object (Reinert et al. 2017, p. 418).
                </P>
                <P>Drowning in fishery nets has occurred but appears to be infrequent, with just one instance of a manatee associated with a recreational shrimp net between 2014 and 2018 (FWC Manatee Mortality Database 2024, unpaginated). Incidental captures of manatees by research groups does occur and non-target manatees can be caught during other rescue activities, again with limited frequency, but manatees are typically released unharmed (Service 2020, p. 2). In 2019, Florida manatees were reported to be incidentally captured on at least 15 occasions (Service 2020, p. 2). Because conservation actions have been implemented, deaths from marine debris are rare, and population modeling efforts have determined that marine debris (including entanglements and ingestion of fishing gear) presents only a low threat to the persistence of the Florida manatee (Runge et al. 2015, p. 16; 2017, p. 18).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Entrapment in Water Control Structures:</E>
                     Water control structures include flood gates that control water movement and navigation locks that allow vessel passages past dams and impoundments, such as those associated with the Caloosahatchee Waterway. Water control structures and navigation locks have historically posed a threat to the Florida manatee. Between 1980 and 1999, an average of 6.6 Florida manatees per year died in structure-related deaths (FWC Manatee Mortality Database 2021, unpaginated).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Because of safety advances for water control structures (discussed further under 
                    <E T="03">Conservation Efforts and Regulatory Mechanisms,</E>
                     below), these structures are not currently considered a major threat to the Florida manatee. Most water control structures that may impact Florida manatee have been retrofitted with manatee protection systems or mesh barriers, and these structures implement standard operating procedures to reduce impacts to manatees. Information is not available regarding the precise degree to which water control structures pose a threat to the Antillean manatee, but the best available information indicates a few manatee deaths are reported in Mexico, Colombia, and Cuba due to dams and water control structures. Water control structures are not believed to currently be a major threat to either subspecies of manatee, and we do not anticipate this threat to increase in the future because we assume that management actions to prevent entrapment will continue.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Conservation Efforts and Regulatory Mechanisms</HD>
                <P>
                    As described under 
                    <E T="03">Threats Analysis,</E>
                     above, several factors can affect the viability of manatees. Below, we provide an overview of conservation efforts, and regulatory mechanisms, and recovery plans that address the threats and provide benefits to manatees.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Watercraft Collisions</HD>
                <P>The primary conservation action to reduce the risk of manatee injury and death from watercraft collisions is the establishment of protected areas that restrict boat entry and limit vessel speeds. The rationale behind speed limits is that a slower speed allows both manatees and boaters additional response time to avoid a collision (Calleson and Frohlich 2007, p. 297; Rycyk et al. 2018, p. 956). Furthermore, if an impact occurs, the degree of trauma will generally be less if the colliding boat is operating at slower speed (Laist and Shaw 2006, p. 478; Calleson and Frohlich 2007, p. 297).</P>
                <P>For the Florida manatee, manatee protection zones are a primary conservation tool that has been implemented to address this threat. These zones, which have been implemented in Florida at the Federal, State, and local level, regulate boater entry and speed in protected areas to reduce risk to manatees and their habitat. There are many different types of protection zones, including idle- and slow-speed areas, boater travel corridors that allow higher speeds in deeper channels, shoreline buffers, zones with seasonal entry or speed limitations, non-motorized areas, and no-entry areas (FWC 2007, p. 148). Federal, State, and local manatee protection speed zones have been established in 27 Florida counties.</P>
                <P>
                    For the Antillean manatee, some countries have designated protected areas to help reduce the impact of watercraft collisions and other threats to manatees. For example, Belize has three protected areas created specifically to safeguard manatee habitat: Swallow Caye Wildlife Sanctuary, Corozal Bay Wildlife Sanctuary, and Gales Point Wildlife Sanctuary, as well as numerous protected areas within coastal areas (UNEP 2010, p. 24). Other countries, including Brazil, the Dominican Republic, Guatemala, and Mexico, have also designated reserves specifically for the conservation of manatees (UNEP 2010, pp. 28, 41, 47, 60).
                    <PRTPAGE P="3143"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Habitat Loss and Modification</HD>
                <P>To offset threats to seagrass in the United States, including Puerto Rico, a wide range of conservation efforts are ongoing. These include the collective efforts of the Service, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers (USACE), Puerto Rico Department of Natural and Environmental Resources (PRDNER), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), U.S. Coast Guard, FWC, Florida Department of Environmental Protection (FDEP), Florida's regional Water Management Districts (WMDs), and others who are working to avoid, minimize, and mitigate project impacts on manatee habitat. The development and implementation of no-wake areas, marked navigation channels, boat exclusion areas, and standard manatee construction conditions for marinas and boat ramps are a few of the efforts making a positive impact on maintaining and protecting important manatee habitat.</P>
                <P>For the Florida manatee, habitat degradation and loss from natural and human-related causes are being addressed through collective efforts to improve overall water quality; minimize construction-related impacts; minimize loss of seagrass due to propeller scarring and dock construction; and increase the abundance of SAV, salt marsh, and mangroves by restoring these habitats. The Service, USACE, and NOAA, as well as multiple State agencies including FWC, FDEP, and regional WMDs, review development permits to identify potential impacts and develop measures that will avoid, minimize, or mitigate for direct and secondary impacts. In addition, these agencies have programs for increasing SAV, salt marsh, and mangrove habitats through restoration; restoring living shorelines; and improving water quality. In southwest Florida, spatial coverage of seagrass increased by more than 12,000 ha between the 1980s and 2016 in six assessed estuaries (St. Joseph Sound, Clearwater Harbor, Tampa Bay, Sarasota Bay, Lemon Bay, and Charlotte Harbor; Tomasko et al. 2018, p. 1135). This recovery was made possible by conservation actions that limited nutrient loads in the water, including upgrading wastewater and stormwater systems, as well as legislation regulating discharged pollutants (Tomasko et al. 2018, pp. 1133-1135). Protected areas where boat access is limited or prohibited also protect manatee habitat from direct threats from vessels, their wakes, and other destructive activities.</P>
                <P>Major habitat restoration efforts were undertaken by Save Crystal River, Inc., with financial backing by the State of Florida and other sources. As part of this effort to restore Kings Bay, a three-pronged approach was instituted in the area, consisting of: organic detritus/muck removal; then replanting with more salt-tolerant eelgrass variants (“Rock Star” and “Salty Dog”), with the initial plantings protected by herbivory exclusion cages; and then maintenance of the restoration site (Kramer 2020, pp. 1-4; Save Crystal River 2021, entire). Over time, the plants have shown strong growth and persistence, and have expanded the vegetated area well beyond the initial planting locations, contributing to enhanced water clarity in many parts of the bay. While water clarity has improved, an added benefit for manatees is that the SAV has expanded nearer to natural spring sites, resulting in reduced travel distances to feed and less exposure to colder ambient temperatures and boat traffic.</P>
                <P>Current efforts to forestall reductions in salt marsh habitat include reducing impacts from coastal development through the Federal and State permitting process, mitigation for lost salt marsh, and restoration efforts to enhance and increase salt marsh habitat (Radabaugh et al. 2017, pp. 139-141).</P>
                <P>There are recovery efforts being made to protect the Antillean manatee against threats posed by habitat loss or modification. In Puerto Rico, there have been efforts to restore damaged habitat, protect habitat by restricting boater entry or speeds, and provide mooring buoys to prevent anchorage (PRDNER 2012, entire). In Belize, three protected areas were created specifically to protect critical manatee habitat (Swallow Caye Wildlife Sanctuary, Corozal Bay Wildlife Sanctuary, and Gales Point Wildlife Sanctuary), and more than 43 percent of the country's protected areas are within the coastal zone (UNEP 2010, p. 24). Mexico has designated significant special manatee protection areas (UNEP 2010, p. 60). The Dominican Republic and Guatemala also have designated protected habitat specifically for Antillean manatee conservation, in addition to other protected coastal and wetland areas that are not protected specifically for manatees (UNEP 2010, pp. 19-82; Domínguez Tejo 2019, p. 6).</P>
                <P>
                    Some Antillean manatee habitat has been protected in other range countries including the Bahamas, Brazil, Colombia, Costa Rica, Cuba, French Guiana, Honduras, Jamaica, Nicaragua, Panama, Suriname, Trinidad and Tobago, and Venezuela, although these protected areas are not necessarily protected or enforced to the benefit of manatees specifically (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Ramsar sites designated as wetlands of international importance but without specific management or planning to benefit manatees) (UNEP 2010, pp. 19-82).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Pollution and Harmful Algal Blooms</HD>
                <P>
                    Conservation measures associated with harmful algal blooms include rescue and treatment of affected individuals, and efforts to reduce the occurrence of harmful algal blooms in cases where the drivers of blooms are understood, which is not the case for red tides caused by blooms of the marine algae 
                    <E T="03">Karenia brevis.</E>
                     Although there are no effective conservation measures available currently to reduce the impact of red tides themselves, manatee rescue, care and treatment, and release have aided in the rehabilitation of numerous manatees suffering from sublethal effects of brevetoxin exposure. Between 2010 and 2022, 70 Florida manatees have been rescued (7.7 percent of all rescues) for red tide-related causes (FWC Manatee Mortality Database 2024, unpaginated).
                </P>
                <P>Many efforts are being undertaken to address recurring algal blooms in Florida, and specifically in the IRL. The State of Florida, Indian River Lagoon National Estuary Program (IRLNEP), Brevard County, and many other partners have funded and are implementing a large number of projects to improve the IRL's health. The initiatives are aimed at removing legacy nutrient loads and reducing current nutrient sources through the implementation of stormwater improvement projects, fertilizer bans, septic to sewer conversions, dredging of accumulated muck from the lagoon, and restoration projects for oysters, clams, and seagrass (Tetra Tech and Closewaters, LLC 2021, entire; IRLNEP 2019, entire).</P>
                <P>
                    For the Antillean manatee, once the manatee deaths in the Tabasco region started to increase, the Mexican government summoned a committee to investigate the causes of death. While brevetoxins have been reported from Mexico, Trinidad and Tobago, and Jamaica (Steidinger 2009, pp. 550-551), algal blooms are not known to be a significant threat to the Antillean manatee throughout its range. However, between 2018 and 2019, more than 50 Antillean manatee deaths in Mexico were attributed to toxicity from algal blooms within the wetlands in the Tabasco region, although the algal species and cause of the bloom was not identified (Núñez-Nogueira and Uribe-López 2020, p. 257). The magnitude, timing, and frequency of harmful algal blooms may change in the future with a changing climate. Further, large mats 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3144"/>
                    of pelagic sargassum may impact Antillean manatees' respiratory, ocular, and neurological functions.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Human Interactions</HD>
                <P>In Florida, where people currently view manatees, numerous measures are in place to prevent the take of manatees due to disturbance from viewing-related harassment. All waterborne activities are prohibited in Federal manatee sanctuaries and FWC or other State no-entry zones; specific waterborne activities may be restricted in Federal manatee refuges and FWC no-motorized-vessel zones. Both the Service and FWC promote and post appropriate guidelines for Florida manatee viewing through outreach via social media and signage at public viewing areas. Ecotourism is popular throughout the State of Florida but remains a significant concern due to increasing demand for manatee-related tourism, limited law enforcement presence, and cumulative effects from these activities on manatees especially when the activities occur in the vicinity of large manatee aggregations at warm-water sites.</P>
                <P>
                    Within the Crystal River National Wildlife Refuge in Citrus County, Florida, a special use permit system is in place to govern commercial tours within refuge waters. The permit system ensures these activities occur with proper education and viewing practices in place. Federal and State designated sanctuaries and protected areas keep people out of sensitive manatee habitats (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     warm-water sites), educated tour guides are tasked with ensuring that their customers do not harass manatees, and many educational programs prescribe appropriate measures to take when in the presence of manatees. Refuge staff, including law enforcement, hold annual meetings with volunteers and tour guides to provide updates on manatee issues in the area and to review proper manatee viewing practices. The federally designated Kings Bay Manatee Refuge regulates waterborne activities that are disruptions to natural behaviors such as resting, nursing, foraging, mating, and socializing, and has established speed zones for the protection of manatees.
                </P>
                <P>There is limited information available about conservation measures that address human interaction in many range countries for the Antillean manatee. In Puerto Rico, government agencies and local nongovernmental organizations have implemented education and outreach strategies to ensure that manatee harassment is avoided and minimized by concessionaires and others within manatee use areas. There has been an increase in the type and number of recreational activities where manatees occur and, thus, an increase in the scenarios where manatee harassment occurs. In general, surveillance and enforcement related to human interactions with manatees is difficult given the frequency and diversity of the incidents. There are examples of similar protected areas and use restrictions to protect Antillean manatees in other range countries from human interactions. For example, at Swallow Caye in Belize where manatees stopped visiting suitable habitat after swim-with-the-manatee programs were allowed, community groups and a local conservation organization helped to declare the area a wildlife sanctuary in 2002. The area is currently co-managed between the Belize Forest Department and a local conservation organization, and manatees have returned to the area (UNEP 2010, p. 23). In Mexico, several workshops and meetings were conducted with the local tourist operators and the authorities within the Sian Ka'an Biosphere Reserve (Castelblanco-Martínez et al. 2019, entire).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Loss of Warm-Water Refugia</HD>
                <P>
                    As discussed under 
                    <E T="03">Threats Analysis,</E>
                     above, cold stress does not tend to affect Antillean manatees, because they inhabit warmer subtropical waters. Florida manatees during the colder months may suffer from cold stress and require human intervention. However, for the Florida manatee, primary direct conservation response to address cold stress is rescue and treatment. Providing care for cold-stressed manatees is dependent on the public or other entities reporting these distressed manatees to FWC and other rescue partners, as well as the availability of experienced rescue personnel, availability of rehabilitation space, and other resources necessary to rescue, transport, and provide treatment. Consequently, only a small number of individuals that need treatment for cold stress are likely to be rescued and rehabilitated.
                </P>
                <P>Over the last 10 years (2014-2023), close to 40 manatees have been rescued outside of Florida, and most of those rescues were the result of artificial warm-water attractants (power plants, pulp mills, and other industrial-related outfalls that produce heated effluents in manatee-accessible waters) that altered manatee migratory behavior but where the heated discharges were insufficient to sustain manatees through the winter (Service Manatee Database 2024, unpaginated). When these situations occur, the Service works cooperatively with the industrial partner to try to mitigate those attractants.</P>
                <P>Major spring restoration efforts have occurred at Homosassa Springs, Three Sisters Springs, Chassahowitzka Spring, Ulele Spring, Fanning Springs, Manatee Springs, and Warm Mineral Springs, where sand bars and other obstructions were removed to facilitate manatee access to these areas (TNC 2015, unpaginated; Valade et al. 2020, p. 17). Restoration and shoreline stabilization at Blue Spring (Volusia County), a major natural warm-water site, is ongoing. Because of sedimentation from human activities, manatees could not access the Warm Mineral Springs warm-water site under certain low tide conditions (FWC 2019, pp. 16-17). Another site in southwest Florida at Port of the Islands is expected to be lost because of hydrologic restoration in the Picayune Strand as part of the Comprehensive Everglades Restoration Plan (CERP). In response, a manatee warm-water mitigation feature was built that includes three deep pools that are connected to the surficial aquifer and hold warm saline groundwater for manatee use. This site is being monitored by researchers to evaluate temperature conditions and manatee use (FWC 2019, pp. 16-17).</P>
                <P>
                    The State of Florida's WMDs are also required to set minimum flows and levels (MFLs) for aquifers, surface watercourses, and other surface water bodies. Minimum flows are required for rivers, streams, estuaries, and springs in Florida, which provide benefits to manatees and help provide protection for natural warm-water sites. The MFLs created for each waterbody must establish a limit that identifies a point where further water withdrawals will be harmful to the water resources or ecology of the area; non-consumptive and environmental values are considered in this determination. After an MFL is set, water use permits are used to regulate and prevent groundwater withdrawals that would lower flows or levels that fall below the MFL. MFL reviews typically occur on a 5-year cycle, and these levels ensure adequate flows and require that conservation measures be taken should flows drop below targets. MFLs have been completed for numerous waterbodies including those important for manatees, like Blue Spring (Volusia County); Manatee and Fanning Springs (Levy County); Weeki Wachee Spring (Hernando County); Homosassa, Chassahowitzka, and the Crystal River/Kings Bay system (Citrus County); DeLeon Springs (Volusia County); Silver Glen Springs (Lake and Marion 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3145"/>
                    Counties); and Wakulla Springs (Wakulla County).
                </P>
                <P>Additional conservation actions include the Service's and FWC's coordination with the power-generating companies in Florida, and through the FDEP, manatee protection conditions are incorporated into each facility's National Pollution Discharge Elimination System permit. The Service also coordinates with State and industry partners to minimize any future manatee losses from industrial site reductions or closures by seeking short-term alternatives and long-term sustainable options for supporting manatees without reliance on industrial warm-water sources. In 2004, the Warm-water Task Force created the first version of the Warm-water Habitat Action Plan to address the expected loss of warm-water habitat produced by Florida power plants. The task force was part of the Service's Manatee Recovery Team and consisted of representatives of Federal and State wildlife agencies, the power industry, recreational and commercial boating interests, and environmental organizations. The Service and FWC finalized the Florida Manatee Warm-water Habitat Action Plan (Valade et al. 2020, entire), and this document serves as the framework to address the expected loss of industrial warm-water habitat in the future. This plan consists of seven main strategies and sets forth both short-term and long-term measures to address one of the most significant threats to the future existence of the Florida manatee and the recovery of the subspecies (Valade et al. 2020, entire).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Water Control Structures</HD>
                <P>Water control structures are not believed to be a major threat to the Antillean manatee. However, advances in manatee protection systems installed on water control structures to prevent Florida manatees from being crushed or impinged have been largely successful. Efforts to mitigate the negative effects of these water control structures on manatees are ongoing. In Florida, most water control structures that are known to have caused Florida manatee deaths have been retrofitted with manatee protection systems (Service 2023, p. 12), including acoustic arrays and piezo-electric strips that reverse closing locks or gates when they encounter a manatee. In addition, mesh exclusion barriers are used to prevent manatees from accessing the recessed areas of navigational locks. Risks at navigational locks and water control structures have been further reduced by the implementation of standard operating procedures developed by the Florida WMDs and the USACE (Service 2023, p. 12). In response to these advances, annual mortality has fallen to an average of 4.2 manatees per year between 2000 and 2019 (FWC Manatee Mortality Database 2024, unpaginated).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Entanglement by Fishing Gear and Marine Debris</HD>
                <P>Conservation actions to reduce the impact of this threat include rescue, efforts to remove and keep discarded fishing gear and debris out of the water, and community outreach and education. In addition, best management practices have been provided by FWC and the Service for some commercial fisheries and research activities that have included active tending of nets, limited set times, location restrictions, and reporting of entanglements and captures of manatees during these activities.</P>
                <P>Rescue activities have reduced mortality associated with fishing gear, which has likely contributed towards recovery of the Florida manatee. Permits related to in-water activities, such as mooring fields, turbidity booms, and other entangling materials, are reviewed by FWC and Service staff, and conditions to minimize or eliminate entanglements are provided as specific conditions to the issued permit. Derelict crab trap removal, monofilament recycling programs, and other coastal cleanup efforts also aid in reducing the threat to marine wildlife and minimizing the number of entanglements by removing gear from the water. Extensive education and outreach efforts increase awareness and promote sound gear-disposal activities.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Recovery Plans and Recovery Actions</HD>
                <P>Recovery and conservation actions for the West Indian manatee are described in the “UNEP Caribbean Environment[al] Program's Regional Management Plan for the West Indian Manatee” (UNEP 2010, entire) and in national conservation plans for countries outside the United States. The UNEP plan identifies short- and long-term conservation and research measures that should be implemented to conserve the West Indian manatee. This plan also includes an overview of manatees within their range countries, including descriptions of regional and national conservation measures and research programs that have been implemented. Given the general lack of information about the Antillean manatee in most of its range countries, the plan recommends that needed research and the development of common methodologies be prioritized in concert with coordinated manatee and manatee habitat protection efforts (UNEP 2010, entire). Belize, Colombia, Costa Rica, Guatemala, Mexico, and Trinidad have developed country-specific manatee recovery plans as well (UNEP 2010, p. 92).</P>
                <P>Efforts to conserve manatees outside the United States vary significantly from country to country. Some countries, including, but not limited to, Mexico, Belize, Guatemala, Brazil, Dominican Republic, and Cuba, are engaged in efforts to assess the current status and distribution of manatees. Many countries also provide protections for manatees and their habitats. A number of governments have designated manatee protection areas and have developed or are developing conservation plans (UNEP 2010, p. xiv). National legislation exists for manatees in all range countries, and many countries have ratified their participation in international conventions and protocols that protect manatees and their habitat (UNEP 2010, p. xv). Other efforts to protect manatees include education and outreach efforts, and countries promote cooperation and information exchanges.</P>
                <P>Within the United States, the Service's Recovery Plan for the Puerto Rico Population of the West Indian (Antillean) Manatee (Service 1986, entire), the South Florida Multi-Species Recovery Plan (Service 1999, entire), and the Florida Manatee Recovery Plan (Service 2001, entire) identify recovery and conservation actions for the two subspecies. Actions common to all plans include minimizing manatee mortality and injury, protecting manatee habitats, and monitoring manatee populations and habitat.</P>
                <P>
                    The Recovery Plan for the Puerto Rico population of the West Indian (Antillean) Manatee (Service 1986, entire) included three major objectives: (1) To identify, assess, and reduce human-related mortalities, especially those related to gill-net entanglement; (2) to identify and minimize alteration, degradation, and destruction of important Antillean manatee habitats; and (3) to develop criteria and biological information necessary to determine whether and when to reclassify (either delist or downlist) the Puerto Rico population (Service 1986, p. 12). The 1986 plan also includes a step-down outline that identifies two primary recovery actions: (1) population management, and (2) habitat protection. The 1986 plan (Service 1986, entire) does not establish quantitative recovery criteria to describe a sustainable population of manatees in Puerto Rico. It does, however, direct the Service to determine and satisfy the recovery criteria that are based on mortality and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3146"/>
                    abundance trends and a minimum population size and to ensure that adequate habitat protection and anti-poaching measures are implemented (Service 1986, Executive Summary). Since the release of the 1986 plan, initiated recovery actions have provided substantial new knowledge about the subspecies' ecology and threats. Some of these efforts apply to multiple tasks and are helping to update conservation information and tools that are applied towards adaptive management and education. Efforts include (but are not limited to) the rescue, rehabilitation, and release actions related to strandings (led by PRDNER); aerial surveys; identification of important manatee habitats and resources in Puerto Rico; and developing conservation measures as part of project reviews.
                </P>
                <P>The current Florida Manatee Recovery Plan on October 30, 2001 (Service 2001, entire) includes four principal objectives: (1) Minimize causes of Florida manatee disturbance, harassment, injury, and mortality; (2) determine and monitor the status of Florida manatee populations; (3) protect, identify, evaluate, and monitor Florida manatee habitats; and (4) facilitate Florida manatee recovery through public awareness and education. To help achieve these objectives, the 2001 recovery plan identifies 118 recovery implementation tasks. Since the release of the 2001 recovery plan, initiated recovery actions have provided substantial new knowledge about the subspecies' ecology and threats. Some of these efforts apply to multiple tasks and are helping to update conservation information and tools that are applied towards adaptive management and education. The delisting criteria for maintaining spring flows and protecting warm-water refugia have not yet been met.</P>
                <P>
                    Recovery actions are also implemented during technical assistance and project review. Any action or project with a Federal nexus (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     Federal funds, permits, or actions) will require a consultation with the Service under section 7 of the Act. During the consultation process, the Service identifies conservation measures to avoid and minimize possible effects of proposed actions or projects. Each year, we review numerous projects pertaining to the manatee (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     dredging, dock and marina construction, coastal development, marine events (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     high-speed boat races), and underwater and beach unexploded ordnance). The Service has developed guidelines specific to Puerto Rico for Antillean manatee conservation measures. For example, we have worked with the U.S. Coast Guard to develop and implement standard permit conditions for boat races, such as observer protocols.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Regulatory Mechanisms</HD>
                <P>
                    Because the Florida manatee is a subspecies of the West Indian manatee, its conservation has benefited from a number of Federal, State, and local laws. The species is federally protected in the United States, including Puerto Rico, under the Act and the MMPA. In addition to the consultation procedures under section 7 of the Act, the Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C. 1251 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and Fish and Wildlife Coordination Act (16 U.S.C. 661-666c) provide regulatory mechanisms for interagency consultation associated with projects, and these reviews may result in habitat protection for the subspecies. The boat facility siting strategies in the 16 county manatee protection plans are a major component of the section 7 consultation process under the Act. Manatee protection plans (MPPs) are Federal, State, and local agreements designed to help direct future boat facility development away from the highest manatee use areas on a county-specific basis.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Critical habitat for the Florida manatee was designated in 1976 (see 41 FR 41914, September 24, 1976, and 42 FR 47840, September 22, 1977). This designation identified specific waterways in Florida that were historically known to support high concentrations of Florida manatees at that time. In 2010, the Service concluded that revisions to critical habitat for the Florida manatee were warranted and that future updates to this designation would need to encompass the most recent studies of distribution, habitat use, and habitat requirements (75 FR 1574, January 12, 2010). We proposed to revise the critical habitat designation for the Florida manatee and to designate critical habitat for the Antillean manatee in a separate 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     publication (89 FR 78134).
                </P>
                <P>In addition to the Act, within the continental United States, Puerto Rico, and U.S. Virgin Islands, the MMPA and State and Commonwealth laws and regulations provide protections for Florida and Antillean manatees. Under the MMPA, the primary objective of marine mammal management is to maintain the health and stability of the marine ecosystem (16 U.S.C. 1361(6)). Service regulations implementing the MMPA restrict the taking, possession, transportation, selling, offering for sale, and importing of all marine mammals (50 CFR part 18).</P>
                <P>
                    In addition to the Federal protections discussed above, the Florida manatee is protected at the State level in Florida. The first State protection of manatees in Florida was established in 1893 when hunting was prohibited, and a State law was instituted in 1907 that imposed a $500 fine and/or 6 months in prison for killing or molesting a manatee. The first manatee protection areas were established in 1979 (FWC 2007, p. 179). The subspecies is protected under the Florida Endangered and Threatened Species Act (see Florida Statutes at section 379.2291) and the Florida Manatee Sanctuary Act of 1978 (see Florida Statutes at section 379.2431(2)). At the species level, the West Indian manatee (
                    <E T="03">Trichechus manatus</E>
                    ) is listed as endangered on the State marine endangered and threatened species list (see Florida Administrative Code at section 68A-27.0031).
                </P>
                <P>Within Florida, the Florida Manatee Sanctuary Act of 1978 provides significant protections, including authority for the regulation of manatee protection zones in manatee habitat and the development of county-specific MPPs. In establishing the Florida Manatee Sanctuary Act, Florida declared the entire State a refuge and sanctuary for manatees and called for the protection of manatees from injury, disturbance, harassment, or harm. The Florida Manatee Sanctuary Act also allows for the enforcement of boat speeds and operations in areas where manatees have been frequently seen and where the best scientific information supports that manatees inhabit the areas on a regular basis.</P>
                <P>Manatee protection plans are comprehensive county-wide manatee protection strategies that are developed cooperatively and agreed to by the county, FWC, and the Service. Important aspects of MPPs include boat facility siting recommendations and associated predictability for permitting, habitat protection policies, education programs, and coordinated law enforcement efforts with a plan for implementation.</P>
                <P>
                    Manatee protection plans are also addressed in the Florida Manatee Sanctuary Act and the Florida Manatee Recovery Plan. In 1989, the Florida Governor and Cabinet provided a directive that identified 13 “key” counties that needed to develop MPPs and described what conservation measures should be incorporated into these plans. In 2002, the Florida Legislature amended the Florida Manatee Sanctuary Act to include the requirement for MPPs in these 13 key 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3147"/>
                    counties. Furthermore, deadlines were set up for completion of these plans and criteria for approval. MPPs have also been established in other counties.
                </P>
                <P>Federal and State agencies have made the effort to mitigate the loss of warm-water habitat in Florida by providing regulatory measures to protect spring flows, supporting spring restoration efforts, and working cooperatively with industry to maintain important artificial warm-water sources while regional warm-water networks are established to support the manatee population. In some areas of Florida, local governments have also adopted protection measures, including local speed zones that provide benefits to manatees (see appendix B of the SSA report (Service 2024a, pp. B71-B79)).</P>
                <P>In other parts of its range, the Florida manatee is listed under State laws. For each State listed here, the listed entity is the West Indian manatee rather than the Florida subspecies, but the Florida subspecies is the only subspecies known to regularly occur in these States. The West Indian manatee is listed as endangered under State law in Georgia, South Carolina, North Carolina (when present in inland waters), Mississippi, and Virginia. The species is listed as threatened under State law in Louisiana and Texas. Alabama does not have a State law that designates species as either endangered or threatened, but West Indian manatees are a protected species under the State's Protected Nongame Species Regulation (Alabama Administrative Code at section 220-2-.92(1)(e)). In addition to protections from take and harassment, Louisiana Department of Wildlife and Fisheries (LDWF) also conducts some boater awareness by posting manatee signs at boat launches in Southern Louisiana. The Georgia Department of Natural Resources (GADNR), in coordination with the USACE, requires permanent manatee education signs to be posted at all boat launches, marinas, and community docks in tidal waters; GADNR also requires temporary signs and other standard conditions for in-water work in tidal waters and marshes.</P>
                <P>
                    The Antillean manatee in Puerto Rico is also protected by Commonwealth laws and regulations (see appendix B of the SSA report (Service 2024b, p. 35)). A number of international environmental agreements provide protections for the West Indian manatee or its habitat, such as the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES; March 3, 1973, 27 U.S.T. 1087); Convention for the Protection and Development of the Marine Environment of the Wider Caribbean Region (WCR or Cartagena Convention; adopted on March 24, 1983, and entered into force on October 11, 1986); Cartagena Convention's Protocol Concerning Specially Protected Areas and Wildlife (SPAW) in the Wider Caribbean Region (adopted on January 18, 1990, and entered into force on June 18, 2000); Convention on Biological Diversity (1992); International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL Convention; adopted on November 2, 1973); and United Nations Law of the Sea Convention (UNCLOS; 1982). Further, multiple international treaties and agreements provide protections for the Antillean manatee throughout its range including the UNEP Regional Management Plan for the West Indian Manatee (
                    <E T="03">Trichechus manatus</E>
                    ) and manatee protection ordinance. For additional information on existing regulatory protections for the manatee, please refer to appendix D of the SSA report (Service 2024b, pp. 137-139).
                </P>
                <P>While regulatory mechanisms should be effective and consistent across the two subspecies' ranges, the extent and overall effectiveness of these regulatory protections to the subspecies and their habitats vary from country to country. Lack of enforcement remains a critical issue for the Antillean manatee (UNEP 2010, p. 89; Marsh et al. 2011, p. 387), and despite having laws in place, illegal activities such as poaching and destruction of habitat still occur (Self-Sullivan and Mignucci-Giannoni 2012, p. 41). In Puerto Rico, for example, PRDNER has indicated that current speed regulatory buoys are ineffective, in part because regulations do not identify the perimeter or area that each buoy regulates (Service 2017, p. 16695). Although some efforts may be having a positive impact on manatee recovery, enforcement and compliance will require significant cooperative efforts and funding, particularly with regulations and enforcement to avoid and minimize watercraft collisions and habitat degradation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Cumulative Effects</HD>
                <P>We note that, by using the SSA framework to guide our analysis of the scientific information documented in the SSA reports, we have analyzed the cumulative effects of identified threats and conservation actions on both subspecies. To assess the current and future condition of each subspecies, we evaluate the effects of all the relevant factors that may be influencing the subspecies, including threats and conservation efforts. Because the SSA framework considers not just the presence of the factors, but to what degree they collectively influence risk to the entire subspecies, our assessment integrates the cumulative effects of the factors and replaces a standalone cumulative-effects analysis.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Current Condition—Florida Manatee</HD>
                <P>
                    Viability of the Florida manatee is best understood by describing resiliency, redundancy, and representation (see 
                    <E T="03">Analytical Framework,</E>
                     above). Maintaining sufficiently resilient populations across the range of a species increases the ability of that species to adapt to natural selection processes, increasing the chances that the species will persist in a changing world (Service 2016, pp. 12-13). We delineated resiliency units within each representative unit to serve as the basis for this status assessment. We use the term “resiliency unit” rather than population to be clear that delineated units do not necessarily align with biological populations. While we used the concept of biological populations as a guide in delineating these units, there were cases where information was lacking about connectivity and barriers to connectivity between groups of manatees, or where data availability necessitated assessing units at different scales. These delineations were based on a number of factors including connectivity and dispersal patterns, site fidelity, seasonal differences in distribution, ecological differences, and the scale of data availability. There are five representative units for the West Indian manatee, and the Florida manatee is contained within one representative unit (see 
                    <E T="03">Current Condition—Antillean Manatee,</E>
                     below, and section 4.1.1 of the Florida manatee SSA report for more details (Service 2024a, pp. 64-67)).
                </P>
                <P>The Florida manatee was characterized at two seasonal scales to assess resiliency: one based on warm season distribution (also called warm season coastal resiliency units) and one based primarily on cold season distribution (also called winter management units) (see figure 2, below). Warm season coastal resiliency units include the Gulf and East Coast units as well as the freshwater tributaries flowing into the two units. Cold season distribution is based on four Florida winter management units: Northwest, Southwest, Atlantic, and Upper Saint Johns River (see chapter 4 of the SSA report (Service 2024a, pp. 63-94)). </P>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-P</BILCOD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="387">
                    <PRTPAGE P="3148"/>
                    <GID>EP14JA25.039</GID>
                </GPH>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-C</BILCOD>
                <P>To measure the current resiliency of the Florida manatee, we first analyzed and scored four condition factors: (1) population trend, (2) regional foraging habitat condition, (3) winter foraging habitat condition, and (4) winter warm-water refugia condition. Overall resiliency was calculated by tallying the number of times a unit was assigned high, moderate, or low condition across the four resiliency factors at both warm season and winter management scales (Service 2024a, pp. 69-94). For more details on resiliency methodology, see section 4.2 of the SSA report (Service 2024a, pp. 69-78).</P>
                <P>Based on the assessment of current demographic and habitat needs for the Florida manatee, three winter management units (Northwest, Southwest, Upper St. Johns River) have high resiliency and one winter management unit (Atlantic) has moderate resiliency (see table 1, below). Scaled to warm season coastal resiliency units, the Gulf Coast exhibits high resiliency, and the East Coast exhibits moderate resiliency. Forage conditions and availability of warm-water habitat for the Florida manatee are currently in good condition for three of the four winter management units. The exception is the Atlantic winter management unit, where the forage-driven UME affected resiliency in the unit from 2021-2023. While the long-term implications of this UME to the Florida manatee population are unknown, the population trend for the Atlantic winter management unit was tentatively assessed as low, leading to an overall resiliency of low for this recent two-year period. The Atlantic winter management unit has the highest estimated abundance of Florida manatees, as calculated from the 2021-2022 Statewide abundance survey in Florida (Gowan et al. 2023, p. 7), indicating a large number of manatees were being affected by the loss of forage and degraded conditions in this unit.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,xs54,xs54,xs54,xs54,xs54">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Current Resiliency for the Four Florida Manatee Winter Management Units and Two Warm Season Coastal Resiliency Units </TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Service 2024a, pp. 93-94]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Abundance</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Trend
                            <LI>(2011-2020)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Forage</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Winter
                            <LI>forage</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Warm-water
                            <LI>refugia</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Overall
                            <LI>resiliency</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Management Unit:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Northwest</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,270 (790-1,840)</ENT>
                        <ENT>High</ENT>
                        <ENT>Good</ENT>
                        <ENT>Good</ENT>
                        <ENT>Good</ENT>
                        <ENT>HIGH.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="3149"/>
                        <ENT I="03">Southwest</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,966 (2,551-3,434)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Moderate</ENT>
                        <ENT>Good</ENT>
                        <ENT>Good</ENT>
                        <ENT>Good</ENT>
                        <ENT>HIGH.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Atlantic </ENT>
                        <ENT>3,520 (2,750-4,430)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Moderate</ENT>
                        <ENT>Diminished</ENT>
                        <ENT>Diminished</ENT>
                        <ENT>Good</ENT>
                        <ENT>MODERATE.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">2021-2023</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>(Low)</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>(LOW).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Upper St. Johns River</ENT>
                        <ENT>480 (460-510)</ENT>
                        <ENT>High</ENT>
                        <ENT>Good</ENT>
                        <ENT>Good</ENT>
                        <ENT>Good</ENT>
                        <ENT>HIGH.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">Warm Season Coastal Resiliency Unit:</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Gulf Coast</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,810 (3,820-6,010)</ENT>
                        <ENT>High</ENT>
                        <ENT>Good</ENT>
                        <ENT>Good</ENT>
                        <ENT>Good</ENT>
                        <ENT>HIGH.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">East Coast</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,000 (3,240-4,910)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Moderate</ENT>
                        <ENT>Caution *</ENT>
                        <ENT>Diminished</ENT>
                        <ENT>Good</ENT>
                        <ENT>MODERATE.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>* “Caution” condition indicates that there are some metrics that indicate that forage resources are being impacted.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>The Florida manatee, which comprises a single representative unit, currently has one coastal resiliency unit exhibiting high resiliency and the second exhibiting moderate resiliency (see table 1, above). Three of the four winter management units exhibit high resiliency and one (the Atlantic unit) exhibits moderate resiliency. Of note, from 2021 to 2023, the Atlantic unit had a low level of resiliency, driven by losses of forage and high mortality due to the UME declared in 2021 (Service 2023, p. 5). However, when comparing from 2011-2020 across the winter management units, the Atlantic unit was assessed to have moderate resiliency currently. Additionally, the number of manatees in Florida on the East coast from 2021-2022 was estimated to be between 3,940-6,980 (Gowan et al. 2023, p. 1). The estimate from 2022 was higher than the estimate from 2016; however, the credible intervals permit a range of population trajectories (Gowan et al. 2023, p. 5). This range of population trajectories lends credence to a tentative score of low from 2021 to present in the Atlantic winter management unit in the SSA report (Service 2024a, p. 90), but this range also leaves the possibility that the population is increasing after the UME.</P>
                <P>Loss of forage is the driver limiting the resiliency of the East Coast resiliency unit. Prior to the UME, the Atlantic unit was exhibiting stable or slow population growth, while the other three winter management units were, and continue to, exhibit positive growth (Service 2023, p. 5). The full impacts of the ongoing UME are continuing to be assessed at this time and both retrospective and predictive population modeling efforts are underway and will be included in future versions of the SSA report.</P>
                <P>Redundancy for the Florida manatee can be described as the number and distribution of sufficiently resilient populations across the range, and the subspecies' ability to withstand anticipated species-relevant catastrophic events. The Florida manatee has redundancy at a regional scale; in addition to the overall moderate resiliency of Atlantic unit and overall high resiliency of Northwest, Southwest, and Upper St. John's River the East Coast resiliency unit currently has moderate, and the Gulf Coast high, resiliency. In addition, the subspecies is distributed throughout its historical range. Resiliency across the Florida manatee's range has enabled the subspecies to survive past catastrophic events, such as UMEs and hurricanes, and to recover from such events. Thus, the Florida manatee has sufficient redundancy, or distribution of current moderate to high resiliency units, across its range to withstand catastrophic events.</P>
                <P>Representation refers to the breadth of genetic and environmental diversity within and among populations that contributes to the ability of the species to respond and adapt to changing environmental conditions over time (Service 2016, p. 6). Maintaining sufficiently resilient populations across the range of the species increases the ability of the species to adapt to natural selection processes, increasing the chances that the species will persist in a changing world (Service 2016, pp. 12-13). Partial migration between resiliency and management units results in genetic mixing, which has led to low genetic differentiation between units (Service 2023, pp. 25-27). This migration and subsequent genetic mixing increases the adaptive capacity of the Florida manatee by allowing for the introduction of advantageous traits across units that can enhance the species' ability to adapt to changing environmental conditions. Partial migration describes a species' adaptive ability to exploit new areas where conditions are favorable before retreating when the season changes and conditions become unfavorable (Bright Ross et al. 2021, entire). Partial migration has already enabled range shifts for the Florida manatee on the Gulf Coast (Cloyed et al. 2021, p. 6) and contributes to the subspecies' adaptive capacity. Partial migration allows portions of a population to respond to environmental variability, such as losses of warm-water refugia, and shift to other available wintering locations. Thus, the Florida manatee does exhibit potential adaptive capacity to changing environmental conditions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Future Conditions—Florida Manatee</HD>
                <P>
                    In our analysis of the Florida manatee's future condition, we carefully considered the best available science, including future condition projections of modeled threats and the subspecies' response to those threats from a 2016 modeling effort, as well as information regarding the ongoing threat of seagrass loss, the emerging effects of the UME, and the emerging effects of climate change. We relied on a core biological model (CBM) that resulted from a collaborative research effort of subject matter experts and represents the most comprehensive analysis to date (Runge et al. 2017, entire). Plausible future scenarios were developed and modeled to project the future condition of the subspecies. The CBM forecasts population dynamics of the Florida manatee in four regions (Northwest, Upper St. Johns River, Atlantic, and Southwest winter management units), incorporating current information on life history and uncertainty in parameter estimates, and applying environmental as well as demographic stochasticity (Runge et al. 2017, p. 33). The plausible scenarios predicted future viability under multiple scenarios grouped as: baseline (no change to current habitat, demographics, or threats), current and ongoing threats (level of various threats increased or decreased to examine their effects on long-term viability of Florida manatees), and potential emerging 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3150"/>
                    threats (investigated the possible impact of multiple emerging threats on the viability of the Florida manatee) (Runge et al. 2017, pp. 13-16).
                </P>
                <P>Current and ongoing threats in the CBM included mortality resulting from watercraft collisions, water control structures, and entanglement by fishing gear and marine debris; loss of warm-water habitat; and red tide. Potential emerging threats included cold-related mortality and a multiple emerging threats scenario, which included seven features. The seven features included in the multiple emerging threats scenario are: (1) watercraft-related mortality rate increasing by 50 percent over the next 30 years, then stabilizing; (2) immediate loss of industrial power plants; (3) reduction of carrying capacity provided by natural spring flows of 50 percent over the long term; (4) manatees choosing warm-water sites in proportion to their historical use; (5) elevated frequency of cold and severely cold years; (6) elevated frequency of moderate and intense red tide events; and (7) chronic density-independent additional mortality (2 percent) occurring in the IRL area. The analysis for the CBM was completed using data up to 2016, prior to the recent UME, and serves as the best available science providing a comprehensive assessment and projected future condition for the Florida manatee (Runge et al. 2017, p. 4). Nevertheless, the models developed and used within the SSA provide the best available future projections for the Florida manatee (see section 5.3 of the SSA report (Service 2024a, pp. 104-107)). Although Runge et al. (2017, entire) did not account explicitly for the current and ongoing UME, the multiple emerging threats scenario did account for chronic density-independent additional mortality in the area that is part of the current UME, and current ongoing modeling efforts will result in an updated version of the SSA report when completed.</P>
                <P>Our baseline and threats future condition scenarios forecast viability 50, 100, and 150 years in the future, and the emerging threats future condition scenarios forecast viability 100 years in the future. We have sufficient information to determine the threats that are currently impacting the subspecies and are expected to continue to impact the subspecies in the future, as well as the subspecies' response to those threats (baseline and threats future condition scenarios). The timeframes of 50, 100, and 150 years also give time for this long-lived mammal to demonstrate the impact of threats on populations and the subspecies as a whole. For emerging threats, we have sufficient certainty to project threats that are expected to impact the subspecies in the future at 100 years and the subspecies' response to those threats. Earlier than this timeframe, we do not have information that impacts to the subspecies will be demonstrable, and beyond this timeframe, there is too much uncertainty about subspecies' response. Therefore, the selected timeframes are reasonable to model threats and forecast variations of threats acting on the subspecies and its habitat, as well as reasonable time for a long-lived marine mammal to respond to those threats. Although we need not identify the foreseeable future in terms of a specific period of time, we have described the foreseeable future for the Florida manatee as far into the future as we can make reasonably reliable predictions about the threats to the subspecies and the subspecies' responses to those threats. We have taken into account considerations such as the subspecies' life-history characteristics, threat-projection timeframes, and environmental variability in our future condition scenarios and timeframes.</P>
                <P>
                    The suite of future condition threats scenarios for the Florida manatee (modeled at 50, 100, and 150 years) predict how particular threats impact the subspecies' probability of falling below established quasi-extinction thresholds (100, 250, 500 individuals) and expected minimum population (EMP) size. Threats generally fall into two groups: those that have minimal effect on quasi-extinction probability (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     water-control structures, marine debris) and those that have a more significant effect (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     watercraft collisions, warm-water refugia loss, harmful algal blooms/red tide). The potential emerging threats scenarios take into consideration increases to existing threats, appearance of new threats, and multiple threats increasing at the same time, and compare the results to the baseline scenario.
                </P>
                <P>For the Florida manatee, both the baseline and ongoing threats scenario future condition results indicate that the probability of Florida manatee extinction at 150 years is low, but substantial threats remain. Model results indicate that there could be a substantial shift in the distribution of Florida manatees, depending on the threat being considered. Long-term declines are projected in the Southwest and Atlantic resiliency units (or winter management units), while long-term increases are projected for the Northwest and Upper St. Johns River winter management units. Based on factors affecting warm-water habitats, the model estimates a higher carrying capacity for Florida manatees in the Northwest and Upper St. Johns River winter management units (Runge et al. 2017, p. 13). However, in the Southwest and Atlantic units, declines are expected due to the number of power plants operating with once-through cooling in those regions, which may only be available until the end of the operational lifetime of each plant (Runge et al. 2017, pp. 14, 20). Overall, threat scenario results projections for the Florida manatee are variable, but the model indicates the future viability of the Florida manatee will likely be impacted as watercraft use increases due to human population increases and as cold water stress or red tide events increase. The greatest risk of decline is predicted for the Atlantic and Southwest winter management units, largely because of the expected loss of artificial warm-water sources. Under all future scenarios, the EMP size is expected to decrease over time; however, overall extinction risk is low, and the adult population of Florida manatee will likely remain above quasi-extinction thresholds for 150 years. However, the long-term viability of the Florida manatee is related to the subspecies' ability to withstand human-caused and natural threats of varying magnitude and duration, as well as the effectiveness of conservation efforts to address the Florida manatee's needs.</P>
                <P>The future projections modeling effort did not explicitly include the severity of impacts from the most recent UME, as the consequences of this UME on population size and trend are not completely understood at this time but are currently being assessed to update the CBM. The USGS and FWC have ongoing initiatives to update demographic data, integrated population models, and the CBM for the Florida manatee. We acknowledge the unknown consequences to Florida manatees associated with the recent UME have likely had implications on the subspecies' future viability that were not detected in the modeling effort. For further information on the future conditions of the Florida manatee, please refer to chapter 5 of the SSA report (Service 2024a, pp. 97-113).</P>
                <P>
                    Concomitant with the UME, seagrass loss and loss of foraging habitat were not explicitly included in the modeling effort. As described above in 
                    <E T="03">Habitat Loss and Modification,</E>
                     seagrass resources have been declining in multiple locations across Florida since 2011 and are contributing factors to the recent UMEs. While there has been some recently reported improvement in the condition of seagrass beds in the IRL (SJRWMD 2023, entire), current seagrass 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3151"/>
                    levels are greatly reduced from previous long-term levels and remain a risk to manatee viability in the future.
                </P>
                <P>The modeling effort also did not forecast industrial warm-water sources going offline within the next 20-25 years as has been discussed by power plant representatives in recent years. The baseline scenario encompassed power plants being online for 50 years, which is no longer the case. The greatest effect would be to the Atlantic and Southwest winter management units. Currently, more than half of Florida manatees seek shelter from winter cold in the warm-water discharges of power plants. The rest of the population uses natural springs and thermal basins located in Florida. The power companies will likely phase out power plant discharges within the next 25 years, and human-caused impacts to warm water availability, such as flow reductions and other activities, threaten Florida's springs and thermal basins. Although some mitigation strategies have been discussed and planned, uncertainty associated with manatee spatial and temporal response to these plant shutdowns is important in assessing viability of the subspecies in the future.</P>
                <P>Also not included in the modeling effort are the effects of climate change on Florida manatees in the future. Climate change impacts are expected to influence the viability of manatees in several ways, including temperature increases, sea level rise, fluctuations in ocean chemistry, hydrological cycle deviations, and changes intiming and intensity of tropical storms, as well as extreme cold events.These large-scale impacts may lead to habitat changes, increased algal blooms, and new threats from diseases (Edwards 2013, pp. 727, 735; Marsh et al. 2017, entire; Osland et al. 2020, entire). The synergism of these factors will affect manatee health and habitat, and potentially reduce the future range of the Florida manatee.</P>
                <P>While the risk of population decline at the regional level is high for the Florida manatee at the Southwest and Atlantic units, risk of population decline is moderate at the warm season coastal resiliency unit scale. It is important to note that the 2016 model did not include the severity of the ongoing UME, nor did it include differing seagrass loss/rebound futures, nor did it include effects of future climate change. These are substantial risks to the Florida manatee in the future, all of which may negatively impact the viability of the Florida manatee and increase its extinction risk.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Current Condition—Antillean Manatee</HD>
                <P>
                    The West Indian manatee species is divided into five representation units. The current range of the Antillean manatee is grouped into four representation units based on known genetic and ecological variation across the subspecies' range, as well as input from subspecies experts. Unit 1 represents the Florida manatee (see 
                    <E T="03">Current Condition—Florida Manatee,</E>
                     above), and there are four units (Units 2-5) that encompass the Antillean manatee. The four Antillean representative units are: Unit 2: Greater Antilles, Unit 3: Gulf of Mexico to Caribbean coast of South America-Coastal, Unit 4: Gulf of Mexico to Caribbean coast of South America-Freshwater, and Unit 5: Atlantic Coast of South America (inset of figure 3, below; section 4.1.1 of the Antillean manatee SSA report (Service 2024b, pp. 45-47)). Representation units for the Antillean manatee are based on known genetic and ecological variation across the subspecies' range. 
                </P>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-P</BILCOD>
                <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="387">
                    <PRTPAGE P="3152"/>
                    <GID>EP14JA25.040</GID>
                </GPH>
                <P>Figure 3. Antillean manatee's 4 representative units (units 2-5) and 14 resiliency units. The units portray the general extent of each unit and do not reflect presence and absence within each unit.</P>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-C</BILCOD>
                <P>These four representative units of the Antillean manatee span 20 countries and are characterized by 14 resiliency units (see figure 3, above) based on assumed connectivity as well as data availability (see chapter 4 of the SSA report (Service 2024b, pp. 44-74)). The current resiliency assessments for the Antillean manatee differ from the Florida manatee because: (1) the biology and ecology of the two subspecies differ, primarily because different factors influence their resiliency; and (2) the two subspecies differ in the amount of data and information available to assess their resiliency.</P>
                <P>Current resiliency (henceforth called current condition) for each Antillean manatee resiliency unit was determined using the best available information on population trends. Population trends were used to determine the current condition of each resiliency unit, as population trends are an indicator of current condition; populations that are stable or increasing are more resilient to stochastic events than those that are declining. The best available information on trends was gathered primarily from three publications: (1) the most recent International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List assessment for the West Indian manatee (Deutsch et al. 2008, Supplementary Table 1), (2) the UNEP Regional Management Plan for the West Indian manatee (UNEP 2010, p. 11), and (3) a population viability analysis for the Antillean manatee (Castelblano-Martinez et al. 2012, p. 132).</P>
                <P>
                    Sometimes different data sources report different trends (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     one source says “stable,” while another says “declining”). In all these cases, we retain all the reported trends in the current condition assessment for each country to transparently report the uncertainty in the current trend. Trends were ranked moderate if they were reported as stable and ranked low if any sources reported them as declining. For resiliency units made up of multiple countries where different trends were reported for different countries, we report the trend of the entire unit to be the trend associated with more than half of the manatees in the unit. For example, if two out of three countries were reported to have a declining trend and one out of three was reported to have a stable trend, the entire unit with these three countries was reported to have a declining trend.
                </P>
                <P>
                    After the reported population trends for each resiliency unit were identified, each resiliency unit was sorted into one of four categories, called trend categories, shown in Table 2 below. These trend categories were used to describe current condition of Antillean manatee resiliency units. For populations where trends were unknown, they were classified the same as otherwise identical trend descriptions without “unknown”, with 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3153"/>
                    the uncertainty in the true trend incorporated into the certainty metric associated with the trend.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,r200">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—Reported Population Trends That Were Included in High, Moderate, Low, and Unknown Trend Categories</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Trend category</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Reported population trends</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">High</ENT>
                        <ENT>Increasing; Increasing/Unknown; Stable/Increasing; Stable/Increasing/Unknown.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Moderate</ENT>
                        <ENT>Stable; Stable/Unknown.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Low</ENT>
                        <ENT>Stable/Declining; Stable/Declining/Unknown; Declining; Declining/Unknown.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Unknown.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unknown.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    Trend certainty also helped convey the variability in data availability across the subspecies' large geographic range (see table 4-2 in the SSA report (Service 2024b, p. 53)). These certainty levels are defined as High (based on recent information (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     within 20 years)), Moderate (based on other recent data, but not a statistical estimate (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     minimum counts, genetic analysis, mortality records, etc.)), and Low (based on informed opinions of local experts, localized and/or outdated data (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     more than 20 years old)).
                </P>
                <P>Certainty levels were also reported for abundance. While not used to explicitly determine current condition of resiliency units, abundance was also reported for each resiliency unit because the ability of Antillean manatee to withstand the normal range of environmental and demographic stochasticity increases with abundance. We believe the general magnitude of the estimates are informative, such that a list of resiliency units ranked in order of estimated abundance is likely to provide a fair interpretation of which resiliency units have relatively higher or lower abundance than the others. The abundance of each resiliency unit was informed primarily by the same three sources that informed population trends (Deutsch et al. 2008, Supplementary Table 1; UNEP 2010, p. 11; Castelblanco-Martínez et al. 2012, p. 132).</P>
                <P>Current condition for the Antillean manatee is also influenced by the quality and quantity of habitat, threats and stressors, and conservation actions pursued in each population. Study and documentation of these factors are uneven across the subspecies' range and cannot be assessed in a consistent manner across all or even most populations. Consequently, we have not included these factors explicitly in the current condition assessment but do summarize the information available for each population. While the quantity and quality of habitat is important for the current condition of populations, information about habitat status is not available for many areas within the subspecies' large geographic range. Habitat information for each population is summarized in the SSA report (Service 2024b, pp. 55-71).</P>
                <P>Thirteen out of 14 resiliency units exhibit low current condition, and only the Puerto Rico resiliency unit, where the trend is stable, has moderate current condition. Our current condition assessment for the Antillean manatee was mostly characterized by low certainty for the current status, and Antillean manatees are consistently described as being more abundant historically than they are today.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,xs50,xs50">
                    <TTITLE>Table 3—Current Condition Summary for the Antillean Manatee Sorted in Descending Order of Estimated Abundance </TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[Service 2024b, p. 71]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Resiliency unit</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Abundance
                            <LI>(certainty)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Trend 
                            <LI>(certainty)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Trend
                            <LI>
                                category 
                                <SU>1</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Current
                            <LI>condition</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Brazil</ENT>
                        <ENT>&gt;1,104 (&gt;485-2,221) (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Stable/Declining/Unknown (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Low</ENT>
                        <ENT>LOW.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Caribbean Mexico, Belize, Guatemala</ENT>
                        <ENT>650-1,400 (moderate certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Stable/Declining/Unknown (moderate certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Low</ENT>
                        <ENT>LOW.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Honduras, Nicaragua, Costa Rica, Panama Coastal</ENT>
                        <ENT>800-950 (169-204 minimum) (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Declining (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Low</ENT>
                        <ENT>LOW.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Gulf of Mexico</ENT>
                        <ENT>600-850 (moderate certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Declining (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Low</ENT>
                        <ENT>LOW.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Colombia Rivers</ENT>
                        <ENT>400 (100-1,000) (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unknown/Declining (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Low</ENT>
                        <ENT>LOW.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Puerto Rico</ENT>
                        <ENT>386 (sd = 89) (high certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Stable (moderate certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Moderate</ENT>
                        <ENT>MODERATE.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Cuba</ENT>
                        <ENT>100-500 (50 minimum) (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unknown/Declining (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Low</ENT>
                        <ENT>LOW.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Hispaniola</ENT>
                        <ENT>300 (38-53 minimum) (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Declining (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Low</ENT>
                        <ENT>LOW.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Guyana, Suriname, French Guiana</ENT>
                        <ENT>300 (45 minimum) (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Declining (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Low</ENT>
                        <ENT>LOW.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Venezuela Rivers</ENT>
                        <ENT>&lt;300 (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Declining (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Low</ENT>
                        <ENT>LOW.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Trinidad and Tobago</ENT>
                        <ENT>100 (25-30 minimum) (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Declining (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Low</ENT>
                        <ENT>LOW.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Lago de Maracaibo (Venezuela)</ENT>
                        <ENT>&lt;100 (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unknown (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unknown</ENT>
                        <ENT>LOW.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Jamaica</ENT>
                        <ENT>50 (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unknown/Declining (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Low</ENT>
                        <ENT>LOW.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Panama Canal</ENT>
                        <ENT>20-25 (16 minimum) (moderate certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unknown (low certainty)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Unknown</ENT>
                        <ENT>LOW.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Trends that were unknown were categorized as such. Trends were ranked as high if they were reported to be increasing or if different sources reported them to be stable or increasing. Trends were ranked as moderate if they were reported to be stable. To be conservative, trends were ranked as low if any sources reported them as declining, even if they were also reported as stable by the same source (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         one source described it as stable/declining) or different sources (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         one source described it as stable and a different source described it as declining).
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <PRTPAGE P="3154"/>
                <P>The resiliency uncertainty carries over into our interpretations of redundancy and representation in the four Antillean manatee representative units (see inset of figure 3, above). The Greater Antilles representative unit (Unit 2) contains one resiliency unit (Puerto Rico) that currently exhibits a moderately certain stable population, resulting in moderate current condition. All remaining resiliency units in the Greater Antilles representative unit (Cuba, Hispaniola and Jamaica) and all resiliency units in the other three Antillean manatee representative units (Units 3, 4, 5) exhibit low current condition. The most genetically distinct Antillean manatee representative unit, in terms of evolutionary history indicated by mitochondrial DNA haplotypes, is the Atlantic Coast of South America unit (Unit 5) (Service 2024b, pp. 24-28). Both resiliency units in this representative unit currently exhibit low current condition. The most ecologically distinct Antillean manatee representative unit, the Gulf of Mexico to Caribbean Coast of South America-Freshwater unit (Unit 4), is also characterized by all resiliency units exhibiting low current condition.</P>
                <P>The best available information indicates abundance is declining across most of the subspecies' range (see section 4.2.2 in the SSA report (Service 2024b, pp. 55-71)). Current abundance estimates in each resiliency unit for the Antillean manatee vary widely, ranging from 20 to more than 1,000 individuals (see table 3). Two resiliency units are estimated to have more than 1,000 Antillean manatees: (1) Caribbean, Mexico, Belize, and Guatemala, and (2) Brazil. Four resiliency units are estimated to have 100 or fewer Antillean manatees: (1) Trinidad and Tobago, (2) Lago de Maracaibo, (3) Jamaica, and (4) Panama Canal; those four resiliency units are comparatively smaller than those that support larger Antillean manatee populations. The remaining eight resiliency units are estimated to support between 100 and 1,000 Antillean manatees. As with trend estimates, the certainty of abundance estimates vary across the range of the Antillean manatee and are mostly based on expert input, past versus present occurrence records or perceptions, and mortality records.</P>
                <P>The majority of the genetic and ecological diversity within the subspecies occurs in resiliency units characterized as having low current condition, thus leading to overall low representation for the subspecies. Redundancy is also low, as all but one of the resiliency units are in low condition, thus the subspecies is susceptible to catastrophic events. As discussed previously, more information about the status of the Antillean manatee and its habitat across its range is needed to reduce uncertainty on the current status of the subspecies as a whole. We note that the subspecies is represented throughout its historical range and in regard to redundancy, there are 4 representative units and 14 resiliency units. This analysis led to an overall current condition of low for the Antillean manatee.</P>
                <P>
                    Because we have determined that the Antillean manatee meets the Act's definition of an “endangered species” (see Determination of Status for the Florida Manatee and Antillean Manatee, below), we are not presenting the results of the future scenarios for the Antillean manatee in this proposed rule. Instead, details regarding the future conditions analysis and the future resiliency, redundancy, and representation of the Antillean manatee are presented in detail in the SSA report (see chapter 5 of the SSA report (Service 2024b, pp. 76-96)), which is available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     under Docket No. FWS-R4-ES-2024-0050.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determination of Status for the Florida Manatee and Antillean Manatee</HD>
                <P>The Act defines the term “species” as including any subspecies of fish or wildlife or plants, and any distinct population segment of any species of vertebrate fish or wildlife which interbreeds when mature (16 U.S.C. 1532(16)). Section 4 of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1533) and its implementing regulations (50 CFR part 424) set forth the procedures for determining whether a species meets the definition of an endangered species or a threatened species. The Act defines an “endangered species” as a species in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range and a “threatened species” as a species likely to become an endangered species within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range. The Act requires that we determine whether a species meets the definition of an endangered species or a threatened species because of any of the following factors: (A) The present or threatened destruction, modification, or curtailment of its habitat or range; (B) overutilization for commercial, recreational, scientific, or educational purposes; (C) disease or predation; (D) the inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanisms; or (E) other natural or manmade factors affecting its continued existence.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Proposed Action for West Indian Manatee Listing</HD>
                <P>
                    Based on the best available scientific and commercial information, the West Indian manatee species is comprised of two subspecies: the Florida manatee and the Antillean manatee. We recognize the Florida manatee and the Antillean manatee as separate listable entities (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     subspecies) under the Act. We no longer recognize the listed entity of the West Indian manatee separate from the two subspecies, and we, therefore, propose to remove the West Indian manatee from the List.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Status Throughout All of Its Range—Florida Manatee</HD>
                <P>Based on our assessment of demographic and habitat needs for the Florida manatee, three winter management units (Northwest, Southwest, and Upper St. Johns River) have high current condition, and one winter management unit (Atlantic) has moderate current condition. Scaled to warm season coastal resiliency units, the Gulf Coast unit exhibits high current condition, and the East Coast unit exhibits moderate current condition. The loss of forage (particularly, but not limited to, winter forage) led to a tentative short term (2021-2023) classification of low condition for the Atlantic winter management unit. However, the number of manatees in Florida on the East Coast from 2021-2022 was estimated to be between 3,940-6,980 (Gowan et al. 2023, p. 1). While the credible intervals permit a range of population trajectories, the estimate from 2022 was higher than the estimate from 2016 (3,240-4,910; Gowan et al. 2023, pp. 5-6).</P>
                <P>
                    The overall current condition for the broader East Coast resiliency unit is moderate given the 10-year assessment timeframe. Two winter management units with high current condition, Northwest and Upper St. Johns River, are dependent upon natural springs for warm water, unlike the Atlantic and Southwest units, which use industrial outfalls as their primary artificial warm-water sites. The Northwest and Upper St. Johns River winter management units support the two smaller abundances of Florida manatees. The Atlantic winter management unit has the highest estimated abundance of Florida manatees, meaning a large number of manatees are currently being affected by the loss of forage and conditions in this unit. However, the range of population trajectories leaves the possibility that the population is increasing after the UME.
                    <PRTPAGE P="3155"/>
                </P>
                <P>While Florida manatees are currently affected by watercraft collisions (Factor E), habitat loss (including seagrass loss) and modification from coastal development (Factor A), unusual mortality events (UME) (Factor E), natural processes including cold weather events and harmful algal blooms (Factor E), and human interactions (Factor B), all winter management and coastal resiliency units exhibit current moderate to high current condition that supports the current viability of the subspecies. The recent UME is impacting the Atlantic winter management unit, although the magnitude and severity of the impact has not yet been determined. The other three winter management units exhibited, and continue to exhibit, stronger positive growth compared to the Atlantic unit. The Florida manatee is a highly managed species for which many conservation initiatives have been and continue to be implemented to ameliorate threats, including efforts to improve water quality and restore seagrass. The best available science demonstrates long-term population growth and some adaptive capacity. The subspecies is represented throughout its historical range, and there are multiple units with moderate to high current condition across the range. While we anticipate that the threats will continue to act on the subspecies in the future, they are not currently affecting the subspecies such that it is in danger of extinction now. Further, the Florida manatee's vulnerability to stressors is not of such magnitude that it is currently in danger of extinction as a result of the threats to the subspecies or the subspecies' response to those threats. After assessing the best scientific and commercial data available, we find that, given the moderate to high current condition for all Florida manatee units and the distribution of these resilient units throughout the subspecies' range, the Florida manatee is not in danger of extinction throughout all of its range and does not meet the Act's definition of an endangered species.</P>
                <P>
                    We therefore proceed with determining whether the Florida manatee is likely to become endangered within the foreseeable future throughout all of its range. Future viability of the Florida manatee was investigated under plausible future condition scenarios: a baseline scenario, threats scenarios, and multiple emerging threats scenarios. We assessed Florida manatee future condition at 50, 100, and 150 years under all future scenarios. We determined these timeframes represent the period of time under which we are able to reasonably determine that both the future threats and subspecies' response to those threats are likely. As described above in 
                    <E T="03">Future Conditions—Florida Manatee,</E>
                     the selected timeframes are reasonable to model threats and forecast variations of threats acting on the subspecies and its habitat, and they are reasonable timeframes for a long-lived marine mammal to respond to those threats. Although we need not identify the foreseeable future in terms of a specific period of time, we have described the foreseeable future for the Florida manatee as far into the future as we can make reasonably reliable predictions about the threats to the subspecies and the subspecies' responses to those threats. We have taken into account considerations such as the subspecies' life-history characteristics, threat-projection timeframes, and environmental variability in our future condition scenarios and timeframes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Overall, future condition modeling results indicate the probability of Florida manatee extinction is low under scenario projections as described above in 
                    <E T="03">Future Conditions—Florida Manatee.</E>
                     However, substantial risks remain across the range of the subspecies. In the future, the Florida manatee will continue to be threatened by watercraft collisions (Factor E), habitat loss (including seagrass loss) and modification from coastal development (Factor A), unusual mortality events (UME) (Factor E), natural processes including cold weather events and harmful algal blooms (Factor E), and human interactions (Factor B), as well as the potential loss of warm-water refugia (Factor A) and climate change (Factor E). The greatest risk is estimated for the Atlantic and Southwest wintering populations; this risk is largely driven by the continued loss of seagrasses (Factor A), increase in cold water events (Factor E), and red tides (Factor E).
                </P>
                <P>
                    In our future condition projections, at the winter management unit level, probability of decline is greatest in the Atlantic winter management unit, followed by the Southwest, Northwest, and Upper St. Johns River winter management units. At the warm season coastal resiliency unit scale, the East Coast and its tributaries have a greater probability of decline than the Gulf Coast and its tributaries. At this warm season coastal resiliency unit scale, risk of population decline is moderate, while at the regional level, risk of population decline is high for the two larger winter management units (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     Southwest and Atlantic). In addition, future distributional shifts of the subspecies are predicted to be largely driven by the loss of artificial warm-water refugia, and the future viability of Florida manatees in the Southwest and Atlantic winter management units may be most negatively impacted by this.
                </P>
                <P>Overall, future condition modeling efforts project low risk of extinction for the Florida manatee under all future condition scenarios in 50, 100, and 150 years. These modeling efforts include relevant threats at the time of the assessment, but information was not available to incorporate loss of seagrass related to the UME, the short- and long-term effects of the UME on subspecies abundance and distribution, and the subspecies' response to both loss of seagrass and the UME. In addition, updated climate change assessments have become available since the future condition modeling effort, which was based on the 2017 assessment. Therefore, in our determination of the Florida manatee's status, we carefully considered the best available science, including future condition projections of modeled threats and the subspecies' response to those threats, as well as information regarding the ongoing and emerging threat of seagrass loss, the effects of the UME, and the emerging effects of climate change.</P>
                <P>We expect that the current threats to the subspecies, including watercraft collisions, habitat loss (including seagrass loss) and modification from coastal development, UMEs, cold weather events and harmful algal blooms, and human interactions, will continue to affect the subspecies' viability, and the negative impacts of emerging threats, including the loss of warm-water refugia, effects of climate change, loss of seagrass, and effects of UMEs, will further affect the subspecies' viability. After evaluating threats to the subspecies and assessing the cumulative effect of the threats under the Act's section 4(a)(1) factors, we determine that the Florida manatee meets the definition of a threatened species across its range. Thus, after assessing the best scientific and commercial data available, we conclude that the Florida manatee is not in danger of extinction but is likely to become in danger of extinction within the foreseeable future throughout all of its range.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Status Throughout a Significant Portion of Its Range—Florida Manatee</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the Act and our implementing regulations, a species may warrant listing if it is in danger of extinction or likely to become so within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range. The 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3156"/>
                    court in 
                    <E T="03">Center for Biological Diversity</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Everson,</E>
                     435 F. Supp. 3d 69 (D.D.C. 2020) (
                    <E T="03">Everson</E>
                    ), vacated the provision of the Final Policy on Interpretation of the Phrase “Significant Portion of Its Range” in the Endangered Species Act's Definitions of “Endangered Species” and “Threatened Species” (hereafter “Final Policy”; 79 FR 37578, July 1, 2014) that provided if the Services determine that a species is threatened throughout all of its range, the Services will not analyze whether the species is endangered in a significant portion of its range.
                </P>
                <P>Therefore, we proceed to evaluating whether the species is endangered in a significant portion of its range—that is, whether there is any portion of the species' range for which both (1) the portion is significant; and (2) the species is in danger of extinction in that portion. Depending on the case, it might be more efficient for us to address the “significance” question or the “status” question first. We can choose to address either question first. Regardless of which question we address first, if we reach a negative answer with respect to the first question that we address, we do not need to evaluate the other question for that portion of the species' range.</P>
                <P>
                    Following the court's holding in 
                    <E T="03">Everson,</E>
                     we now consider whether the Florida manatee is in danger of extinction in a significant portion of its range. In undertaking this analysis for Florida manatee, we choose to address the status question first.
                </P>
                <P>We evaluated the range of the Florida manatee to determine if the subspecies is in danger of extinction in any portion of its range. The subspecies' range can theoretically be divided into portions in an infinite number of ways. We focused our analysis on portions of the subspecies' range that may meet the Act's definition of an endangered species. For the Florida manatee, we considered whether the threats or their effects on the subspecies are greater in any biologically meaningful portion of the subspecies' range than in other portions such that the subspecies is in danger of extinction in that portion.</P>
                <P>We examined the following threats: watercraft collisions, habitat loss (including seagrass loss) and modification from coastal development, UMEs, natural processes including cold weather events and harmful algal blooms, human interactions, loss of warm-water refugia, and climate change, including cumulative effects. We found a potential difference in biological condition of the subspecies in the wintering area of the southeast coast of Florida (Brevard County south to Miami-Dade County; Atlantic winter management unit). The Atlantic winter management unit includes the current extent of the ongoing UME, is recognized as the larger of the two important wintering areas of the East Coast resiliency unit and contains a high abundance of Florida manatees. The current UME is the result of massive loss of forage for manatees, and there has been a substantial increase in mortality of manatees. Based on the forage-driven UME, the Atlantic winter management unit has a tentative lower level of condition in the 2021-2023 timeframe; however, when comparing similar time periods (past 10 years) across the winter management units, the Atlantic unit is assessed to have moderate current condition. Additionally, the number of manatees in Florida on the East coast from 2021-2022 was estimated to be higher than an estimate provided from 2016, though credible intervals permit a range of population trajectories (Gowan et al. 2023, pp. 1, 5). This range of population trajectories lends credence to a tentative score of low from 2021 to present in the Atlantic winter management unit in the SSA report (Service 2024a, p. 90), but this range also leaves the possibility that the population is increasing after the UME.</P>
                <P>
                    Recent demographic evidence for Florida manatees that winter in the Atlantic winter management unit indicates this area has the highest abundance estimate of manatees. The number of manatees could provide potential resilience to threats along the southeast coast of Florida. Thus, we determined that although the recent UME has negatively impacted short-term condition in the Atlantic winter management unit, the area exhibits overall moderate current condition and still contains the greatest number of Florida manatees; therefore, the Atlantic winter management unit does not exhibit a different status from the rest of the range. We found no biologically meaningful portion of the Florida manatee's range where the biological condition of the subspecies differs from its condition elsewhere in its range such that the status of the subspecies in that portion differs from any other portion of the subspecies' range. Therefore, no portion of the subspecies' range provides a basis for determining that the subspecies is in danger of extinction in a significant portion of its range, and we determine that the subspecies is likely to become in danger of extinction within the foreseeable future throughout all of its range. This does not conflict with the courts' holdings in 
                    <E T="03">Desert Survivors</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">U.S. Department of the Interior,</E>
                     321 F. Supp. 3d 1011, 1070-74 (N.D. Cal. 2018) and 
                    <E T="03">Center for Biological Diversity</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Jewell,</E>
                     248 F. Supp. 3d 946, 959 (D. Ariz. 2017) because, in reaching this conclusion, we did not apply the aspects of the Final Policy, including the definition of “significant” that those court decisions held to be invalid.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Determination of Status—Florida Manatee</HD>
                <P>Our review of the best available scientific and commercial information indicates that the Florida manatee meets the Act's definition of a threatened species. Therefore, we propose to list the Florida manatee as a threatened species in accordance with sections 3(20) and 4(a)(1) of the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Status Throughout All of Its Range—Antillean Manatee</HD>
                <P>Current abundance estimates in each resiliency unit for the Antillean manatee range from 20 to more than 1,000 individuals. While abundance estimates for Antillean manatee resiliency units are highly uncertain, the best available information indicates abundance is declining across most of the subspecies' range. One out of 14 resiliency units has moderate current condition (Puerto Rico, where the trend is stable), and the remaining 13 units have low current condition. When comparing abundance estimates, two resiliency units (Caribbean/Mexico/Belize/Guatemala and Brazil) are estimated to have more than 1,000 Antillean manatees. However, four resiliency units (Trinidad and Tobago, Lago de Maracaibo, Jamaica, and the Panama Canal) are estimated to have 100 or fewer Antillean manatees. The remaining eight resiliency units are estimated to support between 100 and 1,000 Antillean manatees.</P>
                <P>
                    While the current condition assessment is characterized by low certainty, the best available information indicates declining population numbers due to current and ongoing threats such as watercraft collisions (Factor E), habitat loss (including seagrass loss) and modification (Factor A), natural processes like harmful algal blooms (Factor E), human interactions (Factor B), poaching (Factor E), and low genetic diversity (Factor E). Additionally, there is a lack of effective enforcement of manatee conservation regulations in the Antillean manatee's range (Factor D), with enforcement varying widely by country due to limited funding and understaffed law enforcement agencies. Although the Antillean manatee subspecies possesses some redundancy and an ability to withstand catastrophic 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3157"/>
                    events on a rangewide basis, all resiliency units, except for one (Puerto Rico), have low current condition. Two units have an abundance over 1,000 individuals, but four units have 100 or fewer individuals. Further, low genetic diversity in some areas indicates the Antillean manatee may lack adaptive capacity. Despite populations being spread out across multiple units, the low abundance, habitat fragmentation, and adaptive capacity of populations throughout the subspecies' range compromise Antillean manatee redundancy.
                </P>
                <P>After evaluating threats to the subspecies and assessing the cumulative effect of the threats under the Act's section 4(a)(1) factors, we determined the best scientific and commercial data available indicates declining population numbers due to current and ongoing threats such as watercraft collisions, habitat loss and modification, natural processes like harmful algal blooms, human interactions, poaching, and potentially low genetic diversity. The best scientific and commercial data available indicates an overall low current condition for the Antillean manatee subspecies. Although populations are widely distributed in multiple units across the subspecies' range, the low abundance in many of these units reduce Antillean manatee redundancy. Most delineated units have very low numbers of Antillean manatees; four units contain 100 or fewer individuals, and eight units contain 100 to 1,000 animals. Further, the small, isolated populations and potential low genetic diversity indicate the Antillean manatee may lack adaptive capacity. It is important to recognize the different methodologies used to define populations for both subspecies, therefore it is not appropriate to make direct comparisons between the two. While the Antillean manatee may have some individual populations larger than some of the Florida manatee the condition of the Antillean manatee also reflects declining trends and isolation of populations. Thus, after assessing the best scientific and commercial data available, we determine that the Antillean manatee is in danger of extinction throughout all of its range.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Status Throughout a Significant Portion of Its Range—Antillean Manatee</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the Act and our implementing regulations, a species may warrant listing if it is in danger of extinction or likely to become so within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its range. We have determined that the Antillean manatee is in danger of extinction throughout all of its range and accordingly did not undertake an analysis of any significant portion of its range. Because the Antillean manatee warrants listing as endangered throughout all of its range, our determination does not conflict with the decision in 
                    <E T="03">Everson</E>
                     because that decision concerns significant portion of the range analyses for species that warrant listing as threatened, not endangered, throughout all of their ranges.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Determination of Status—Antillean Manatee</HD>
                <P>Our review of the best available scientific and commercial information indicates that the Antillean manatee meets the Act's definition of an endangered species. Therefore, we propose to list the Antillean manatee as an endangered species in accordance with sections 3(6) and 4(a)(1) of the Act. We have determined that the Antillean manatee is in danger of extinction throughout all of its range and accordingly did not undertake an analysis of a potential DPS for the Puerto Rico population.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Available Conservation Measures</HD>
                <P>Conservation measures provided to species listed as endangered or threatened species under the Act include recognition as a listed species, planning and implementation of recovery actions, requirements for Federal protection, and prohibitions against certain practices. Recognition through listing results in public awareness, and conservation by Federal, State, Tribal, and local agencies, foreign governments, private organizations, and individuals. The Act encourages cooperation with the States and other countries and calls for recovery actions to be carried out for listed species. The protection required by Federal agencies, including the Service, and the prohibitions against certain activities are discussed, in part, below.</P>
                <P>The primary purpose of the Act is the conservation of endangered and threatened species and the ecosystems upon which they depend. The ultimate goal of such conservation efforts is the recovery of these listed species, so that they no longer need the protective measures of the Act. Section 4(f) of the Act calls for the Service to develop and implement recovery plans for the conservation of endangered and threatened species. The goal of this process is to restore listed species to a point where they are secure, self-sustaining, and functioning components of their ecosystems.</P>
                <P>
                    The recovery planning process begins with development of a recovery outline made available to the public soon after a final listing determination. The recovery outline guides the immediate implementation of urgent recovery actions while a recovery plan is being developed. Recovery teams (composed of species experts, Federal and State agencies, nongovernmental organizations, and stakeholders) may be established to develop and implement recovery plans. The recovery planning process involves the identification of actions that are necessary to halt and reverse the species' decline by addressing the threats to its survival and recovery. The recovery plan identifies recovery criteria for review of when a species may be ready for reclassification from endangered to threatened (“downlisting”) or removal from protected status (“delisting”), and methods for monitoring recovery progress. Recovery plans also establish a framework for agencies to coordinate their recovery efforts and provide estimates of the cost of implementing recovery tasks. Revisions of the plan may be done to address continuing or new threats to the species, as new substantive information becomes available. The recovery outline, draft recovery plan, final recovery plan, and any revisions will be available on our website as they are completed (
                    <E T="03">https://www.fws.gov/program/endangered-species</E>
                    ) or from our Florida Ecological Services Field Office and Caribbean Ecological Services Field Office (see 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Implementation of recovery actions generally requires the participation of a broad range of partners, including other Federal agencies, States, Tribes, nongovernmental organizations, businesses, and private landowners. Examples of recovery actions include habitat restoration (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     restoration of native vegetation), research, captive propagation and reintroduction, and outreach and education. The recovery of many listed species cannot be accomplished solely on Federal lands because their range may occur primarily or solely on non-Federal lands. To achieve recovery of these species requires cooperative conservation efforts on private, State, and Tribal lands.
                </P>
                <P>
                    If this rulemaking is finalized, funding for recovery actions will be available from a variety of sources, including Federal budgets, State programs, and cost-share grants for non-Federal landowners, the academic community, and nongovernmental organizations. In addition, pursuant to section 6 of the Act, Puerto Rico and the State of Florida would be eligible for 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3158"/>
                    Federal funds to implement management actions that promote the protection or recovery of the Antillean manatee and the Florida manatee, respectively. Information on our grant programs that are available to aid species recovery can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fws.gov/service/financial-assistance.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Although the separate listings of the Florida manatee and the Antillean manatee are only proposed actions under the Act at this time, please let us know if you are interested in participating in recovery efforts for these subspecies. Additionally, we invite you to submit any new information on these subspecies whenever it becomes available and any information you may have for recovery planning purposes (see 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>Section 7 of the Act is titled, “Interagency Cooperation,” and it mandates all Federal action agencies to use their existing authorities to further the conservation purposes of the Act and to ensure that their actions are not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of listed species or adversely modify critical habitat. Regulations implementing section 7 are codified at 50 CFR part 402.</P>
                <P>Section 7(a)(2) states that each Federal action agency shall, in consultation with the Secretary, ensure that any action they authorize, fund, or carry out is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of a listed species or result in the destruction or adverse modification of designated critical habitat. Each Federal agency shall review its action at the earliest possible time to determine whether it may affect listed species or critical habitat. If a determination is made that the action may affect listed species or critical habitat, formal consultation is required (50 CFR 402.14(a)), unless the Service concurs in writing that the action is not likely to adversely affect listed species or critical habitat. At the end of a formal consultation, the Service issues a biological opinion, containing its determination of whether the Federal action is likely to result in jeopardy or adverse modification.</P>
                <P>In contrast, section 7(a)(4) of the Act requires Federal agencies to confer with the Service on any action which is likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any species proposed to be listed under the Act or result in the destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat proposed to be designated for such species. Although the conference procedures are required only when an action is likely to result in jeopardy or adverse modification, action agencies may voluntarily confer with the Service on actions that may affect species proposed for listing or critical habitat proposed to be designated. In the event that the subject species is listed or the relevant critical habitat is designated, a conference opinion may be adopted as a biological opinion and serve as compliance with section 7(a)(2) of the Act.</P>
                <P>
                    Examples of discretionary actions for the Florida manatee or the Antillean manatee that may be subject to conference and consultation procedures under section 7 of the Act are land management or other landscape-altering activities on Federal lands administered by the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, Department of Defense, and the Service, as well as actions on State, Tribal, local, or private lands that require a Federal permit (such as a permit from the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers under section 404 of the Clean Water Act or a permit from the Service under section 10 of the Act) or that involve some other Federal action (such as funding from the Federal Highway Administration, Federal Aviation Administration, or the Federal Emergency Management Agency). Federal actions not affecting listed species or critical habitat—and actions on State, Tribal, local, or private lands that are not federally funded, authorized, or carried out by a Federal agency—do not require section 7 consultation. Federal agencies should coordinate with the local Service Field Office (see 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    ) with any specific questions on section 7 consultation and conference requirements.
                </P>
                <P>The Act and its implementing regulations set forth a series of general prohibitions and exceptions that apply to endangered wildlife. The prohibitions of section 9(a)(1) of the Act, and the Service's implementing regulations codified at 50 CFR 17.21, make it illegal for any person subject to the jurisdiction of the United States to commit, to attempt to commit, to solicit another to commit, or to cause to be committed any of the following acts with regard to any endangered wildlife: (1) import into, or export from, the United States; (2) take (which includes harass, harm, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill, trap, capture, or collect, or to attempt to engage in any such conduct) within the United States, within the territorial sea of the United States, or on the high seas; (3) possess, sell, deliver, carry, transport, or ship, by any means whatsoever, any such wildlife that has been taken illegally; (4) deliver, receive, carry, transport, or ship in interstate or foreign commerce, by any means whatsoever and in the course of commercial activity; or (5) sell or offer for sale in interstate or foreign commerce. Certain exceptions to these prohibitions apply to employees or agents of the Service, the National Marine Fisheries Service, other Federal land management agencies, and State or Territorial conservation agencies.</P>
                <P>We may issue permits to carry out otherwise prohibited activities involving endangered wildlife under certain circumstances. Regulations governing permits for endangered wildlife are codified at 50 CFR 17.22, and general Service permitting regulations are codified at 50 CFR part 13. With regard to endangered wildlife, a permit may be issued: for scientific purposes, for enhancing the propagation or survival of the species, or for take incidental to otherwise lawful activities. The statute also contains certain exemptions from the prohibitions, which are found in sections 9 and 10 of the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Protective Regulations Under Section 4(d) of the Act</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>Section 4(d) of the Act contains two sentences. The first sentence states that the Secretary shall issue such regulations as she deems necessary and advisable to provide for the conservation of species listed as threatened species. Conservation is defined in the Act to mean the use of all methods and procedures which are necessary to bring any endangered species or threatened species to the point at which the measures provided pursuant to the Act are no longer necessary. Additionally, the second sentence of section 4(d) of the Act states that the Secretary may by regulation prohibit with respect to any threatened species any act prohibited under section 9(a)(1), in the case of fish or wildlife, or section 9(a)(2), in the case of plants. With these two sentences in section 4(d), Congress delegated broad authority to the Secretary to determine what protections would be necessary and advisable to provide for the conservation of threatened species, and even broader authority to put in place any of the section 9 prohibitions for a given species.</P>
                <P>
                    The courts have recognized the extent of the Secretary's discretion under this standard to develop rules that are appropriate for the conservation of a species. For example, courts have upheld, as a valid exercise of agency authority, rules developed under section 4(d) that included limited prohibitions against takings (see 
                    <E T="03">Alsea Valley Alliance</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Lautenbacher,</E>
                     2007 WL 2344927 (D. Or. 2007); 
                    <E T="03">
                        Washington 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3159"/>
                        Environmental Council
                    </E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">National Marine Fisheries Service,</E>
                     2002 WL 511479 (W.D. Wash. 2002)). Courts have also upheld 4(d) rules that do not address all of the threats a species faces (see 
                    <E T="03">State of Louisiana</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Verity,</E>
                     853 F.2d 322 (5th Cir. 1988)). As noted in the legislative history when the Act was initially enacted, “once an animal is on the threatened list, the Secretary has an almost infinite number of options available to [her] with regard to the permitted activities for those species. [She] may, for example, permit taking, but not importation of such species, or [she] may choose to forbid both taking and importation but allow the transportation of such species” (H.R. Rep. No. 412, 93rd Cong., 1st Sess. 1973).
                </P>
                <P>The provisions of the Florida manatee's proposed protective regulations under section 4(d) of the Act are one of many tools that we would use to promote the conservation of the Florida manatee. The proposed protective regulations would apply only if and when we make final the listing of the Florida manatee as a threatened species. Nothing in 4(d) rules change in any way the recovery planning provisions of section 4(f) of the Act, the consultation requirements under section 7 of the Act, or the ability of the Service to enter into partnerships for the management and protection of the Florida manatee. As mentioned previously in Available Conservation Measures, section 7(a)(2) of the Act requires Federal agencies, including the Service, to ensure that any action they authorize, fund, or carry out is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered species or threatened species or result in the destruction or adverse modification of designated critical habitat of such species. In addition, even before the listing of any species or the designation of its critical habitat is finalized, section 7(a)(4) of the Act requires Federal agencies to confer with the Service on any agency action which is likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any species proposed to be listed under the Act or result in the destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat proposed to be designated for such species. These requirements are the same for a threatened species regardless of what is included in its 4(d) rule.</P>
                <P>Section 7 consultation is required for Federal actions that “may affect” a listed species regardless of whether take caused by the activity is prohibited or excepted by a 4(d) rule (“blanket rule” or species-specific 4(d) rule). A 4(d) rule does not change the process or criteria for informal or formal consultations and does not alter the analytical process used for biological opinions or concurrence letters. For example, as with an endangered species, if a Federal agency determines that an action is “not likely to adversely affect” a threatened species, this will require the Service's written concurrence (50 CFR 402.13(c)). Similarly, if a Federal agency determinates that an action is “likely to adversely affect” a threatened species, the action will require formal consultation with the Service and the formulation of a biological opinion (50 CFR 402.14(a)). Because consultation obligations and processes are unaffected by 4(d) rules, we may consider developing tools to streamline future intra-Service and interagency consultations for actions that result in forms of take that are not prohibited by the 4(d) rule (but that still require consultation). These tools may include consultation guidance, Information for Planning and Consultation (IPaC) effects determination keys, template language for biological opinions, or programmatic consultations.</P>
                <P>Exercising the Secretary's authority under section 4(d) of the Act, we propose to apply the protections for the Florida manatee through our regulations at 50 CFR 17.31(a). In our April 5, 2024, final rule revising those regulations (89 FR 23919 at 23922-23923), we found that applying those regulations as a whole satisfies the requirement in section 4(d) of the Act to issue regulations deemed necessary and advisable to provide for the conservation of the threatened species. We have not identified any ways in which a protective regulation for this threatened subspecies would need to differ from the regulations at 50 CFR 17.31(a) in order to contain the protections that are necessary and advisable to provide for the conservation of the Florida manatee. Therefore, if we finalize this rule as proposed, the regulations at 50 CFR 17.31(a) apply. This means that, except as provided in 50 CFR 17.4 through 17.8, or in a permit issued pursuant to 50 CFR 17.32, all of the provisions of 50 CFR 17.21 for endangered wildlife, except § 17.21(c)(3) and (5), would apply to the Florida manatee, and the provisions of 50 CFR 17.32(b) concerning exceptions for certain entities would also apply to the subspecies.</P>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, protections in Florida's coastal and inland waters will not change with the designation of the Florida manatee subspecies as a threatened species. Manatee protection areas (MPAs) have played a substantial role in manatee conservation and will be needed into the foreseeable future, and the designation of these areas will not be affected by the Florida manatee's listing. In addition, the MMPA prohibits the “take” (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     to harass, hunt, capture, kill, or attempt to harass, hunt, capture, or kill; 16 U.S.C. 1362(13)) of marine mammals. MPAs also play an important role in avoiding take under the MMPA.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Required Determinations</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Clarity of the Rule</HD>
                <P>We are required by Executive Order (E.O.) 12866 and E.O. 12988 and by the Presidential memorandum of June 1, 1998, to write all rules in plain language. This means that each rule we publish must:</P>
                <P>(1) Be logically organized;</P>
                <P>(2) Use the active voice to address readers directly;</P>
                <P>(3) Use clear language rather than jargon;</P>
                <P>(4) Be divided into short sections and sentences; and</P>
                <P>(5) Use lists and tables wherever possible.</P>
                <P>
                    If you feel that we have not met these requirements, send us comments by one of the methods listed in 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    . To better help us revise the rule, your comments should be as specific as possible. For example, you should tell us the numbers of the sections or paragraphs that are unclearly written, which sections or sentences are too long, the sections where you feel lists or tables would be useful, etc.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">National Environmental Policy Act (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.)</HD>
                <P>
                    Regulations adopted pursuant to section 4(a) of the Act are exempt from the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and do not require an environmental analysis under NEPA. We published a notice outlining our reasons for this determination in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on October 25, 1983 (48 FR 49244). This includes listing, delisting, and reclassification rules, as well as critical habitat designations and species-specific protective regulations promulgated concurrently with a decision to list or reclassify a species as threatened. The courts have upheld this position (
                    <E T="03">e.g., Douglas County</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">Babbitt,</E>
                     48 F.3d 1495 (9th Cir. 1995) (critical habitat); 
                    <E T="03">Center for Biological Diversity</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service,</E>
                     2005 WL 2000928 (N.D. Cal. Aug. 19, 2005) (concurrent 4(d) rule)).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Government-to-Government Relationship With Tribes</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the President's memorandum of April 29, 1994 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3160"/>
                    (Government-to-Government Relations With Native American Tribal Governments; 59 FR 22951, May 4, 1994), E.O. 13175 (Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments), the President's memorandum of November 30, 2022 (Uniform Standards for Tribal Consultation; 87 FR 74479, December 5, 2022), and the Department of the Interior's manual at 512 DM 2, we readily acknowledge our responsibility to communicate meaningfully with federally recognized Tribes and Alaska Native Corporations (ANCs) on a government-to-government basis. In accordance with Secretary's Order 3206 of June 5, 1997 (American Indian Tribal Rights, Federal-Tribal Trust Responsibilities, and the Endangered Species Act), we readily acknowledge our responsibilities to work directly with Tribes in developing programs for healthy ecosystems, to acknowledge that Tribal lands are not subject to the same controls as Federal public lands, to remain sensitive to Indian culture, and to make information available to Tribes. We have communicated with the Miccosukee Tribe of Indians and the Seminole Tribe of Florida for the Florida manatee. There are no federally recognized Tribes within the range of the Antillean manatee. We will continue to work with Tribal entities during the development of a final listing rule for the Florida manatee.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">References Cited</HD>
                <P>
                    A complete list of references cited in this proposed rule is available on the internet at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and upon request from the Florida Ecological Services Field Office (Florida manatee) and Caribbean Ecological Services Field Office (Antillean manatee) (see 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authors</HD>
                <P>The primary authors of this proposed rule are the staff members of the Fish and Wildlife Service's Species Assessment Team and the Florida and Caribbean Ecological Services Field Offices.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 50 CFR Part 17</HD>
                    <P>Endangered and threatened species, Exports, Imports, Plants, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation, Wildlife.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Regulation Promulgation</HD>
                <P>Accordingly, we propose to amend part 17, subchapter B of chapter I, title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as set forth below:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 17—ENDANGERED AND THREATENED WILDLIFE AND PLANTS</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 17 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                    <P>16 U.S.C. 1361-1407; 1531-1544; and 4201-4245, unless otherwise noted.</P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>2. In § 17.11, in paragraph (h), amend the List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife under MAMMALS by adding, in alphabetical order, entries for “Manatee, Antillean” and “Manatee, Florida”, and removing the entry for “Manatee, West Indian”, to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 17.11 </SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Endangered and threatened wildlife.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(h) * * *</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,10C,r75">
                        <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Common name</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Scientific name</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Where listed</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Status</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Listing citations and
                                <LI>applicable rules</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="04" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">MAMMALS</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Manatee, Antillean</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Trichechus manatus</E>
                                  
                                <E T="03">manatus</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Wherever found</ENT>
                            <ENT>E</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                [
                                <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                 citation when published as a final rule].
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Manatee, Florida</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                <E T="03">Trichechus manatus latirostris</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>Wherever found</ENT>
                            <ENT>T</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                [
                                <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                                 citation when published as a final rule].
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                </SECTION>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Martha Williams,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00467 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
        <PRORULE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <CFR>50 CFR Parts 622</CFR>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 250107-0004]</DEPDOC>
                <RIN>RIN 0648-BN31</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Fisheries of the Caribbean, Gulf of Mexico, and South Atlantic; Snapper-Grouper Fishery of the South Atlantic; Amendment 59</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Proposed rule; notice of availability of a fishery management plan amendment; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>NMFS proposes regulations to implement Amendment 59 to the Fishery Management Plan (FMP) for the Snapper-Grouper Fishery of the South Atlantic (Snapper-Grouper FMP) (Amendment 59). If approved, Amendment 59 and this proposed rule would, for South Atlantic red snapper: revise the fishing mortality (F) at maximum sustainable yield (MSY) proxy for determining overfishing, acceptable biological catch (ABC), sector annual catch limits (ACLs), fishing year, sector fishing season start dates, recreational fishing season structure, commercial trip limits, and establish an annual experimental studies program. Additionally, Amendment 59 and this proposed rule would establish a snapper-grouper discard reduction season in South Atlantic Federal waters. This action is intended to end and prevent overfishing of red snapper while reducing dead discards and providing additional fishing opportunities.</P>
                </SUM>
                <EFFDATE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Submit comments on this combined proposed rule and notice of availability of an FMP amendment on or before March 17, 2025.</P>
                </EFFDATE>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        A plain language summary of this proposed rule is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/NOAA-NMFS-2024-0142.</E>
                         You may submit comments on this document, identified by [NOAA-NMFS-2024-0142], by either of the following methods:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Electronic Submission:</E>
                         Submit all electronic public comments via the Federal e-Rulemaking Portal. Visit 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3161"/>
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and type [NOAA-NMFS-2024-0142], in the Search box. Click on the “Comment” icon, complete the required fields, and enter or attach your comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Submit written comments to Nikhil Mehta, Southeast Regional Office, NMFS, 263 13th Avenue South, St. Petersburg, FL 33701.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         Comments sent by any other method, to any other address or individual, or received after the end of the comment period, may not be considered by NMFS. All comments received are a part of the public record and will generally be posted for public viewing on 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         without change. All personal identifying information (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         name, address, 
                        <E T="03">etc.</E>
                        ), confidential business information, or otherwise sensitive information submitted voluntarily by the sender will be publicly accessible. NMFS will accept anonymous comments (enter “N/A” in the required fields if you wish to remain anonymous).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Electronic copies of Amendment 59, which includes an environmental impact statement (EIS), regulatory impact review, and a regulatory flexibility analysis, may be obtained from the Southeast Regional Office website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fisheries.noaa.gov/action/secretarial-amendment-fishery-management-plan-snapper-grouper-fishery-south-atlantic-region.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>The unique identification number for the EIS for Amendment 59 is: EISX-006-48-1SE-1726732992.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Nikhil Mehta, telephone: 727-824-5305, or email: 
                        <E T="03">nikhil.mehta@noaa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>NMFS and the South Atlantic Fishery Management Council (Council) manage the South Atlantic snapper-grouper fishery, which includes red snapper, in the South Atlantic exclusive economic zone (EEZ) under the Snapper-Grouper FMP. The Snapper-Grouper FMP was prepared by the Council, approved by the Secretary of Commerce (Secretary), and is implemented by NMFS through regulations at 50 CFR part 622 under the authority of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act (Magnuson-Stevens Act).</P>
                <P>
                    On October 9, 2024, NMFS published a notice of intent to prepare an EIS for Amendment 59 in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     and requested public comment (89 FR 81892).
                </P>
                <P>This document serves as both the proposed rule and the notice of availability for Amendment 59, which is a Secretarial Amendment to the Snapper-Grouper FMP.</P>
                <P>Unless otherwise noted, all weights are described in whole weight.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority for Action</HD>
                <P>The Magnuson-Stevens Act authorizes the Secretary to prepare an amendment necessary for the conservation and management of a fishery managed under the Snapper-Grouper FMP if NMFS determines that the Council has failed to develop and submit such an amendment to the Secretary after a reasonable period of time (section 304(c)(1)(A); 16 U.S.C. 1854(c)(1)(A)). As discussed below, because the Council has failed to take action to develop and submit measures to the Secretary to end and prevent overfishing of South Atlantic red snapper, NMFS, acting for the Secretary, developed Amendment 59 and its implementing regulations in this proposed rule.</P>
                <P>
                    As described in Amendment 59, the proposed actions would revise the F
                    <E T="52">MSY</E>
                     proxy (F
                    <E T="52">proxy</E>
                    ) for determining overfishing of red snapper, revise the red snapper ABC, revise the red snapper total and sector ACLs, establish a snapper-grouper discard reduction season in the South Atlantic EEZ, revise the red snapper commercial trip limit, modify the red snapper commercial and recreational fishing season start dates, revise the red snapper recreational fishing season structure, establish a red snapper annual experimental studies program, and revise the red snapper fishing year.
                </P>
                <P>
                    NMFS is soliciting public comments on Amendment 59 and on this proposed rule. All relevant written comments received by the end of the comment period for this action (see 
                    <E T="02">DATES</E>
                    ), whether specifically directed to the proposed Snapper-Grouper FMP amendment or the implementing regulations, will be considered by NMFS in deciding whether to adopt and implement Amendment 59.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">South Atlantic Red Snapper Background</HD>
                <P>In 2021, a stock assessment for red snapper was completed (Southeast Data, Assessment, and Review 73, [SEDAR 73, 2021]) and indicated that red snapper remains overfished and undergoing overfishing, but the stock was making adequate progress towards rebuilding. In July 2021, NMFS sent a letter to the Council notifying it of the results of the stock assessment and the Magnuson-Stevens Act requirements to end overfishing. NMFS further explained at subsequent Council meetings that although the red snapper stock was rebuilding and the existing rebuilding plan did not need to be revised, the Council needed to take action to end overfishing of red snapper. Subsequent to the stock status notification of July 2021, the Council developed Regulatory Amendment 35 to the Snapper-Grouper FMP (Regulatory Amendment 35) which, if implemented, would have reduced the catch levels of red snapper and specified gear requirements for reducing discards, but would not have ended overfishing. After taking final action to approve Regulatory Amendment 35 at their March 2023 meeting, the Council rescinded its final action to submit Regulatory Amendment 35 to NMFS for implementation at its December 2023 meeting. Since that time, the Council has taken no further action under the Magnuson-Stevens Act to end overfishing of red snapper. As a result, on June 14, 2024, NMFS implemented temporary interim measures for red snapper to reduce overfishing by reducing the catch limits for the 2024 red snapper commercial and recreational fishing seasons, and these measures were effective through December 11, 2024 (89 FR 50350).</P>
                <P>
                    In the past 2 years, NMFS has been sued three times for the continued overfishing of South Atlantic red snapper. On August 22, 2024, a Federal District Court approved a settlement agreement between NMFS and the plaintiffs in one of these lawsuits. The settlement agreement requires NMFS to submit to the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     by June 6, 2025, a final rule implementing a Secretarial Amendment to end red snapper overfishing. However, a Secretarial Amendment would not be required if the Council takes action to end overfishing and NMFS approves and submits a final rule to the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     to implement the Council's action on or before June 6, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    NMFS completed an update of the SEDAR 73 (2021) assessment in December 2024 using data through 2023 (SEDAR 73 Update Assessment [2024]). The updated assessment indicated that the stock is still experiencing overfishing relative to the Council's current fishing mortality threshold, but could continue to rebuild on schedule if fished at a higher fishing mortality rate given above-average recruitment of younger fish in recent years. The stock is still rebuilding, but it is no longer overfished because the red snapper spawning stock biomass is greater than the minimum stock size threshold (MSST). However, because the stock size has not reached the rebuilding target level specified in the rebuilding plan, red snapper will continued to be managed under the rebuilding plan. The rebuilding target level is the reproductive capacity of the red snapper population at 30 percent of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3162"/>
                    spawning potential ratio (SPR) of an unfished population [30
                    <E T="0112">%</E>
                    <E T="52">SPR</E>
                    ]).
                </P>
                <P>Most of the red snapper fishing mortality is attributed to dead discards in the recreational sector. The recreational sector consists of both private recreational anglers and charter vessels and headboats (for-hire). Recreational fishermen discard red snapper both during the directed red snapper recreational open fishing season and during the closed recreational season while fishers are targeting snapper-grouper species that co-occur with red snapper. As described in Amendment 59, approximately 98 percent of all red snapper discard mortalities during 2021-2023 were from the recreational sector (SEDAR 73 Update 2024). The current level of discards is resulting in less younger fish, which are more abundant, surviving to the older ages necessary to sustain the population in the long term, particularly if recruitment decreases back to more historical levels. Additionally, the high level of mortality from discards is reducing and limiting the amount of landed catch.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Management Measures Contained in the Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>For red snapper, this proposed rule would revise the commercial and recreational ACLs, the fishing year, the commercial and recreational sector fishing season start dates, the recreational fishing season structure, and the commercial trip limits. Additionally, the proposed rule would establish a snapper-grouper discard reduction season in the South Atlantic EEZ.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Red Snapper Commercial and Recreational ACLs</HD>
                <P>The Council developed Amendment 43 to the Snapper-Grouper FMP (Amendment 43) in 2018 and specified the current total ACL of 42,510 fish based on landings observed during the limited red snapper season in 2014 (83 FR 35428, July 26, 2018). The total ACL is divided between the sectors, using the current sector allocation ratio for red snapper in the Snapper-Grouper FMP of 28.07 percent commercial and 71.93 percent recreational. This results in the commercial ACL of 124,815 pounds (lb) (56,615 kilograms (kg)) and the recreational ACL of 29,656 fish. The commercial sector ACL is set in pounds of fish because the commercial sector reports landings in weight, and weight is a more accurate representation of commercial landings. The ACL for the recreational sector is specified in numbers of fish because numbers of fish are a more reliable estimate for the recreational sector than specifying the ACL in weight of fish.</P>
                <P>As discussed later in this proposed rule, Amendment 59 would increase the total ACL to 500,000 fish (139,000 fish as landings and 361,000 fish as dead discards). Using the current sector allocation ratio of 28.07 percent commercial and 71.93 percent recreational, the proposed rule would specify a commercial ACL of 346,000 lb (156,943 kg), and a recreational ACL of 85,000 fish. The proposed ACL increases are based on the proposed ABC that resulted from the SEDAR 73 Update Assessment (2024), and based on the new management measures in this proposed rule for the commercial and recreational sectors to reduce dead discards. The proposed ABC is eight percent below the overfishing limit (OFL) to account for scientific uncertainty. The total ACL is reduced by two percent from the ABC. Management measures such as the commercial and recreational fishing seasons, the commercial trip limit, and the discard reduction season are intended to constrain catches to at or below the sector ACLs.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Red Snapper Fishing Year</HD>
                <P>The current fishing year for South Atlantic red snapper is January 1 through December 31 (50 CFR 622.7). The fishing year aligned with the calendar year is consistent with many snapper-grouper species managed by NMFS and the Council. The fishing year applies to both the commercial and recreational sectors. This proposed rule would revise the fishing year to be May 1 through April 30, annually and would also apply to both sectors. This change is intended to improve consistency in when red snapper catches are accounted for given the timing of the implementation of the proposed new management measures, and it would align with the proposed commercial red snapper season opening and the opening of the fishing season for shallow-water grouper on May 1, which are under a spawning season closure from January through April, and are a group of snapper-grouper species commonly caught with red snapper.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Red Snapper Commercial Fishing Season</HD>
                <P>The current commercial season begins on the second Monday in July, unless otherwise specified. The commercial accountability measures (AMs) require the sector to close for the remainder of the fishing year if commercial landings reach or are projected to reach the commercial ACL.</P>
                <P>For the 2025-2026 fishing year, the start of the commercial fishing season would remain the same and begin on the second Monday in July. Beginning with the 2026-2027 fishing year, this proposed rule would change the start of the commercial fishing season to begin annually on May 1. The commercial AM would not change as a result of this proposed rule.</P>
                <P>As previously discussed, the change of the commercial fishing season to open on May 1 would align with the opening of the shallow-water grouper fishing season on May 1. Shallow-water grouper are under a spawning season closure from January through April, and are commonly caught with red snapper. NMFS expects the change in the commercial fishing season would help reduce the discards of red snapper by allowing fishermen to retain red snapper while fishing for co-occurring species. NMFS determined that given the timing of this rulemaking for Amendment 59, changing the commercial start date for the 2025-2026 fishing year is not practicable.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Red Snapper Recreational Fishing Season</HD>
                <P>
                    The current recreational season, which consists of weekends only (Fridays, Saturdays, and Sundays), begins on the second Friday in July, unless otherwise specified. NMFS projects the length of the recreational fishing season and announces the recreational fishing season end date in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . The Regional Administrator (RA) also has the authority to change the red snapper recreational season opening and closing dates based on certain adverse weather conditions. Currently, if the RA determines tropical storm or hurricane conditions exist, or are projected to exist, in the South Atlantic during a fishing season, the RA may modify the opening and closing dates of the fishing season by filing a notification to that effect with the Office of the Federal Register and announcing via NOAA Weather Radio and a Fishery Bulletin any change in the dates of the red snapper fishing season.
                </P>
                <P>
                    For the 2025-2026 fishing year, this proposed rule would change the start of the recreational fishing season to begin on the second Saturday in July, unless otherwise specified. This proposed rule would define a recreational season weekend as being Saturday and Sunday only, and not include Friday. Beginning in the 2026-2027 fishing year, the recreational season would begin on the second Saturday in June, unless otherwise specified, consist of weekends only, and define a 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3163"/>
                    recreational season weekend as being Saturday and Sunday only. During any announced recreational fishing season, the recreational bag limit would remain at one fish per person. Additionally, this proposed rule would revise the current authority of the RA to modify the fishing season dates, including off a specific South Atlantic state (see 50 CFR 622.2 for these state definitions), for adverse weather conditions. The proposed rule would provide the RA greater flexibility to modify the recreational fishing season dates in case of adverse weather that is classified by the National Weather Service (NWS) at least as severe as a Small Craft Advisory. For the South Atlantic, the NWS defines a Small Craft Advisory as sustained winds of 20 to 33 knots (10 to 17 meters/second), and/or forecast seas of 7 feet (2.1 meters) or greater that are expected for more than 2 hours (
                    <E T="03">https://weather.gov/marine/cwd</E>
                    ). Specifically, the RA may modify the opening and closing dates of the recreational fishing season, or reopen the season at a later date, if the RA determines that conditions that result in weather at least as severe as a Small Craft Advisory exist, or are projected to exist, during the announced recreational season in the South Atlantic. In such circumstances, the RA would file a notice to change the recreational season dates with the Office of the Federal Register and announce it via NOAA Weather Radio and a Fishery Bulletin. NMFS has determined that this would help mitigate derby-style (race-to-fish) conditions in such adverse weather and is also being implemented to be consistent with Magnuson-Stevens Act National Standard 10 to promote safety of life at sea to the extent practicable. The current weather flexibility authority of the RA for the commercial sector would not change as a result of this proposed rule since the commercial sector is not confined to only fishing on weekends.
                </P>
                <P>The proposed changes to the recreational fishing season are expected to increase recreational access to red snapper and increase the number of fishing days available for recreational fishers by aligning the fishing days with the days when fishers are not usually at work, and starting the season earlier in the summer when adverse weather conditions from the hurricane season are less likely to occur in the South Atlantic. Additionally, by extending the recreational fishing season over more weekends, there may be a benefit to safety at sea by spreading out fishing effort over a longer period of time and thereby minimizing the impact of any specific period of adverse weather.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Red Snapper Commercial Trip Limit</HD>
                <P>The current commercial trip limit during the commercial red snapper season is 75 lb (34 kg), gutted weight. This proposed rule would increase the commercial trip limit to 150 lb (68 kg), gutted weight, during a commercial fishing season. The proposed increase in the trip limit, in combination with the proposed increase in the commercial ACL, is projected to double the number of available days the commercial sector would be able to fish for red snapper, although as described in Amendment 59, a commercial in-season closure is still expected. The increased trip limit, in conjunction with the proposed increase to the commercial ACL is expected to increase economic efficiency and reduce discards given the longer commercial fishing season and greater amounts of fish that can be retained. The proposed ACLs and existing commercial AMs are expected to prevent the proposed commercial ACL from being exceeded during the fishing year.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Snapper-Grouper Discard Reduction Season</HD>
                <P>
                    Amendment 59 would establish a discard reduction season for the South Atlantic snapper-grouper recreational sector, which is expected to reduce dead discards of red snapper by at least 24 percent from current levels. Coast-wide, recreational dead discards represent the primary source of mortality for red snapper (98 percent of all discard mortality), and catch estimates off Florida alone accounted for 87 percent of the South Atlantic dead discards during 2021-2023. Selection of this area allows the target reduction in dead discards to be achieved, while minimizing the geographic size and temporal scope of the area in South Atlantic waters. In the area described below, from January 1 through the end of February and from December 1 through December 31, annually, (
                    <E T="03">i.e.</E>
                     from December through February) no private recreational or for-hire fisherman would be allowed to fish for, harvest, or possess a species in the South Atlantic snapper-grouper fishery management unit (FMU) from the South Atlantic EEZ that were harvested with hook-and-line fishing gear. As defined at 50 CFR part 600.10, hook-and-line gear means one or more hooks attached to one or more lines (can include a troll). The snapper-grouper FMU, described in 50 CFR part 622, Table 2 to Appendix A, consists of 55 species and many of these species are known to co-occur with red snapper such as black sea bass, red grouper, gag, scamp, greater amberjack, vermilion snapper, and gray triggerfish. Generally, the discard reduction season's closed area is all South Atlantic EEZ waters bounded to the north by the Florida/Georgia state border and to the south by Cape Canaveral, Florida. The specific coordinates of this snapper-grouper discard reduction seasonal closed area would be codified in this proposed rule at 50 CFR 622.183(b)(12)(i), as shown below. Additionally, Action 4 in Chapter 2 of Amendment 59 contains a graphic representation of the discard reduction seasonal closed area as reference (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>
                    NMFS notes that for the snapper-grouper discard reduction season, the prohibition on the possession of snapper-grouper species using hook-and-line fishing gear (including trolling gear) does not apply to a recreational vessel that is in transit and with fishing gear appropriately stowed. Transit means non-stop progression through the area. Appropriately stowed means that terminal gear (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     hook, leader, sinker, flasher, or bait) used with an automatic reel, bandit gear, handline, or rod and reel must be disconnected and stowed separately from such fishing gear. Additionally, a rod and reel must be removed from the rod holder and stowed securely on or below deck.
                </P>
                <P>As described in Amendment 59, the selection of this specific area and time component for the discard reduction season allows the target reduction in dead discards to be achieved, while minimizing the geographic size and temporal scope of the area in the South Atlantic EEZ. The reduction in dead discards and the increase in the red snapper recreational ACL is projected to increase the recreational fishing season length from 1-2 days to 5-9 days.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed discard reduction season would have a biological benefit to the red snapper stock and snapper-grouper species in general by reducing the overall catch of snapper-grouper species in this area. This in turn is expected to reduce discards for red snapper specifically and co-occurring snapper-grouper species generally, and to increase overall ecosystem health. The proposed discard reduction season would contribute to addressing overfishing of red snapper by reducing the number of red snapper discarded dead, consistent with both National Standards 1 (ending overfishing) and 9 (reducing bycatch and bycatch mortality to the extent practicable). Recreational fishermen using hook-and-line fishing gear would be expected to adjust their fishing behavior in response to this 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3164"/>
                    annual seasonal closure. Recreational charter vessels and headboats and individual fishermen would likely respond differently to these new proposed regulations. However, while the recreational sector may need to alter its fishing behavior based on the discard reduction season, NMFS expects that ultimately, there will be gains in the biomass of red snapper and other co-occurring snapper-grouper species as a result of the discard reduction season that could be passed on to fishermen through future benefits such as increased catch limits and fishing opportunities.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Management Measures in Amendment 59 Not Codified by This Proposed Rule</HD>
                <P>
                    In addition to the measures codified within this proposed rule, for red snapper, Amendment 59 would revise the F
                    <E T="52">MSY</E>
                     proxy for determining overfishing, OFL, ABC, total ACL, and establish an annual experimental studies program.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Fishing Mortality at Maximum Sustainable Yield Proxy for Red Snapper Overfishing</HD>
                <P>
                    The current MSY for South Atlantic red snapper equals the yield produced by F
                    <E T="52">MSY</E>
                    , and F
                    <E T="52">30</E>
                    <E T="0112">%</E>
                    <E T="52">SPR</E>
                     is used as the F
                    <E T="52">MSY</E>
                     proxy. If the current F is greater than the F
                    <E T="52">MSY</E>
                     or greater than the F
                    <E T="52">MSY</E>
                     proxy of F
                    <E T="52">30</E>
                    <E T="0112">%</E>
                    <E T="52">SPR</E>
                    , overfishing is occurring. Amendment 59 would revise the overfishing definition as: overfishing occurs when current F is greater than F
                    <E T="52">MSY</E>
                     or a reasonable proxy, based on the best scientific information available. If current F is greater than F
                    <E T="52">MSY</E>
                     or the F
                    <E T="52">MSY</E>
                     proxy, overfishing is occurring. Amendment 59 would define current F as F
                    <E T="52">2021-2023</E>
                    . This proxy is expected to maintain stock recovery and adequate progress through 2028 with the rebuilding plan established in Amendment 17A to the Snapper-Grouper FMP based on recent high recruitment (75 FR 76874, December 9, 2010).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The SEDAR 73 Update Assessment (2024) indicated that the red snapper stock had continued to grow, was no longer overfished, but had not yet rebuilt. Amendment 59 would apply the F from the 2021 through 2023 fishing years (F
                    <E T="52">2021-23</E>
                    ) as the F
                    <E T="52">MSY</E>
                     proxy based on the results of the SEDAR 73 Update Assessment, and the red snapper stock would no longer be classified as undergoing overfishing (F
                    <E T="52">CURRENT</E>
                    /F
                    <E T="52">2021-23</E>
                     = 1.0). The use of F
                    <E T="52">2021-2023</E>
                     is a reasonable F
                    <E T="52">MSY</E>
                     proxy for the South Atlantic red snapper stock until the next assessment is completed in 2028. Projection results from the 2024 SEDAR 73 Update Assessment indicate this level of fishing mortality combined with recent, above-average recruitment will keep the stock on track to rebuild consistent with the red snapper rebuilding plan.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Red Snapper OFL, ABC and Total ACL</HD>
                <P>
                    The current OFL is 56,000 fish and the ABC is 53,000 fish based on SEDAR 41 (2017), which includes both landings and dead discards. As previously discussed, the Council developed Amendment 43 to the Snapper-Grouper FMP in 2018 and specified the current total ACL of 42,510 fish based on landings observed during the limited red snapper season in 2014 (83 FR 35428, July 26, 2018). Amendment 43 also specified the current commercial ACL of 124,815 lb (56,615 kg), and the recreational ACL of 29,656 fish based on a commercial allocation of 28.07 percent and a recreational allocation of 71.93 percent. Amendment 59 would specify an OFL of 551,000 fish (yield at F
                    <E T="52">2021-2023</E>
                    ), and an ABC equal to 92 percent of the OFL (F
                    <E T="52">2021-2023)</E>
                    ) of 509,000 fish (71,000 landed fish and 438,000 dead discards), based on the F
                    <E T="52">2021-2023</E>
                     high recent recruitment scenario from the SEDAR 73 Update Assessment (2024). The proposed ABC includes a buffer of eight percent from the OFL accounting for scientific uncertainty. NMFS expects the measures in Amendment 59 and the proposed rule to reduce dead discards by at least 24 percent resulting in a total ACL of 500,000 fish (139,000 fish as landings and 361,000 fish as dead discards).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Annual Experimental Studies Program</HD>
                <P>
                    Although research on red snapper and other snapper-grouper species does currently occur throughout the South Atlantic, there is not a specific annual experimental studies program in place to reduce red snapper discards and increase fishing opportunities. Requests to conduct experimental studies such as an exempted fishing permit (EFP) issued pursuant to 50 CFR 600.745(b), are evaluated by NMFS on an 
                    <E T="03">ad hoc</E>
                     basis and issued as appropriate. For example, NMFS issued EFPs for red snapper experimental studies to the state of Florida in 2024, the studies are ongoing, and the EFPs are valid until July 31, 2025 (89 FR 23979, April 5, 2024; and 89 FR 23977, April 5, 2024). For state agencies, academics, researchers, and other applicants interested in red snapper specific projects, Amendment 59 would establish an annual process for requesting, evaluating, and approving proposals for innovative projects intended to reduce red snapper discards and increase fishing opportunities. Project proposals would be evaluated based on a fixed schedule to be developed by NMFS. Projects approved by NMFS would authorize up to a total or combined amount of red snapper of 9,000 fish, which represents the difference between the proposed ABC and ACL. NMFS notes that these research opportunities are not necessarily specific to the EFPs but may also apply to other types of research projects.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Rule for Amendment 59</HD>
                <P>This document is the proposed rule for Amendment 59 and serves as the notice of availability for Amendment 59. In accordance with the Magnuson-Stevens Act, NMFS has determined that this notice of availability and proposed rule for Amendment 59 are consistent with the Snapper-Grouper FMP, the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and other applicable law.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Consideration of Public Comments</HD>
                <P>NMFS has prepared Amendment 59 for review, approval, and implementation. Comments on Amendment 59 or on this proposed rule must be received by March 17, 2025. Comments received during the respective comment period, whether specifically directed to Amendment 59 or the proposed rule, will be considered by NMFS and the Secretary in the decision on whether to adopt Amendment 59 and implement the final rule. All relevant comments received by NMFS on the amendment or the proposed rule during the respective comment period will be addressed in the final rule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Classification</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to the Magnuson-Stevens Act, the NMFS Assistant Administrator has determined that this action is consistent with the Snapper-Grouper FMP, the Magnuson-Stevens Act, and other applicable law, subject to further consideration after public comment.</P>
                <P>This proposed rule has been determined to be not significant for purposes of Executive Order 12866. The Magnuson-Stevens Act provides the legal basis for this proposed rule. No duplicative, overlapping, or conflicting Federal rules have been identified. In addition, no new reporting and record-keeping requirements are introduced by this proposed rule. This proposed rule contains no information collection requirements under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995.</P>
                <P>
                    NMFS prepared an initial regulatory flexibility analysis (IRFA) for this proposed rule, as required by section 603 of the Regulatory Flexibility Act 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3165"/>
                    (RFA), 5 U.S.C. 603. The IRFA describes the economic impact this proposed rule, if adopted, would have on small entities. A description of this proposed rule, why it is being considered, and the purposes of this proposed rule are contained in the 
                    <E T="02">SUMMARY</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                     sections of the preamble. A copy of the full analysis is available from NMFS (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ). A summary of the IRFA follows. All monetary estimates in the following analysis are in 2023 dollars.
                </P>
                <P>This proposed rule would: (1) increase the red snapper total ACL from 42,510 fish to 500,000 fish based on the results of an updated stock assessment and by reducing red snapper dead discards by at least 24 percent from the baseline, (2) establish new management measures for the recreational sector to reduce dead discards of red snapper by establishing a discard reduction season for the recreational sector in which from January 1 through the end of February and from December 1 through December 31, no private recreational or for-hire fishermen may fish for, harvest, or possess in or from the South Atlantic exclusive economic zone in an area between 28°00.0′ N and the Florida/Georgia border (30°42.0′ N) any species in the snapper-grouper FMU with hook-and-line fishing gear, (3) increase the commercial trip limit for red snapper from 75 lb (34 kg), gutted weight, to 150 lb (68 kg), gutted weight, (4) modify the commercial fishing season for red snapper from beginning on the second Monday in July each year to beginning on May 1, taking effect in 2026, (5) modify the recreational fishing season for red snapper from beginning on the second Friday in July, consisting of weekends only (Fridays, Saturdays, and Sundays) unless otherwise specified, to begin on the second Saturday in July beginning in 2025 with the season consisting of Saturdays and Sundays only, (6) modify the recreational fishing season for red snapper to begin on the second Saturday in June, beginning in 2026 with the season consisting of Saturdays and Sundays only, and (7) modify the fishing year for South Atlantic red snapper from January 1 through December 31 to May 1 through April 30.</P>
                <P>Actions (1) and (7), above, would apply to all commercial fishing businesses, for-hire fishing businesses, and recreational fishers (anglers) that fish for red snapper in Federal waters of the South Atlantic. Actions (2), (5), and (6) would only apply to for-hire fishing businesses and recreational anglers that fish for any snapper-grouper species in the South Atlantic EEZ. Finally, actions (3) and (4) would only apply to commercial fishing businesses that fish for red snapper in Federal waters of the South Atlantic. None of the proposed changes would directly apply to federally-permitted dealers. Any change in the supply of red snapper available for purchase by dealers as a result of this proposed rule, and associated economic effects, would be an indirect effect of the proposed rule and would therefore fall outside the scope of the RFA.</P>
                <P>A valid South Atlantic snapper-grouper unlimited permit (SG1) or 225-lb Trip-limited permit (SG2) is required in order to legally harvest red snapper commercially in the South Atlantic. At the end of 2020, 535 vessels possessed a valid commercial South Atlantic SG1 permit, and 104 vessels possessed a valid SG2 permit. From 2016 through 2020, an average of 660 commercial vessels possessed one of these permits each year. NMFS does not possess complete ownership data regarding businesses that harvest South Atlantic red snapper. Therefore, it is not currently feasible to accurately determine affiliations between commercial fishing vessels and the businesses that own them. As a result, for purposes of this analysis, it is assumed each commercial fishing vessel is independently owned by a single business, which is expected to result in an overestimate of the actual number of commercial fishing businesses regulated by this proposed regulatory action. Thus, this analysis assumes that 660 commercial fishing businesses would be regulated by this proposed rule.</P>
                <P>This proposed rule would also regulate and directly affect recreational anglers and for-hire fishing businesses. The RFA does not consider recreational anglers to be entities, so they are outside the scope of this analysis (5 U.S.C. 603). Small entities include small businesses, small organizations, and small governmental jurisdictions (5 U.S.C. 601(6) and 601(3)-(5)). Recreational anglers are not businesses, organizations, or governmental jurisdictions.</P>
                <P>A valid charter vessel/headboat South Atlantic snapper grouper vessel permit is required in order for for-hire vessels to legally harvest snapper-grouper species in the South Atlantic. NMFS does not possess complete ownership data regarding vessels that hold charter vessel/headboat South Atlantic snapper-grouper vessel permits, and thus potentially harvest snappers or groupers. Therefore, it is not currently feasible to accurately determine affiliations between these vessels and the businesses that own them. As a result, for purposes of this analysis, it is assumed each for-hire vessel is independently owned by a single business, which is expected to result in an overestimate of the actual number of for-hire fishing businesses regulated by this proposed rule. Further, NMFS also does not currently possess data on the number of for-hire fishing vessels that harvest or target South Atlantic red snapper or snapper and grouper species in general. However, from 2016 through 2020, the average number of for-hire fishing vessels with charter vessel/headboat South Atlantic snapper-grouper vessel permits was 2,059. Because these permits are open access and thus not limited, this analysis assumes that as many as 2,059 for-hire fishing businesses could be directly regulated by this proposed rule.</P>
                <P>On December 29, 2015, NMFS issued a final rule establishing a small business size standard of $11 million in annual gross receipts (revenue) for all businesses primarily engaged in the commercial fishing industry (NAICS code 11411) for RFA compliance purposes only (80 FR 81194, December 29, 2015). In addition to this gross revenue standard, a business primarily involved in commercial fishing is classified as a small business if it is independently owned and operated, and is not dominant in its field of operations (including its affiliates). From 2019 through 2023, the maximum annual gross revenue earned by a single commercial snapper-grouper vessel was approximately $457,418, while the average annual gross revenue for a vessel commercially harvesting red snapper in the South Atlantic was $70,028. Based on this information, all commercial fishing businesses directly regulated by this proposed rule are determined to be small entities for the purpose of this analysis.</P>
                <P>
                    For other industries, the Small Business Administration has established size standards for all major industry sectors in the U.S., including for-hire businesses (NAICS code 487210). A business primarily involved in for-hire fishing is classified as a small business if it is independently owned and operated, is not dominant in its field of operation (including its affiliates), and has annual receipts (revenue) not in excess of $14 million for all its affiliated operations worldwide. The average annual gross revenue for a headboat in the South Atlantic is estimated at $355,255, based on data from 2017. The average annual charter vessel gross revenue is estimated at $146,438, based on data from 2009. Information on the maximum annual gross revenue earned by an individual headboat or charter vessel is not available; however, NMFS 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3166"/>
                    assumes that no such businesses earned in excess of $14 million. Based on this information, all for-hire fishing businesses regulated by this proposed rule are determined to be small businesses for the purpose of this analysis.
                </P>
                <P>The average commercial fishing business that harvests South Atlantic red snapper generates $70,028 per year in gross revenue from commercial fishing. Approximately eight percent of this average annual gross revenue represents economic profits, or about $5,602 per vessel per year. The proposed rule would increase the commercial ACL for South Atlantic red snapper and would be expected to increase aggregate annual commercial landings of South Atlantic red snapper by an average of 221,185 lb (100,327.8 kg), worth an estimated $1,384,897, beginning in the year of implementation. Given that there are approximately 192 commercial fishing businesses harvesting South Atlantic red snapper each year, the average increase in annual gross revenue per business would be approximately $7,213. Economic profits, therefore, would be expected to increase by approximately 10 percent on average per affected commercial fishing business.</P>
                <P>This proposed rule would also modify the commercial trip limit to 150 lb (68 kg), gutted weight, from 75 lb (34 kg), gutted weight. In general, a less restrictive commercial trip limit may increase economic efficiency on commercial fishing trips, which would lead to an increase in profitability for commercial red snapper vessels. However, these effects cannot be quantified with existing data and individual fishing businesses may experience varying effects based on their operating characteristics and profit maximization strategies.</P>
                <P>This proposed rule would also modify the start of the commercial fishing season from beginning on the second Monday in July to beginning May 1 of each year starting in 2026. NMFS does not possess the data to directly determine whether any precise differences in profitability would occur with a commercial fishing season beginning on May 1 of each year. However, some economic benefits are possible. Modifying the start of the commercial fishing season to May 1 would align with opening of the commercial shallow-water grouper season, which could lead to an increase in profitability on commercial red snapper trips that target shallow-water grouper jointly in the season. Increased joint landings of shallow-water grouper species on red snapper trips could increase economic trip efficiency. The proposed May 1 start to the commercial fishing season may also aid in reducing dead discards of red snapper in some areas during the shallow-water grouper season. This could result in faster rebuilding of the red snapper stock, providing future benefits such as increased catch limits.</P>
                <P>
                    For the average South Atlantic charter vessel, annual gross revenue is estimated to be approximately $146,438. For the average South Atlantic headboat, annual gross revenue is estimated to be approximately $355,255. This proposed rule would increase the total ACL for South Atlantic red snapper, as well as the recreational ACL. If current relative sector usage persists, the increase of 55,344 fish to the red snapper recreational ACL would be expected to increase the number of targeted for-hire angler trips. In the long run, factors of production, such as labor and capital, can be used elsewhere in the economy, and so only short-term changes to economic profits are expected. In the South Atlantic, headboat trips take a diverse set of anglers on a single vessel, generally advertising a diverse range of species to be caught. Therefore, economic profits for headboats are estimated separately from charter vessels. The expected increase in directed red snapper recreational angler trips is expected to increase net revenue for charter vessels and headboats by up to $391,276 and $459,060, respectively, per year on average. The estimates will depend on how many additional for-hire trips are booked as a result of the increased red snapper recreational ACL and recreational season length. Given that there are approximately 2,059 charter fishing businesses and 61 headboat businesses that are eligible to recreationally harvest South Atlantic red snapper each year, the average increase in annual net revenue per charter and headboat business is approximately $190 and $7,525, respectively. Because not all permitted charter vessels may be active and many permitted charter vessels fish in areas where red snapper are less abundant (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     southeast Florida), the change in net revenue per active charter vessel is likely underestimated and may be considerably greater than presented here.
                </P>
                <P>This proposed rule would also establish a discard reduction season for all snapper-grouper, which would be expected to decrease directed snapper-grouper recreational angler trips during the period from January 1 through the end of February and from December 1 through December 31 in the South Atlantic EEZ in an area between 28°00.0′ N and the Florida/Georgia border (30°42.0′ N). These estimated decreases in directed snapper-grouper charter vessel and headboat angler trips would result in a decrease in annual net revenue of up to $408,043 and $410,859, respectively. The average decrease in annual net revenue per business from forgone recreational for-hire fishing trips would be approximately $200 for charter vessels and $6,689 for headboats. Again, the change in average net revenue for active charter vessels may be greater than what is shown here for all permitted vessels. When the loss in net revenue from forgone snapper-grouper trips associated with the proposed temporal closure is combined with the increased net revenue from the additional red snapper trips during the open season, the overall change in annual net revenue for charter and headboat businesses would equate to −$19,583 and $51,017 (−$10 or $836 per vessel), respectively.</P>
                <P>
                    This proposed rule would also modify the recreational red snapper fishing season from consisting of weekends only (Fridays, Saturdays, and Sundays) that begins on the second Friday in July (unless otherwise specified), to either begin on the second Saturday in July consisting of Saturdays and Sundays beginning in 2025 or beginning on the second Saturday in June consisting of Saturdays and Sundays beginning in 2026. Estimating the differences in for-hire vessels' profitability from differences in when the recreational red snapper season begins and specific days of the week is not possible. Information, such as whether net revenue per trip varies on a seasonal basis, is not available for use in estimating the differences in profitability with respect to varying recreational season start dates. Information on recreational red snapper directed effort (trips that targeted or caught red snapper) can aid in determining if the profitability may differ between start dates. However, because the recreational red snapper season has been only a few days long or less in recent years and has occurred entirely in July, there is a lot of uncertainty in how demand for for-hire trips would change if previously closed months were open to fishing. Directed red snapper effort was higher in July and August than in June from 2019 through 2023, as expected based on the historical red snapper seasons during that period, although May and June were higher than other periods during the year. Therefore, a June start date may provide similar economic returns 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3167"/>
                    to for-hire fishing businesses as a July start date.
                </P>
                <P>The following discussion describes the significant alternatives to the proposed rule that were not selected by NMFS.</P>
                <P>Three alternatives, including the status quo, were considered for the proposed action to increase and set the total South Atlantic red snapper ACL equal to 500,000 fish and establish a required dead discard reduction amount of at least 24 percent from the baseline, with the commercial and recreational South Atlantic red snapper sector ACLs set equal 346,000 lb (156,943 kg) and 85,000 fish respectively, based on current sector allocations.</P>
                <P>The status quo alternative would have retained the total ACL equal to 42,510 fish, with a commercial ACL equal to 124,815 lb (56,615 kg), and a recreational ACL of 29,656 fish, and with the total ACL based on landings only. The status quo total ACL of 42,510 fish was specified in the final rule for Amendment 43 to the Snapper-Grouper FMP and is based on the landings observed during the limited red snapper season in 2014. Under the status quo ACL, no changes in landings, effort, or direct economic effects would have been expected on any small entities. The status quo ACL is based on outdated data that no longer represents the best scientific information available, and thus was not selected as preferred.</P>
                <P>The second alternative would have reduced dead discards 16 percent from the baseline and used this discard reduction achievement to increase the total ACL to 505,000 fish. The commercial and recreational South Atlantic red snapper sector ACLs would equal 300,000 lb (136,078 kg) and 64,000 fish respectively. The second alternative would have resulted in $319,700 less total ex-vessel revenue for the commercial sector and $210,000 less total net revenue for the for-hire component of the recreational sector compared to the proposed ACLs. This alternative was not selected because, although it requires a smaller discard reduction than the proposed ACLs, it results in smaller direct and indirect social and economic benefits from the harvest of additional red snapper.</P>
                <P>The third alternative would have reduced dead discards 32 percent from the baseline and used this discard reduction achievement to increase the total ACL to 496,000 fish. The commercial and recreational South Atlantic red snapper sector ACLs would equal 390,000 lb (176,901 kg) and 105,000 fish respectively. These sector ACLs, are higher than those in the proposed rule, and would have resulted in $305,800 more total ex-vessel revenue for the commercial sector and $200,079 more total net revenue for the for-hire component of the recreational sector compared to the proposed rule. This alternative was not selected because it would require a larger reduction in dead discards than the proposed rule. A larger discard reduction percentage would necessitate larger, more restrictive area and time closures to reduce dead discards.</P>
                <P>Six alternatives, including the status quo, were considered for the proposed action to establish a discard reduction season for the recreational sector such that during December 1 through the end of February each year, no private recreational or for-hire fishermen may fish for, harvest, or possess in or from the South Atlantic EEZ in an area between 28°00.0′ N and the Florida/Georgia border (30°42.0′ N) any species in the snapper-grouper FMU with hook-and-line fishing gear. The status quo alternative would not have established new management measures for the recreational sector to achieve dead discard targets for red snapper. Therefore, no changes in directed effort or direct economic effects would have been expected on any small entities. This alternative was not selected because a discard reduction of at least 24 percent from the baseline is needed in order to achieve the ACL proposed in this rule.</P>
                <P>The second alternative would have established two discard reduction areas for the recreational sector such that in these areas, no private recreational or for-hire fisherman may fish for, harvest, or possess, a species in the South Atlantic snapper-grouper FMU from the South Atlantic EEZ that were harvested with hook-and-line fishing gear. The first area was to be in the South Atlantic EEZ off Jacksonville, Florida, between 30°18.0′ N and 30°42.0′ N and between the approximate depths of 80 to 150 feet (ft) (24.3 to 45.7 meters (m)). The second area was to be in the South Atlantic EEZ off Cape Canaveral, Florida, between 28°18.0′ N and 28°42.0′ N latitudes and between the approximate depths of 80 to 150 ft (24.3 to 45.7 m). The difference in annual net revenue for for-hire vessels resulting from the area closures of the second alternative compared to the proposed rule is an additional loss of $1.43 million. This alternative was not selected because this alternative would result in less net economic benefits through shorter red snapper seasons and a lower overall red snapper ACL than the proposed rule.</P>
                <P>The third alternative would have established a discard reduction season for the recreational sector. During January 1 through February 14 each year, no private recreational or for-hire fishermen would have been allowed to fish for, harvest, or possess in or from the South Atlantic EEZ in an area between 28°00.0′ N and the Florida/Georgia border (30°42.0′ N) any species in the snapper-grouper FMU with hook-and-line fishing gear. The difference in annual net revenue for for-hire vessels resulting from the area closure of the third alternative compared to the proposed rule would represent a gain of $442,677. This alternative was not selected because this alternative would provide fewer opportunities to harvest red snapper through shorter recreational fishing seasons and a lower overall red snapper recreational ACL than the proposed rule. This alternative was also not selected because it would provide less indirect benefits to co-occurring snapper-grouper species, many of which are overfished, undergoing overfishing, or showing declining trends in abundance.</P>
                <P>The fourth alternative would have established three discard reduction areas for the recreational sector such that in these areas, no private recreational or for-hire fisherman may fish for, harvest, or possess, a species in the South Atlantic snapper-grouper FMU from the South Atlantic EEZ that were harvested with hook-and-line fishing gear. The first area was to be in the South Atlantic EEZ off Jacksonville, Florida between 30°18.0′ N and 30°42.0′ N and between the approximate depths of 80 to 150 ft (24.3 to 45.7 m). The second area was to be in the exclusive economic zone off St. Augustine, Florida between 29°30.0′ N and 29°54.0′ N and between the approximate depths of 80 to 150 ft (24.3 to 45.7 m). The third area was to be in the exclusive economic zone off Cape Canaveral, Florida between 28°18.0′ and 28°42.0′ N and between the approximate depths of 80 to 150 ft (24.3 to 45.7 m). The difference in annual net revenue for for-hire vessels resulting from the area closures of the fourth alternative compared to the proposed rule is an additional loss of $2.07 million. This alternative was not selected because this alternative would result in less net economic benefits than the temporal closure in the proposed rule.</P>
                <P>
                    The fifth alternative would have established four discard reduction areas for the recreational sector such that in these areas, no private recreational or for-hire fisherman may fish for, harvest, or possess, a species in the South Atlantic snapper-grouper FMU from the South Atlantic EEZ that were harvested with hook-and-line fishing gear. The first area was to be in the South Atlantic 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3168"/>
                    EEZ off Jacksonville, Florida between 30°24.0′ N and 30°42.0′ N and between the approximate depths of 70 to 110 ft (21.3 to 33.6 m). The second area was to be in the South Atlantic EEZ off St. Augustine, Florida between 29°42.0′ N and 29°54.0′ N and between the approximate depths of 70 to 110 ft (21.3 to 33.6 m). The third area was to be in the South Atlantic EEZ off Daytona Beach, Florida between 29°06.0′ N and 29°18.0′ N and between the approximate depths of 70 to 110 ft (21.3 to 33.6 m). The fourth area was to be in the South Atlantic EEZ off Cape Canaveral, Florida between 28°24.0′ N and 28°42.0′ N and between the approximate depths of 70 to 110 ft (21.3 to 33.6 m). The difference in annual net revenue for for-hire vessels resulting from the area closures of the fifth alternative compared to the proposed rule is an additional loss of $2.77 million. This alternative was not selected because this alternative would result in less net economic benefits than the temporal closure in the proposed rule.
                </P>
                <P>The sixth alternative would have established both a discard reduction season for the entire South Atlantic EEZ and a separate year-round discard reduction area for the recreational sector. During January 1 through the end of February each year, no private recreational or for-hire fishermen would have been allowed to fish for, harvest, or possess a species in the South Atlantic snapper-grouper FMU from the South Atlantic EEZ. Additionally, in the year-round closed area, no private recreational or for-hire fisherman would have been able to fish for, harvest, or possess a species in the South Atlantic snapper-grouper FMU from the South Atlantic EEZ off Jacksonville, Florida between 30°18.0′ N and 30°42.0′ N and between the approximate depths of 80 to 150 ft (24.3 to 45.7 m) that were harvested with hook-and-line fishing gear. The difference in annual net revenue for for-hire vessels resulting from the area closures of the second alternative compared to the proposed rule is an additional loss of $548,728. This alternative was not selected because this alternative would result in less net economic benefits than the temporal closure in the proposed rule.</P>
                <P>Three alternatives, including the status quo, were considered for the proposed action to increase the commercial trip limit for South Atlantic red snapper to 150 lb (68 kg), gutted weight. The status quo alternative would have retained the current commercial trip limit for South Atlantic red snapper of 75 lb (34 kg), gutted weight. This alternative was not selected because with the increase to the commercial ACL resulting from this proposed rule, it would reduce trip economic efficiency. This alternative was also not selected because the higher proposed trip limit would have been expected to reduce dead discards of red snapper during the commercial red snapper open season, especially for trips that are longer in duration and trips that target co-occurring species with red snapper as well. The second alternative would have modified the commercial trip limit to be 100 lb (45.4 kg), gutted weight. This alternative was not selected for similar reasons as to why the status quo alternative was not selected. The third alternative would have modified the commercial trip limit to be 200 lb (90.7 kg), gutted weight. This alternative was not selected because it would have resulted in a shorter commercial season relative to the proposed rule. A shorter commercial season could lead to increased out-of-season regulatory discards, although overall discards during the season would have been reduced.</P>
                <P>Two alternatives, including the status quo, were considered for the proposed action to modify the start of the commercial fishing season to May 1 beginning in 2026. The status quo alternative would have retained the commercial fishing season to begin each year on the second Monday in July. This alternative was not selected because it would not align with the May 1 opening of shallow-water groupers, which are co-occurring species landed jointly with red snapper. Not aligning the season to start concurrently with the start of shallow-water grouper season reduces economic efficiency for red snapper trips, and increases the likelihood of red snapper discards as red snapper would not be available for commercial retention. This alternative was also not selected because in comparison to the proposed rule, this alternative does not provide the opportunity for as many commercial trips to occur in typically favorable weather conditions prior to the peak of hurricane season and fall/winter cold fronts.</P>
                <P>The second alternative would have modified the start of the commercial fishing season to June 1 beginning in 2026. This alternative was also not selected for similar reasons as to why the status quo alternative was not selected.</P>
                <P>Two alternatives, including the status quo, were considered for the proposed action to modify the recreational fishing season to begin on the second Saturday in July, consisting of Saturdays and Sundays beginning in 2025 or to begin on the second Saturday in June, consisting of Saturdays and Sundays beginning in 2026. The status quo alternative would have retained the recreational season consisting of weekends only (Fridays, Saturdays, and Sundays) beginning on the second Friday in July, unless otherwise specified. This alternative was not selected because it would limit the recreational fishing season to fewer weekends of fishing compared to the proposed rule. Further, the status quo included Friday as a fishing day in the recreational season. This would limit opportunities of recreational anglers who work typical weekday work schedules, increasing overall opportunity costs of recreational red snapper anglers. The second alternative would have modified the recreational fishing season to begin on the second Saturday in June 2026 consisting of weekends only (Fridays, Saturdays, and Sundays). This alternative was also not selected for similar reasons as to why the status quo alternative was not selected.</P>
                <LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 50 CFR Part 622</HD>
                    <P>Commercial, Fisheries, Fishing, Recreational, Red snapper, Snapper-grouper, South Atlantic.</P>
                </LSTSUB>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Samuel D. Rauch III,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Administrator for Regulatory Programs, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <P>For the reasons set out in the preamble, NMFS proposes to amend 50 CFR part 622 as follows:</P>
                <PART>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 622—FISHERIES OF THE CARIBBEAN, GULF OF MEXICO, AND SOUTH ATLANTIC</HD>
                </PART>
                <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 622 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <AUTH>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                    <P>
                         16 U.S.C. 1801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </AUTH>
                <AMDPAR>2. In § 622.7, add paragraph (i) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 622.7</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Fishing years.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        (i) 
                        <E T="03">South Atlantic red snapper</E>
                        —May 1 through April 30.
                    </P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>3. In § 622.183, revise paragraph (b)(5) and add paragraph (b)(12) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 622.183</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Area and seasonal closures.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(b) * * *</P>
                    <P>
                        (5) 
                        <E T="03">Closures of the commercial and recreational sectors for red snapper</E>
                        —(i) The commercial and recreational sectors for red snapper are closed (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         red snapper may not be harvested or possessed, or sold or purchased) in or from the South Atlantic EEZ, except as specified in § 622.193(y). Each year, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3169"/>
                        NMFS will announce the season opening dates in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . For the 2025-2026 fishing year, the commercial season will begin on the second Monday in July, unless otherwise specified. Beginning in the 2026-2027 fishing year, the commercial season will begin annually on May 1, unless otherwise specified. For the 2025-2026 fishing year, the recreational season, which consists of weekends only (Saturdays and Sundays) begins on the second Saturday in July, unless otherwise specified. Beginning in the 2026-2027 fishing year, the recreational season, which consists of weekends only (Saturdays and Sundays) begins on the second Saturday in June, unless otherwise specified. NMFS will project the length of the recreational fishing season and announce the recreational fishing season end date in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . See § 622.193(y), for establishing the end date of the commercial fishing season.
                    </P>
                    <P>(ii) For the commercial sector, if the RA determines tropical storm or hurricane conditions exist, or are projected to exist, in the South Atlantic during a commercial fishing season, the RA may modify the opening and closing dates of the fishing season by filing a notification to that effect with the Office of the Federal Register and announcing via NOAA Weather Radio and a Fishery Bulletin any change in the dates of the red snapper commercial fishing season. For the recreational sector, if the RA determines that weather conditions classified by the National Weather Service at least as severe as a Small Craft Advisory exist, or are projected to exist, in the South Atlantic EEZ, the RA may modify the opening and closing dates of the recreational fishing season, including off a specific South Atlantic state (see 50 CFR 622.2 for these state definitions), by filing a notification to that effect with the Office of the Federal Register and announcing via NOAA Weather Radio and a Fishery Bulletin any change in the dates of the red snapper recreational fishing season.</P>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        (12) 
                        <E T="03">Discard reduction season for the South Atlantic snapper-grouper recreational sector.</E>
                         The discard reduction season described in paragraph (b)(12)(i) of this section, is an area closed to the recreational sector for the harvest of South Atlantic snapper-grouper species by hook-and-line fishing gear (including trolling gear) from January 1 through the end of February and from December 1 through December 31, annually. The recreational bag limit using hook-and-line fishing gear to harvest South Atlantic snapper-grouper within the discard reduction season closed area, as described in paragraph (b)(12)(i) of this section, is zero. During the applicable seasonal closure, no person may harvest or possess any snapper-grouper species in or from the discard reduction season closed area within the South Atlantic EEZ that were recreationally harvested by hook-and-line fishing gear (including trolling gear), except for a recreational vessel that is in transit and with fishing gear appropriately stowed. For the purposes of paragraph (b)(12) of this section, transit means non-stop progression through the area. For the purposes of paragraph (b)(12) of this section, appropriately stowed means that terminal gear (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         hook, leader, sinker, flasher, or bait) used with an automatic reel, bandit gear, handline, or rod and reel must be disconnected and stowed separately from such fishing gear. Additionally, a rod and reel must be removed from the rod holder and stowed securely on or below deck.
                    </P>
                    <P>(i) From January 1 through the end of February and from December 1 through December 31, annually, no person may recreationally harvest or possess South Atlantic snapper-grouper using hook-and-line fishing gear in or from the discard reduction season closed area within the South Atlantic EEZ described by the rhumb lines connecting, in order, the following points:</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,xs120">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 12 to Paragraph (
                            <E T="01">b</E>
                            )(12)(
                            <E T="01">i</E>
                            )
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Point</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">North lat.</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">West long.</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>30°42.0′</ENT>
                            <ENT>State/EEZ boundary.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                            <ENT>30°42.0′</ENT>
                            <ENT>offshore U.S. EEZ boundary.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                            <ENT>28°00.0′</ENT>
                            <ENT>offshore U.S. EEZ boundary.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                            <ENT>28°00.0′</ENT>
                            <ENT>State/EEZ boundary.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>30°42.0′</ENT>
                            <ENT>State/EEZ boundary.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>(ii) [Reserved].</P>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>4. In § 622.191, revise paragraph (a)(9) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 622.191</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Commercial trip limits.</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>(a) * * *</P>
                    <P>
                        (9) 
                        <E T="03">Red snapper.</E>
                         Until the commercial ACL specified in § 622.193(y)(1) is reached, 150 lb (68 kg), gutted weight.
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
                <AMDPAR>5. In § 622.193, revise paragraph (y) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                <SECTION>
                    <SECTNO>§ 622.193</SECTNO>
                    <SUBJECT>Annual catch limits (ACLs) and accountability measures (AMs).</SUBJECT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <P>
                        (y) 
                        <E T="03">Red snapper—</E>
                        (1) 
                        <E T="03">Commercial sector.</E>
                         The commercial ACL for red snapper is 346,000 lb (156,943 kg), round weight. See § 622.183(b)(5) for details on the commercial fishing season. NMFS will monitor commercial landings during the season, and if commercial landings, as estimated by the SRD, reach or are projected to reach the commercial ACL, the AA will file a notification with the Office of the Federal Register to close the commercial sector for red snapper for the remainder of the year. On and after the effective date of the closure notification, all sale or purchase of red snapper is prohibited and harvest or possession of red snapper is limited to the recreational bag and possession limits and only during such time as harvest by the recreational sector is allowed as described in § 622.183(b)(5). This bag and possession limit and the prohibition on sale/purchase apply in the South Atlantic on board a vessel for which a valid Federal commercial or charter vessel/headboat permit for South Atlantic snapper-grouper has been issued, without regard to where such species were harvested or possessed, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         in state or Federal waters.
                    </P>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3170"/>
                    <P>
                        (2) 
                        <E T="03">Recreational sector.</E>
                         The recreational ACL for red snapper is 85,000 fish. The AA will file a notification with the Office of the Federal Register to announce the length of the recreational fishing season for the current fishing year. The length of the recreational fishing season for red snapper serves as the in-season accountability measure. See § 622.183(b)(5) for details on the recreational fishing season. On and after the effective date of the recreational closure notification, the bag and possession limits for red snapper are zero.
                    </P>
                    <STARS/>
                </SECTION>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00552 Filed 1-10-25; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </PRORULE>
    </PRORULES>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>8</NO>
    <DATE>Tuesday, January 14, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Notices</UNITNAME>
    <NOTICES>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="3171"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="F">COMMISSION ON CIVIL RIGHTS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Briefing of the Utah Advisory Committee to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of public briefing.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, that the Utah Advisory Committee (Committee) to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights will hold a virtual, public briefing via Zoom at 12 p.m. mountain time (MT) on Tuesday, February 18, 2025. The purpose of the briefing is to hear testimony on the topic, 
                        <E T="03">The Civil Rights Implications of Disparate Outcomes in Utah's K-12 Education System.</E>
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Tuesday, February 18, 2025, from 12 p.m.-2 p.m. MT.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The briefing will be held via Zoom Webinar.</P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        <E T="03">Registration Link (Audio/Visual): https://www.zoomgov.com/webinar/register/WN_f3bmhDNwRN6l5nUjm2GTCg</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        <E T="03">Join by Phone (Audio Only):</E>
                         (833) 435-1820 USA Toll-Free; Meeting ID: 161 085 2587
                    </FP>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Brooke Peery, Designated Federal Officer, at 
                        <E T="03">bpeery@usccr.gov</E>
                         or (202) 701-1376.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This committee meeting is available to the public through the registration link above. Any interested member of the public may listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. Per the Federal Advisory Committee Act, public minutes of the meeting will include a list of persons who are present at the meeting. If joining via phone, callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Closed captioning will be available by selecting “CC” in the meeting platform. To request additional accommodations, please email 
                    <E T="03">lschiller@usccr.gov</E>
                     at least 10 business days prior to the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Members of the public are entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be emailed to Brooke Peery at 
                    <E T="03">bpeery@usccr.gov.</E>
                     Persons who desire additional information may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at (202) 701-1376.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Coordination Unit, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meeting will be available via the file sharing website, 
                    <E T="03">www.box.com.</E>
                     Persons interested in the work of this Committee are directed to the Commission's website, 
                    <E T="03">www.usccr.gov,</E>
                     or may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at the above phone number.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agenda</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Welcome &amp; Roll Call</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Panelist Presentations &amp; Committee Q&amp;A</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Public Comment</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Closing Remarks</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Adjournment</FP>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David Mussatt,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Supervisory Chief, Regional Programs Unit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00530 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6335-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">COMMISSION ON CIVIL RIGHTS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>United States Commission on Civil Rights.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Commission public business meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Friday, January 17, 2025, 10:00 a.m. EST.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Meeting to take place by telephone and is open to the public via livestream on the Commission's YouTube page: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.youtube.com/user/USCCR/videos.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Joe Kim: 202-376-7700; 
                        <E T="03">publicaffairs@usccr.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the Government in Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b), the Commission on Civil Rights is holding a meeting to discuss the Commission's business for the month of January. This business meeting is open to the public. Computer assisted real-time transcription (CART) will be provided. The web link to access CART (in English) on Friday, January 17, 2025, is 
                    <E T="03">https://www.streamtext.net/player?event=USCCR.</E>
                     Please note that CART is text-only translation that occurs in real time during the meeting and is not an exact transcript.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Meeting Agenda</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Approval of Agenda</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Business Meeting</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Discussion and Vote on FY 2025 Topic for USCCR Briefing Report on Mental Health Juvenile Justice</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Discussion and Vote FY 2026 Topic for USCCR Statutory Enforcement Report on Antisemitism on College Campuses</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Discussion and Vote on Report: The Federal Role in Enforcing Religious Freedoms in Prisons</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Management and Operations</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">• Staff Director's Report</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Adjourn Meeting</FP>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 10, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David Mussatt,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>USCCR Chief Regional Programs Unit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00751 Filed 1-10-25; 11:15 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6335-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">COMMISSION ON CIVIL RIGHTS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Meeting of the Utah Advisory Committee to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of public meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, that the Utah Advisory Committee 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3172"/>
                        (Committee) to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights will hold a public meeting via Zoom at 3 p.m. mountain time (MT) on Thursday, January 23, 2025. The purpose of the meeting is to discuss the Committee's project, “The Civil Rights Implications of Disparate Outcomes in Utah's K-12 Education System”.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Thursday, January 23, 2025, from 3 p.m.-4:30 p.m. MT.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will be held via Zoom Webinar.</P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        <E T="03">Registration Link (Audio/Visual): https://www.zoomgov.com/webinar/register/WN_YVtnI58eQLSqY8z2rQVFyw</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        <E T="03">Join by Phone (Audio Only):</E>
                         (833) 435-1820 USA Toll-Free; Meeting ID: 160 490 5456.
                    </FP>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Brooke Peery, Designated Federal Officer, at 
                        <E T="03">bpeery@usccr.gov</E>
                         or (202) 701-1376
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This committee meeting is available to the public through the registration link above. Any interested member of the public may listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. Per the Federal Advisory Committee Act, public minutes of the meeting will include a list of persons who are present at the meeting. If joining via phone, callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Closed captioning will be available by selecting “CC” in the meeting platform. To request additional accommodations, please email 
                    <E T="03">lschiller@usccr.gov</E>
                     at least 10 business days prior to the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Members of the public are entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be emailed to Brooke Peery at 
                    <E T="03">bpeery@usccr.gov.</E>
                     Persons who desire additional information may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at (202) 701-1376.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Coordination Unit, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meeting will be available via the file sharing website, 
                    <E T="03">www.box.com.</E>
                     Persons interested in the work of this Committee are directed to the Commission's website, 
                    <E T="03">www.usccr.gov,</E>
                     or may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at the above phone number.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agenda</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Welcome &amp; Roll Call</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Discussion: Civil Rights Implications of Disparate Outcomes in Utah's K-12 Education System</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Public Comment</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Next Steps</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Adjournment</FP>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David Mussatt,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Supervisory Chief, Regional Programs Unit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00529 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6335-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">COMMISSION ON CIVIL RIGHTS</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Meeting of the Wyoming Advisory Committee to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of public meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Notice is hereby given, pursuant to the provisions of the rules and regulations of the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights (Commission) and the Federal Advisory Committee Act, that the Wyoming Advisory Committee (Committee) to the U.S. Commission on Civil Rights will hold a virtual business meeting via Zoom at 1 p.m. mountain time (MT) on Monday, January 13, 2025. The purpose of this meeting is to discuss the Committee's project, “Housing Discrimination and Fair Housing Practices in Wyoming”.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Monday, January 13, 2025, from 1 p.m.-2:30 p.m. MT.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The meeting will be held via Zoom Webinar.</P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        <E T="03">Registration Link (Audio/Visual): https://www.zoomgov.com/webinar/register/WN_B016jT9TQh-8zh3QZ64lnQ</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        <E T="03">Join by Phone (Audio Only):</E>
                         (833) 435-1820 USA Toll-Free; Meeting ID: 160 497 1324
                    </FP>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Kayla Fajota, Designated Federal Officer, at 
                        <E T="03">kfajota@usccr.gov</E>
                         or (434) 515-2395.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This committee meeting is available to the public through the registration link above. Any interested member of the public may listen to the meeting. An open comment period will be provided to allow members of the public to make a statement as time allows. Per the Federal Advisory Committee Act, public minutes of the meeting will include a list of persons who are present at the meeting. If joining via phone, callers can expect to incur regular charges for calls they initiate over wireless lines, according to their wireless plan. The Commission will not refund any incurred charges. Callers will incur no charge for calls they initiate over land-line connections to the toll-free telephone number. Closed captioning will be available for individuals who are deaf, hard of hearing, or who have certain cognitive or learning impairments. To request additional accommodations, please email Liliana Schiller, Support Services Specialist, at 
                    <E T="03">lschiller@usccr.gov</E>
                     at least 10 business days prior to the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Members of the public are entitled to submit written comments; the comments must be received in the regional office within 30 days following the meeting. Written comments may be emailed to Kayla Fajota at 
                    <E T="03">kfajota@usccr.gov.</E>
                     Persons who desire additional information may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at (434) 515-2395.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Records generated from this meeting may be inspected and reproduced at the Regional Programs Coordination Unit, as they become available, both before and after the meeting. Records of the meeting will be available via the file sharing website, 
                    <E T="03">www.box.com.</E>
                     Persons interested in the work of this Committee are directed to the Commission's website, 
                    <E T="03">www.usccr.gov,</E>
                     or may contact the Regional Programs Coordination Unit at the above phone number.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agenda</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Welcome &amp; Roll Call</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Committee Discussion: Report</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Next Steps</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Public Comment</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Adjournment</FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Exceptional Circumstance:</E>
                     Pursuant to 41 CFR 102-3.150, the notice for this meeting is given less than 15 calendar days prior to the meeting due to the availability of staff and the Committee.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David Mussatt,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Supervisory Chief, Regional Programs Unit.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00538 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="3173"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[B-2-2025]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Foreign-Trade Zone (FTZ) 49, Notification of Proposed Production Activity; Merck, Sharp &amp; Dohme LLC; (Pharmaceutical Products for Research and Development); Rahway, New Jersey</SUBJECT>
                <P>Merck, Sharp &amp; Dohme LLC submitted a notification of proposed production activity to the FTZ Board (the Board) for its facility in Rahway, New Jersey, within Subzone 49Y. The notification conforming to the requirements of the Board's regulations (15 CFR 400.22) was received on January 3, 2025.</P>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to 15 CFR 400.14(b), FTZ production activity would be limited to the specific foreign-status material(s)/component(s) and specific finished product(s) described in the submitted notification (summarized below) and subsequently authorized by the Board. The benefits that may stem from conducting production activity under FTZ procedures are explained in the background section of the Board's website—accessible via 
                    <E T="03">www.trade.gov/ftz.</E>
                     The proposed finished product(s) and material(s)/component(s) would be added to the production authority that the Board previously approved for the operation, as reflected on the Board's website.
                </P>
                <P>The proposed finished products include MK-0616 macrocycle metabolic disorders drug product, MK-6204 metabolic disorders drug product and MK-5608 immunological disorder macrocyclic peptide drug product (duty-free).</P>
                <P>The proposed foreign-status materials/components include: MK-0616 macrocycle metabolic disorders active pharmaceutical ingredient; MK-6204 metabolic disorders alkaloid active pharmaceutical ingredient; MK-6204 metabolic disorders monoclonal antibody active pharmaceutical ingredient; MK-5608 macrocyclic peptide immunological disorder active pharmaceutical ingredient; sodium caprate; microcrystalline cellulose; and, empty hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (HPMC) capsules (duty rate ranges from duty-free to 6.5%). The request indicates that certain materials/components are subject to duties under section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974 (section 301), depending on the country of origin. The applicable section 301 decisions require subject merchandise to be admitted to FTZs in privileged foreign status (19 CFR 146.41).</P>
                <P>
                    Public comment is invited from interested parties. Submissions shall be addressed to the Board's Executive Secretary and sent to: 
                    <E T="03">ftz@trade.gov.</E>
                     The closing period for their receipt is February 24, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>A copy of the notification will be available for public inspection in the “Online FTZ Information System” section of the Board's website.</P>
                <P>
                    For further information, contact Diane Finver at 
                    <E T="03">Diane.Finver@trade.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Elizabeth Whiteman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00543 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Foreign-Trade Zones Board</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[S-206-2024]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Approval of Subzone Status; True Manufacturing Co., Inc.; O'Fallon and Mexico, Missouri</SUBJECT>
                <P>On November 20, 2024, the Executive Secretary of the Foreign-Trade Zones (FTZ) Board docketed an application submitted by the St. Louis County Port Authority, grantee of FTZ 102, requesting subzone status subject to the existing activation limit of FTZ 102, on behalf of True Manufacturing Co., Inc., in O'Fallon and Mexico, Missouri.</P>
                <P>
                    The application was processed in accordance with the FTZ Act and Regulations, including notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     inviting public comment (89 FR 93274, November 26, 2024). The FTZ staff examiner reviewed the application and determined that it meets the criteria for approval. Pursuant to the authority delegated to the FTZ Board Executive Secretary (15 CFR 400.36(f)), the application to establish Subzone 102G was approved on January 7, 2025, subject to the FTZ Act and the Board's regulations, including section 400.13, and further subject to FTZ 102's 2,000-acre activation limit.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Elizabeth Whiteman,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00546 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[A-201-853; C-201-854]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Standard Steel Welded Wire Mesh From Mexico: Initiation of Circumvention Inquiry on the Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Orders</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In response to requests from Keysteel Corp., Mid-South Wire Company, National Wire LLC, Oklahoma Steel &amp; Wire Co., and Wire Mesh Corp. (collectively, the requesters), the U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) is initiating a country-wide circumvention inquiry to determine whether standard steel welded wire mesh (wire mesh) from Mexico, which is completed in the United States from low-carbon steel wire produced in Mexico, is circumventing the antidumping duty (AD) and countervailing duty (CVD) orders on wire mesh from Mexico.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable January 14, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Benjamin Nathan, AD/CVD Operations, Office II, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-3834.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    On November 5, 2024, pursuant to section 781(a) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), and 19 CFR 351.226(h), the requesters filed circumvention inquiry requests alleging that wire mesh completed in the United States using low-carbon steel wire manufactured in Mexico is circumventing the AD and CVD 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     on wire mesh from Mexico and, accordingly, should be included within the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders.</E>
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On November 29, 2024, Deacero S.A.P.I de C.V., a Mexican producer of wire mesh, and its subsidiary Deacero USA, Inc. (collectively, Deacero), filed comments 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3174"/>
                    opposing the requesters' requests.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On December 6, 2024, the requesters filed rebuttal comments to Deacero's November 29, 2024 comments.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Standard Steel Welded Wire Mesh from Mexico: Antidumping Duty Order,</E>
                         86 FR 43525 (August 9, 2021); 
                        <E T="03">see also Standard Steel Welded Wire Mesh from Mexico: Countervailing Duty Order,</E>
                         86 FR 18940 (April 12, 2021) (collectively, 
                        <E T="03">Orders</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Requesters' Letter, “Petitioners' Request for Circumvention Ruling Pursuant to Section 781(a) of the Act,” dated November 5, 2024 (Circumvention Request).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Deacero's Letter, “Response in Opposition to Request for Anti-Circumvention Ruling,” dated November 29, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Requesters' Letter, “Petitioners' Reply to Deacero's Comments on Petitioners' Request for Circumvention Inquiry,” dated December 6, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On December 4, 2024, we extended the deadline to initiate this circumvention inquiry by 30 days, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.226(d)(1).
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Extension of Circumvention Inquiry Initiation Deadline,” dated December 4, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On December 10, 2024, we issued a questionnaire to the requesters.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Subsequently, on December 12, 2024, the requesters filed their response to our request for information.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Commerce's Letter, “Supplemental Initiation Questionnaire,” dated December 10, 2024 (Request for Information).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Requesters' Letter, “Petitioners' Supplemental Questionnaire Response,” dated December 12, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Scope of the Orders</HD>
                <P>
                    The merchandise covered by the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     is wire mesh from Mexico. For a complete description of the scope of 
                    <E T="03">Orders, see</E>
                     the Circumvention Initiation Checklist.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         For a complete description of the scope of the 
                        <E T="03">Orders, see</E>
                         Checklist, “Standard Steel Welded Wire Mesh from Mexico Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Orders,” dated concurrently with this notice (Circumvention Initiation Checklist).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Merchandise Subject to the Circumvention Inquiry</HD>
                <P>This circumvention inquiry covers low-carbon steel wire produced in Mexico and further processed and completed in the United States into wire mesh from Mexico.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Initiation of Circumvention Inquiry</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 351.226(d) of Commerce's regulations states that if Commerce determines that a request for a circumvention inquiry satisfies the requirements of 19 CFR 351.226(c), then Commerce “will accept the request and initiate a circumvention inquiry.” Section 351.226(c)(1) of Commerce's regulations, in turn, requires that each circumvention inquiry request allege “that the elements necessary for a circumvention determination under section 781 of the Act exist” and be “accompanied by information reasonably available to the interested party supporting these allegations.” The requesters alleged circumvention pursuant to section 781(a) of the Act (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     merchandise completed or assembled in the United States).
                </P>
                <P>Section 781(a)(1) of the Act provides that Commerce may find circumvention of an order when merchandise of the same class or kind subject to the order is completed or assembled in the United States. In conducting a circumvention inquiry, under section 781(a)(1) of the Act, Commerce relies on the following criteria: (A) merchandise sold in the United States is of the same class or kind as any merchandise that is the subject of an AD or CVD order; (B) such merchandise sold in the United States is completed or assembled in the United States from parts or components produced in the foreign country with respect to which such order or finding applies; (C) the process of assembly or completion in the United States is minor or insignificant; and (D) the value of the parts or components referred to in subparagraph (B) is a significant portion of the total value of the merchandise.</P>
                <P>
                    In determining whether the process of assembly or completion in the United States is minor or insignificant under section 781(a)(1)(C) of the Act, section 781(a)(2) of the Act directs Commerce to consider: (A) the level of investment in the United States; (B) the level of research and development in the United States; (C) the nature of the production process in the United States; (D) the extent of production facilities in the United States; and (E) whether the value of the processing performed in the United States represents a small proportion of the value of the merchandise sold in the United States. However, no single factor, by itself, controls Commerce's determination of whether the process of assembly or completion in the United States is minor or insignificant.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Accordingly, it is Commerce's practice to evaluate each of these five factors as they exist in the United States, and to reach an affirmative or negative circumvention determination based on the totality of the circumstances of the particular circumvention inquiry.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Statement of Administrative Action Accompanying the Uruguay Round Agreements Act, H.R. Doc. No. 103-316, Vol. 1 (1994) (SAA), at 893.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Antidumping Duty Order on Hydrofluorocarbon Blends from the People's Republic of China: Preliminary Affirmative Determination of Circumvention with Respect to R-410B, R-407G, and a Certain Custom Blend from the People's Republic of China,”</E>
                         89 FR 25568 (April 11, 2024), and accompanying Preliminary Decision Memorandum, unchanged in 
                        <E T="03">Antidumping Order on Hydrofluorocarbon Blends from the People's Republic of China: Final Affirmative Determination of Circumvention With Respect to R-410B, R-407G, and a Certain Custom Blend from the People's Republic of China,</E>
                         89 FR 56848 (July 11, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In addition, section 781(a)(3) of the Act sets forth additional factors to consider in determining whether to include merchandise assembled or completed in the United States within the scope of an AD or CVD order. Specifically, Commerce shall take into account such factors as: (A) the pattern of trade, including sourcing patterns; (B) whether the manufacturer or exporter of the parts or components is affiliated with the person who assembles or completes the merchandise sold in the United States from the parts or components produced in the foreign country with respect to which the order applies; and (C) whether imports into the United States of the parts or components products in such foreign country have increased after the initiation of the investigation which resulted in the issuance of such order.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Analysis</HD>
                <P>
                    Based on our analysis of the requesters' circumvention request, Commerce determines that the requesters have satisfied the criteria under 19 CFR 351.226(c) to warrant the initiation of circumvention inquiries of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders.</E>
                     For a full discussion of the basis for our decision to initiate these circumvention inquiries, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     the Circumvention Initiation Checklist.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As explained in the Circumvention Initiation Checklist, the information provided by the requesters warrants initiating these circumvention inquiries on a country-wide basis. Commerce has taken this approach in prior circumvention inquiries, where the facts warranted initiation on a country-wide basis.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Circumvention Initiation Checklist.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Certain Corrosion-Resistant Steel Products from the Republic of Korea and Taiwan: Initiation of Anti-Circumvention Inquiries on the Antidumping Duty and Countervailing Duty Orders,</E>
                         83 FR 37785 (August 2, 2018); 
                        <E T="03">Carbon Steel Butt-Weld Pipe Fittings from the People's Republic of China: Initiation of Anti-Circumvention Inquiry on the Antidumping Duty Order,</E>
                         82 FR 40556, 40560 (August 25, 2017) (stating at initiation that Commerce would evaluate the extent to which a country-wide finding applicable to all exports might be warranted); and 
                        <E T="03">Certain Corrosion-Resistant Steel Products from the People's Republic of China: Initiation of Anti-Circumvention Inquiries on the Antidumping Duty and Countervailing Duty Orders,</E>
                         81 FR 79454, 79458 (November 14, 2016) (stating at initiation that Commerce would evaluate the extent to which a country-wide finding applicable to all exports might be warranted).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Consistent with the approach in the prior circumvention inquiries that were initiated on a country-wide basis, Commerce intends to issue a questionnaire to solicit information from producers and exporters in Mexico concerning their shipments to the United States and the origin of any imported low-carbon steel wire being further processed into merchandise subject to the 
                    <E T="03">Order.</E>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3175"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Respondent Selection</HD>
                <P>Commerce intends to base respondent selection on U.S. Customs and Border and Protection (CBP) data. Commerce intends to place CBP data on each record within five days of the publication of the initiation notice. Comments regarding the CBP data and respondent selection should be submitted within seven days after placement of the CBP data on the record of the relevant inquiry.</P>
                <P>Commerce intends to establish a schedule for questionnaire responses after respondent selection. A company's failure to completely respond to Commerce's requests for information may result in the application of partial or total facts available, pursuant to section 776(a) of the Act, which may include adverse inferences, pursuant to section 776(b) of the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Suspension of Liquidation</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.226(l)(1), Commerce will notify U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) of the initiation of this circumvention inquiry and direct CBP to continue the suspension of liquidation of entries of products subject to the circumvention inquiry that were already subject to the suspension of liquidation under the 
                    <E T="03">Orders</E>
                     and to apply the cash deposit rate that would be applicable if the product was determined to be covered by the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Orders.</E>
                     Should Commerce issue preliminary or final circumvention determinations, Commerce will follow the suspension of liquidation rules under 19 CFR 351.226(l)(2)-(4).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 19 CFR 351.226(d) and section 781(a) of the Act, Commerce determines that the requesters' requests for this circumvention inquiry satisfies the requirements of 19 CFR 351.226(c). Accordingly, Commerce is notifying all interested parties of the initiation of this circumvention inquiry to determine whether certain imports of low-carbon steel wire produced in Mexico and further processed and completed in the United States into wire mesh from Mexico, are circumventing the 
                    <E T="03">Orders.</E>
                     In addition, we have included a description of the products that are the subject of this inquiry, and an explanation of the reasons for Commerce's decision to initiate this inquiry as provided above and in the accompanying Circumvention Initiation Checklist.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In accordance with 19 CFR 351.226(e)(2), Commerce intends to issue its preliminary circumvention determination within 150 days from the date of publication of the notice of initiation of a circumvention inquiry in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Circumvention Initiation Checklist.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This notice is published in accordance with section 781(a) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.226(d)(1)(ii).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 6, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Steven Presing,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Assistant Secretary for Policy and Negotiations.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00581 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[C-570-191]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Sol Gel Alumina-Based Ceramic Abrasive Grains From the People's Republic of China: Initiation of Countervailing Duty Investigation</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable January 6, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Suresh Maniam, Office I, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1603.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Petition</HD>
                <P>
                    On November 25, 2024, the U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) received a countervailing duty (CVD) petition concerning imports of sol gel alumina-based ceramic abrasive grains (ceramic abrasive grains) from the People's Republic of China (China) filed in proper form on behalf of Saint-Gobain Ceramics &amp; Plastics, Inc. (the petitioner), a U.S. producer of ceramic abrasive grains.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The CVD Petition was accompanied by an antidumping duty (AD) petition concerning imports of ceramic abrasive grains from China.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Petitioner's Letter, “Petitions for the Imposition of Antidumping and Countervailing Duties,” dated November 25, 2024 (Petition).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Between November 27, 2024, and December 17, 2024, Commerce requested supplemental information pertaining to certain aspects of the Petition in supplemental questionnaires.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Between December 4 and 23, 2024, the petitioner filed timely responses to these requests for additional information.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Commerce's Letters, “Supplemental Questions,” dated November 27, 2024 (General Issues Questionnaire); “Supplemental Questions,” dated November 27, 2024; and “Supplemental Questions,” dated December 17, 2024; 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Memorandum, “Phone Call with Counsel to the Petitioner,” dated December 6, 2024 (December 6, 2024, Memorandum).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Petitioner's Letters, “Antidumping and Countervailing Supplemental Questionnaire Response,” dated December 4, 2024 (General Issues Supplement); “Countervailing Supplemental Questionnaire Response,” dated December 4, 2024; “Antidumping and Countervailing General Issues Supplement Response,” dated December 9, 2024 (Scope Supplement); and “Antidumping and Countervailing Supplemental Questionnaire Response,” dated December 23, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On December 6, 2024, Commerce extended the initiation deadline by 20 days to poll the domestic industry in accordance with sections 702(c)(1)(B) and 702(c)(4)(D) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), because the Petition “{had} not established that the domestic producers or workers accounting for more than 50 percent of total production support the {Petition}. . . .” 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Notice of Extension of the Deadline for Determining the Adequacy of the Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Petitions: Sol Gel Alumina-Based Ceramic Abrasive Grains from the People's Republic of China,</E>
                         89 FR 100465 (December 12, 2024) (
                        <E T="03">Initiation Extension Notice</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In accordance with section 702(b)(1) of the Act, the petitioner alleges that the Government of China (GOC) is providing countervailable subsidies, within the meaning of sections 701 and 771(5) of the Act, to producers of ceramic abrasive grains in China, and that such imports are materially injuring, or threatening material injury to, the domestic industry producing ceramic abrasive grains in the United States. Consistent with section 702(b)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.202(b), for those alleged programs on which we are initiating a CVD investigation, the Petition was accompanied by information reasonably available to the petitioner supporting its allegations.</P>
                <P>
                    Commerce finds that the petitioner filed the Petition on behalf of the domestic industry, because the petitioner is an interested party, as defined in section 771(9)(C) of the Act. Commerce also finds that the petitioner demonstrated sufficient industry support with respect to the initiation of the requested CVD investigation.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section on “Determination of Industry Support for the Petition,” 
                        <E T="03">infra.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Period of Investigation</HD>
                <P>
                    Because the Petition was filed on November 25, 2024, the period of investigation for the CVD investigation is January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.204(b)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="3176"/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Scope of the Investigation</HD>
                <P>
                    The products covered by this investigation are ceramic abrasive grains from China. For a full description of the scope of this investigation, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     the appendix to this notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments on the Scope of the Investigation</HD>
                <P>
                    On November 27, 2024 and December 6, 2024, Commerce requested information and clarification from the petitioner regarding the proposed scope to ensure that the scope language in the Petition is an accurate reflection of the products for which the domestic industry is seeking relief.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On December 4 and 9, 2024, the petitioner provided clarifications and revised the scope.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The description of merchandise covered by this investigation, as described in the appendix to this notice, reflects these clarifications.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         General Issues Questionnaire; 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         December 6, 2024, Memorandum.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         General Issues Supplement at 1-3; 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Scope Supplement at 4-5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As discussed in the 
                    <E T="03">Preamble</E>
                     to Commerce's regulations, we are setting aside a period for interested parties to raise issues regarding product coverage (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     scope).
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Commerce will consider all comments received from interested parties and, if necessary, will consult with interested parties prior to the issuance of the preliminary determination. If scope comments include factual information, all such factual information should be limited to public information.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     To facilitate preparation of its questionnaire, Commerce requests that scope comments be submitted by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time (ET) on January 27, 2025, which is the next business day after 20 calendar days from the signature date of this notice.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Any rebuttal comments, which may include factual information, must be filed by 5:00 p.m. ET on February 6, 2025, which is 10 calendar days from the initial comment deadline.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Antidumping Duties; Countervailing Duties; Final Rule,</E>
                         62 FR 27296, 27323 (May 19, 1997) (
                        <E T="03">Preamble</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) (defining “factual information”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.303(b)(1). The deadline for scope comments falls on January 26, 2025, which is a Sunday. In accordance with 19 CFR 351.303(b)(1), Commerce will accept comments filed by 5:00 p.m. ET on January 27, 2025 (“For both electronically filed and manually filed documents, if the applicable due date falls on a non-business day, the Secretary will accept documents that are filed on the next business day.”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Commerce requests that any factual information that parties consider relevant to the scope of the investigation be submitted during that time period. However, if a party subsequently finds that additional factual information pertaining to the scope of the investigation may be relevant, the party must contact Commerce and request permission to submit the additional information. All scope comments must be filed simultaneously on the records of the concurrent AD and CVD investigations.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Filing Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    All submissions to Commerce must be filed electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping Duty and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS), unless an exception applies.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     An electronically filed document must be received successfully in its entirety by the time and date it is due.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Proceedings: Electronic Filing Procedures; Administrative Protective Order Procedures,</E>
                         76 FR 39263 (July 6, 2011); 
                        <E T="03">see also Enforcement and Compliance; Change of Electronic Filing System Name,</E>
                         79 FR 69046 (November 20, 2014), for details of Commerce's electronic filing requirements, effective August 5, 2011. Information on using ACCESS can be found at 
                        <E T="03">https://access.trade.gov/help.aspx</E>
                         and a handbook can be found at 
                        <E T="03">https://access.trade.gov/help/Handbook_on_Electronic_Filing_Procedures.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Consultations</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to sections 702(b)(4)(A)(i) and (ii) of the Act, Commerce notified the GOC of the receipt of the Petition and provided an opportunity for consultations with respect to the Petition.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The GOC did not request consultations.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Commerce's Letter, “Invitation for Consultation to Discuss the Countervailing Duty Petition,” dated November 26, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         The GOC submitted comments on the CVD petition. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         GOC's Letter, “Comments on Countervailing Duty Petition,” dated December 13, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determination of Industry Support for the Petition</HD>
                <P>Section 702(b)(1) of the Act requires that a petition be filed on behalf of the domestic industry. Section 702(c)(4)(A) of the Act provides that a petition meets this requirement if the domestic producers or workers who support the petition account for: (i) at least 25 percent of the total production of the domestic like product; and (ii) more than 50 percent of the production of the domestic like product produced by that portion of the industry expressing support for, or opposition to, the petition. Moreover, section 702(c)(4)(D) of the Act provides that, if the petition does not establish support of domestic producers or workers accounting for more than 50 percent of the total production of the domestic like product, Commerce shall: (i) poll the industry or rely on other information in order to determine if there is support for the petition, as required by subparagraph (A); or (ii) determine industry support using a statistically valid sampling method to poll the “industry.”</P>
                <P>
                    Section 771(4)(A) of the Act defines the “industry” as the producers as a whole of a domestic like product. Thus, to determine whether a petition has the requisite industry support, the statute directs Commerce to look to producers and workers who produce the domestic like product. The U.S. International Trade Commission (ITC), which is responsible for determining whether “the domestic industry” has been injured, must also determine what constitutes a domestic like product in order to define the industry. While both Commerce and the ITC apply the same statutory definition regarding the domestic like product,
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     they do so for different purposes and pursuant to a separate and distinct authority. In addition, Commerce's determination is subject to limitations of time and information. Although this may result in different definitions of the like product, such differences do not render the decision of either agency contrary to law.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 771(10) of the Act.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See USEC, Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">United States,</E>
                         132 F. Supp. 2d 1, 8 (CIT 2001) (citing 
                        <E T="03">Algoma Steel Corp., Ltd.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">United States,</E>
                         688 F. Supp. 639, 644 (CIT 1988), 
                        <E T="03">aff'd Algoma Steel Corp., Ltd.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">United States,</E>
                         865 F.2d 240 (Fed. Cir. 1989)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Section 771(10) of the Act defines the domestic like product as “a product which is like, or in the absence of like, most similar in characteristics and uses with, the article subject to an investigation under this title.” Thus, the reference point from which the domestic like product analysis begins is “the article subject to an investigation” (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the class or kind of merchandise to be investigated, which normally will be the scope as defined in the petition).
                </P>
                <P>
                    With regard to the domestic like product, the petitioner does not offer a definition of the domestic like product distinct from the scope of the investigation.
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Based on our analysis of the information submitted on the record, we have determined that 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3177"/>
                    ceramic abrasive grains, as defined in the scope, constitute a single domestic like product, and we have analyzed industry support in terms of that domestic like product.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         For a discussion of the domestic like product analysis as applied to this case and information regarding industry support, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         Checklist, “Countervailing Duty Investigation Initiation Checklist: Sol Gel Alumina-Based Ceramic Abrasive Grains from the People's Republic of China,” dated concurrently with, and hereby adopted by, this notice (China CVD Initiation Checklist), at Attachment II, Analysis of Industry Support for the Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Petitions Covering Sol Gel Alumina-Based Ceramic Abrasive Grains from the People's Republic of China (Attachment II). This checklist is on file electronically via ACCESS.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Attachment II of the China CVD Initiation Checklist.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As noted above, on December 6, 2024, Commerce extended the initiation deadline by 20 days to poll the domestic industry in accordance with sections 702(c)(1)(B) and 702(c)(4)(D) of the Act because the Petition “{had} not established that the domestic producers or workers accounting for more than 50 percent of total production support the {Petition}. . . .” 
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On December 10, 2024, we issued polling questionnaires to all known producers identified in the Petition.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We requested that the companies complete the polling questionnaire and certify their responses by the due date specified in the cover letter to the questionnaire. We received timely responses to these questionnaires from domestic producers on December 17, 2024.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     No interested party submitted comments on the polling questionnaire responses.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Initiation Extension Notice.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Commerce's Letters, “Polling Questionnaire,” dated December 10, 2024; 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Memorandum, “Email to Counsel for Domestic Producers,” dated December 23, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Petitioner's Letter, “Polling Questionnaire Response,” dated December 17, 2024; 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         3M Company's Letter, “Industry Polling Questionnaire Response,” dated December 17, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Our analysis of the data we received in the polling questionnaire responses indicates that the domestic producers and workers who support the Petition account for at least 25 percent of the total production of the domestic like product and more than 50 percent of the production of the domestic like product produced by that portion of the industry expressing support for, or opposition to, the Petition.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Accordingly, Commerce determines that the industry support requirements of section 702(c)(4)(A) of the Act have been met and that the Petition was filed on behalf of the domestic industry within the meaning of section 702(b)(1) of the Act.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Attachment II of the China CVD Initiation Checklist.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Injury Test</HD>
                <P>Because China is a “Subsidies Agreement Country” within the meaning of section 701(b) of the Act, section 701(a)(2) of the Act applies to this investigation. Accordingly, the ITC must determine whether imports of the subject merchandise from China materially injure, or threaten material injury to, a U.S. industry.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Allegations and Evidence of Material Injury and Causation</HD>
                <P>
                    The petitioner alleges that imports of the subject merchandise are benefiting from countervailable subsidies and that such imports are causing, or threaten to cause, material injury to the U.S. industry producing the domestic like product. In addition, the petitioner alleges that subject imports from China exceed the negligibility threshold provided for under section 771(24)(A) of the Act.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         For further information regarding negligibility and the injury allegation, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         China CVD Initiation Checklist at Attachment III, Analysis of Allegations and Evidence of Material Injury and Causation for the Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Petitions Covering Sol Gel Alumina-Based Ceramic Abrasive Grains from the People's Republic of China (Attachment III).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The petitioner contends that the industry's injured condition is illustrated by the increasing volume of subject imports; reduced market share; underselling and price depression and/or suppression; lost sales and revenues; and declines in the domestic industry's production, capacity utilization, and financial performance.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We assessed the allegations and supporting evidence regarding material injury, threat of material injury, causation, cumulation, as well as negligibility, and we have determined that these allegations are properly supported by adequate evidence and meet the statutory requirements for initiation.
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Initiation of CVD Investigation</HD>
                <P>Based upon the examination of the Petition and supplemental responses, we find that they meet the requirements of section 702 of the Act. Therefore, we are initiating a CVD investigation to determine whether imports of ceramic abrasive grains benefit from countervailable subsidies conferred by the GOC. In accordance with section 703(b)(1) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(b)(1), unless postponed, we will make our preliminary determination no later than 65 days after the date of this initiation.</P>
                <P>
                    Based on our review of the Petition, we find that there is sufficient information to initiate a CVD investigation on 24 of the 29 programs alleged by the petitioner. For a full discussion of the basis for our decision to initiate on each program, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     the China CVD Initiation Checklist. A public version of the initiation checklist for this investigation is available on ACCESS.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Respondent Selection</HD>
                <P>
                    In the Petition, the petitioner identified 11 companies in China as producers and/or exporters of ceramic abrasive grains.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Commerce intends to follow its standard practice in CVD investigations and calculate company-specific subsidy rates in this investigation. In the event that Commerce determines that the number of companies is large and it cannot individually examine each company based on Commerce's resources, Commerce normally selects mandatory respondents in CVD investigations using U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) entry data for U.S. imports under the appropriate Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) subheading(s) listed in the “Scope of the Investigation” in the appendix.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Petition at Volume I (Exhibit I-5); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         General Issues Supplement at 1 and Exhibit I-5-Revised.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On January 2, 2025 Commerce released CBP data on imports of ceramic abrasive grains from China under administrative protective order (APO) to all parties with access to information protected by APO and indicated that interested parties wishing to comment on CBP data and/or respondent selection must do so within three business days of the publication date of the notice of initiation of this investigation.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Comments must be filed electronically using ACCESS. An electronically filed document must be received successfully in its entirety via ACCESS by 5:00 p.m. ET on the specified deadline. Commerce will not accept rebuttal comments regarding the CBP data or respondent selection.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Release of U.S. Customs and Border Protection Entry Data,” dated January 2, 2025.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Interested parties must submit applications for disclosure under administrative protective order (APO) in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(b). Instructions for filing such applications may be found on Commerce's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.trade.gov/administrative-protective-orders.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Distribution of Copies of the Petition</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with section 702(b)(4)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.202(f), a copy of the public version of the Petition has been provided to the GOC via ACCESS. To the extent practicable, we will attempt to provide a copy of the public version of the Petition to each exporter named in the Petition, as provided under 19 CFR 351.203(c)(2).
                    <PRTPAGE P="3178"/>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">ITC Notification</HD>
                <P>Commerce will notify the ITC of its initiation, as required by section 702(d) of the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Preliminary Determination by the ITC</HD>
                <P>
                    The ITC will preliminarily determine, within 25 days after the date on which the ITC receives notice from Commerce of initiation of the investigation, whether there is a reasonable indication that imports of ceramic abrasive grains from China are materially injuring, or threatening material injury to, a U.S. industry.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     A negative ITC determination will result in the investigation being terminated.
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Otherwise, this CVD investigation will proceed according to statutory and regulatory time limits.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 703(a) of the Act.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Submission of Factual Information</HD>
                <P>
                    Factual information is defined in 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) as: (i) evidence submitted in response to questionnaires; (ii) evidence submitted in support of allegations; (iii) publicly available information to value factors of production under 19 CFR 351.408(c) or to measure the adequacy of remuneration under 19 CFR 351.511(a)(2); (iv) evidence placed on the record by Commerce; and (v) evidence other than factual information described in (i)-(iv). Section 351.301(b) of Commerce's regulations requires any party, when submitting factual information, to specify under which subsection of 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) the information is being submitted 
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and, if the information is submitted to rebut, clarify, or correct factual information already on the record, to provide an explanation identifying the information already on the record that the factual information seeks to rebut, clarify, or correct.
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Time limits for the submission of factual information are addressed in 19 CFR 351.301, which provides specific time limits based on the type of factual information being submitted. Interested parties should review the regulations prior to submitting factual information in this investigation.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.301(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.301(b)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Extensions of Time Limits</HD>
                <P>
                    Parties may request an extension of time limits before the expiration of a time limit established under 19 CFR 351.301, or as otherwise specified by Commerce. In general, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed after the expiration of the time limit established under 19 CFR 351.301, or as otherwise specified by Commerce.
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For submissions that are due from multiple parties simultaneously, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed after 10:00 a.m. ET on the due date. Under certain circumstances, Commerce may elect to specify a different time limit by which extension requests will be considered untimely for submissions which are due from multiple parties simultaneously. In such a case, we will inform parties in a letter or memorandum of the deadline (including a specified time) by which extension requests must be filed to be considered timely. An extension request must be made in a separate, standalone submission; under limited circumstances we will grant untimely filed requests for the extension of time limits, where we determine, based on 19 CFR 351.302, that extraordinary circumstances exist. Parties should review Commerce's regulations concerning the extension of time limits and the 
                    <E T="03">Time Limits Final Rule</E>
                     prior to submitting factual information in this investigation.
                    <SU>35</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.302.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.301; 
                        <E T="03">see also Extension of Time Limits; Final Rule,</E>
                         78 FR 57790 (September 20, 2013) (
                        <E T="03">Time Limits Final Rule</E>
                        ), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/FR-2013-09-20/html/2013-22853.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Certification Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    Any party submitting factual information in an AD or CVD proceeding must certify to the accuracy and completeness of that information.
                    <SU>36</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Parties must use the certification formats provided in 19 CFR 351.303(g).
                    <SU>37</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Commerce intends to reject factual submissions if the submitting party does not comply with the applicable certification requirements.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>36</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 782(b) of the Act.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>37</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Certification of Factual Information to Import Administration During Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Proceedings,</E>
                         78 FR 42678 (July 17, 2013) (
                        <E T="03">Final Rule</E>
                        ); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         frequently asked questions regarding the 
                        <E T="03">Final Rule,</E>
                         available at 
                        <E T="03">https://enforcement.trade.gov/tlei/notices/factual_info_final_rule_FAQ_07172013.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>
                    Interested parties must submit applications for disclosure under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305. Parties wishing to participate in this investigation should ensure that they meet the requirements of 19 CFR 351.103(d) (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     by filing the required letters of appearance). Note that Commerce has amended certain of its requirements pertaining to the service of documents in 19 CFR 351.303(f).
                    <SU>38</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>38</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Administrative Protective Order, Service, and Other Procedures in Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Proceedings,</E>
                         88 FR 67069 (September 29, 2023).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This notice is issued and published pursuant to sections 702 and 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.203(c).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 6, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Steven Presing,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Assistant Secretary for Policy and Negotiations. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <APPENDIX>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Appendix</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Scope of the Investigation</HD>
                    <P>
                        The merchandise covered by this investigation is sol gel alumina-based ceramic abrasive grains which are comprised of minimum 94% aluminum oxide (Al
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        O
                        <E T="52">3</E>
                        ), and may contain other compounds, including, but not limited to, titanium dioxide, silicon dioxide, calcium oxide, sodium superoxide, ferric oxide, magnesium oxide, di-aluminum magnesium tetroxide, lanthanum oxide, lanthanum magnesium oxide, zirconium dioxide, or zirconium carbonate. Grain sizes of sol gel alumina-based ceramic abrasive grains range from 0.85 mm to 0.0395 mm (which corresponds to American National Standards Institute (ANSI) grit sizes from 20 to 280).
                    </P>
                    <P>Shapes include but are not limited to angular, sharp, extra sharp, blocky, splintery, round stripped, triangular or shaped like extruded rods or stars.</P>
                    <P>Ceramic abrasive grains have unique crystalline structures that impart certain advanced properties, such as their extreme hardness and strength ranging between 16 and 22 gigapascals by the Vickers Diamond Indent Method, high melting point (2050 °C), and a single- or multi-phase microstructure, which may contain multiple phases, having crystalline sizes ranging from 0.05 to 30µm. These ceramic abrasive grains include but are not limited to blue, white, white-translucent, or off-white opaque colors.</P>
                    <P>Sol gel alumina-based ceramic abrasive grains are covered by the scope of this investigation, whether or not incorporated into downstream articles, including but not limited to, abrasive papers, grinding wheels, grinding cylinders, and grinding discs. When incorporated into downstream articles, only the sol gel alumina-based ceramic abrasive grains component of such articles is covered by the product scope, and not the downstream product as a whole.</P>
                    <P>
                        The merchandise subject to this investigation is properly classified under subheadings 2818.10.2020 and 2818.10.2090 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). Other merchandise subject to the current scope, including when incorporated into the abovementioned downstream articles, may be classified under HTSUS subheadings 2818.10.1000, 2818.20.0000, 2818.30.0000, 3824.99.1100, 3824.99.1900, 6805.10.0000, 6805.20.0000, 6805.30.1000, 6805.30.5000, 6804.22.1000, 6804.22.4000, 6804.22.6000, 8204.12.0000, 8474.90.0010, 8474.90.0020, 8474.90.0050, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3179"/>
                        and 8474.90.0090. Although the HTSUS statistical reporting numbers are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the merchandise is dispositive.
                    </P>
                </APPENDIX>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00545 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[A-570-190]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Sol Gel Alumina-Based Ceramic Abrasive Grains From the People's Republic of China: Initiation of Less-Than-Fair-Value Investigation</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable January 6, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Thomas Cloyd, Office VII, AD/CVD Operations, Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230; telephone: (202) 482-1246.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The Petition</HD>
                <P>
                    On November 25, 2024, the U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) received an antidumping duty (AD) petition concerning imports of sol gel alumina-based ceramic abrasive grains (ceramic abrasive grains) from the People's Republic of China (China) filed in proper form on behalf of Saint-Gobain Ceramics &amp; Plastics, Inc. (the petitioner), a U.S. producer of ceramic abrasive grains.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The AD Petition was accompanied by a countervailing duty (CVD) petition concerning imports of ceramic abrasive grains from China.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Petitioner's Letter, “Petitions for the Imposition of Antidumping and Countervailing Duties,” dated November 25, 2024 (Petition).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Between November 27 and December 6, 2024, Commerce requested supplemental information pertaining to certain aspects of the Petition in supplemental questionnaires.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Between December 4 and 12, 2024, the petitioner filed timely responses to these requests for additional information.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Commerce's Letters, “Supplemental Questions,” dated November 27, 2024 (General Issues Questionnaire); “Supplemental Questions,” dated November 27, 2024; 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Memorandum, “Phone Call with Counsel to the Petitioner,” dated December 6, 2024 (December 6, 2024, Memorandum).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Petitioner's Letters, “Antidumping and Countervailing Supplemental Questionnaire Response,” dated December 4, 2024 (General Issues Supplement); “Antidumping Supplemental Questionnaire Response,” dated December 4, 2024; “Antidumping and Countervailing General Issues Supplement Response,” dated December 9, 2024 (Scope Supplement); and “Antidumping Supplemental Questionnaire Response,” dated December 12, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On December 6, 2024, Commerce extended the initiation deadline by 20 days to poll the domestic industry in accordance with sections 732(c)(1)(B) and 732(c)(4)(D) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), because the Petition “{had} not established that the domestic producers or workers accounting for more than 50 percent of total production support the {Petition}. . . .” 
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Notice of Extension of the Deadline for Determining the Adequacy of the Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Petitions: Sol Gel Alumina-Based Ceramic Abrasive Grains from the People's Republic of China,</E>
                         89 FR 100465 (December 12, 2024) (
                        <E T="03">Initiation Extension Notice</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In accordance with section 732(b) of the Act, the petitioner alleges that imports of ceramic abrasive grains from China are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at less than fair value (LTFV) within the meaning of section 731 of the Act, and that imports of such products are materially injuring, or threatening material injury to, the ceramic abrasive grains industry in the United States. Consistent with section 732(b)(1) of the Act, the Petition was accompanied by information reasonably available to the petitioner supporting its allegations.</P>
                <P>
                    Commerce finds that the petitioner filed the Petition on behalf of the domestic industry, because the petitioner is an interested party, as defined in section 771(9)(C) of the Act. Commerce also finds that the petitioner demonstrated sufficient industry support for the initiation of the requested LTFV investigation.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section on “Determination of Industry Support for the Petition,” 
                        <E T="03">infra.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Period of Investigation</HD>
                <P>Because the Petition was filed on November 25, 2024, and because China is a non-market economy (NME) country, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.204(b)(1), the period of investigation (POI) for China LTFV investigation is April 1, 2024, through September 30, 2024.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Scope of the Investigation</HD>
                <P>
                    The products covered by this investigation are ceramic abrasive grains from China. For a full description of the scope of this investigation, 
                    <E T="03">see</E>
                     the appendix to this notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments on the Scope of the Investigation</HD>
                <P>
                    On November 27, 2024 and December 6, 2024, Commerce requested information and clarification from the petitioner regarding the proposed scope to ensure that the scope language in the Petition is an accurate reflection of the products for which the domestic industry is seeking relief.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On December 4 and 9, 2024, the petitioner provided clarifications and revised the scope.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The description of merchandise covered by this investigation, as described in the appendix to this notice, reflects these clarifications.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         General Issues Questionnaire; 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         December 6, 2024, Memorandum.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         General Issues Supplement at 1-3; 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Scope Supplement at 4-5.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As discussed in the 
                    <E T="03">Preamble</E>
                     to Commerce's regulations, we are setting aside a period for interested parties to raise issues regarding product coverage (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     scope).
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Commerce will consider all scope comments received from interested parties and, if necessary, will consult with interested parties prior to the issuance of the preliminary determination. If scope comments include factual information,
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     all such factual information should be limited to public information. To facilitate preparation of its questionnaires, Commerce requests that scope comments be submitted by 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time (ET) on January 27, 2025, which is the next business day after 20 calendar days from the signature date of this notice.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Any rebuttal comments, which may include factual information, and should also be limited to public information, must be filed by 5:00 p.m. ET on February 6, 2025, which is 10 calendar days from the initial comment deadline.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Antidumping Duties; Countervailing Duties, Final Rule,</E>
                         62 FR 27296, 27323 (May 19, 1997) (
                        <E T="03">Preamble</E>
                        ); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         19 CFR 351.312.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) (defining “factual information”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.303(b)(1). The deadline for scope comments falls on January 26, 2025, which is a Sunday. In accordance with 19 CFR 351.303(b)(1), Commerce will accept comments filed by 5:00 p.m. ET on January 27, 2025 (“For both electronically filed and manually filed documents, if the applicable due date falls on a non-business day, the Secretary will accept documents that are filed on the next business day.”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Commerce requests that any factual information that parties consider relevant to the scope of this investigation be submitted during that period. However, if a party subsequently finds that additional factual information pertaining to the scope of the investigation may be relevant, the party must contact Commerce and request permission to submit the additional 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3180"/>
                    information. All scope comments must be filed simultaneously on the records of the concurrent LTFV and CVD investigations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Filing Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    All submissions to Commerce must be filed electronically via Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping Duty and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS), unless an exception applies.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     An electronically filed document must be received successfully in its entirety by the time and date it is due.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Proceedings: Electronic Filing Procedures; Administrative Protective Order Procedures,</E>
                         76 FR 39263 (July 6, 2011); 
                        <E T="03">see also Enforcement and Compliance: Change of Electronic Filing System Name,</E>
                         79 FR 69046 (November 20, 2014) for details of Commerce's electronic filing requirements, effective August 5, 2011. Information on using ACCESS can be found at 
                        <E T="03">https://access.trade.gov/help.aspx</E>
                         and a handbook can be found at 
                        <E T="03">https://access.trade.gov/help/Handbook_on_Electronic_Filing_Procedures.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments on Product Characteristics</HD>
                <P>Commerce is providing interested parties an opportunity to comment on the appropriate physical characteristics of ceramic abrasive grains to be reported in response to Commerce's AD questionnaires. This information will be used to identify the key physical characteristics of the subject merchandise in order to report the relevant factors of production (FOP) accurately, as well as to develop appropriate product comparison criteria.</P>
                <P>
                    Interested parties may provide any information or comments that they feel are relevant to the development of an accurate list of physical characteristics. In order to consider the suggestions of interested parties in developing and issuing the AD questionnaires, all product characteristics comments must be filed by 5:00 p.m. ET on January 27, 2025, which is the next business day after 20 calendar days from the signature date of this notice.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Any rebuttal comments must be filed by 5:00 p.m. ET on February 6, 2025, which is 10 calendar days from the initial comment deadline. All comments and submissions to Commerce must be filed electronically using ACCESS, as explained above, on the record of the LTFV investigation.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.303(b)(1). The deadline for comments on product characteristics falls on January 26, 2025, which is a Sunday. In accordance with 19 CFR 351.303(b)(1), Commerce will accept comments filed by 5:00 p.m. ET on January 27, 2025 (“For both electronically filed and manually filed documents, if the applicable due date falls on a non-business day, the Secretary will accept documents that are filed on the next business day.”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Determination of Industry Support for the Petition</HD>
                <P>Section 732(b)(1) of the Act requires that a petition be filed on behalf of the domestic industry. Section 732(c)(4)(A) of the Act provides that a petition meets this requirement if the domestic producers or workers who support the petition account for: (i) at least 25 percent of the total production of the domestic like product; and (ii) more than 50 percent of the production of the domestic like product produced by that portion of the industry expressing support for, or opposition to, the petition. Moreover, section 732(c)(4)(D) of the Act provides that, if the petition does not establish support of domestic producers or workers accounting for more than 50 percent of the total production of the domestic like product, Commerce shall: (i) poll the industry or rely on other information in order to determine if there is support for the petition, as required by subparagraph (A); or (ii) determine industry support using a statistically valid sampling method to poll the “industry.”</P>
                <P>
                    Section 771(4)(A) of the Act defines the “industry” as the producers as a whole of a domestic like product. Thus, to determine whether a petition has the requisite industry support, the statute directs Commerce to look to producers and workers who produce the domestic like product. The U.S. International Trade Commission (ITC), which is responsible for determining whether “the domestic industry” has been injured, must also determine what constitutes a domestic like product in order to define the industry. While both Commerce and the ITC apply the same statutory definition regarding the domestic like product,
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     they do so for different purposes and pursuant to a separate and distinct authority. In addition, Commerce's determination is subject to limitations of time and information. Although this may result in different definitions of the like product, such differences do not render the decision of either agency contrary to law.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 771(10) of the Act.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See USEC, Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">United States,</E>
                         132 F. Supp. 2d 1, 8 (CIT 2001) (citing 
                        <E T="03">Algoma Steel Corp., Ltd.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">United States,</E>
                         688 F. Supp. 639, 644 (CIT 1988), 
                        <E T="03">aff'd Algoma Steel Corp., Ltd.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">United States,</E>
                         865 F.2d 240 (Fed. Cir. 1989)).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Section 771(10) of the Act defines the domestic like product as “a product which is like, or in the absence of like, most similar in characteristics and uses with, the article subject to an investigation under this title.” Thus, the reference point from which the domestic like product analysis begins is “the article subject to an investigation” (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the class or kind of merchandise to be investigated, which normally will be the scope as defined in the petition).
                </P>
                <P>
                    With regard to the domestic like product, the petitioner does not offer a definition of the domestic like product distinct from the scope of the investigation.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Based on our analysis of the information submitted on the record, we have determined that ceramic abrasive grains, as defined in the scope, constitute a single domestic like product, and we have analyzed industry support in terms of that domestic like product.
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         For a discussion of the domestic like product analysis as applied to this case and information regarding industry support, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         Checklist, “Antidumping Duty Investigation Initiation Checklist: Sol Gel Alumina-Based Ceramic Abrasive Grains from the People's Republic of China,” dated concurrently with, and hereby adopted by, this notice (China AD Initiation Checklist), at Attachment II, Analysis of Industry Support for the Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Petitions Covering Sol Gel Alumina-Based Ceramic Abrasive Grains from the People's Republic of China (Attachment II). This checklist is on file electronically via ACCESS.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Attachment II of the China AD Initiation Checklist.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As noted above, on December 6, 2024, Commerce extended the initiation deadline by 20 days to poll the domestic industry in accordance with sections 732(c)(1)(B) and 732(c)(4)(D) of the Act, because the Petition “{had} not established that the domestic producers or workers accounting for more than 50 percent of total production support the {Petition}. . . .” 
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On December 10, 2024, we issued polling questionnaires to all known producers identified in the Petition.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We requested that the companies complete the polling questionnaire and certify their responses by the due date specified in the cover letter to the questionnaire. We received timely responses to these questionnaires from domestic producers on December 17, 2024.
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     No interested party submitted comments on the polling questionnaire responses.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Initiation Extension Notice.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Commerce's Letters, “Polling Questionnaire,” dated December 10, 2024; 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Memorandum, “Email to Counsel for Domestic Producers,” dated December 23, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Petitioner's Letter, “Polling Questionnaire Response,” dated December 17, 2024; 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         3M Company's Letter, “Industry Polling Questionnaire Response,” dated December 17, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Our analysis of the data we received in the polling questionnaire responses indicates that the domestic producers and workers who support the Petition account for at least 25 percent of the total production of the domestic like product and more than 50 percent of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3181"/>
                    production of the domestic like product produced by that portion of the industry expressing support for, or opposition to, the Petition.
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Accordingly, Commerce determines that the industry support requirements of section 732(c)(4)(A) of the Act have been met and that the Petition was filed on behalf of the domestic industry within the meaning of section 732(b)(1) of the Act.
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Attachment II of the China AD Initiation Checklists.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Allegations and Evidence of Material Injury and Causation</HD>
                <P>
                    The petitioner alleges that the U.S. industry producing the domestic like product is being materially injured, or is threatened with material injury, by reason of the imports of the subject merchandise sold at LTFV. In addition, the petitioner alleges that subject imports from China exceed the negligibility threshold provided for under section 771(24)(A) of the Act.
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         For further information regarding negligibility and the injury allegation, 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         China AD Initiation Checklist at Attachment III, Analysis of Allegations and Evidence of Material Injury and Causation for the Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Petitions Covering Sol Gel Alumina-Based Ceramic Abrasive Grains from the People's Republic of China (Attachment III).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The petitioner contends that the industry's injured condition is illustrated by the increasing volume of subject imports; reduced market share; underselling and price depression and/or suppression; lost sales and revenues; declines in the domestic industry's production, capacity utilization, and financial performance; and the magnitude of the alleged dumping margins.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     We assessed the allegations and supporting evidence regarding material injury, threat of material injury, causation, cumulation, as well as negligibility, and we have determined that these allegations are properly supported by adequate evidence and meet the statutory requirements for initiation.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Attachment III of the China AD Initiation Checklist.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Allegations of Sales at LTFV</HD>
                <P>The following is a description of the allegations of sales at LTFV upon which Commerce based its decision to initiate LTFV investigations of imports of ceramic abrasive grains from China. The sources of data for the deductions and adjustments relating to U.S. price and normal value (NV) are discussed in greater detail in the China AD Initiation Checklist.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">U.S. Price</HD>
                <P>
                    The petitioner based export price (EP) on invoice pricing information for ceramic abrasive grains produced in China and sold in the U.S. market during the POI.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The petitioner made certain adjustments to U.S. price to calculate a net ex-factory U.S. price, where applicable.
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         China AD Initiation Checklist.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Normal Value</HD>
                <P>
                    Commerce considers China to be an NME country.
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In accordance with section 771(18)(C)(i) of the Act, any determination that a foreign country is an NME country shall remain in effect until revoked by Commerce. Therefore, we continue to treat China as an NME country for purposes of the initiation of this LTFV investigation. Accordingly, we base NV on FOPs valued in a surrogate market economy country in accordance with section 773(c) of the Act.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Certain Freight Rail Couplers and Parts Thereof from the People's Republic of China: Preliminary Affirmative Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value and Preliminary Affirmative Determination of Critical Circumstances,</E>
                         88 FR 15372 (March 13, 2023), and accompanying Preliminary Decision Memorandum at 5, unchanged in 
                        <E T="03">Certain Freight Rail Couplers and Parts Thereof from the People's Republic of China: Final Affirmative Determination of Sales at Less-Than-Fair Value and Final Affirmative Determination of Critical Circumstances,</E>
                         88 FR 34485 (May 30, 2023).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The petitioner claims that the Republic of Türkiye (Türkiye) is an appropriate surrogate country for China because it is a market economy that is at a level of economic development comparable to that of China and is a significant producer of comparable merchandise.
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The petitioner provided publicly available information from Türkiye to value all FOPs.
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Based on the information provided by the petitioner, we believe it is appropriate to use Türkiye as a surrogate country for China to value all FOPs for initiation purposes.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         China AD Initiation Checklist.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Interested parties will have the opportunity to submit comments regarding surrogate country selection and, pursuant to 19 CFR 351.301(c)(3)(i), will be provided an opportunity to submit publicly available information to value FOPs within 30 days before the scheduled date of the preliminary determination.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Factors of Production</HD>
                <P>
                    Because information regarding the volume of inputs consumed by Chinese producers/exporters was not reasonably available, the petitioner used its own production experience and product-specific consumption rates as a surrogate to value Chinese manufacturers' FOPs.
                    <SU>31</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Additionally, the petitioner calculated factory overhead, selling, general, and administrative expenses, and profit based on the experience of a Turkish producer of comparable merchandise.
                    <SU>32</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>31</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         China AD Initiation Checklist.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>32</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Fair Value Comparisons</HD>
                <P>
                    Based on the data provided by the petitioner, there is reason to believe that imports of ceramic abrasive grains from China are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at LTFV. Based on comparisons of EP to NV in accordance with sections 772 and 773 of the Act, the estimated dumping margins for ceramic abrasive grains from China covered by this initiation range from 81.98 to 88.32 percent.
                    <SU>33</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>33</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Initiation of LTFV Investigation</HD>
                <P>Based upon the examination of the Petition and supplemental responses, we find that they meet the requirements of section 732 of the Act. Therefore, we are initiating a LTFV investigation to determine whether imports of ceramic abrasive grains are being, or are likely to be, sold in the United States at LTFV. In accordance with section 733(b)(1)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.205(b)(1), unless postponed, we will make our preliminary determination no later than 140 days after the date of this initiation.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Respondent Selection</HD>
                <P>
                    In the Petition, the petitioner identified 11 companies in China as producers and/or exporters of ceramic abrasive grains.
                    <SU>34</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Our standard practice for respondent selection in AD investigations involving NME countries is to select respondents based on quantity and value (Q&amp;V) questionnaires in cases where Commerce has determined that the number of companies is large, and it cannot individually examine each company based upon its resources. Therefore, considering the number of producers and/or exporters identified in the Petition, Commerce will solicit Q&amp;V information that can serve as a basis for selecting exporters for individual examination in the event that Commerce determines that the number is large and decides to limit the number of respondents individually examined pursuant to section 777A(c)(2) of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3182"/>
                    Act. Because there are 11 Chinese producers and/or exporters identified in the Petition, Commerce has determined that it will issue Q&amp;V questionnaires to each potential respondent for which there is complete address information on the record.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>34</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Petition at Volume I (page I-16 and Exhibit I-5); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         General Issues Supplement at 1 and Exhibit I-5-Revised.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Commerce will post the Q&amp;V questionnaires along with filing instructions on Commerce's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.trade.gov/ec-adcvd-case-announcements.</E>
                     Producers/exporters of ceramic abrasive grains from China that do not receive Q&amp;V questionnaires may still submit a response to the Q&amp;V questionnaire and can obtain a copy of the Q&amp;V questionnaire from Commerce's website. Responses to the Q&amp;V questionnaire must be submitted by the relevant Chinese producers/exporters no later than 5:00 p.m. ET on January 21, 2025, which is the next business day after two weeks from the signature date of this notice.
                    <SU>35</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     All Q&amp;V questionnaire responses must be filed electronically via ACCESS. An electronically filed document must be received successfully, in its entirety, by ACCESS no later than 5:00 p.m. ET on the deadline noted above.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>35</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.303(b)(1). The deadline for Q&amp;V questionnaire responses falls on January 20, 2025, which is a federal holiday. In accordance with 19 CFR 351.303(b)(1), Commerce will accept Q&amp;V questionnaire responses filed by 5:00 p.m. ET on January 21, 2025 (“For both electronically filed and manually filed documents, if the applicable due date falls on a non-business day, the Secretary will accept documents that are filed on the next business day.”).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Interested parties must submit applications for disclosure under administrative protective order (APO) in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305(b). As stated above, instructions for filing such applications may be found on Commerce's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.trade.gov/administrative-protective-orders.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Separate Rates</HD>
                <P>
                    In order to obtain separate rate status in an NME investigation, exporters and producers must submit a separate rate application. The specific requirements for submitting a separate rate application in an NME investigation are outlined in detail in the application itself, which is available on Commerce's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://access.trade.gov/Resources/nme/nme-sep-rate.html.</E>
                     The separate rate application will be due 30 days after publication of this initiation notice. Exporters and producers must file a timely separate rate application if they want to be considered for individual examination. Exporters and producers who submit a separate rate application and have been selected as mandatory respondents will be eligible for consideration for separate rate status only if they respond to all parts of Commerce's AD questionnaire as mandatory respondents. Commerce requires that companies from China submit a response both to the Q&amp;V questionnaire and to the separate rate application by the respective deadlines to receive consideration for separate rate status. Companies not filing a timely Q&amp;V questionnaire response will not receive separate rate consideration.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Use of Combination Rates</HD>
                <P>Commerce will calculate combination rates for certain respondents that are eligible for a separate rate in an NME investigation. The Separate Rates and Combination Rates Bulletin states:</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>
                        {w}hile continuing the practice of assigning separate rates only to exporters, all separate rates that {Commerce} will now assign in its NME investigation will be specific to those producers that supplied the exporter during the period of investigation. Note, however, that one rate is calculated for the exporter and all of the producers which supplied subject merchandise to it during the period of investigation. This practice applies both to mandatory respondents receiving an individually calculated separate rate as well as the pool of non-investigated firms receiving the {weighted average} of the individually calculated rates. This practice is referred to as the application of “combination rates” because such rates apply to specific combinations of exporters and one or more producers. The cash-deposit rate assigned to an exporter will apply only to merchandise both exported by the firm in question 
                        <E T="03">and</E>
                         produced by a firm that supplied the exporter during the period of investigation.
                        <SU>36</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </FP>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>36</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Enforcement and Compliance's Policy Bulletin No. 05.1, regarding, “Separate-Rates Practice and Application of Combination Rates in Antidumping Investigation involving NME Countries,” (April 5, 2005), at 6 (emphasis added), available on Commerce's website at 
                            <E T="03">https://access.trade.gov/Resources/policy/bull05-1.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Distribution of Copies of the Petition</HD>
                <P>In accordance with section 732(b)(3)(A) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.202(f), copies of the public version of the Petition have been provided to the Government of China via ACCESS. To the extent practicable, we will attempt to provide a copy of the public version of the Petition to each exporter named in the Petition, as provided under 19 CFR 351.203(c)(2).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">ITC Notification</HD>
                <P>Commerce will notify the ITC of our initiation, as required by section 732(d) of the Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Preliminary Determination by the ITC</HD>
                <P>
                    The ITC will preliminarily determine, within 25 days after the date on which the ITC receives notice from Commerce of initiation of the investigation, whether there is a reasonable indication that imports of ceramic abrasive grains from China are materially injuring, or threatening material injury to, a U.S. industry.
                    <SU>37</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     A negative ITC determination will result in the investigation being terminated.
                    <SU>38</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Otherwise, this LTFV investigation will proceed according to statutory and regulatory time limits.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>37</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 733(a) of the Act.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>38</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Submission of Factual Information</HD>
                <P>
                    Factual information is defined in 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) as: (i) evidence submitted in response to questionnaires; (ii) evidence submitted in support of allegations; (iii) publicly available information to value factors under 19 CFR 351.408(c) or to measure the adequacy of remuneration under 19 CFR 351.511(a)(2); (iv) evidence placed on the record by Commerce; and (v) evidence other than factual information described in (i)-(iv). Section 351.301(b) of Commerce's regulations requires any party, when submitting factual information, to specify under which subsection of 19 CFR 351.102(b)(21) the information is being submitted 
                    <SU>39</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and, if the information is submitted to rebut, clarify, or correct factual information already on the record, to provide an explanation identifying the information already on the record that the factual information seeks to rebut, clarify, or correct.
                    <SU>40</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Time limits for the submission of factual information are addressed in 19 CFR 351.301, which provides specific time limits based on the type of factual information being submitted. Interested parties should review the regulations prior to submitting factual information in this investigation.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>39</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.301(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>40</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.301(b)(2).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Extensions of Time Limits</HD>
                <P>
                    Parties may request an extension of time limits before the expiration of a time limit established under 19 CFR 351.301, or as otherwise specified by Commerce. In general, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed after the expiration of the time limit established under 19 CFR 351.301, or as otherwise specified by Commerce.
                    <SU>41</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For submissions that are due from multiple parties simultaneously, an extension request will be considered untimely if it is filed 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3183"/>
                    after 10:00 a.m. ET on the due date. Under certain circumstances, Commerce may elect to specify a different time limit by which extension requests will be considered untimely for submissions which are due from multiple parties simultaneously. In such a case, we will inform parties in a letter or memorandum of the deadline (including a specified time) by which extension requests must be filed to be considered timely. An extension request must be made in a separate, standalone submission; under limited circumstances we will grant untimely filed requests for the extension of time limits, where we determine, based on 19 CFR 351.302, that extraordinary circumstances exist. Parties should review Commerce's regulations concerning the extension of time limits and the 
                    <E T="03">Time Limits Final Rule</E>
                     prior to submitting factual information in this investigation.
                    <SU>42</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>41</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.301; 
                        <E T="03">see also Extension of Time Limits; Final Rule,</E>
                         78 FR 57790 (September 20, 2013) (
                        <E T="03">Time Limits Final Rule</E>
                        ), available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/FR-2013-09-20/html/2013-22853.htm.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>42</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         19 CFR 351.302; 
                        <E T="03">see also, e.g., Time Limits Final Rule.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Certification Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    Any party submitting factual information in an AD or CVD proceeding must certify to the accuracy and completeness of that information.
                    <SU>43</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Parties must use the certification formats provided in 19 CFR 351.303(g).
                    <SU>44</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Commerce intends to reject factual submissions if the submitting party does not comply with the applicable certification requirements.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>43</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 782(b) of the Act.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>44</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Certification of Factual Information to Import Administration During Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Proceedings,</E>
                         78 FR 42678 (July 17, 2013) (
                        <E T="03">Final Rule</E>
                        ). Additional information regarding the 
                        <E T="03">Final Rule</E>
                         is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://access.trade.gov/Resources/filing/index.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>
                    Interested parties must submit applications for disclosure under APO in accordance with 19 CFR 351.305. Parties wishing to participate in this investigation should ensure that they meet the requirements of 19 CFR 351.103(d) (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     by filing the required letter of appearance). Note that Commerce has amended certain of its requirements pertaining to the service of documents in 19 CFR 351.303(f).
                    <SU>45</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>45</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Administrative Protective Order, Service, and Other Procedures in Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Proceedings,</E>
                         88 FR 67069 (September 29, 2023).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>This notice is issued and published pursuant to sections 732(c)(2) and 777(i) of the Act, and 19 CFR 351.203(c).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 6, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Steven Presing,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Assistant Secretary for Policy and Negotiations.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <APPENDIX>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Appendix—Scope of the Investigation</HD>
                    <P>
                        The merchandise covered by this investigation is sol gel alumina-based ceramic abrasive grains which are comprised of minimum 94% aluminum oxide (Al
                        <E T="52">2</E>
                        O
                        <E T="52">3</E>
                        ), and may contain other compounds, including, but not limited to, titanium dioxide, silicon dioxide, calcium oxide, sodium superoxide, ferric oxide, magnesium oxide, di-aluminum magnesium tetroxide, lanthanum oxide, lanthanum magnesium oxide, zirconium dioxide, or zirconium carbonate. Grain sizes of sol gel alumina-based ceramic abrasive grains range from 0.85 mm to 0.0395 mm (which corresponds to American National Standards Institute (ANSI) grit sizes from 20 to 280).
                    </P>
                    <P>Shapes include but are not limited to angular, sharp, extra sharp, blocky, splintery, round stripped, triangular or shaped like extruded rods or stars.</P>
                    <P>Ceramic abrasive grains have unique crystalline structures that impart certain advanced properties, such as their extreme hardness and strength ranging between 16 and 22 gigapascals by the Vickers Diamond Indent Method, high melting point (2050°C), and a single- or multi-phase microstructure, which may contain multiple phases, having crystalline sizes ranging from 0.05 to 30µm. These ceramic abrasive grains include but are not limited to blue, white, white-translucent, or off-white opaque colors.</P>
                    <P>Sol gel alumina-based ceramic abrasive grains are covered by the scope of this investigation, whether or not incorporated into downstream articles, including but not limited to, abrasive papers, grinding wheels, grinding cylinders, and grinding discs. When incorporated into downstream articles, only the sol gel alumina-based ceramic abrasive grains component of such articles is covered by the product scope, and not the downstream product as a whole.</P>
                    <P>The merchandise subject to this investigation is properly classified under subheadings 2818.10.2020 and 2818.10.2090 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS). Other merchandise subject to the current scope, including when incorporated into the abovementioned downstream articles, may be classified under HTSUS subheadings 2818.10.1000, 2818.20.0000, 2818.30.0000, 3824.99.1100, 3824.99.1900, 6805.10.0000, 6805.20.0000, 6805.30.1000, 6805.30.5000, 6804.22.1000, 6804.22.4000, 6804.22.6000, 8204.12.0000, 8474.90.0010, 8474.90.0020, 8474.90.0050, and 8474.90.0090. Although the HTSUS statistical reporting numbers are provided for convenience and customs purposes, the written description of the merchandise is dispositive.</P>
                </APPENDIX>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00544 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>International Trade Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[A-570-992]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Monosodium Glutamate From the People's Republic of China: Notice of Intent To Address Covered Merchandise Referral in Ongoing Circumvention Inquiry</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Enforcement and Compliance, International Trade Administration, Department of Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Department of Commerce (Commerce) has received a covered merchandise referral from U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) in connection with a CBP investigation concerning alleged evasion of the antidumping duty (AD) order on monosodium glutamate (MSG) from the People's Republic of China (China). Commerce intends to address the covered merchandise referral in Commerce's ongoing circumvention inquiry (Malaysia Assembly) to determine whether merchandise described in the referral is subject to the AD order on MSG from China. Interested parties are invited to comment and submit factual information.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable January 14, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Thomas Cloyd at (202) 482-1246 or Jacob Saude at (202) 482-0981, AD/CVD Operations Office VII, Enforcement &amp; Compliance, International Trade Administration, U.S. Department of Commerce, 1401 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20230.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>
                    Section 517(b)(4)(A) of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (the Act), provides a procedure whereby if, during the course of an Enforce and Protect Act (EAPA) investigation, CBP is unable to determine whether the merchandise at issue is covered merchandise within the meaning of section 517(a)(3) of the Act, it shall refer the matter to Commerce to make such a determination. Section 517(a)(3) of the Act defines covered merchandise as merchandise that is subject to an antidumping duty order issued under section 736 of the Act or a countervailing duty order issued under section 706 of the Act. Section 517(b)(4)(B) of the Act states that Commerce, after receiving a covered merchandise referral from CBP, shall determine whether the merchandise is covered merchandise and promptly transmit its determination to CBP. Commerce's regulations at 19 CFR 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3184"/>
                    351.227 establish procedures for covered merchandise referrals that Commerce receives from CBP in connection with an EAPA investigation.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Regulations to Improve Administration and Enforcement of Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Laws,</E>
                         86 FR 52300, 52354-62 (September 20, 2021) (final rule promulgating the regulation establishing procedures for covered merchandise referrals).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On December 18, 2024, Commerce received a covered merchandise referral from CBP regarding CBP EAPA Investigation No. 7950.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which concerns the AD order on MSG from China.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Specifically, CBP explained that an allegation as filed by Ajinomoto Health &amp; Nutrition North America, Inc., alleges that MSG exported by Ajinoriki MSG (Malaysia) Sdn Bhd and imported by CPF Legacy, LLC, doing business as C. Pacific Foods (CPF), Handylee Enterprises (USA) Corp., Jefi Enterprise (USA) Inc., and Highland USA International Inc. (collectively, the importers) is potentially subject to the 
                    <E T="03">Order.</E>
                     CBP informed Commerce that CBP is unable to determine whether certain merchandise constitutes covered merchandise consistent with 19 CFR 351.227(a). Thus, CBP has requested that Commerce issue a determination as to whether MSG produced in Malaysia by Ajinoriki MSG (Malaysia) Sdn Bhd by processing of Chinese-origin glutamic acid into MSG is covered by the 
                    <E T="03">Order.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Letter from CBP, “Scope Determination Referral Request for EAPA Consolidated Investigation 7950 on Antidumping Duty Order A-570-992 on Monosodium Glutamate from the People's Republic of China” dated December 18, 2024. The covered merchandise referral and any supporting documents will be made available on Enforcement and Compliance's Antidumping Duty and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Monosodium Glutamate from the People's Republic of China: Amended Final Determination of Sales at Less Than Fair Value,</E>
                         79 FR 70505 (November 26, 2014) (
                        <E T="03">Order</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification of Intent To Address Covered Merchandise Referral in Ongoing Circumvention Inquiry</HD>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.227(b), within 20 days after receiving a covered merchandise referral from CBP, Commerce will either initiate a covered merchandise inquiry or decide to address the covered merchandise referral in an ongoing segment of the proceeding. Commerce is currently conducting a circumvention inquiry to determine whether MSG finished in Malaysia using glutamic acid produced in China and subsequently exported from Malaysia to the United States should be included in the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Order.</E>
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As the covered merchandise referral requests a determination on merchandise currently under consideration, in accordance with 19 CFR 351.227(b)(2), the covered merchandise referral can be addressed as part of the ongoing circumvention inquiry on MSG finished in Malaysia from Chinese inputs. Therefore, Commerce is hereby notifying interested parties of its intent to address CBP's covered merchandise referral in the ongoing circumvention inquiry segment of this proceeding, to determine whether the merchandise subject to the referral is covered merchandise within the meaning of section 517(a)(3) of the Act. We intend to notify CBP as to whether the merchandise subject to the referral is covered merchandise within the meaning of section 517(a)(3) of the Act based on our final determination in the ongoing circumvention inquiry segment of this proceeding.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Monosodium Glutamate from the People's Republic of China: Initiation of Circumvention Inquiry on the Antidumping Duty Order,</E>
                         89 FR 42425 (May 15, 2024) (
                        <E T="03">Initiation Notice</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Commerce intends to provide interested parties with the opportunity to participate in the circumvention inquiry segment of the proceeding, including through the submission of comments and, as appropriate, factual information, and verification. The current deadline for Commerce to issue a preliminary circumvention determination in the ongoing circumvention inquiry is January 17, 2025.</P>
                <P>
                    Parties are hereby notified that this may be the only notice that Commerce publishes in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     concerning this covered merchandise referral. Except as indicated below, interested parties that wish to participate in the ongoing circumvention inquiry must submit their entry of appearance as discussed below. Further, any representative of an interested party desiring access to business proprietary information in this segment of the proceeding must file an application for access to business proprietary information under administrative protective order (APO), as discussed below.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Scope of the Order</HD>
                <P>
                    The product covered by this 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     is monosodium glutamate (MSG), whether or not blended or in solution with other products. Specifically, MSG that has been blended or is in solution with other product(s) is included in this scope when the resulting mix contains 15 percent or more of MSG by dry weight. Products with which MSG may be blended include, but are not limited to, salts, sugars, starches, maltodextrins, and various seasonings. Further, MSG is included in this 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     regardless of physical form (including, but not limited to, in monohydrate or anhydrous form, or as substrates, solutions, dry powders of any particle size, or unfinished forms such as MSG slurry), end-use application, or packaging.
                </P>
                <P>MSG in monohydrate form has a molecular formula of C5H8NO4Na—H2O, a Chemical Abstract Service (CAS) registry number of 6106-04-3, and a Unique Ingredient Identifier (UNII) number of W81N5U6R6U. MSG in anhydrous form has a molecular formula of C5H8NO4Na, a CAS registry number of l42-47-2, and a UNII number of C3C196L9FG.</P>
                <P>
                    Merchandise covered by the scope of this 
                    <E T="03">Order</E>
                     is currently classified in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) at subheading 2922.42.10.00. Merchandise subject to the order may also enter under HTSUS subheadings 2922.42.50.00, 2103.90.72.00, 2103.90.74.00, 2103.90.78.00, 2103.90.80.00, and 2103.90.90.91. The tariff classifications, CAS registry numbers, and UNII numbers are provided for convenience and customs purposes; however, the written description of the scope is dispositive.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Merchandise Described in Covered Merchandise Referral To Be Addressed in Ongoing Circumvention Inquiry</HD>
                <P>The ongoing circumvention inquiry addresses whether the scope should include MSG finished in Malaysia using glutamic acid produced in China and subsequently exported from Malaysia to the United States. Pursuant to 19 CFR 351.226(m)(1), Commerce will consider, based on the available record evidence, whether the final determination in the ongoing circumvention inquiry as it relates to the products described in the referral should be applied on a (i) producer-specific, exporter-specific, importer-specific basis, or some combination thereof; or (ii) on a country-wide basis, regardless of the producer, exporter, or importer, to all products from the same country with the same relevant physical characteristics as the product at issue.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Filing Requirements</HD>
                <P>
                    All submissions to Commerce must be filed electronically via Enforcement and Compliance (E&amp;C)'s Antidumping Duty and Countervailing Duty Centralized Electronic Service System (ACCESS), 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3185"/>
                    unless an exception applies.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     An electronically filed document must be received successfully in its entirety by the applicable deadline. Note that Commerce has modified certain of its requirements for serving documents containing business proprietary information until further notice.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Each submission must be placed on the record of the segment of the proceeding.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Proceedings: Electronic Filing Procedures; Administrative Protective Order Procedures,</E>
                         76 FR 39263 (July 6, 2011), as amended in 
                        <E T="03">Enforcement and Compliance; Change of Electronic Filing System Name,</E>
                         79 FR 69046 (November 20, 2014) for details of Commerce's electronic filing requirements, effective August 5, 2011. Information on help using ACCESS can be found at 
                        <E T="03">https://access.trade.gov/help.aspx</E>
                         and a handbook can be found at 
                        <E T="03">https://access.trade.gov/help/Handbook%20on%20Electronic%20Filing%20Procedures.pdf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See Temporary Rule Modifying AD/CVD Service Requirements Due to COVID-19,</E>
                         85 FR 17006 (March 26, 2020); 
                        <E T="03">see also Temporary Rule Modifying AD/CVD Service Requirements Due to COVID19; Extension of Effective Period,</E>
                         85 FR 41363 (July 10, 2020).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Suspension of Liquidation</HD>
                <P>
                    Commerce previously notified CBP of the initiation of the ongoing circumvention inquiry in accordance with 19 CFR 351.226(l)(1), and directed CBP to continue to suspend liquidation of entries of products subject to the circumvention inquiry that were already subject to the suspension of liquidation, and to collect the cash deposit for estimated antidumping duties that would be applicable if the product were determined to be covered by the scope of the 
                    <E T="03">Order.</E>
                     CBP should continue to suspend liquidation of entries already subject to the suspension of liquidation in accordance with Commerce's previous instruction.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notification to Interested Parties</HD>
                <P>Interested parties that wish to participate in this segment of the proceeding and be added to the public service list(s) for this segment of the proceeding must file an entry of appearance in accordance with 19 CFR 351.103(d)(1), with one exception: the relevant parties to CBP's EAPA investigation publicly identified by CBP in the covered merchandise referral referenced above are not required to submit an entry of appearance, and will be added to the public service list for this segment of the proceeding by Commerce.</P>
                <P>
                    Commerce placed an APO on the record on May 10, 2024.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Commerce intends to place the business proprietary versions of the documents (if any) contained in the covered merchandise referral on the record of this proceeding in ACCESS.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Memorandum, “Request for APO Segment,” dated May 8, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Representatives of interested parties must submit applications for disclosure under the APO in accordance with the procedures outlined in Commerce's regulations at 19 CFR 351.305. Those procedures apply to this segment of the proceeding, with one exception: APO applicants representing the parties that have been identified by CBP as an importer in the covered merchandise referral (referenced above) are exempt from the additional filing requirements for importers pursuant to 19 CFR 351.305(d).</P>
                <P>This notice is issued and published pursuant to section 517(b)(4) of the Act and 19 CFR 351.227(b).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Scot Fullerton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Assistant Secretary for Antidumping and Countervailing Duty Operations.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00560 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-DS-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[RTID 0648-XE567]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Whaling Provisions; Aboriginal Subsistence Whaling Quotas</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS), National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), Commerce.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; notification of quota for bowhead whales.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>NMFS notifies the public of the aboriginal subsistence whaling quota for bowhead whales assigned to the Alaska Eskimo Whaling Commission (AEWC), and of limitations on the use of the quota deriving from regulations of the International Whaling Commission (IWC). For 2025, the AEWC quota is 93 bowhead whales struck. This quota and other applicable limitations govern the harvest of bowhead whales by licensed whaling captains of the AEWC.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Applicable January 14, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Office of International Affairs, Trade, and Commerce, National Marine Fisheries Service, 1315 East-West Highway, Silver Spring, MD 20910.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Madison Harris, (202) 480-4592.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Aboriginal subsistence whaling in the United States is governed by the Whaling Convention Act (WCA) (16 U.S.C. 916 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). Under the WCA, IWC regulations shall become effective with respect to all persons and vessels subject to the jurisdiction of the United States within 90 days of notification from the IWC Secretariat of an amendment to the IWC Schedule (16 U.S.C. 916k). Regulations that implement the WCA, found at 50 CFR part 230, require NOAA's Assistant Administrator for Fisheries to publish, at least annually, aboriginal subsistence whaling quotas and any other limitations on aboriginal subsistence whaling deriving from regulations of the IWC.
                </P>
                <P>At the 67th meeting of the IWC in 2018, the Commission set catch limits for aboriginal subsistence use of bowhead whales from the Bering-Chukchi-Beaufort Seas stock for the years 2019-2025. The aboriginal subsistence whaling catch limits were based on a joint request by Denmark on behalf of Greenland, the Russian Federation, St. Vincent and the Grenadines, and the United States, accompanied by documentation concerning the needs of the Native groups.</P>
                <P>The IWC set a 7-year block catch limit of 392 bowhead whales landed. For each of the years 2019 through 2025, the number of bowhead whales struck may not exceed 67, with unused strikes from the 3 prior quota blocks carried forward and added to the annual strike quota of subsequent years, provided that no more than 50 percent of the annual strike limit is added to the strike quota for any 1 year. For the 2025 bowhead harvest, there are 33 strikes available for carry-forward, so the combined strike quota set by the IWC for 2025 is 100 (67 + 33).</P>
                <P>Both Alaska and Russian Natives hunt the bowhead whale, and thus the IWC quota for the bowhead whale is shared between the two Native groups. To account for the shared quota, the United States and Russia established a cooperative arrangement to monitor the quota.</P>
                <P>NOAA has assigned 93 strikes to the AEWC through its cooperative agreement with the AEWC, accounting for bowhead whales that may be hunted by Russian Natives. The AEWC will in turn allocate these strikes among the 11 villages whose cultural and subsistence needs have been documented, and will ensure that AEWC whaling captains use no more than 93 strikes.</P>
                <P>
                    At its 67th meeting, the IWC also provided for an automatic extension of aboriginal subsistence whaling catch limits under certain circumstances. Commencing in 2026, bowhead whale catch limits shall be extended every 6 years provided: (a) the IWC Scientific Committee advises in 2024, and every 6 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3186"/>
                    years thereafter, that such limits will not harm the stock; (b) the Commission does not receive a request from the United States or the Russian Federation for a change in the bowhead whale catch limits based on need; and (c) the Commission determines that the United States and the Russian Federation have complied with the IWC's approved timeline and that the information provided represents a status quo continuation of the hunts. At its 69th meeting in September 2024, the IWC reviewed the aboriginal subsistence whaling extension criteria and determined by consensus that all of the conditions had been met, and thus agreed to extend the ASW strike/catch limits for 6 years, for the period 2026-2031.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">Other Limitations</HD>
                <P>The IWC regulations, as well as the NOAA regulation at 50 CFR 230.4(c), forbid the taking of calves or any whale accompanied by a calf.</P>
                <P>NOAA regulations (at 50 CFR 230.4) also contain other prohibitions relating to aboriginal subsistence whaling, some of which are summarized here:</P>
                <P>• No person, other than licensed whaling captains or crew under the control of those captains, shall engage in aboriginal subsistence whaling.</P>
                <P>• No whaling captain shall engage in whaling that is not in accordance with the regulations of the IWC, NOAA, and the relevant cooperative agreement.</P>
                <P>• No whaling captain shall engage in whaling without an adequate crew or without adequate supplies and equipment.</P>
                <P>• No person may receive money for participating in the hunt.</P>
                <P>• No person may sell or offer for sale whale products from whales taken in the hunt, except for authentic articles of Native handicrafts.</P>
                <P>• Captains cannot continue to whale after the relevant quota is reached, after the season has been closed, or if their licenses have been suspended.</P>
                <P>• No captain shall engage in whaling in a wasteful manner.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Alexa Cole,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of International Affairs, Trade, and Commerce, National Marine Fisheries Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00554 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3510-22-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Department of the Air Force</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Community College of the Air Force Subcommittee of the Air University Board of Visitors Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P> Department of the Air Force.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P> Meeting notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P> The Department of Defense (DoD) is publishing this notice to announce the following Federal Advisory Committee meeting of the Air University Board of Visitor's (AU BoV) Community College of the Air Force (CCAF) Subcommittee.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Tuesday, February 4, 2025, from 8 a.m. to 5 p.m. and Wednesday, February 5, 2025, from 8 a.m. to 3 p.m. (central time).</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Lake Area Technical College, 1201 Arrow Ave. NE, Watertown, SD 57201.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Dr. Shawn P. O'Mailia, Designated Federal Officer, Air University Headquarters, 55 LeMay Plaza South, Maxwell Air Force Base, Alabama 36112-6335, telephone (334) 953-4547, email 
                        <E T="03">shawn.omailia.3@au.af.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This meeting is held under the provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act (FACA) of 1972 (5 U.S.C., appendix, as amended), the Government in the Sunshine Act of 1976 (5 U.S.C. 552b, as amended), and 41 CFR 102-3.50(d).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Purpose of the Meeting:</E>
                     For the CCAF Subcommittee of the Air University (AU) Board of Visitors (BOV) to review the education policies and activities of the Community College of the Air Force. The agenda will include: AU Reorganization—Barnes Center and CCAF, Accreditation Update, CCAF Credit Awarding Practices, and a LATC Overview and Tour.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Meeting Accessibility:</E>
                     Open to the public. Any member of the public wishing to attend this meeting should contact the Designated Federal Officer at least ten calendar days prior to the meeting for information on base entry procedures.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Written Statements:</E>
                     Any member of the public wishing to provide input to the Air University Board of Visitors in accordance with 41 CFR 102-3.140(c) and section 10(a)(3) of the Federal Advisory Committee Act should submit a written statement to the Designated Federal Officer. Statements submitted in response to the agenda mentioned in this notice must be received by the Designated Federal Officer at least ten calendar days prior to the meeting that is the subject of this notice. Written statements received after this date may not be provided to or considered by the CCAF Subcommittee of the Air University Board of Visitors until its next meeting. The Designated Federal Officer will review all timely submissions with the Air University Board of Visitors' Board Chairperson and ensure they are provided to members of the Board before the meeting that is the subject of this notice.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Tommy W. Lee,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Air Force Federal Register Liaison Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00641 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 3911-44-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Defense Acquisition Regulations System</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Number DARS-2024-0036; OMB Control Number 0704-0231]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Information Collection Requirement; Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFARS) Part 237, Service Contracting, and Related Clauses and Forms</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Defense Acquisition Regulations System; Department of Defense (DoD).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Defense Acquisition Regulations System has submitted to OMB for clearance the following proposal for collection of information under the provisions of the Paperwork Reduction Act.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Consideration will be given to all comments received by February 13, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        You may also submit comments, identified by docket number and title, by the following method: Federal eRulemaking Portal: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Tucker Lucas, 571-372-7574, or 
                        <E T="03">whs.mc-alex.esd.mbx.dd-dod-information-collections@mail.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title and OMB Number:</E>
                     Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3187"/>
                    Supplement (DFARS) Part 237, Service Contracting, associated DFARS Clauses at DFARS 252.237, DD Form 2062, and DD Form 2063; OMB Control Number 0704-0231.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Businesses or other for-profit and not-for-profit institutions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Required to obtain or retain benefits.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     On occasion.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     7,018.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     3.8.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Responses:</E>
                     26,738.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Average Burden per Response:</E>
                     1.01 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     26,738.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     This information collection is used for the following purposes—
                </P>
                <P>a. The information collected pursuant to paragraph(c)of the solicitation provision at DFARS 252.237-7000, Notice of Special Standards of Responsibility, is used to verify that the offeror is properly licensed in the state or other political jurisdiction in which the offeror operates its professional practice.</P>
                <P>b. The contract clause at DFARS 252.237-7011, Preparation History; the DD Form 2062, Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains (Outside CONUS); and the DD Form 2063, Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains (Within CONUS), are used to verify that the deceased's remains have been properly cared for by the mortuary contractor.</P>
                <P>c. The written plan required by the solicitation provision at DFARS 252.237-7024, Notice of Continuation of Essential Contractor Services, submitted by offerors concurrently with the proposal or offer, allows the contracting officer to assess the offeror's capability to continue providing contractually required services to support the DoD component's mission-essential functions during periods of crisis.</P>
                <P>d. The information collected pursuant to the contract clause at DFARS 252.237-7023, Continuation of Essential Contractor Services, allows the contracting officer to provide approval of updates to the contractor's plan provided under the provision at DFARS 252.237-7024, to ensure that the contractor can continue to provide services in support of the DoD component's required mission-essential functions during crisis situations.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">DoD Clearance Officer:</E>
                     Mr. Tucker Lucas. Requests for copies of the information collection proposal should be sent to Mr. Lucas at 
                    <E T="03">whs.mc-alex.esd.mbx.dd-dod-information-collections@mail.mil.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jennifer D. Johnson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Editor/Publisher, Defense Acquisition Regulations System.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00400 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6001-FR-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of the Secretary</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Board of Regents, Uniformed Services University of the Health Sciences; Notice of Federal Advisory Committee Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness (USD(P&amp;R)), Department of Defense (DoD).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of Federal advisory committee meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The DoD is publishing this notice to announce that the following Federal Advisory Committee meeting of the Board of Regents, Uniformed Services University of the Health Sciences (BoR USUHS) will take place.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Monday, February 3, 2025, open to the public from 8 a.m. to 12 p.m. eastern time.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Uniformed Services University of the Health Sciences, 4301 Jones Bridge Road, Everett Alvarez Jr. Board of Regents Room (D3001), Bethesda, MD 20814. The meeting will be held both in-person and virtually. To participate in the meeting, see the Meeting Accessibility section for instructions.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Dr. Glendon Diehl, Alternate Designated Federal Officer (ADFO), at (301) 295-1917 or 
                        <E T="03">bor@usuhs.edu.</E>
                         Mailing address is 4301 Jones Bridge Road, Bethesda, MD 20814. Website: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.usuhs.edu/ao/board-of-regents.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>This meeting is being held under the provisions of chapter 10 of title 5, United States Code (U.S.C.) (commonly known as “the Federal Advisory Committee Act” or “FACA”), section 552b of title 5, U.S.C. (commonly known as the “Government in the Sunshine Act”); and 41 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 102-3.140 and 102-3.150.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Purpose of the Meeting:</E>
                     The purpose of the meeting is to provide advice and recommendations to the Secretary of Defense, through the USD (P&amp;R), on academic and administrative matters critical to the full accreditation and successful operation of Uniformed Services University (USU). These actions are necessary for USU to pursue its mission, which is to educate, train, and comprehensively prepare uniformed services health professionals, officers, scientists, and leaders to support the Military and Public Health Systems, the National Security and National Defense Strategies of the United States, and the readiness of our Uniformed Services.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                     The schedule includes opening comments from the Chair; a report by the President of USU; an update from the Acting Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs; updates on applications and admissions processes to USU Schools; a brief on the School of Medicine, USU specialties; an update on Military Health Systems Education and Training Mission and Capability Evaluation; and an update on Digital Health Integration Center Concept and AI Integration.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Meeting Accessibility:</E>
                     Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552b, and 41 CFR 102-3.140 through 102.3.165, the meeting will be held in-person and virtually and is open to the public from 8:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. Seating is on a first-come basis. Members of the public wishing to attend the meeting virtually should contact Ms. Angela Bee via email at 
                    <E T="03">bor@usuhs.edu</E>
                     no later than five business days prior to the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Written Statements:</E>
                     Pursuant to section 10(a)(3) of the FACA and 41 CFR 102-3.140, the public or interested organizations may submit written comments to the BoR USUHS about its approved agenda pertaining to this meeting or at any time regarding the Board's mission. Individuals submitting a written statement must submit their statement to Dr. Glendon Diehl at the address noted in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section. Written statements that do not pertain to a scheduled meeting of the BoR USUHS may be submitted at any time. If individual comments pertain to a specific topic being discussed at the planned meeting, then these statements must be received at least five calendar days prior to the meeting. Otherwise, the comments may not be provided to or considered by the Board until a later date. The DFO will compile all timely submissions with the BoR USUHS' Chair and ensure such submissions are provided to BoR USUHS members before the meeting.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 8, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Stephanie J. Bost,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Alternate OSD Federal Register Liaison Officer, Department of Defense.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00639 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6001-FR-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="3188"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.: ED-2024-SCC-0132]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; National Evaluation of the Pathways to Partnerships Program (84.421E)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Special Education and Rehabilitative Services (OSERS), Department of Education (ED).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Department is proposing a new information collection request (ICR).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before February 13, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for proposed information collection requests should be submitted within 30 days of publication of this notice. Click on this link 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain</E>
                         to access the site. Find this information collection request (ICR) by selecting “Department of Education” under “Currently Under Review,” then check the “Only Show ICR for Public Comment” checkbox. 
                        <E T="03">Reginfo.gov</E>
                         provides two links to view documents related to this information collection request. Information collection forms and instructions may be found by clicking on the “View Information Collection (IC) List” link. Supporting statements and other supporting documentation may be found by clicking on the “View Supporting Statement and Other Documents” link.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Diandrea Bailey, (202) 987-0126.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Department is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     National Evaluation of the Pathways to Partnerships Program (84.421E).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1820-NEW.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     New ICR.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Individual or Households. 
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     17,137.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     4,674.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The U.S. Department of Education's Rehabilitation Services Administration (RSA) requests clearance for new data collection activities to support the evaluation of the 84.421E Federal fiscal year (FFY) 2023 Disability Innovation Fund (DIF), Pathways to Partnerships Innovative Model Demonstration Project. The purpose of the DIF, as provided by the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2022 (Pub. L. 117-103), is to support innovative activities aimed at increasing competitive integrated employment as defined in section 7 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Rehabilitation Act) (29 U.S.C. 705(5)) for children, youth, and other individuals with disabilities. The program aims to create systematic and seamless approaches to offering transition services to children with disabilities, ages 10-13 and youth with disabilities ages 14 to 24 through collaborations among State vocational rehabilitation (VR) agencies, State education agencies (SEAs), local education agencies (LEAs), Federally funded Centers for Independent Living (CILs), and other organizations offering services to this population. RSA is investing a total of $198,975,322 in grant funding to the 20 States through the FFY 2023 DIF. This request covers primary data collection activities for the National Evaluation of the Pathways to Partnerships Program. These activities include the following:
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">○ Surveys and interviews with program participants or their parent or guardian</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">○ Surveys with State VR, SEA, and CIL directors</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">○ Surveys and interviews with project staff</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">○ Collecting project administrative data (staff rosters, cost worksheets, and web analytics) from project directors</FP>
                <P>In September 2023, RSA awarded five-year cooperative agreements for the 84.421E FFY 2023 DIF model demonstration projects. The awards provide 20 State VR agencies or SEAs with funding to implement Pathways to Partnerships model demonstration projects. The Pathways to Partnerships models vary across the 20 projects, but the projects' purpose is to create and implement systematic approaches to delivering transition services to children and youth with disabilities. The approaches must entail establishing close partnerships across key agencies to deliver these services in ways likely to improve the education and employment outcomes of children and youth with disabilities.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 8, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Juliana Pearson,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>PRA Coordinator, Strategic Collections and Clearance, Governance and Strategy Division, Office of Chief Data Officer, Office of Planning, Evaluation and Policy Development.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00569 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4000-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Applications for New Awards; Independent Living Services for Older Individuals Who Are Blind—Independent Living Services for Older Individuals Who Are Blind Training and Technical Assistance</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Special Education and Rehabilitative Services, Department of Education.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Education is issuing a notice inviting applications for fiscal year (FY) 2025 for the Independent Living Services for Older Individuals Who Are Blind Program—Independent Living Services for Older Individuals Who Are Blind (OIB) Training and Technical Assistance.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Applications Available:</E>
                         March 17, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Deadline for Intergovernmental Review:</E>
                         May 14, 2025.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For the addresses for obtaining and submitting an application, please refer to our Common Instructions for Applicants to Department of Education Discretionary Grant Programs, published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on December 23, 2024 (89 FR 104528) and available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.federalregister.gov/documents/2024/12/23/2024-30488/common-instructions-for-applicants-to-department-of-education-discretionary-grant-programs.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mary Williams, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Avenue SW, room 4A220, Washington, DC 20202-2600. Telephone: (202) 245-6263. Email: 
                        <E T="03">mary.williams@ed.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        If you are deaf, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability and wish to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3189"/>
                        access telecommunications relay services, please dial 7-1-1.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Full Text of Announcement</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Funding Opportunity Description</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Purpose of Program:</E>
                     The purpose of this program is to provide training and technical assistance to designated State agencies (DSAs)—the State agencies that provide vocational rehabilitation services to individuals who are blind—that receive grant funding under the OIB program and to other service providers that receive OIB program funding from DSAs to provide services to consumers. The training and technical assistance are designed to improve the operation and performance of programs and services for older individuals who are blind resulting in their enhanced independence and self-sufficiency.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Assistance Listing Number:</E>
                     84.177Z.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1894-0006.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Priorities:</E>
                     This notice includes one absolute priority and one competitive preference priority. These priorities are from the notice of final priorities and definitions (NFP) for this program published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on August 6, 2020, 85 FR 47652.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Absolute Priority:</E>
                     For FY 2025 and any subsequent year in which we make awards from the list of unfunded applications from this competition, this priority is an absolute priority Under 34 CFR 75.105(c)(3). We consider only applications that meet this priority.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">This priority is:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Independent Living Services for Older Individuals Who Are Blind (OIB) Training and Technical Assistance.</E>
                </P>
                <P>This priority supports a cooperative agreement to establish an OIB Training and Technical Assistance Center (Center) to provide universal, targeted, and intensive training and technical assistance to DSAs funded under the OIB program and to any service providers that DSAs fund to provide services directly to consumers. The Center will develop and provide training and technical assistance in the following general topic areas:</P>
                <P>(a) Community outreach methods and strategies to identify potential recipients of services.</P>
                <P>(b) Promising practices, based on “promising evidence” as defined in 34 CFR 77.1(c), including the development and dissemination of relevant materials to facilitate the delivery of high-quality services.</P>
                <P>(c) Program performance, including data reporting and analysis.</P>
                <P>(d) Financial and management practices, including practices to ensure compliance with grant administration requirements.</P>
                <P>To meet the requirements of this priority, the Center must, at a minimum, conduct the following activities:</P>
                <P>(a) Annually provide intensive training and technical assistance to a minimum of three DSAs or other service providers on the four general topic areas in this priority. Intensive training and technical assistance may be provided through remote delivery as appropriate. The technical assistance must be—</P>
                <P>(1) Consistent with the project activities and tailored to the specific needs and challenges of the DSA or other service provider receiving intensive training and technical assistance;</P>
                <P>(2) Provided under an agreement with each DSA or other service provider that, at a minimum, details the purpose, intended outcomes, and requirements for subsequent evaluation of the training and technical assistance; and</P>
                <P>(3) Assessed 90 days after completion to ensure that the DSAs and other service providers receiving intensive training and technical assistance are applying it effectively, and to address any issues or challenges in its implementation.</P>
                <P>(b) Provide a range of targeted training and technical assistance and universal training and technical assistance products and services on the four general topic areas in this priority. The training and technical assistance must include, at a minimum, the following activities:</P>
                <P>(1) In each year of the project, provide a minimum of 10 webinars, podcasts, video conferences, teleconferences, or other virtual methods of dissemination of information and training and technical assistance on the four general topic areas in this priority to describe and disseminate information about emerging promising practices.</P>
                <P>(2) Develop new information technology (IT) platforms or systems, or modify existing platforms and systems, as follows:</P>
                <P>(i) Develop or modify, and maintain, a state-of-the-art IT platform sufficient to support webinars, podcasts, video conferences, teleconferences, and other virtual methods of dissemination of information and training and technical assistance; and</P>
                <P>(ii) Develop or modify, and maintain, a state-of-the-art archiving and dissemination system that is open and available to the public, at no cost, and that provides a central location for later use of training and technical assistance products, including course curricula, audiovisual materials, webinars, examples of emerging and promising practices related to the four general topic areas in this priority, and any other training and technical assistance products developed by the grantee and others.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Note:</E>
                     All products produced by the Center must meet government and industry-recognized standards for accessibility.
                </P>
                <P>(c) Conduct outreach to DSAs so that they are aware of, and can participate in, training and technical assistance activities.</P>
                <P>
                    (d) Establish a community of practice 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     that will act as a vehicle for communication, an exchange of information among DSAs and other service providers, and a forum for sharing the results of training and technical assistance activities that are in progress or that have been completed.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         See: 
                        <E T="03">www.sedl.org/pubs/catalog/items/dis104.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>(e) Facilitate annually a minimum of one in-person conference, or, if health and safety reasons make an in-person conference infeasible, a virtual conference, for the purpose of dissemination of information related to emerging promising practices and ongoing technical assistance needs and activities.</P>
                <P>(f) Communicate and coordinate, on an ongoing basis, with other federally funded training and technical assistance projects, particularly Department-funded projects, to ensure that training and technical assistance activities are complementary and non-duplicative.</P>
                <P>(g) Conduct an evaluation to determine the impact of the Center's training and technical assistance on the DSAs and other service providers that received the Center's services.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Competitive Preference Priority:</E>
                     For FY 2025 and any subsequent year in which we make awards from the list of unfunded applications from this competition, this priority is a competitive preference priority. Under 34 CFR 75.105(c)(2)(i), we award up to an additional 5 points to an application, depending on how well the application meets the competitive preference priority.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">This priority is:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Identify and Demonstrate how Specific Technical Assistance Strategies Provided to OIB Grantees will Facilitate Collaboration and Leveraging of Resources at the State and Local Level.</E>
                </P>
                <P>To meet the requirements of this priority, the Center must, at a minimum, develop technical assistance focused on partnerships to facilitate the sharing of information and leveraging of resources from other systems that work with aging individuals and individuals with disabilities.</P>
                <P>
                    These technical assistance strategies must be designed to improve the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3190"/>
                    capacity of OIB grantee staff, and staff from other service providers that receive OIB program funding from DSAs to provide services to the OIB population, to acquire and develop the skills and tools they need to help the OIB population sustain and increase their ability to live independently in their homes and communities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Definitions:</E>
                </P>
                <P>For FY 2025, the following definitions from the NFP apply to this competition:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Intensive training and technical assistance</E>
                     means training and technical assistance provided to a DSA, or other service provider that receives OIB program funding from a DSA to provide services, primarily on-site or through remote delivery, as needed and appropriate, over an extended period. Intensive training and technical assistance is based on an ongoing relationship between the training and technical assistance center staff and a DSA, or other service provider that receives OIB program funding from a DSA to provide services, under the terms of a signed intensive training and technical assistance agreement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Targeted training and technical assistance</E>
                     means training and technical assistance based on needs common to one or more DSAs, or other service providers that receive OIB program funding from DSAs to provide services, on a time-limited basis and with a limited commitment of training and technical assistance center resources. Targeted training and technical assistance are delivered through virtual or in-person methods tailored to the identified needs of the participating DSAs, or other service providers that receive OIB program funding from DSAs to provide services.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Universal training and technical assistance</E>
                     means training and technical assistance broadly available to DSAs, or other service providers that receive OIB program funding from DSAs to provide services, and other interested parties resulting in minimal interaction with training and technical assistance center staff. Universal training and technical assistance includes generalized presentations, products, and related activities available through a website or through brief contact with the training and technical assistance center staff.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Program Authority:</E>
                     29 U.S.C. 796j-1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Note:</E>
                     Projects will be awarded and must be operated in a manner consistent with the nondiscrimination requirements contained in Federal civil rights laws.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicable Regulations:</E>
                     (a) The Education Department General Administrative Regulations in 34 CFR parts 75, 77, 79, 81, 82, 84, 86, 97, 98, and 99. (b) The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Guidelines to Agencies on Governmentwide Debarment and Suspension (Nonprocurement) in 2 CFR part 180, as adopted and amended as regulations of the Department in 2 CFR part 3485. (c) The Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards in 2 CFR part 200 (Uniform Guidance), as adopted and amended as regulations of the Department in 2 CFR part 3474. (d) The regulations for this program in 34 CFR part 367. (e) The NFP.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Note:</E>
                     As of October 1, 2024, grant applicants must follow the provisions stated in the OMB Guidance for Federal Financial Assistance (89 FR 30046, April 22, 2024) when preparing an application. For more information about these regulations please visit: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.cfo.gov/resources-coffa/uniform-guidance/.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Note:</E>
                     The regulations in 34 CFR part 79 apply to all applicants except federally recognized Indian Tribes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Note:</E>
                     The regulations in 34 CFR part 86 apply to institutions of higher education only.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Award Information</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Award:</E>
                     Cooperative agreement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Available Funds:</E>
                     $599,706.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Maximum Award:</E>
                     We will not make an award exceeding $599,706 for a single budget period of 12 months.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Awards:</E>
                     1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Note:</E>
                     The Department is not bound by any estimates in this notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Project Period:</E>
                     Up to 60 months.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Eligibility Information</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Eligible Applicants:</E>
                     State and public or non-profit agencies and organizations and institutions of higher education that have the capacity to provide training and technical assistance in the provision of independent living services for older individuals who are blind and have demonstrated through their application a capacity to provide the level of training and technical assistance as indicated in the priority section of this notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Note:</E>
                     If you are a nonprofit organization, under 34 CFR 75.51, you may demonstrate your nonprofit status by providing: (1) proof that the Internal Revenue Service currently recognizes the applicant as an organization to which contributions are tax deductible under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code; (2) a statement from a State taxing body or the State attorney general certifying that the organization is a nonprofit organization operating within the State and that no part of its net earnings may lawfully benefit any private shareholder or individual; (3) a certified copy of the applicant's certificate of incorporation or similar document if it clearly establishes the nonprofit status of the applicant; or (4) any item described above if that item applies to a State or national parent organization, together with a statement by the State or parent organization that the applicant is a local nonprofit affiliate.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. a. 
                    <E T="03">Cost Sharing or Matching:</E>
                     This competition does not require cost sharing or matching.
                </P>
                <P>
                    b. 
                    <E T="03">Indirect Cost Rate Information:</E>
                     This program uses an unrestricted indirect cost rate. For more information regarding indirect costs, or to obtain a negotiated indirect cost rate, please see 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ed.gov/about/ed-offices/ofo#Indirect-Cost-Division.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    c. 
                    <E T="03">Administrative Cost Limitation:</E>
                     This program does not include any program-specific limitation on administrative expenses. All administrative expenses must be reasonable and necessary and conform to Cost Principles described in 2 CFR part 200 subpart E of the Guidance for Federal Financial Assistance.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Subgrantees:</E>
                     A grantee under this competition may not award subgrants to entities to directly carry out project activities described in its application. Under 34 CFR 75.708(e), a grantee may contract for supplies, equipment, and other services in accordance with 2 CFR part 200.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Application and Submission Information</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Application Submission Instructions:</E>
                     Applicants are required to follow the Common Instructions for Applicants to Department of Education Discretionary Grant Programs, published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on December 23, 2024 (89 FR 104528) and available at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.federalregister.gov/documents/2024/12/23/2024-30488/common-instructions-for-applicants-to-department-of-education-discretionary-grant-programs,</E>
                     which contain requirements and information on how to submit an application.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Submission of Proprietary Information:</E>
                     Given the types of projects that may be proposed in applications for the OIB Training and Technical Assistance competition, your application may include business information that you consider proprietary. In 34 CFR 5.11, we define “business information” and describe the process we use in determining whether any of that information is proprietary and, thus, protected from disclosure 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3191"/>
                    under Exemption 4 of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552, as amended).
                </P>
                <P>Because we plan to make successful applications available to the public, you may wish to request confidentiality of business information.</P>
                <P>Consistent with Executive Order 12600 (Predisclosure Notification Procedures for Confidential Commercial Information), please designate in your application any information that you believe is exempt from disclosure under Exemption 4. In the appropriate Appendix section of your application, under “Other Attachments Form,” please list the page number or numbers on which we can find this information. For additional information please see 34 CFR 5.11(c).</P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Intergovernmental Review:</E>
                     This competition is subject to Executive Order 12372 and the regulations in 34 CFR part 79. Information about Intergovernmental Review of Federal Programs under Executive Order 12372 is in the application package for this competition.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Funding Restrictions:</E>
                     We reference regulations outlining funding restrictions in the 
                    <E T="03">Applicable Regulations</E>
                     section of this notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">Recommended Page Limit:</E>
                     The application narrative (Part III of the application) is where you, the applicant, address the selection criteria that reviewers use to evaluate your application. We recommend that you (1) limit the application narrative to no more than 45 pages and (2) use the following standards:
                </P>
                <P>• A “page” is 8.5″ × 11″, on one side only, with 1″ margins at the top, bottom, and both sides.</P>
                <P>• Double-space (no more than three lines per vertical inch) all text in the application narrative, including titles, headings, footnotes, quotations, references, and captions, as well as all text in charts, tables, figures, and graphs.</P>
                <P>• Use a font that is either 12 point or larger or no smaller than 10 pitch (characters per inch).</P>
                <P>• Use one of the following fonts: Times New Roman, Courier, Courier New, or Arial.</P>
                <P>The recommended page limit does not apply to Part I, the cover sheet; Part II, the budget section, including the narrative budget justification; Part IV, the assurances and certifications; or the one-page abstract, the resumes, the bibliography, or the letters of support. However, the recommended page limit does apply to all of the application narrative.</P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Notice of Intent to Apply:</E>
                     The Department will be able to review grant
                </P>
                <P>
                    applications more efficiently if we know the approximate number of applicants that intend to apply. Therefore, we strongly encourage each potential applicant to notify us of their intent to submit an application. To do so, please email the program contact person listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     with the subject line “Intent to Apply,” and include the applicant's name and a contact person's name and email address. Applicants that do not submit a notice of intent to apply may still apply for funding; applicants that do submit a notice of intent to apply are not bound to apply or bound by the information provided.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Application Review Information</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Selection Criteria:</E>
                     The selection criteria for this competition are from 34 CFR 75.210 and are as follows:
                </P>
                <P>
                    (a) 
                    <E T="03">Significance (15 points).</E>
                </P>
                <P>(1) The Secretary considers the significance of the proposed project.</P>
                <P>(2) In determining the significance of the proposed project, the Secretary considers the following factors:</P>
                <P>(i) The likelihood that the proposed project will result in systemic change that supports continuous, sustainable, and measurable improvement.</P>
                <P>(ii) The extent to which the proposed project is likely to build local, State, regional, or national capacity to provide, improve, sustain, or expand training or services that address the needs of underserved populations; and</P>
                <P>(iii) The importance or magnitude of the results or outcomes likely to be attained by the proposed project, especially improvements in independent living services.</P>
                <P>
                    (b) 
                    <E T="03">Quality of the project design (10 points).</E>
                </P>
                <P>(1) The Secretary considers the quality of the design of the proposed project.</P>
                <P>(2) In determining the quality of the design of the proposed project, the Secretary considers the following factors:</P>
                <P>(i) The extent to which the goals, objectives, and outcomes to be achieved by the proposed project are clearly specified, measurable, and ambitious yet achievable within the project period, and aligned with the purposes of the grant program;</P>
                <P>(ii) The extent to which the proposed project demonstrates that it is designed to build capacity and yield sustainable results that will extend beyond the project period;</P>
                <P>(iii) The extent to which the proposed project will include coordination with other Federal investments, as well as appropriate agencies and organizations providing similar services to the target population; and</P>
                <P>(iv) The quality of the logic model or other conceptual framework underlying the proposed project, including how inputs are related to outcomes.</P>
                <P>
                    (c) 
                    <E T="03">Quality of project services (25 points).</E>
                </P>
                <P>(1) The Secretary considers the quality of the services to be provided by the proposed project.</P>
                <P>(2) In determining the quality of the services to be provided by the proposed project, the Secretary considers the quality and sufficiency of strategies for ensuring equitable and adequate access and participation for project participants who experience barriers based on one or more of the following: economic disadvantage; gender; race; ethnicity; color; national origin; disability; age; language; migration; living in a rural location; experiencing homelessness or housing insecurity; involvement with the justice system; pregnancy, parenting, or caregiver status; and sexual orientation. This determination includes the steps developed and described in the form Equity For Students, Teachers, And Other Program Beneficiaries (OMB Control No. 1894-0005) (section 427 of the General Education Provisions Act (20 U.S.C. 1228a)).</P>
                <P>(3) In addition, the Secretary considers the following factors:</P>
                <P>(i) The extent to which the services to be provided by the proposed project reflect up-to-date knowledge and an evidence-based project component;</P>
                <P>(ii) The extent to which the services to be provided by the proposed project were determined with input from the community to be served to ensure that they are appropriate and responsive to the needs of the intended recipients or beneficiaries, including underserved populations, of those services;</P>
                <P>(iii) The extent to which the services to be provided by the proposed project involve the collaboration of appropriate partners, including those from underserved populations, to maximize the effectiveness of project services; and</P>
                <P>(iv) The extent to which the services to be provided by the proposed project involve the use of efficient strategies, including the use of technology, as appropriate, and the leveraging of non-project resources.</P>
                <P>
                    (d) 
                    <E T="03">Quality of the project evaluation or other evidence-building. (15 points).</E>
                </P>
                <P>(1) The Secretary considers the quality of the evaluation or other evidence-building of the proposed project.</P>
                <P>
                    (2) In determining the quality of the evaluation or other evidence-building, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3192"/>
                    the Secretary considers the following factors:
                </P>
                <P>(i) The extent to which the methods of evaluation or other evidence-building are thorough, feasible, relevant, and appropriate to the goals, objectives, and outcomes of the proposed project;</P>
                <P>(ii) The extent to which the methods of evaluation or other evidence-building are appropriate to the context within which the project operates and the target population of the proposed project;</P>
                <P>(iii) The extent to which the methods of evaluation or other evidence-building will provide performance feedback and provide formative, diagnostic, or interim data that is a periodic assessment of progress toward achieving intended outcomes; and</P>
                <P>(iv) The extent to which the methods of evaluation or other evidence-building include the use of objective performance measures that are clearly related to the intended outcomes of the project and will produce quality data that are quantitative and qualitative.</P>
                <P>
                    (e) 
                    <E T="03">Adequacy of resources (10 points).</E>
                </P>
                <P>(1) The Secretary considers the adequacy of resources for the proposed project.</P>
                <P>(2) In determining the adequacy of resources for the proposed project, the Secretary considers the following factors:</P>
                <P>(i) The adequacy of support for the project, including facilities, equipment, supplies, and other resources, from the applicant or the lead applicant organization;</P>
                <P>(ii) The extent to which the budget is adequate to support the proposed project and the costs are reasonable in relation to the objectives, design, and potential significance of the proposed project.</P>
                <P>(iii) The relevance and demonstrated commitment of each partner in the proposed project to the implementation and success of the project.</P>
                <P>
                    (f) 
                    <E T="03">Quality of the project personnel (10 points).</E>
                </P>
                <P>(1) The Secretary considers the quality of the personnel who will carry out the proposed project.</P>
                <P>(2) In determining the quality of project personnel, the Secretary considers the extent to which the applicant demonstrates that it has project personnel or a plan for hiring of personnel who are members of groups that have historically encountered barriers, or who have professional or personal experiences with barriers, based on one or more of the following: economic disadvantage; gender; race; ethnicity; color; national origin; disability; age; language; migration; living in a rural location; experiencing homelessness or housing insecurity; involvement with the justice system; pregnancy, parenting, or caregiver status; and sexual orientation.</P>
                <P>(3) In addition, the Secretary considers the following factors:</P>
                <P>(i) The extent to which the key personnel in the project, when hired, have the qualifications required for the project, including formal training or work experience in fields related to the objectives of the project and experience in designing, managing, or implementing similar projects for the target population, and represent or have lived experiences of the target population;</P>
                <P>(ii) The qualifications, including relevant training and experience, of project consultants or subcontractors; and</P>
                <P>
                    (g) 
                    <E T="03">Quality of the management plan (15 points).</E>
                </P>
                <P>(1) The Secretary considers the quality of the management plan for the proposed project.</P>
                <P>(2) In determining the quality of the management plan for the proposed project, the Secretary considers the following factors:</P>
                <P>(i) The feasibility of the management plan to achieve project objectives and goals on time and within budget, including clearly defined responsibilities, timelines, and milestones for accomplishing project tasks;</P>
                <P>(ii) The extent to which the time commitments of the project director and principal investigator and other key project personnel are appropriate and adequate to meet the objectives of the proposed project;</P>
                <P>(iii) The adequacy of mechanisms for ensuring high-quality and accessible products and services from the proposed project for the target population; and</P>
                <P>(iv) How the applicant will ensure that a diversity of perspectives, including those from underserved populations, are brought to bear in the design, implementation, operation, evaluation, and improvement of the proposed project, including those of parents, educators, community-based organizations, civil rights organizations, the business community, a variety of disciplinary and professional fields, recipients or beneficiaries of services, or others, as appropriate.</P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Review and Selection Process:</E>
                     We remind potential applicants that in reviewing applications in any discretionary grant competition, the Secretary may consider, under 34 CFR 75.217(d)(3), the past performance of the applicant in carrying out a previous award, such as the applicant's use of funds, achievement of project objectives, and compliance with grant conditions. The Secretary may also consider whether the applicant failed to submit a timely performance report or submitted a report of unacceptable quality.
                </P>
                <P>In addition, in making a competitive grant award, the Secretary requires various assurances, including those applicable to Federal civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department (34 CFR 100.4, 104.5, 106.4, 108.8, and 110.23).</P>
                <P>In the event there are two or more applications with the same final score, and there are insufficient funds to fully support each of these applications, the scores under selection criterion (b) Quality of project services will be used as a tiebreaker. If the scores remain tied, then the scores under selection criterion (e) Quality of the management plan will be used to break the tie.</P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Risk Assessment and Specific Conditions:</E>
                     Consistent with 2 CFR 200.206, before awarding grants under this competition the Department conducts a review of the risks posed by applicants. Under 2 CFR 200.208, the Secretary may impose specific conditions and, under 2 CFR 3474.10, in appropriate circumstances, high-risk conditions on a grant if the applicant or grantee is not financially stable; has a history of unsatisfactory performance; has a financial or other management system that does not meet the standards in 2 CFR part 200, subpart D; has not fulfilled the conditions of a prior grant; or is otherwise not responsible.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Integrity and Performance System:</E>
                     If you are selected under this competition to receive an award that over the course of the project period may exceed the simplified acquisition threshold (currently $250,000), under 2 CFR 200.206(a)(2) we must make a judgment about your integrity, business ethics, and record of performance under Federal awards—that is, the risk posed by you as an applicant—before we make an award. In doing so, we must consider any information about you that is in the integrity and performance system (currently referred to as the Federal Awardee Performance and Integrity Information System (FAPIIS)), accessible through the System for Award Management. You may review and comment on any information about yourself that a Federal agency previously entered and that is currently in FAPIIS.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Please note that, if the total value of your currently active grants, cooperative agreements, and procurement contracts from the Federal Government exceeds 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3193"/>
                    $10,000,000, the reporting requirements in 2 CFR part 200, appendix XII, require you to report certain integrity information to FAPIIS semiannually. Please review the requirements in 2 CFR part 200, appendix XII, if this grant plus all the other Federal funds you receive exceed $10,000,000.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Award Administration Information</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Award Notices:</E>
                     If your application is successful, we notify your U.S. Representative and U.S. Senators and send you a Grant Award Notification (GAN), or we may send you an email containing a link to access an electronic version of your GAN. We also may notify you informally.
                </P>
                <P>If your application is not evaluated or not selected for funding, we notify you.</P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Administrative and National Policy Requirements:</E>
                     We identify administrative and national policy requirements in the application package and reference these and other requirements in the Applicable Regulations section of this notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    We reference the regulations outlining the terms and conditions of an award in the 
                    <E T="03">Applicable Regulations</E>
                     section of this notice and include these and other specific conditions in the GAN. The GAN also incorporates your approved application as part of your binding commitments under the grant.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Open Licensing Requirements:</E>
                     Unless an exception applies, if you are awarded a grant under this competition, you will be required to openly license to the public grant deliverables created in whole, or in part, with Department grant funds. When the deliverable consists of modifications to pre-existing works, the license extends only to those modifications that can be separately identified and only to the extent that open licensing is permitted under the terms of any licenses or other legal restrictions on the use of pre-existing works. Additionally, a grantee or subgrantee that is awarded competitive grant funds must have a plan to disseminate these public grant deliverables. This dissemination plan can be developed and submitted after your application has been reviewed and selected for funding. For additional information on the open licensing requirements please refer to 2 CFR 3474.20.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Reporting:</E>
                     (a) If you apply for a grant under this competition, you must ensure that you have in place the necessary processes and systems to comply with the reporting requirements in 2 CFR part 170 should you receive funding under the competition. See the standards in 2 CFR 170.105 to determine whether you are covered by 2 CFR part 170.
                </P>
                <P>
                    (b) At the end of your project period, you must submit a final performance report, including financial information, as directed by the Secretary. If you receive a multiyear award, you must submit an annual performance report that provides the most current performance and financial expenditure information as directed by the Secretary under 34 CFR 75.118. The Secretary may also require more frequent performance reports under 34 CFR 75.720(c). For specific requirements on reporting, please go to 
                    <E T="03">www.ed.gov/fund/grant/apply/appforms/appforms.html.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">5. Performance Measures:</E>
                     The goal of this grant is to provide training and technical assistance designed to improve the operation and performance of programs and services for older individuals who are blind resulting in their enhanced independence and self-sufficiency.
                </P>
                <P>The cooperative agreement will specify the measures that will be used to assess the grantee's performance against the goals and objectives of the project, including outcome measures and measures that reflect the quality, relevance, and usefulness of the training and technical assistance products developed by the Center. Such measures will include, at a minimum, (1) the improved administration, operation, and performance of the DSAs or other service providers as measured through the attainment of goals established in the intensive training and technical assistance agreements; and (2) the number and percentage of DSAs or other service providers receiving intensive training and technical assistance that report that the training and technical assistance they received was of high quality, relevant, and useful.</P>
                <P>Other specific measures related to the priority areas for training and technical assistance will be determined on an annual basis and specified in the cooperative agreement.</P>
                <P>In its annual and final performance reports to the Department, the grantee will be expected to report the data outlined in the cooperative agreement that is needed to assess its performance. The annual performance reports must include both quantitative and qualitative information necessary to assess the Center's performance on the outcome measures established in the cooperative agreement. The data used must be valid and verifiable.</P>
                <P>
                    The annual performance reports must provide, at a minimum, specific information on the number of training and technical assistance activities, the topics of such activities, the type of training and technical assistance provided (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     intensive, targeted, universal), the number and types of participants served (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     DSAs or other providers of services under the OIB program), and summary data from participant evaluations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">6. Continuation Awards:</E>
                     In making a continuation award under 34 CFR 75.253, the Secretary considers, among other things, whether a grantee has made substantial progress in achieving the goals and objectives of the project; whether the grantee has expended funds in a manner that is consistent with its approved application and budget; and, if the Secretary has established performance measurement requirements, whether the grantee has made substantial progress in achieving the performance targets in the grantee's approved application.
                </P>
                <P>In making a continuation award, the Secretary also considers whether the grantee is operating in compliance with the assurances in its approved application, including those applicable to Federal civil rights laws that prohibit discrimination in programs or activities receiving Federal financial assistance from the Department (34 CFR 100.4, 104.5, 106.4, 108.8, and 110.23).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Other Information</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accessible Format:</E>
                     On request to the program contact person listed under 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                    , individuals with disabilities can obtain this document and a copy of the application package in an accessible format. The Department will provide the requestor with an accessible format that may include Rich Text Format (RTF) or text format (txt), a thumb drive, an MP3 file, braille, large print, audiotape, compact disc, or other accessible format.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Electronic Access to This Document:</E>
                     The official version of this document is the document published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . You may access the official edition of the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     and the Code of Federal Regulations at 
                    <E T="03">www.govinfo.gov.</E>
                     At this site you can view this document, as well as all other Department documents published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    , in text or Portable Document Format (PDF). To use PDF you must have Adobe Acrobat Reader, which is available free at the site.
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may also access Department documents published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     by using the article search feature at 
                    <E T="03">www.federalregister.gov.</E>
                     Specifically, through the advanced search feature at this site, you can limit 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3194"/>
                    your search to documents published by the Department.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Glenna Wright-Gallo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary for Special Education and Rehabilitative Services.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00533 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4000-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.: ED-2025-SCC-0002]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Comment Request; Borrower Defense to Loan Repayment Universal Forms</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Student Aid (FSA), Department of Education (ED).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Department is proposing a revision of a currently approved information collection request (ICR).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before March 17, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To access and review all the documents related to the information collection listed in this notice, please use 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         by searching the Docket ID number ED-2025-SCC-0002. Comments submitted in response to this notice should be submitted electronically through the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         by selecting the Docket ID number or via postal mail, commercial delivery, or hand delivery. If the regulations.gov site is not available to the public for any reason, the Department will temporarily accept comments at 
                        <E T="03">ICDocketMgr@ed.gov.</E>
                         Please include the docket ID number and the title of the information collection request when requesting documents or submitting comments. Please note that comments submitted after the comment period will not be accepted. Written requests for information or comments submitted by postal mail or delivery should be addressed to the Manager of the Strategic Collections and Clearance Governance and Strategy Division, U.S. Department of Education, 400 Maryland Ave, SW, LBJ, Room 4C210, Washington, DC 20202-1200.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Beth Grebeldinger, 202-570-8414.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Department, in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)), provides the general public and Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps the Department assess the impact of its information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand the Department's information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format. The Department is soliciting comments on the proposed information collection request (ICR) that is described below. The Department is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Borrower Defense to Loan Repayment Universal Forms.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1845-0163.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     A revision of a currently approved ICR.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals and Households.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     83,750.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     217,750.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     On April 4, 2024 the U.S. Court of Appeals of the Fifth Circuit granted a preliminary injunction against 34 ?685.400 et seq (“2023 Regulation”) enjoining the rule and postponing the effective date of the regular pending final judgment in the case. The current Borrower Defense to Repayment application and related Request for Reconsideration are drafted to conform to the enjoined provisions of the 2023 Regulation. This request is to revise the currently approved information collection 1845-0163 to comply with the regulatory requirements of the borrower defense regulations that are still in effect, 34 CFR 685.206(e) (“2020 Regulation”), 34 CFR 685.222 (“2016 Regulation”), and 34 CFR 685.206(c) (“1995 Regulation”) (together, the “current regulations”). These regulatory requirements are distinct from the 2023 Regulation's provisions. The revision is part of contingency planning in case the 2023 Regulation is permanently struck down. The Department of Education (“the Department”) is attaching an updated Borrower Defense Application and application for Request for Reconsideration. The forms will be available in paper and electronic forms on studentaid.gov and will provide borrowers with an easily accessible and clear method to provide the information necessary for the Department to review and process claim applications. Also, under the current regulations, the Department will no longer require a group application nor group reconsideration application.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 6, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Kun Mullan,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>PRA Coordinator, Strategic Collections and Clearance, Governance and Strategy Division, Office of Chief Data Officer, Office of Planning, Evaluation and Policy Development.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00359 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4000-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.: ED-2024-SCC-0119]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Comment Request; District Survey on Use of Funds Under Title II, Part A</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Elementary and Secondary Education (OESE), Department of Education (ED).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Department is proposing a extension without change of a currently approved information collection request (ICR).</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before February 13, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for proposed information collection requests should be submitted within 30 days of publication of this notice. Click on this link 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain</E>
                         to access the site. Find this information collection request (ICR) by selecting “Department of Education” under “Currently Under Review,” then check the “Only Show ICR for Public Comment” checkbox. Reginfo.gov provides two links to view documents related to this information collection request. Information collection forms and instructions may be found by clicking on the “View Information Collection (IC) List” link. Supporting statements and other supporting 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3195"/>
                        documentation may be found by clicking on the “View Supporting Statement and Other Documents” link.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>For specific questions related to collection activities, please contact Marcon Cerdeira, (202) 453-5819.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Department is especially interested in public comment addressing the following issues: (1) is this collection necessary to the proper functions of the Department; (2) will this information be processed and used in a timely manner; (3) is the estimate of burden accurate; (4) how might the Department enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (5) how might the Department minimize the burden of this collection on the respondents, including through the use of information technology. Please note that written comments received in response to this notice will be considered public records.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     District Survey on Use of Funds Under Title II, Part A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1810-0618.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension without change of a currently approved ICR.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     State, local, and Tribal governments. 
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     4,452.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     13,252.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The U.S. Department of Education is requesting clearance for a revision to 1810-0618 in order to continue collecting data annually from school districts about how Title II, Part A funds are used to support authorized activities and improve equitable access to teachers for low-income and minority students; including professional development for teachers, principals, and other school leaders. The reporting requirements are outlined in section 2104(b) of the Elementary and Secondary Education Act (ESEA), as reauthorized by the Every Student Succeeds Act of 2015 (ESSA).
                </P>
                <P>The annual survey will include a state representative sample of traditional school districts, a nationally representative sample of charter school districts, and an annual request for each state to provide a list of districts that receive Title II, Part A funds and each district-s allocated Title II, part A amount. The survey will be sent to district Title II, Part A coordinators and administered using an electronic instrument.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Kun Mullan,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>PRA Coordinator, Strategic Collections and Clearance, Governance and Strategy Division, Office of Chief Data Officer, Office of Planning, Evaluation and Policy Development.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00527 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4000-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Record of Decision for the Final Environmental Impact Statement for Department of Energy Activities in Support of Commercial Production of High-Assay Low-Enriched Uranium (HALEU)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Nuclear Energy, Department of Energy.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Record of decision.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Department of Energy (DOE or the Department) announces the Record of Decision (ROD) for the “Final Environmental Impact Statement for Department of Energy Activities in Support of Commercial Production of High-Assay Low-Enriched Uranium (HALEU)” (Final HALEU EIS) (DOE/EIS-0559). DOE prepared the Final HALEU EIS in accordance with the National Environmental Policy Act (“NEPA”) to evaluate the potential environmental impacts of activities associated with DOE's Proposed Action to acquire, through procurement from commercial sources, HALEU enriched to at least 19.75 and less than 20 weight percent uranium-235 (U-235) over a 10-year period of performance, and to facilitate the establishment of commercial HALEU fuel production. The Proposed Action addresses the Energy Act of 2020 (“the Energy Act of 2020” or in context, “the Energy Act”), for the acquisition of HALEU produced by a commercial entity using enrichment technology and making it available for commercial use or demonstration projects. DOE also evaluated the No Action Alternative. DOE has decided to implement the Proposed Action, its Preferred Alternative, as described in the Final HALEU EIS.</P>
                </SUM>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Questions or comments should be sent to Mr. James Lovejoy, EIS Document Manager, by mail to U.S. Department of Energy, Idaho Operations Office, 1955 Fremont Avenue, MS 1235, Idaho Falls, Idaho 83415; or by email to 
                        <E T="03">HALEU-EIS@nuclear.energy.gov.</E>
                         The Final HALEU EIS and this ROD are available for viewing or download at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.energy.gov/ne/haleu-environmental-impact-statement.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For information regarding the DOE HALEU Availability Program, visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.energy.gov/ne/haleu-availability-program.</E>
                         For information about the HALEU EIS, including the Final HALEU EIS and this ROD, visit 
                        <E T="03">https://www.energy.gov/ne/haleu-environmental-impact-statement,</E>
                         or contact Mr. James Lovejoy at either the mailing address listed in the 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                         section, via email at 
                        <E T="03">HALEU-EIS@nuclear.energy.gov,</E>
                         or by telephone: (208) 526-4519. For general information on DOE's NEPA process, contact Mr. Jason Anderson at the mailing address listed in the 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                         section, via email at 
                        <E T="03">HALEU-EIS@nuclear.energy.gov,</E>
                         or by telephone: (208) 360-3437.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>The Energy Act of 2020 directs DOE to “establish and carry out . . . a program to support the availability of HA-LEU for civilian domestic research, development, demonstration, and commercial use,” 42 U.S.C. 16281(a)(1). The current U.S. commercial power reactor fuel cycle is based on low-enriched uranium (LEU) enriched to less than 5 percent of U-235, but many advanced reactor designs require HALEU.</P>
                <P>
                    HALEU is defined as “uranium having an assay greater than 5.0 weight percent and less than 20.0 weight percent of the uranium-235 isotope,” 42 U.S.C. 16281(d)(4). In the United States, HALEU is currently made, in limited quantities, by blending down DOE stockpiles of highly enriched uranium (HEU) (enriched to 20% or greater), with natural uranium or lower enriched uranium (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     “downblending”). Anticipated demand from research reactors, isotope production facilities, and advanced nuclear reactors will require more HALEU to be produced. DOE has limited capability to produce HALEU by downblending existing surplus stockpiles of HEU. Limited quantities of HALEU are also being produced under DOE contract at the American Centrifuge Plant in Piketon, Ohio, by American Centrifuge Operating, LLC, a wholly owned indirect subsidiary of Centrus Energy Corp. A sufficient commercial capability to produce HALEU through enrichment of natural uranium or LEU to meet anticipated demand does not exist in the United States.
                </P>
                <P>
                    DOE projects that more than 40 metric tons (MT) of HALEU will be needed by 2030 with additional amounts required each year thereafter to deploy a new fleet of advanced reactors in a timeframe 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3196"/>
                    that supports the Administration's 2050 net-zero emissions target. The lack of an adequate domestic, commercial fuel supply could also impede both reactor demonstrations being supported under DOE's Advanced Reactor Demonstration Program and the development of future advanced reactor technologies.
                </P>
                <P>As indicated by many commercial entities that responded to DOE's “Request for Information (RFI) Regarding Planning for Establishment of a Program to Support the Availability of High-Assay Low Enriched Uranium (HALEU) for Civilian Domestic Research, Development, Demonstration, and Commercial Use”, 86 FR 71055 (Dec. 14, 2021), (referred to as the “RFI”), there are potential timing and coordination issues with developing that capability.</P>
                <P>Those interested in designing, building, and operating advanced reactor designs that use HALEU fuel are hesitant to invest in the technology without a firm source of HALEU fuel. Likewise, those interested in providing HALEU fuel are hesitant to invest in facilities without a firm demand. As described in multiple responses to the RFI, this is a “chicken-and-egg” dilemma.</P>
                <P>This concern is a consistent theme in the industry responses to DOE's RFI. Responders emphasized the opportunity for DOE to be an agent for stability (both in assuring industry and the market as to HALEU availability and price certainty) during the initial phase of HALEU fuel production.</P>
                <P>To address this issue, an initial public/private partnership is intended to accelerate development of a sustainable commercial HALEU supply capability. If successful, this partnership could provide the incentive for the private sector to incrementally expand the capacity in a modular fashion as a sustainable market develops.</P>
                <P>
                    In 2023 and early 2024, the DOE Idaho Operations Office published two Requests for Proposals (RFPs) specific to HALEU. One covers DOE's planned acquisition of HALEU as enriched uranium hexafluoride. The other is for deconversion services to deconvert enriched HALEU to other forms, such as metal or oxide, that will be used to fabricate fuels required by many advanced reactor developers. DOE's “Request for Proposals for High-Assay Low-Enriched Uranium (HALEU)—Enrichment Acquisition” (the “Enrichment RFP”) solicited responses from industry regarding DOE's proposal to acquire, through procurement from commercial sources, HALEU as uranium hexafluoride (UF
                    <E T="52">6</E>
                    ) enriched to a minimum of 19.75 and less than 20 weight percent U-235.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The enriched UF
                    <E T="52">6</E>
                     must be deconverted to other forms, like oxide or metal, before it can be fabricated into HALEU fuel or put to other use. DOE's 
                    <E T="03">Request for Proposals for the High-Assay Low-Enriched Uranium (HALEU)—Deconversion Acquisition</E>
                     (the “Deconversion RFP”) solicited responses from industry regarding DOE's proposal to acquire domestic HALEU deconversion services for HALEU and storage until future fuel fabrication.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Purpose and Need for Agency Action</HD>
                <P>
                    The 
                    <E T="03">purpose</E>
                     of the Proposed Action is to fulfill Congressional direction in section 2001(a)(2)(D)(v) of the Energy Act, codified at 42 U.S.C.16281(a)(2)(D)(v), and to facilitate the development of a domestic HALEU fuel cycle through procurement of HALEU. Agency action is 
                    <E T="03">needed</E>
                     to create a supply of HALEU fuel to power advanced reactors. Many advanced reactors are intended to operate using HALEU fuel, but there is currently not sufficient domestic supply of HALEU for these reactors.
                </P>
                <P>The Energy Act of 2020 directs DOE to “establish and carry out, through the Office of Nuclear Energy, a program to support the availability of HA-LEU for civilian domestic research, development, demonstration, and commercial use,” 42 U.S.C. 16281(a)(1). Section 2001(a)(2)(D)(v) of the Energy Act more specifically directs DOE to consider using enrichment technology to make HALEU available for commercial use or demonstration projects, where such HALEU is “produced in the United States by—(I) a United States-owned commercial entity operating United States-origin technology; (II) a United States-owned commercial entity operating a foreign-origin technology; or (III) a foreign-owned entity operating a foreign-origin technology.” 42 U.S.C. 16281(a)(2)(D)(v). Further, section 3131 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2024 (Nuclear Fuel Security Act of 2023), Pub. L. 118-31, 137 Stat. 795, subtitle C, codified at 42 U.S.C. 16282(b), among other things, seeks to expeditiously increase domestic production of HALEU to meet the needs of advanced nuclear reactor developers and the consortium established under section 2001(a) of the Energy Act of 2020, codified at 42 U.S.C. 16281(a).</P>
                <P>There is currently insufficient private incentive to invest in commercial HALEU production due to the current market base. There is also insufficient incentive to invest in commercial deployment of advanced reactors because the domestic HALEU fuel cycle does not exist. Both DOE and industry groups have recognized that DOE action is needed to facilitate the development of the necessary infrastructure, support near-term research and demonstration needs, and support the U.S. commercial nuclear industry. One of the main challenges to establishing a commercial HALEU-based reactor economy is the upfront capital investment required to establish the enrichment capability to produce quantities of HALEU suitable for fabrication into the fuel needed for the various types of advanced reactor designs.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Action</HD>
                <P>The Proposed Action is to acquire, through procurement from commercial sources, HALEU enriched to at least 19.75 and less than 20 weight percent U-235 over a 10-year period of performance, and to facilitate the establishment of commercial HALEU fuel production. The Proposed Action addresses section 2001(a)(2)(D)(v) of the Energy Act of 2020, for the acquisition of HALEU produced by a commercial entity using enrichment technology and making it available for commercial use or demonstration projects.</P>
                <P>
                    The Final HALEU EIS addresses the following activities to facilitate the commercialization of HALEU fuel production and acquisition of up to 290 MT of HALEU under the Proposed Action: (1) mining, extraction, and recovery of uranium ore producing triuranium octoxide (U
                    <E T="52">3</E>
                    O
                    <E T="52">8</E>
                    ) (from in-situ recovery or conventional mining and milling sources); (2) uranium conversion from U
                    <E T="52">3</E>
                    O
                    <E T="52">8</E>
                     to UF
                    <E T="52">6</E>
                     for input to enrichment facilities; (3) enrichment in up to three steps: (a) from natural uranium to LEU of no more than 5 weight percent U-235, (b) from LEU to HALEU greater than 5 and less than 10 weight percent U-235, and (c) to HALEU from 10 to less than 20 weight percent U-235; (4) HALEU deconversion from UF
                    <E T="52">6</E>
                     to uranium oxide, metal, and other forms; (5) storage of HALEU; (6) transportation of uranium/HALEU between facilities; and (7) DOE acquisition of HALEU of between at least 19.75 weight percent and less than 20 weight percent U-235. In addition to the listed activities, the following related actions could result from implementation of the Proposed Action: (1) fuel fabrication for a variety of fuel types; (2) HALEU-fueled reactor (demonstration and test, power, isotope production) operations; and (3) spent fuel storage and disposition.
                </P>
                <P>
                    While the Final HALEU EIS provides information that could be used to 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3197"/>
                    identify impacts from the construction and operation of HALEU fuel cycle facilities, the selection of specific locations and facilities is not a part of the ROD for this EIS.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Alternatives</HD>
                <P>The Final HALEU EIS evaluates potential environmental impacts for the Proposed Action and the No Action Alternative. The No Action Alternative is the status quo, where DOE would not implement the Proposed Action and no sufficient domestic commercial supply of HALEU is available. DOE would not be involved in establishing a commercial HALEU fuel cycle; development of a domestic commercial supply of HALEU would be left to industry.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Potential Environmental Impacts</HD>
                <P>Implementation of the Proposed Action, as well as related activities, would generally have SMALL to MODERATE environmental consequences. In this ROD for this EIS, DOE will make a decision on whether to move forward with the Proposed Action but will not select specific locations or facilities. For this reason, and to bound impacts, DOE analyzed construction and operation of HALEU facilities at existing uranium fuel cycle facilities, other industrial (brownfield) sites, and at undeveloped (greenfield) sites. As explained in more detail in the EIS, DOE's assessment of the potential impacts of the Proposed Action are based on existing NEPA documentation that addresses the construction and operation of existing and proposed fuel cycle (mainly LEU fuel cycle) facilities. This information was reviewed by subject matter experts and used to develop the information regarding the potential impacts of the Proposed Action. This EIS uses assessment ratings for the categorization of the potential environmental impacts. When referring to the degree of environmental impacts, the EIS uses the same impacts assessment rating terminology from the existing NEPA evaluations to the extent possible. For reference, the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) generally defines environmental consequences as:</P>
                <P>• SMALL—The environmental effects are not detectable or are so minor that they will neither destabilize nor noticeably alter any important attribute of the resource.</P>
                <P>• MODERATE—The environmental effects are sufficient to alter noticeably, but not destabilize, important attributes of the resource.</P>
                <P>• LARGE—The environmental effects are clearly noticeable and are sufficient to destabilize important attributes of the resource.</P>
                <P>
                    In general, constructing and operating modified or new HALEU fuel cycle facilities at 
                    <E T="03">existing facilities</E>
                     results in estimated potential environmental consequences that range from mostly SMALL to MODERATE. Most MODERATE consequences are associated with construction activities and not the HALEU operations or production-related processes.
                </P>
                <P>Overall, constructing and operating all-new HALEU fuel cycle facilities at previously developed industrial sites (brownfield sites) or previously undeveloped locations (greenfield sites) could also result in estimated potential environmental consequences that range from SMALL to MODERATE. The MODERATE consequences are associated with the uncertainties of the specific characteristics (particularly the presence of ecological and historic and cultural resources) of the site relative to construction and not the HALEU operations or production-related processes. Construction activities are usually transient in nature and mitigations would be expected to be incorporated, as appropriate, to minimize potential consequences, as part of the required regulatory licensing, permitting, and associated NEPA or equivalent evaluation processes. Therefore, as discussed in the Final HALEU EIS, the majority of potential environmental consequences would likely range from SMALL to MODERATE.</P>
                <P>
                    Although DOE did not select specific locations or facilities in this ROD, implementation of the Proposed Action could result in HALEU fuel cycle facilities being sited at various locations in the future. The environmental impacts of such HALEU fuel cycle facilities are expected to be evaluated by the appropriate regulatory authority (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     the NRC, other Federal agencies or Agreement States). Such site-specific environmental evaluations are expected to identify the specific impacts that might occur. Further, DOE expects the relevant regulatory agency would determine, consistent with the Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ) regulations at 40 CFR 1501.11 related to tiering, to what extent this EIS could be utilized to support site-specific environmental reviews.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         DOE is aware of the November 12, 2024, decision in 
                        <E T="03">Marin Audubon Society</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Federal Aviation Administration,</E>
                         No. 23-1067 (D.C. Cir. Nov. 12, 2024). To the extent that a court may conclude that the CEQ regulations implementing NEPA are not judicially enforceable or binding on this agency action, DOE has nonetheless elected to follow those regulations at 40 CFR parts 1500-1508, in addition to DOE's regulations implementing NEPA at 10 CFR part 1021 to meet DOE's obligations under NEPA, 42 U.S.C. 4321 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmentally Preferable Alternative</HD>
                <P>The No Action Alternative serves as the status quo, where DOE would not implement the Proposed Action and no sufficient domestic commercial supply of HALEU is available. Overall and at least in the short term, the No Action Alternative would have fewer potential adverse environmental effects than the Proposed Action because construction and operation of HALEU fuel cycle facilities would not occur. Development of a domestic commercial supply of HALEU would be left to industry, which could result in fewer, short-term, domestic impacts than under the Proposed Action Alternative. Therefore, the No Action Alternative would be the Environmentally Preferable Alternative. However, the No Action Alternative would not meet the purpose and need to establish a program to support the availability of HALEU for civilian domestic research, development, demonstration, and commercial use, and may not result in the potential long-term environmental benefits, identified in the EIS, of the Proposed Action.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments on the Final HALEU EIS</HD>
                <P>During the development of the Final HALEU EIS, DOE considered all the alternatives, information, analyses, and objections submitted by state, Tribal, and local governments as well as public commenters.</P>
                <P>DOE made more than 4,000 notifications of the completion and availability of the Final HALEU EIS to Congressional members and committees; all fifty United States; Tribal governments and organizations; local governments; other Federal agencies; non-governmental organizations; and individuals. Following issuance of the Final HALEU EIS, DOE received five comments.</P>
                <P>
                    As part of the comments received on the Final HALEU EIS, a non-profit organization requested DOE refrain from issuing a ROD on the Final HALEU EIS until a Nonproliferation Impact Assessment (NPIA) has been prepared. This non-profit group further requested that its comments be added to the EIS record and that the requested NPIA be available for public review and comment. DOE received similar requests from this organization during the scoping and public comment periods and addressed these comments in the Final HALEU EIS. This organization submitted two identical comments on the Final EIS by email and U.S. Mail.
                    <PRTPAGE P="3198"/>
                </P>
                <P>As noted in the EIS, DOE acknowledges that the widescale deployment of HALEU fuels, which could be facilitated by the Proposed Action, presents different proliferation challenges than the use of LEU. DOE will continue working with industry, the NRC, and the IAEA to further assess potential risks associated with a commercial HALEU fuel cycle, and the National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA) will continue to strengthen its cooperation with industry to enhance the security and safeguards of new HALEU-based reactor designs. At the same time, DOE assesses that adequate structures are in place to manage the evolving proliferation challenges to acceptable levels and the benefits of using HALEU fuels in advanced reactors outweigh the potential proliferation risks.</P>
                <P>Consistent with NNSA's and DOE's consideration of, and discussion regarding, nonproliferation in the EIS, NNSA and DOE have concluded that the preparation of an NPIA is not necessary prior to the issuance of a ROD.</P>
                <P>DOE received one comment by email from a NEPA reviewer in the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency's (EPA) Region 9 Environmental Review Section seeking clarification as to the location of the HALEU acquisition. In response, DOE stated that DOE does not have site-specific information that is ripe to analyze in a NEPA document, and as the Final EIS states, DOE will not select specific locations and facilities as a part of the Record of Decision for this EIS.</P>
                <P>DOE also received comments on the Final HALEU EIS from the EPA Office of Federal Activities. This office previously submitted comments on the Draft HALEU EIS, which are available for review in Volume 3 of the Final HALEU EIS (Comment ID: 56). In response to the comments received on the Draft HALEU EIS, DOE engaged in follow-on discussions with EPA staff, which informed changes that DOE made in the Final HALEU EIS.</P>
                <P>
                    In their comments on the Final HALEU EIS, EPA acknowledged DOE's revisions in response to EPA's comments on the Draft HALEU EIS, but further recommended incorporating site-specific monitoring data for mining and milling activities. In their comments on the Draft HALEU EIS, EPA also recommended that environmental monitoring information from mining and milling operations at existing facilities be incorporated. As stated in DOE's response to EPA Comment 0056-1 on the Draft HALEU EIS, the Proposed Action involves numerous actions (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     mining, enrichment, deconversion, etc.) and does not propose to select site-specific locations. Given the potential possibilities of all actions and locations, it would not be reasonable to accumulate and assess operating and environmental data for all potential activities.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In its comments on the Final HALEU EIS, EPA recommended clearly disclosing the uncertainty associated with not utilizing monitoring data for mining and milling facilities assessed in the EIS. In preparing the HALEU EIS, DOE reviewed numerous NEPA documents, including those for uranium mining and milling facilities, to establish estimated ranges of the potential impacts of mining and milling activities to support the Proposed Action. DOE acknowledges the uncertainties associated with the estimated ranges of potential environmental consequences as specific sites and actions are not known. DOE expects that once sites are identified, site-specific information, including environmental monitoring data, would be used by the appropriate regulatory authority during the licensing and permitting processes. Further, in response to comments on the Draft HALEU EIS regarding legacy health issues related to historic uranium mining, milling, and enrichment practices, DOE reviewed a limited amount of monitoring data (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     White Mesa Mill) (see Volume 3, Comment Response 56-21) and determined that the data was not inconsistent with the associated NEPA documents' estimated ranges of potential impacts. DOE understands and agrees that the uranium mining and milling portion of the Proposed Action is rapidly evolving due to international policies and increased demand for a domestic uranium supply; the estimated potential environmental impacts associated with these activities are uncertain; and, as discussed in the Final HALEU EIS, they have the potential to be large for some resources at some locations.
                </P>
                <P>In addition to concerns about site-specific monitoring data for mining and milling activities, EPA recommended DOE pursue consultation with the Ute Mountain Ute Tribe on future actions at White Mesa Mill as it is the only operational conventional uranium mill in the United States. Although the Ute Mountain Ute Tribe did not request consultation on the HALEU EIS, DOE participated in interagency consultation with Ute Mountain Ute Tribal officials, NNSA, EPA, NRC, Senator John Hickenlooper, and the State of Utah regarding the Tribe's concerns about While Mesa Mill in August 2023. During this consultation meeting, the Ute Mountain Ute Tribe expressed concerns about drinking water quality, air quality, health and safety of mill workers, lack of notification for the receipt of materials at the mill, and continued operations at White Mesa Mill despite an initial 15-year operation window. After hearing the Ute Mountain Ute Tribe's concerns, DOE presented information on the HALEU EIS and other Federal actions that could potentially impact future activities at the mill. Ute Mountain Ute Tribal officials did not express specific concerns related to the HALEU EIS, but had general questions on the presentation, which were addressed. DOE continues to extend an opportunity for all Tribes, including the Ute Mountain Ute Tribe, to share feedback and concerns or ask questions related to the HALEU EIS through government-to-government consultation as requested.</P>
                <P>EPA further recommended DOE include mitigation measures informed by the Ute Mountain Ute Tribe in the ROD. Since DOE's Proposed Action and ROD do not include site selection activities, there are no specific actions at White Mesa Mill upon which to include mitigation measures. However, should specific actions concerning the White Mesa Mill be identified in the future, consultations with the Ute Mountain Ute Tribe and any associated mitigation measures would be expected to be conducted consistent with all applicable laws and regulations by the cognizant regulating authority.</P>
                <P>
                    In EPA's final comment, the agency recommended that additional information be provided in section 4.3.2 of the Final HALEU EIS to support the project's social cost of greenhouse gases (SC-GHG) analysis, including (1) the project time horizon, (2) the year the stream of SC-GHG values is discounted to, and (3) the application of different discount rates. This information is available in Section A.8, 
                    <E T="03">Greenhouse Gas Emissions Calculations,</E>
                     in Volume 2 of the Final HALEU EIS. EPA also recommended that the SC-GHG analysis be based on three separate greenhouse gases (GHGs), rather than on carbon dioxide equivalents (CO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    e). As stated in DOE's response to EPA Comment 0056-24 on the Draft HALEU EIS, all GHGs estimated because of implementation of the Proposed Action would occur from the combustion of gasoline, diesel, or natural gas in construction and operational equipment, trucks, or worker commuter vehicles. Roughly 99 percent of the CO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    e emitted from these sources would occur in the form of carbon dioxide. Therefore, reporting each individual GHG, including methane and nitrous oxide emissions, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3199"/>
                    would not substantially add to the precision of the project CO
                    <E T="52">2</E>
                    e emissions or SC-GHG calculations. Appendix A, section 8, tables A-20 and A-21 of the Final HALEU EIS show that the project SC-GHG analysis is based only on carbon dioxide emissions.
                </P>
                <P>DOE also received one comment from a member of the public expressing opposition. This commenter did not specifically oppose the Proposed Action or reasonably foreseeable activities but, instead, expressed general opposition against nuclear programs and technologies.</P>
                <P>
                    DOE considered the comments received following issuance of the Final HALEU EIS and finds that they do not present “substantial new circumstances or information about the significance of adverse effects that bear on the analysis” 40 CFR 1502.9(d)
                    <E T="03">; see also</E>
                     10 CFR 1021.314(a); therefore, they do not require preparation of a supplement analysis or a supplemental EIS.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Decision</HD>
                <P>As discussed in the Final HALEU EIS, the EIS provides information to support decisions regarding whether or not to acquire HALEU from commercial sources and to facilitate commercial HALEU fuel production capability. DOE has decided to implement the Proposed Action, its Preferred Alternative, as described in the Final HALEU EIS. DOE's Preferred Alternative is to acquire, through procurement from commercial sources, HALEU enriched to at least 19.75 and less than 20 weight percent U-235 over a 10-year period of performance, and to facilitate the establishment of commercial HALEU fuel production.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Basis of Decision</HD>
                <P>The Final HALEU EIS provided DOE decision-makers with important information regarding potential environmental impacts of alternatives and options for satisfying the purpose and need. DOE's decision to implement the Proposed Action is based on consideration of Congressional direction, the need for agency action, the potential environmental impacts (including beneficial impacts related to climate change), as well as other factors, including public comments, strategic objectives, technology needs, safeguards and security, cost, and schedule.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Mitigation Measures</HD>
                <P>As stated in this EIS, decisions regarding locations of specific activities are not part of the Proposed Action. Therefore, no location-specific mitigation measures are identified in this ROD.</P>
                <P>
                    However, implementation of the Proposed Action could result in HALEU fuel cycle facilities being sited at various locations. The environmental impacts of such HALEU fuel cycle facilities are expected to be evaluated by the appropriate regulatory authority (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     the NRC, other Federal agencies, or Agreement States). Such site-specific environmental evaluations would be expected to identify mitigation measures and/or the implementation of best management practices to reduce impacts. Mitigation measures, if needed, would be expected to be executed and tracked as required.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Signing Authority</HD>
                <P>
                    This document of the Department of Energy was signed on December 20, 2024, by K. Michael Goff, Principal Deputy Assistant Secretary for Nuclear Energy, pursuant to delegated authority from the Secretary of Energy. That document with the original signature and date is maintained by DOE. For administrative purposes only, and in compliance with requirements of the Office of the Federal Register, the undersigned DOE Federal Register Liaison Officer has been authorized to sign and submit the document in electronic format for publication, as an official document of DOE. This administrative process in no way alters the legal effect of this document upon publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Signed in Washington, DC, on January 8, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jennifer Hartzell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Alternate Federal Register Liaison Officer, U.S. Department of Energy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00610 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6450-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Environmental Management Site-Specific Advisory Board, Hanford</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Environmental Management, Department of Energy.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of open meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This notice announces a hybrid meeting of the Environmental Management Site-Specific Advisory Board (EM SSAB), Hanford. The Federal Advisory Committee Act requires that public notice of this meeting be announced in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>Wednesday, February 12, 2025; 8 a.m.-3 p.m. PST.</P>
                    <P>Thursday, February 13, 2025; 8 a.m.-3 p.m. PST.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>The Holiday Inn Express &amp; Suites, 4525 Convention Place, Pasco, Washington 99301. This hybrid meeting will be held in-person at the Holiday Inn Express &amp; Suites and virtually. To receive the virtual access information and call-in number, please contact the Designated Federal Officer, Kelly Snyder, at the telephone number or email listed below at least five days prior to the meeting.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Kelly Snyder, Designated Federal Officer, U.S. Department of Energy, Office of Environmental Management; Phone: (702) 918-6715; or Email: 
                        <E T="03">kelly.snyder@em.doe.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Purpose of the Board:</E>
                     The purpose of the Board is to provide advice and recommendations concerning the following EM site-specific issues: clean-up activities and environmental restoration; waste and nuclear materials management and disposition; excess facilities; future land use and long-term stewardship. The Board may also be asked to provide advice and recommendations on any EM program components.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Tentative Agenda:</E>
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">○ Consideration of Draft Advice:</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2"> Fiscal Year 2027 Cleanup Priorities</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">○ Tri-Party Agreement Agencies' Updates</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">○ Board Business</FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Public Participation:</E>
                     The meeting is open to the public. The EM SSAB, Hanford, welcomes the attendance of the public at its advisory committee meetings and will make every effort to accommodate persons with physical disabilities or special needs. If you require special accommodations due to a disability, please contact Kelly Snyder at least seven days in advance of the meeting at the telephone number listed above. Written statements may be filed with the Board either before or within five business days after the meeting. Individuals who wish to make oral statements pertaining to agenda items should contact Kelly Snyder. Requests must be received five days prior to the meeting and reasonable provision will be made to include the presentation in the agenda. The Designated Federal Officer is empowered to conduct the meeting in a fashion that will facilitate the orderly conduct of business. Individuals wishing to make public comments will be provided a maximum of five minutes to present their comments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Minutes:</E>
                     Minutes will be available at the following website: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.hanford.gov/page.cfm/hab/FullBoardMeetingInformation.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Signing Authority:</E>
                     This document of the Department of Energy was signed on 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3200"/>
                    January 7, 2025, by David Borak, Committee Management Officer, pursuant to delegated authority from the Secretary of Energy. That document with the original signature and date is maintained by DOE. For administrative purposes only, and in compliance with requirements of the Office of the Federal Register, the undersigned DOE Federal Register Liaison Officer has been authorized to sign and submit the document in electronic format for publication, as an official document of the Department of Energy. This administrative process in no way alters the legal effect of this document upon publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Signed in Washington, DC, on January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Jennifer Hartzell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Alternate Federal Register Liaison Officer, U.S. Department of Energy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00528 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6450-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. CP25-19-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Southern Star Central Gas Pipeline, Inc.; Notice of Scoping Period Requesting Comments on Environmental Issues for the Proposed Cedar Vale Compressor Station Project</SUBJECT>
                <P>The staff of the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC or Commission) will prepare an environmental document, that will discuss the environmental impacts of the proposed Cedar Vale Compressor Station Project (Cedar Vale Project) involving the construction and operation of facilities by Southern Star Central Gas Pipeline, Inc. (Southern Star) in Osage County, Oklahoma. The Commission will use this environmental document in its decision-making process to determine whether the project is in the public convenience and necessity.</P>
                <P>This notice announces the opening of the scoping process the Commission will use to gather input from the public and interested agencies regarding the project. As part of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) review process, the Commission takes into account concerns the public may have about proposals and the environmental impacts that could result from its action whenever it considers the issuance of a Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity. This gathering of public input is referred to as “scoping.” The main goal of the scoping process is to focus the analysis in the environmental document on the important environmental issues. Additional information about the Commission's NEPA process is described below in the NEPA Process and Environmental Document section of this notice.</P>
                <P>By this notice, the Commission requests public comments on the scope of issues to address in the environmental document. To ensure that your comments are timely and properly recorded, please submit your comments so that the Commission receives them in Washington, DC on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern Time on Thursday, February 6, 2025. Comments may be submitted in written form. Further details on how to submit comments are provided in the Public Participation section of this notice.</P>
                <P>Your comments should focus on the potential environmental effects, reasonable alternatives, and measures to avoid or lessen environmental impacts. Your input will help the Commission staff determine what issues they need to evaluate in the environmental document. Commission staff will consider all written comments during the preparation of the environmental document.</P>
                <P>If you submitted comments on this project to the Commission before the opening of this docket on November 18, 2024, you will need to file those comments in Docket No. CP25-19-000 to ensure they are considered as part of this proceeding.</P>
                <P>This notice is being sent to the Commission's current environmental mailing list for this project. State and local government representatives should notify their constituents of this proposed project and encourage them to comment on their areas of concern.</P>
                <P>If you are a landowner receiving this notice, a pipeline company representative may contact you about the acquisition of an easement to construct, operate, and maintain the proposed facilities. The company would seek to negotiate a mutually acceptable easement agreement. You are not required to enter into an agreement. However, if the Commission approves the project, the Natural Gas Act conveys the right of eminent domain to the company. Therefore, if you and the company do not reach an easement agreement, the pipeline company could initiate condemnation proceedings in court. In such instances, compensation would be determined by a judge in accordance with State law. The Commission does not subsequently grant, exercise, or oversee the exercise of that eminent domain authority. The courts have exclusive authority to handle eminent domain cases; the Commission has no jurisdiction over these matters.</P>
                <P>
                    Southern Star provided landowners with a fact sheet prepared by the FERC entitled “An Interstate Natural Gas Facility On My Land? What Do I Need To Know?” which addresses typically asked questions, including the use of eminent domain and how to participate in the Commission's proceedings. This fact sheet along with other landowner topics of interest are available for viewing on the FERC website (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ) under the Natural Gas, Landowner Topics link.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Participation</HD>
                <P>
                    There are three methods you can use to submit your comments to the Commission. Please carefully follow these instructions so that your comments are properly recorded. The Commission encourages electronic filing of comments and has staff available to assist you at (866) 208-3676 or 
                    <E T="03">FercOnlineSupport@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    (1) You can file your comments electronically using the eComment feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ) under the link to FERC Online. Using eComment is an easy method for submitting brief, text-only comments on a project;
                </P>
                <P>
                    (2) You can file your comments electronically by using the eFiling feature, which is located on the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ) under the link to FERC Online. With eFiling, you can provide comments in a variety of formats by attaching them as a file with your submission. New eFiling users must first create an account by clicking on “eRegister.” You will be asked to select the type of filing you are making; a comment on a particular project is considered a “Comment on a Filing”; or
                </P>
                <P>(3) You can file a paper copy of your comments by mailing them to the Commission. Be sure to reference the project docket number (CP25-19-000) on your letter. Submissions sent via the U.S. Postal Service must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426. Submissions sent via any other carrier must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, Maryland 20852.</P>
                <P>
                    Additionally, the Commission offers a free service called eSubscription which makes it easy to stay informed of all issuances and submittals regarding the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3201"/>
                    dockets/projects to which you subscribe. These instant email notifications are the fastest way to receive notification and provide a link to the document files which can reduce the amount of time you spend researching proceedings. Go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/ferc-online/overview</E>
                     to register for eSubscription.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of the Proposed Project</HD>
                <P>Southern Star proposes to construct and operate a new natural gas compressor station to be known as the Cedar Vale Compressor Station in Osage County, Oklahoma. The Cedar Vale Project would facilitate the delivery of approximately 98,000 dekatherms per day of natural gas to customers in Kansas and Missouri. According to Southern Star, the Cedar Vale Project is necessary to increase the capacity of its existing natural gas transmission system.</P>
                <P>The Cedar Vale Project would consist of the following facilities:</P>
                <P>• a new 6,091-horsepower Solar Centaur 50 turbine compressor unit;</P>
                <P>• approximately 1,028 feet of associated piping; and</P>
                <P>• other appurtenant facilities including vales, tanks, control systems, fencing, and security equipment.</P>
                <P>
                    The general location of the project facilities is shown in appendix 1.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         The appendices referenced in this notice will not appear in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . Copies of the appendices were sent to all those receiving this notice in the mail and are available at 
                        <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                         using the link called “eLibrary.” For instructions on connecting to eLibrary, refer to the last page of this notice. For assistance, contact FERC at 
                        <E T="03">FERCOnlineSupport@ferc.gov</E>
                         or call toll free, (886) 208-3676 or TTY (202) 502-8659.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Land Requirements for Construction</HD>
                <P>Construction of the proposed facilities would disturb about 12.23 acres of land. Following construction, Southern Star would maintain about 7.78 acres of land to operate the Cedar Vale Project. The remaining acreage would be restored and allowed to revert to former uses.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">NEPA Process and the Environmental Document</HD>
                <P>Any environmental document issued by the Commission will discuss impacts that could occur as a result of the construction and operation of the proposed project under the relevant general resource areas:</P>
                <P>• geology and soils;</P>
                <P>• water resources and wetlands;</P>
                <P>• vegetation and wildlife;</P>
                <P>• threatened and endangered species;</P>
                <P>• cultural resources;</P>
                <P>• land use;</P>
                <P>• socioeconomics;</P>
                <P>• environmental justice;</P>
                <P>• air quality and noise; and</P>
                <P>• reliability and safety.</P>
                <P>
                    Based on comments received to date, Commission staff have already identified alternative project locations as an issue that deserves attention. Southern Star has identified two alternate locations for the Cedar Vale Project (Alternative A and Alternative B).
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Appendix 1 shows the alternate locations in relation the preferred or proposed location. Alternative A is approximately 8 miles east-northeast of the proposed location on the east side of 4 Acre Road/337th Road in Cowley County, Kansas. Alternative B is approximately 7.5 miles east-northeast of Alternative A on the west side of Road 6 in Chautauqua County, Kansas.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         See accession no. 20241118-5109 on eLibrary: Alternatives (Public—Volume 1—Exhibit F-1—RR10.pdf) and Figures 13-16 in Appendix 1A (Public—Volume 1—Exhibit F-1—RR1.pdf).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Commission staff will evaluate reasonable alternatives to the proposed project or portions of the project and make recommendations on how to lessen or avoid impacts on the various resource areas. Your comments will help Commission staff identify and focus on the issues that might have an effect on the human environment and potentially eliminate others from further study and discussion in the environmental document.</P>
                <P>
                    Following this scoping period, Commission staff will determine whether to prepare an Environmental Assessment (EA) or an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS). The EA or the EIS will present Commission staff's independent analysis of the issues. If Commission staff prepares an EA, a Notice of Schedule for the Preparation of an Environmental Assessment will be issued. The EA may be issued for an allotted public comment period. The Commission would consider timely comments on the EA before making its decision regarding the proposed project. If Commission staff prepares an EIS, a Notice of Intent to Prepare an EIS/Notice of Schedule will be issued, which will open up an additional comment period. Staff will then prepare a draft EIS which will be issued for public comment. Commission staff will consider all timely comments received during the comment period on the draft EIS and revise the document, as necessary, before issuing a final EIS. Any EA or draft and final EIS will be available in electronic format in the public record through eLibrary 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and the Commission's natural gas environmental documents web page (
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/industries-data/natural-gas/environment/environmental-documents</E>
                    ). If eSubscribed, you will receive instant email notification when the environmental document is issued.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         For instructions on connecting to eLibrary, refer to the last page of this notice.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    With this notice, the Commission is asking agencies with jurisdiction by law and/or special expertise with respect to the environmental issues of this project to formally cooperate in the preparation of the environmental document.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Agencies that would like to request cooperating agency status should follow the instructions for filing comments provided under the Public Participation section of this notice.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The Council on Environmental Quality regulations addressing cooperating agency responsibilities are at title 40, Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), section 1501.8.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Consultation Under Section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation's implementing regulations for section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act, the Commission is using this notice to initiate consultation with the applicable State Historic Preservation Office(s), and to solicit their views and those of other government agencies, interested Indian Tribes, and the public on the project's potential effects on historic properties.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The environmental document for this project will document findings on the impacts on historic properties and summarize the status of consultations under section 106.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The Advisory Council on Historic Preservation's regulations are at 36 CFR part 800. Those regulations define historic properties as any prehistoric or historic district, site, building, structure, or object included in or eligible for inclusion in the National Register of Historic Places.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Environmental Mailing List</HD>
                <P>
                    The environmental mailing list includes Federal, State, and local government representatives and agencies; elected officials; environmental and public interest 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3202"/>
                    groups; Native American Tribes; other interested parties; and local libraries and newspapers. This list also includes all affected landowners (as defined in the Commission's regulations) who are potential right-of-way grantors, whose property may be used temporarily for project purposes, or who own homes within certain distances of aboveground facilities, and anyone who submits comments on the project and includes a mailing address with their comments. Commission staff will update the environmental mailing list as the analysis proceeds to ensure that Commission notices related to this environmental review are sent to all individuals, organizations, and government entities interested in and/or potentially affected by the proposed project.
                </P>
                <P>If you need to make changes to your name/address, or if you would like to remove your name from the mailing list, please complete one of the following steps:</P>
                <P>
                    (1) Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">GasProjectAddressChange@ferc.gov</E>
                     stating your request. You must include the docket number CP25-19-000 in your request. If you are requesting a change to your address, please be sure to include your name and the correct address. If you are requesting to delete your address from the mailing list, please include your name and address as it appeared on this notice. This email address is unable to accept comments. OR
                </P>
                <P>Return the attached “Mailing List Update Form” (appendix 2).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Additional Information</HD>
                <P>
                    Additional information about the project is available from the Commission's Office of External Affairs, at (866) 208-FERC, or on the FERC website at 
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                     using the eLibrary link. Click on the eLibrary link, click on “General Search” and enter the docket number in the “Docket Number” field. Be sure you have selected an appropriate date range. For assistance, please contact FERC Online Support at 
                    <E T="03">FercOnlineSupport@ferc.gov</E>
                     or (866) 208-3676, or for TTY, contact (202) 502-8659. The eLibrary link also provides access to the texts of all formal documents issued by the Commission, such as orders, notices, and rulemakings.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Public sessions or site visits will be posted on the Commission's calendar located at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/news-events/events</E>
                     along with other related information.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00577 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Combined Notice of Filings</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission has received the following Natural Gas Pipeline Rate and Refund Report filings:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Filings Instituting Proceedings</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-344-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     ANR Pipeline Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: Probability of Default to be effective 2/6/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     1/6/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250106-5185.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 1/21/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     RP25-345-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Rockies Express Pipeline LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 4(d) Rate Filing: REX 2025-01-06 Negotiated Rate Agreement Amendment to be effective 1/4/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     1/6/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250106-5217.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 1/21/25.
                </P>
                <P>Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.</P>
                <P>
                    The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
                    <E T="03">https://elibrary.ferc.gov/idmws/search/fercgensearch.asp</E>
                    ) by querying the docket number.
                </P>
                <P>
                    eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/filing-req.pdf.</E>
                     For other information, call (866) 208-3676 (toll free). For TTY, call (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00578 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Privacy Act of 1974; System of Records</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC), Department of Energy (DOE).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Rescindment of a system of records.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>Pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974 and Office of Management and Budget (OMB) Circular No. A-108, the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (Commission or FERC) proposes to rescind an existing system of records notice (SORN). Specifically, the following SORN is being proposed for rescindment “Commission Employee Performance Files (FERC—38)”. The basis for rescindment is explained below.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments on this rescindment notice must be received no later than 30 days after the date of publication in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . If no public comment is received during the period allowed for comment or unless otherwise published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         by FERC, the rescindment will become effective a minimum of 30 days after the date of publication in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . If FERC receives public comments, FERC shall review the comments to determine whether any changes to the notice are necessary.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments may be submitted in writing to Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426 or electronically to 
                        <E T="03">privacy@ferc.gov.</E>
                         Comments should indicate that they are submitted in response to “
                        <E T="03">Commission Employee Performance Files (FERC—38).”</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Sidney Chapman, Director, Workforce Relations Division, Chief Human Capital Officer (CHCO), Office of the Executive Director, Federal Energy Regulatory 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3203"/>
                        Commission, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426, (202) 502-6475.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>“Commission Employee Performance Files (FERC—38)” was identified for rescindment from FERC's Privacy Act systems of records inventory because the system of records is duplicative, and the records are covered by a government-wide System of Records Notice (SORN). OMB requires that each agency provide assurance that system of records do not duplicate any existing agency or government-wide system of records. The Commission is rescinding this SORN because the records are covered by OPM/GOVT-2, Employee Performance File System Records, 87 FR 5874 (February 2, 2022). </P>
                <PRIACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">SYSTEM NAME AND NUMBER:</HD>
                    <P>Commission Employee Performance Files (FERC-38).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">HISTORY:</HD>
                    <P>65 FR 21754 (April 24, 2000).</P>
                </PRIACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00575 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Project No. 2698-149]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Duke Energy Carolinas, LLC; Notice of Effectiveness of Withdrawal of Application for Amendment of License</SUBJECT>
                <P>On August 14, 2024, Duke Energy Carolinas, LLC (licensee), filed an application for a non-capacity amendment of the license for the Bear Creek Development of the East Fork Hydroelectric Project No. 2698. On December 13, 2024, the licensee filed a notice withdrawing the amendment application. The Bear Creek Development, one of three developments within the East Fork Hydroelectric Project, is located on the East Fork of the Tuckasegee River in Jackson County, North Carolina.</P>
                <P>
                    No motion in opposition to the notice of withdrawal has been filed, and the Commission has taken no action to disallow the withdrawal. Accordingly, pursuant to Rule 216(b) of the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     the withdrawal of the application became effective on December 30, 2024.
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         18 CFR 385.216(b) (2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         The Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure provide that if a filing deadline falls on a Saturday, Sunday, holiday, or other day when the Commission is closed for business, the filing deadline does not end until the close of business on the next business day. 18 CFR 385.2007(a)(2) (2024). Because the filing deadline falls on a Saturday (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         December 28, 2024), the filing deadline is extended until the close of business on Monday, December 30, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 6, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00517 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Combined Notice of Filings #1</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the Commission received the following electric rate filings:</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER19-1074-020; ER10-1427-014; ER19-1075-020; ER19-529-020; ER16-2527-007; ER12-1504-010; ER22-192-012; ER17-2-008; ER20-1487-006; ER12-1502-010; ER14-25-024; ER23-1889-002.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Sweetland Wind Farm, LLC, Prairie Breeze Wind Energy LLC, Ironwood Windpower, LLC, Frontier Windpower II, LLC, Frontier Windpower, LLC, Evolugen Trading and Marketing LP, Cimarron Windpower II, LLC, Caprock Solar I LLC, Brookfield Renewable Trading and Marketing LP, Brookfield Renewable Energy Marketing US LLC, Brookfield Energy Marketing LP, Brookfield Energy Marketing Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Triennial Market Power Analysis for Southwest Power Pool Inc. Region of Brookfield Energy Marketing Inc., et al.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     12/31/24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20241231-5470.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 3/3/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-865-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: Original NSA Service Agreement No. 7476; Queue No. AA1-145 to be effective 3/7/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     1/6/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250106-5202.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 1/27/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-866-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     New England Power Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: NGRD Req for Order re: Full Abandonment Cost Recovery &amp; Req for CEII Treatment to be effective 3/8/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     1/6/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250106-5203.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 1/27/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-867-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2025-01-07_SA 3489 Duke-Speedway Solar 3rd Rev GIA (J805) to be effective 1/2/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     1/7/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250107-5020.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 1/28/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-868-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Michigan Electric Transmission Company, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2025-01-07_SA 1926 METC-CE 11th Rev DTIA to be effective 1/1/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     1/7/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250107-5024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 1/28/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-869-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     The Connecticut Light and Power Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Amendment: Cancel- BPUS Generation Development LLC—Engineering and Test Agreement to be effective 1/8/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     1/7/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250107-5040.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 1/28/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-870-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     The Connecticut Light and Power Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Amendment: Cancel—BPUS Generation Development LLC—Engineering and Design Agreement to be effective 1/8/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     1/7/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250107-5051.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 1/28/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-871-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2025-01-07_SA 3258 Big Rivers Electric-Clover Creek Solar 2nd Rev GIA (J753) to be effective 12/30/2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     1/7/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250107-5080.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 1/28/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-872-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     American Transmission Company LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: 2025-01-07_SA 4425 ATC-Baraga DTIA to be effective 1/8/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     1/7/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250107-5090.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 1/28/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-873-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     Consumers Energy Company.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     § 205(d) Rate Filing: WDS Service Agreement with Alpena Power Company to be effective 1/1/2025.
                    <PRTPAGE P="3204"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     1/7/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250107-5126.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 1/28/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket Numbers:</E>
                     ER25-874-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Applicants:</E>
                     PJM Interconnection, L.L.C.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Tariff Amendment: Notice of Cancellation of ISA, SA No. 7125; AE2-195 re: Withdrawal to be effective 3/9/2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Filed Date:</E>
                     1/7/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Accession Number:</E>
                     20250107-5140.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comment Date:</E>
                     5 p.m. ET 1/28/25.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The filings are accessible in the Commission's eLibrary system (
                    <E T="03">https://elibrary.ferc.gov/idmws/search/fercgensearch.asp</E>
                    ) by querying the docket number.
                </P>
                <P>Any person desiring to intervene, to protest, or to answer a complaint in any of the above proceedings must file in accordance with Rules 211, 214, or 206 of the Commission's Regulations (18 CFR 385.211, 385.214, or 385.206) on or before 5:00 p.m. Eastern time on the specified comment date. Protests may be considered, but intervention is necessary to become a party to the proceeding.</P>
                <P>
                    eFiling is encouraged. More detailed information relating to filing requirements, interventions, protests, service, and qualifying facilities filings can be found at: 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/efiling/filing-req.pdf.</E>
                     For other information, call (866) 208-3676 (toll free). For TTY, call (202) 502-8659.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Carlos D. Clay,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Deputy Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00579 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Project No. 1988-104]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Pacific Gas &amp; Electric Company; Notice of Intent To Prepare an Environmental Assessment</SUBJECT>
                <P>On November 8, 2024, Pacific Gas &amp; Electric Company filed an application for a temporary variance from Article 402 for the Haas-Kings Hydroelectric Project No. 1988. The project is located on the North Fork Kings River in Fresno County, California. The project does occupy Federal lands.</P>
                <P>The licensee requests a temporary variance of the release requirements under Article 402 that require it, in part, to release from the Kings penstock into Dinkey Creek a minimum flow in dry water years of 15 cubic feet per second (cfs), and from December 1 through May 31 in wet or normal water year types, as measured at gaging station the discharge point (KI-31), and to ensure a minimum of 25 cfs in the North Fork Kings River downstream of Dinkey Creek. With the variance, the licensee proposes to eliminate the 15 cfs supplemental flow releases from January 6 through May 31, 2025, to dewater the Kings River tunnel and penstock to enable the replacement and testing of a turbine shut-off valve. The licensee states that natural flows will still be present in Dinkey Creek through this time and that it will ensure the minimum requirement of 25 cfs in the North Fork Kings River will be maintained during the variance period.</P>
                <P>The Commission filed the notice of application for filing, soliciting comments, motions to intervene, and protests for this variance request on December 16, 2024. The public comment period will close on January 15, 2025.</P>
                <P>
                    This notice identifies Commission staff's intention to prepare an environmental assessment (EA) for the project.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Commission staff plans to issue an EA by February 28, 2025. Revisions to the schedule may be made as appropriate.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         In accordance with the Council on Environmental Quality's regulations, the unique identification number for documents relating to this environmental review is EAXX-019-20-000-1735547792. 40 CFR 1501.5(c)(4) (2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members, and others to access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Any questions regarding this notice may be directed to Katherine Schmidt at (415) 369-3348 or 
                    <E T="03">katherine.schmidt@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 6, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00519 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <P>The following notice of meeting is published pursuant to section 3(a) of the government in the Sunshine Act (Pub. L. No. 94-409), 5 U.S.C. 552b: </P>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">TIME AND DATE:</HD>
                    <P> January 16, 2025, 10:00 a.m. </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PLACE:</HD>
                    <P> Room 2C, 888 First Street NE, Washington, DC 20426.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">STATUS:</HD>
                    <P> Open to the public. </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">MATTERS TO BE CONSIDERED:</HD>
                    <P> Agenda. </P>
                    <P>* NOTE—Items listed on the agenda may be deleted without further notice.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">CONTACT PERSON FOR MORE INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <P>Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary. Telephone (202) 502-8400.</P>
                    <P>For a recorded message listing items stricken from or added to the meeting, call (202) 502-8627. </P>
                    <P>
                        This is a list of matters to be considered by the Commission. It does not include a listing of all documents relevant to the items on the agenda. All public documents, however, may be viewed online at the Commission's website at 
                        <E T="03">https://elibrary.ferc.gov/eLibrary/search</E>
                         using the eLibrary link.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3205"/>
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="xs50,r50,r100">
                    <TTITLE>1121st—Meeting, Open </TTITLE>
                    <TDESC>[January 16, 2025, 10:00 a.m.]</TDESC>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Item No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Docket No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Company</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="02" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Administrative</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">A-1</ENT>
                        <ENT>AD25-1-000</ENT>
                        <ENT>Agency Administrative Matters.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">A-2</ENT>
                        <ENT>AD25-2-000</ENT>
                        <ENT>Customer Matters, Reliability, Security and Market Operations.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="02" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Electric</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">E-1</ENT>
                        <ENT>ER24-1658-000, ER24-1658-001, ER24-1658-002</ENT>
                        <ENT>Southwest Power Pool, Inc. </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">E-2 </ENT>
                        <ENT>ER22-1640-003 </ENT>
                        <ENT>Midcontinent Independent System Operator, Inc.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">E-3</ENT>
                        <ENT>ER24-1317-000, ER24-2953-000 (consolidated)</ENT>
                        <ENT>Southwest Power Pool, Inc.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">E-4</ENT>
                        <ENT>ER25-138-000</ENT>
                        <ENT>Southwest Power Pool, Inc.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">E-5 </ENT>
                        <ENT>ER24-1384-000, ER24-1384-001 </ENT>
                        <ENT>Tampa Electric Company.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">E-6</ENT>
                        <ENT>ER24-2035-000 </ENT>
                        <ENT>Versant Power.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">E-7</ENT>
                        <ENT>ER24-2022-000</ENT>
                        <ENT>Black Hills Power, Inc.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">E-8</ENT>
                        <ENT>TX23-3-001</ENT>
                        <ENT>CMD Carson, LLC.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">E-9</ENT>
                        <ENT>ER24-2720-000</ENT>
                        <ENT>Ohio Power Company.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">E-10</ENT>
                        <ENT>ER18-1639-029, ER18-1639-000, ER23-1735-000, EL23-4-000</ENT>
                        <ENT>Constellation Mystic Power, LLC.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">E-11</ENT>
                        <ENT>ER23-2688-002, ER23-2688-000</ENT>
                        <ENT>NRG Business Marketing LLC.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>ER22-1539-002</ENT>
                        <ENT>NRG Power Marketing LLC, NRG Business Marketing LLC.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                        <ENT>ER22-1539-000 (consolidated)</ENT>
                        <ENT>NRG Power Marketing LLC.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="02" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Gas</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">G-1 </ENT>
                        <ENT O="xl">OR23-3-001 Plains Pipeline, L.P.</ENT>
                        <ENT>Sunrise Pipeline LLC.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="02" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Hydro</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">H-1</ENT>
                        <ENT>P-2561-058</ENT>
                        <ENT>Sho-Me Power Electric Cooperative.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="01">H-2</ENT>
                        <ENT>P-7656-021</ENT>
                        <ENT>Village of Highland Falls High-Point Utility, LDC.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="02" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Certificates</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">C-1</ENT>
                        <ENT>CP23-536-000</ENT>
                        <ENT>Eastern Shore Natural Gas Company.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    A free webcast of this event is available through the Commission's website. Anyone with Internet access who desires to view this event can do so by navigating to 
                    <E T="03">www.ferc.gov</E>
                    's Calendar of Events and locating this event in the Calendar. The Federal Energy Regulatory Commission provides technical support for the free webcasts. Please call (202) 502-8680 or email 
                    <E T="03">customer@ferc.gov</E>
                     if you have any questions. 
                </P>
                <P>Immediately following the conclusion of the Commission Meeting, a press briefing will be held in the Commission Meeting Room. Members of the public may view this briefing in the designated overflow room. This statement is intended to notify the public that the press briefings that follow Commission meetings may now be viewed remotely at Commission headquarters but will not be telecast.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Issued: January 8, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00834 Filed 1-10-25; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Project No. 2607-016]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Spencer Mountain Hydropower, LLC; Notice of Application Ready for Environmental Analysis and Soliciting Comments, Recommendations, Terms and Conditions, and Prescriptions</SUBJECT>
                <P>Take notice that the following hydroelectric application has been filed with the Commission and is available for public inspection.</P>
                <P>
                    a. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Application:</E>
                     Subsequent License.
                </P>
                <P>
                    b. 
                    <E T="03">Project No.:</E>
                     P-2607-016.
                </P>
                <P>
                    c. 
                    <E T="03">Date filed:</E>
                     June 26, 2023.
                </P>
                <P>
                    d. 
                    <E T="03">Applicant:</E>
                     Spencer Mountain Hydropower, LLC.
                </P>
                <P>
                    e. 
                    <E T="03">Name of Project:</E>
                     Spencer Mountain Hydroelectric Project (Spencer Mountain Project).
                </P>
                <P>
                    f. 
                    <E T="03">Location:</E>
                     On the South Fork Catawba River, near the town of Gastonia, in Gaston County, North Carolina.
                </P>
                <P>
                    g. 
                    <E T="03">Filed Pursuant to:</E>
                     Federal Power Act 16 U.S.C. 791(a)-825(r).
                </P>
                <P>
                    h. 
                    <E T="03">Applicant Contact:</E>
                     Mr. Kevin Edwards and Mrs. Amy Edwards, Spencer Mountain Hydropower, LLC, 916 Comer Rd, Stoneville, NC 27048; Phone at (336) 589-6138, or 
                    <E T="03">smhydro@pht1.com.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    i. 
                    <E T="03">FERC Contact:</E>
                     David Gandy at 202-502-8560, or 
                    <E T="03">david.gandy@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    j. 
                    <E T="03">Deadline for filing comments, recommendations, terms and conditions, and prescriptions:</E>
                     60 days from the issuance date of this notice; reply comments are due 105 days from the issuance date of this notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission strongly encourages electronic filing. Please file comments, recommendations, terms and conditions, and prescriptions using the Commission's eFiling system at 
                    <E T="03">https://ferconline.ferc.gov/FERCOnline.aspx.</E>
                     Commenters can submit brief comments up to 6,000 characters, without prior registration, using the eComment system at 
                    <E T="03">https://ferconline.ferc.gov/QuickComment.aspx.</E>
                     For assistance, please contact FERC Online Support at 
                    <E T="03">FERCOnlineSupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     (866) 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3206"/>
                    208- 3676 (toll free), or (202) 502-8659 (TTY). In lieu of electronic filing, you may submit a paper copy. Submissions sent via the U.S. Postal Service must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 888 First Street NE, Room 1A, Washington, DC 20426. Submissions sent via any other carrier must be addressed to: Debbie-Anne A. Reese, Secretary, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, 12225 Wilkins Avenue, Rockville, Maryland 20852. All filings must clearly identify the project name and docket number on the first page: Spencer Mountain Hydroelectric Project (P-2607-016).
                </P>
                <P>The Commission's Rules of Practice require all intervenors filing documents with the Commission to serve a copy of that document on each person on the official service list for the project. Further, if an intervenor files comments or documents with the Commission relating to the merits of an issue that may affect the responsibilities of a particular resource agency, they must also serve a copy of the document on that resource agency.</P>
                <P>k. This application has been accepted and is now ready for environmental analysis.</P>
                <P>
                    l. 
                    <E T="03">The Spencer Mountain Project consists of the following existing facilities:</E>
                     (1) a 12-foot-high, 636-foot-long masonry and rubble dam with a crest elevation of 634.7 feet mean sea level (msl); (2) a 68-acre reservoir with a storage capacity of 166 acre-feet; (3) a 58.9-foot-long canal headwork, consisting of four 6-foot-wide gates; (4) a 53.8-foot-long canal spillway connected to the downstream side of the canal headwork; (5) a 30-foot-wide, 10-foot-deep, 3,644-foot-long open earthen canal; (6) a 32-foot-wide trash rack with 2.5-inch clear bar spacing at the powerhouse forebay; (7) a 36-inch-diameter bypass pipe; (8) a 22.5-foot-high, 49.5-foot-long, 48.75-foot-wide powerhouse containing two Francis-type generating units with a total capacity of 0.64 megawatts; (9) a concrete lined tailrace discharging flows back into the South Fork Catawba River; (10) a substation containing a 2.3/44-kilovolt (kV) transformer and interconnection to a Duke Energy 44 kV transmission line; and (11) appurtenant facilities.
                </P>
                <P>The project operates in a run-of-river mode with a minimum bypass flow of 76 cubic feet per second. Spencer Mountain Hydropower, LLC proposes no changes to the project facilities or operations. The project has an average annual generation of 4,064 megawatt-hours.</P>
                <P>
                    m. A copy of the application can be viewed on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov,</E>
                     using the “eLibrary” link. Enter the docket number excluding the last three digits in the docket number field, to access the document (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     P-2607). For assistance, contact FERC Online Support.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">All filings must:</E>
                     (1) bear in all capital letters the title “COMMENTS,” “REPLY COMMENTS,” “RECOMMENDATIONS,” “TERMS AND CONDITIONS,” or “PRESCRIPTIONS;” (2) set forth in the heading the name of the applicant and the project number of the application to which the filing responds; (3) furnish the name, address, and telephone number of the person submitting the filing; and (4) otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 385.2001 through 385.2005. All comments, recommendations, terms and conditions or prescriptions must set forth their evidentiary basis and otherwise comply with the requirements of 18 CFR 4.34(b). Agencies may obtain copies of the application directly from the applicant. Each filing must be accompanied by proof of service on all persons listed on the service list prepared by the Commission in this proceeding, in accordance with 18 CFR 4.34(b) and 385.2010.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595, or at 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    You may also register online at 
                    <E T="03">https://ferconline.ferc.gov/FERCOnline.aspx</E>
                     to be notified via email of new filings and issuances related to this or other pending projects. For assistance, contact FERC Online Support.
                </P>
                <P>
                    n. 
                    <E T="03">The applicant must file no later than 60 days following the date of issuance of this notice:</E>
                     (1) a copy of the water quality certification; (2) a copy of the request for certification, including proof of the date on which the certifying agency received the request; or (3) evidence of waiver of water quality certification.
                </P>
                <P>
                    o. 
                    <E T="03">Procedural schedule:</E>
                     The application will be processed according to the following schedule. Revisions to the schedule will be made as appropriate.
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s50,xs60">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Milestone</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Target date</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Deadline for filing comments, recommendations, agency terms and conditions, and prescriptions</ENT>
                        <ENT>March 7, 2025.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Deadline for the licensee to file reply comments</ENT>
                        <ENT>April 21, 2025.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>p. Final amendments to the application must be filed with the Commission no later than 30 days from the issuance date of this notice.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 6, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00518 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Energy Regulatory Commission</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Project No. 15359-000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Stone Ridge Hydro, LLC; Notice of Intent To File License Application, Filing of Pre-Application Document, and Approving the Use of the Traditional Licensing Process</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    a. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Application:</E>
                     Notice of Intent to File License Application.
                </P>
                <P>
                    b. 
                    <E T="03">Project No.:</E>
                     15359-000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    c. 
                    <E T="03">Date filed:</E>
                     June 3, 2024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    d. 
                    <E T="03">Submitted by:</E>
                     Stone Ridge Hydro, LLC (Stone Ridge).
                </P>
                <P>
                    e. 
                    <E T="03">Name of Project:</E>
                     Herkimer Hydroelectric Project.
                </P>
                <P>
                    f. 
                    <E T="03">Location:</E>
                     On West Canada Creek, near the village of Herkimer, in Herkimer County, New York. The project does not occupy any Federal land.
                </P>
                <P>
                    g. 
                    <E T="03">Filed Pursuant to:</E>
                     18 CFR 5.3 of the Commission's regulations.
                </P>
                <P>
                    h. 
                    <E T="03">Potential Applicant Contact:</E>
                     Peter Blanchfield, Chief Executive Officer, 16 Harrogate Road, New Hartford, NY 13413. Phone: (650) 644-6003. Email: 
                    <E T="03">peter_blanchfield@gmail.com.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    i. 
                    <E T="03">FERC Contact:</E>
                     Jody Callihan, Phone: (202) 502-8278, Email: 
                    <E T="03">jody.callihan@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>j. Stone Ridge filed its request to use the Traditional Licensing Process on October 31, 2024, and provided public notice of its request on the same date. In a letter dated January 7, 2025, the Director of the Division of Hydropower Licensing approved Stone Ridge's request to use the Traditional Licensing Process.</P>
                <P>
                    k. With this notice, we are initiating informal consultation with the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and/or NOAA Fisheries under section 7 of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3207"/>
                    Endangered Species Act and the joint agency regulations thereunder at 50 CFR part 402; and NOAA Fisheries under section 305(b) of the Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act and implementing regulations at 50 CFR 600.920. We are also initiating consultation with the New York State Historic Preservation Officer, as required by section 106, National Historic Preservation Act, and the implementing regulations of the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation at 36 CFR 800.2.
                </P>
                <P>l. With this notice, we are designating Stone Ridge as the Commission's non-Federal representative for carrying out informal consultation pursuant to section 7 of the Endangered Species Act and consultation pursuant to section 106 of the National Historic Preservation Act.</P>
                <P>m. Stone Ridge filed a Pre-Application Document (PAD), including a proposed process plan and schedule, with the Commission, pursuant to 18 CFR 5.6 of the Commission's regulations.</P>
                <P>
                    n. A copy of the PAD may be viewed on the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">http://www.ferc.gov</E>
                    ), using the “eLibrary” link. Enter the docket number, excluding the last three digits in the docket number field, to access the document. For assistance, contact FERC Online Support at 
                    <E T="03">FERCOnlineSupport@ferc.gov,</E>
                     (866) 208-3676 (toll free), or (202) 502-8659 (TTY).
                </P>
                <P>o. The applicant states its unequivocal intent to submit an application for a new license for Project No. 15359. Pursuant to 18 CFR 16.8, 16.9, and 16.10 each application for a new license and any competing license applications must be filed with the Commission at least 24 months prior to the expiration of the existing license. All applications for license for this project must be filed by March 31, 2025.</P>
                <P>
                    p. Register online at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.ferc.gov/docs-filing/esubscription.asp</E>
                     to be notified via email of new filing and issuances related to this or other pending projects. For assistance, contact FERC Online Support.
                </P>
                <P>
                    q. The Commission's Office of Public Participation (OPP) supports meaningful public engagement and participation in Commission proceedings. OPP can help members of the public, including landowners, environmental justice communities, Tribal members and others, access publicly available information and navigate Commission processes. For public inquiries and assistance with making filings such as interventions, comments, or requests for rehearing, the public is encouraged to contact OPP at (202) 502-6595 or 
                    <E T="03">OPP@ferc.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debbie-Anne A. Reese,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00576 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6717-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OPP-2024-0629; FRL-12544-01-OCSPP]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Clothianidin; Receipt of Application for Emergency Exemption; Solicitation of Public Comment</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>EPA has received a specific exemption request from the Florida Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services (FDACS) to use the pesticide clothianidin (CAS No. 210-880-92-5) to treat up to 75,000 acres of immature (3-5 years old) citrus trees to control the transmission of Huanglongbing (HLB) disease vectored by the Asian Citrus Psyllid. The applicant proposes a use that has been requested in 5 or more previous years and for which a complete application for registration or tolerance petition has not been submitted to the Agency. Therefore, EPA is soliciting public comment before making the decision whether or not to grant the exemption.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received on or before January 29, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit your comments, identified by docket identification (ID) number EPA-HQ-OPP-2024-0629, online at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the online instructions for submitting comments. Do not submit electronically any information you consider to be Confidential Business Information (CBI) or other information whose disclosure is restricted by statute. Additional instructions on commenting and visiting the docket, along with more information about dockets generally, is available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Charles Smith, Director, Registration Division (7505T), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460-0001; main telephone number: (202) 566-1030; email address: 
                        <E T="03">RDFRNotices@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. General Information</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Does this action apply to me?</HD>
                <P>You may be potentially affected by this action if you are an agricultural producer, food manufacturer, or pesticide manufacturer. The following list of North American Industrial Classification System (NAICS) codes is not intended to be exhaustive but rather provides a guide to help readers determine whether this document applies to them. Potentially affected entities may include:</P>
                <P>• Crop production (NAICS code 111).</P>
                <P>• Animal production (NAICS code 112).</P>
                <P>• Food manufacturing (NAICS code 311).</P>
                <P>• Pesticide manufacturing (NAICS code 32532).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. What should I consider as I prepare my comments for EPA?</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Submitting CBI.</E>
                     Do not submit CBI to EPA through email or 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     If you wish to include CBI in your comment, please follow the applicable instructions at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets#rules</E>
                     and clearly mark the information that you claim to be CBI. Information so marked will not be disclosed except in accordance with procedures set forth in 40 CFR part 2.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Tips for preparing your comments.</E>
                     When preparing and submitting your comments, see the commenting tips at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/dockets/commenting-epa-dockets.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Environmental justice.</E>
                     EPA seeks to achieve environmental justice, the fair treatment and meaningful involvement of any group, including minority and/or low-income populations, in the development, implementation, and enforcement of environmental laws, regulations, and policies. To help address potential environmental justice issues, the Agency seeks information on any groups or segments of the population who, as a result of their location, cultural practices, or other factors, may have atypical or disproportionately high and adverse human health impacts or environmental effects from exposure to the pesticide(s) discussed in this document, compared to the general population.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. What action is the Agency taking?</HD>
                <P>
                    Under section 18 of the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) (7 U.S.C. 136p), at the discretion of the EPA Administrator, a Federal or State agency may be exempted from any provision of FIFRA if the EPA Administrator determines 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3208"/>
                    that emergency conditions exist which require the exemption. The FDACS has requested the EPA Administrator to issue a specific exemption for the use of clothianidin as a soil drench application on immature (3-5 years old) citrus trees to control the transmission of HLB disease vectored by ACP. Information in accordance with 40 CFR part 166 was submitted as part of this request.
                </P>
                <P>As part of this request, the applicant asserts that clothianidin is needed to suppress the transmission of HLB disease vectored by ACP due to the lack of available alternative pesticides and effective control practices. Without this tool, Florida citrus growers are expected to experience significant economic losses due to the severity of this invasive disease and vector complex, especially when it comes to protecting young (3-5) year old citrus trees from HLB infection. The future of the citrus industry remains at risk due to no effective means to limit the infection levels of these young trees that actively flush new foliage throughout the year.</P>
                <P>The applicant proposes to make no more than two applications of clothianidin at a maximum rate of 0.4 lb. a.i./A (24.0 fl. oz per acre) per 12-month period on up to 75,000 acres of immature (3-5 years old) citrus trees grown in Florida from April 16, 2025-April 16, 2026. A total of 14,943 lbs. active ingredient of clothianidin may be used on the maximum acreage of 75,000 at the highest application rate.</P>
                <P>This notice does not constitute a decision by EPA on the application itself. The regulations governing FIFRA section 18 require publication of a notice of receipt of an application for a specific exemption proposing a use which is supported by the Inter-Regional Project Number (IR-4) program that has been requested in 5 or more previous years, and for which a complete application for registration of that use and/or petition for tolerance of residues in or on the commodity has not yet been submitted to the Agency. The notice provides an opportunity for public comment on the application.</P>
                <P>In 2011, the FDACS submitted a petition for tolerance to EPA that was subsequently withdrawn, and an application/petition has not been resubmitted to the Agency. The notice provides an opportunity for public comment on the application. EPA will review and consider all comments received during the comment period in determining whether to issue the specific exemption requested by the FDACS.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     7 U.S.C. 136 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Charles Smith,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Registration Division, Office of Pesticide Programs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00540 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OPP-2017-0751; FRL-10818-02-OCSPP]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Pesticide Registration Review; Interim Registration Review Decision for Ethylene Oxide (EtO); Notice of Availability</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This notice announces the availability of EPA's interim registration review decision for ethylene oxide (EtO).</P>
                </SUM>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">For pesticide specific information, contact:</E>
                         The Chemical Review Manager for EtO identified in table 1 of unit I.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">For general information on the registration review program, contact:</E>
                         Melanie Biscoe, Pesticide Re-Evaluation Division (7508P), Office of Pesticide Programs, Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460-0001; telephone number: (202 566-0701; email address: 
                        <E T="03">biscoe.melanie@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Purpose of this Notice</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to 40 CFR 155.58(c), this notice announces the availability of EPA's interim registration review decision for EtO shown in table 1. The interim registration review decision is supported by materials included in the docket established for the chemical.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—Interim Registration Review Decision Being Issued</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Registration review case name and No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Docket ID No.</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Chemical review manager and
                            <LI>contact information</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Ethylene Oxide (EtO) Case Number 2275</ENT>
                        <ENT>EPA-HQ-OPP-2013-0244</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Jessie Bailey, 
                            <E T="03">bailey.jessica@epa.gov,</E>
                             (202) 566-0605.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                <P>EPA is conducting its registration review of EtO pursuant to the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) section 3(g) (7 U.S.C. 136a(g)) and the Procedural Regulations for Registration Review at 40 CFR part 155, subpart C. FIFRA section 3(g) provides, among other things, that pesticide registrations are to be reviewed every 15 years. Consistent with 40 CFR 155.57, in its final registration review decision, EPA will ultimately determine whether a pesticide continues to meet the registration standard in FIFRA section 3(c)(5) (7 U.S.C. 136a(c)(5)). As part of the registration review process, the Agency has completed the interim registration review decision for EtO.</P>
                <P>Prior to completing the interim registration review decision for EtO, EPA posted a proposed interim decision for EtO and invited the public to submit any comments or new information, consistent with 40 CFR 155.58(a). EPA considered and responded to any comments or information received during this public comment period in the interim decision.</P>
                <P>
                    For additional background on the registration review program, see: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.epa.gov/pesticide-reevaluation.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     7 U.S.C. 136 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Anita Pease,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Antimicrobials Division, Office of Pesticide Programs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00541 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="3209"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0134-FRL-11831-02-OAR]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Opportunity for Stakeholder Engagement in the ENERGY STAR Products Program Plans</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is announcing an opportunity for public input on ENERGY STAR product specification development activities. Since its creation in 1992, the ENERGY STAR program has grown to designate highly efficient products in more than 75 categories, all of which are independently certified.  EPA relies on broad stakeholder engagement to develop and maintain its ENERGY STAR product specifications and grow and evolve the products portfolio. Through its products work, the Agency also looks for innovative ways to accelerate market movement to greater efficiency. </P>
                </SUM>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The ENERGY STAR products specification 2025 annual workplan is posted on the ENERGY STAR website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.energystar.gov/partner_resources/products_partner_resources/brand-owner/spec-dev-efforts</E>
                         to allow interested parties to determine how they wish to engage with the EPA to track progress and share feedback. If you are not an ENERGY STAR partner and wish to stay informed about these specification development activities, please email join@energystar.gov to be added to the mailing list. The general public may also track specific opportunities for public input on the ENERGY STAR Products Partner public notices webpage—
                        <E T="03">https://www.energystar.gov/partner_resources/products_partner_resources/public-notices.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Kathleen Vokes, Acting Supervisor ENERGY STAR Product Specifications Branch, Office of Atmospheric Programs (6202A), Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20460; telephone number: 202-343-9019; email address: 
                        <E T="03">vokes.kathleen@epa.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                         42 U.S.C. 6294; 42 U.S.C. 7403.
                    </P>
                    <SIG>
                        <NAME>Jean Lupinacci,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Director, Climate Protection Partnerships Division.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-31032 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am] </FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6560-50-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB 3060-0349; FR ID 272571]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Communications Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before March 17, 2025. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments, but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Direct all PRA comments to Nicole Ongele, FCC, via email 
                        <E T="03">PRA@fcc.gov</E>
                         and to 
                        <E T="03">nicole.ongele@fcc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>For additional information about the information collection, contact Nicole Ongele, (202) 418-2991.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     3060-0349.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Equal Employment Opportunity (“EEO”) Policy, 47 CFR 73.2080, 76.73, 76.75, 76.79 and 76.1702.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Business or other for-profit entities, Not-for-profit institutions.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents and Responses:</E>
                     21,034 respondents, 21,034 responses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     42 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Recordkeeping requirement; annual reporting; five and eight year reporting requirements and third-party disclosure requirement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Obligation to Respond:</E>
                     Required to obtain or retain benefits. The statutory authority which covers this information collection is contained in section 154(i) and 303 of the Communications Act of 1934, as amended, and section 634 of the Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Burden:</E>
                     883,428 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Cost:</E>
                     No cost.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     The information collection requirements approved under this collection are as follows: 47 CFR 73.2080 provides that equal opportunity in employment shall be afforded by all broadcast stations to all qualified persons and no person shall be discriminated against in employment by such stations because of race, color, religion, national origin or sex. Section 73.2080 requires that each broadcast station employment unit with 5 or more full-time employees shall establish, maintain and carry out a program to assure equal opportunity in every aspect of a broadcast station's policy and practice. These same requirements also apply to Satellite Digital Audio Radio Service (“SDARS”) licensees. In 1997, the Commission determined that SDARS licensees must comply with the Commission's EEO requirements. 
                    <E T="03">See Establishment of Rules and Policies for the Digital Audio Radio Satellite Service in the 2310-2360 MHz Frequency Band,</E>
                     12 FCC Rcd 5754, 5791, ¶ 91 (1997) (“
                    <E T="03">1997 SDARS Order”</E>
                    ), FCC 97-70. In 2008, the Commission clarified that SDARS licensees must comply with the Commission's EEO broadcast rules and policies, including the same recruitment, outreach, public file, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3210"/>
                    website posting, record-keeping, reporting, and self-assessment obligations required of broadcast licensees, consistent with 47 CFR 73.2080, as well as any other Commission EEO policies. 
                    <E T="03">See Applications for Consent to the Transfer of Control of Licenses, SM Satellite Radio Holdings Inc., Transferor, to Sirius Satellite Radio Inc., Transferee,</E>
                     23 FCC Rcd 12348, 12426, ¶ 174, and note 551 (2008).
                </P>
                <P>47 CFR 76.73 provides that equal opportunity in employment shall be afforded by all multichannel video program distributors (“MVPD”) to all qualified persons and no person shall be discriminated against in employment by such entities because of race, color, religion, national origin, age or sex.</P>
                <P>Section 76.75 requires that each MVPD employment unit employing six or more full-time employees shall establish, maintain and carry out a program to assure equal opportunity in every aspect of a cable entity's policy and practice.</P>
                <P>Section 76.79 requires that every MVPD employment unit employing six or more full-time employees maintain, for public inspection, a file containing copies of all annual employment reports and related documents.</P>
                <P>Section 76.1702 requires that every MVPD employment unit employing six or more full-time employees place certain information concerning its EEO program in its public inspection file.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Federal Communications Commission.</FP>
                    <NAME>Marlene Dortch,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary, Office of the Secretary. </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00644 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6712-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB 3060-1305; FR ID 272753]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Information Collection Being Reviewed by the Federal Communications Commission Under Delegated Authority</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Communications Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, and as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimate; ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology; and ways to further reduce the information collection burden on small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees. The FCC may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written PRA comments should be submitted on or before March 17, 2025. If you anticipate that you will be submitting comments but find it difficult to do so within the period of time allowed by this notice, you should advise the contact listed below as soon as possible.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Direct all PRA comments to Nicole Ongele, FCC, via email 
                        <E T="03">PRA@fcc.gov</E>
                         and to 
                        <E T="03">nicole.ongele@fcc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>For additional information about the information collection, contact Nicole Ongele, (202) 418-2991.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     3060-1305.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Required Disclosure of Exclusive Marketing Arrangements in MTEs, Rule Sections 64.2500(e) and 76.2000(d).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently-approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Business or other for-profit.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents and Responses:</E>
                     515 respondents; 24 million annual responses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     3 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     Third-party disclosure requirement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Obligation to Respond:</E>
                     Mandatory. Statutory authority for this information collection is contained in 47 U.S.C. 201(b) and 628(b).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Burden:</E>
                     1,545 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Cost:</E>
                     No Cost.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     The Commission is requesting Office of Management and Budget (OMB) approval for a three-year extension for this information collection. In 
                    <E T="03">Improving Competitive Broadband Access to Multiple Tenant Environments,</E>
                     GN Docket No. 17-142, Report and Order and Declaratory Ruling, FCC 22-12 (Feb. 11, 2022), the Commission, among other things, adopted new rules requiring providers (common carriers and multichannel video programming distributors (MVPDs) subject to 47 U.S.C. 628(b)) to disclose the existence of exclusive marketing arrangements that they have with owners of multi-tenant premises (MTEs). An exclusive marketing arrangement is an arrangement, either written or in practice, between an MTE owner and a provider that gives the provider, usually in exchange for some consideration, the exclusive right to certain means of marketing its service to tenants of the MTE. The required disclosure must be included on all written marketing material from the provider directed at tenants or prospective tenants of an MTE subject to the arrangement. The disclosure must explain in clear, conspicuous, legible, and visible language that the provider has the right to exclusively market its communications services to tenants in the MTE, that such a right does not suggest that the provider is the only entity that can provide communications services to tenants in the MTE, and that service from an alternative provider may be available. The purposes of the compelled disclosure are to remedy tenant confusion regarding the impact of exclusive marketing arrangements, prevent the evasion of our exclusive access rules, and, in turn, promote competition for communications services in MTEs.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <FP>Federal Communications Commission.</FP>
                    <NAME>Marlene Dortch,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary, Office of the Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00646 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6712-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">FEDERAL COMMUNICATIONS COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB 3060-1302; FR ID 273055]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Information Collection Being Submitted for Review and Approval to Office of Management and Budget</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Communications Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, as required by the Paperwork Reduction 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3211"/>
                        Act (PRA) of 1995, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC or the Commission) invites the general public and other Federal Agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, the FCC seeks specific comment on how it might “further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.” The Commission may not conduct or sponsor a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number. No person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a valid OMB control number.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be submitted on or before February 13, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments should be sent to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function. Your comment must be submitted into 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov</E>
                         per the above instructions for it to be considered. In addition to submitting in 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov</E>
                         also send a copy of your comment on the proposed information collection to Nicole Ongele, FCC, via email to 
                        <E T="03">PRA@fcc.gov</E>
                         and to 
                        <E T="03">Nicole.Ongele@fcc.gov.</E>
                         Include in the comments the OMB control number as shown in the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         below.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For additional information or copies of the information collection, contact Nicole Ongele at (202) 418-2991. To view a copy of this information collection request (ICR) submitted to OMB: (1) go to the web page 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain,</E>
                         (2) look for the section of the web page called “Currently Under Review,” (3) click on the downward-pointing arrow in the “Select Agency” box below the “Currently Under Review” heading, (4) select “Federal Communications Commission” from the list of agencies presented in the “Select Agency” box, (5) click the “Submit” button to the right of the “Select Agency” box, (6) when the list of FCC ICRs currently under review appears, look for the Title of this ICR and then click on the ICR Reference Number. A copy of the FCC submission to OMB will be displayed.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>As part of its continuing effort to reduce paperwork burdens, as required by the Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), the FCC invited the general public and other Federal Agencies to take this opportunity to comment on the following information collection. Comments are requested concerning: (a) Whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the Commission, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the Commission's burden estimates; (c) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on the respondents, including the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Pursuant to the Small Business Paperwork Relief Act of 2002, Public Law 107-198, see 44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(4), the FCC seeks specific comment on how it might “further reduce the information collection burden for small business concerns with fewer than 25 employees.”</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     3060-1302.  Title: Wireless Emergency Alerts (WEA) False Alert Reporting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form No.:</E>
                     N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     State, Local, Territorial, Tribal, or Federal Government.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents and Responses:</E>
                     23,201 respondents; 15 responses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     1 hour.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Response:</E>
                     On occasion reporting requirement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Obligation to Respond:</E>
                     Voluntary. Statutory authority for this information collection is contained in 47 U.S.C. 151, 152, 154(i), 154(o), 301, 303(r), 303(v), 307, 309, 335, 403, 544(g), 606, 613, 1201, 1202, 1203, 1204 and 1206.  Total Annual Burden: 15 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Cost:</E>
                     No cost.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Needs and Uses:</E>
                     This is a request for a revision of a currently approved information collection related to two regulations under the Commission's part 10 Wireless Emergency Alert (WEA) rules. No other information collections contained in the Commission's regulations will be impacted by the rules described herein.
                </P>
                <P>The WEA system is a mechanism under which Commercial Mobile Service (CMS) providers may elect to transmit emergency alerts to the public. The Commission created WEA (previously known as the Commercial Mobile Service Alert System) as required by Congress in the Warning Alert and Response Network (WARN) Act and to satisfy the Commission's mandate to promote the safety of life and property through the use of wire and radio communication.</P>
                <P>On January 1, 2021, Congress passed the William M. (Mac) Thornberry National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2021 (NDAA21). Section 9201 of the NDAA21 required the Commission to complete a rulemaking and adopt rules within 180 days to make certain changes to its WEA regulations, and also to its separate Emergency Alert System (EAS) regulations governing broadcast, cable television, and direct satellite media emergency alerts.</P>
                <P>With respect to the WEA rule changes, Section 9201 directed the Commission to ensure that the mobile devices of CMS providers that have elected to participate in WEA cannot opt out of receiving WEA alerts from the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) Administrator, and to enable reporting by the FEMA Administrator and State, Tribal, or Local governments of false WEA alerts. On June 21, 2021, the Commission released its Report and Order in PS Dockets 15-91 and 15-94 (NDAA21 Alerting Order), FCC 21-77, adopting the WEA and EAS changes directed by Congress in the NDAA21. The EAS changes are the subject of a different notice to be published separately.</P>
                <P>
                    The NDAA21 Alerting Order implemented Congresses' new directives for WEA, in part, with two new regulations that impose new burdens on respondents: the handset display update, and false alert reporting. The handset display update requirement has since been fulfilled by respondents and the burdens will be removed from this collection pursuant to the revisions in this information collection. With respect to false alert reporting, the Commission adopted a rule permitting the FEMA Administrator or a State, Local, Tribal, or Territorial government to voluntarily report WEA false alerts to the FCC Operations Center at 
                    <E T="03">FCCOPS@fcc.gov,</E>
                     informing the Commission of the event and any relevant details. This rule created a voluntary mechanism for collection of information so that the Commission can monitor these false alert events which can undermine public confidence in the reliability of emergency alerting and WEA. Email reporting was adopted as a minimally-burdensome way for government entities to report false alerts. The WEA false alert reporting regulation is codified at 47 CFR 10.520(d)(2).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3212"/>
                    <FP>Federal Communications Commission.</FP>
                    <NAME>Marlene Dortch,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary, Office of the Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00647 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6712-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL DEPOSIT INSURANCE CORPORATION</AGENCY>
                <RIN>RIN 3064-ZA44</RIN>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Inflation Adjustments for Civil Money Penalties</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of monetary penalties for 2025.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation is providing notice of its maximum civil money penalties as adjusted for inflation.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The adjusted maximum amounts of civil money penalties in this notice are applicable to penalties assessed after January 15, 2025, for conduct occurring on or after November 2, 2015.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Graham N. Rehrig, Acting Deputy Regional Counsel, Legal Division, 703-314-3401, 
                        <E T="03">grehrig@fdic.gov;</E>
                         Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 15 Braintree Hill Office Park, Braintree, MA 02184-8701.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    This notice announces changes to the maximum amount of each civil money penalty (CMP) within the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation's (FDIC) jurisdiction to administer to account for inflation under the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990 (1990 Adjustment Act),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     as amended by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (2015 Adjustment Act).
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Under the 1990 Adjustment Act, as amended, Federal agencies must make annual adjustments to the maximum amount of each CMP the agency administers. The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) is required to issue guidance to Federal agencies no later than December 15 of each year providing an inflation-adjustment multiplier (that is, the inflation-adjustment factor agencies must use) applicable to CMPs assessed in the following year.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Public Law 101-410, 104 Stat. 890, codified at 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         Public Law 114-74, 701(b), 129 Stat. 599, codified at 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Agencies are required to publish their CMPs, adjusted under the multiplier provided by the OMB, by January 15 of the applicable year. Agencies like the FDIC that have codified the statutory formula for making the CMP adjustments may make annual inflation adjustments by providing notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Office of Mgmt. &amp; Budget, Exec. Office of the President, OMB Memorandum No. M-25-02, 
                        <E T="03">Implementation of Penalty Inflation Adjustments for 2025, Pursuant to the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015</E>
                         4 (Dec. 17, 2024), 
                        <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2024/12/M-25-02.pdf</E>
                         (OMB Guidance); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         12 CFR 308.132(d) (FDIC regulation that guides readers to the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         to see the annual notice of CMP inflation adjustments).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On December 17, 2024, the OMB issued guidance to affected agencies on implementing the required annual adjustment, which guidance included the relevant inflation multiplier.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The FDIC has applied that multiplier to the maximum CMPs allowable in 2024 for FDIC-supervised institutions and other parties subject to the FDIC's jurisdiction to calculate the maximum amount of CMPs that may be assessed by the FDIC in 2025.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     There were no new statutory CMPs administered by the FDIC during 2024.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         OMB Guidance at 2 (providing an inflation multiplier of 1.02598).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Penalties assessed for violations occurring prior to November 2, 2015, will be subject to the maximum amounts set forth in the FDIC's regulations in effect prior to the enactment of the 2015 Adjustment Act.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The following charts provide the inflation-adjusted maximum CMP amounts for use after January 15, 2025—the effective date of the 2025 annual adjustments—under 12 CFR part 308, for conduct occurring on or after November 2, 2015:</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,15,15">
                    <TTITLE>Maximum Civil Money Penalty Amounts</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">U.S. Code citation</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Current maximum CMP 
                            <LI>(through January 14, 2025)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Adjusted
                            <LI>maximum </LI>
                            <LI>
                                CMP 
                                <SU>6</SU>
                                  
                            </LI>
                            <LI>(beginning January 15, 2025)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">12 U.S.C. 1464(v)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Tier One CMP 
                            <SU>7</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>$4,899</ENT>
                        <ENT>$5,026</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tier Two CMP</ENT>
                        <ENT>48,992</ENT>
                        <ENT>50,265</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Tier Three CMP 
                            <SU>8</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>2,449,575</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,513,215</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">12 U.S.C. 1467(d)</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,249</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,567</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">12 U.S.C. 1817(a)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Tier One CMP 
                            <SU>9</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>4,899</ENT>
                        <ENT>5,026</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tier Two CMP</ENT>
                        <ENT>48,992</ENT>
                        <ENT>50,265</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Tier Three CMP 
                            <SU>10</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>2,449,575</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,513,215</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">12 U.S.C. 1817(c)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tier One CMP </ENT>
                        <ENT>4,480</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,596</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tier Two CMP</ENT>
                        <ENT>44,783</ENT>
                        <ENT>45,946</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Tier Three CMP
                            <SU>11</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>2,239,210</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,297,385</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(16)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tier One CMP</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,249</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,567</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tier Two CMP</ENT>
                        <ENT>61,238</ENT>
                        <ENT>62,829</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Tier Three CMP 
                            <SU>12</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>2,449,575</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,513,215</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">
                            12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2) 
                            <SU>13</SU>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tier One CMP</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,249</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,567</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tier Two CMP</ENT>
                        <ENT>61,238</ENT>
                        <ENT>62,829</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Tier Three CMP 
                            <SU>14</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>2,449,575</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,513,215</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">12 U.S.C. 1820(e)(4)</ENT>
                        <ENT>11,198</ENT>
                        <ENT>11,489</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">12 U.S.C. 1820(k)(6)</ENT>
                        <ENT>402,920</ENT>
                        <ENT>413,388</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">12 U.S.C. 1828(a)(3)</ENT>
                        <ENT>153</ENT>
                        <ENT>157</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">
                            12 U.S.C. 1828(h) 
                            <SU>15</SU>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="3213"/>
                        <ENT I="03">For assessments &lt; $10,000</ENT>
                        <ENT>153</ENT>
                        <ENT>157</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">12 U.S.C. 1829b(j)</ENT>
                        <ENT>25,597</ENT>
                        <ENT>26,262</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">12 U.S.C. 1832(c)</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,558</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,650</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">12 U.S.C. 1884</ENT>
                        <ENT>356</ENT>
                        <ENT>365</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">12 U.S.C. 1972(2)(F)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tier One CMP</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,249</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,567</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tier Two CMP</ENT>
                        <ENT>61,238</ENT>
                        <ENT>62,829</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Tier Three CMP 
                            <SU>16</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>2,449,575</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,513,215</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">12 U.S.C. 3909(d)</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,047</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,126</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">15 U.S.C. 78u-2</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tier One CMP (individuals)</ENT>
                        <ENT>11,524</ENT>
                        <ENT>11,823</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tier One CMP (others)</ENT>
                        <ENT>115,231</ENT>
                        <ENT>118,225</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tier Two CMP (individuals)</ENT>
                        <ENT>115,231</ENT>
                        <ENT>118,225</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tier Two CMP (others)</ENT>
                        <ENT>576,158</ENT>
                        <ENT>591,127</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tier Three CMP (individuals)</ENT>
                        <ENT>230,464</ENT>
                        <ENT>236,451</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tier Three CMP (others)</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,152,314</ENT>
                        <ENT>1,182,251</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">15 U.S.C. 1639e(k)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">First violation</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,069</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,435</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Subsequent violations</ENT>
                        <ENT>28,135</ENT>
                        <ENT>28,866</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">31 U.S.C. 3802</ENT>
                        <ENT>13,946</ENT>
                        <ENT>14,308</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,661</ENT>
                        <ENT>2,730</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,tp0,i1" CDEF="s100,r50,r50">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">CFR Citation</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Current presumptive CMP 
                            <LI>(through January 14, 2025)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Adjusted presumptive CMP 
                            <LI>(beginning January 15, 2025)</LI>
                        </CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">12 CFR 308.132(e)(1)(i) </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Institutions with $25 million or more in assets</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="05">1 to 15 days late</ENT>
                        <ENT>$672</ENT>
                        <ENT>$689.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="05">16 or more days late </ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,344</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,379.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Institutions with less than $25 million in assets</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="05">
                            1 to 15 days late 
                            <SU>17</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>$225</ENT>
                        <ENT>$231.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="05">
                            16 or more days late 
                            <SU>18</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>$447</ENT>
                        <ENT>$459.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">12 CFR 308.132(e)(1)(ii)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Institutions with $25 million or more in assets</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="05">1 to 15 days late</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,119</ENT>
                        <ENT>$1,148.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="05">16 or more days late</ENT>
                        <ENT>$2,238</ENT>
                        <ENT>$2,296.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Institutions with less than $25 million in assets</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="05">1 to 15 days late</ENT>
                        <ENT>1/50,000th of the institution's total assets</ENT>
                        <ENT>1/50,000th of the institution's total assets.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="05">16 or more days late</ENT>
                        <ENT>1/25,000th of the institution's total assets</ENT>
                        <ENT>1/25,000th of the institution's total assets.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">12 CFR 308.132(e)(2)</ENT>
                        <ENT>$48,992</ENT>
                        <ENT>$50,265.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="22">12 CFR 308.132(e)(3)</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tier One CMP</ENT>
                        <ENT>$4,899</ENT>
                        <ENT>$5,026.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Tier Two CMP</ENT>
                        <ENT>$48,992</ENT>
                        <ENT>$50,265.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">
                            Tier Three CMP 
                            <SU>19</SU>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>$2,449,575</ENT>
                        <ENT>$2,513,215.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <SIG>
                    <P>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.</P>
                    <DATED>Dated at Washington, DC on January 8, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Debra A. Decker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Executive Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00643 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6714-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Formations of, Acquisitions by, and Mergers of Bank Holding Companies</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    The companies listed in this notice have applied to the Board for approval, pursuant to the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) (BHC Act), Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225), and all other applicable statutes and regulations to become a bank holding company and/or to acquire the assets or the ownership of, control of, or the power to vote shares of a bank or bank holding company and all of the banks and nonbanking companies owned by the bank holding company, including the companies listed below.
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         The maximum penalty amount is per day, unless otherwise indicated.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         12 U.S.C. 1464(v) provides the maximum CMP amounts for the late filing of certain Call Reports. In 2012, however, the FDIC issued regulations that further subdivided these amounts based upon the size of the institution and the lateness of the filing. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         77 FR 74573, 74576 through 78 (Dec. 17, 2012), codified at 12 CFR 308.132(e)(1). These adjusted subdivided amounts are found at the end of this chart.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         The maximum penalty amount for an institution is the lesser of this amount or 1 percent of total assets.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         12 U.S.C. 1817(a) provides the maximum CMP amounts for the late filing of certain Call Reports. In 1991, however, the FDIC issued regulations that further subdivided these amounts based upon the size of the institution and the lateness of the filing. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         56 FR 37968, 37992-93 (Aug. 9, 1991), codified at 12 CFR 308.132(e)(1). These adjusted subdivided amounts are found at the end of this chart.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         The maximum penalty amount for an institution is the lesser of this amount or 1 percent of total assets.
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         The maximum penalty amount for an institution is the lesser of this amount or 1 percent of total assets.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         The maximum penalty amount for an institution is the lesser of this amount or 1 percent of total assets.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         These amounts also apply to CMPs in statutes that cross-reference 12 U.S.C. 1818, such as 12 U.S.C. 2601, 2804(b), 3108(b), 3349(b), 4009(a), 4309(a), 4717(b); 15 U.S.C. 1607(a), 1681s(b), 1691(b), 1691c(a), 1693
                        <E T="03">o</E>
                        (a); and 42 U.S.C. 3601.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         The maximum penalty amount for an institution is the lesser of this amount or 1 percent of total assets.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         The $157-per-day maximum CMP under 12 U.S.C. 1828(h) for failure or refusal to pay any assessment applies only when the assessment is less than $10,000. When the amount of the assessment is $10,000 or more, the maximum CMP under section 1828(h) is 1 percent of the amount of the assessment for each day that the failure or refusal continues.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         The maximum penalty amount for an institution is the lesser of this amount or 1 percent of total assets.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         The maximum penalty amount for an institution is the greater of this amount or 1/100,000th of the institution's total assets.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         The maximum penalty amount for an institution is the greater of this amount or 1/50,000th of the institution's total assets.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         The maximum penalty amount for an institution is the lesser of this amount or 1 percent of total assets.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="3214"/>
                <P>
                    The public portions of the applications listed below, as well as other related filings required by the Board, if any, are available for immediate inspection at the Federal Reserve Bank(s) indicated below and at the offices of the Board of Governors. This information may also be obtained on an expedited basis, upon request, by contacting the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank and from the Board's Freedom of Information Office at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.federalreserve.gov/foia/request.htm.</E>
                     Interested persons may express their views in writing on the standards enumerated in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)).
                </P>
                <P>Comments received are subject to public disclosure. In general, comments received will be made available without change and will not be modified to remove personal or business information including confidential, contact, or other identifying information. Comments should not include any information such as confidential information that would not be appropriate for public disclosure.</P>
                <P>Comments regarding each of these applications must be received at the Reserve Bank indicated or the offices of the Board of Governors, Ann E. Misback, Secretary of the Board, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington DC 20551-0001, not later than February 13, 2025.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">A. Federal Reserve Bank of Chicago</E>
                     (Colette A. Fried, Assistant Vice President) 230 South LaSalle Street, Chicago, Illinois 60690-1414. Comments can also be sent electronically to 
                    <E T="03">Comments.applications@chi.frb.org:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">UIR Acceptance Corporation, Lemont, Illinois;</E>
                     to become a bank holding company by acquiring Easton Bancshares, Inc., and thereby indirectly acquiring Community Bank of Easton, both of Easton, Illinois.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.</P>
                    <NAME>Michele Taylor Fennell,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Secretary of the Board.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00599 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 6210-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Supplemental Evidence and Data Request on The Performance of Fusion Procedures for Degenerative Disease of the Lumbar Spine</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ), HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for Supplemental Evidence and Data Submission.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) is seeking scientific information submissions from the public. Scientific information is being solicited to inform our review on 
                        <E T="03">The Performance of Fusion Procedures for Degenerative Disease of the Lumbar Spine,</E>
                         which is currently being conducted by the AHRQ's Evidence-based Practice Centers (EPC) Program. Access to published and unpublished pertinent scientific information will improve the quality of this review.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Submission Deadline</E>
                         on or before February 13, 2025.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Email submissions: epc@ahrq.hhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Print submissions:</E>
                          
                    </P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        <E T="03">Mailing Address:</E>
                         Center for Evidence and Practice Improvement, Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, ATTN: EPC SEADs Coordinator, 5600 Fishers Lane, Mail Stop 06E53A, Rockville, MD 20857
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        <E T="03">Shipping Address (FedEx, UPS, etc.):</E>
                         Center for Evidence and Practice Improvement, Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, ATTN: EPC SEADs Coordinator, 5600 Fishers Lane, Mail Stop 06E77D, Rockville, MD 20857
                    </FP>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                         Kelly Carper, Telephone: 301-427-1656 or Email: 
                        <E T="03">epc@ahrq.hhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality has commissioned the Evidence-based Practice Centers (EPC) Program to complete a review of the evidence for 
                    <E T="03">The Performance of Fusion Procedures for Degenerative Disease of the Lumbar Spine.</E>
                     AHRQ is conducting this review pursuant to Section 902 of the Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 299a.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The EPC Program is dedicated to identifying as many studies as possible that are relevant to the questions for each of its reviews. In order to do so, we are supplementing the usual manual and electronic database searches of the literature by requesting information from the public (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     details of studies conducted). We are looking for studies that report on 
                    <E T="03">The Performance of Fusion Procedures for Degenerative Disease of the Lumbar Spine.</E>
                     The entire research protocol is available online at: 
                    <E T="03">https://effectivehealthcare.ahrq.gov/products/lumbar-spinal-fusion/protocol.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    This is to notify the public that the EPC Program would find the following information on 
                    <E T="03">The Performance of Fusion Procedures for Degenerative Disease of the Lumbar Spine</E>
                     helpful:
                </P>
                <P>
                     A list of completed studies that your organization has sponsored for this topic. In the list, please 
                    <E T="03">indicate whether results are available on ClinicalTrials.gov along with the ClinicalTrials.gov trial number.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                      
                    <E T="03">For completed studies that do not have results on ClinicalTrials.gov,</E>
                     a summary, including the following elements, if relevant: study number, study period, design, methodology, indication and diagnosis, proper use instructions, inclusion and exclusion criteria, primary and secondary outcomes, baseline characteristics, number of patients screened/eligible/enrolled/lost to follow-up/withdrawn/analyzed, effectiveness/efficacy, and safety results.
                </P>
                <P>
                      
                    <E T="03">A list of ongoing studies that your organization has sponsored for this topic.</E>
                     In the list, please provide the ClinicalTrials.gov trial number or, if the trial is not registered, the protocol for the study including, if relevant, a study number, the study period, design, methodology, indication and diagnosis, proper use instructions, inclusion and exclusion criteria, and primary and secondary outcomes.
                </P>
                <P>
                     Description of whether the above studies constitute 
                    <E T="03">ALL Phase II and above clinical trials</E>
                     sponsored by your organization for this topic and an index outlining the relevant information in each submitted file.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Your contribution is very beneficial to the Program. Materials submitted must 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3215"/>
                    be publicly available or able to be made public. Materials that are considered confidential; marketing materials; study types not included in the review; or information on topics not included in the review cannot be used by the EPC Program. This is a voluntary request for information, and all costs for complying with this request must be borne by the submitter.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The draft of this review will be posted on AHRQ's EPC Program website and available for public comment for a period of 4 weeks. If you would like to be notified when the draft is posted, please sign up for the email list at: 
                    <E T="03">https://effectivehealthcare.ahrq.gov/email-updates.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">The review will answer the following questions. This information is provided as background. AHRQ is not requesting that the public provide answers to these questions.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Key Questions (KQ)</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Questions on Surgery (KQ 1-4)</HD>
                <P>In adults with symptomatic, stable degenerative lumbar spondylolisthesis (DLS) with or without radiculopathy or neurogenic claudication</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Key Question 1.</E>
                     What are the benefits and harms of surgery with instrumentation in addition to decompression compared with decompression alone?
                </P>
                <P>In symptomatic adults with unstable or stable DLS with or without radiculopathy or neurogenic claudication undergoing instrumented fusion:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Key Question 2.</E>
                     What are the benefits and harms of the addition of an interbody cage to instrumentation (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     pedicle screws) compared to use of instrumentation alone (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     posterolateral fusion)?
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Key Question 3.</E>
                     What are the benefits and harms of the use of bone graft extenders and biologic substitutes compared to the use of autografts?
                </P>
                <P>In adults with symptomatic, degenerative lumbar spine disease undergoing instrumented fusion:</P>
                <P>• Key Question 4. Does the use of intraoperative monitoring (IONM) decrease perioperative neurological injuries compared with not using IONM?</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">PICOTS (Populations, Interventions, Comparators, Outcomes, Timing, and Setting)</HD>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s100,xl100,xl100">
                    <TTITLE>Table 1—EPC Proposed PICOTS and Corresponding Inclusion and Exclusion Criteria Key Questions 1,2,3 and 4 on Surgery</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Inclusion</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Exclusion</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Population</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Key Questions (1-3)
                            <LI O="oi3">• Symptomatic adult patients with a radiographic diagnosis (based on dynamic (flexion and extension radiographs) of degenerative lumbar spondylolisthesis (any grade) who remain symptomatic following conservative treatment</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Patients with or without evidence of nerve compression (radiculopathy, neurogenic claudication)</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 1</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Stable (non-mobile, static) DLS (&lt;3 mm slip on extension/flexion radiographs)</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 2, 3</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Patients with unstable or stable DLS on radiographs</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 4</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Patients with symptomatic degenerative lumbar spine disease undergoing fusion of 5 or fewer levels (stratify by presence of DLS)</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            ALL Key Questions
                            <LI O="oi3">• Patients &lt;18 years old.</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Asymptomatic patients.</LI>
                            <LI>
                                • Other forms of spondylolisthesis are excluded (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 excluding dysplastic, isthmic, traumatic, and pathologic causes/forms).
                            </LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Patients with osteoporosis, vertebral compression fractures.</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Exclude pts undergoing revisions or repeat procedures.</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Patients having reoperation/repeat procedures.</LI>
                            <LI>KQs 1-3</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Patients without degenerative spondylolisthesis.</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Studies with &lt;80% of patients have spondylolisthesis.</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 1</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Patients with unstable (dynamic) DLS: (exclude study if stable is not specified, is unclear).</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Interventions</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            ALL Key Questions
                            <LI O="oi3">• FDA approved devices or materials (or in Phase III trials) as applicable to the KQ</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">
                                • Open and minimally invasive (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 endoscopic) procedures
                            </LI>
                            <LI>KQ 1</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">
                                • Decompression (discectomy, indirect and direct methods) with instrumented spinal fusion (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 with pedicle screws, interbody cages, or other hardware)
                            </LI>
                            <LI>KQ 2</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">
                                • Surgical decompression and instrumented posterolateral fusion (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 using pedicle screws) with addition of interbody cage (expandable or static, ALIF, TLIF, LLIF)
                            </LI>
                            <LI>KQ 3</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Decompression and spinal fusion using bone graft extenders or biologic substitutes (demineralized bone matrix, cadaveric allograft, cortical fibers, bone morphogenic protein, cellular allografts</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 4</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• IONM (Motor Evoked Potentials (MEP), Somatosensory Evoked Potentials (SSEP), Free Running EMG (electromyography) Direct Stimulation</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            ALL Key Questions
                            <LI O="oi3">• Devices or materials that are not FDA approved or in Phase III trials (as applicable to the question) or not available in the U.S.</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs)</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Procedures that don't include decompression</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Non-instrumented fusions</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Coflex, interspinous fixation</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Minimally invasive lumbar decompression (MILD) procedure</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Surgical procedures not listed</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 4</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">
                                • Other monitoring formats (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 imaging, computer assisted navigation systems, etc.)
                            </LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Combinations of graft materials (other than with autograft)</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Comparison of graft materials with each other</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="3216"/>
                        <ENT I="01">Comparators</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            ALL Key Questions
                            <LI O="oi3">• FDA approved devices or materials (or in Phase III trials) as applicable to the KQ</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">
                                • Open and minimally invasive (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 endoscopic) procedures
                            </LI>
                            <LI>KQ 1</LI>
                            <LI>• Decompression alone</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 2</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">
                                • Decompression and instrumented posterolateral spinal fusion (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 using pedicle screws alone)
                            </LI>
                            <LI>KQ 3</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Decompression and instrumented spinal fusion using autograft</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 4</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• No use of IONM</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            ALL Key Questions
                            <LI O="oi3">• Conservative care, non-operative care, usual care</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Devices or materials that are not FDA approved or in Phase III trials (as applicable to the question) or not available in the U.S.</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs)</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 1</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Other surgical procedures</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 2, 3</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Non-instrumented fusion,</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Instrumentation prior to 2000</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Coflex, interspinous fixation</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 3</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Combinations of graft materials with autograft</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Outcomes</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            ALL Key Questions
                            <LI O="oi3">• Validated measures for pain and symptoms</LI>
                            <LI O="oi4">
                                ○ Pain (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 VAS)
                            </LI>
                            <LI O="oi4">
                                ○ Function (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 ODI)
                            </LI>
                            <LI O="oi4">
                                ○ Quality of Life (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 SF-36, SF-12)
                            </LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Peri- and post-operative harms (including serious AEs/harms, persistent pain, sacro-iliac joint pain, instrument failure)</LI>
                            <LI>Additional outcomes by KQ</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 1: Reoperation rates</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 2: Fusion (arthrodesis) rates</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 3: Fusion (arthrodesis) rates</LI>
                            <LI>
                                KQ 4: Persistent neurological damage based on clinical exam (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 foot drop)
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            ALL Key Questions
                            <LI O="oi3">• Measures of pain, function that are not validated</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Measures/outcomes not listed</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">
                                • Radiographic parameters (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 evidence of global spinal alignment)
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Timing</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Key Questions 1-3
                            <LI O="oi3">• Pain, function, reoperation: 3, 6 and ≥12 months (up to 60 months)</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Reoperation-any time (KQ 2):</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Harms: any time</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 4</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Any time during post-operative followup</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            KQ 1
                            <LI O="oi3">• Re-operation beyond 12 months</LI>
                            <LI>KQs 1-3</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Outcomes measured less than 3 months (except harms)</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 4</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Alerts and responses to alerts during surgery</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Settings</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            ALL Key Questions
                            <LI O="oi3">• Inpatient care followed by care in specialty and primary care clinics</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Outpatient ambulatory surgery centers</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Study designs</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            ALL Key Questions
                            <LI O="oi3">• RCTs for effectiveness/efficacy outcomes</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• FDA SSED if there is inadequate information from published studies</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Studies published in 2000 or later</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 1-3: NRSIs will be considered for harms only and must be specifically designed to evaluate/report on AE/harms and control for confounding and focused on rare or long-term harms.</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 4: NRSIs on effectiveness and harms</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            ALL Key Questions
                            <LI O="oi3">• NRSI that do not control for confounding</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• NRSI that include historical controls</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• NRSI of treatment with fewer than 50 patients per treatment arm</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Case reports, case-series, single-arm and pre-post studies</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Publication types: Conference abstracts or proceedings, editorials, letters, white papers, citations that have not been peer-reviewed, single site reports of multi-site studies</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Studies published prior to 2000</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Studies not in English</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 1-3</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Trials with fewer than 15 patients per treatment arm</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>Serious adverse events are defined as events that are life-threatening or require additional medical attention. AE = adverse event; ALIF = anterior lumbar interbody fusion; DLS = degenerative lumbar spondylolisthesis; EQ-5D = EuroQol 5D scale; FDA = Food and Drug Administration; IONM = intraoperative neurological monitoring; KQ = Key Question; LLIF = lateral lumbar interbody fusion; MCID = minimum clinically important difference; NRSI = nonrandomized studies of intervention; ODI = Oswestry Disability Index; RCT = randomized controlled trial; RMD = Roland-Morris Disability Questionnaire; SSED = Summary of Safety and Effectiveness Data; SF-36/12 = Short Form 36 or 12 questionnaire; TLIF = transforaminal lumbar interbody fusion; U.S. = United States; VAS = visual analog scale.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">KQ 5 and 6: Questions on Non-Surgical Procedures for Chronic Low Back Pain Due To Degenerative Spine Disease</HD>
                <P>Key Question 5. In adult patients with chronic low-back pain (≥3 months) resulting from degenerative disease what are the benefits and harms of lumbar epidural steroid injections, intra-articular (facet) injection, medial branch blocks, or radio frequency ablation?</P>
                <P>Key Question 6. In adult patients with chronic low-back pain (≥3 months) resulting from degenerative disease of the lumbar spine, does symptomatic improvement to therapeutic challenge with lumbar epidural steroid injections, intra-articular (facet) injection, medial branch blocks or radio frequency ablation predict positive outcomes after lumbar fusion surgery?</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Special populations and factors for Key Questions 5 and 6:</E>
                     Age, sex, BMI, presence of psychological comorbidities, presence of medical comorbidities, baseline pain severity, presence and type of concomitant degenerative lumbar spine disease, presence and severity of DLS.
                    <PRTPAGE P="3217"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s100,xl100,xl100">
                    <TTITLE>Table 2—EPC Proposed PICOTS and Corresponding Inclusion and Exclusion Criteria: Key Questions 5 and 6 on Specific Procedures in Patients With Chronic Low Back Pain Due To Degenerative Spine Disease</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Inclusion</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Exclusion</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Population</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            KQ 5, 6
                            <LI O="oi3">• Adult patients with chronic low-back pain (≥3 months duration) resulting from degenerative disease</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            KQ 5, 6
                            <LI O="oi3">• Patients with acute or subacute LBP</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Patients with disc herniation</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Patients with failed back surgery syndrome</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Sacroiliac pain</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Patients having reoperation</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Interventions</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            KQ 5, 6
                            <LI O="oi3">• Epidural steroid injections (ESI)</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Intra-articular (facet) injections</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Radiofrequency Ablation (RFA)</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Medial branch blocks</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            KQ 5, 6
                            <LI O="oi3">• Discoblock, provocative discography</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">
                                • Neuromodulation (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 spinal cord, dorsal column, dorsal root stimulation, peripheral nerve stimulation)
                            </LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">
                                • Injections: exclude other biologics (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 PRP), intradiscal injections
                            </LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Minimally invasive lumbar decompression (MILD), percutaneous decompression</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Selective nerve root blocks</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Intraosseous basivertebral nerve ablation</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Combinations of procedures; Studies evaluating additive benefits of one procedure with another</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Comparators</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            KQ 5
                            <LI O="oi3">• Other nonoperative treatment, no treatment, sham</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 6</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• No therapeutic challenge; (prognostic/predictive modeling study)</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            KQ 5, 6
                            <LI O="oi3">• Combinations of procedures; Studies evaluating additive benefits of one procedure to another</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 5</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">
                                • For ESI, exclude comparison with disc procedures (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 discography); comparisons of medications
                            </LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• For RFA exclude comparisons of different types of neurotomy (conventional vs. pulsed [cooled] RF; RF vs. alcohol ablation)</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Outcomes</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            KQ 5 and 6: Harms (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             serious peri-procedural and post-procedural harms)
                            <LI>KQ 5</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Validated measures for pain and symptoms</LI>
                            <LI O="oi4">
                                ○ Pain (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 VAS, NRS)
                            </LI>
                            <LI O="oi4">
                                ○ Function (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 ODI)
                            </LI>
                            <LI O="oi4">
                                ○ Quality of Life (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 SF-36, SF12)
                            </LI>
                            <LI>KQ 6</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Response to challenge: Improvement in symptoms vs. non-improvement; [stratify other outcomes by response]</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Validated measures for pain and symptoms following fusion surgery</LI>
                            <LI O="oi4">
                                ○ Pain (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 VAS, NRS)
                            </LI>
                            <LI O="oi4">
                                ○ Function (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 ODI)
                            </LI>
                            <LI O="oi4">
                                ○ Quality of Life (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 SF-36, SF-12)
                            </LI>
                            <LI O="oi4">○ Symptoms associated with neural compression</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">
                                • Successful arthrodesis [as radiographically determined via x-ray/computed tomography or by proxy (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 lack of revision, pedicle screw loosening)]
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            KQ 5, 6
                            <LI O="oi3">• Measures of pain, function that are not validated</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Measures/outcomes not listed</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Timing</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            KQ 5 and 6
                            <LI O="oi3">• Serious harms—periprocedural</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 5</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• 3-month and 6-month periods following the procedure</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 6</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Outcomes measured at 3, 6 and ≥12 months after surgical procedure (up to 24 months)</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Settings</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            KQ 5
                            <LI O="oi3">• Outpatient</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 6</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Outpatient care for therapeutic challenge. Inpatient care followed by care in specialty and primary care clinics for surgical procedure</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Outpatient ambulatory surgery centers for surgery</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="3218"/>
                        <ENT I="01">Study designs</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            KQ 5
                            <LI O="oi3">• RCTS for effectiveness/efficacy outcomes</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Prospective NRSIs that control for confounding will be considered for effectiveness in the absence of RCTs</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• NRSIs for harms must be specifically designed to evaluate/report on serious AE/harms and that control for confounding OR focused on rare or long-term harms</LI>
                            <LI>KQ 6</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Predictive/prognostic modeling studies evaluating the association of procedure response impact on outcomes that control for confounding</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            KQ 5, 6
                            <LI O="oi3">• NRSI that do not control for confounding</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• NRSI that include historical controls</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• NRSI with fewer than 50 patients per treatment arm</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Case reports, case-series, single-arm and pre-post studies</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Publication types: Conference abstracts or proceedings, editorials, letters, white papers, citations that have not been peer-reviewed, single site reports of multi-site studies</LI>
                            <LI O="oi3">• Studies not in English</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>Serious adverse events are defined as events that are life-threatening or anything needing additional medical attention. AE = adverse event; DLS = degenerative lumbar spondylolisthesis; EQ-5D = EuroQol 5D scale; ESI = epidural steroid injection; FDA = Food and Drug Administration; IONM = intraoperative neuro monitoring; KQ = Key Question; LBP = low back pain; MCID = minimum clinically important difference; NRSI = nonrandomized studies of intervention; ODI = Oswestry Disability Index; RCT = randomized controlled trial; RF = radiofrequency ablation; RMD = Rolland-Morris Disability Questionnaire; SSED = Summary of Safety and Effectiveness Data; SF-36/12 = Short Form 36 or 12 questionnaire; VAS = visual analog scale.</TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Marquita Cullom,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Director.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00548 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4160-90-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Supplemental Evidence and Data Request on Primary Hypofractionated Radiation Therapy for Localized Prostate Cancer: A Systematic Review</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ), HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for Supplemental Evidence and Data Submission.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) is seeking scientific information submissions from the public. Scientific information is being solicited to inform our review on 
                        <E T="03">Primary Hypofractionated Radiation Therapy for Localized Prostate Cancer: A Systematic Review,</E>
                         which is currently being conducted by the AHRQ's Evidence-based Practice Centers (EPC) Program. Access to published and unpublished pertinent scientific information will improve the quality of this review.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Submission Deadline</E>
                         on or before February 13, 2025.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Email submissions: epc@ahrq.hhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Print submissions:</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Mailing Address:</E>
                         Center for Evidence and Practice Improvement, Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, 
                        <E T="03">Attn:</E>
                         EPC SEADs Coordinator, 5600 Fishers Lane, Mail Stop 06E53A, Rockville, MD 20857.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Shipping Address (FedEx, UPS, etc.):</E>
                         Center for Evidence and Practice Improvement, Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, 
                        <E T="03">Attn:</E>
                         EPC SEADs Coordinator, 5600 Fishers Lane, Mail Stop 06E77D, Rockville, MD 20857.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Kelly Carper, Telephone: 301-427-1656 or Email: 
                        <E T="03">epc@ahrq.hhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality has commissioned the Evidence-based Practice Centers (EPC) Program to complete a review of the evidence for 
                    <E T="03">Primary Hypofractionated Radiation Therapy for Localized Prostate Cancer: A Systematic Review.</E>
                </P>
                <P>AHRQ is conducting this review pursuant to Section 902 of the Public Health Service Act, 42 U.S.C. 299a.</P>
                <P>
                    The EPC Program is dedicated to identifying as many studies as possible that are relevant to the questions for each of its reviews. In order to do so, we are supplementing the usual manual and electronic database searches of the literature by requesting information from the public (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     details of studies conducted). We are looking for studies that report on 
                    <E T="03">Primary Hypofractionated Radiation Therapy for Localized Prostate Cancer: A Systematic Review.</E>
                     The entire research protocol is available online at:
                    <E T="03"> https://effectivehealthcare.ahrq.gov/products/hypofractionated-radiation-therapy/protocol</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    This is to notify the public that the EPC Program would find the following information on 
                    <E T="03">Primary Hypofractionated Radiation Therapy for Localized Prostate Cancer: A Systematic Review</E>
                     helpful:
                </P>
                <P>
                     A list of completed studies that your organization has sponsored for this topic. In the list, please 
                    <E T="03">indicate whether results are available on ClinicalTrials.gov along with the ClinicalTrials.gov trial number.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                      
                    <E T="03">For completed studies that do not have results on ClinicalTrials.gov,</E>
                     a summary, including the following elements, if relevant: study number, study period, design, methodology, indication and diagnosis, proper use instructions, inclusion and exclusion criteria, primary and secondary outcomes, baseline characteristics, number of patients screened/eligible/enrolled/lost to follow-up/withdrawn/analyzed, effectiveness/efficacy, and safety results.
                </P>
                <P>
                      
                    <E T="03">A list of ongoing studies that your organization has sponsored for this topic.</E>
                     In the list, please provide the ClinicalTrials.gov trial number or, if the trial is not registered, the protocol for the study including, if relevant, a study number, the study period, design, methodology, indication and diagnosis, proper use instructions, inclusion and exclusion criteria, and primary and secondary outcomes.
                </P>
                <P>
                     Description of whether the above studies constitute 
                    <E T="03">ALL Phase II and above clinical trials</E>
                     sponsored by your organization for this topic and an index outlining the relevant information in each submitted file.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Your contribution is very beneficial to the Program. Materials submitted must be publicly available or able to be made public. Materials that are considered confidential; marketing materials; study types not included in the review; or information on topics not included in the review cannot be used by the EPC Program. This is a voluntary request for information, and all costs for complying 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3219"/>
                    with this request must be borne by the submitter.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The draft of this review will be posted on AHRQ's EPC Program website and available for public comment for a period of 4 weeks. If you would like to be notified when the draft is posted, please sign up for the email list at: 
                    <E T="03">https://effectivehealthcare.ahrq.gov/email-updates.</E>
                </P>
                <P>The review will answer the following questions. This information is provided as background. AHRQ is not requesting that the public provide answers to these questions.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Key Questions (KQ)</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">KQ 1:</E>
                     For patients with localized prostate cancer receiving external beam radiation therapy (EBRT) with curative intent, what are the benefits and harms of moderate hypofractionation compared to conventional fractionation?
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">KQ 1a:</E>
                     Do findings vary with respect to patient characteristics (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     age, race and ethnicity), pretreatment characteristics (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     risk group, prostate gland volume, lower urinary tract symptoms, prior prostate procedures), treatment targets (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     prostate with or without treatment of pelvic lymph nodes), and use of adjunctive therapies (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     with or without neoadjuvant or adjuvant androgen deprivation therapy)?
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">KQ 2:</E>
                     For patients with localized prostate cancer receiving EBRT with curative intent, what are the benefits and harms of ultra-hypofractionation compared to moderate hypofractionation or conventional fractionation?
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">KQ 2a:</E>
                     Do findings vary with respect to patient characteristics (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     age, race, and ethnicity), pretreatment characteristics (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     risk group, prostate gland volume, lower urinary tract symptoms, prior prostate procedures), treatment targets (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     prostate with or without treatment of pelvic lymph nodes), and use of adjunctive therapies (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     with or without neoadjuvant or adjuvant androgen deprivation therapy)?
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">KQ 3:</E>
                     For patients with localized prostate cancer receiving moderate or ultra-hypofractionated EBRT with curative intent, what are the benefits and harms of different dose-fractionation regimens?
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">KQ 3a:</E>
                     Do findings vary with respect to pretreatment characteristics (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     tumor stage, disease risk, urinary tract symptoms, prior prostate procedures)?
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">KQ 4:</E>
                     For patients with localized prostate cancer receiving moderate or ultra-hypofractionated EBRT with curative intent, what are the benefits and harms associated with different target volumes (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     prostate alone, prostate with seminal vesicles, prostate with seminal vesicles and pelvic lymph nodes; with or without focal intraprostatic boosts)?
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                    <E T="03">KQ 4a:</E>
                     Do findings vary with respect to pretreatment characteristics (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     imaging)?
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                    <E T="03">KQ 5:</E>
                     For patients with localized prostate cancer receiving moderate or ultra-hypofractionated EBRT with curative intent, what are the benefits and harms of different treatment planning and delivery techniques?
                </FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Contextual Question</HD>
                <P>
                    Does the utilization of fractionation schedule (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     conventional fractionation, moderate hypofractionation, and ultra-hypofractionation) differ by factors such as age, race, ethnicity, socioeconomic status, or geography?
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s20,r100,r30">
                    <TTITLE>PICOTS (Populations, Interventions, Comparators, Outcomes, Timing, and Setting)</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Inclusion criteria</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Exclusion criteria</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="02" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="22">
                            <E T="02">Preliminary PICOTS criteria</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Population</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            KQs 1-5. Adult aged ≥18 years with localized prostate cancer (stages T1 to T4N0M0) who have elected to receive EBRT as their primary treatment regardless of pretreatment characteristics
                            <LI>
                                KQs 1a, 2a: Consider patient characteristics (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 age, race and ethnicity), pretreatment characteristics (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 prostate cancer risk group, prostate gland volume, presence of lower urinary tract symptoms), use of adjunctive therapies (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 androgen deprivation therapy)
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Individuals aged &lt;18 years, those with non-localized stage of prostate cancer at enrollment.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Interventions</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            All KQs. Radiation therapy administered as a primary treatment
                            <LI O="xl">KQ 1. MHF (2.4 to 3.4 Gy per fraction).</LI>
                            <LI O="xl">KQ 2. UHF (≥5.0 Gy per fraction).</LI>
                            <LI O="xl">KQ 3. Various dose-fractionation regimens (MHF, UHF).</LI>
                            <LI O="xl">
                                KQ 4. Various target volumes (MHF, UHF) (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 prostate, seminal, vesicles, pelvic lymph nodes, focal intraprostatic boosts).
                            </LI>
                            <LI O="xl">KQ 5. Various treatment planning and delivery techniques.</LI>
                            <LI O="xl">
                                • Advanced imaging for target delineation (any pretreatment imaging, 
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 CT, MRI, MR-linac, PET, urethral contrast).
                            </LI>
                            <LI O="xl">• Dose-volume criteria for OARs (urethra).</LI>
                            <LI O="xl">
                                • Image-guidance techniques (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 cone-beam CT, intraprostatic fiducial markers, MRI, electromagnetic tracking).
                            </LI>
                            <LI O="xl">
                                • Delivery techniques (
                                <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                                 IMRT, VMAT [term ARCS] protons [IMPT, passive scatter], SBPT, SBRT/SABR, 3D CRT).
                            </LI>
                            <LI O="xl">
                                • Rectal-sparing technologies (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 rectal spacers).
                            </LI>
                            <LI O="xl">• Online adaptive radiotherapy (treatment planning software).</LI>
                            <LI O="xl">
                                • Patient preparation for treatment planning and daily treatment (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 daily enemas, full bladder, empty rectum).
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Other treatments and techniques. Salvage radiation therapy; adjuvant or neoadjuvant radiation therapy.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Comparators</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            KQ 1. CF (1.8 to 2.0 Gy per fraction)
                            <LI O="xl">KQ 2. CF, MHF.</LI>
                            <LI O="xl">KQ 3. Dose-fractionation regimens compared to each other.</LI>
                            <LI O="xl">KQ 4. Target volumes compared to each other [all grouped by type of hypofractionation (MHF and UHF).</LI>
                            <LI O="xl">KQ 5. Treatment planning and delivery techniques compared to each other</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Other comparators.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Outcomes</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            KQ 1—KQ 5. Overall and prostate cancer-specific survival, local recurrence, metastases, biochemical recurrence-free survival, acute and late gastrointestinal toxicity, acute and late genitourinary toxicity, patient reported outcomes (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             GI, GU, ED) and quality of life
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>Other outcomes.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Timing</ENT>
                        <ENT>Any followup duration</ENT>
                        <ENT>NA</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="3220"/>
                        <ENT I="01">Setting</ENT>
                        <ENT>KQ 1—KQ 5. All clinical settings</ENT>
                        <ENT>NA</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Study Design</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            KQs 1, 2. Randomized controlled trials
                            <LI O="xl">KQs 3-5. Randomized controlled trials. Comparative cohort studies with concurrent control groups, conducted within the same clinical setting. Other observational studies with concurrent control groups, that control for confounders.</LI>
                            <LI O="xl">
                                Studies conducted in countries rated as very high on the Human Development Index.
                                <SU>a</SU>
                            </LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            KQs 1, 2: Other designs.
                            <LI>KQs 3-5: Uncontrolled cohort studies, case-control studies, case reports, case series, cost-effectiveness and other modeling studies.</LI>
                            <LI>
                                Studies using nonconcurrent comparators (
                                <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                                 historical controls).
                            </LI>
                            <LI>Studies comparing methods across different settings/clinics.</LI>
                            <LI>Observational studies that do not control for confounders.</LI>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <E T="03">Abbreviations</E>
                        : CF = conventionally fractionated external beam radiation therapy; CT = computed tomography; CRT = conventional radiotherapy; EBRT = external beam radiation therapy; ED = erectile dysfunction; GI = gastrointestinal issues; GU = genitourinary issues; Gy = gray; IMPT = intensity modulated proton therapy; KQ = key question; MHF = moderately hypofractionated radiation therapy; MRI = magnetic resonance imaging; MR-linac = MRI-guided linear accelerator; NA = not applicable; OARs = organs at risk; PET = positron emission tomography; PICOTS = population, interventions, comparators, outcomes, timing, and setting; SABR = stereotactic ablative radiotherapy; SBPT = stereotactic body proton therapy; SBRT = stereotactic body radiation therapy; UHF = ultra-hypofractionated radiation therapy; VMAT = volumetric modulated arc therapy.
                    </TNOTE>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>a</SU>
                         United Nations Development Programme. Human Development Index. Retrieved from 
                        <E T="03">https://hdr.undp.org/data-center/human-development-index#/indicies/HDI.</E>
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Marquita Cullom,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Director.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00547 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4160-90-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Document Identifiers: CMS-10777, CMS-R-235 and CMS-10662]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Proposed Collection; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, Health and Human Services (HHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         concerning each proposed collection of information (including each proposed extension or reinstatement of an existing collection of information) and to allow 60 days for public comment on the proposed action. Interested persons are invited to send comments regarding our burden estimates or any other aspect of this collection of information, including the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions, the accuracy of the estimated burden, ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected, and the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments must be received by March 17, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>When commenting, please reference the document identifier or OMB control number. To be assured consideration, comments and recommendations must be submitted in any one of the following ways:</P>
                    <P>
                        1. 
                        <E T="03">Electronically.</E>
                         You may send your comments electronically to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for “Comment or Submission” or “More Search Options” to find the information collection document(s) that are accepting comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        2. 
                        <E T="03">By regular mail.</E>
                         You may mail written comments to the following address: CMS, Office of Strategic Operations and Regulatory Affairs, Division of Regulations Development, 
                        <E T="03">Attention:</E>
                         Document Identifier/OMB Control Number: __, Room C4-26-05, 7500 Security Boulevard, Baltimore, Maryland 21244-1850.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, please access the CMS PRA website by copying and pasting the following web address into your web browser: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/Regulations-and-Guidance/Legislation/PaperworkReductionActof1995/PRA-Listing.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>William N. Parham at (410) 786-4669.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Contents</HD>
                <P>
                    This notice sets out a summary of the use and burden associated with the following information collections. More detailed information can be found in each collection's supporting statement and associated materials (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CMS-10777 Conditions of Participation for Intermediate Care Facilities for Individuals with Intellectual Disabilities (ICFs-IID)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CMS-R-235 Data Use Agreement (DUA) Limited Data Set (LDS) Forms Research Identifiable Files (FIF) Forms</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">CMS-10662 Administrative Simplification HIPAA Compliance Review</FP>
                <P>
                    Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3221"/>
                    public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA requires Federal agencies to publish a 60-day notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension or reinstatement of an existing collection of information, before submitting the collection to OMB for approval. To comply with this requirement, CMS is publishing this notice.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Information Collections</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">1. Type of Information Collection Request:</E>
                     Reinstatement with change of a previously approved collection; 
                    <E T="03">Title of Information Collection:</E>
                     Conditions of Participation for Intermediate Care Facilities for Individuals with Intellectual Disabilities (ICFs-IID); 
                    <E T="03">Use:</E>
                     This is a reinstatement of the information collection request that expired on September 30, 2024. The previous iteration of this OMB Control Number 0938-1402 (approved September 22, 2021) had an annual burden of 114,478 hours and annual costs of $7,375,654. For this requested reinstatement, with changes, the total annual burden hours for industry is 75,721 hours and the annual burden costs are $5,470,418.
                </P>
                <P>During the COVID-19 Public Health Emergency (PHE), individuals residing in congregate settings, such as ICFs-IID and Long-Term Care (LTC) facilities were at greater risk of acquiring COVID-19 infections and once infected, were at greater risk of severe illness or death. As a result, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) revised the Conditions of Participation (CoPs) for many of CMS' certified providers including hospitals and institutional care settings in order to reduce the risk of exposure to and the severity from contracting the COVID-19 virus for medical and non-medical staff and patients. In addition to the CoPs, health care facilities were obligated to establish an infection control program that would protect the health and safety of residents, personnel, and the general public under Sections 1819(d)(3)(B) and 1919(d)(3) of the Act.</P>
                <P>Individuals housed at ICFs-IID facilities are mentally and intellectually impaired, receive Medicaid assistance, and live in congregate settings. ICF-IID clients may also have other underlying medical conditions such as visual or hearing impairments, or seizure disorder. Based on their living situation and underlying health conditions, these clients were at higher risk of exposure and severe consequences from COVID-19 and continue to be at higher risk due to new variants of COVID-19 and other similar acute respiratory illnesses.</P>
                <P>In the interim final rule, entitled “Medicare and Medicaid Programs; COVID-19 Vaccine Requirements for Long-Term Care (LTC) Facilities and Intermediate Care Facilities for Individuals with Intellectual Disabilities (ICFs-IID) Residents, Clients, and Staff,” 86 FR 26306 (CMS-3414-IFC), that was published on May 13, 2021 (hereinafter “May 2021 Interim Final Rule”), CMS added new CoPs which required ICF/IIDs facilities to: (1) develop policies and procedures to educate clients, their representatives, and staff on the benefits and risks, and potential side effects of the COVID-19 vaccine; (2) educate and offer the COVID-19 vaccine per the policy and procedures developed; (3) document that staff and clients were educated and offered the vaccine; and (4) document whether or not a client or staff member received the vaccine and if not, if it was due to medical contraindications or refusal. The May 2021 Interim Final rule included an estimate for the burden hours and costs to industry associated with these specific information collection requests and which was subsequently submitted to OMB as the initial PRA package for this information collection request in 2021.</P>
                <P>
                    In November 2021, CMS issued “Medicare and Medicaid Programs; Omnibus COVID-19 Health Care Staff Vaccination,” 86 FR 61555 (CMS-3415-IFC)(hereinafter “November 2021 Interim Final Rule
                    <E T="03">”</E>
                    ), which mandated health care staff in all CMS certified facilities, including ICFs-IID, to be vaccinated. Most significantly, health care staff were no longer permitted to refuse being vaccinated and had to request an exemption if they did not want to receive the COVID-19 vaccine. As a result, ICFs-IID had to document that their staff were educated and offered the vaccine, and also document whether their staff received a vaccination or were approved for an exemption. Clients of ICFs-IID, however, were still allowed to refuse taking the vaccine which would be documented in their medical record.
                </P>
                <P>On June 5, 2023, CMS issued a final rule, “Medicare and Medicaid Programs; Policy and Regulatory Changes to the Omnibus COVID-19 Health Care Staff Vaccination Requirements; Additional Policy and Regulatory Changes to the Requirements for Long-Term Care (LTC) Facilities and Intermediate Care Facilities for Individuals With Intellectual Disabilities (ICFs-IID) To Provide COVID-19 Vaccine Education and Offer Vaccinations to Residents, Clients, and Staff; Policy and Regulatory Changes to the Long Term Care Facility COVID-19 Testing,” 88 FR 36485 (CMS-3415-F, 3414-F, and 3401-F)(hereinafter “June 2023 Final Rule”), which eliminated the vaccine mandate on health care staff and finalized the CoPs related to the “educate and offer” activity for COVID-19 vaccines in LTCs and ICF-IID. Currently, ICFs-IID must continue to educate on the risks and benefits of the COVID vaccine and offer the vaccine to clients and staff and must continue to document this activity for clients in their medical records. However, when the June 2023 Final Rule removed the staff vaccine mandate by eliminating the CoPs at 483.430(f) in its entirety, documentation of the educate and offer activity for staff was also eliminated. Thus, ICFs-IID must continue to “educate and offer” the COVID-19 vaccine to both staff and clients, but the current CoPs require facilities to document this task only for their clients. Although the COVID-19 PHE ended in May 2023, the COVID-19 related CoPs for ICF-IID as updated in the June 2023 Final Rule remain in effect post-PHE in order to protect clients and staff from the same risks as before that may be due to new COVID-19 variants.</P>
                <P>
                    This reinstatement estimates the new burden hours for ICFs-IID based on the revised CoPs. The burden of the information collections for LTC facilities is included in OMB Control Number 0938-1363. 
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     CMS-10777 (OMB control number 0938-1402); 
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Annually; 
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Private Sector—Business or other for-profits and not-for-profits institutions; 
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     5,523; 
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     5,523; Total Annual Hours: 75,721. (For policy questions regarding this collection contact Claudia Molinar at 410-786-8445.)
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection Request:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved collection; 
                    <E T="03">Title of Information Collection:</E>
                     Data Use Agreement (DUA) Limited Data Set (LDS) Forms Research Identifiable Files (FIF) Forms; 
                    <E T="03">Use:</E>
                     The Privacy Act of 1974, § 552a requires the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS) to track all disclosures of the agency's Personally Identifiable Information (PII). CMS is also required by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 and the Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA) of 2002 to properly protect all Protected Health Information (PHI) data maintained by the agency and account for the disclosure of PHI. When entities, such as academic, Federal or State agency 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3222"/>
                    researchers or CMS contractors request CMS PII/PHI data, they enter into a Data Use Agreement (DUA) with CMS. The DUA stipulates that the recipient of CMS data must properly protect the data according to all applicable data security standards and provide for its appropriate destruction at the completion of the project/study or the expiration date of the DUA.
                </P>
                <P>
                    CMS is permitted to disclose data files for approved research purposes in compliance with 45 CFR 164.512(I). Researchers requesting limited data set files (LDS) must, as part of the request process, complete a research request packet that provides CMS with information pertaining to the research study, including describing how the research results/findings will be disseminated, as well as the data files being requested. Should CMS approve the research request, the data requestor enters into a Data Use Agreement (DUA). This data collection is necessary to ensure that disclosures of data for research purposes comply with Federal laws and regulations as well as CMS policy. 
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     CMS-R-235 (OMB control number 0938-0734); 
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Occasionally; 
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Private Sector—State, Local, or Tribal Governments; and Business or other for-profits, Not-for-profits institutions and Federal Government 
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     7,805; 
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     7,805; 
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Hours:</E>
                     4,234. (For policy questions regarding this collection contact Rebecca Dorman at 410-786-2095 or 
                    <E T="03">rebecca.dorman@cms.hhs.gov.</E>
                    )
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection Request:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved collection; 
                    <E T="03">Title of Information Collection:</E>
                     Administrative Simplification HIPAA Compliance Review; 
                    <E T="03">Use:</E>
                     The purpose of this collection is to retrieve information necessary to conduct a compliance review and carry out the authority delegated to CMS as described in CMS-0014-N (68 FR 60694). These forms will be submitted to the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS), National Standards Group, from entities covered by HIPAA Administrative Simplification regulations. This collection is not applicable to HIPAA Privacy and Security Rules. 
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     CMS-10662 (OMB control number 0938-1390); 
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Annually; 
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Private Sector—State, Local, or Tribal Governments; and Business or other for-profits, Not-for-profits institutions and Federal Government; 
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     100; 
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     140; 
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Hours:</E>
                     3,040. (For policy questions regarding this collection contact Kevin Stewart at 410-786-6149 or 
                    <E T="03">Kevin.stewart@cms.hhs.gov.</E>
                    )
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>William N. Parham, III,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Division of Information Collections and Regulatory Impacts, Office of Strategic Operations and Regulatory Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00593 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Document Identifier: CMS-10203]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities: Submission for OMB Review; Comment Request</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services, Health and Human Services (HHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS) is announcing an opportunity for the public to comment on CMS' intention to collect information from the public. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Federal agencies are required to publish notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension or reinstatement of an existing collection of information, and to allow a second opportunity for public comment on the notice. Interested persons are invited to send comments regarding the burden estimate or any other aspect of this collection of information, including the necessity and utility of the proposed information collection for the proper performance of the agency's functions, the accuracy of the estimated burden, ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected, and the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology to minimize the information collection burden.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on the collection(s) of information must be received by the OMB desk officer by February 13, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To obtain copies of a supporting statement and any related forms for the proposed collection(s) summarized in this notice, please access the CMS PRA website by copying and pasting the following web address into your web browser: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/Regulations-and-Guidance/Legislation/PaperworkReductionActof1995/PRA-Listing.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>William Parham at (410) 786-4669.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520), Federal agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. The term “collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal agencies to publish a 30-day notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension or reinstatement of an existing collection of information, before submitting the collection to OMB for approval. To comply with this requirement, CMS is publishing this notice that summarizes the following proposed collection(s) of information for public comment:
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection Request:</E>
                     Revision of a currently approved collection; 
                    <E T="03">Title of Information Collection:</E>
                     Medicare Health Outcomes Survey; 
                    <E T="03">Use:</E>
                     The HOS is a longitudinal patient-reported outcome measure (PROM) that assesses self-reported beneficiary quality of life and daily functioning. As a PROM, the HOS measures the impact of services provided by MAOs, whereas process and patient experience measures only provide a snapshot of activities or experiences at a specific point in time. PROM data collected by the HOS allows CMS to continue to assess the health of the Medicare Advantage population. This older population is at increased risk of adverse health outcomes, including chronic diseases and mobility impairments that may significantly hamper quality of life. The HOS supports CMS's commitment to improve health outcomes for beneficiaries while reducing burden on providers. CMS accomplishes this by focusing on high-priority areas for quality measurement and improvement established in the agency's Meaningful Measures Framework. The HOS uses quality 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3223"/>
                    measures that ask beneficiaries about health outcomes related to specific mental and Physical Conditions. 
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     CMS-10203 (OMB control number: 0938-0701); 
                    <E T="03">Frequency:</E>
                     Yearly; 
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals and Households; 
                    <E T="03">Number of Respondents:</E>
                     1,275; 
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     663,150; 
                    <E T="03">Total Annual Hours:</E>
                     212,208. (For policy questions regarding this collection contact Alyssa Rosen at 410-786-8559 or 
                    <E T="03">Alyssa.Rosen@cms.hhs.gov.</E>
                    )
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>William N. Parham, III</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Division of Information Collections and Regulatory Impacts, Office of Strategic Operations and Regulatory Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00589 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[CMS-3472-N]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Medicare Program; Request for Nominations for Members for the Medicare Evidence Development &amp; Coverage Advisory Committee</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS), Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This notice announces the request for nominations for membership on the Medicare Evidence Development &amp; Coverage Advisory Committee (MEDCAC). Among other duties, the MEDCAC provides advice and guidance to the Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services (the Secretary) and the Administrator of the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS) concerning the adequacy of scientific evidence available to CMS in making coverage determinations under the Medicare program.</P>
                    <P>The MEDCAC's fundamental purpose is to support the principles of an evidence-based determination process for Medicare's coverage policies. MEDCAC panels provide advice to CMS on the strength of the evidence available for specific medical treatments and technologies through a public, participatory, and accountable process.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Nominations must be received by Monday, February 17, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        You may send in nominations for membership via email to 
                        <E T="03">MEDCACnomination@cms.hhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Leah Cromwell, 410-786-2243, MEDCAC Coordinator, via email at 
                        <E T="03">Leah.Cromwell1@cms.hhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>
                    The Secretary signed the initial charter for the Medicare Coverage Advisory Committee (MCAC) on November 24, 1998. A notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (63 FR 68780) announcing establishment of the MCAC was published on December 14, 1998. The MCAC name was updated to more accurately reflect the purpose of the committee and on January 26, 2007, the Secretary published a notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (72 FR 3853), announcing that the Committee's name changed to the Medicare Evidence Development &amp; Coverage Advisory Committee (MEDCAC). The current Secretary's Charter for the MEDCAC is available on the CMS website at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/Regulations-and-Guidance/Guidance/FACA/Downloads/medcaccharter.pdf</E>
                     or you may obtain a copy of the charter by submitting a request to the contact listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION</E>
                     section of this notice.
                </P>
                <P>The MEDCAC is governed by provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, Pub. L. 92-463, as amended (5 U.S.C. App. 2), which sets forth standards for the formulation and use of advisory committees, and is authorized by section 222 of the Public Health Service Act as amended (42 U.S.C. 217A).</P>
                <P>We are requesting nominations for candidates to serve on the MEDCAC. Nominees are selected based upon their individual qualifications and not solely as representatives of professional associations or societies. We wish to ensure adequate representation of those enrolled in the Medicare program including but not limited to, racial and ethnic groups, individuals with disabilities, and from across the gender spectrum. Therefore, we encourage nominations of qualified candidates who can represent these lived experiences.</P>
                <P>The MEDCAC consists of a pool of 100 appointed members including: 90 at-large standing members (20 of whom are patient advocates), and 10 representatives of industry interests. Members generally are recognized authorities in clinical medicine including subspecialties, administrative medicine, public health, biological and physical sciences, epidemiology and biostatistics, clinical trial design, health care data management and analysis, patient advocacy, health care economics, health disparities, medical ethics, geriatrics those with an understanding of sociodemographic bias and resulting limitations of scientific evidence, or other relevant professions.</P>
                <P>The MEDCAC works from an agenda provided by the Designated Federal Official. The MEDCAC reviews and evaluates medical literature and technology assessments, and hears public testimony on the evidence available to address the impact of medical items and services on health outcomes of Medicare beneficiaries. The MEDCAC may also advise the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS) as part of Medicare's “coverage with evidence development” initiative.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Provisions of the Notice</HD>
                <P>As of December 2025, there will be a total of 20 membership terms expiring. Of the 20 memberships expiring, 2 are industry representatives, 10 are patient advocates and the remaining 8 membership openings are for the at-large standing MEDCAC membership.</P>
                <P>
                    All nominations must be accompanied by curricula vitae. Nomination packages should be addressed to Leah Cromwell and sent to the email address listed in the 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                     section of this notice. Nominees are selected based upon their individual qualifications.
                </P>
                <P>Nominees for membership must have expertise and experience in one or more of the following fields:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Clinical medicine including subspecialties</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Administrative medicine</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Public health</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Health disparities</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Biological and physical sciences</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Epidemiology and biostatistics</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Clinical trial design</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Health care data management and analysis</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Patient advocacy</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Health care economics</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Medical ethics</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Geriatrics</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Other relevant professions</FP>
                <P>We are looking particularly for experts in a number of fields. These include health disparities, cancer screening, genetic testing, clinical epidemiology, psychopharmacology, screening and diagnostic testing analysis, and vascular surgery. We also need experts in biostatistics in clinical settings, dementia treatment, observational research design, stroke epidemiology, geriatrics, and women's health.</P>
                <P>
                    The nomination letter must include a statement that the nominee is willing to serve as a member of the MEDCAC and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3224"/>
                    appears to have no conflict of interest that would preclude membership.
                </P>
                <P>We are requesting that all curricula vitae include the following:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• List of areas of expertise</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Title and current position</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Professional affiliation</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Home and business address</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Telephone numbers (Please specify if the number is for: home, office, or cell phone)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Email address (Please specify if the email address is for work/personal)</FP>
                <P>In the nomination letter, we are requesting that nominees specify whether they are applying for a patient advocate position, an at-large standing position, or as an industry representative. Potential candidates will be asked to provide detailed information concerning such matters as financial holdings, consultancies, and research grants or contracts in order to permit evaluation of possible sources of financial conflict of interest. Department policy prohibits multiple committee memberships. A federal advisory committee member may not serve on more than one committee within an agency at the same time.</P>
                <P>Members may be invited to serve for overlapping 2-year terms. A member may continue to serve after the expiration of the member's term until a successor is named. Any interested person may nominate one or more qualified persons. Self-nominations are also accepted. Individuals interested in the representative positions are encouraged to include a letter of support from the organization or interest group they would represent.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Collection of Information</HD>
                <P>
                    This document does not impose information collection requirements, that is, reporting, recordkeeping or third-party disclosure requirements. Consequently, there is no need for review by the Office of Management and Budget under the authority of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <P>
                    The Chief Medical Officer and Director of the Center for Clinical Standards and Quality for the Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services (CMS), Dora Hughes, having reviewed and approved this document, authorizes Chyana Woodyard, who is the Federal Register Liaison, to electronically sign this document for purposes of publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Chyana Woodyard,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Federal Register Liaison, Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00391 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4120-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Administration for Children and Families</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Proposed Information Collection Activity; Tribal Maternal, Infant, and Early Childhood Home Visiting (MIECHV) Program Community Needs and Readiness Assessment Guidance and Implementation Plan Guidance (Office of Management and Budget#: 0970-0611)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of Early Childhood Development, Administration for Children and Families, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Request for public comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Administration for Children and Families (ACF), Office of Early Childhood Development (ECD) is requesting revisions to the Tribal Maternal, Infant, and Early Childhood Home Visiting Program Community Needs and Readiness Assessment Guidance and Implementation Plan Guidance (Office of Management and Budget (OMB) #: 0970-0611; expiration June 30, 2026) and a 3-year extension of approval.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments due March 17, 2025.</E>
                         In compliance with the requirements of the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, ACF is soliciting public comment on the specific aspects of the information collection described above.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        You can obtain copies of the proposed collection of information and submit comments by emailing 
                        <E T="03">infocollection@acf.hhs.gov.</E>
                         Identify all requests by the title of the information collection.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Description:</E>
                     Section 511(e)(8)(A) of title V of the Social Security Act requires that grantees under the Tribal MIECHV program, in the first year of their grants, submit an implementation plan on how they will meet the requirements of the program. Section 511(h)(2)(A) further states that the requirements for the MIECHV grants to Tribes, Tribal organizations, and urban Indian organizations are to be consistent, to the greatest extent practicable, with the requirements for grantees under the MIECHV program for states and jurisdictions.
                </P>
                <P>ACF ECD, in collaboration with the Health Resources and Services Administration's Maternal and Child Health Bureau, awarded grants for the Tribal MIECHV Program (Tribal Home Visiting) to support cooperative agreements to conduct community needs assessments; plan for and implement high-quality, culturally relevant, evidence-based home visiting programs in at-risk Tribal communities; establish, measure, and report on progress toward meeting performance measures in six legislatively mandated benchmark areas; and conduct rigorous evaluation activities to build the knowledge base on home visiting among Native populations.</P>
                <P>During the first grant year, Tribal Home Visiting grantees must comply with the requirement to conduct a Community Needs and Readiness Assessment (CNRA) and submit an implementation plan that should feature planned activities to be carried out under the program in years 2-5 of their cooperative agreements. To assist grantees with meeting these requirements, ACF created a CNRA and implementation guidance for grantees to use when writing their plans. The CNRA Guidance and Implementation Plan Guidance (IPG) specifies that grantees must provide a plan to address the following areas:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• CNRA</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Program Design</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Program Blueprint</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Plan for Data Collection, Management, and Performance Measurement</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">• Fidelity Monitoring and Quality Assurance</FP>
                <P>The previous guidance included information about the CNRA and the implementation plan for grant recipients. This extension request updates the guidance by separating the CNRA Guidance from the IPG. This separation allows the CNRA Guidance to function as an independent document, enhancing clarity and usability instead of being incorporated within the IPG.</P>
                <P>Additionally, significant modifications have been made to the guidance compared to earlier versions, with a primary focus on reducing the burden on grant recipients. These changes include eliminating redundant sections that overlap with other reporting requirements, reducing the number of guiding questions, and allowing for shorter responses.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents:</E>
                     Tribal Home Visiting Managers (information collection does not include direct interaction with individuals or families that receive the services).
                    <PRTPAGE P="3225"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>Annual Burden Estimates</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Instrument</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total number of responses per
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden hours</LI>
                            <LI>per response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total burden hours</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Annual burden hours</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Implementation Plan Guidance for Development and Implementation Grantees</ENT>
                        <ENT>27</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>450</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,150</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,050</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">DIG Community Needs and Readiness Assessment</ENT>
                        <ENT>27</ENT>
                        <ENT>1</ENT>
                        <ENT>450</ENT>
                        <ENT>12,150</ENT>
                        <ENT>4,050</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Totals:</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>24,300</ENT>
                        <ENT>8,100</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                     The Department specifically requests comments on (a) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information shall have practical utility; (b) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information; (c) the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (d) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques or other forms of information technology. Consideration will be given to comments and suggestions submitted within 60 days of this publication.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     Title V of the Social Security Act, sections 511(e)(8)(A) &amp; 511(h)(2)(A)
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Mary C. Jones,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>ACF/OPRE Certifying Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00556 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4184-77-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Food and Drug Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FDA-2024-N-5890]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Proposed Collection; Comment Request; Generic Drug User Fee Program</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Food and Drug Administration, HHS.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Food and Drug Administration (FDA or Agency) is announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection of certain information by the Agency. Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Federal Agencies are required to publish notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension of an existing collection of information, and to allow 60 days for public comment in response to the notice. This notice solicits comments on information collection associated with our generic drug user fee program.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Either electronic or written comments on the collection of information must be submitted by March 17, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        You may submit comments as follows. Please note that late, untimely filed comments will not be considered. The 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         electronic filing system will accept comments until 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time at the end of March 17, 2025. Comments received by mail/hand delivery/courier (for written/paper submissions) will be considered timely if they are received on or before that date.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Submissions</HD>
                <P>Submit electronic comments in the following way:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Follow the instructions for submitting comments. Comments submitted electronically, including attachments, to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     will be posted to the docket unchanged. Because your comment will be made public, you are solely responsible for ensuring that your comment does not include any confidential information that you or a third party may not wish to be posted, such as medical information, your or anyone else's Social Security number, or confidential business information, such as a manufacturing process. Please note that if you include your name, contact information, or other information that identifies you in the body of your comments, that information will be posted on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <P>• If you want to submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made available to the public, submit the comment as a written/paper submission and in the manner detailed (see “Written/Paper Submissions” and “Instructions”).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Written/Paper Submissions</HD>
                <P>Submit written/paper submissions as follows:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Mail/Hand Delivery/Courier (for written/paper submissions):</E>
                     Dockets Management Staff (HFA-305), Food and Drug Administration, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852.
                </P>
                <P>• For written/paper comments submitted to the Dockets Management Staff, FDA will post your comment, as well as any attachments, except for information submitted, marked and identified, as confidential, if submitted as detailed in “Instructions.”</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                     All submissions received must include the Docket No. FDA-2024-N-5890 for “Generic Drug User Fee Program.” Received comments, those filed in a timely manner (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES)</E>
                    , will be placed in the docket and, except for those submitted as “Confidential Submissions,” publicly viewable at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     or at the Dockets Management Staff between 9 a.m. and 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, 240-402-7500.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Confidential Submissions—To submit a comment with confidential information that you do not wish to be made publicly available, submit your comments only as a written/paper submission. You should submit two copies total. One copy will include the information you claim to be confidential with a heading or cover note that states “THIS DOCUMENT CONTAINS CONFIDENTIAL INFORMATION.” The Agency will review this copy, including the claimed confidential information, in its consideration of comments. The second copy, which will have the claimed confidential information redacted/blacked out, will be available for public viewing and posted on 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                     Submit both copies to the Dockets Management Staff. If you do not wish your name and contact information to be made publicly available, you can provide this information on the cover sheet and not in the body of your comments and you must identify this information as “confidential.” Any information marked as “confidential” will not be disclosed 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3226"/>
                    except in accordance with 21 CFR 10.20 and other applicable disclosure law. For more information about FDA's posting of comments to public dockets, see 80 FR 56469, September 18, 2015, or access the information at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-2015-09-18/pdf/2015-23389.pdf.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                     For access to the docket to read background documents or the electronic and written/paper comments received, go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and insert the docket number, found in brackets in the heading of this document, into the “Search” box and follow the prompts and/or go to the Dockets Management Staff, 5630 Fishers Lane, Rm. 1061, Rockville, MD 20852, 240-402-7500.
                </P>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Domini Bean, Office of Operations, Food and Drug Administration, Three White Flint North, 10A-12M, 11601 Landsdown St., North Bethesda, MD 20852, 301-796-5733, 
                        <E T="03">PRAStaff@fda.hhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Under the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3501-3521), Federal Agencies must obtain approval from the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for each collection of information they conduct or sponsor. “Collection of information” is defined in 44 U.S.C. 3502(3) and 5 CFR 1320.3(c) and includes Agency requests or requirements that members of the public submit reports, keep records, or provide information to a third party. Section 3506(c)(2)(A) of the PRA (44 U.S.C. 3506(c)(2)(A)) requires Federal Agencies to provide a 60-day notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     concerning each proposed collection of information, including each proposed extension of an existing collection of information, before submitting the collection to OMB for approval. To comply with this requirement, FDA is publishing notice of the proposed collection of information set forth in this document.
                </P>
                <P>With respect to the following collection of information, FDA invites comments on these topics: (1) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of FDA's functions, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of FDA's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) ways to minimize the burden of the collection of information on respondents, including through the use of automated collection techniques, when appropriate, and other forms of information technology.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Generic Drug User Fee Program</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">OMB Control Number 0910-0727—Revision</HD>
                <P>This information collection helps support implementation of FDA's Generic Drug User Fee Program (GDUFA), most recently reauthorized September 30, 2022. It includes information collections discussed in the document, “GDUFA Reauthorization Performance Goals And Program Enhancements Fiscal Years 2023-2027,” commonly referred to as the “Goals Letter” or “Commitment Letter.” The Commitment Letter represents the product of FDA discussions with the regulated industry and public stakeholders, as mandated by Congress. The Goals Letter identifies current GDUFA program objectives and general procedures for communicating with FDA. Agency guidance, as outlined in the Goals Letter, are utilized in the information collection. All Agency guidance documents are issued consistent with our Good Guidance Practice regulations (21 CFR 10.115), which provide for public comment at any time, as well as regulatory authority found in 21 CFR 314.445 (Guidance documents), currently approved in OMB control number 0910-0001.</P>
                <P>
                    The information collection also includes Form FDA 3974, the Generic Drug User Fee Cover Sheet and associated instructions, available for download at 
                    <E T="03">https://userfees.fda.gov/OA_HTML/GDUFAFacilityCScreation.pdf.</E>
                     Form FDA 3974 is used to provide a uniform format for the submission of information necessary to account for and track user fees, and to determine the amount of the fee required.
                </P>
                <P>As we communicate on our website, potential applicants are encouraged to contact the FDA Generic Drugs Program with questions at any point in their development and application preparation processes. We have revised the information collection to include the submission of “controlled correspondence” within the scope of activity, including covered product authorizations (CPAs) provided for under the Creating and Restoring Equal Access to Equivalent Samples Act of 2019 (CREATES Act) (Pub. L. 116-94). Historically, and under the terms of the GDUFA, a controlled correspondence may be submitted by or on behalf of a generic drug manufacturer or related industry prior to submitting an abbreviated new drug application (ANDA). To provide respondents with assistance regarding the submission of controlled correspondence, we continue to develop and issue topic-specific Agency guidance, including the following documents:</P>
                <P>
                    • Controlled Correspondence Related to Generic Drug Development (Controlled Correspondence Guidance), (
                    <E T="03">https://www.fda.gov/media/164111/download,</E>
                     March 2024)
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Product-Specific Guidance Meetings Between FDA and ANDA Applicants Under GDUFA, (
                    <E T="03">https://www.fda.gov/regulatory-information/search-fda-guidance-documents/product-specific-guidance-meetings-between-fda-and-anda-applicants-under-gdufa,</E>
                     February 2023)
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Formal Meetings Between FDA and ANDA Applicants of Complex Products Under GDUFA (
                    <E T="03">https://www.fda.gov/regulatory-information/search-fda-guidance-documents/formal-meetings-between-fda-and-anda-applicants-complex-products-under-gdufa-guidance-industry,</E>
                     October 2022)
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Competitive Generic Therapies Guidance (
                    <E T="03">https://www.fda.gov/regulatory-information/search-fda-guidance-documents/competitive-generic-therapies,</E>
                     October 2022)
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Cover Letter Attachments for Controlled Correspondences and ANDA Submissions (
                    <E T="03">https://www.fda.gov/regulatory-information/search-fda-guidance-documents/cover-letter-attachments-controlled-correspondences-and-anda-submissions,</E>
                     June 2023)
                </P>
                <P>
                    • How to Obtain Covered Product Authorization (
                    <E T="03">https://www.fda.gov/regulatory-information/search-fda-guidance-documents/how-obtain-covered-product-authorization,</E>
                     September 2022)
                </P>
                <P>
                    Each guidance document may be downloaded from our website where we maintain a searchable database at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.fda.gov/regulatory-information/search-fda-guidance-documents.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    FDA estimates the burden of the information collection as follows:
                    <PRTPAGE P="3227"/>
                </P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12">
                    <TTITLE>
                        Table 1—Estimated Annual Reporting Burden 
                        <SU>1</SU>
                    </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Information collection activity</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>respondents</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Number of
                            <LI>responses per</LI>
                            <LI>respondent</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Total
                            <LI>annual</LI>
                            <LI>responses</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">
                            Average
                            <LI>burden</LI>
                            <LI>per</LI>
                            <LI>response</LI>
                        </CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Total hours</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Submission of Generic Drug User Fee Cover Sheet</ENT>
                        <ENT>500</ENT>
                        <ENT>7.616</ENT>
                        <ENT>3,808</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            0.5
                            <LI>(30 minutes)</LI>
                        </ENT>
                        <ENT>1,904</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW RUL="n,s">
                        <ENT I="01">Submission of Controlled Correspondence as Discussed in Agency Topic-Specific Guidance Documents</ENT>
                        <ENT>400</ENT>
                        <ENT>12.5</ENT>
                        <ENT>5000</ENT>
                        <ENT>5</ENT>
                        <ENT>25,000</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>8,808</ENT>
                        <ENT/>
                        <ENT>26,904</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <TNOTE>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         There are no capital costs or operating and maintenance costs associated with this collection of information.
                    </TNOTE>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <P>Our estimated is based on available Agency data. Our burden estimate reflects an overall increase attributable to the inclusion of controlled correspondence and new generic drug product CPA requests.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>P. Ritu Nalubola,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Associate Commissioner for Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00564 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4164-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Physician-Focused Payment Model Technical Advisory Committee; Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of meetings.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This notice announces the 2025 meetings of the Physician-Focused Payment Model Technical Advisory Committee (PTAC). These meetings include deliberation and voting on proposals for physician-focused payment models (PFPMs) submitted by individuals and stakeholder entities and may include discussions on topics related to current or previously submitted PFPMs. All meetings are open to the public.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The 2025 PTAC meetings will occur on the following dates:</P>
                </DATES>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1"> Monday-Tuesday, March 3-4, 2025, from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. ET</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1"> Tuesday-Wednesday, June 3-4, 2025, from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. ET</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1"> Monday-Tuesday, September 8-9, 2025, from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. ET</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1"> Tuesday-Wednesday, December 9-10, 2025, from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. ET</FP>
                <FP>
                    Please note that times are subject to change. If the times change, the ASPE PTAC website will be updated (
                    <E T="03">https://aspe.hhs.gov/ptac-physician-focused-payment-model-technical-advisory-committee</E>
                    ) and registrants will be notified directly via email.
                </FP>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>All PTAC meetings will be held virtually and/or in the Great Hall of the Hubert H. Humphrey Building, 200 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC, 20201.</P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Lisa Shats, Designated Federal Officer at 
                        <E T="03">Lisa.Shats@hhs.gov</E>
                         (202) 875-0938.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Agenda and Comments.</E>
                     PTAC will hear presentations on proposed PFPMs that have been submitted by individuals and stakeholder entities and/or discussion on topics related to current or previously submitted PFPMs. Regarding proposed PFPMs, following each presentation, PTAC will deliberate on the proposed PFPM. If PTAC completes its deliberation, PTAC will vote on the extent to which the proposed PFPM meets criteria established by the Secretary of Health and Human Services and on an overall recommendation to the Secretary (if applicable). Time will be allocated for public comments. The agenda and other documents will be posted on the PTAC section of the ASPE website, 
                    <E T="03">https://aspe.hhs.gov/ptac-physician-focused-payment-model-technical-advisory-committee,</E>
                     prior to the meeting. The agenda is subject to change. If the agenda does change, registrants will be notified directly via email, the website will be updated, and notification will be sent out through the PTAC email listserv (
                    <E T="03">https://list.nih.gov/cgi-bin/wa.exe?A0=PTAC</E>
                     to subscribe).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Meeting Attendance.</E>
                     These meetings are open to the public and may be hosted in-person or virtually. We intend that in-person meetings will be held in the Great Hall of the Hubert H. Humphrey Building. The public may attend in person, when feasible, virtually, or view the meeting via livestream at 
                    <E T="03">www.hhs.gov/live.</E>
                     Information about how to access the meeting virtually or via livestream will be sent to registrants prior to the meeting; and a telephone number will be sent to registrants participating via the dial-in only option prior to the meeting. Space may be limited, and registration is preferred. When registration opens, a link to the registration page will be available at 
                    <E T="03">https://aspe.hhs.gov/collaborations-committees-advisory-groups/ptac/ptac-meetings prior to the meeting.</E>
                     Registrants will receive a confirmation email shortly after completing the registration process.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Special Accommodations.</E>
                     If sign language interpretation or other reasonable accommodation for a disability is needed, please contact 
                    <E T="03">PTAC@hhs.gov,</E>
                     no later than two weeks prior to the scheduled meeting.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority.</E>
                     42 U.S.C. 1395(ee); section 101(e)(1) of the Medicare Access and CHIP Reauthorization Act of 2015; section 51003(b) of the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2018.
                </P>
                <P>PTAC is governed by provisions of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended (5 U.S.C app.), which sets forth standards for the formation and use of federal advisory committees.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 3, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Tisamarie B. Sherry,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary for Behavioral Health, Disability and Aging Policy, Performing the Delegable Duties of the Assistant Secretary for Planning and Evaluation.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00612 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4150-05-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>
                    <E T="0714">Eunice Kennedy Shriver</E>
                     National Institute of Child Health &amp; Human Development; Notice of Closed Meeting
                </SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.</P>
                <P>
                    The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3228"/>
                    the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health and Human Development Special Emphasis Panel; Multicenter Clinical Trials; Leveraging Network (U01).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 7, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         1:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute  of Child Health and Human Development, 6710 B Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Vera A. Cherkasova, Ph.D., Scientific Review Branch, Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health and Human Development, NIH, 6710B Rockledge Drive, Room 2137B, Bethesda, MD 20892, (240) 478-4580, 
                        <E T="03">vera.cherkasova@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.864, Population Research; 93.865, Research for Mothers and Children; 93.929, Center for Medical Rehabilitation Research; 93.209, Contraception and Infertility Loan Repayment Program, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 8, 2025. </DATED>
                    <NAME>Lauren A. Fleck, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00597 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health &amp; Human Development; Notice of Closed Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.</P>
                <P>The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health and Human Development Special Emphasis Panel; the Road to Prevention of Stillbirth—Data Coordinating Center (UM2) Companion.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 28, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>Address: Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute  of Child Health and Human Development, 6710 B Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Luis E. Dettin, Ph.D., Scientific Review Branch, Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health and Human Development, NIH 6710B, Rockledge Drive, Rm. 2131B, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 827-8231, 
                        <E T="03">luis_dettin@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.864, Population Research; 93.865, Research for Mothers and Children; 93.929, Center for Medical Rehabilitation Research; 93.209, Contraception and Infertility Loan Repayment Program, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 8, 2025. </DATED>
                    <NAME>Lauren A. Fleck, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00605 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health &amp; Human Development; Notice of Closed Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.</P>
                <P>The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), Title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health and Human Development Special Emphasis Panel; the Road to Prevention of Stillbirth—Clinical Research Center (UG1).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 24, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health and Human Development, 6710 B Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Luis E. Dettin, Ph.D., Scientific Review Branch, Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health and Human Development, NIH 6710B, Rockledge Drive, Rm. 2131B Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 827-8231, 
                        <E T="03">luis_dettin@nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.864, Population Research; 93.865, Research for Mothers and Children; 93.929, Center for Medical Rehabilitation Research; 93.209, Contraception and Infertility Loan Repayment Program, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 8, 2025. </DATED>
                    <NAME>Lauren A. Fleck, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>
                        Program Analyst,
                        <E T="03">Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</E>
                    </TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00607 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health &amp; Human Development; Notice of Closed Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.</P>
                <P>The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health and Human Development Initial Review Group, Population Sciences Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 6, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health and Human Development, 6710 B Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Christiane M. Robbins, Scientific Review Branch, Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health and Human Development, NIH, 6710B Rockledge Drive, Rm 2121B, Bethesda, MD 20817, 301-451-4989, 
                        <E T="03">crobbins@mail.nih.gov</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3229"/>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.864, Population Research; 93.865, Research for Mothers and Children; 93.929, Center for Medical Rehabilitation Research; 93.209, Contraception and Infertility Loan Repayment Program, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 8, 2025. </DATED>
                    <NAME>Lauren A. Fleck, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00602 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health &amp; Human Development; Notice of Closed Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.</P>
                <P>The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health and Human Development Initial Review Group; Obstetrics and Maternal-Fetal Biology Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         March 21, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child, Health and Human Development, 6710 B Rockledge Drive, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Luis E. Dettin, Ph.D., Scientific Review Branch, Eunice Kennedy Shriver National Institute of Child Health and Human Development, NIH 6710B Rockledge Drive, Room 2131B, Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 827-8231, 
                        <E T="03">luis.dettin@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.864, Population Research; 93.865, Research for Mothers and Children; 93.929, Center for Medical Rehabilitation Research; 93.209, Contraception and Infertility Loan Repayment Program, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 8, 2025. </DATED>
                    <NAME>Lauren A. Fleck, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00604 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases; Notice of Closed Meeting</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meeting.</P>
                <P>The meeting will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases Special Emphasis Panel; NIAID Clinical Trial Planning Grants (R34 Clinical Trial Not Allowed); NIAID Clinical Trial Implementation Cooperative Agreement (U01 Clinical Trial Required).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         February 11, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         10:00 a.m. to 2:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Place:</E>
                         National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, National Institutes of Health, 5601 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20892 (Video Assisted Meeting).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Maryam Feili-Hariri, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Scientific Review Program, Division of Extramural Activities, National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases, National Institutes of Health, 5601 Fishers Lane, Rockville, MD 20892, 240-669-5026, 
                        <E T="03">haririmf@niaid.nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.855, Allergy, Immunology, and Transplantation Research; 93.856, Microbiology and Infectious Diseases Research, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 8, 2025. </DATED>
                    <NAME>Lauren A. Fleck, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00601 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH AND HUMAN SERVICES</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Institutes of Health</SUBAGY>
                <SUBJECT>National Institute of Arthritis and Musculoskeletal and Skin Diseases; Notice of Closed Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <P>Pursuant to section 1009 of the Federal Advisory Committee Act, as amended, notice is hereby given of the following meetings.</P>
                <P>The meetings will be closed to the public in accordance with the provisions set forth in sections 552b(c)(4) and 552b(c)(6), title 5 U.S.C., as amended. The grant applications and the discussions could disclose confidential trade secrets or commercial property such as patentable material, and personal information concerning individuals associated with the grant applications, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         National Institute of Arthritis and Musculoskeletal and Skin Diseases Special Emphasis Panel; NIAMS BACPAC 2025/05 Review Meeting
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         February 20, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         11:00 a.m. to 5:30 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institute of Arthritis and Musculoskeletal and Skin Diseases, One Democracy Plaza, 6701 Democracy Boulevard, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Archana Jha, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Scientific Review Branch (SRB), National Institute of Arthritis and Musculoskeletal and Skin Diseases, One Democracy Plaza, 6701 Democracy Boulevard, Suite 800, Bethesda, MD 20892, (240) 921-1233, 
                        <E T="03">archana.jha@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Name of Committee:</E>
                         Arthritis and Musculoskeletal and Skin Diseases Initial Review Group; Arthritis and Musculoskeletal and Skin Diseases Clinical Trials Study Section.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Date:</E>
                         February 27-28, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Time:</E>
                         9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agenda:</E>
                         To review and evaluate grant applications.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Address:</E>
                         National Institute of Arthritis and Musculoskeletal and Skin Diseases, One Democracy Plaza, 6701 Democracy Boulevard, Bethesda, MD 20892.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting Format:</E>
                         Virtual Meeting.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Contact Person:</E>
                         Sushmita Purkayastha, Ph.D., Scientific Review Officer, Scientific Review Branch (SRB), National Institute of Arthritis and Musculoskeletal and Skin Diseases, 6701 Democracy Blvd., Democracy Plaza, Room 814 Bethesda, MD 20892, (301) 201-7600, 
                        <E T="03">sushmita.purkayastha@nih.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <FP>(Catalogue of Federal Domestic Assistance Program Nos. 93.846, Arthritis, Musculoskeletal and Skin Diseases Research, National Institutes of Health, HHS)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3230"/>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Victoria E. Townsend, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Program Analyst, Office of Federal Advisory Committee Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00572 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4140-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Coast Guard</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. USCG-2010-0164]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>National Boating Safety Advisory Committee; January 2025 Virtual Meeting </SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P> United States Coast Guard, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of open Federal Advisory Committee virtual meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The National Boating Safety Advisory Committee (Committee) will meet virtually to discuss matters relating to national boating safety. The virtual meeting will be open to the public.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Meeting:</E>
                         The Committee will meet on Wednesday, January 29, 2025, from noon until 4 p.m. Eastern Standard Time (EST). This virtual meeting may adjourn early if the Committee has completed its business.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments and supporting documentation:</E>
                         To ensure your comments are received by Committee members before the virtual meeting, submit your written comments no later than January 17, 2025.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To join the virtual meeting or to request special accommodations, contact the individual listed in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section no later than 1 p.m. EST on January 17, 2025. The number of virtual lines are limited and will be available on a first-come, first-served basis.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Pre-registration information:</E>
                         Pre-registration is required for attending virtual meeting. You must request attendance by contacting the individual listed in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section of this notice. You will receive a response with attendance instructions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The National Boating Safety Advisory Committee is committed to ensuring all participants have equal access regardless of disability status. If you require reasonable accommodation due to a disability to fully participate, please email Mr. Thomas Guess at 
                        <E T="03">NBSAC@uscg.mil</E>
                         or call (206) 815-0221 as soon as possible.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                         You are free to submit comments at any time, including orally at the virtual meeting as time permits, but if you want Committee members to review your comments before the meeting, please submit your comments no later than January 17, 2025. We are particularly interested in comments on the topics in the “Agenda” section below. We encourage you to submit comments through the Federal Decision-Making Portal at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         To do so, go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         type USCG-2010-0164 in the search box and click “Search.” Next, look for this document in the Search Results column, and click on it. Then click on the Comment option. If your material cannot be submitted using 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         contact the individual in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section of this document for alternate instructions. You must include the docket number USCG-2010-0164. Comments received will be posted without alteration at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         including any personal information provided. You may wish to review the Privacy and Security Notice found via a link on the homepage of 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         For more about privacy and submissions in response to this document, see DHS's eRulemaking System of Records notice (85 FR 14226, March 11, 2020). If you encounter technical difficulties with comment submission, contact the individual listed in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section of this notice.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket Search:</E>
                         Documents mentioned in this notice as being available in the docket, and all public comments, will be in our online docket at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and can be viewed by following that website's instructions. Additionally, if you go to the online docket and sign-up for email alerts, you will be notified when comments are posted.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Mr. Thomas Guess, Alternate Designated Federal Officer of the National Boating Safety Advisory Committee, telephone (206) 815-0221 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">NBSAC@uscg.mil.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Notice of this meeting is given pursuant the 
                    <E T="03">Federal Advisory Committee Act</E>
                     (Pub. L. 117-286, 5 U.S.C. ch. 10). The Committee was established on December 4, 2018, by section 601 of the 
                    <E T="03">Frank LoBiondo Coast Guard Authorization Act of 2018,</E>
                     (Pub. L. 115-282, 132 Stat. 4192), and is codified in 46 U.S.C. 15105. The Committee operates under the provisions of the 
                    <E T="03">Federal Advisory Committee Act</E>
                     and 46 U.S.C. 15109. The National Boating Safety Advisory Committee provides advice and recommendations to the Secretary of Homeland Security via the Commandant of the United States Coast Guard on matters relating to national boating safety. This notice is issued under the authority of 46 U.S.C. 15109(a).
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Agenda</HD>
                <P>The agenda for the National Boating Safety Advisory Committee meeting is as follows:</P>
                <P>1. Call to Order.</P>
                <P>2. Roll call of Committee members and determination of quorum.</P>
                <P>3. Opening Remarks.</P>
                <P>4. Acceptance of NBSAC 10 Minutes.</P>
                <P>5. Continuation status of members, including Chair and Vice Chair Continuing.</P>
                <P>6. Swearing in of New Member.</P>
                <P>7. Receipt and discussion of the following reports from the Office of Auxiliary and Boating Safety:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Program Update:</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">a. Updates on Strategic Plan</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">b. Recommendations, Task Statements, and Data Analysis Dashboard Including Throw Bags</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">c. Survey</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">d. Uniform Certificate of Tiling Act for Vessels (UCOTA-V)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">e. Grant Warehousing</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">f. Nonprofit Grant Program Notice of Funding Opportunity (NOFO) and Evidence Template</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">g. Regulations, including Advanced and Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM v. ANPRM) discussion</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">h. Web page</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">i. Electronic Cutoff Switch (ECOS) Enforcement</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">j. Effectiveness Template and grant effectiveness</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">k. North Atlantic Right Wale (NARW) Rulemaking and Speed Zones</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">l. U.S. Coast Guard Navigation Center (NAVCEN)</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">m. Lifejacket Testing Harmonization Final Rule</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">n. Hull Identification Number (HIN) Verification Presentation</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">o. Social Media Themes for January to March, including Cold Water</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">p. Other Reports</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">q. Potential Task Statements </FP>
                <P>8. Public Comment Period.</P>
                <P>9. Next meeting planning Apr 22-24, 2025, at Annapolis, MD at American Boat &amp; Yacht Council (ABYC) Headquarters.</P>
                <P>10. Meeting Adjournment.</P>
                <P>
                    A copy of all meeting documentation will be available at 
                    <E T="03">
                        https://homeport.uscg.mil/missions/federal-advisory-committees/national-boating-safety-advisory-committee-(nbsac)/
                        <PRTPAGE P="3231"/>
                        committee-meetings,
                    </E>
                     no later than January 17, 2025. Alternatively, you may contact Mr. Thomas Guess as noted in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION</E>
                     section above.
                </P>
                <P>There will be a public comment period from approximately 3:00 p.m. until 3:15 p.m. (EST). Speakers are requested to limit their comments to 3 minutes.</P>
                <P>
                    Please note that the public comment period may end before the period allotted, following the last call for comments. Please contact the individual listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section above to register as a speaker.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 8, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Amy M. Beach,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Captain, U.S. Coast Guard, Director of Inspections and Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00591 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-04-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>U.S. Customs and Border Protection</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control Number 1651-0024]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Revision; Entry/Immediate Delivery Application and Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Cargo Release</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-Day notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). The information collection is published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and must be submitted (no later than March 17, 2025) to be assured of consideration.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice must include the OMB Control Number 1651-0024 in the subject line and the agency name. Please submit written comments and/or suggestions in English. Please use the following method to submit comments:</P>
                    <P>
                        Email. Submit comments to: 
                        <E T="03">CBP_PRA@cbp.dhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Requests for additional PRA information should be directed to Seth Renkema, Chief, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Trade, Regulations and Rulings, 90 K Street NE, 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, telephone number 202-325-0056 or via email 
                        <E T="03">CBP_PRA@cbp.dhs.gov.</E>
                         Please note that the contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. Individuals seeking information about other CBP programs should contact the CBP National Customer Service Center at 877-227-5511, (TTY) 1-800-877-8339, or CBP website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cbp.gov/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.8. Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points: (1) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) suggestions to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) suggestions to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses. The comments that are submitted will be summarized and included in the request for approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of This Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Entry/Immediate Delivery Application and ACE Cargo Release.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     1651-0024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     3461 + 3461 ALT.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Current Actions:</E>
                     Revision.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Businesses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     All items imported into the United States are subject to examination before entering the commerce of the United States. There are two procedures available to affect the release of imported merchandise, including “entry” pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1484, and “immediate delivery” pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1448(b). Under both procedures, CBP Forms 3461, Entry/Immediate Delivery, and 3461 ALT are the source documents in the packages presented to Customs and Border Protection (CBP). The information collected on CBP Forms 3461 and 3461 ALT allow CBP officers to verify that the information regarding the consignee and shipment is correct and that a bond is on file with CBP. CBP also uses these forms to close out the manifest and to establish the obligation to pay estimated duties in the time period prescribed by law or regulation. CBP Form 3461 is also a delivery authorization document and is given to the importing carrier to authorize the release of the merchandise.
                </P>
                <P>
                    CBP Forms 3461 and 3461 ALT are provided for by 19 CFR 142.3, 142.16, 141.22, and 141.24. The forms and instructions for Form 3461 are accessible at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.cbp.gov/newsroom/publications/forms?title=3461&amp;=Apply.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    Ace Cargo Release (formerly referred to as “Simplified Entry”) is a program for ACE entry summary filers in which importers or brokers may file ACE Cargo Release data in lieu of filing the CBP Form 3461. This data consists of 12 required elements: importer of record; buyer name and address; buyer employer identification number (consignee number), seller name and address; manufacturer/supplier name and address; Harmonized Tariff Schedule 10-digit number; country of origin; bill of lading; house air waybill number; bill of lading issuer code; entry number; entry type; and estimated shipment value. There are also four optional data elements: the container stuffing location, consolidator name and address, ship to party name and address. There are three Global Business Identifier (GBI) identifiers available to filers: 20-digit Legal Entity Identifier (LEI), 9-digit Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS), and 13-digit Global Location Number (GLN). The GBI Identifiers can be inputted for any of the following parties: manufacturer/producer, seller shipper, exporter, distributor or packager. The GBI identifiers are new optional data elements that are being collected to better identify the legal entity that is interacting with CBP as well as explore opportunities to enhance supply chain traceability and visibility in response to the growing complexity of global trade. The data collected under the ACE Cargo Release program is intended to reduce transaction costs, expedite cargo release, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3232"/>
                    and enhance cargo security. ACE Cargo Release filing minimizes the redundancy of data submitted by the filer to CBP through receiving carrier data from the carrier. This design allows the participants to file earlier in the transportation flow. Guidance on using ACE Cargo Release may be found at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.cbp.gov/trade/ace/features.</E>
                </P>
                <P>It should be noted that ACE Cargo Release was previously called Simplified Entry.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">New Changes:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Global Business Identifier (GBI):</E>
                     Collectively, the updates proposed below aim to enhance upstream supply chain traceability and visibility while addressing the increasing complexity of global trade supply chains. All participation and data submitted is voluntary. Find more details about GBI in the 1651-0141 GBI information collection.
                </P>
                <P> The GBI Test is expanding the available supply chain entity party types from the original six optional parties (Manufacturer, Shipper, Seller, Exporter, Distributor, Packager), to include two new parties: “Intermediary” and “Source,” along with optional free text fields that will allow filers to input additional descriptions and information about the specific party type. These party types would be made available in the GBI Enrollment database as well as the Automated Commercial Environment Cargo Release.</P>
                <P> A modification within the Global Business Identifiers (GBI) Enrollment database will allow the trade to submit one or more of the unique GBI's (the Legal Entity Identifier (LEI), Global Location Number (GLN), and Data Universal Numbering System (DUNS)) for a supply chain entity, as opposed to all three as previously approved and announced. Furthermore, a related programming update will enable trade participants the ability to modify or change a previous enrollment, including updating or adding additional GBI numbers.</P>
                <P> CBP intends to expand the choices of identifiers available to filers over the duration of the Test, including those that at no cost to the government provide access to the underlying entity and product specific supply chain data associated with the identifier. This would enhance traceability for CBP which may translate to facilitation benefits and reduced industry costs. CBP has initiated programming requests in ACE to accommodate the intake of additional GBI identifier qualifiers. These changes are under development and there is no defined timeline for their completion. Specifically, CBP will begin by adding to the GBI Test the new Altana ID (ALTA) maintained by Altana Technologies, USG Inc. (Altana). The addition of the ALTA identifier alongside current and future GBI identifiers will widen participants' choices and allow CBP to continue to evaluate the breadth and veracity of entity and supply chain information embedded within different types of identifier solutions already being leveraged by trade industry traceability stewards. It will also contribute to CBP's ongoing exploration of how traced supply chain information may be ingested and operationalized for risk management and facilitation purposes. CBP will add any new identifiers into the collection and submit to OMB for approval as they are determined through a change request (Form 83-C).</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">2. Russian Sanctions Executive Order 14114:</E>
                </P>
                <P> New Data Elements are being added to comply with the Russian sanctions outlined in Executive Order 14114 published on December 22, 2023. The data elements and burden are recorded in the supporting statement of the 1651-0NEW Russian Sanctions information collection package.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">3. Update to Form 3461/3461ALT Instructions:</E>
                </P>
                <P>The instructions on the Form 3461/3461 ALT have been updated to include the new Russian sanctions data elements and text field boxes, as well as being updated to improve user experience and clarity of the form. Find a copy of the new form, with the changes outlined included with this package submission as supplementary documents.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     ACE Cargo Release/ABI.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     9,810.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Annual Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     3,041.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     29,832,210.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     10 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     4,972,035.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Form 3461 Paper/Electronic.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     12,995.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Annual Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     12,995.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     15 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     3,249.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 8, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Seth D. Renkema,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Branch Chief, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, U.S. Customs and Border Protection.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00608 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-14-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>U.S. Customs and Border Protection</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control Number 1651-0051]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Extension; Foreign Trade Zones Annual Reconciliation and Recordkeeping Requirement</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-Day notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). The information collection is published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and must be submitted (no later than March 17, 2025) to be assured of consideration.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice must include the OMB Control Number 1651-0051 in the subject line and the agency name. Please submit written comments and/or suggestions in English. Please use the following method to submit comments:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Email.</E>
                         Submit comments to: 
                        <E T="03">CBP_PRA@cbp.dhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Requests for additional PRA information should be directed to Seth Renkema, Chief, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Trade, Regulations and Rulings, 90 K Street NE, 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, telephone number 202-325-0056 or via email 
                        <E T="03">CBP_PRA@cbp.dhs.gov.</E>
                         Please note that the contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. Individuals seeking information about other CBP programs should contact the CBP National Customer Service Center at 877-227-5511, (TTY) 1-800-877-8339, or CBP website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cbp.gov/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    CBP invites the general public and other 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3233"/>
                    Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.8. Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points: (1) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) suggestions to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) suggestions to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses. The comments that are submitted will be summarized and included in the request for approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of This Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Foreign Trade Zones Annual Reconciliation and Recordkeeping Requirement.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     1651-0051.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Current Actions:</E>
                     CBP proposes to extend the expiration date of this information collection with no change to the burden hours, the information collection, or to the record keeping requirements.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension (without change).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Businesses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     In accordance with 19 CFR 146.4(a), the operator shall supervise all admissions, transfers, removals, recordkeeping, manipulations, manufacturing, destruction, exhibition, physical and procedural security, and conditions of storage in the zone as required by law and regulations.
                </P>
                <P>Foreign Trade Zone (FTZ) operators must prepare a reconciliation report within 90 days after the end of the zone/subzone year unless an extension is authorized and must retain the annual reconciliation report for a spot check or audit by CBP. In addition, within 10 working days after the annual reconciliation report, FTZ operators must submit to the CBP port director a letter signed by the operator certifying that the annual reconciliation has been prepared, is available for CBP review, and is accurate. See 19 CFR 146.25. The Foreign Trade Zones Act of 1934, as amended (19 U.S.C. 81a-81u), authorizes these requirements.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Record Keeping Requirements (19 CFR 146.4(d)).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     276.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Annual Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     276.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     45 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     207.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Certification Letter (19 CFR 146.25).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     276.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Annual Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     276.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     20 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     92.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Seth D Renkema,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Branch Chief, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, U.S. Customs and Border Protection.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00521 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-14-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>U.S. Customs and Border Protection</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control Number 1651-0NEW]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; New Collection of Information; Global Interoperability Standards (GIS)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>30-Day notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). The information collection is published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and must be submitted (no later than February 13, 2025) to be assured of consideration.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Please submit written comments and/or suggestions in English. Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Requests for additional PRA information should be directed to Seth Renkema, Chief, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Trade, Regulations and Rulings, 90 K Street NE, 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, telephone number 202-325-0056 or via email 
                        <E T="03">CBP_PRA@cbp.dhs.gov.</E>
                         Please note that the contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. Individuals seeking information about other CBP programs should contact the CBP National Customer Service Center at 877-227-5511, (TTY) 1-800-877-8339, or CBP website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cbp.gov/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). This proposed information collection was previously published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (89 FR 71381) on September 3, 2024, allowing for a 60-day comment period. This notice allows for an additional 30 days for public comments. This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.8. Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points: (1) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) suggestions to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) suggestions to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3234"/>
                    mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses. The comments that are submitted will be summarized and included in the request for approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of This Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Global Interoperability Standards (GIS)
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     1651-0NEW.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Current Actions:</E>
                     New Collection of Information.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     New Collection of Information.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Businesses.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Silicon Valley Innovation Program (SVIP), part of the Department of Homeland Security's Science and Technology Directorate, helps develop and find new technologies that strengthen national security with the goal of reshaping how government and industry work together to find cutting-edge solutions to problems such as those involved in pipeline-borne goods. Neoflow (a SVIP participant) has a platform (the Neoflow platform) to document the movement (including ownership changes) of crude oil. The Neoflow platform will monitor Canadian crude oil, a continuous flow commodity, using global interoperability standards (GIS) adopted by test participants who will supply and input the GIS data into the Neoflow platform where CBP will be able to view the data in near real time. GIS data utilizes decentralized identifiers (DIDs) and verifiable credentials (VCs) to help in identifying legitimate products and associated companies to build a transparent supply chain.
                </P>
                <P>A transparent supply chain will be achieved in the Neoflow platform through the recordation of bi-lateral transaction data at each step in a supply chain, allowing for dynamic updates of ownership and destination information, securing supply chains from disclosure to unauthorized parties, and making this data available to CBP in near real time while creating an immutable chain of custody from wellhead to refinery.</P>
                <P>If successful, the test could result in the ability to potentially eliminate all port-level paper processes as well as create an automation environment in which pre-arrival data collection, in-bond tracking, and Free Trade Agreement compliance traceability no longer pose issues.</P>
                <P>Therefore, the purpose of the test is to measure the usefulness and accuracy of the Neoflow platform's GIS with a view toward resolving any issues prior to determining next steps (which could include implementing new policies and regulations leading to the integration of GIS data with the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) for Canadian crude oil and other pipeline commodities for entry purposes). The test will be limited to pipeline oil products coming from Canada but may be expanded in the future to other commodities upon successful implementation of the test.</P>
                <P>This collection of information is authorized by 19 U.S.C. 1411 National Customs Automation Program.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Non-Standard PDF.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     24.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Annual Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     12.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     288.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     4 hours.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     1,152.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Seth D Renkema,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Branch Chief, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, U.S. Customs and Border Protection.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00523 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-14-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>U.S. Customs and Border Protection</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control Number 1651-0140]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Revision; Collection of Advance Information From Certain Individuals on the Land Border</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>30-day notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). The information collection is published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and must be submitted (no later than February 13, 2025) to be assured of consideration.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to 
                        <E T="03">www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain.</E>
                         Please submit written comments and/or suggestions in English. Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under 30-day Review—Open for Public Comments” or by using the search function.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Requests for additional PRA information should be directed to Seth Renkema, Chief, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Trade, Regulations and Rulings, 90 K Street NE, 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, telephone number 202-325-0056 or via email 
                        <E T="03">CBP_PRA@cbp.dhs.gov.</E>
                         Please note that the contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. Individuals seeking information about other CBP programs should contact the CBP National Customer Service Center at 877-227-5511, (TTY) 1-800-877-8339, or CBP website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cbp.gov/.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). This proposed information collection was previously published as an extension without change in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     (89 FR 83030) on October 15, 2024, allowing for a 60-day comment period. This notice includes a new change not mentioned in the previous notice and allows for an additional 30 days for public comments. This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.8. Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points: (1) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) suggestions to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) suggestions to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3235"/>
                    information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses. The comments that are submitted will be summarized and included in the request for approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of This Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Collection of Advance Information from Certain Individuals on the Land Border.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     1651-0140.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     N/A.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Current Actions:</E>
                     This submission will revise the collection to include documented individuals and extend the expiration date of this information collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     The Department of Homeland Security (DHS) and its component U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) have established a process to streamline the processing of travelers under title 8 of the United States Code at ports of entry (POEs). This process involves the submission of certain biographic and biometric information to CBP, via the CBP One 
                    <SU>TM</SU>
                     application, in advance of arrival at a POE.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Under this collection, CBP collects certain biographic and biometric information from travelers via the CBP One 
                    <SU>TM</SU>
                     application, prior to their arrival at a POE, to streamline their processing at the POE. The requested information is that which CBP would otherwise collect from these individuals during primary and/or secondary processing. This information is provided directly by travelers. Providing this information reduces the amount of data entered by CBP Officers (CBPOs) and the corresponding time required to process travelers at the POE.
                </P>
                <P>The biographic and biometric information being collected in advance, that would otherwise be collected during primary and/or secondary processing at the POEs, includes descriptive information such as: Name, Date of Birth, Country of Birth, City of Birth, Country of Residence, Contact Information, Addresses, Nationality, Employment history (optional), Travel history, Emergency Contact (optional), U.S. and foreign addresses, Familial Information, Marital Status, Identity Document (not a Western Hemisphere Travel Initiative (WHTI) compliant document) (optional), Name and contact information for someone who assisted the user (Optional), Gender, Preferred Language, Height, Weight, Eye color and Photograph.</P>
                <P>
                    This collection may require the submission of a live facial photograph for all noncitizens who choose to provide advance information to CBP via CBP One 
                    <SU>TM</SU>
                    . The submission of a live photograph in advance provides CBPOs with a mechanism to match a noncitizen who arrives at the POE with the photograph submitted in advance, therefore identifying those individuals, and verifying their identity as well as conducting advance vetting. The live photograph is particularly important for identity verification if an NGO/IO is not assisting an individual in scheduling their presentation at a POE. In addition, the requirement for a live photo that contains latitude and longitude data points allows CBP to ensure the individual is physically located within the designated geofence areas. Creating designated areas allows an individual to secure an appointment without congregating in potentially dangerous conditions at the U.S. Southwest Border; and only traveling to or through Mexico for the intended purpose of presenting themselves to CBP for inspection. Documented travelers will be required to submit a photo but will not be required to utilize the liveness feature.
                </P>
                <P>
                    In addition, CBP allows individuals to request to present themselves for processing at a specific POE on a specific day or days, although such a request does not guarantee that an individual will be processed on a given date or at a given time. Individuals also have the opportunity to modify their requests within the CBP One
                    <SU>TM</SU>
                     application to an alternate day or time. The functionality to modify their request to an alternative date and time does not require the collection of new Personal Identification Information (PII) data elements.
                </P>
                <P>Noncitizens who use CBP One are processed in a more streamlined manner at the POE, since their advance information is prepopulated into CBP systems, which reduces manual data entry during processing. Travelers who did not submit information through CBP One may need to wait to be processed in a separate line from those who used CBP One (reserved for those who submitted their advance information and scheduled a presentation date).</P>
                <P>CBP invites the public to comment on the previously approved Emergency Revision for Noncitizens only:</P>
                <P>1. Change in CBP One Geofence Designated Areas:</P>
                <P>In response to a request from the Government of Mexico, CBP is adjusting the specific boundaries from where individuals can request and confirm CBP One appointments.</P>
                <P>Under the current process, individuals seeking appointments must be located within Central or Northern Mexico. The Government of Mexico has requested an adjustment to the geofence to assist in its efforts to influence where individuals congregate while they seek a CBP One appointment. CBP will be expanding the geofence for Mexican nationals to all of Mexico and CBP will be adding the Mexican states of Tabasco and Chiapas to the current boundaries for all other nationalities. By adjusting the boundaries, CBP will assist the Government of Mexico in its efforts to enforce its immigration laws and regulations and align resources to those areas where migrants are located. The Government of Mexico has the right to enforce their immigration laws and regulations and the current geofence boundaries hinder their migration enforcement approach. Further geofence adjustments may be made in the future in response to Government of Mexico requests.</P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Validation Tool:</E>
                </P>
                <P>Due to the volume of individuals traveling through Mexico to present at a POE at a designated date and time, the Government of Mexico is requesting assistance in validating appointments of individuals or groups of individuals it encounters transiting through Mexico. In response, CBP is deploying a validation mechanism to assist Mexican government officials when they encounter an individual or group who claim to have a CBP One appointment. The tool will require the Mexican government official to enter an individual's CBP One confirmation number and date of birth. Once submitted, the tool will return confirmation of any valid CBP One appointment with the appointment date, time, and location, as well as the total number of people in the group.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">This Revision Submission:</E>
                </P>
                <P>In the previous 60-day FRN CBP announced no changes to the collection, however in this notice CBP has added a new change that enables documented travelers to utilize the CBP One application, previously a feature only available for undocumented travelers.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Advance Information on Undocumented Travelers—Registration.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     500,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Annual Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     500,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     12 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     100,000.
                </P>
                <PRTPAGE P="3236"/>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Advance Information on Documented Travelers—Registration.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     20,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Annual Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     20,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     5 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     1,666.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Daily Appointment Request for Undocumented Travelers.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     500,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Annual Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     60.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     30,000,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     1 minute.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     500,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Daily Appointment Request for Documented Travelers.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     20,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Annual Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     20,000.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     1 minute.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     333.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Confirmation of Appointment.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     529,250.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Annual Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     529,250.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     3 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     26,463.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Seth D Renkema,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Branch Chief, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, U.S. Customs and Border Protection.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00524 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-14-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>U.S. Customs and Border Protection</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control Number 1651-0111]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Revision; Arrival and Departure Record (Forms I-94, I-94W) and Electronic System for Travel Authorization (ESTA)</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP), Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>60-Day notice and request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) will be submitting the following information collection request to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) for review and approval in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA). The information collection is published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         to obtain comments from the public and affected agencies.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments are encouraged and must be submitted (no later than March 17, 2025) to be assured of consideration.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Written comments and/or suggestions regarding the item(s) contained in this notice must include the OMB Control Number 1651-0111 in the subject line and the agency name. Please submit written comments and/or suggestions in English. Please use the following method to submit comments:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Email</E>
                        . Submit comments to: 
                        <E T="03">CBP_PRA@cbp.dhs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Requests for additional PRA information should be directed to Seth Renkema, Chief, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Office of Trade, Regulations and Rulings, 90 K Street NE, 10th Floor, Washington, DC 20229-1177, Telephone number 202-325-0056 or via email 
                        <E T="03">CBP_PRA@cbp.dhs.gov.</E>
                         Please note that the contact information provided here is solely for questions regarding this notice. Individuals seeking information about other CBP programs should contact the CBP National Customer Service Center at 877-227-5511, (TTY) 1-800-877-8339, or CBP website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.cbp.gov/</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    CBP invites the general public and other Federal agencies to comment on the proposed and/or continuing information collections pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). This process is conducted in accordance with 5 CFR 1320.8. Written comments and suggestions from the public and affected agencies should address one or more of the following four points: (1) whether the proposed collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether the information will have practical utility; (2) the accuracy of the agency's estimate of the burden of the proposed collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used; (3) suggestions to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and (4) suggestions to minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of responses. The comments that are submitted will be summarized and included in the request for approval. All comments will become a matter of public record.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Overview of This Information Collection</HD>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title:</E>
                     Arrival and Departure Record and Electronic System for Travel Authorization (ESTA).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Number:</E>
                     1651-0111.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     I-94/I-94W.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Current Actions:</E>
                     Revision.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Revision.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Affected Public:</E>
                     Individuals.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     Travelers seeking to enter under the Visa Waiver Program (VWP) by air or sea, are required to receive a travel authorization through the Electronic System for Travel Authorization (ESTA) prior to travel to the United States. ESTA is a mobile and web-based application and screening system used to determine whether certain noncitizens are eligible to travel to the United States under the VWP in the air, sea, and land environments. Travelers who are not eligible to travel under VWP may apply for a visa at a U.S. Embassy or Consular Office.
                </P>
                <P>
                    ESTA was provided for by the Secure Travel and Counterterrorism Partnership Act of 2007 (section 711 of the Implementing Recommendations of the 9/11 Commission Act of 2007, also known as the “9/11 Act,” Public Law 110-53) which requires that the Secretary of Homeland Security, in consultation with the Secretary of State, develop and implement an electronic system which shall collect such biographical and other information as the Secretary of Homeland Security determines necessary to determine, in 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3237"/>
                    advance of travel, the eligibility of the noncitizen to travel to the United States and whether such travel poses a law enforcement or security risk.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The information collected on U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) Forms I-94 (Arrival/Departure Record) and I-94W (Nonimmigrant Visa Waiver Arrival/Departure Record) are included in the manifest requirements imposed by Section 231 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA). CBP previously required noncitizens to prepare these forms while enroute to the United States and presented upon arrival at a sea or air port of entry within the United States. It is the duty of the master or commanding officer, or authorized agent, owner, or consignee of the vessel or aircraft, having any noncitizen on board, to deliver lists or manifests of the persons on board such vessel or aircraft to CBP officers at the port of arrival. However, now CBP now gathers I-94 data from existing automated sources such as the Advance Passenger Information System (APIS) in lieu of requiring passengers arriving by air or sea to submit a paper I-94 upon arrival. Currently, CBP issues electronic I-94s to most nonimmigrants entering the United States at land border ports of entry. Travelers entering the United States at a land border may apply for a provisional electronic I-94 via the I-94 public website. Travelers can access and print their electronic I-94 record via the website 
                    <E T="03">https://i94.cbp.dhs.gov/I94/#/home.</E>
                     CBP is working to fully automate all I-94 processes. Travelers can access and print their electronic I-94 record via the website 
                    <E T="03">www.cbp.gov/I94www.cbp.gov/I94.</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    On December 18, 2015, the President signed into law the Visa Waiver Program Improvement and Terrorist Travel Prevention Act of 2015 (“VWP Improvement Act”) as part of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2016. To meet the requirements of this new Act, the Department of Homeland Security (DHS, or the Department) strengthened the security of the VWP through enhancements to the ESTA application and to the Form I-94W.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Many of the provisions of the new law became effective on the date of enactment of the VWP Improvement Act. The Act generally makes certain nationals of VWP countries ineligible (with some exceptions) to travel to the United States under the VWP, specifically, if the noncitizen is, at the time of applying for admission, also a national of or has been present at any time on or after March 1, 2022—in Iraq, Syria, a country that is designated a state sponsor of terrorism,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or any other country of concern as designated by the Secretary of Homeland Security.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     INA section 217(a)(12)(A).
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Note that the Form I-94 is not affected by this change.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         Countries determined by the Secretary of State to have repeatedly provided support for acts of international terrorism are generally designated pursuant to three laws: section 1754(c) of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2019 (50 U.S.C. 4813); section 40 of the Arms Export Control Act (22 U.S.C. 2780); and section 620A of the Foreign Assistance Act of 1961 (22 U.S.C. 2371).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         The Act contains exceptions for individuals determined by the Secretary of Homeland Security to have been present in these countries, “(i) in order to perform military service in the armed forces of a [VWP] program country; or (ii) in order to carry out official duties as a full time employee of the government of a [VWP] program country.” INA section 217(a)(12)(B).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Previous Revision:</E>
                </P>
                <P>Visa Waiver Program Designation (VWP): Qatar</P>
                <P>CBP received emergency approval to revise the collection to add Qatar into the VWP.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">New Revision:</E>
                </P>
                <P>
                    CBP has calculated the estimated burden for this information collection to account for additional countries added into the Visa Waiver Program over the next three years. Pursuant to section 217 of the Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), 8 U.S.C. 1187, the Secretary, in consultation with the Secretary of State, may designate certain countries as VWP countries if certain requirements are met.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Once a country has met the requirements and been designated by the Secretary as a program country, eligible citizens and nationals of a program country may apply for admission to the United States at U.S. ports of entry as nonimmigrant visitors for a period of ninety days or less for business or pleasure without first obtaining a nonimmigrant visa, provided that they are otherwise eligible for admission under applicable statutory and regulatory requirements. As an ESTA is required for any travel to the United States under the VWP, the collection is being updated to include travelers from current VWP designated countries and travelers from potentially added designated countries over the next three years.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                          All references to “country” or “countries” in the laws authorizing the VWP are read to include Taiwan. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Taiwan Relations Act of 1979, Public Law 96-8, section 4(b)(1) (codified at 22 U.S.C. 3303(b)(1)) (providing that “[whenever the laws of the United States refer or relate to foreign countries, nations, states, governments, or similar entities, such terms shall include and such laws shall apply with respect to Taiwan”). This is consistent with the United States' one-China policy, under which the United States has maintained unofficial relations with Taiwan since 1979.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Additionally, CBP intends to update the ESTA application website to require applicants to provide a photograph of their face, or “selfie”, in addition to the photo of the passport biographical page. These photos would be used to better ensure that the applicant is the rightful possessor of the document being used to obtain an ESTA authorization.</P>
                <P>Currently, applicants are allowed to have a third party apply for ESTA on their behalf. While this update would not remove that option, third parties, such as travel agents or family members, would be required to provide a photograph of the ESTA applicant.</P>
                <P>The ESTA Mobile application currently requires applicants to take a live photograph of their face, which is compared to the passport photo collected during the ESTA Mobile application process. This change will better align the application processes and requirements of ESTA website and ESTA Mobile applicants.</P>
                <P>CBP invites the public to comment on both the previously approved emergency revision and new proposed revisions.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     Paper I-94.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     1,782,564.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Annual Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     1,782,564.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     8 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     237,616.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     I-94 website.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     91,411.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Annual Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     91,411.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     4 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     6,094.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     I-94W.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     1,138,644.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Annual Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     1,138,644.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     16 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     368,438.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     ESTA Mobile Application.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     2,172,611.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Annual Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     1.
                    <PRTPAGE P="3238"/>
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     2,172,611.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     22 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     796,696.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Information Collection:</E>
                     ESTA website.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Respondents:</E>
                     12,311,462.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Annual Responses per Respondent:</E>
                     1.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Number of Total Annual Responses:</E>
                     12,311,462.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Time per Response:</E>
                     18 minutes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Total Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     3,899,040.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 8, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Seth D Renkema,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Branch Chief, Economic Impact Analysis Branch, U.S. Customs and Border Protection.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00609 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-14-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[CIS No. 2793-25; DHS Docket No. USCIS-2024-0018]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of DHS's Requirement of the Permanent Labor Certification Final Determination for Form I-140 Petitions</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Department of Homeland Security, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, is announcing updated procedures for submitting a Form I-140, Immigrant Petition for Alien Workers, accompanied by a permanent labor certification approval, application for Schedule A designation, or National Interest Waiver request following the U.S. Department of Labor's implementation of the Foreign Labor Application Gateway system.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>This notice is applicable January 14, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Charles L. Nimick, Chief, Business and Foreign Workers Division, Office of Policy and Strategy, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security, 5900 Capital Gateway Drive, Camp Springs, MD 20746; telephone 240-721-3000 (this is not a toll-free number). Individuals with hearing or speech impairments may access the telephone numbers above via TTY by calling the toll-free Federal Information Relay Service at 1-877-889-5627 (TTY/TDD).</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Immigration and Nationality Act (INA), as amended, established employment-based immigrant visa preference classifications. Specifically, section 203(b) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1153(b), makes immigrant visas available to noncitizens who qualify under the following classifications: individuals with extraordinary ability, outstanding professors or researchers, and certain multinational executives and managers (EB-1) under section 203(b)(1) of the INA; individuals who are members of the professions with advanced degrees or of exceptional ability (EB-2) under section 203(b)(2) of the INA; and professionals, skilled workers, and other workers (EB-3) under section 203(b)(3) of the INA.</P>
                <P>Sections 204(a)(1)(E) and (F) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1154(a)(1)(E) and (F), require individuals or employers to file petitions with DHS when seeking classification under section 203(b)(1), (2), or (3) of the INA. These petitions are filed using Form I-140, Immigrant Petition for Alien Workers.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Permanent Labor Certifications</HD>
                <P>Section 212(a)(5)(A) of the INA, 8 U.S.C. 1182(a)(5)(A), states that any alien who seeks to enter the United States for the purpose of performing skilled or unskilled labor is inadmissible, unless the Secretary of Labor has determined and certified to the Secretary of State and Secretary of Homeland Security that:</P>
                <P>• there are not sufficient workers who are able, willing, qualified (or equally qualified in the case of an alien described in clause (ii)), and available at the time of application for a visa and admission to the United States and at the place where the alien is to perform such skilled or unskilled labor; and</P>
                <P>• that the employment of such alien will not adversely affect the wages and working conditions of workers in the United States similarly employed.</P>
                <P>This provision also sets out special rules for certain members of the teaching profession and for individuals who have exceptional ability in the sciences or the arts. In addition, INA section 212(a)(5)(B), 8 U.S.C. 1182(a)(5)(B), provides separate rules for the admission of unqualified physicians.</P>
                <P>
                    Under INA section 212(a)(5)(D), 8 U.S.C. 1182(a)(5)(D), the grounds of inadmissibility in paragraphs (A) and (B) apply to intending immigrants seeking admission or adjustment of status under the EB-2 and EB-3 preference classifications. Accordingly, a Form I-140 petition filed under the EB-2 and EB-3 preference classifications must be accompanied by an approved permanent labor certification, an application for Schedule A designation,
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     or a request for an exemption from the job offer/permanent labor certification requirement, if such an exemption would be in the national interest (National Interest Waiver).
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Form I-140 petitions for sheepherders filed under 20 CFR 656.16 also do not need to be filed with a DOL-approved permanent labor certification.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         8 CFR 204.5(k)(4)(i), (l)(3)(i).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         8 CFR 204.5(k)(4)(ii).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">The PERM Labor Certification Process Prior to the Foreign Labor Application Gateway System</HD>
                <P>
                    Before the implementation of the new Foreign Labor Application Gateway (FLAG) system on June 1, 2023, when DOL approved a permanent labor certification application, DOL sent an original approved Form ETA-9089, Application for Permanent Employment Certification, and final determination and letter to the employer, or to the employer's authorized attorney or agent, whichever is applicable. The employer was required to sign and retain a signed copy of the certified Form ETA-9089.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The employer or its authorized attorney or agent then had to file a Form I-140 petition with USCIS together with the original paper labor certification approval, any other supporting documentation, and the appropriate fees.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         20 CFR 656.10(f).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Petitioners filing Form I-140 petitions for Schedule A occupations or with National Interest Waiver requests had to submit an uncertified Form ETA-750B (now discontinued), or the Form ETA-9089. In addition, Schedule A employers were required to submit a prevailing wage determination (Form ETA-9141) 
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and evidence that a notice of filing the Application for Permanent Employment Certification was provided to the bargaining representative or the employer's employees.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         20 CFR 656.15(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         20 CFR 656.10(d)
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Transition of PERM to the New Form ETA-9089 and Foreign Labor Application Gateway System</HD>
                <P>
                    On Oct. 25, 2022, DOL received approval from the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs within the Office of Management and Budget for the use of the revised Form ETA-9089, Application for Permanent Employment 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3239"/>
                    Certification.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The revision significantly changed the application by creating a basic form as well as four appendices.
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The revision also included a new Form ETA-9089—Final Determination: Permanent Employment Labor Certification Approval (Final Determination) for when DOL approves the permanent labor certification application. An uncertified Final Determination form is also signed by Form I-140 petitioners for Schedule A applications and National Interest Waiver requests being submitted directly to USCIS.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Notice of Office of Management and Budget Action, Oct. 25, 2022, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAOMBHistory?ombControlNumber=1205-0451#.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         Form ETA-9089—Appendix A: Foreign Worker Information; Form ETA-9089—Appendix B: Additional Worksite Information; Form ETA-9089—Appendix C: Supplemental Information; Form ETA-9089—Appendix D: Special Recruitment for College and University Teachers. 
                        <E T="03">See https://www.dol.gov/agencies/eta/foreign-labor/forms.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         “NOTE: Form ETA-9089, Final Determination is for completion and submission ONLY when submitting Form I-140 to USCIS in support of a Schedule A or National Interest Waiver. When submitting the form to USCIS, please sign and submit a fully executed copy of page 2 along with Form ETA-9089 and the appropriate appendices.” 
                        <E T="03">https://www.dol.gov/agencies/eta/foreign-labor/forms</E>
                         (last visited on Nov. 14, 2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    On April 11, 2023, DOL announced two webinars: one to provide an overview of the revised Form ETA-9089, and another to provide stakeholders with updates regarding the modernization of the PERM program and transition to the FLAG system.
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On April 21, 2023, DOL announced that it would require the revised Form ETA-9089, Application for Permanent Employment Certification, in the FLAG system starting on May 16, 2023.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     This date was later postponed to June 1, 2023.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         April 11, 2023. OFLC Announces Technical Webinar on April 20, 2023, to Provide Stakeholders an Update to the Permanent Labor Certification (PERM) Program Modernization Process and April 11, 2023. OFLC Announces Webinar on April 19, 2023, to provide an overview of the Form ETA—9089; 
                        <E T="03">https://www.dol.gov/agencies/eta/foreign-labor/news</E>
                         (last visited Nov. 14, 2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         April 21, 2023. Office of Foreign Labor Certifications Announces Form ETA-9089 Case Creation and Case Submission in Foreign Labor Application Gateway, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.dol.gov/agencies/eta/foreign-labor/news</E>
                         (last visited Nov. 14, 2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         May 11, 2023, Office of Foreign Labor Certification Postpones Date for Submitting Revised PERM and CW-1 Forms in the Foreign Labor Application Gateway to June 1, 2023; and May 26, 2023, OFLC announces case submission for the Form ETA 9089 for PERM in FLAG on June 1, 2023, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.dol.gov/agencies/eta/foreign-labor/news</E>
                         (last visited Nov. 14, 2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    As a part of the PERM program modernization efforts, DOL modified how it collects certain information from employers. For example, and as explained in the instructions to the Form ETA-9089, DOL is no longer collecting information about the job opportunity that was previously included in section H on the prior version of Form ETA-9089 (which included information about the primary worksite, job title, education, and experience, as well as an open text box for providing additional information or facts about the case).
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Instead, the DOL FLAG system is pulling that information from the electronically-processed Form ETA-9141, Application for Prevailing Wage Determination, into the Form ETA-9089.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Section E Job Opportunity and Wage Information Note; current Form ETA-9089—General Instructions, 
                        <E T="03">https://www.dol.gov/sites/dolgov/files/ETA/oflc/pdfs/ETA-9089%20General%20Instructions%20-%20508%20Compliant%20-%20Expires%2010-31-2025.pdf</E>
                         (last visited Nov. 14, 2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Employers who file the new Form ETA-9089, including all applicable appendices, through the FLAG system and are granted a permanent labor certification, will receive a Final Determination electronically.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         Employers may obtain a copy of the final decisions from the Historical table in the My Cases tab of their FLAG account. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         DOL's Frequently Asked Questions; 
                        <E T="03">https://flag.dol.gov/support/FAQ#cases</E>
                         (last visited Nov. 14, 2024)
                        <E T="03">, under the question, “How can I find a copy of my issued application?”</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>In circumstances where the employer or, if applicable, its authorized attorney or agent, is not able to receive the approved permanent labor certification documents electronically, DOL will send a physical copy of the Form ETA-9089 and Final Determination to the appropriate address.</P>
                <P>
                    Instructions to the Form ETA-9089 require that the relevant parties sign Sections B, C, and D of the Final Determination resulting in certification immediately upon receipt from DOL before the Form I-140 petition can be filed with USCIS. The instructions also state that when DOL enables the electronic filing system to receive electronic signatures, the employer, foreign worker, attorney, agent, and preparer, as appropriate, will be required to sign the labor certification electronically before submission.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.dol.gov/sites/dolgov/files/ETA/oflc/pdfs/ETA-9089%20General%20Instructions%20-%20508%20Compliant%20-%20Expires%2010-31-2025.pdf</E>
                         (last visited Nov. 14, 2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    With the exception of the few employers who still file their Forms ETA-9089 by mail, DOL will generally only provide the Final Determination to an employer electronically. With the publication of this notice, USCIS is announcing on its website that employers whose permanent labor certification applications were processed in FLAG must include a printed copy of the electronic Final Determination with their Form I-140, and that USCIS will consider this printed copy as an original, approved labor certification.
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         USCIS Updates Filing Procedures for Form I-140, available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.uscis.gov/news/alerts.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    USCIS is formally announcing through this notice that for Form I-140 petitions that must be accompanied by a DOL-approved labor certification, a printed copy of the Final Determination, completed and electronically signed by DOL, and signed by the foreign worker, employer, and the employer's attorney or agent, if applicable, must be submitted with a Form I-140 petition. This printed copy of the two-page determination satisfies the DHS regulatory requirement that petitioners submit an individual labor certification. 8 CFR 204.5(a)(2). As discussed above, this change in USCIS procedure aligns with DOL's change in its procedures, as DOL has transitioned to a new electronic filing and application processing environment. This means that DOL generally no longer provides the employer and, if applicable, the employer's authorized attorney or agent, with a paper copy of a certified Form ETA-9089. This change in process is also appropriate since in most circumstances, USCIS will no longer need to reference a paper copy of a certified Form ETA-9089 (and its appendices) because USCIS and DOL have in place an information sharing process that allows USCIS to validate substantive elements of the approved permanent labor certification and prevailing wage determination based on case information DOL supplies directly to USCIS.
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.dhs.gov/publication/dhs-uscis-pia-044-validation-instrument-business-enterprises</E>
                         (last visited November 14, 2024).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    There may be limited circumstances when DOL is able to adjudicate a permanent labor certification electronically but is unable to send an electronic certification to an employer (or its authorized agent, if applicable). In those rare instances, DOL will mail a paper copy of the electronic certification to the employer (and/or its authorized agent, if applicable). The electronic certification will not be printed on blue security paper. As with electronically issued certifications, the paper-based and signed final determination satisfies the DHS regulatory requirement that petitioners submit an individual labor certification. DOL does not anticipate circumstances 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3240"/>
                    where it would need to revert to a paper-based adjudication process.
                </P>
                <P>Additionally, USCIS notes that the submission of a printed copy of the electronic ETA-9089 Final Determination does not preclude USCIS from issuing a request for evidence or a notice of intent to deny in certain warranted circumstances, including but not limited to, when the electronic systems are unavailable for validation, or the Final Determination document is substantively inconsistent with the information provided by DOL in FLAG regarding that labor certification determination. In those instances, USCIS will request that a petitioner (or its authorized agent, if applicable) submit documentation, including but not limited to a copy or copies of the complete certified Form ETA-9089 and all applicable appendices.</P>
                <P>Form I-140 petitions for Schedule A occupations must contain a completed, uncertified Form ETA-9089, including all applicable appendices, a signed Final Determination, and a valid prevailing wage determination tracking number in Section E, Item 1 of the Form ETA-9089. This tracking number will allow USCIS to associate the uncertified Form ETA-9089 with the corresponding prevailing wage determination issued by DOL. In circumstances of system outage, scheduled maintenance, or other event preventing the electronic issuance of prevailing wage determinations and transmission of prevailing wage determination data from DOL to USCIS, USCIS may request that the employer or the employer's authorized representative submit a copy of the prevailing wage determination (Form ETA-9141).</P>
                <P>Form I-140 petitions for sheepherders under 20 CFR 656.16 will need to contain a completed, uncertified Form ETA-9089, including all applicable appendices, a signed Final Determination, and the valid prevailing wage determination tracking number for the corresponding DOL-issued Form ETA-9141.</P>
                <P>Finally, a Form I-140 petition with a National Interest Waiver request will need to contain a copy of the Form ETA-9089, Appendix A, and a signed Final Determination.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Ur M. Jaddou,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services, Department of Homeland Security.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00582 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9111-97-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR </AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Fish and Wildlife Service </SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[FWS-R6-NWRS-2024-N036; FF06R06000-256-FXRS126506ROMC0]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Charles M. Russell Wetland Management District (MT); Draft Comprehensive Conservation Plan</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of availability; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), announce the availability of a draft comprehensive conservation plan (CCP) and associated environmental assessment (EA) for the Charles M. Russell Wetland Management District (District) for review and comment. The District is distinct from the Charles M. Russell (CMR) National Wildlife Refuge (NWR) and this draft CCP and EA will not impact management of that refuge. The draft CCP describes the vision, goals, objectives, and strategies that will guide the long-term management of the District. The draft EA describes the impacts of implementing the objectives and strategies of the CCP on the environment, as well as alternative management objectives and strategies the Service is considering, in compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act. We invite comment from the public and local, State, Tribal, and Federal agencies. </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>To ensure consideration, written comments must be received or postmarked on or before February 13, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Accessing Documents:</E>
                         You may obtain electronic copies of the draft CCP, draft EA, and associated documents at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.fws.gov/refuge/charles-m-russell-wetland-management-district.</E>
                         Hard copies may be viewed in person during regular business hours, 8 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, at the Charles M. Russell Wetland Management District, 333 Airport Road, Lewistown, MT 59457.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Submitting Comments:</E>
                         Please submit comments by only one of the following methods:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Email: cmr@fws.gov;</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">U.S. mail:</E>
                         Cortez Rohr, District Manager, 333 Airport Road, Lewistown, MT 59457; or
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">In-Person Drop off:</E>
                         You may drop off comments during regular business hours (address above).
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Ella Wagener, by telephone at 703-283-2142 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">ella_wagener@fws.gov.</E>
                         Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The National Wildlife Refuge System Improvement Act of 1997 (Improvement Act; 16 U.S.C. 668dd-668ee), which amended the National Wildlife Refuge System Administration Act of 1966, requires the Service to develop a CCP for each NWR. The purpose in developing a CCP is to provide refuge managers with a long-term plan for achieving refuge purposes and contributing toward the mission of the National Wildlife Refuge System, consistent with sound principles of fish and wildlife management, conservation, legal mandates, and our policies. In addition to outlining broad management direction on conserving wildlife and their habitats, CCPs identify wildlife-dependent recreational opportunities available to the public, including opportunities for hunting, fishing, wildlife observation and photography, and environmental education and interpretation. We will review this CCP at least every 15 years and revise it as necessary in accordance with the Improvement Act.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Introduction</HD>
                <P>
                    With this notice, the Service continues the process for developing a CCP for the District. The District currently encompasses four national wildlife refuges (NWRs) and  six waterfowl production areas (WPAs) in five Montana counties: Petroleum, Musselshell, Golden Valley, Yellowstone, and Stillwater. Clark's Fork WPA (Carbon County) is managed by the District but is outside the District boundary. There are also five conservation easements in the District. These are the District's current units and easements: War Horse WPA and War Horse NWR and its three units; Lake Mason NWR and its three units; Hailstone WPA and NWR, Grass Lake NWR, Spidel WPA, Tew WPA, Clark's Fork WPA, and James L. Hansen WPA. In addition, there are five Farmers Home Administration conservation easements (Hardy, Kurz, Overturf, Weyer, and Jansen tracts), as well as other leases, flowage easements, and State grazing easements. Additional units or conservation easements added to the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3241"/>
                    District in the future will be managed according to the direction in this CCP and associated EA and will be incorporated into future revisions and amendments.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Pre-planning for this CCP began in 2016 and three public scoping meetings were conducted in February and March 2017 in Winnett, Roundup, and Laurel, Montana. However, the planning process stalled. On June 29, 2022, the Service published a notice of intent in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     announcing the intent to reinitiate the planning process to develop a CCP and EA for the District (87 FR 38775). The Service received comments from two individuals and three organizations during the new scoping comment period, which closed on July 29, 2022. All comments were shared with the planning team and considered throughout the planning process. Some of the valuable comments focused on public opportunity, wildlife resources, and livestock grazing. Findings from public comments and other information were used to develop the proposed action for the District and to analyze the management alternatives. 
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Charles M. Russell Wetland Management District</HD>
                <P>The District is located within the Northern Great Plains in central and southcentral Montana and is bounded on the north by the Missouri River Breaks and on the south by the Greater Yellowstone Ecosystem. While it is part of the Charles M. Russell NWR Complex, the District is distinct from the Charles M. Russell NWR in both location and management direction. The District includes wetlands with a mix of grasses, rushes, and occasional greasewood; areas of Ponderosa pine woodlands; creek bottoms filled with cottonwoods; coulees having a mix of juniper, sagebrush, and deciduous shrubs with grass components; and vast, open, flat and rolling grassland hills mixed with sagebrush in some areas.  Seasonal and temporary wetland basins provide critical waterfowl and grassland bird habitat for feeding and nesting. The District also lies on the western edge of the Central Flyway and near the eastern edge of the Pacific Flyway. The core of the District's work is managing wetland habitat to benefit waterfowl, wading birds, and shorebirds. </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">National Environmental Policy Act Compliance</HD>
                <P>
                    This CCP is being developed in accordance with the requirements of the National Wildlife Refuge System Administration Act of 1966 (16 U.S.C. 668dd-668ee), as amended by the National Wildlife Refuge System Improvement Act of 1997 (Improvement Act; Pub. L. 105-57); the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ); other appropriate Federal laws and regulations; and the policies and procedures for compliance with those laws and regulations.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Tribal Responsibilities </HD>
                <P>
                    The Service has unique responsibilities to Tribes, including under the National Historic Preservation Act (54 U.S.C. 306101 et seq.); the American Indian Religious Freedom Act (42 U.S.C. 1996); the Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act (25 U.S.C. 3001 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ); the Religious Freedom Restoration Act of 1993 (42 U.S.C. 2000bb 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ); Joint Secretarial Order 3403, Fulfilling the Trust Responsibility to Indian Tribes in the Stewardship of Federal Lands and Waters (Secretaries of Interior and Agriculture; November 15, 2021); Secretarial Order 3206, American Indian Tribal Rights, Federal-Tribal Trust Responsibilities, and the Endangered Species Act (Secretaries of Interior and Agriculture; June 5, 1997); Executive Order 13007, Indian Sacred Sites (61 FR 26771; May 29, 1996); and the Service's Native American Policy. We apply the term “Tribal” or “Tribe(s)” generally to federally recognized Tribes and Alaska Native Tribal entities. We will refer to Native Hawaiian Organizations separately when we intend to include those entities. 
                </P>
                <P>The Service will separately consult with Tribes on the proposals set forth in this CCP. We will also ensure that those Tribes wishing to engage directly in the planning process will have the opportunity to do so. As part of this process, we will protect the confidential nature of any consultations and other communications we have with Tribes, to the extent permitted by the Freedom of Information Act and other laws. </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Review and Comment</HD>
                <P>At the end of the review and comment period for the draft CCP, comments will be analyzed by the Service and addressed in the final CCP. All information provided voluntarily by mail, by phone, or at public meetings (e.g., names, addresses, letters of comment, input recorded during meetings) becomes part of the official public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, the Service cannot guarantee we will be able to do so.Authority</P>
                <P>This notice is published under the authority of the National Wildlife Refuge System Improvement Act of 1997 (16 U.S.C. 668dd).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Matthew Hogan,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Director, Mountain-Prairie Region.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC> [FR Doc. 2024-31631 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am] </FRDOC>
            <BILCOD> BILLING CODE 4333-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Fish and Wildlife Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[FWS-R2-ES-2024-0185; FXES 11140200000-256-FF02ENEH00]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Availability; Draft Amendments to the Oil and Gas and Renewable (Wind and Solar) Energy, Power Line, and Communication Tower Habitat Conservation Plans for the Lesser Prairie-Chicken; Colorado, Kansas, New Mexico, Oklahoma and Texas</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of availability; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), have received applications from LPC Conservation LLC (applicant) for amended incidental take permits (permits) supported by proposed amendments to the “Oil and Gas and Renewable (Wind and Solar) Energy, Power Line, and Communication Tower Habitat Conservation Plans for the Lesser Prairie-chicken; Colorado, Kansas, New Mexico, Oklahoma and Texas” (HCPs). With this notice, we announce the availability for public comment of the permit applications, the proposed HCP amendments, and the draft environmental assessments (EAs). Currently, we are only accepting comments on the amended portions of the HCPs and EAs. We invite comments from the public and Federal, Tribal, State, and local governments.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>We must receive your written comments on or before February 13, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P> </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Obtaining Documents:</E>
                         The documents this notice announces, as well as any comments and materials that we receive, will be available for public 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3242"/>
                        inspection online in Docket No. FWS-R2-ES-2024-0185 at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Submitting Comments:</E>
                         If you wish to submit comments on any of the documents, you may do so in writing by one of the following methods:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Online: https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments on Docket No. FWS-R2-ES-2024-0185.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">U.S. mail:</E>
                         Public Comments Processing; Attn: Docket No. FWS-R2-ES-2024-0185; U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service; MS: PRB/3W; 5275 Leesburg Pike; Falls Church, VA 22041-3803.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Clay Nichols, Lesser Prairie-Chicken Coordinator, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service Ecological Services, Southwest Regional Office; telephone 817-471-6372. Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), make available for public comment applications submitted by LPC Conservation LLC (applicant) for amended incidental take permits (permits) under section 10(a)(1)(B) of the Endangered Species Act (ESA; 16 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) supported by proposed amendments to the “Oil and Gas and Renewable (Wind and Solar) Energy, Power Line, and Communication Tower Habitat Conservation Plan for the Lesser Prairie-chicken; Colorado, Kansas, New Mexico, Oklahoma and Texas” (HCPs) and the associated draft environmental assessments (EAs). If approved, the requested amendments would expand the plan areas of the HCPs to the north to reflect updates to the lesser prairie-chicken (
                    <E T="03">Tympanuchus pallidicinctus;</E>
                     LEPC) estimated occupied range (EOR) made in 2022 by the Lesser Prairie-Chicken Interstate Working Group. By expanding the HCP plan areas, the HCPs would have the ability to provide LEPC conservation, as well as incidental take permit coverage for covered activities, throughout the entire 2022 EOR boundary.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>Section 9 of the ESA and our implementing regulations at 50 CFR part 17 prohibit the “take” of fish or wildlife species listed as endangered or threatened. Take is defined under the ESA as to “harass, harm, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill, trap, capture, or collect listed animal species, or to attempt to engage in such conduct” (16 U.S.C. 1538(19)). However, under section 10(a) of the ESA, we may issue permits to authorize incidental take of listed species. “Incidental take” is defined by the ESA as take that is incidental to, and not the purpose of, carrying out an otherwise lawful activity. Regulations governing such take of endangered and threatened species are found at 50 CFR 17.21 and 17.22 and 50 CFR 17.31 and 17.32, respectively.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Action</HD>
                <P>The proposed action is the issuance of amended incidental take permits (permits) under section 10(a)(1)(B) of the ESA supported by proposed amendments to the “Oil and Gas and Renewable (Wind and Solar) Energy, Power Line, and Communication Tower Habitat Conservation Plan for the Lesser Prairie-chicken; Colorado, Kansas, New Mexico, Oklahoma and Texas” (HCPs) to be consistent with changes in the HCP plan areas, as well as other administrative changes.</P>
                <P>The HCPs were approved and permitted by the Service on December 1, 2021 (Renewables HCP), and May 27, 2022 (Oil and Gas HCP). At the time of approval and permit issuance, the plan area for the HCPs was the 2013 LEPC EOR boundary plus a 10-mile buffer. In 2022, after the Service's approval of the HCPs and issuance of the permits, the Lesser Prairie-Chicken Interstate Working Group revised the EOR of the LEPC to expand the range boundaries north and east to include LEPC occurrence documented in Colorado and to connect to the Kansas Shortgrass/Conservation Reserve Program Mosaic. The proposed amendments update the HCPs and permit to incorporate the revised EOR boundary and expand the plan area boundaries in the HCPs accordingly.</P>
                <P>The proposed amendments include updated text, figures, and captions resulting from the update to the EOR and plan area. In addition, the amendments include updates to terminology used in figure legends; miscellaneous formatting, spelling, or grammatical corrections; and updates to the certificate of inclusion (CI) application found in Appendix B of each HCP. No changes are proposed to the duration of the HCPs and associated permits, covered activities, or original incidental take estimates.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Alternatives</HD>
                <P>We are considering one alternative to the proposed action as part of this process, the no action alternative. Under the no action alternative, the Service would not approve the proposed amendments and would not issue the amended permits. In this case, the plan areas for the HCPs would remain as defined in the approved HCPs and permits.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Next Steps</HD>
                <P>We will evaluate the permit applications, proposed amendments, draft EAs, and comments we receive to determine whether the applications meet the requirements of the ESA, National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), and implementing regulations. If we determine that all requirements are met, we will approve the amendments and issue the amended permits under section 10(a)(1)(B) of the ESA to the applicant, in accordance with the terms of the HCPs and specific terms and conditions of the authorizing permits. We will not make our final decision until after the 30-day comment period ends and we have fully considered all comments received during the public comment period.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Availability of Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    All comments we receive become part of the public record associated with this action. If you submit a comment at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                    , your entire comment, including any personal identifying information, will be posted on the website. If you submit a hardcopy comment that includes personal identifying information, such as your address, phone number, or email address, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your hardcopy document to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so. Moreover, all submissions from organizations or businesses, and from individuals identifying themselves as representatives or officials of organizations or businesses, will be made available for public disclosure in their entirety.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority</HD>
                <P>
                    We provide this notice under the authority of section 10(c) of the ESA and its implementing regulations (50 CFR 17.22 and 17.32) and NEPA (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and its implementing 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3243"/>
                    regulations (40 CFR 1500 through 1508 and 43 CFR part 46).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Amy Lueders,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Director, Southwest Region, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00566 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Fish and Wildlife Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FWS-R4-ES-2024-0190; FXES11140400000-256-FF04EF4000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Receipt of Incidental Take Permit Application and Proposed Habitat Conservation Plan for the Sand Skink and Blue-tailed Mole-skink; Polk County, FL; Categorical Exclusion</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of availability; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        We, the Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), announce receipt of an application from ADH Rollins Court, LLC (applicant) for an incidental take permit (ITP) under the Endangered Species Act. The applicant requests the ITP to take the federally listed sand skink (
                        <E T="03">Plestiodon reynoldsi</E>
                        ) and blue-tailed mole skink (
                        <E T="03">Eumeces egregius lividus</E>
                        ) incidental to the construction of a residential development in Polk County, Florida. We request public comment on the application, which includes the applicant's proposed habitat conservation plan (HCP), and on the Service's preliminary determination that the proposed permitting action may be eligible for a categorical exclusion pursuant to the Council on Environmental Quality's National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) regulations, the Department of the Interior's (DOI) NEPA regulations, and the DOI Departmental Manual. To make this preliminary determination, we prepared a draft environmental action statement and low-effect screening form, both of which are also available for public review. We invite comment from the public and local, State, Tribal, and Federal agencies.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>We must receive your written comments on or before February 13, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Obtaining Documents:</E>
                         The documents this notice announces, as well as any comments and other materials that we receive, will be available for public inspection online in Docket No. FWS-R4-ES-2024-0190 at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Submitting Comments:</E>
                         If you wish to submit comments on any of the documents, you may do so in writing by one of the following methods:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Online: https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Follow the instructions for submitting comments on Docket No. FWS-R4-ES-2024-0190.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">U.S. mail:</E>
                         Public Comments Processing, Attn: Docket No. FWS-R4-ES-2024-0190; U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, MS: PRB/3W, 5275 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041-3803.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Al Begazo, by U.S. mail (see 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                        ), by telephone at 772-226-8134, or via email at 
                        <E T="03">alfredo_begazo@fws.gov.</E>
                         Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    We, the Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), announce receipt of an application from ADH Rollins Court, LLC (applicant) for an incidental take permit (ITP) under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (ESA; 16 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ). The applicant requests the ITP to take the sand skink (
                    <E T="03">Plestiodon reynoldsi</E>
                    ) and blue-tailed mole skink (
                    <E T="03">Eumeces egregius lividus</E>
                    ) (skinks), federally listed as threatened under the ESA, incidental to the construction of a residential development in Polk County, Florida. We request public comment on the application, which includes the applicant's habitat conservation plan (HCP), and on the Service's preliminary determination that this proposed ITP qualifies as low effect, and may qualify for a categorical exclusion pursuant to the Council on Environmental Quality's National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) regulations (40 CFR 1501.4), the Department of the Interior's (DOI) NEPA regulations (43 CFR part 46), and the DOI's Departmental Manual (516 DM 8.5(C)(2)). To make this preliminary determination, we prepared a draft environmental action statement and low-effect screening form, both of which are also available for public review.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Project</HD>
                <P>The applicant requests a 5-year ITP to take skinks via the conversion of approximately 5.46 acres (ac) of occupied nesting, foraging, and sheltering skink habitat incidental to the construction of a residential development on 46 ac on Polk County Parcels 27-27-11-735500-000140 and 27-27-11-734500-030300 within Section 11, Township 27 South, Range 27 East, Polk County, Florida. The applicant proposes to mitigate for take of skinks through the purchase 10.92 ac of conservation credits (in accordance with the Service's 2:1 mitigation ratio guidelines) from a Service-authorized conservation bank prior to engaging in any phase of the project.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Our Preliminary Determination</HD>
                <P>
                    The Service has made a preliminary determination that the applicant's proposed project, including the construction of a residential development and associated infrastructure (
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     electric, water, and sewer lines), would individually and cumulatively have a minor or negligible effect on the skinks and the human environment. Therefore, we have preliminarily determined that the proposed ESA section 10(a)(1)(B) permit would be a low-effect ITP that individually or cumulatively would have a minor effect on the skinks and may qualify for application of a categorical exclusion pursuant to the Council on Environmental Quality's NEPA regulations, DOI's NEPA regulations, and the DOI Departmental Manual. A low-effect ITP is one that would result in (1) minor or nonsignificant effects on species covered in the HCP; (2) nonsignificant effects on the human environment; and (3) impacts that, when added together with the impacts of other past, present, and reasonably foreseeable actions, would not result in significant cumulative effects to the human environment.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Next Steps</HD>
                <P>The Service will evaluate the application and the comments to determine whether to issue the requested ITP. We will also conduct an intra-Service consultation pursuant to section 7 of the ESA to evaluate the effects of the proposed take. After considering the preceding and other matters, we will determine whether the permit issuance criteria of section 10(a)(1)(B) of the ESA have been met. If met, the Service will issue ITP number PER11450292 to ADH Rollins Court, LLC.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Availability of Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made available to the public. If you submit a 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3244"/>
                    comment at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                     your entire comment, including any personal identifying information, will be posted on the website. If you submit a hardcopy comment that includes personal identifying information, such as your address, phone number, or email address, you may request at the top of your document that we withhold this information from public review. However, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so. Moreover, all submissions from organizations or businesses, and from individuals identifying themselves as representatives or officials of organizations or businesses, will be made available for public disclosure in their entirety.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority</HD>
                <P>
                    The Service provides this notice under section 10(c) of the Endangered Species Act (16 U.S.C. 1531 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and its implementing regulations (50 CFR 17.32) and the National Environmental Policy Act (42 U.S.C. 4321 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and its implementing regulations (40 CFR 1500 through 1508 and 43 CFR part 46).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Robert L. Carey, </NAME>
                    <TITLE>Manager, Division of Environmental Review,  Florida Ecological Services Field Office.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00568 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Bureau of Indian Affairs</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[256A2100DD/AAKC001030/A0A501010.999900; OMB Control Number 1035-0005]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activities; Submission to the Office of Management and Budget for Review and Approval; Tribal Trust Evaluations</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Trust Funds Administration, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of information collection; request for comment.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, we, the Bureau of Trust Funds Administration (BTFA) are proposing to renew an information collection.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Interested persons are invited to submit comments on or before February 13, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection request (ICR) should be sent within 30 days of publication of this notice to the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) through 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRA/icrPublicCommentRequest?ref_nbr=202406-1035-001</E>
                         or by visiting 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain</E>
                         and selecting “Currently under Review—Open for Public Comments” and then scrolling down to the “Department of the Interior.”
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To request additional information about this ICR, contact Theresa Powless, Bureau of Trust Funds Administrative, Program Specialist, 4400 Masthead Street NE, Albuquerque, NM 87109; or by email to 
                        <E T="03">Theresa_Powless@btfa.gov,</E>
                         or by telephone at (505) 418-2541. Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States. You may also view the ICR at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/Forward?SearchTarget=PRA&amp;textfield=1035-0005.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA, 44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ) and 5 CFR 1320.8(d)(1), we provide the general public and other Federal agencies with an opportunity to comment on new, proposed, revised, and continuing collections of information. This helps us assess the impact of our information collection requirements and minimize the public's reporting burden. It also helps the public understand our information collection requirements and provide the requested data in the desired format.
                </P>
                <P>
                    A 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice with a 60-day public comment period soliciting comments on this collection of information was published on November 6, 2024 (89 FR 88057). No comments were received.
                </P>
                <P>As part of our continuing effort to reduce paperwork and respondent burdens, we are again soliciting comments from the public and other Federal agencies on the proposed ICR that is described below. We are especially interested in public comment addressing the following:</P>
                <P>(1) Whether or not the collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of the functions of the agency, including whether or not the information will have practical utility;</P>
                <P>(2) The accuracy of our estimate of the burden for this collection of information, including the validity of the methodology and assumptions used;</P>
                <P>(3) Ways to enhance the quality, utility, and clarity of the information to be collected; and</P>
                <P>
                    (4) How might the agency minimize the burden of the collection of information on those who are to respond, including through the use of appropriate automated, electronic, mechanical, or other technological collection techniques or other forms of information technology, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     permitting electronic submission of response.
                </P>
                <P>Comments that you submit in response to this notice are a matter of public record. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Abstract:</E>
                     As codified in 25 U.S.C. 4001 
                    <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                     The American Indian Trust Fund Management Reform Act of 1994 (the Reform Act) makes provisions for the Bureau of Trust Funds Administration (formerly known as the Office of the Special Trustee for American Indians) to administer trust fund accounts for individuals and Tribes. This collection of information is required to fulfill the mission of the Bureau of Trust Funds Administration (BTFA) and the Secretary of the Interior's responsibility for evaluating all Public Law 93-638 Compact Tribes administering or managing trust programs, functions, services, and/or activities on behalf of the Secretary of the Interior. This responsibility is federally mandated pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 458cc(d) and 25 CFR 1000.350. BTFA is responsible under 25 U.S.C. 4041 for overseeing the implementation of trust reforms, trust accounting, and coordination of trust policies intra-bureau-wide related to the management of Indian trust funds and assets. The BTFA, Division of Trust Evaluation and Review (DTER), formerly the Office of Trust Audit and Review (OTRA), is responsible for conducting tribal trust evaluations on Tribes performing Indian trust programs and functions pursuant to a Tribal Self-Governance Compact or Annual Funding Agreement. In addition, DTER has a congressional mandate to conduct Annual Tribal Trust Evaluations for Tribes that compact trust programs, functions, services, and/or activities under Public Law 93-638 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3245"/>
                    Self-Governance Compacts on behalf of the Secretary of the Interior. This authority is contained in 25 U.S.C. 5363(d)(1) &amp; (2) and the enabling regulations in 25 CFR 1000.350. DTER currently collects Indian trust data and documentation from Tribes in fulfillment of performing the Tribal trust evaluations for compacted Tribes. These evaluations are enabled by performing desk reviews (via email electronic questionnaires), and on-site visits to Tribes.
                </P>
                <P>Under 25 CFR 1000.355, the Secretary's designated representative will conduct trust evaluations for each self-governance Tribe that has an annual funding agreement. The end result is the issuance of a report, which is required by 25 CFR 1000.365. Currently, DTER conducts either desk reviews and/or on-site reviews of trust operations where a Tribe has compacted a trust program. During that review, under current methodology, interviews are conducted and documents are requested. A draft report is written and provided to the Tribe for comment where applicable. Comments received back are incorporated into the report, and a final report is issued to the Tribe.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Title of Collection:</E>
                     Tribal Trust Evaluations for Public Law 93-639 Compact Tribes.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">OMB Control Number:</E>
                     1035-0005.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Form Number:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Type of Review:</E>
                     Extension of a currently approved collection.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondents/Affected Public:</E>
                     Tribes that have an annual funding agreement in place to compact Indian trust programs.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Respondents:</E>
                     64 Tribes. Federal agencies are exempt from the PRA and are not included in the total annual respondents/responses/burden hour estimates.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Responses:</E>
                     1,024.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Estimated Completion Time per Response:</E>
                     2 hours for reporting and 1 hour for recordkeeping.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Number of Annual Burden Hours:</E>
                     3,072.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Respondent's Obligation:</E>
                     Mandatory.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Frequency of Collection:</E>
                     Once per fiscal or calendar year (year the respective Tribe operates under).
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Total Estimated Annual Nonhour Burden Cost:</E>
                     None.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority</HD>
                <P>
                    An agency may not conduct or sponsor and a person is not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number. The authority for this action is the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                    <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                    ).
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Steven Mullen,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Information Collection Clearance Officer, Office of Regulatory Affairs and Collaborative Action—Indian Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00631 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4337-15-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Office of the Secretary</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[4820000549]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Call for Nominations for the Exxon Valdez Oil Spill Public Advisory Committee</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Office of the Secretary, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Call for nominations notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department of the Interior is soliciting nominations for the 
                        <E T="03">Exxon Valdez</E>
                         Oil Spill Public Advisory Committee (Committee). This Committee advises the 
                        <E T="03">Exxon Valdez</E>
                         Oil Spill Trustee Council on decisions related to the planning, evaluation, allocation of funds, and conduct of injury assessment and restoration activities related to the T/V 
                        <E T="03">Exxon Valdez</E>
                         oil spill of March 1989.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>All nominations must be received by April 14, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Send nomination packages by hard copy or via email to Shiway Wang, Executive Director, 
                        <E T="03">Exxon Valdez</E>
                         Oil Spill Trustee Council, 4230 University Drive, Suite 220, Anchorage, Alaska, 99508-4650, or at 
                        <E T="03">shiway.wang@alaska.gov.</E>
                         Also please copy Joy Maglaqui, Executive Assistant, on any email correspondence at 
                        <E T="03">joy.maglaqui@alaska.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Grace Cochon, Department of the Interior, Office of Environmental Policy and Compliance, telephone number: (907) 227-3781; email: 
                        <E T="03">grace_cochon@ios.doi.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The Committee was created pursuant to paragraph V.A.4 of the Memorandum of Agreement and Consent Decree entered into by the United States of America and the State of Alaska on August 27, 1991, and approved by the United States District Court for the District of Alaska in settlement of 
                    <E T="03">United States of America</E>
                     v. 
                    <E T="03">State of Alaska,</E>
                     Civil Action No. A91-081 CV. The Committee advises the Trustee Council on matters relating to decisions on injury assessment, restoration activities, or other use of natural resource damage recoveries obtained by the government. The Trustee Council consists of representatives of the U.S. Department of the Interior, U.S. Department of Agriculture, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, Alaska Department of Fish and Game, Alaska Department of Environmental Conservation, and Alaska Department of Law.
                </P>
                <P>The Committee consists of 10 members to reflect balanced representation from each of the following principal interests: aquaculture/mariculture, commercial fishing, commercial tourism, conservation/environmental, Native landownership, recreation, subsistence use, science/technology, sport hunting/fishing, and public-at-large.</P>
                <P>We are soliciting nominations for four positions that represent commercial fishing, subsistence use, recreation, and public-at-large interests. The Committee members will be selected and appointed by the Secretary of the Interior to serve a four-year term.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Nomination Process:</E>
                     Nominations for membership may be submitted by any source. Nominations should include a résumé providing an adequate description of the nominee's qualifications, including information that would enable the Department of the Interior to evaluate the nominee's ability to meet Committee membership requirements and to contact a potential member.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     5 U.S.C. ch. 10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Lisa M. Fox,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Regional Environmental Officer, Office of Environmental Policy and Compliance.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00557 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4334-21-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Bureau of Land Management</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[PO4820000251]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Proposed Withdrawal and Opportunity for Public Meeting; Nevada</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Land Management, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of proposed withdrawal.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Secretary of the Interior proposes to withdraw approximately 1,805 acres of public lands in the Las Vegas Valley from settlement, sale, location, or entry under the public land laws, including from location and entry under the United States mining laws, but not from disposal of mineral materials under the mineral materials disposal laws or leasing under the mineral and geothermal leasing laws, for 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3246"/>
                        a period of up to 20 years, subject to valid existing rights. The purpose of the withdrawal would be to protect the natural and cultural resources in the lands adjacent to the Las Vegas Tribe of Paiute Indians of the Las Vegas Indian Colony, Clark County, Nevada. The lands would remain under the management of the Bureau of Land Management (BLM). Publication of this notice temporarily segregates the land for up to 2 years from settlement, sale, location, or entry under the public land laws, including from location and entry under the United States mining laws, subject to valid existing rights, while the application is being processed. The notice initiates a 90-day public comment period and announces an opportunity to request a public meeting regarding the withdrawal proposal.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>All comments and requests for a public meeting must be received by April 14, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        All comments and requests for a public meeting should be sent to the Bureau of Land Management, Las Vegas Field Office, Attn: Joe Varner/Snow Mountain Withdrawal, 4701 N. Torrey Pines Dr., Las Vegas, NV, 89130, or via email at 
                        <E T="03">blm_nv_lvfo_landtenureteam@blm.gov.</E>
                         The BLM will not consider comments via telephone calls.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Joe Varner, Supervisory Realty Specialist, Las Vegas Field Office at (702) 515-5488. Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services for contacting Ms. Brown. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The public lands are located adjacent to the Las Vegas Tribe of Paiute Indians of the Las Vegas Indian Colony, Nevada, and the lands hold cultural significance for the Tribe as aboriginal inhabitants of the Las Vegas Valley and are important to economic sustainability and preservation of Tribal culture.</P>
                <P>The withdrawal application includes the following lands within Clark County, Nevada:</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Mount Diablo Meridian, Nevada</HD>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">T. 18 S., R. 59 E.,</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 8, lots 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18, 20, 22, and 25, S
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , S
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , S
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        NW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , and S
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , those portions lying northeasterly of the easterly right-of- way line of U.S. Highway No. 95;
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 9, lots 12, 14, 16, 18, 20, 22, 24, 26, and 28, lots 30 thru 33, S
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        NW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , and S
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        ;
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 14, W
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , and S
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        ;
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 15, lots 2, 4, 6, and 8, lots 11 thru 14, lots 17 and 18, SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , W
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        NW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , W
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , S
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        NW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , W
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , W
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , and SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        ;
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 16, lots 1 thru 4, NW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , and SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , those portions lying northeasterly of the easterly right-of-way line of U.S. Highway No. 95;
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 17, NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , that portion lying northeasterly of the easterly right-of-way line of U.S. Highway No. 95;
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">Sec. 21, lot 1, that portion lying northeasterly of the easterly right-of-way line of U.S. Highway No. 95;</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 23, W
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , W
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , W
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        , and SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        ;
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">
                        Sec. 24, W
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        SW1/4NW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , SE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        NW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , W
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        NE
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , NW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , N
                        <FR>1/2</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        , and SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        SW
                        <FR>1/4</FR>
                        .
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                  
                <FP>The area described contains approximately 1,805 acres, according to the official plats of the surveys of the said land, on file with the BLM, combined with areas computed against the easterly right-of-way line of U.S. Hwy. No. 95.</FP>
                <P>The BLM submitted a petition to the Secretary of the Interior to file a withdrawal application. The Secretary of the Interior approved the BLM's petition. Therefore, the petition/application constitutes a withdrawal proposal of the Secretary of the Interior (43 CFR 2310.1-3(e)).</P>
                <P>The use of a right-of-way, or interagency or cooperative agreement would not provide adequate protection of the important natural and cultural resource values of the area and ensure economic sustainability for the Tribe.</P>
                <P>No additional water rights will be needed to fulfill the purpose of this proposed withdrawal.</P>
                <P>There are no suitable alternative sites since these lands are adjacent to the Las Vegas Tribe of Paiute Indians of the Las Vegas Indian Colony, Nevada. The described lands are currently identified for disposal, pursuant to the Southern Nevada Public Land Management Act, as amended (Pub. L. 105-263), threatening protection of the important natural and cultural resource values in this area.</P>
                <P>Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment, including your personal identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>
                    Notice is hereby given that an opportunity for a public meeting is afforded in connection with a withdrawal. All interested persons who desire a public meeting for the purpose of being heard on the proposed withdrawal must submit a written request to the BLM address listed above no later than April 14, 2025. If the authorized officer determines that a public meeting will be held, a notice of the time, date and location will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     and a local newspaper at least 30 days before the scheduled date of the meeting.
                </P>
                <P>For a period until January 14, 2027 the public land described earlier will be segregated from settlement, sale, location, or entry under the public land laws, including from location and entry under the United States mining laws, subject to valid existing rights, unless the application is denied or canceled, or the withdrawal is approved prior to that date. Licenses, permits, cooperative agreements, or discretionary land use authorizations of a temporary nature may be allowed with the approval of the authorized officer of the BLM, during the temporary segregation period, if they would comply with the applicable BLM land use plans for the described public lands located within the withdrawal application boundary and the terms of any overlapping withdrawals. The lands are already withdrawn from location and entry under the mining laws and from operation of the mineral and geothermal leasing laws by the terms of an overlapping withdrawal under section 4 of the Southern Nevada Public Land Management Act, Public Law 105-263.</P>
                <P>This application will be processed in accordance with the regulations set forth in 43 CFR part 2300.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 43 U.S.C. 1714)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Jon K. Raby,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>State Director.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00606 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4331-21-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="3247"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Bureau of Land Management</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[PO#4820000251]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Public Meeting for the National Advisory Committee for Implementation of the Bureau of Land Management Public Lands Rule</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Land Management, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of public meeting.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Federal Land Policy and Management Act of 1976 and the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972, the U.S. Department of the Interior, Bureau of Land Management (BLM) National Advisory Committee for Implementation of the BLM Public Lands Rule will meet as follows.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The Committee will meet virtually on February 19, 2025, from 9 a.m. to 2:30 p.m. mountain time.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The meeting will be held virtually. The meeting will be open to the public. Attendees must register to participate with the individual listed in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section of this notice at least 3 business days prior to the meeting date.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        John Gale, Designated Federal Officer, BLM National Headquarters, 760 Horizon Drive, Suite 102, Grand Junction, CO 81506; telephone: (970) 730-7512; email: 
                        <E T="03">jgale@blm.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    The 15-member council advises the Secretary of the Interior, through the BLM, regarding implementation of the Public Lands Rule and associated outreach and engagement activities. Agenda topics will include Committee member introductions, orientation for compliance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act, an ethics briefing, and review on the purpose and function of the Committee including roles and responsibilities for members, the Designated Federal Officer, and other Federal employees. A final agenda will be posted on the Committee's web page at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.blm.gov/about/laws-and-regulations/public-lands-rule-advisory-committee</E>
                     two weeks in advance of the meeting. Written comments to the Committee can be emailed in advance to the individual listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this notice.
                </P>
                <P>Depending on the number of persons wishing to comment and time available, the time for individual oral comments may be limited. Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comments, please be aware that your entire comment, including your personally identifying information, may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personally identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <P>
                    Please make requests in advance for sign language interpreter services, assistive listening devices, language translation services, or other reasonable accommodations. We ask that you contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this notice at least 14 business days prior to the meeting to give the Department of the Interior sufficient time to process your request. All reasonable accommodation requests are managed on a case-by-case basis.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 43 CFR 1784.4-2).</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>John Gale,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Designated Federal Officer.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00600 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4331-27-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Bureau of Land Management</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[PO #4820000251]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Availability of the Draft Environmental Impact Statement for the Ranegras Plains Energy Center, La Paz County, AZ</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Bureau of Land Management, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of availability.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In compliance with the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended (NEPA), and the Federal Land Policy and Management Act of 1976, as amended (FLPMA), the Bureau of Land Management (BLM) announces the availability of the Draft Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) for the Ranegras Plains Energy Center, La Paz County, Arizona.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To afford the BLM the opportunity to consider comments in the Final EIS, please ensure that the BLM receives your comments within 45 days following the date the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published its Notice of Availability (NOA) of the Draft EIS in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . The EPA published its NOA on January 10, 2025.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Draft EIS is available for review on the BLM project website at 
                        <E T="03">https://eplanning.blm.gov/eplanning-ui/project/2020050/510.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>Written comments related to the Ranegras Plains Energy Center may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Website: https://eplanning.blm.gov/eplanning-ui/project/2020050/510</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Email: blm_az_crd_solar@blm.gov</E>
                    </FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         BLM Yuma Field Office, Attention: Ranegras Plains Energy Center, 7341 E 30th Street, Yuma, AZ 85365
                    </FP>
                    <P>
                        Documents pertinent to this proposal may be examined online at 
                        <E T="03">https://eplanning.blm.gov/eplanning-ui/project/2020050/510</E>
                         and at the Yuma Field Office.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Derek Eysenbach, Project Manager, at 
                        <E T="03">deysenbach@blm.gov,</E>
                         the mailing address above, or by phone at (602) 417-9505. Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services for contacting Mr. Eysenbach. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Ranegras Plains Energy Center, LLC (Applicant) (a wholly owned subsidiary of Savion Energy, LLC, which is a wholly owned subsidiary of Shell New Energies US, LLC) is seeking a 40-year right-of-way (ROW) to use 5,029 acres administered by the BLM to construct, operate and maintain, and decommission a utility-scale solar photovoltaic (PV) facility, called the Ranegras Plains Energy Center (the project). The project would be located in southeastern La Paz County, Arizona, south of Interstate 10 midway between Phoenix and the California border, approximately 30 miles east of the community of Quartzsite, southeast of the Interstate 10/Vicksburg Road junction. The project would consist of up to 1.3 million solar PV modules and associated infrastructure, including new and improved roads, powerlines for collection and transmission of electricity, operation and maintenance facilities, and a battery energy storage system. The project would interconnect 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3248"/>
                    at the Ten West Link Series Compensation Station via an 11-mile gen-tie line, built adjacent to the Ten West Link 500-kilovolt (kV) transmission line, and have a generation capacity of 700 megawatts or more.
                </P>
                <P>The BLM's purpose for action is to respond to the Applicant's application for a ROW grant to construct, own, operate, maintain, and decommission a utility-scale solar PV energy generating facility on public lands administered by the BLM Colorado River District, Yuma Field Office. The need for action is established by the BLM's responsibilities under FLPMA and the Energy Policy Act of 2005.</P>
                <P>The BLM has prepared a Draft EIS with input from cooperating agencies and public comments collected during scoping to address the direct, indirect, and cumulative impacts of the project. The Draft EIS analyzes four alternatives. Under the No Action Alternative, BLM would not approve the ROW and the project would not be constructed on BLM-administered lands. Under the Proposed Action, the BLM would grant a ROW for the project, which would have a net generating capacity of up to 700 megawatts alternating current and span 5,029 acres administered by the BLM. The project would include solar PV modules, DC cabling and combining switchgear, inverters, voltage collection systems, transformers, monitoring and controls systems, operations and maintenance facilities, above-ground electrical connection lines, and potentially a battery energy storage system and project substation. The project would connect into the regional transmission system via the Ten West Link 500kV Series Compensation Station. The Applicant has incorporated numerous design features into the proposed project that would be approved by the Proposed Action to avoid or minimize adverse environmental effects during construction, operation, and decommissioning, including an unfenced wildlife movement corridor to allow wildlife access to habitat in a nearby desert wash. These plans and procedures are provided as appendices to the Proposed Plan of Development and the Draft EIS.</P>
                <P>The Access-Retention Alternative would employ the same technology and design as under the Proposed Action but would also incorporate additional public access route corridors based on existing inventoried routes within the solar array area.</P>
                <P>The Soils-Focused Alternative would employ the same technology and design as under the Proposed Action but would also include special management actions to minimize impacts on established desert pavements within the project site. A Desert Pavement Management Plan would further minimize the vegetation loss and fugitive dust emissions and accelerate surface reclamation outcomes following construction and decommissioning. All design features present under the Proposed Action would apply to the Soils-Focused Alternative. The BLM has identified the Soils-Focused Alternative as the agency's preferred alternative. Information acquired during the Draft EIS public comment period will inform the BLM's ultimate decision to select any of the four alternatives.</P>
                <P>The BLM Authorized Officer will decide whether to issue a ROW grant to the Applicant for the project and, if so, the terms and conditions that would apply. The Colorado River District Manager is the Authorized Officer who will sign the Record of Decision for the project, informed by the information and analyses in the EIS.</P>
                <P>The BLM is the lead Federal agency and is responsible for compliance with NEPA (including preparation of this EIS) and consultations required by the National Historic Preservation Act and the Endangered Species Act. The following Tribal Nations and other agencies that may have jurisdiction, special expertise, or interest in the project have agreed to participate in the NEPA process as cooperating agencies: Arizona Department of Transportation, Arizona Game and Fish Department, La Paz County, Fort Yuma-Quechan Tribe, U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, U.S. Department of Defense, EPA, and U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service. The BLM has a signed memorandum of understanding with each cooperating agency to identify its roles and responsibilities and those of the BLM in the process.</P>
                <P>
                    A virtual public meeting will be held 2 to 3 weeks after publication of this notice; the meeting date will be announced on the project's ePlanning website at least 15 days prior to the meeting (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ). The public meeting will include a presentation and opportunity to speak with the project team.
                </P>
                <P>The BLM encourages the public to review the Draft EIS and provide comments on the adequacy of the alternatives, analysis of effects, and any new information that would help the BLM disclose potential impacts of the project in the Final EIS.</P>
                <P>The BLM will continue to consult with Indian Tribal Nations on a government-to-government basis in accordance with Executive Order 13175, BLM MS 1780, and other Departmental policies. Tribal concerns, including impacts on Indian trust assets and potential impacts to cultural resources, will be given due consideration.</P>
                <P>Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.</P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 40 CFR 1506.6, 40 CFR 1506.10)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Raymond Suazo,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>State Director.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00590 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4331-12-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[NPS-AKRO-ANIA-DENA-CAKR-LACL-KOVA-WRST-GAAR-39157; PPAKAKROR4; PPMPRLE1Y.LS0000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Public Meetings of the National Park Service Alaska Region Subsistence Resource Commission Program</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Meeting notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The National Park Service (NPS) is hereby giving notice that the Aniakchak National Monument Subsistence Resource Commission (SRC), the Denali National Park SRC, the Cape Krusenstern National Monument SRC, the Lake Clark National Park SRC, the Kobuk Valley National Park SRC, the Wrangell-St. Elias National Park SRC, and the Gates of the Arctic National Park SRC will meet as indicated below.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The Aniakchak National Monument SRC will meet in-person and via videoconference from 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. or until business is completed on Tuesday, February 11, 2025. The alternate meeting date is Thursday, February 13, 2025, from 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. or until business is completed at the same location and in-person and via videoconference. If an in-person meeting is not feasible or advisable, the meeting will be held solely by videoconference.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Denali National Park SRC will meet via teleconference from 10:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. or until business is completed on Wednesday, February 19, 2025. The alternate meeting date is Wednesday, February 26, 2025, from 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3249"/>
                        10:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. or until business is completed via teleconference.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Cape Krusenstern National Monument SRC will meet in-person and via teleconference from 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. on Monday, February 24, 2025, and from 9:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. on Tuesday, February 25, 2025, or until business is completed. If business is completed on February 24, 2025, the meeting will adjourn, no meeting will take place on February 25, 2025. The alternate meeting dates are Wednesday, March 12, 2025, from 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m., and Thursday, March 13, 2025, from 9:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. or until business is completed at the same location in-person and via teleconference. If an in-person meeting is not feasible or advisable, the meeting will be held solely by teleconference.</P>
                    <P>The Lake Clark National Park SRC will meet in-person and via teleconference, from 1:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m. or until business is completed on Saturday, April 12, 2025. The alternate meeting date is Saturday, April 26, 2025, from 1:00 p.m. to 4:00 p.m. or until business is completed at the same location in-person and via teleconference. If an in-person meeting is not feasible or advisable, the meeting will be held solely by teleconference.</P>
                    <P>The Kobuk Valley National Park SRC will meet in-person and via teleconference from 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. on Wednesday, February 26, 2025, and from 9:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. on Thursday, February 27, 2025, or until business is completed. If business is completed on February 26, 2025, the meeting will adjourn, and no meeting will take place on February 27, 2025. The alternate meeting dates are Thursday, March 13, 2025, from 1:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m., and Friday, March 14, 2025, from 9:00 a.m. to 12:00 p.m. or until business is completed at the same location and via in-person and teleconference. If an in-person meeting is not feasible or advisable, the meeting will be held solely by teleconference.</P>
                    <P>The Wrangell-St. Elias National Park SRC will meet in-person and via teleconference from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. or until business is completed on both Wednesday, February 12, 2025, and Thursday, February 13, 2025. If business is completed on February 12, 2025, the meeting will adjourn, and no meeting will take place on February 13, 2025. The alternate meeting dates are Tuesday, February 25, 2025, and Wednesday, February 26, 2025, from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m., or until business is completed at the same location in-person and via teleconference. If an in-person meeting is not feasible or advisable, the meeting will be held solely by teleconference.</P>
                    <P>The Gates of the Arctic National Park SRC will meet in-person and via teleconference from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. or until business is completed on both Wednesday, April 16, 2025, and Thursday, April 17, 2025. The alternate meeting dates are Wednesday, April 23, 2025, from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m., and Thursday, April 24, 2025, from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. or until business is completed at the same location in-person and via teleconference. If an in-person meeting is not feasible or advisable, the meeting will be held solely by teleconference.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Aniakchak National Monument SRC will meet in-person at the Katmai National Park Office, 1001 Silver Street, King Salmon, AK 99613 and via videoconference. Teleconference participants must call the NPS office at (907) 246-2121 prior to the meeting to receive teleconference passcode information. For more detailed information regarding these meetings, or if you are interested in applying for SRC membership, contact Designated Federal Officer Mark Sturm, Superintendent, at (907) 246-2120 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">mark_sturm@nps.gov,</E>
                         or Mallory Zharoff, Subsistence Coordinator, at (907) 246-2121 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">mallory_zharoff@nps.gov,</E>
                         or Eva Patton, Federal Advisory Committee Group Federal Officer, at (907) 644-3601 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">eva_patton@nps.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Denali National Park SRC will meet via teleconference. Teleconference participants must call the NPS office at (907) 644-3604 prior to the meeting to receive teleconference passcode information. For more detailed information regarding these meetings, or if you are interested in applying for SRC membership, contact Designated Federal Officer Brooke Merrell, Superintendent, at (907) 683-9627 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">brooke_merrell@nps.gov,</E>
                         or Amy Craver, Subsistence Coordinator, at (907) 644-3604 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">amy_craver@nps.gov,</E>
                         or Eva Patton, Federal Advisory Committee Group Federal Officer, at (907) 644-3601 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">eva_patton@nps.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Cape Krusenstern National Monument SRC will meet in-person at the Northwest Arctic Heritage Center, 171 3rd Avenue, Kotzebue, AK 99752 and via teleconference. Teleconference participants must call the NPS office at (907) 442-8342 prior to the meeting to receive teleconference passcode information. For more detailed information regarding this meeting or if you are interested in applying for SRC membership, contact Designated Federal Officer Scott Sample, Acting Superintendent, at (907) 385-7036 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">scott_sample@nps.gov,</E>
                         or Emily Creek, Subsistence Coordinator, at (907) 442-8342 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">emily_creek@nps.gov,</E>
                         or Eva Patton, Federal Advisory Committee Group Federal Officer, at (907) 644-3601 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">eva_patton@nps.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Lake Clark National Park SRC will meet in-person at the Pedro Bay Community Center, 2516 Mountain Circle, Pedro Bay, AK 99647 and via teleconference. Teleconference participants must call the NPS office at (907) 644-3648 prior to the meeting to receive teleconference passcode information. For more detailed information regarding this meeting or if you are interested in applying for SRC membership, contact Designated Federal Officer Susanne Green, Superintendent, at (907) 644-3627 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">susanne_green@nps.gov,</E>
                         or Liza Rupp, Subsistence Manager, at (907) 644-3648 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">elizabeth_rupp@nps.gov,</E>
                         or Eva Patton, Federal Advisory Committee Group Federal Officer, at (907) 644-3601 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">eva_patton@nps.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Kobuk Valley National Park SRC will meet in-person at the Northwest Arctic Heritage Center, 171 3rd Avenue, Kotzebue, AK 99752 and via teleconference. Teleconference participants must call the NPS office at (907) 442-8342 prior to the meeting to receive teleconference passcode information. For more detailed information regarding this meeting or if you are interested in applying for SRC membership, contact Designated Federal Officer Scott Sample, Acting Superintendent, at (907)-385-7036 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">scott_sample@nps.gov,</E>
                         or Emily Creek, Subsistence Coordinator, at (907) 442-8342 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">emily_creek@nps.gov,</E>
                         or Eva Patton, Federal Advisory Committee Group Federal Officer, at (907) 644-3601 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">eva_patton@nps.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Wrangell-St. Elias National Park SRC will meet in-person at the Fast Eddy's Restaurant, Mile 1313 Alaska Highway, Tok, AK 99780 and via teleconference. Teleconference participants must contact Subsistence Coordinator, Barbara Cellarius, at (907) 822-7236 or 
                        <E T="03">wrst_subsistence@nps.gov</E>
                         prior to the meeting to receive teleconference passcode information. For more detailed information regarding this meeting, or if you are interested in applying for SRC membership, contact Designated Federal Officer Ben Bobowski, Superintendent, at (907) 822-5234 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">ben_bobowski@nps.gov,</E>
                         or Barbara Cellarius, Subsistence Coordinator, at (907) 822-
                        <PRTPAGE P="3250"/>
                        7236 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">barbara_cellarius@nps.gov,</E>
                         or Eva Patton, Federal Advisory Committee Group Federal Officer, at (907) 644-3601 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">eva_patton@nps.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Gates of the Arctic National Park SRC will meet in-person at the Ambler School, 109 Ambler Drive, Ambler, AK 99786, and via teleconference. Teleconference participants must call the NPS office at (907) 455-0639 prior to the meeting to receive teleconference passcode information. For more detailed information regarding this meeting or if you are interested in applying for SRC membership, contact Designated Federal Officer Mark Dowdle, Superintendent, at (907) 455-0614 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">mark_dowdle@nps.gov,</E>
                         or Marcy Okada, Subsistence Coordinator, at (907) 455-0639 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">marcy_okada@nps.gov,</E>
                         or Eva Patton, Federal Advisory Committee Group Federal Officer, at (907) 644-3601 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">eva_patton@nps.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </ADD>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The NPS is holding meetings pursuant to the Federal Advisory Committee Act (5 U.S.C. Ch. 10). The NPS SRC program is authorized under title VIII, section 808 of the Alaska National Interest Lands Conservation Act (16 U.S.C. 3118).</P>
                <P>SRC meetings are open to the public and will have time allocated for public testimony. The public is welcome to present written or oral comments to the SRC. SRC meetings will be recorded, and meeting minutes will be available upon request from the Superintendent for public inspection within 90 days after the meeting.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Request for Accommodations:</E>
                     The meetings are open to the public. Please make requests in advance for sign language interpreter services, assistive listening devices, language translation services, or other reasonable accommodations. We ask that you contact the person listed in the (see 
                    <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                    ) section of this notice at least seven (7) business days prior to the meeting to give the Department of the Interior sufficient time to process your request. All reasonable accommodation requests are managed on a case-by-case basis.
                </P>
                <P>Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Purpose of the Meeting:</E>
                     The agenda may change to accommodate SRC business. The proposed meeting agenda for each meeting includes the following:
                </P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">1. Call to Order—Confirm Quorum</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">2. Welcome and Introduction</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">3. Review and Adoption of Agenda</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">4. Approval of Minutes</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">5. Superintendent's Welcome and Review of the SRC Purpose</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">6. SRC Membership Status</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">7. SRC Chair and Members' Reports</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">8. Superintendent's Report</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">9. Old Business</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">10. New Business</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">11. Federal Subsistence Board Update</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">12. Alaska Boards of Fish and Game Update</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">13. National Park Service Staff Reports</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">a. Ranger Reports</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">b. Resource Manager's Report</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">c. Subsistence Manager's Report</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">14. Public and Other Agency Comments</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">15. Work Session</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">16. Set Tentative Date and Location for Next SRC Meeting</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-2">17. Adjourn Meeting</FP>
                <P>SRC meeting location and date may change based on inclement weather or exceptional circumstances, including public health advisories or mandates. If the meeting date and location are changed, the Superintendent will issue a press release and use local newspapers and/or radio stations to announce the rescheduled meeting.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Public Disclosure of Comments:</E>
                     Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your comment, you should be aware that your entire comment—including your personal identifying information—may be made publicly available at any time. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     5 U.S.C. Ch. 10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Alma Ripps,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief, Office of Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00613 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>National Park Service</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[NPS-NERO-GATE-39271; PPNEGATEB0, PPMVSCS1Z.Y00000]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Cancellation and Rescheduling of the Public Meeting of the Gateway National Recreation Area Fort Hancock 21st Century Advisory Committee</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Park Service, Interior.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Meeting notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with the Federal Advisory Committee Act of 1972, as amended, the National Park Service (NPS) is hereby giving notice that the Gateway National Recreation Area Fort Hancock 21st Century Advisory Committee (Committee) has rescheduled a public meeting originally scheduled for Wednesday, January 15, 2025.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The virtual meeting will take place on Thursday, February 6, 2025. The meeting will begin at 9 a.m. until 12 p.m., with a public comment period at 11 a.m. to 11:30 a.m. (eastern), with advance registration required. The alternate virtual meeting date is Friday, February 14, 2025, from 9 a.m. until 12 p.m. Individuals that wish to participate must contact the person listed in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section no later than Thursday, January 30, 2025, to receive instructions for accessing the meeting.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        This will be a virtual meeting. Anyone interested in attending should contact Daphne Yun, Public Affairs Officer, Gateway National Recreation Area, 210 New York Avenue, Staten Island, New York 10305, by telephone (718) 815-3651, or by email 
                        <E T="03">daphne_yun@nps.gov.</E>
                         Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Committee was established on April 18, 2012, by authority of the Secretary of the Interior (Secretary) under 54 U.S.C. 100906(a) and is regulated by the Federal Advisory Committee Act. The Committee provides advice to the Secretary, through the Director of the NPS, on matters relating to the Fort Hancock Historic District of Gateway National Recreation Area. All meetings are open to the public.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Purpose of the Meeting:</E>
                     The Gateway National Recreation Area will continue the discussion about leasing next steps as well as an update on the park. The final agenda will be posted on the Committee's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nps.gov/gate/learn/management/forthancock21.htm.</E>
                     The website includes meeting minutes from all prior meetings.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Interested persons may present, either orally or through written comments, information for the Committee to consider during the public meeting. 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3251"/>
                    Written comments will be accepted prior to, during, or after the meeting. Members of the public may submit written comments by mailing them to the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section.
                </P>
                <P>Due to time constraints during the meeting, the Committee is not able to read written public comments submitted into the record. Individuals or groups requesting to make oral comments at the public Committee meeting will be limited to no more than three minutes per speaker. All comments will be made part of the public record and will be electronically distributed to all Committee members. Detailed minutes of the meeting will be available for public inspection within 90 days of the meeting.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Meeting Accessibility/Special Accommodations:</E>
                     The meeting is open to the public. Please make requests in advance for sign language interpreter services, assistive listening devices, language translation services, or other reasonable accommodations. We ask that you contact the person listed in the 
                    <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                     section of this notice at least seven (7) business days prior to the meeting to give the Department of the Interior sufficient time to process your request. All reasonable accommodation requests are managed on a case-by-case basis.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Public Disclosure of Comments:</E>
                     Before including your address, phone number, email address, or other personal identifying information in your written comments, you should be aware that your entire comment including your personal identifying information will be publicly available. While you can ask us in your comment to withhold your personal identifying information from public review, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     5 U.S.C. ch. 10.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Alma Ripps,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief, Office of Policy.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00614 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4312-52-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">INTERNATIONAL TRADE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Investigation Nos. 731-TA-1662-1663 (Final)]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Glass Wine Bottles From China and Mexico; Supplemental Schedule for the Final Phase of Antidumping Duty Investigations</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>United States International Trade Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>January 2, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Charles Cummings ((202) 708-1666), Office of Investigations, U.S. International Trade Commission, 500 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20436. Hearing-impaired persons can obtain information on this matter by contacting the Commission's TDD terminal on 202-205-1810. Persons with mobility impairments who will need special assistance in gaining access to the Commission should contact the Office of the Secretary at 202-205-2000. General information concerning the Commission may also be obtained by accessing its internet server (
                        <E T="03">https://www.usitc.gov</E>
                        ). The public record for these investigations may be viewed on the Commission's electronic docket (EDIS) at 
                        <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>
                    Effective June 3, 2024, the Commission established a general schedule for the conduct of the final phase of its countervailing duty investigation on glass wine bottles from China (89 FR 49901, June 12, 2024), following a preliminary determination by the U.S. Department of Commerce (“Commerce”) that imports of glass wine bottles from China were being subsidized by the government of China (89 FR 47533, June 3, 2024). Notice of the scheduling of the final phase of the Commission's investigations and of a public hearing held in connection therewith was given by posting copies of the notice in the Office of the Secretary, U.S. International Trade Commission, Washington, DC, and by publishing the notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     on June 12, 2024 (89 FR 49901). The Commission conducted its hearing on August 14, 2024. All persons who requested the opportunity were permitted to participate.
                </P>
                <P>Commerce has issued a final affirmative countervailing duty determination with respect to glass wine bottles from China (89 FR 68395, August 26, 2024). The Commission subsequently issued its final determination that an industry in the United States is not materially injured or threatened with material injury by reason of imports of glass wine bottles from China provided for in subheading 7010.90.50 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (“HTSUS”) that have been found by Commerce to be subsidized by the government of China (89 FR 83515, October 16, 2024).</P>
                <P>
                    On December 10, 2024, counsel for the petitioner filed with Commerce a request to withdraw its petition regarding imports of glass wine bottles from Chile. On December 30, 2024, Commerce published notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     of the termination of its subject investigation concerning glass wine bottles from Chile (89 FR 106425) and the Commission subsequently terminated its antidumping duty investigation concerning glass wine bottles from Chile (90 FR 1543, January 8, 2025).
                </P>
                <P>On January 2, 2025, Commerce issued final affirmative antidumping duty determinations with respect to imports of glass wine bottles from China (90 FR 76) and Mexico (90 FR 79). Accordingly, the Commission currently is issuing a supplemental schedule for its antidumping duty investigations on imports of glass wine bottles from China and Mexico.</P>
                <P>On January 6, 2025, counsel for the petitioner filed with the Commission a request pursuant to section 201.12 of the Commission's rules that the Commission permit all interested parties to provide full, 15-page final comments in the remaining proceedings involving China and Mexico. On January 7, 2025, the Commission determined to grant this request and also to alter the schedule for filing comments, given the posture of these investigations. Accordingly, the supplemental schedule is as follows: all parties shall file their 15-page affirmative final comments by close of business on January 13, 2025. Reply comments, not to exceed 10 pages, are to be filed by close of business on January 17, 2025. Affirmative final comments may address only Commerce's final antidumping determinations regarding imports of glass wine bottles from China and Mexico and the significance of Commerce's termination of the antidumping duty investigation of glass wine bottles from Chile. Reply comments should be limited to addressing only those arguments raised in other parties' affirmative final comments. All comments should be in accordance with 19 U.S.C. 1677(7)(G)(iii) and no new factual information may be included. The supplemental staff report in the final phase of the current investigations will be placed in the nonpublic record on January 28, 2025, and a public version will be issued thereafter.</P>
                <P>For further information concerning this proceeding see the Commission's notice cited above and the Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure, part 201, subparts A and B (19 CFR part 201), and part 207, subparts A and C (19 CFR part 207).</P>
                <P>
                    Additional written submissions to the Commission, including requests 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3252"/>
                    pursuant to section 201.12 of the Commission's rules, shall not be accepted unless good cause is shown for accepting such submissions, or unless the submission is pursuant to a specific request by a Commissioner or Commission staff.
                </P>
                <P>In accordance with sections 201.16(c) and 207.3 of the Commission's rules, each document filed by a party to the investigations must be served on all other parties to the investigations (as identified by either the public or BPI service list), and a certificate of service must be timely filed. The Secretary will not accept a document for filing without a certificate of service.</P>
                <P>
                    Please note the Secretary's Office will accept only electronic filings during this time. Filings must be made through the Commission's Electronic Document Information System (EDIS, 
                    <E T="03">https://edis.usitc.gov.</E>
                    ) No in-person paper-based filings or paper copies of any electronic filings will be accepted until further notice.
                </P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Authority:</E>
                     This proceeding is being conducted under authority of title VII of the Tariff Act of 1930; this notice is published pursuant to section 207.21 of the Commission's rules.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By order of the Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Issued: January 8, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>Lisa Barton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary to the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00586 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7020-02-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">LIBRARY OF CONGRESS</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Copyright Royalty Board</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Nos. 24-CRB-0012-AU (Beasley Mezzanine Holdings LLC), 24-CRB-0013-AU (Family Stations, Inc.), 24-CRB-0014-AU (Hubbard Broadcasting, Inc.), 24-CRB-0015-AU (iHeartMedia), 24-CRB-0016-AU (Midwest Communications)]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Intent To Audit</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Copyright Royalty Board, Library of Congress.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Public notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Copyright Royalty Judges announce receipt from SoundExchange, Inc., of notices of intent to audit the 2021, 2022, and 2023 statements of account submitted by commercial webcasters Beasley Mezzanine Holdings, LLC, Hubbard Broadcasting Inc., iHeartMedia, and Midwest Communications, Inc. and non-commercial webcaster Family Stations, Inc. concerning royalty payments they made pursuant to two statutory licenses.</P>
                </SUM>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Dockets:</E>
                         For access to the dockets to read background documents, go to eCRB at 
                        <E T="03">https://app.crb.gov</E>
                         and perform a case search for docket 24-CRB-0012-AU (Beasley Mezzanine Holdings LLC), 24-CRB-0013-AU (Family Stations, Inc.), 24-CRB-0014-AU (Hubbard Broadcasting, Inc.), 24-CRB-0015-AU (iHeartMedia), or 24-CRB-0016-AU (Midwest Communications).
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Anita Brown, (202) 707-7658, 
                        <E T="03">crb@loc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The Copyright Act grants to sound recordings copyright owners the exclusive right to publicly perform sound recordings by means of certain digital audio transmissions, subject to limitations. Specifically, the right is limited by the statutory license in section 114, which allows nonexempt noninteractive digital subscription services, eligible nonsubscription services, and preexisting satellite digital audio radio services to perform publicly sound recordings by means of digital audio transmissions. 17 U.S.C. 114(f). In addition, a statutory license in section 112 allows a service to make necessary ephemeral reproductions to facilitate digital transmission of the sound recording. 17 U.S.C. 112(e).</P>
                <P>Licensees may operate under these licenses provided they pay the royalty fees and comply with the terms set by the Copyright Royalty Judges. The rates and terms for the section 112 and 114 licenses are codified in 37 CFR parts 380 and 382-84.</P>
                <P>
                    As one of the terms for these licenses, the Judges designated SoundExchange, Inc., (SoundExchange) as the Collective, 
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     the organization charged with collecting the royalty payments and statements of account submitted by licensees, including those that operate commercial and noncommercial webcaster services, preexisting satellite digital audio radio services, new subscription services, and those that make ephemeral copies for transmission to business establishments. The Collective is also charged with distributing the royalties to the copyright owners and performers entitled to receive them under the section 112 and 114 licenses. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     37 CFR 380.4(d)(1), 382.5(d)(1), 383.4(a), 384.4(b)(1).
                </P>
                <P>
                    As the Collective, SoundExchange may, only once a year, conduct an audit of a licensee for any or all of the prior three calendar years to verify royalty payments. SoundExchange must first file with the Judges a notice of intent to audit a licensee and deliver the notice to the licensee. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     37 CFR 380.6(b), 382.7(b), 383.4(a) and 384.6(b).
                </P>
                <P>
                    On December 20, 2024, SoundExchange filed with the Judges notices of intent to audit the statements of account submitted by commercial webcasters Beasley Mezzanine Holdings, Hubbard Broadcasting, iHeartMedia, and Midwest Communications and non-commercial webcaster Family Stations for the years 2021, 2022, and 2023. The Judges must publish notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     within 30 days of receipt of a notice announcing the Collective's intent to conduct an audit. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     37 CFR 380.6(c) 382.7(c), 383.4(a) and 384.6(c). This notice fulfills the Judges' publication obligation with respect to SoundExchange's December 22, 2023 notices of intent to audit commercial webcasters Beasley Mezzanine Holdings, Hubbard Broadcasting, iHeartMedia, and Midwest Communications and non-commercial webcaster Family Stations for the years 2021, 2022, and 2023.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 8, 2025.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David P. Shaw,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Chief Copyright Royalty Judge.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00623 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 1410-72-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">NATIONAL ARCHIVES AND RECORDS ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[NARA-25-0001; NARA-2025-012]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Records Schedules; Availability and Request for Comments</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>National Archives and Records Administration (NARA).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice of availability of proposed records schedules; request for comments.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) publishes notice of certain Federal agency requests for records disposition authority (records schedules). We publish notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         and on regulations.gov for records schedules in which agencies propose to dispose of records they no longer need to conduct agency business. We invite public comments on such records schedules.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>We must receive responses on the schedules listed in this notice by March 3, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        To view a records schedule in this notice, or submit a comment on one, use the following address: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/NARA-25-0001/document.</E>
                         This is a direct link to the schedules posted in the docket for this notice on regulations.gov. You may 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3253"/>
                        submit comments by the following method:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         On the website, enter either of the numbers cited at the top of this notice into the search field. This will bring you to the docket for this notice, in which we have posted the records schedules open for comment. Each schedule has a `comment' button so you can comment on that specific schedule. For more information on regulations.gov and on submitting comments, see their FAQs at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/faq.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        If you are unable to comment via 
                        <E T="03">regulations.gov</E>
                        , you may email us at 
                        <E T="03">request.schedule@nara.gov</E>
                         for instructions on submitting your comment. You must cite the control number of the schedule you wish to comment on. You can find the control number for each schedule in parentheses at the end of each schedule's entry in the list at the end of this notice.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Kimberly Richardson, Strategy and Performance Division, by email at 
                        <E T="03">regulation_comments@nara.gov</E>
                         or at 301-837-2902. For information about records schedules, contact Records Management Operations by email at 
                        <E T="03">request.schedule@nara.gov</E>
                         or by phone at 301-837-1799.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Public Comment Procedures</HD>
                <P>We are publishing notice of records schedules in which agencies propose to dispose of records they no longer need to conduct agency business. We invite public comments on these records schedules, as required by 44 U.S.C. 3303a(a), and list the schedules at the end of this notice by agency and subdivision requesting disposition authority.</P>
                <P>In addition, this notice lists the organizational unit(s) accumulating the records or states that the schedule has agency-wide applicability. It also provides the control number assigned to each schedule, which you will need if you submit comments on that schedule. We have uploaded the records schedules and accompanying appraisal memoranda to the regulations.gov docket for this notice as “other” documents. Each records schedule contains a full description of the records at the file unit level as well as their proposed disposition. The appraisal memorandum for the schedule includes information about the records.</P>
                <P>
                    We will post comments, including any personal information and attachments, to the public docket unchanged. Because comments are public, you are responsible for ensuring that you do not include any confidential or other information that you or a third party may not wish to be publicly posted. If you want to submit a comment with confidential information or cannot otherwise use the regulations.gov portal, you may contact 
                    <E T="03">request.schedule@nara.gov</E>
                     for instructions on submitting your comment.
                </P>
                <P>We will consider all comments submitted by the posted deadline and consult as needed with the Federal agency seeking the disposition authority. After considering comments, we may or may not make changes to the proposed records schedule. The schedule is then sent for final approval by the Archivist of the United States. After the schedule is approved, we will post on regulations.gov a “Consolidated Reply” summarizing the comments, responding to them, and noting any changes we made to the proposed schedule. You may elect at regulations.gov to receive updates on the docket, including an alert when we post the Consolidated Reply, whether or not you submit a comment. If you have a question, you can submit it as a comment, and can also submit any concerns or comments you would have to a possible response to the question. We will address these items in consolidated replies along with any other comments submitted on that schedule.</P>
                <P>
                    We will post schedules on our website in the Records Control Schedule (RCS) Repository, at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.archives.gov/records-mgmt/rcs,</E>
                     after the Archivist approves them. The RCS contains all schedules approved since 1973.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                <P>Each year, Federal agencies create billions of records. To control this accumulation, agency records managers prepare schedules proposing retention periods for records and submit these schedules for NARA's approval. Once approved by NARA, records schedules provide mandatory instructions on what happens to records when no longer needed for current Government business. The records schedules authorize agencies to preserve records of continuing value in the National Archives or to destroy, after a specified period, records lacking continuing administrative, legal, research, or other value. Some schedules are comprehensive and cover all the records of an agency or one of its major subdivisions. Most schedules, however, cover records of only one office or program or a few series of records. Many of these update previously approved schedules, and some include records proposed as permanent.</P>
                <P>Agencies may not destroy Federal records without the approval of the Archivist of the United States. The Archivist grants this approval only after thorough consideration of the records' administrative use by the agency of origin, the rights of the Government and of private people directly affected by the Government's activities, and whether or not the records have historical or other value. Public review and comment on these records schedules is part of the Archivist's consideration process.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Schedules Pending</HD>
                <P>1. Department of Energy, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Applications and Related Materials for Permits To Site Interstate Electric Transmission Facilities (DAA-0138-2024-0014).</P>
                <P>2. Department of Energy, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Compliance and Enforcement of Reliability Standards (DAA-0138-2025-0002).</P>
                <P>3. Department of Energy, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Electric Reliability Organization Rules and Organizational Filings (DAA-0138-2025-0001).</P>
                <P>4. Department of Energy, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, FERC Form 556 QM Dockets (DAA-0138-2025-0005).</P>
                <P>5. Department of Energy, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Form 549E Price Index Developers Identify Assessed Index Price vs Calculated (DAA-0138-2024-0008).</P>
                <P>6. Department of Energy, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Gas Pipeline Rates Rates Tracking (DAA-0138-2025-0004).</P>
                <P>7. Department of Energy, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Mediation and Arbitration Dockets (DAA-0138-2024-0017).</P>
                <P>8. Department of Health and Human Services, Administration for Strategic Preparedness and Response, Medical Reserve Corps Unit Information System Records (DAA-0611-2023-0011).</P>
                <P>9. Department of Labor, Agency-wide, Executive Secretariat Correspondence Records (DAA-0174-2022-0003).</P>
                <P>10. Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Non-federal Systems Services Maintenance Sponsor and Technician Records (DAA-0237-2023-0012).</P>
                <P>
                    11. Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Non-Required Safety Enhancing Equipment (DAA-0237-2024-0014).
                    <PRTPAGE P="3254"/>
                </P>
                <P>12. Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Operation Safety System (DAA-0237-2023-0005).</P>
                <P>13. Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Tower Simulation System (DAA-0237-2025-0001).</P>
                <P>14. United States Capitol Police, Agency-wide, United States Capitol Police Internal and External websites (DAA-0603-2024-0009).</P>
                <P>15. United States International Development Finance Corporation, Agency-wide, Comprehensive Schedule of Records of the Overseas Private Investment Corporation Records (DAA-0420-2022-0005).</P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>William P. Fischer,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Chief Records Officer for the U.S. Government.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00567 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7515-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">NATIONAL CREDIT UNION ADMINISTRATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">TIME AND DATE: </HD>
                    <P>10:00 a.m., Thursday, January 16, 2025.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PLACE: </HD>
                    <P>Board Room, 7th Floor, Room 7B, 1775 Duke Street (All visitors must use Diagonal Road Entrance), Alexandria, VA 22314-3428.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">STATUS: </HD>
                    <P>Open.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">MATTERS TO BE CONSIDERED:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <P>1. NCUA's 2025 Annual Performance Plan.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">CONTACT PERSON FOR MORE INFORMATION: </HD>
                    <P>Melane Conyers-Ausbrooks, Secretary of the Board, Telephone: 703-518-6304.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Melane Conyers-Ausbrooks,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary of the Board.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00706 Filed 1-10-25; 11:15 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7535-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[NRC-2024-0221]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Application for Amendments to Renewed Facility Operating Licenses Involving Proposed No Significant Hazards Consideration Determination and Containing Sensitive Unclassified Non-Safeguards Information and Order Imposing Procedures for Access to Sensitive Unclassified Non-Safeguards Information</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>License amendment request; notice of opportunity to comment, request a hearing, and petition for leave to intervene; order imposing procedures.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC or the Commission) received and is considering approval of a request to amend three licenses. The request is for Palo Verde Nuclear Generating Station, Units 1, 2, and 3. For each license amendment, the NRC proposes to determine that it involves no significant hazards consideration (NSHC). Because the amendment request contains sensitive unclassified non-safeguards information (SUNSI), the NRC is issuing an order imposing procedures to obtain access to SUNSI for contention preparation by persons who file a hearing request or petition for leave to intervene.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Comments must be received by February 13, 2025. A request for a hearing or petition for leave to intervene must be filed by March 17, 2025. Any potential party as defined in section 2.4 of title 10 of the 
                        <E T="03">Code of Federal Regulations</E>
                         (10 CFR) who believes access to SUNSI is necessary to respond to this notice must request document access by January 24, 2025.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        You may submit comments by any of the following methods; however, the NRC encourages electronic comment submission through the 
                        <E T="03">Federal rulemaking website</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal rulemaking website:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for Docket ID NRC-2024-0221. Address questions about Docket IDs in 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                         to Stacy Schumann; telephone: 301-415-0624; email: 
                        <E T="03">Stacy.Schumann@nrc.gov.</E>
                         For technical questions, contact the individual listed in the 
                        <E T="02">For Further Information Contact</E>
                         section of this document.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail comments to:</E>
                         Office of Administration, Mail Stop: TWFN-7-A60M, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, ATTN: Program Management, Announcements and Editing Staff.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For additional direction on obtaining information and submitting comments, see “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” in the 
                        <E T="02">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION</E>
                         section of this document.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Paula Blechman, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-2242; email: 
                        <E T="03">Paula.Blechman@nrc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Obtaining Information</HD>
                <P>Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2024-0221, facility name, unit number(s), docket number(s), application date, and subject when contacting the NRC about the availability of information for this action. You may obtain publicly available information related to this action by any of the following methods:</P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">Federal Rulemaking website:</E>
                     Go to 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     and search for Docket ID NRC-2024-0221.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS):</E>
                     You may obtain publicly available documents online in the ADAMS Public Documents collection at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html.</E>
                     To begin the search, select “Begin Web-based ADAMS Search.” For problems with ADAMS, please contact the NRC's Public Document Room (PDR) reference staff at 1-800-397-4209, at 301-415-4737, or by email to 
                    <E T="03">PDR.Resource@nrc.gov.</E>
                     The ADAMS accession number for each document referenced (if it is available in ADAMS) is provided the first time that it is mentioned in this document.
                </P>
                <P>
                    • 
                    <E T="03">NRC's PDR:</E>
                     The PDR, where you may examine and order copies of publicly available documents, is open by appointment. To make an appointment to visit the PDR, please send an email to 
                    <E T="03">PDR.Resource@nrc.gov</E>
                     or call 1-800-397-4209 or 301-415-4737, between 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. eastern time (ET), Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Submitting Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    The NRC encourages electronic comment submission through the Federal rulemaking website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                    ). Please include Docket ID NRC-2024-0221, facility name, unit number(s), docket number(s), application date, and subject, in your comment submission.
                </P>
                <P>
                    The NRC cautions you not to include identifying or contact information that you do not want to be publicly disclosed in your comment submission. The NRC will post all comment submissions at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                     as well as enter the comment submissions into ADAMS. The NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove identifying or contact information.
                </P>
                <P>
                    If you are requesting or aggregating comments from other persons for submission to the NRC, then you should inform those persons not to include identifying or contact information that they do not want to be publicly 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3255"/>
                    disclosed in their comment submission. Your request should state that the NRC does not routinely edit comment submissions to remove such information before making the comment submissions available to the public or entering the comment into ADAMS.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to section 189a.(1)-(2) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended (the Act), the NRC is publishing this notice. The Act requires the Commission to publish notice of any amendments issued or proposed to be issued and grants the Commission the authority to issue and make immediately effective any amendment to an operating license or combined license, as applicable, upon a determination by the Commission that such amendment involves NSHC, notwithstanding the pendency before the Commission of a request for a hearing from any person.</P>
                <P>This notice includes a notice of amendments containing SUNSI.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Notice of Consideration of Issuance of Amendments to Renewed Facility Operating Licenses, Proposed No Significant Hazards Consideration Determination, and Opportunity for a Hearing</HD>
                <P>The Commission has made a proposed determination that the following amendment request involves NSHC. Under the Commission's regulations in 10 CFR 50.92, this means that operation of the facility in accordance with the proposed amendments would not (1) involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated, or (2) create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated, or (3) involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety. The basis for this proposed determination for the amendment request is shown as follows.</P>
                <P>The Commission is seeking public comments on this proposed determination. Any comments received within 30 days after the date of publication of this notice will be considered in making any final determination.</P>
                <P>
                    Normally, the Commission will not issue the amendments until the expiration of 60 days after the date of publication of this notice. The Commission may issue any of these license amendments before expiration of the 60-day period provided that its final determination is that the amendments involve NSHC. In addition, the Commission may issue any of these amendments prior to the expiration of the 30-day comment period if circumstances change during the 30-day comment period such that failure to act in a timely way would result, for example, in derating or shutdown of the facility. If the Commission takes action on any of these amendments prior to the expiration of either the comment period or the notice period, it will publish a notice of issuance in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . If the Commission makes a final NSHC determination for any of these amendments, any hearing on those amendments will take place after issuance. The Commission expects that the need to take this action will occur very infrequently.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Opportunity To Request a Hearing and Petition for Leave To Intervene</HD>
                <P>Within 60 days after the date of publication of this notice, any person (petitioner) whose interest may be affected by any of these actions may file a request for a hearing and petition for leave to intervene (petition) with respect to that action. Petitions shall be filed in accordance with the Commission's “Agency Rules of Practice and Procedure” in 10 CFR part 2. Interested persons should consult a current copy of 10 CFR 2.309. If a petition is filed, the Commission or a presiding officer will rule on the petition and, if appropriate, a notice of a hearing will be issued.</P>
                <P>Petitions must be filed no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice in accordance with the filing instructions in the “Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)” section of this document. Petitions and motions for leave to file new or amended contentions that are filed after the deadline will not be entertained absent a determination by the presiding officer that the filing demonstrates good cause by satisfying the three factors in 10 CFR 2.309(c)(1)(i) through (iii).</P>
                <P>If a hearing is requested, and the Commission has not made a final determination on the issue of NSHC, the Commission will make a final determination on the issue of no significant hazards consideration, which will serve to establish when the hearing is held. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves NSHC, the Commission may issue the amendments and make them immediately effective, notwithstanding the request for a hearing. Any hearing would take place after issuance of the amendments. If the final determination is that the amendment request involves a significant hazards consideration, then any hearing held would take place before the issuance of the amendments unless the Commission finds an imminent danger to the health or safety of the public, in which case it will issue an appropriate order or rule under 10 CFR part 2.</P>
                <P>A State, local governmental body, federally recognized Indian Tribe, or designated agency thereof, may submit a petition to the Commission to participate as a party under 10 CFR 2.309(h) no later than 60 days from the date of publication of this notice. Alternatively, a State, local governmental body, Federally recognized Indian Tribe, or agency thereof may participate as a non-party under 10 CFR 2.315(c).</P>
                <P>
                    For information about filing a petition and about participation by a person not a party under 10 CFR 2.315, see ADAMS Accession No. ML20340A053 (
                    <E T="03">https://adamswebsearch2.nrc.gov/webSearch2/main.jsp?AccessionNumber=ML20340A053</E>
                    ) and on the NRC's public website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/about-nrc/regulatory/adjudicatory/hearing.html#participate</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Electronic Submissions (E-Filing)</HD>
                <P>
                    All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings, including documents filed by an interested State, local governmental body, federally recognized Indian Tribe, or designated agency thereof that requests to participate under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302. The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases, to mail copies on electronic storage media, unless an exemption permitting an alternative filing method, as further discussed, is granted. Detailed guidance on electronic submissions is located in the “Guidance for Electronic Submissions to the NRC” (ADAMS Accession No. ML13031A056) and on the NRC's public website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <P>
                    To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least 10 days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at 
                    <E T="03">Hearing.Docket@nrc.gov,</E>
                     or by telephone at 301-415-1677, to (1) request a digital identification (ID) certificate, which allows the participant (or its counsel or representative) to digitally sign submissions and access the E-Filing system for any proceeding in which it is participating; and (2) advise the Secretary that the participant will be submitting a petition or other adjudicatory document (even in instances in which the participant, or its counsel or representative, already holds an NRC-issued digital ID certificate). Based upon this information, the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3256"/>
                    Secretary will establish an electronic docket for the proceeding if the Secretary has not already established an electronic docket.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals/getting-started.html</E>
                    . After a digital ID certificate is obtained and a docket created, the participant must submit adjudicatory documents in Portable Document Format. Guidance on submissions is available on the NRC's public website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/site-help/electronic-sub-ref-mat.html</E>
                    . A filing is considered complete at the time the document is submitted through the NRC's E-Filing system. To be timely, an electronic filing must be submitted to the E-Filing system no later than 11:59 p.m. ET on the due date. Upon receipt of a transmission, the E-Filing system time-stamps the document and sends the submitter an email confirming receipt of the document. The E-Filing system also distributes an email that provides access to the document to the NRC's Office of the General Counsel and any others who have advised the Office of the Secretary that they wish to participate in the proceeding, so that the filer need not serve the document on those participants separately. Therefore, applicants and other participants (or their counsel or representative) must apply for and receive a digital ID certificate before adjudicatory documents are filed to obtain access to the documents via the E-Filing system.
                </P>
                <P>
                    A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC's Electronic Filing Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html,</E>
                     by email to 
                    <E T="03">MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov,</E>
                     or by a toll-free call at 1-866-672-7640. The NRC Electronic Filing Help Desk is available between 9 a.m. and 6 p.m., ET, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                </P>
                <P>Participants who believe that they have good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing stating why there is good cause for not filing electronically and requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(b)-(d). Participants filing adjudicatory documents in this manner are responsible for serving their documents on all other participants. Participants granted an exemption under 10 CFR 2.302(g)(2) must still meet the electronic formatting requirement in 10 CFR 2.302(g)(1), unless the participant also seeks and is granted an exemption from 10 CFR 2.302(g)(1).</P>
                <P>
                    Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket, which is publicly available at 
                    <E T="03">https://adams.nrc.gov/ehd,</E>
                     unless excluded pursuant to an order of the presiding officer. If you do not have an NRC-issued digital ID certificate as previously described, click “cancel” when the link requests certificates and you will be automatically directed to the NRC's electronic hearing docket where you will be able to access any publicly available documents in a particular hearing docket. Participants are requested not to include personal privacy information such as social security numbers, home addresses, or personal phone numbers in their filings unless an NRC regulation or other law requires submission of such information. With respect to copyrighted works, except for limited excerpts that serve the purpose of the adjudicatory filings and would constitute a Fair Use application, participants should not include copyrighted materials in their submission.
                </P>
                <P>The following table provides the plant name, docket numbers, date of application, ADAMS accession number, and location in the application of the licensee's proposed NSHC determination. For further details with respect to this license amendment application, see the application for amendment, publicly available portions of which are available for public inspection in ADAMS. For additional direction on accessing information related to this document, see the “Obtaining Information and Submitting Comments” section of this document.</P>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,tp0,p1,7/8,i1" CDEF="s100,r100">
                    <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Docket No(s).</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">50-528, 50-529, 50-530</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="01" RUL="s">
                        <ENT I="21">
                            <E T="02">Arizona Public Service Company, et al.; Palo Verde Nuclear Generating Station, Units 1, 2, and 3; Maricopa County, AZ</E>
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                        <ENT I="01">Docket No(s)</ENT>
                        <ENT>50-528, 50-529, 50-530.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Application Date</ENT>
                        <ENT>August 28, 2024</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">ADAMS Accession No</ENT>
                        <ENT>ML24241A278.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Location in Application of NSHC</ENT>
                        <ENT>Pages 7-10 of the Enclosure.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Brief Description of Amendment(s)</ENT>
                        <ENT>The proposed amendments would revise the safety injection tank pressure bands in Technical Specifications (TS) Section 3.5.1, “Safety Injection Tanks (SITs)—Operating,” and TS Section 3.5.2, “Safety Injection Tanks (SITs)—Shutdown.” In addition, the proposed amendments would allow the use of the GOTHIC code as part of the methodology to perform calculations of the containment pressure and temperature response to various postulated pipe breaks.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Proposed Determination</ENT>
                        <ENT>NSHC.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">Name of Attorney for Licensee, Mailing Address</ENT>
                        <ENT>Carey Fleming, Senior Counsel, Pinnacle West Capital Corporation, 500 N 5th Street, MS 8695, Phoenix, AZ 85004.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">NRC Project Manager, Telephone Number</ENT>
                        <ENT>William Orders, 301-415-3329.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Order Imposing Procedures for Access to Sensitive Unclassified Non-Safeguards Information for Contention Preparation</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Arizona Public Service Company, et al.; Palo Verde Nuclear Generating Station, Units 1, 2, and 3; Maricopa County, AZ</HD>
                <P>A. This Order contains instructions regarding how potential parties to this proceeding may request access to documents containing Sensitive Unclassified Non-Safeguards Information (SUNSI).</P>
                <P>B. Within 10 days after publication of this notice of hearing or opportunity for hearing, any potential party who believes access to SUNSI is necessary to respond to this notice may request access to SUNSI. A “potential party” is any person who intends to participate as a party by demonstrating standing and filing an admissible contention under 10 CFR 2.309. Requests for access to SUNSI submitted later than 10 days after publication of this notice will not be considered absent a showing of good cause for the late filing, addressing why the request could not have been filed earlier.</P>
                <P>
                    C. The requestor shall submit a letter requesting permission to access SUNSI to the Office of the Secretary, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, Attention: Rulemakings and Adjudications Staff, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3257"/>
                    and provide a copy to the Deputy General Counsel for Licensing, Hearings, and Enforcement, Office of the General Counsel, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001. The expedited delivery or courier mail address for both offices is: U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland 20852. The email addresses for the Office of the Secretary and the Office of the General Counsel are 
                    <E T="03">Hearing.Docket@nrc.gov</E>
                     and 
                    <E T="03">RidsOgcMailCenter.Resource@nrc.gov,</E>
                     respectively.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The request must include the following information:
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         While a request for hearing or petition to intervene in this proceeding must comply with the filing requirements of the NRC's “E-Filing Rule,” the initial request to access SUNSI under these procedures should be submitted as described in this paragraph.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    (1) A description of the licensing action with a citation to this 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     notice;
                </P>
                <P>(2) The name and address of the potential party and a description of the potential party's particularized interest that could be harmed by the action identified in C.(1); and</P>
                <P>(3) The identity of the individual or entity requesting access to SUNSI and the requestor's basis for the need for the information in order to meaningfully participate in this adjudicatory proceeding. In particular, the request must explain why publicly available versions of the information requested would not be sufficient to provide the basis and specificity for a proffered contention.</P>
                <P>D. Based on an evaluation of the information submitted under paragraph C, the NRC staff will determine within 10 days of receipt of the request whether:</P>
                <P>(1) There is a reasonable basis to believe the petitioner is likely to establish standing to participate in this NRC proceeding; and</P>
                <P>(2) The requestor has established a legitimate need for access to SUNSI.</P>
                <P>
                    E. If the NRC staff determines that the requestor satisfies both D.(1) and D.(2), the NRC staff will notify the requestor in writing that access to SUNSI has been granted. The written notification will contain instructions on how the requestor may obtain copies of the requested documents, and any other conditions that may apply to access to those documents. These conditions may include, but are not limited to, the signing of a Non-Disclosure Agreement or Affidavit, or Protective Order 
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     setting forth terms and conditions to prevent the unauthorized or inadvertent disclosure of SUNSI by each individual who will be granted access to SUNSI.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         Any motion for Protective Order or draft Non-Disclosure Affidavit or Agreement for SUNSI must be filed with the presiding officer, or the Chief Administrative Judge if the presiding officer has not yet been designated, within 30 days of the deadline for the receipt of the written access request.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>F. Filing of Contentions. Any contentions in these proceedings that are based upon the information received as a result of the request made for SUNSI must be filed by the requestor no later than 25 days after receipt of (or access to) that information. However, if more than 25 days remain between the petitioner's receipt of (or access to) the information and the deadline for filing all other contentions (as established in the notice of hearing or opportunity for hearing), the petitioner may file its SUNSI contentions by that later deadline.</P>
                <P>G. Review of Denials of Access.</P>
                <P>(1) If the request for access to SUNSI is denied by the NRC staff after a determination on standing and requisite need, the NRC staff shall immediately notify the requestor in writing, briefly stating the reason or reasons for the denial.</P>
                <P>(2) The requestor may challenge the NRC staff's adverse determination by filing a challenge within 5 days of receipt of that determination with: (a) the presiding officer designated in this proceeding; (b) if no presiding officer has been appointed, the Chief Administrative Judge, or if this individual is unavailable, another administrative judge, or an Administrative Law Judge with jurisdiction pursuant to 10 CFR 2.318(a); or (c) if another officer has been designated to rule on information access issues, with that officer.</P>
                <P>(3) Further appeals of decisions under this paragraph must be made pursuant to 10 CFR 2.311.</P>
                <P>H. Review of Grants of Access. A party other than the requestor may challenge an NRC staff determination granting access to SUNSI whose release would harm that party's interest independent of the proceeding. Such a challenge must be filed within 5 days of the notification by the NRC staff of its grant of access and must be filed with: (a) the presiding officer designated in this proceeding; (b) if no presiding officer has been appointed, the Chief Administrative Judge, or if this individual is unavailable, another administrative judge, or an Administrative Law Judge with jurisdiction pursuant to 10 CFR 2.318(a); or (c) if another officer has been designated to rule on information access issues, with that officer.</P>
                <P>
                    If challenges to the NRC staff determinations are filed, these procedures give way to the normal process for litigating disputes concerning access to information. The availability of interlocutory review by the Commission of orders ruling on such NRC staff determinations (whether granting or denying access) is governed by 10 CFR 2.311.
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Requestors should note that the filing requirements of the NRC's E-Filing Rule (72 FR 49139; August 28, 2007, as amended at 77 FR 46562; August 3, 2012, 78 FR 34247; June 7, 2013) apply to appeals of NRC staff determinations (because they must be served on a presiding officer or the Commission, as applicable), but not to the initial SUNSI request submitted to the NRC staff under these procedures.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>I. The Commission expects that the NRC staff and presiding officers (and any other reviewing officers) will consider and resolve requests for access to SUNSI, and motions for protective orders, in a timely fashion in order to minimize any unnecessary delays in identifying those petitioners who have standing and who have propounded contentions meeting the specificity and basis requirements in 10 CFR part 2. The attachment to this Order summarizes the general target schedule for processing and resolving requests under these procedures.</P>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">It is so ordered.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: December 31, 2024.</DATED>
                    <P>For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                    <NAME>Tomas E. Herrera,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Acting Secretary of the Commission.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="xs60,r200">
                    <TTITLE>Attachment 1—General Target Schedule for Processing and Resolving Requests for Access to Sensitive Unclassified Non-Safeguards Information in this Proceeding</TTITLE>
                    <BOXHD>
                        <CHED H="1">Day</CHED>
                        <CHED H="1">Event/activity</CHED>
                    </BOXHD>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">0</ENT>
                        <ENT>
                            Publication of 
                            <E T="02">Federal Register</E>
                             notice of hearing or opportunity for hearing, including order with instructions for access requests.
                        </ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">10</ENT>
                        <ENT>Deadline for submitting requests for access to Sensitive Unclassified Non-Safeguards Information (SUNSI) with information: (i) supporting the standing of a potential party identified by name and address; and (ii) describing the need for the information in order for the potential party to participate meaningfully in an adjudicatory proceeding.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <PRTPAGE P="3258"/>
                        <ENT I="01">60</ENT>
                        <ENT>Deadline for submitting petition for intervention containing: (i) demonstration of standing; and (ii) all contentions whose formulation does not require access to SUNSI (+25 Answers to petition for intervention; +7 petitioner/requestor reply).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">20</ENT>
                        <ENT>U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) staff informs the requestor of the staff's determination whether the request for access provides a reasonable basis to believe standing can be established and shows need for SUNSI. (NRC staff also informs any party to the proceeding whose interest independent of the proceeding would be harmed by the release of the information.) If NRC staff makes the finding of need for SUNSI and likelihood of standing, NRC staff begins document processing (preparation of redactions or review of redacted documents).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">25</ENT>
                        <ENT>If NRC staff finds no “need” or no likelihood of standing, the deadline for petitioner/requestor to file a motion seeking a ruling to reverse the NRC staff's denial of access; NRC staff files copy of access determination with the presiding officer (or Chief Administrative Judge or other designated officer, as appropriate). If NRC staff finds “need” for SUNSI, the deadline for any party to the proceeding whose interest independent of the proceeding would be harmed by the release of the information to file a motion seeking a ruling to reverse the NRC staff's grant of access.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">30</ENT>
                        <ENT>Deadline for NRC staff reply to motions to reverse NRC staff determination(s).</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">40</ENT>
                        <ENT>(Receipt +30) If NRC staff finds standing and need for SUNSI, deadline for NRC staff to complete information processing and file motion for Protective Order and draft Non-Disclosure Agreement or Affidavit. Deadline for applicant/licensee to file Non-Disclosure Agreement or Affidavit for SUNSI.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">A</ENT>
                        <ENT>If access granted: issuance of presiding officer or other designated officer decision on motion for protective order for access to sensitive information (including schedule for providing access and submission of contentions) or decision reversing a final adverse determination by the NRC staff.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">A + 3</ENT>
                        <ENT>Deadline for filing executed Non-Disclosure Agreements or Affidavits. Access provided to SUNSI consistent with decision issuing the protective order.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">A + 28</ENT>
                        <ENT>Deadline for submission of contentions whose development depends upon access to SUNSI. However, if more than 25 days remain between the petitioner's receipt of (or access to) the information and the deadline for filing all other contentions (as established in the notice of hearing or notice of opportunity for hearing), the petitioner may file its SUNSI contentions by that later deadline.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">A + 53</ENT>
                        <ENT>(Contention receipt +25) Answers to contentions whose development depends upon access to SUNSI.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">A + 60</ENT>
                        <ENT>(Answer receipt +7) Petitioner/Intervenor reply to answers.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                    <ROW>
                        <ENT I="01">&gt;A + 60</ENT>
                        <ENT>Decision on contention admission.</ENT>
                    </ROW>
                </GPOTABLE>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-31787 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7590-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[NRC-2025-0001]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Sunshine Act Meetings</SUBJECT>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">TIME AND DATE:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Weeks of January 13, 20, 27, and February 3, 10, 17, 2025. The schedule for Commission meetings is subject to change on short notice. The NRC Commission Meeting Schedule can be found on the internet at: 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/public-involve/public-meetings/schedule.html.</E>
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">PLACE:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The NRC provides reasonable accommodation to individuals with disabilities where appropriate. If you need a reasonable accommodation to participate in these public meetings or need this meeting notice or the transcript or other information from the public meetings in another format (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         braille, large print), please notify Anne Silk, NRC Disability Program Specialist, at 301-287-0745, by videophone at 240-428-3217, or by email at 
                        <E T="03">Anne.Silk@nrc.gov.</E>
                         Determinations on requests for reasonable accommodation will be made on a case-by-case basis.
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">STATUS:</HD>
                    <P>Public.</P>
                    <P>
                        Members of the public may request to receive the information in these notices electronically. If you would like to be added to the distribution, please contact the Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Office of the Secretary, Washington, DC 20555, at 301-415-1969, or by email at 
                        <E T="03">Betty.Thweatt@nrc.gov</E>
                         or 
                        <E T="03">Samantha.Miklaszewski@nrc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">MATTERS TO BE CONSIDERED:</HD>
                    <P/>
                </PREAMHD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Week of January 13, 2025</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Tuesday, January 14, 2025</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">9:00 a.m. Strategic Programmatic Overview of the Decommissioning and Low-Level Waste and Nuclear Materials Users Business Lines (Public Meeting) (Contact: Araceli Billoch Colon: 301-415-3302)</FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Additional Information:</E>
                     The meeting will be held in the Commissioners' Hearing Room, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland. The public is invited to attend the Commission's meeting in person or watch live via webcast at the Web address—
                    <E T="03">https://video.nrc.gov/.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Week of January 20, 2025—Tentative</HD>
                <P>There are no meetings scheduled for the week of January 20, 2025.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Week of January 27, 2025—Tentative</HD>
                <P>There are no meetings scheduled for the week of January 27, 2025.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Week of February 3, 2025—Tentative</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Thursday, February 6, 2025</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">9:00 a.m. Briefing on ADVANCE Act Activities (Public Meeting) (Contact: Wesley Held: 301-287-3591)</FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Additional Information:</E>
                     The meeting will be held in the Commissioners' Hearing Room, 11555 Rockville Pike, Rockville, Maryland. The public is invited to attend the Commission's meeting in person or watch live via webcast at the Web address—
                    <E T="03">https://video.nrc.gov/.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Week of February 10, 2025—Tentative</HD>
                <P>There are no meetings scheduled for the week of February 10, 2025.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Week of February 17, 2025—Tentative</HD>
                <P>There are no meetings scheduled for the week of February 17, 2025.</P>
                <PREAMHD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">CONTACT PERSON FOR MORE INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <P>
                        For more information or to verify the status of meetings, contact Wesley Held at 301-287-3591 or via email at 
                        <E T="03">Wesley.Held@nrc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>The NRC is holding the meetings under the authority of the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b.</P>
                </PREAMHD>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 10, 2025.</DATED>
                    <P>For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                    <NAME>Wesley W. Held,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Policy Coordinator, Office of the Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00823 Filed 1-10-25; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7590-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 03039345; EA-2024-007; IA-2024-007; NRC-2024-0224]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>In the Matter of David Huey; Order</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; issuance.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is issuing an Order prohibiting Mr. Huey, a former manager 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3259"/>
                        at Titan Inspections, Inc. (Titan), from participating in NRC-licensed activities for three years. This action is being taken because the NRC determined that Mr. Huey deliberately caused Titan to violate NRC requirements by directing a radiographer to perform radiography at a location within NRC jurisdiction without a second qualified individual being present. Such conduct violates NRC regulations, which prohibit any licensee or employee of a licensee from engaging in deliberate misconduct that causes or would have caused, if not detected, a licensee, to be in violation of any rule, regulation, order, or any term, condition, or limitation of any license issued by the Commission. The Order is effective upon issuance.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The Order was issued on December 12, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2024-0224 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly available information related to this document using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal Rulemaking website:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for Docket ID NRC-2024-0224. Address questions about Docket IDs in 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                         to Stacy Schumann; telephone: 301-415-0624; email: 
                        <E T="03">Stacy.Schumann@nrc.gov.</E>
                         For technical questions, contact the individual listed in the “For Further Information Contact” section of this document.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS):</E>
                         You may obtain publicly available documents online in the ADAMS Public Documents collection at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html.</E>
                         To begin the search, select “Begin Web-based ADAMS Search.” For problems with ADAMS, please contact the NRC's Public Document Room (PDR) reference staff at 1-800-397-4209, at 301-415-4737, or by email to 
                        <E T="03">PDR.Resource@nrc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • NRC's PDR: 
                        <E T="03">The PDR</E>
                        , where you may examine and order copies of publicly available documents, is open by appointment. To make an appointment to visit the PDR, please send an email to 
                        <E T="03">PDR.Resource@nrc.gov</E>
                         or call 1-800-397-4209 or 301-415-4737, between 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. eastern time (ET), Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Carmen Rivera, Office of Enforcement, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001; telephone: 301-415-0296; email: 
                        <E T="03">Carmen.Rivera@nrc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The text of the order is attached.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                    <P>For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                    <NAME>David Pelton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Enforcement.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Attachment—Order</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">UNITED STATES OF AMERICA</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</HD>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                    <E T="03">In the Matter of David Huey</E>
                </FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">IA-24-007</FP>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Order Prohibiting Involvement in NRC-Licensed Activities</HD>
                <P>
                    David Huey (Huey) is a manager employed by Titan Inspection, Inc. (Titan). During the relevant time periods discussed below, Titan did not possess a specific license issued by the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) under 
                    <E T="03">Title 10 of the Code of Federal Regulations</E>
                     (10 CFR) Part 30, but possessed a specific license issued under the regulatory jurisdiction of the Commonwealth of Pennsylvania. The Commonwealth of Pennsylvania is an Agreement State, which means it has entered into an agreement with the NRC to regulate certain radioactive material within its borders. As an Agreement State licensee, Titan could conduct radiography in NRC jurisdiction under the general NRC license granted pursuant to 10 CFR 150.20. As of September 27, 2023, Titan holds license No. 37-35708-01 issued by the NRC. The license authorizes Titan to possess and utilize material for the purposes of industrial radiography.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II</HD>
                <P>An investigation was initiated by the NRC, Office of Investigations (OI), Region I, on December 19, 2022, to determine, in part, whether Huey deliberately directed a Titan radiographer to perform radiographic operations at a temporary jobsite in West Virginia, NRC jurisdiction, on November 16, 2022, without a second qualified individual. NRC regulations, specifically 10 CFR 34.41(a), require that whenever radiography is performed at a location other than a permanent radiographic installation, a radiographer must be accompanied by at least one other qualified radiographer or an individual who has, at a minimum, met the requirements of 10 CFR 34.43(c). Radiography may not be performed if only one qualified individual is present. Huey stated during the OI interview that he was aware of the requirement to have a second qualified individual present when conducting radiography. On November 16, 2022, at his direction, a radiographer completed eleven radiographs without a second qualified individual.</P>
                <P>In a letter dated May 16, 2024, the NRC informed Huey that the NRC was considering escalated enforcement action against him for apparent violations of the NRC's deliberate misconduct rule, 10 CFR 30.10(a)(1). In the letter, the NRC offered Huey the opportunity to respond in writing to the apparent violation, request a Predecisional Enforcement Conference (PEC), or request Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR). Although Huey did sign the ADR agreement, neither Huey, nor his attorney, responded to requests for dates to hold an ADR session. On October 7, 2024, we sent letters to you and your attorney stating that if we did not hear back from you or your attorney within 10 days of confirmed receipt of our letter, that the NRC would proceed with its enforcement action which could result in an order prohibiting your involvement in NRC- licensed activities for a specified period of time.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III</HD>
                <P>Based on the above, Huey, an employee of Titan, engaged in deliberate misconduct that caused Titan to be in violation of 10 CFR 34.41(a). The NRC must be able to rely on its licensees and their employees to comply with NRC requirements. Huey's action in causing Titan to violate 10 CFR 34.41(a) has raised serious doubt as to whether he can be relied upon to comply with NRC requirements and to provide complete and accurate information to the NRC.</P>
                <P>Consequently, I lack the requisite reasonable assurance that licensed activities can be conducted in compliance with the NRC's requirements and that the health and safety of the public will be protected if Huey were permitted at this time to be involved in NRC-licensed activities. Therefore, the public health, safety, and interest require that Huey be prohibited from any involvement in NRC-licensed activities for a period of three years from the date of this Order. Additionally, Huey is required to notify the NRC of his first employment in NRC-licensed activities, including work performed in NRC jurisdiction under reciprocity, for a period of one year following the prohibition period.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV</HD>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, pursuant to sections 81, 161b, 161i, 182 and 186 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, and the Commission's regulations in 10 CFR 2.202, and 10 CFR 30.10, 
                    <E T="03">it is hereby ordered that</E>
                    :
                    <PRTPAGE P="3260"/>
                </P>
                <P>1. David Huey is prohibited for three years from the date of this Order from conducting, supervising, directing, or in any other way engaging in NRC-licensed activities. NRC- licensed activities are those activities that are conducted pursuant to a specific or general license issued by the NRC, including, but not limited to, those activities of Agreement State licensees conducted pursuant to the authority granted by 10 CFR 150.20.</P>
                <P>2. If David Huey is currently involved in NRC-licensed activities, he must immediately cease those activities; inform the NRC of the name, address, and telephone number of the employer or other entity for whom he is conducting NRC-licensed activities; and provide a copy of this Order to the employer or other entity.</P>
                <P>3. For a period of one year after the three-year prohibition on engaging in NRC-licensed activities has expired, David Huey shall, within 20 days</P>
                <P>4. of accepting his first employment offer involving NRC-licensed activities or otherwise first becoming involved in NRC-licensed activities, as defined in Section IV.1 above, provide notice to the Director, Office of Enforcement, U. S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, of the name, address, and telephone number of the employer or other entity for whom he will be participating in or conducting the NRC-licensed activities. In the notification, Huey shall include a statement of his commitment to compliance with regulatory requirements and the basis for why the Commission should have confidence that he will now comply with applicable NRC requirements. The Director, Office of Enforcement, or designee, may, in writing, relax or rescind any of the above conditions upon demonstration by David Huey of good cause.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">V</HD>
                <P>
                    In accordance with 10 CFR 2.202, Huey must submit a written answer to this Order under oath or affirmation within 30 days of its publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Huey's failure to respond to this Order could result in additional enforcement action in accordance with the Commission's Enforcement Policy. In addition, Huey and any other person adversely affected by this Order may request a hearing on this Order within 30 days of its publication in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    . Where good cause is shown, consideration will be given to extending the time to answer or request a hearing. A request for extension of time must be directed to the Director, Office of Enforcement, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, and include a statement of good cause for the extension.
                </P>
                <P>
                    All documents filed in NRC adjudicatory proceedings including documents filed by an interested state, local governmental body, federally recognized Indian Tribe, or designated agency thereof that requests to participate under 10 CFR 2.315(c), must be filed in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302. The E-Filing process requires participants to submit and serve all adjudicatory documents over the internet, or in some cases, to mail copies on electronic storage media, unless an exemption permitting an alternative filing method, as discussed below, is granted. Detailed guidance on electronic submissions is located in the Guidance for Electronic Submissions to the NRC (ADAMS Accession No. ML13031A0561) 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and on the NRC website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html.</E>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         Designation in parentheses refers to an Agency-wide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS) accession number. Documents referenced in this letter are publicly available using the accession number in ADAMS.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    To comply with the procedural requirements of E-Filing, at least 10 days prior to the filing deadline, the participant should contact the Office of the Secretary by email at 
                    <E T="03">hearing.docket@nrc.gov,</E>
                     or by telephone at 301-415-1677, to (1) request a digital identification (ID) certificate, which allows the participant (or its counsel or representative) to digitally sign submissions and access the E-Filing system for any proceeding in which it is participating; and (2) advise the Secretary that the participant will be submitting a petition or other adjudicatory document (even in instances in which the participant, or its counsel or representative, already holds an NRC-issued digital ID certificate). Based upon this information, the Secretary will establish an electronic docket for the proceeding if the Secretary has not already established an electronic docket.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Information about applying for a digital ID certificate is available on the NRC's public website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals/getting-started.html.</E>
                     After a digital ID certificate is obtained and a docket created, the participant must submit adjudicatory documents in Portable Document Format. Guidance on submissions is available on the NRC's public website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/site-help/electronic-sub-ref-mat.html.</E>
                     A filing is considered complete at the time the document is submitted through the NRC's E-Filing system. To be timely, an electronic filing must be submitted to the E-Filing system no later than 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time on the due date. Upon receipt of a transmission, the E-Filing system timestamps the document and sends the submitter an email confirming receipt of the document. The E-Filing system also distributes an email that provides access to the document to the NRC's Office of the General Counsel and any others who have advised the Office of the Secretary that they wish to participate in the proceeding, so that the filer need not serve the document on those participants separately. Therefore, applicants and other participants (or their counsel or representative) must apply for and receive a digital ID certificate before adjudicatory documents are filed to obtain access to the documents via the E-Filing system.
                </P>
                <P>
                    A person filing electronically using the NRC's adjudicatory E-Filing system may seek assistance by contacting the NRC's Electronic Filing Help Desk through the “Contact Us” link located on the NRC's public website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/site-help/e-submittals.html,</E>
                     by email to 
                    <E T="03">MSHD.Resource@nrc.gov,</E>
                     or by a toll-free call at 1-866-672-7640. The NRC Electronic Filing Help Desk is available between 9 a.m. and 6 p.m., Eastern Time, Monday through Friday, excluding government holidays.
                </P>
                <P>Participants who believe that they have good cause for not submitting documents electronically must file an exemption request, in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(g), with their initial paper filing stating why there is good cause for not filing electronically and requesting authorization to continue to submit documents in paper format. Such filings must be submitted in accordance with 10 CFR 2.302(b)-(d). Participants filing adjudicatory documents in this manner are responsible for serving their documents on all other participants. Participants granted an exemption under 10 CFR 2.302(g)(2) must still meet the electronic formatting requirement in 10 CFR 2.302(g)(1), unless the participant also seeks and is granted an exemption from 10 CFR 2.302(g)(1).</P>
                <P>
                    Documents submitted in adjudicatory proceedings will appear in the NRC's electronic hearing docket, which is publicly available at 
                    <E T="03">https://adams.nrc.gov/ehd,</E>
                     unless excluded pursuant to an order of the presiding officer. If you do not have an NRC-issued digital ID certificate as described above, click “cancel” when the link requests certificates and you will be automatically directed to the NRC's electronic hearing dockets where you will be able to access any publicly available documents in a particular hearing docket. Participants are 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3261"/>
                    requested not to include personal privacy information such as social security numbers, home addresses, or personal phone numbers in their filings unless an NRC regulation or other law requires submission of such information. With respect to copyrighted works, except for limited excerpts that serve the purpose of the adjudicatory filings and would constitute a Fair Use application, participants should not include copyrighted materials in their submission.
                </P>
                <P>
                    If a person other than Huey requests a hearing, that person shall set forth with particularity the manner in which their interest is adversely affected by this Order and shall address the criteria set forth in 10 CFR 2.309(d) and (f). If a hearing is requested by Huey or a person whose interest is adversely affected, the Commission will issue an Order designating the time and place of any hearings. If a hearing is held, the issue to be considered at such hearing shall be whether this Order should be sustained. In the absence of any request for hearing, or written approval of an extension of time in which to request a hearing, the provisions specified in Section IV above shall be final 30 days from the date this Order is published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     without further order or proceedings. If an extension of time for requesting a hearing has been approved, the provisions specified in Section IV shall be final when the extension expires if a hearing request has not been received.
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                    <DATED>Dated 12th day of December 2024.</DATED>
                    <NAME>David L. Pelton,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Director, Office of Enforcement.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00558 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7590-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. 50-328; NRC-2024-0226]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Tennessee Valley Authority; Sequoyah Nuclear Plant, Unit 2; Exemption</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; issuance.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) has issued an exemption in response to a request dated November 27, 2024, from Tennessee Valley Authority. The exemption authorizes a one-time exemption for Sequoyah Nuclear Plant, Unit 2, to allow the use of the less restrictive work hour limitations described in NRC regulations for a 21-day period starting no earlier than January 6, 2025, and no later than January 31, 2025.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>The exemption was issued on December 23, 2024.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Please refer to Docket ID NRC-2024-0226 when contacting the NRC about the availability of information regarding this document. You may obtain publicly available information related to this document using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal Rulemaking website:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and search for Docket ID NRC-2024-0226. Address questions about Docket IDs in 
                        <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                         to Stacy Schumann; telephone: 301-415-0624; email: 
                        <E T="03">Stacy.Schumann@nrc.gov.</E>
                         For technical questions, contact the individual listed in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section of this document.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">NRC's Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS):</E>
                         You may obtain publicly available documents online in the ADAMS Public Documents collection at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.nrc.gov/reading-rm/adams.html.</E>
                         To begin the search, select “Begin Web-based ADAMS Search.” For problems with ADAMS, please contact the NRC's Public Document Room (PDR) reference staff at 1-800-397-4209, at 301-415-4737, or by email to 
                        <E T="03">PDR.Resource@nrc.gov.</E>
                         The exemption request dated November 27, 2024, is available in ADAMS under Accession No. ML24332A119.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">NRC's PDR:</E>
                         The PDR, where you may examine and order copies of publicly available documents, is open by appointment. To make an appointment to visit the PDR, please send an email to 
                        <E T="03">PDR.Resource@nrc.gov</E>
                         or call 1-800-397-4209 or 301-415-4737, between 8 a.m. and 4 p.m. eastern time (ET), Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Perry Buckberg, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation, U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission, Washington, DC 20555-0001, telephone: 301-415-1383, email: 
                        <E T="03">Perry.Buckberg@nrc.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>The text of the exemption is attached.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Dated: January 8, 2025.</DATED>
                    <P>For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                    <NAME>Perry H. Buckberg,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Senior Project Manager, Plant Licensing Branch II-2, Division of Operating Reactor Licensing, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Attachment—Exemption</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">NUCLEAR REGULATORY COMMISSION</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Docket No. 50-328</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Tennessee Valley Authority, Sequoyah Nuclear Plant, Unit 2; Exemption</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Background</HD>
                <P>The Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA, the licensee) is the holder of Renewed Facility Operating License No. DPR-79, which authorizes operation of Sequoyah Nuclear Plant (Sequoyah), Unit 2. The license provides, among other things, that the facility is subject to all applicable rules, regulations, and orders of the U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC, the Commission) now or hereafter in effect. Sequoyah consists of two pressurized-water reactors located in Hamilton County, Tennessee.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Request/Action</HD>
                <P>
                    By letter dated November 27, 2024 (Agencywide Documents Access and Management System (ADAMS) Accession No. ML24332A119), and pursuant to title 10 of the 
                    <E T="03">Code of Federal Regulations</E>
                     (10 CFR) part 26, “Fitness for Duty Programs,” section 26.9, “Specific exemptions,” TVA requested a one-time exemption from the work hour requirements in 10 CFR 26.205, “Work hours,” paragraph (d)(7). Specifically, TVA requested to use the work hour requirements in 10 CFR 26.205(d)(4), which are applicable during the first 60 days of a unit outage, in lieu of the work hour requirements in 10 CFR 26.205(d)(7), for a period of no more than 21 days for individuals specified in 10 CFR 26.4(a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(4).
                </P>
                <P>
                    Licensees are required to control the work hours of any individual who performs the duties identified in 10 CFR 26.4(a). One way of doing this is by complying with the 10 CFR 26.205(d)(7) requirements for maximum average work hours wherein the individuals may not work more than a weekly average of 54 hours, calculated using an averaging period of up to 6 weeks, which advances by 7 consecutive calendar days at the finish of every averaging period. However, according to 10 CFR 26.205(d)(4), licensees need not meet these requirements during the first 60 days of a unit outage for individuals specified in 10 CFR 26.4(a)(1) through 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3262"/>
                    (a)(4), while those individuals are working on outage activities. Instead, licensees shall ensure that the individuals specified in 10 CFR 26.4(a)(1) through (a)(3) have at least 3 days off in each successive (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     non-rolling) 15-day period and that the individuals specified in 10 CFR 26.4(a)(4) have at least 1 day off in any 7-day period. This alternative work hour requirement is known as the outage minimum days off (MDO) requirement.
                </P>
                <P>Sequoyah, Unit 2, entered an unplanned shutdown on July 30, 2024. During this unplanned outage, the licensee commenced an extended turbine generator outage. This allowed the licensee to administer outage work hour controls in accordance with 10 CFR 26.205(d)(4). Although these outage work hour controls ended after the first 60 days of the outage on September 29, 2024, the outage remains in progress and is scheduled to be completed in April 2025. Due to the unplanned nature of the shutdown, TVA was unable to complete the testing of the main steam safety valves. In its exemption request, TVA stated that the operating experience with past refueling outages establishes the need to use outage work hour controls to provide the necessary conditions to complete the testing of the main steam safety valves and the associated activities to identify and resolve any issues. Since the outage work hour controls have already ended for this outage, TVA requested a one-time exemption from the non-outage work hour controls in 10 CFR 26.205(d)(7) for personnel in the categories described in 10 CFR 26.4(a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(4) so that they may work the less restrictive outage work hours as described in 10 CFR 26.205(d)(4) to support a main steam safety valve maintenance window from January 6, 2025, to January 31, 2025, for a period not to exceed 21 days. Additionally, the licensee stated that the emergency diesel generator (EDG) outages are scheduled to immediately follow the proposed 3-week maintenance window. Several individuals in operations and maintenance roles included in the proposed exemption request would also work on EDG outage activities. The licensee plans to perform that work in compliance with the non-outage work hour controls in 10 CFR 26.205(d)(7) with the averaging period beginning immediately after the exemption period. Therefore, this exemption would also relieve the licensee from the 10 CFR 26.205(d)(7) requirements of including the preceding 21-day period in the rolling 6-week average of 54 hours, and instead the licensee would be able to treat the proposed maintenance window as an outage as described in 10 CFR 26.205(d)(4).</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Discussion</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to 10 CFR 26.9, the Commission may, upon application of any interested person or on its own initiative, grant exemptions from the requirements of 10 CFR part 26 as it determines (1) are authorized by law; (2) will not endanger life or property; (3) will not endanger the common defense and security; and (4) are otherwise in the public interest.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. The Exemption Is Authorized by Law</HD>
                <P>The proposed exemption would authorize a one-time exemption from the requirements of 10 CFR 26.205(d)(7) to allow the use of the less restrictive work hour controls in 10 CFR 26.205(d)(4) for up to an additional 21 days. As stated, 10 CFR 26.9 allows the Commission to grant exemptions from the requirements of 10 CFR part 26, including 10 CFR 26.205(d)(7), when, in part, the exemptions are authorized by law. Exemptions are authorized by law where they are not expressly prohibited by statute or regulation. A proposed exemption is implicitly authorized by law if it will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security and is otherwise in the public interest and no other provisions in law prohibit, or otherwise restrict, its application. The NRC staff has determined that no provisions in law expressly prohibit or otherwise restrict the application of the requested exemption. The NRC staff has also determined, as explained in subsequent sections of this document, that the requested exemption will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security and is otherwise in the public interest. Therefore, the exemption is authorized by law.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. The Exemption Will Not Endanger Life or Property</HD>
                <P>The purpose of 10 CFR part 26, subpart I, “Managing Fatigue,” is to ensure that fatigue does not compromise the abilities of specified individuals to perform their duties safely and competently. The purpose of 10 CFR 26.205(d)(4) is to provide licensees flexibility in scheduling required days off while accommodating more intense work schedules associated with a unit outage for a limited period of time.</P>
                <P>Under the proposed exemption, personnel in the categories described in 10 CFR 26.4(a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(4) would be permitted to work in accordance with the less restrictive outage MDO requirements in 10 CFR 26.205(d)(4) for up to an additional 21 days. TVA cited regulatory position C.10 of NRC Regulatory Guide 5.73, “Fatigue Management for Nuclear Power Plant Personnel” (ML083450028), which discusses the expectation that licensees should confirm that an individual transitioning from an outage at one plant to another “has had a 34-hour break period within the 9 days that precede the day on which the individual begins working for the receiving licensee.” TVA stated that the workers affected by the proposed exemption will have received a rest and reset period prior to starting the 72-hour work weeks during the maintenance window. In addition, TVA stated that from September 30, 2024, through November 17, 2024, personnel in the categories described in 10 CFR 26.4(a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(4) have worked under the non-outage work hour controls in 10 CFR 26.205(d)(7) and will continue to do so until the proposed period of the exemption, and have been granted annual leave and other personal time-off as requested.</P>
                <P>The NRC staff determined that the added mitigating actions of providing a rest and reset period prior to the proposed exemption period, maintaining the non-outage work hour controls in 10 CFR 26.205(d)(7) during the 14-week period from the end of the 60-day initial outage period until the proposed exemption period while allowing the affected workers to use annual leave or other personal time-off as requested, and the use of an outage oversight plan for fatigue assessments during the proposed work period will allow TVA to adequately manage cumulative fatigue during the proposed exemption period of up to 21 days. Acute fatigue will be managed using the outage MDO requirements combined with fatigue assessments by supervisors, which is consistent with common practice during unit outages. Based on this, the NRC staff finds that the proposed mitigating actions will adequately manage cumulative and acute fatigue. Therefore, the exemption will not endanger life or property.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. The Exemption Will Not Endanger the Common Defense and Security</HD>
                <P>
                    The proposed exemption would authorize a one-time exemption from the requirements of 10 CFR 26.205(d)(7) to allow the use of the less restrictive work hour controls in 10 CFR 26.205(d)(4) for up to an additional 21 days. The proposed exemption is not applicable to security personnel, nor does it have any relation to or impact on security issues. Therefore, the 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3263"/>
                    exemption will not endanger the common defense and security.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. The Exemption Is Otherwise in the Public Interest</HD>
                <P>The proposed exemption would authorize a one-time exemption from the requirements of 10 CFR 26.205(d)(7) to allow the use of the less restrictive work hour controls in 10 CFR 26.205(d)(4) for up to an additional 21 days. In considering whether this exemption would be in the public interest, the NRC staff considered several factors, including:</P>
                <P>• the unplanned nature of the shutdown and extended outage;</P>
                <P>• the public health and safety interests of the communities impacted by the safe operation of the plant; and</P>
                <P>• the potential adverse impacts on communities resulting from any further extension of the shutdown of the unit, which could challenge the reliability of the service territory and result in not meeting reserve capacity for the warmer months.</P>
                <P>The NRC staff considered that the current outage was not planned and has extended beyond the initial 60 days of the less restrictive outage work hour controls in 10 CFR 26.205(d)(4) and that the required work needed to complete testing, discovery, and resolution of issues has not been completed. The NRC staff also considered TVA's reasonable efforts to develop a proposed maintenance window schedule that accommodates the completion of items needed for testing and to make potential repairs that may require a long-lead time. The NRC staff noted that TVA also plans to complete maintenance on the EDGs while additional resources are onsite immediately following the proposed exemption period. These maintenance activities are important to assuring the safe operation of the unit.</P>
                <P>In its exemption request, TVA discussed the potential impacts of the Commission not granting the proposed exemption. TVA stated that without this exemption, TVA would be challenged from a reliability perspective, as the area supplied by the unit transitions further into a period of the year characterized by warmer weather and higher loads. TVA discussed the likelihood that without the exemption, TVA may need to commit other generating assets or purchase replacement power from the market, which could introduce reliability risk.</P>
                <P>The NRC staff considered the balance of public interest considerations. The NRC staff considered the importance of the maintenance activities and the potential impacts of not granting the exemption, including the potential need for TVA to extend the Sequoyah, Unit 2, outage if non-outage work hour controls were to reduce the availability of personnel. The NRC staff also considered the potential impacts of granting the exemption, including impacts that could result from an increase in overall cumulative fatigue due to personnel working longer hours for an extended period beyond that of a typical outage under the established regulatory limits. However, as explained, TVA currently has mitigating actions in place for managing cumulative and acute fatigue that include adequate rest intervals and assessments for fatigue. Also, TVA will have adequately managed fatigue for personnel in the categories described in 10 CFR 26.4(a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(4) leading up to the exemption period through compliance with the requirements in 10 CFR 26.205(d)(7). Based on these considerations, the NRC staff finds that there are no expectations for an impact on the public health and safety as a result of an increase in fatigue for the proposed period of up to 21 days. The NRC staff also finds that an earlier conclusion of the Sequoyah, Unit 2, extended outage may allow TVA to meet elevated electrical demands without relying on purchasing replacement power. Finally, the NRC staff finds that TVA took reasonable measures in its project planning to ensure that all testing, maintenance, and resolution of discovery items will be completed within the proposed exemption period. Therefore, the exemption is otherwise in the public interest.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Environmental Considerations</HD>
                <P>The Commission has determined that granting the proposed one-time exemption from the requirements of 10 CFR 26.205(d)(7) to allow the use of the less restrictive work hour controls in 10 CFR 26.205(d)(4) for up to an additional 21 days involves (1) no significant hazards consideration, (2) no significant change in the types or significant increase in the amounts of any effluents that may be released offsite, (3) no significant increase in individual or cumulative public or occupational radiation exposure, (4) no significant construction impact, and (5) no significant increase in the potential for or consequences from radiological accidents.</P>
                <P>(1) Under 10 CFR 50.92(c), there is no significant hazards consideration if the action does not (1) involve a significant increase in the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated; (2) create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated; or (3) involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.</P>
                <P>The proposed exemption is administrative in nature because it provides an additional period when less restrictive outage work hour controls can apply for personnel in the categories described in 10 CFR 26.4(a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(4). The proposed exemption has no effect on structures, systems, and components (SSCs) and no effect on the capability of the SSCs to perform their design function. The proposed exemption does not make any changes to the facility or operating procedures and does not alter the design, function, or operation of any plant equipment. Therefore, the exemption does not increase the probability or consequences of an accident previously evaluated.</P>
                <P>Similarly, the proposed exemption does not authorize any physical changes to any SSCs involved in the mitigation of any accidents. Therefore, the exemption does not create the possibility of a new or different kind of accident from any accident previously evaluated.</P>
                <P>The proposed exemption does not authorize alteration of the design basis or any safety limits for the plant. The exemption would not impact station operation or any SSC that is relied upon for accident mitigation. Therefore, the exemption does not involve a significant reduction in a margin of safety.</P>
                <P>For these reasons, the NRC staff has determined that approval of the proposed exemption involves no significant hazards consideration.</P>
                <P>(2) The proposed exemption does not authorize any changes to the design basis requirements for the SSCs at Sequoyah, Unit 2, that function to limit the release of non-radiological effluents, radiological liquid effluents, or radiological gaseous effluents during and following postulated accidents. Additionally, the exemption does not change any requirements with respect to the conduct of radiation surveys and monitoring. Therefore, there is no significant change in the types or significant increase in the amounts of any effluents that may be released offsite.</P>
                <P>
                    (3) The proposed exemption does not affect the limits on the release of any radioactive material or the limits provided in 10 CFR part 20 for radiation exposure to workers or members of the public. Additionally, the exemption will not increase or decrease the amount of work activities that must be completed in order to connect the reactor unit to the electrical grid. Therefore, there is no significant increase in individual or 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3264"/>
                    cumulative public or occupational radiation exposure.
                </P>
                <P>(4) The proposed exemption does not involve any construction. Therefore, there is no significant construction impact.</P>
                <P>(5) The proposed exemption does not alter any of the assumptions or limits in the licensee's accident analyses. Therefore, there is no significant increase in the potential for or consequences from radiological accidents.</P>
                <P>Based on the foregoing and because the requirements from which the exemption is sought involve other requirements of an administrative, managerial, or organizational nature, the exemption meets the eligibility criteria for categorical exclusion set forth in 10 CFR 51.22(c)(25)(vi)(I). Therefore, in accordance with 10 CFR 51.22(b), no environmental impact statement or environmental assessment need be prepared in connection with granting the proposed exemption.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Conclusion</HD>
                <P>
                    Accordingly, the Commission has determined that, pursuant to 10 CFR 26.9, the exemption is authorized by law, will not endanger life or property or the common defense and security, and is otherwise in the public interest. Therefore, the Commission hereby grants TVA a one-time exemption from 10 CFR 26.205(d)(7) for personnel in the categories described in 10 CFR 26.4(a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(4) to allow the use of the outage MDO requirements in 10 CFR 26.205(d)(4) for a 21-day period starting no earlier than January 6, 2025, and no later than January 31, 2025. While the exemption is in effect, TVA will ensure that individuals specified in 10 CFR 26.4(a)(1) and (a)(2) have at least 3 days off in each successive (
                    <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                     non-rolling) 15-day period and that individuals specified in 10 CFR 26.4(a)(4) have at least 1 day off in any 7-day period. The use of the outage MDO requirements and an outage plan will adequately manage cumulative and acute fatigue for covered personnel. The exemption ends either at the end of the approved 21-day period or at the time when Sequoyah, Unit 2, is connected to the electrical grid, whichever occurs first.
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <P>Dated: December 23, 2024.</P>
                    <P>For the Nuclear Regulatory Commission.</P>
                    <FP>Aida Rivera-Varona, </FP>
                    <FP>
                        <E T="03">Deputy Director, Division of Operating Reactor Licensing, Office of Nuclear Reactor Regulation.</E>
                    </FP>
                </EXTRACT>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00598 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7590-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">POSTAL REGULATORY COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket Nos. MC2025-1041; K2025-1040; MC2025-1042; K2025-1041; MC2025-1043; K2025-1042; MC2025-1044; K2025-1043; MC2025-1045; K2025-1044; MC2025-1046; K2025-1045; MC2025-1047; K2025-1046; MC2025-1048; K2025-1047; MC2025-1049; K2025-1048; MC2025-1050; K2025-1049; MC2025-1051; K2025-1050; MC2025-1052; K2025-1051; MC2025-1053; K2025-1052; MC2025-1054; K2025-1053; MC2025-1055; K2025-1054; MC2025-1056; K2025-1055; MC2025-1057; K2025-1056; MC2025-1058; K2025-1057; MC2025-1059; K2025-1058; MC2025-1060; K2025-1059; MC2025-1061; K2025-1060; MC2025-1062; K2025-1061; MC2025-1063; K2025-1062; MC2025-1064; K2025-1063; MC2025-1065; K2025-1064; MC2025-1066; K2025-1065; MC2025-1067; K2025-1066]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>New Postal Products</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Postal Regulatory Commission.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>The Commission is noticing a recent Postal Service filing for the Commission's consideration concerning a negotiated service agreement. This notice informs the public of the filing, invites public comment, and takes other administrative steps.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments are due:</E>
                         January 15, 2025.
                    </P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Submit comments electronically via the Commission's Filing Online system at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.prc.gov.</E>
                         Those who cannot submit comments electronically should contact the person identified in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section by telephone for advice on filing alternatives.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>David A. Trissell, General Counsel, at 202-789-6820.</P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Introduction</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Public Proceeding(s)</FP>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. Summary Proceeding(s)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Introduction</HD>
                <P>Pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.405, the Commission gives notice that the Postal Service filed request(s) for the Commission to consider matters related to Competitive negotiated service agreement(s). The request(s) may propose the addition of a negotiated service agreement from the Competitive product list or the modification of an existing product currently appearing on the Competitive product list.</P>
                <P>
                    The public portions of the Postal Service's request(s) can be accessed via the Commission's website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.prc.gov</E>
                    ). Non-public portions of the Postal Service's request(s), if any, can be accessed through compliance with the requirements of 39 CFR 3011.301.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Docket No. RM2018-3, Order Adopting Final Rules Relating to Non-Public Information, June 27, 2018, Attachment A at 19-22 (Order No. 4679).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>Section II identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, that will be reviewed in a public proceeding as defined by 39 CFR 3010.101(p), the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. For each such request, the Commission appoints an officer of the Commission to represent the interests of the general public in the proceeding, pursuant to 39 U.S.C. 505 and 39 CFR 3000.114 (Public Representative). Section II also establishes comment deadline(s) pertaining to each such request.</P>
                <P>The Commission invites comments on whether the Postal Service's request(s) identified in Section II, if any, are consistent with the policies of title 39. Applicable statutory and regulatory requirements include 39 U.S.C. 3632, 39 U.S.C. 3633, 39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR part 3035, and 39 CFR part 3041. Comment deadline(s) for each such request, if any, appear in Section II.</P>
                <P>
                    Section III identifies the docket number(s) associated with each Postal Service request, if any, to add a standardized distinct product to the Competitive product list or to amend a standardized distinct product, the title of each such request, the request's acceptance date, and the authority cited by the Postal Service for each request. Standardized distinct products are negotiated service agreements that are variations of one or more Competitive products, and for which financial models, minimum rates, and classification criteria have undergone advance Commission review. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     39 CFR 3041.110(n); 39 CFR 3041.205(a). Such requests are reviewed in summary proceedings pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.325(c)(2) and 39 CFR 3041.505(f)(1). Pursuant to 39 CFR 3041.405(c)-(d), the Commission does not appoint a Public Representative or request public comment in proceedings to review such requests.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Public Proceeding(s)</HD>
                <P>
                    1. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1041 and K2025-1040; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1228 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">
                        Filing Acceptance 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3265"/>
                        Date:
                    </E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Almaroof Agoro; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    2. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1042 and K2025-1041; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1229 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Almaroof Agoro; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    3. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1043 and K2025-1042; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 583 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Almaroof Agoro; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    4. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1044 and K2025-1043; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 584 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Almaroof Agoro; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    5. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1045 and K2025-1044; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 585 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Kenneth Moeller; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    6. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1046 and K2025-1045; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 586 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Kenneth Moeller; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    7. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1047 and K2025-1046; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1230 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Kenneth Moeller; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    8. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1048 and K2025-1047; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1231 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Maxine Bradley; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    9. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1049 and K2025-1048; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1232 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Maxine Bradley; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    10. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1050 and K2025-1049; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1233 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Maxine Bradley; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    11. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1051 and K2025-1050; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1234 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Maxine Bradley; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    12. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1052 and K2025-1051; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1235 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Katalin Clendenin; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    13. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1053 and K2025-1052; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1236 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Katalin Clendenin; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    14. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1054 and K2025-1053; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1237 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Gregory Stanton; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    15. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1055 and K2025-1054; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1238 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Katalin Clendenin; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    16. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1056 and K2025-1055; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1241 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Katalin Clendenin; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    17. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1057 and K2025-1056; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1242 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Gregory Stanton; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    18. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1058 and K2025-1057; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1243 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Jennaca Upperman; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    19. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1059 and K2025-1058; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3266"/>
                    to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 587 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Jennaca Upperman; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    20. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1060 and K2025-1059; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1244 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Christopher Mohr; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    21. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1061 and K2025-1060; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 588 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Christopher Mohr; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    22. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1062 and K2025-1061; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1245 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Christopher Mohr; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    23. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1063 and K2025-1062; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1246 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Alain Brou; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    24. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1064 and K2025-1063; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1247 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Alain Brou; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    25. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1065 and K2025-1064; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1248 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Jana Slovinska; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    26. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1066 and K2025-1065; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail Express, Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 1249 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Jana Slovinska; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <P>
                    27. 
                    <E T="03">Docket No(s).:</E>
                     MC2025-1067 and K2025-1066; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Title:</E>
                     USPS Request to Add Priority Mail &amp; USPS Ground Advantage Contract 589 to the Competitive Product List and Notice of Filing Materials Under Seal; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Acceptance Date:</E>
                     January 6, 2025; 
                    <E T="03">Filing Authority:</E>
                     39 U.S.C. 3642, 39 CFR 3035.105, and 39 CFR 3041.310; 
                    <E T="03">Public Representative:</E>
                     Jana Slovinska; 
                    <E T="03">Comments Due:</E>
                     January 15, 2025.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Summary Proceeding(s)</HD>
                <P>
                    None. 
                    <E T="03">See</E>
                     Section II for public proceedings.
                </P>
                <P>
                    This Notice will be published in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Erica A. Barker,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00522 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 7710-FW-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-102132; File No. SR-Phlx-2024-72]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; Nasdaq PHLX LLC; Notice of Filing of Proposed Rule Change To Permit FLEX Trading in the iShares Bitcoin Trust ETF</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>January 7, 2025.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on December 26, 2024, Nasdaq PHLX LLC (“Phlx” or “Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“SEC” or “Commission”) a proposed rule change as described in Items I, II, and III below, which Items have been prepared by the Exchange. The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Options 8, Section 34, FLEX Trading, to permit FLEX Trading in the iShares Bitcoin Trust ETF.</P>
                <P>
                    The text of the proposed rule change is available on the Exchange's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://listingcenter.nasdaq.com/rulebook/phlx/rules,</E>
                     at the principal office of the Exchange, and at the Commission's Public Reference Room.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>In its filing with the Commission, the Exchange included statements concerning the purpose of and basis for the proposed rule change and discussed any comments it received on the proposed rule change. The text of these statements may be examined at the places specified in Item IV below. The Exchange has prepared summaries, set forth in sections A, B, and C below, of the most significant aspects of such statements.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Purpose of, and Statutory Basis for, the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Purpose</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend Options 8, Section 34, FLEX Trading, to permit iShares Bitcoin Trust ETF (“IBIT”) options to trade as both cash-settled and physically settled FLEX Equity Options as described herein.</P>
                <P>
                    IBIT is an Exchange-Traded Fund (“ETF”) that holds bitcoin and is listed on The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC (“Nasdaq”).
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     On September 20, 2024, Nasdaq ISE, LLC (“ISE”) received approval to list options on IBIT.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3267"/>
                    position and exercise limits for IBIT options are 25,000 contracts as stated in Options 9, Sections 13 and 15, the lowest limit available in options.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Today, pursuant to Options 3A, Section 3(a), IBIT options are not approved for FLEX trading.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Today, FLEX Equity Options are physically delivered and have no position limits pursuant to Options 8, Section 34(e)(2).
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Therefore, the 25,000 contract position limit in Options 9, Section 13 and exercise limit in Options 9, Section 15 for IBIT options currently applies to non-FLEX IBIT options.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Nasdaq received approval to list and trade Bitcoin-Based Commodity-Based Trust Shares in IBIT pursuant to Rule 5711(d) of Nasdaq. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 99306 (January 10, 2024), 89 FR 3008 (January 17, 2024) (SR-NASDAQ-2023-016) (Order Granting Accelerated Approval of Proposed Rule Changes, as Modified by Amendments Thereto, To List and Trade Bitcoin-Based Commodity-Based Trust Shares and Trust Units).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Securities Exchange Act Release No. 101128 (September 20, 2024), 89 FR 78942 (September 26, 2024) (SR-ISE-2024-03) (Notice of Filing of 
                        <PRTPAGE/>
                        Amendment Nos. 4 and 5 and Order Granting Accelerated Approval of a Proposed Rule Change, as Modified by Amendment Nos. 1, 4, and 5, To Permit the Listing and Trading of Options on the iShares Bitcoin Trust) (“IBIT Approval Order”). The Nasdaq Stock Market LLC (“Nasdaq”), Nasdaq Phlx LLC (“Phlx”), Nasdaq BX, Inc. (“BX”), GEMX Options 4, Section 3, and MRX Options 4, Section 3 incorporate ISE Options 4, Section 3 by reference. Phlx Options 4 rules are incorporated by reference to ISE Options 4 rules. ISE began trading IBIT options on November 19, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Options on Fidelity Wise Origin Bitcoin Fund, ARK 21Shares Bitcoin ETF, Grayscale Bitcoin Trust (BTC), Grayscale Bitcoin Mini Trust BTC, and Bitwise Bitcoin ETF are also subject to a 25,000 contract position and exercise limit.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         Options 8, Section 34(a) also does not permit FLEX trading on options on Fidelity Wise Origin Bitcoin Fund, ARK 21Shares Bitcoin ETF, Grayscale Bitcoin Trust (BTC), Grayscale Bitcoin Mini Trust BTC, and Bitwise Bitcoin ETF.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         Pursuant to Options 8, Section 32(g), a FLEX Option is as described in Options 8, Section 34. FLEX Options are not eligible for entry by a member for execution through FBMS. Phlx offers FLEX Options which are customized equity, index or currency options that allow investors to tailor contract terms for exchange-listed equity and index options on its trading floor. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 8, Section 34.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>At this time, the Exchange proposes to permit IBIT options to transact as FLEX Equity Options subject to a position and exercise limits of 25,000 contracts which would be aggregated with non-FLEX IBIT options position and exercise limits in Options 9, Sections 13 and 15.</P>
                <P>
                    Per the Commission, “rules regarding position and exercise limits are intended to prevent the establishment of options positions that can be used or might create incentives to manipulate or disrupt the underlying market so as to benefit the options positions.” 
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     For this reason, the Commission requires that “position and exercise limits must be sufficient to prevent investors from disrupting the market for the underlying security by acquiring and exercising a number of options contracts disproportionate to the deliverable supply and average trading volume of the underlying security.” 
                    <SU>9</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Based on its review of the data and analysis provided by ISE, the Commission concluded that the 25,000 contract position limit for non-FLEX IBIT options satisfied these objectives.
                    <SU>10</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See supra</E>
                         note 4, IBIT Approval Order, 89 FR 78946.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>9</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>10</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As proposed, the Exchange will aggregate position (and exercise) limits for all IBIT options, thus limiting positions for options on all IBIT options—FLEX and non-FLEX—to 25,000 contracts. This proposed aggregated limit effectively restricts a market participant from holding positions that could result in the receipt of more than 2,500,000 shares, aggregated for FLEX IBIT and non-FLEX IBIT (if that market participant exercised all its IBIT options). The Exchange believes that capping the aggregated position limit at 25,000 contracts, the lowest limit available in options, would be sufficient to address concerns related to manipulation and the protection of investors. The Exchange notes that this number is conservative for IBIT and therefore appropriate given its liquidity.</P>
                <P>
                    While ISE proposed an aggregated 25,000 contract position limit for IBIT options in its rule proposal for IBIT options, it nonetheless believed that evidence existed to support a much higher position limit. Specifically, the Commission has considered and reviewed ISE's analysis that the exercisable risk associated with a position limit of 25,000 contracts represented only 0.4% of the outstanding shares of IBIT.
                    <SU>11</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission also has considered and reviewed the ISE's statement that with a position limit of 25,000 contracts on the same side of the market and 611,040,00 shares of IBIT outstanding, 244 market participants would have to simultaneously exercise their positions to place IBIT under stress.
                    <SU>12</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Based on the Commission's review of this information and analysis, the Commission concluded that the proposed position and exercise limits were designed to prevent investors from disrupting the market for the underlying security by acquiring and exercising a number of options contracts disproportionate to the deliverable supply and average trading volume of the underlying security, and to prevent the establishment of options positions that can be used or might create incentives to manipulate or disrupt the underlying market so as to benefit the options position.
                    <SU>13</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     IBIT currently qualifies for a 250,000 contract position limit pursuant to the criteria in Options 9, Section 13(g), which requires that, for the most recent six-month period, trading volume for the underlying security be at least 100,000,000 shares.
                    <SU>14</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     As of November 26, 2024, the market capitalization for IBIT was $46,783,480,800 
                    <SU>15</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     with an ADV, for the preceding three months prior to November 26, 2024, of 39,421,877 shares. At a price of $94,830,
                    <SU>16</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     that equates to a market capitalization of greater than $1.876 trillion US.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>11</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>12</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>13</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See id.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>14</SU>
                         Options 9, Section 13(g), Equity Option Position Limits, provides at subparagraph (i) that the position limit shall be 250,000 contracts for options: (a) on an underlying stock or Exchange-Traded Fund Share which had trading volume of at least 100,000,000 shares during the most recent six-month trading period; or (b) on an underlying stock or Exchange-Traded Fund Share which had trading volume of at least 75,000,000 shares during the most recent six-month trading period and has at least 300,000,000 shares currently outstanding.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>15</SU>
                         The market capitalization was determined by multiplying a settlement price of ($54.02) by the number of shares outstanding (866,040,000). This figure was acquired as of November 26, 2024. 
                        <E T="03">See https://www.ishares.com/us/products/333011/ishares-bitcoin-trust-etf.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>16</SU>
                         This is the approximate price of bitcoin from 4:00pm ET on November 25, 2024.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Despite the addition of FLEX trading in IBIT options, the Exchange would continue to limit the number of IBIT options contracts traded on the exchange in an underlying security that an investor, acting alone or in concert with others directly or indirectly, may control and thereby mitigate potential manipulation. The Exchange believes that it is consistent with the Act to permit FLEX trading in IBIT given FLEX trading is permitted today in other ETFs overlying a commodity such as SPDR Gold Shares (“GLD”), iShares Silver Trust (“SLV”), and ProShares Bitcoin ETF (“BITO”).
                    <SU>17</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Additionally, FLEX trading is permitted today in Cboe Bitcoin U.S. ETF Index Options (CBTX) and the Cboe Mini Bitcoin U.S. ETF Index Options (MBTX),
                    <SU>18</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which is comprised of multiple bitcoin ETFS of which IBIT is the highest weighted ETF in the index composition at 20%.
                    <SU>19</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     CBTX (and MBTX) are permitted to trade as FLEX Index Options with a 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3268"/>
                    24,000 contract position limit 
                    <SU>20</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     which limits are aggregated between FLEX and non-FLEX index options in CBTX and MBTX pursuant to Cboe Rule 8.35(a).
                    <SU>21</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>17</SU>
                         GLD, SLV and BITO each hold one asset in trust similar to IBIT.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>18</SU>
                         MBTX is based on 1/10th the value of the Cboe Bitcoin U.S. ETF Index.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>19</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See https://www.cboe.com/tradable_products/bitcoin-etf-index-options?utm_source=mcae&amp;utm_medium=email&amp;utm_campaign=bitcoin_eft_options_launch.</E>
                         Cboe's website provides a product comparison chart indicating that CBTX and MBTX are permitted to trade FLEX as compared to spot bitcoin ETF options. 
                        <E T="03">See https://cdn.cboe.com/resources/membership/Cboe_Bitcoin_US_ETF_Options_Comparative_Overview.pdf?_gl=1*1xmm04c*_up*MQ..*_ga*MTc0MjU1NzU1Ni4xNzM0NTU2NTky*_ga_5Q99WB9X71*MTczNDU1NjU5MC4xLjAuMTczNDU1NjU5MC4wLjAuMA.</E>
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>20</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Cboe Rule 8.32(a). 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         Cboe Rule 8.35(a)(7) that states that for purposes of determining compliance with the position limits under this Rule 8.35, if a FLEX Index Option has a multiplier of one, 100 contracts for that class equal one contract for a FLEX Index Option with a multiplier of 100 with the same underlying index. The Exchange notes that given the multiplier and notional value of CBTX, the index has a position and exercise limit that equates to 1,000,000 contracts of in kind exposure to IBIT, which is more than 40 times greater than the exposure for options on IBIT at the current 25,000 contract position and exercise limit.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>21</SU>
                         Cboe Rule 8.35(a)(3) provides that in no event shall the position limits for an industry-based FLEX Index Option class exceed one times the applicable number of Non-FLEX Index Option contracts (whether long or short) of the put class and the call class on the same side of the market, as determined on the basis of the position limits established pursuant to Rule 8.32 provided, however, the position limits for an industry-based FLEX Index Option class shall not exceed four times the applicable position limits established pursuant to Rule 8.32, instead of one times as provided above, for: (1) the Dow Jones Transportation Average or the DowJones Utility Average; or (2) an underlying industry-based index that is not a “narrow-based security index,” as defined under Section 3(a)(55)(B) of the Exchange Act. 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         Cboe Rule 8.35(a)(4) that provides that in no event shall the position limits for a micro narrow-based FLEX Index Option class exceed one times the applicable number of Non-FLEX Index Option contracts (whether long or short) of the class on the same side of the market, as determined on the basis of the position limits established pursuant to Rule 8.33.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    Further, the Exchange believes that the share creation and redemption process unique to ETFs would mitigate any potential risk of manipulation in FLEX trading in IBIT options. The creation and redemption process is designed to ensure that an ETF's price closely tracks the value of its underlying asset(s). For example, if a market participant exercised a long call position for 25,000 contracts and purchased 2,500,000 shares of IBIT and this purchase resulted in the value of IBIT shares to trade at a premium to the value of the (underlying) bitcoin held by IBIT, the Exchange believes that other market participants would attempt to arbitrage this price difference by selling short IBIT shares while concurrently purchasing bitcoin. Those market participants (arbitrageurs) would then deliver cash to IBIT and receive shares of IBIT, which would be used to close out any previously established short position in IBIT. Thus, this creation and redemptions process would significantly reduce the potential risk of price dislocation between the value of IBIT shares and the value of bitcoin holdings. The Exchange understands that FLEX Options on ETFs are currently traded in the over-the-counter (“OTC”) market by a variety of market participants, 
                    <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                     hedge funds, proprietary trading firms, and pension funds. The Exchange believes there is room for significant growth if a comparable FLEX product were introduced for trading on a regulated market. The Exchange expects that users of these OTC products would be among the primary users of FLEX IBIT options. The Exchange also believes that the trading of FLEX IBIT options would allow these same market participants to better manage the risk associated with the volatility of IBIT (the underlying ETF) positions given the enhanced liquidity that an exchange-traded product would bring. Additionally, the Exchange believes that FLEX IBIT options traded on the Exchange would have three important advantages over the contracts that are traded in the OTC market. First, as a result of greater fungibility, exchange-traded contracts should develop more liquidity because each FLEX contract can be closed with a liquidating transaction as compared to OTC FLEX contracts which must be held until expiration. Second, counterparty credit risk would be mitigated by the fact that the exchange-traded contracts are issued and guaranteed by The Options Clearing Corporation (“OCC”). Finally, the price discovery and dissemination provided by the Exchange and its member organizations would lead to more transparent markets. The Exchange believes that its ability to offer FLEX IBIT options would aid it in competing with the OTC market and at the same time expand the universe of products available to interested market participants. The Exchange believes that an exchange-traded alternative may provide a useful risk management and trading vehicle for market participants and their customers. Additionally, FLEX options serve two primary client types in the capital markets: (1) ETF and structured return issuers who seek European-style 
                    <SU>22</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     options with bespoke strike and expirations, such that they can tailor their returns more precisely than they could with standard American-style options; 
                    <SU>23</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and (2) with respect to stock lending, certain investors (
                    <E T="03">e.g.</E>
                     banks and hedge funds) may seek to align their contract durations for calls and puts, and thereby prefer European-style exercise, which can be exercised only on its expiration date, as compared to American-style, which can be exercised on any business day prior to its expiration date and on its expiration date.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>22</SU>
                         The term “European-style option” means an options contract that, subject to the provisions of Options 6B, Section 1 (relating to the cutoff time for exercise instructions) and to the Rules of the Clearing Corporation, can be exercised only on its expiration date. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 1, Section 1(a)(15).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>23</SU>
                         The term “American-style option” means an options contract that, subject to the provisions of Options 6B, Section 1 (relating to the cutoff time for exercise instructions) and to the Rules of the Clearing Corporation, can be exercised on any business day prior to its expiration date and on its expiration date. Today, non-FLEX equity options settle American-style. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         Options 1, Section 1(a)(3).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    The Exchange has analyzed its capacity and represents that it and The Options Price Reporting Authority (“OPRA”) have the necessary systems capacity to handle the additional traffic associated with the listing of FLEX IBIT options. The Exchange believes any additional traffic that would be generated from the trading of FLEX IBIT options would be manageable. The Exchange believes member organizations will not have a capacity issue as a result of this proposed rule change. The Exchange also represents that it does not believe this proposed rule change will cause fragmentation of liquidity. The Exchange will monitor the trading volume associated with the additional options series listed as a result of this proposed rule change and the effect (if any) of these additional series on market fragmentation and on the capacity of the Exchange's automated systems. The Exchange represents that the same surveillance procedures applicable to the Exchange's other options products listed and traded on the Exchange, including non-FLEX IBIT options, will apply to FLEX IBIT options, and that it has the necessary systems capacity to support such options. FLEX options products (and their respective symbols) are integrated into the Exchange's existing surveillance system architecture and are thus subject to the relevant surveillance processes.
                    <SU>24</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange's market surveillance staff (including staff of the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (“FINRA”) who perform surveillance and investigative work on behalf of the Exchange pursuant a regulatory services agreement) conducts surveillances with respect to IBIT (the underlying ETF) and, as appropriate, would review activity in IBIT when conducting surveillances for market abuse or manipulation in IBIT options.
                    <SU>25</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange does not believe that allowing FLEX IBIT options would render the marketplace for non-FLEX IBIT options, or equity options in general, more susceptible to manipulative practices.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>24</SU>
                         Phlx FLEX trading occurs on Phlx's trading floor, in an open outcry environment. Surveillance staff monitors FLEX trading in open outcry.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>25</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         IBIT Approval Order, 89 FR 78947.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <PRTPAGE P="3269"/>
                <P>
                    The Exchange represents that its existing trading surveillances are adequate to monitor the trading in IBIT (as well as FLEX IBIT) on the Exchange. Additionally, the Exchange is a member of the Intermarket Surveillance Group (“ISG”) under the Intermarket Surveillance Group Agreement. ISG members work together to coordinate surveillance and investigative information sharing in the stock, options, and futures markets. For surveillance purposes, the Exchange would therefore have access to information regarding trading activity in the pertinent underlying securities. In addition, and as referenced above, the Exchange has a regulatory services agreement with FINRA, pursuant to which FINRA conducts certain surveillances on behalf of the Exchange. Further, pursuant to a multi-party 17d-2 joint plan, all options exchanges allocate regulatory responsibilities to FINRA to conduct certain options-related market surveillances.
                    <SU>26</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Exchange will implement any additional surveillance procedures it deems necessary to effectively monitor the trading of IBIT options.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                         Section 19(g)(1) of the Act, among other things, requires every SRO registered as a national securities exchange or national securities association to comply with the Act, the rules, and regulations thereunder, and the SRO's own rules, and, absent reasonable justification or excuse enforce compliance by its members and persons associated with its members. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         15 U.S.C. 78q(d)(1) and 17 CFR 240.17d-2. Section 17(d)(1) of the Act allows the Commission to relieve an SRO of certain responsibilities with respect to members of the SRO who are also members of another SRO. Specifically, Section 17(d)(1) allows the Commission to relieve an SRO of its responsibilities to: (i) receive regulatory reports from such members; (ii) examine such members for compliance with the Act and the rules and regulations thereunder, and the rules of the SRO; or (iii) carry out other specified regulatory responsibilities with respect to such members.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The proposed rule change is designed to allow investors seeking to trade options on IBIT to utilize FLEX IBIT options. The Exchange believes that offering innovative products flows to the benefit of the investing public. A robust and competitive market requires that exchanges respond to member's evolving needs by constantly improving their offerings. Such efforts would be stymied if exchanges were prohibited from offering innovative products such as the proposed FLEX IBIT options. The Exchange believes that introducing FLEX IBIT options would further broaden the base of investors that use FLEX Options (and options on IBIT in general) to manage their trading and investment risk, including investors that currently trade in the OTC market for customized options. The proposed rule change is also designed to encourage market makers to shift liquidity from the OTC market on the Exchange, which, it believes, will enhance the process of price discovery conducted on the Exchange through increased order flow.</P>
                <P>Finally, as discussed herein, the Exchange does not believe that this proposed rule change raises any unique regulatory concerns because the proposal to aggregate FLEX and non-FLEX IBIT options at the (most conservative) 25,000 contract position limit, which currently applies solely to non-FLEX IBIT options, should provide an adequate safeguard.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Statutory Basis</HD>
                <P>
                    The Exchange believes that its proposal is consistent with Section 6(b) of the Act,
                    <SU>27</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in general, and furthers the objectives of Section 6(b)(5) of the Act,
                    <SU>28</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in particular, in that it is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices, to promote just and equitable principles of trade, to foster cooperation and coordination with persons engaged in regulating, clearing, settling, processing information with respect to, and facilitating transactions in securities, to remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest. Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is consistent with the Section (6)(b)(5) 
                    <SU>29</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     requirement that the rules of an exchange not be designed to permit unfair discrimination between customers, issuers, brokers, or dealers. Specifically, the Exchange believes that introducing FLEX IBIT options will increase order flow to the Exchange, increase the variety of options products available for trading, and provide a valuable tool for investors to manage risk. The proposed rule change is designed to allow investors seeking to trade options on IBIT to utilize FLEX IBIT options.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>27</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>28</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78f(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>29</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78(f)(b)(5).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>The Exchange believes that the proposal to permit FLEX IBIT options would remove impediments to and perfect the mechanism of a free and open market. The Exchange believes that offering FLEX IBIT options will benefit investors by providing them with an additional, relatively lower cost investing tool to gain exposure to the price of bitcoin and provide a hedging vehicle to meet their investment needs in connection with a bitcoin-related product. Moreover, the proposal would broaden the base of investors that use FLEX Options to manage their trading and investment risk, including investors that currently trade in the OTC market for customized options. By trading a product in an exchange-traded environment (that is currently being used in the OTC market), the Exchange would be able to compete more effectively with the OTC market. The Exchange believes the proposed rule change is designed to prevent fraudulent and manipulative acts and practices in that it would lead to the migration of options currently trading in the OTC market to trading to the Exchange. Also, any migration to the Exchange from the OTC market would result in increased market transparency and enhance the process of price discovery conducted on the Exchange through increased order flow. The Exchange also believes that offering FLEX IBIT options may open up the market for options on IBIT to more retail investors. Additionally, offering FLEX would serve two primary client types in the capital markets by permitting ETF and structured return issuers to more precisely tailor their settlement style and allow other investors to align their contract durations for calls and puts, as well as settlement-style.</P>
                <P>Additionally, the Exchange believes the proposed rule change is designed to remove impediments to and to perfect the mechanism for a free and open market and a national market system, and, in general, to protect investors and the public interest in that it should create greater trading and hedging opportunities and flexibility. The proposed rule change should also result in enhanced efficiency in initiating and closing out positions and heightened contra-party creditworthiness due to the role of OCC as issuer and guarantor of FLEX IBIT options. Further, the proposed rule change would result in increased competition by permitting the Exchange to offer products that are currently used in the OTC market.</P>
                <P>
                    The Exchange does not believe that this proposed rule change raises any unique regulatory concerns because the proposal to aggregate FLEX and non-FLEX IBIT options at the (most conservative) 25,000 contract limit should provide an adequate safeguard. The purpose of position limits is to address potential manipulative schemes and adverse market impacts surrounding the use of options, such as disrupting the market in the security underlying the options. The Exchange believes the proposal will benefit investors and public interest because the aggregated position limit for all options on IBIT (FLEX and non-FLEX) at 25,000 contracts, the lowest limit available in options, would address 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3270"/>
                    concerns related to manipulation and protection of investors as this number is conservative for IBIT and therefore appropriate given its liquidity.
                </P>
                <P>The Exchange believes that offering innovative products flows to the benefit of the investing public. A robust and competitive market requires that exchanges respond to evolving needs in the market by constantly improving their offerings. Such efforts would be stymied if exchanges were prohibited from offering innovative products such as the proposed FLEX IBIT options. The Exchange does not believe that allowing FLEX IBIT options would render the marketplace for equity options more susceptible to manipulative practices.</P>
                <P>
                    Finally, the Exchange represents that it has an adequate surveillance program in place to detect manipulative trading in FLEX IBIT options. Regarding the proposed FLEX IBIT options, the Exchange would use the same surveillance procedures currently utilized for FLEX Options listed on the Exchange (as well as for non-FLEX IBIT options). For surveillance purposes, the Exchange would have access to information regarding trading activity in IBIT (the underlying ETF).
                    <SU>30</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     In light of surveillance measures related to both options and IBIT (the underlying ETF), the Exchange believes that existing surveillance procedures are designed to deter and detect possible manipulative behavior which might potentially arise from listing and trading the proposed FLEX IBIT options.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>30</SU>
                         
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         IBIT Approval Order, 89 FR 78947.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Burden on Competition</HD>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that the proposed rule change will impose any burden on competition that is not necessary or appropriate in furtherance of the purposes of the Act.</P>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that its proposed rule change will impose any burden on intra-market competition as all market participants would have the option of utilizing the FLEX IBIT options. The proposed rule change is designed to allow investors seeking option exposure to bitcoin to trade FLEX IBIT options. Moreover, the Exchange believes that the proposal to permit FLEX IBIT options would broaden the base of investors that use FLEX Options to manage their trading and investment risk, including investors that currently trade in the OTC market for customized options.</P>
                <P>The Exchange does not believe that its proposed rule change will impose any burden on intermarket competition as all market participants would have the option of utilizing the FLEX IBIT options. The Exchange notes that it operates in a highly competitive market in which market participants can readily direct order flow to competing venues. The proposed rule change would support that intermarket competition by allowing the Exchange to offer additional functionality to member organizations. The Exchange believes that the proposed FLEX IBIT options will increase the variety of options products available for trading in general and bitcoin-related products in particular and, as such, will provide a valuable tool for investors to manage risk.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement on Comments on the Proposed Rule Change Received From Members, Participants, or Others</HD>
                <P>No written comments were either solicited or received.</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Date of Effectiveness of the Proposed Rule Change and Timing for Commission Action</HD>
                <P>
                    Within 45 days of the date of publication of this notice in the 
                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                     or within such longer period (i) as the Commission may designate up to 90 days of such date if it finds such longer period to be appropriate and publishes its reasons for so finding or (ii) as to which the Exchange consents, the Commission shall: (a) by order approve or disapprove such proposed rule change, or (b) institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be disapproved.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act. Comments may be submitted by any of the following methods:</P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Electronic Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    • Use the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ); or
                </P>
                <P>
                    • Send an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-Phlx-2024-72 on the subject line.
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD2">Paper Comments</HD>
                <P>• Send paper comments in triplicate to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090.</P>
                <FP>
                    All submissions should refer to file number SR-Phlx-2024-72. This file number should be included on the subject line if email is used. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules/sro.shtml</E>
                    ). Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for website viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10 a.m. and 3 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange. Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-Phlx-2024-72 and should be submitted on or before February 4, 2025.
                </FP>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>31</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>31</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00531 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE COMMISSION</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Release No. 34-102133; File No. SR-NYSE-2024-87]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Self-Regulatory Organizations; New York Stock Exchange LLC; Notice of Filing and Immediate Effectiveness of a Proposed Rule Change To Amend Its Equities Price List</SUBJECT>
                <DATE>January 7, 2025.</DATE>
                <P>
                    Pursuant to Section 19(b)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Act”),
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4 thereunder,
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     notice is hereby given that on December 31, 2024, New York Stock Exchange LLC (“Exchange”) filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission (“Commission”) the proposed rule change as described in Item I below, 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3271"/>
                    which Item has been prepared by the Exchange. The Exchange has designated this proposal for immediate effectiveness pursuant to Section 19(b)(3)(A) of the Act 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     and Rule 19b-4(f) thereunder.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Commission is publishing this notice to solicit comments on the proposed rule change from interested persons.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(1).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         15 U.S.C. 78s(b)(3)(A).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         17 CFR 240.19b-4(f). At any time within 60 days of the filing of the proposed rule change, the Commission summarily may temporarily suspend such rule change if it appears to the Commission that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, for the protection of investors, or otherwise in furtherance of the purposes of the Act. If the Commission takes such action, the Commission will institute proceedings to determine whether the proposed rule change should be approved or disapproved.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Self-Regulatory Organization's Statement of the Terms of Substance of the Proposed Rule Change</HD>
                <P>The Exchange proposes to amend its Price List to (1) introduce a new Adding Credit Tier 7; (2) revise the tiered non-display credit for Supplemental Liquidity Providers (“SLPs”) under SLP Adding Tier 1; and (3) revise the credit under SLP Provide Tier 1 for adding non-displayed liquidity to the Exchange in Tapes B and C securities. The Exchange proposes to implement the fee changes effective January 2, 2025.</P>
                <P>
                    The proposed rule change, including the Exchange's statement of the purpose of, and statutory basis for, the proposed rule change, is available on the Exchange's website at https://www.nyse.com and on the Commission's website at 
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules-regulations/self-regulatory-organization-rulemaking/national-securities-exchanges?file_number=SR-NYSE-2024-87.</E>
                </P>
                <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Solicitation of Comments</HD>
                <P>
                    Interested persons are invited to submit written data, views, and arguments concerning the foregoing, including whether the proposed rule change is consistent with the Act.
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Comments may be submitted electronically by using the Commission's internet comment form (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules-regulations/self-regulatory-organization-rulemaking/national-securities-exchanges?file_number=SR-NYSE-2024-87</E>
                    ) or by sending an email to 
                    <E T="03">rule-comments@sec.gov.</E>
                     Please include file number SR-NYSE-2024-87 on the subject line. Alternatively, paper comments may be sent to Secretary, Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549-1090. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSE-2024-87. To help the Commission process and review your comments more efficiently, please use only one method. The Commission will post all comments on the Commission's internet website (
                    <E T="03">https://www.sec.gov/rules-regulations/self-regulatory-organization-rulemaking/national-securities-exchanges?file_number=SR-NYSE-2024-87</E>
                    ). Do not include personal identifiable information in submissions; you should submit only information that you wish to make available publicly. We may redact in part or withhold entirely from publication submitted material that is obscene or subject to copyright protection. All submissions should refer to file number SR-NYSE-2024-87 and should be submitted on or before February 4, 2025.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Copies of the submission, all subsequent amendments, all written statements with respect to the proposed rule change that are filed with the Commission, and all written communications relating to the proposed rule change between the Commission and any person, other than those that may be withheld from the public in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552, will be available for website viewing and printing in the Commission's Public Reference Room, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549, on official business days between the hours of 10 a.m. and 3 p.m. Copies of the filing also will be available for inspection and copying at the principal office of the Exchange.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <SIG>
                    <P>
                        For the Commission, by the Division of Trading and Markets, pursuant to delegated authority.
                        <SU>6</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             17 CFR 200.30-3(a)(12).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <NAME>Sherry R. Haywood,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Assistant Secretary.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00532 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8011-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF STATE</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Public Notice: 12634]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Notice of Public Meeting to Prepare for International Maritime Organization Human Element, Training and Watchkeeping 11 Session</SUBJECT>
                <P>The Department of State will conduct a public meeting at 10:00 a.m. on Tuesday, February 4, 2025, by way of teleconference and in-person at the Douglas A. Munro Coast Guard Headquarters Building at St. Elizabeth's, 2703 Martin Luther King Jr. Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20593. The primary purpose of the meeting is to prepare for the eleventh session of the International Maritime Organization's (IMO) Sub-Committee on Human Element, Training and Watchkeeping (HTW) to be held in London, United Kingdom, from Monday, February 10, 2025, to Friday, February 14, 2025.</P>
                <P>The agenda items to be considered include:</P>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Adoption of the agenda</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Decisions of other IMO bodies</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Validated model training courses</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Role of the human element</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Reports on unlawful practices associated with certificates of competency</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Comprehensive review of the 1978 STCW Convention and Code</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Development of a safety regulatory framework to support the reduction of GHG emissions from ships using new technologies and alternative fuels</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Biennial status report and provisional agenda for HTW 12</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Election of Chair and Vice-Chair for 2026</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Any other business</FP>
                <FP SOURCE="FP-1">—Report to the Maritime Safety Committee</FP>
                <P>
                    <E T="03">Please note:</E>
                     The sub-committee may, on short notice, adjust the HTW 11 agenda to accommodate any constraints associated with the meeting. Although no changes to the agenda are anticipated, if any are necessary, they will be provided to those who RSVP. Members of the public may participate up to the capacity of the teleconference line, which will handle 500 participants, or up to the seating capacity of the room if attending in-person.
                </P>
                <P>
                    Those who plan to attend should contact the meeting coordinator, Mrs. Megan Johns Henry at 
                    <E T="03">megan.c.johns@uscg.mil</E>
                    , by phone at (202) 372-1255, or in writing at 2703 Martin Luther King Jr. Ave. SE, Stop 7509, Washington, DC 20593-7509 not later than January 30, 2025. Requests made after January 30, 2025, may not be able to be accommodated. The meeting coordinator will provide the teleconference information, facilitate the building security process, and address requests for reasonable accommodation. Please note that due to security considerations, two valid, government issued photo identifications must be presented to gain entrance to the Douglas A. Munro Coast Guard Headquarters Building at St. Elizabeth's. This building is accessible by taxi, public transportation, and privately owned conveyance (upon advanced request). Additional information regarding this and other IMO public meetings may be found at: 
                    <E T="03">https://www.dco.uscg.mil/IMO</E>
                    .
                </P>
                <EXTRACT>
                    <FP>(Authority: 22 U.S.C. 2656 and 5 U.S.C. 552)</FP>
                </EXTRACT>
                <SIG>
                    <NAME>Leslie W. Hunt,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Coast Guard Liaison Officer, Office of Ocean and Polar Affairs, Department of State.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00594 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4710-09-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <PRTPAGE P="3272"/>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">SURFACE TRANSPORTATION BOARD</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. AB 768X]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Mohawk, Adirondack &amp; Northern Railroad Corporation—Abandonment Exemption—in Lewis and Jefferson Counties, N.Y.</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    Mohawk, Adirondack &amp; Northern Railroad Corporation (MAN), has filed a verified notice of exemption under 49 CFR part 1152 subpart F—Exempt Abandonments to abandon (1) an approximately 16-mile rail line that runs between milepost 58.1 and milepost 74.0 located between the Village of Lowville, N.Y., and the Village of Carthage, N.Y.; and (2) 0.5 miles of an unused spur track and 300 feet of terminal end of main line all within the Village of Lyons Falls, N.Y.
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The lines traverse U.S. Postal Service Zip Codes 13367, 13368 and 13619.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         By decision served on January 22, 2024, the Board held this proceeding in abeyance and directed MAN to update its Environmental and Historic Report (E&amp;H Report), serve that updated report on the parties required to receive it, and allow 20 days for responses. Mohawk, Adirondack &amp; N. R.R.—Aban. Exemption—in Lewis &amp; Jefferson Cntys., N.Y., AB 768X et al., slip op. at 3-4, 8 (STB served Jan. 22, 2024). By a separate decision served concurrently with this notice, the Board finds that MAN has complied with the Board's directive and therefore removes this proceeding from abeyance.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    MAN has certified that: (1) no local freight traffic has moved over the Line during the past two years; (2) any overhead traffic can be rerouted over other lines; (3) no formal complaint filed by a user of rail service on the Line (or by a state or local government on behalf of such user) regarding cessation of service over the Line is pending with either the Surface Transportation Board (Board) or any U.S. District Court or has been decided in favor of a complainant within the two-year period; and (4) the requirements at 49 CFR 1105.7(b) and 1105.8(c) (notice of environmental and historic reports),
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     49 CFR 1105.12 (newspaper publication), and 49 CFR 1152.50(d)(1) (notice to government agencies) have been met.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         On April 5, 2024, MAN submitted a verified supplement and amendment to its verified notice of exemption, which included a revised E&amp;H Report. On May 12, 2024, MAN submitted additional revisions to its E&amp;H Report.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As a condition to this exemption, any employee adversely affected by the abandonment shall be protected under Oregon Short Line Railroad—Abandonment Portion Goshen Branch Between Firth &amp; Ammon, in Bingham &amp; Bonneville Counties, Idaho, 360 I.C.C. 91 (1979). To address whether this condition adequately protects affected employees, a petition for partial revocation under 49 U.S.C. 10502(d) must be filed.</P>
                <P>
                    Provided no formal expression of intent to file an offer of financial assistance (OFA) has been received,
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     this exemption will be effective on February 13, 2025, unless stayed pending reconsideration.
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Petitions to stay that do not involve environmental issues,
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     formal expressions of intent to file an OFA under 49 CFR 1152.27(c)(2), and interim trail use/railbanking requests under 49 CFR 1152.29 must be filed by January 24, 2025.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Petitions to reopen and requests for public use conditions under 49 CFR 1152.28 must be filed February 3, 2025.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         Persons interested in submitting an OFA must first file a formal expression of intent to file an offer, indicating the type of financial assistance they wish to provide (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         subsidy or purchase) and demonstrating that they are preliminarily financially responsible. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         49 CFR 1152.27(c)(2)(i).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         The Board received numerous comments in this docket from parties opposing the abandonment. In the decision served concurrently with this notice, the Board considers these comments as petitions to reject the verified notice and denies the petitions.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         The Board will grant a stay if an informed decision on environmental issues (whether raised by a party or by the Board's Office of Environmental Analysis (OEA) in its independent investigation) cannot be made before the exemption's effective date. See Exemption of Out-of-Serv. Rail Lines, 5 I.C.C.2d 377 (1989). Any request for a stay should be filed as soon as possible so that the Board may take appropriate action before the exemption's effective date.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         Filing fees for OFAs and trail use requests can be found at 49 CFR 1002.2(f)(25) and (27), respectively.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>All pleadings, referring to Docket No. AB 768X, must be filed with the Surface Transportation Board either via e-filing on the Board's website or in writing addressed to 395 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20423-0001. In addition, a copy of each pleading must be served on MAN's representative, John K. Fiorilla, Dyer &amp; Peterson PC, 605 Main Street, Suite 104, Riverton, NJ 08077-1440.</P>
                <P>If the verified notice contains false or misleading information, the exemption is void ab initio.</P>
                <P>MAN has filed a combined environmental and historic report that addresses the potential effects, if any, of the abandonment on the environment and historic resources. OEA will issue a Draft Environmental Assessment (Draft EA) by January 17, 2025. The Draft EA will be available to interested persons on the Board's website, by writing to OEA, or by calling OEA at (202) 245-0294. If you require an accommodation under the Americans with Disabilities Act, please call (202) 245-0245. Comments on environmental or historic preservation matters must be filed within 15 days after the Draft EA becomes available to the public.</P>
                <P>Environmental, historic preservation, public use, or trail use/railbanking conditions will be imposed, where appropriate, in a subsequent decision.</P>
                <P>Pursuant to the provisions of 49 CFR 1152.29(e)(2), MAN shall file a notice of consummation with the Board to signify that it has exercised the authority granted and fully abandoned the Line. If consummation has not been effected by MAN's filing of a notice of consummation by January 14, 2026, and there are no legal or regulatory barriers to consummation, the authority to abandon will automatically expire.</P>
                <P>
                    Board decisions and notices are available at 
                    <E T="03">www.stb.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Decided: January 8, 2025.</DATED>
                    <P>By the Board, Valerie O. Quinn, Acting Director, Office of Proceedings.</P>
                    <NAME>Jeffrey Herzig,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Clearance Clerk.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00627 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4915-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">SURFACE TRANSPORTATION BOARD</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No. AB 180X]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>The Lowville &amp; Beaver River Railroad Company—Abandonment Exemption—in Lewis County, N.Y.</SUBJECT>
                <P>
                    The Lowville &amp; Beaver River Railroad Company (LBRR) has filed a verified notice of exemption under 49 CFR part 1152 subpart F—Exempt Abandonments to abandon a 10.57-mile rail line extending from milepost 0.0 in Lowville, N.Y., to milepost 10.57 
                    <SU>1</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     in Croghan, N.Y. (the Line).
                    <SU>2</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     The Line traverses U.S. Postal Service Zip Codes 13367 and 13327.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>1</SU>
                         In its verified notice of exemption, LBRR states that the Line terminates at milepost 10.44. (Verified Notice 2.) In a subsequent filing, LBRR clarifies that the endpoint is actually milepost 10.57 in Croghan. (LBRR Suppl. 2, Sept. 27, 2023.)
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>2</SU>
                         By decision served on January 22, 2024, the Board held this proceeding in abeyance and directed LBRR to (1) seek after-the-fact authority to acquire the Line; and (2) update its Environmental and Historic Report (E&amp;H Report), serve that updated report on the parties required to receive it, and allow 20 days for responses. Mohawk, Adirondack &amp; N. R.R.—Aban. Exemption—in Lewis &amp; Jefferson Cntys., N.Y., AB 768X et al., slip op. at 3-4, 8 (STB served Jan. 22, 2024). By a separate decision served concurrently with this notice, the Board finds that LBRR has complied with the Board's directives and therefore removes this proceeding from abeyance.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>
                    LBRR has certified that: (1) no local or overhead freight traffic has moved over the Line in at least 15 years; 
                    <SU>3</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     (2) there is no overhead traffic to reroute; (3) no formal complaint filed by a user of rail 
                    <PRTPAGE P="3273"/>
                    service on the Line (or by a state or local government on behalf of such user) regarding cessation of service over the Line is pending with either the Surface Transportation Board (Board) or any U.S. District Court or has been decided in favor of a complainant within the past two years; and (4) the requirements at 49 CFR 1105.7(b) and 1105.8(c) (notice of environmental and historic reports),
                    <SU>4</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     49 CFR 1105.12 (newspaper publication), and 49 CFR 1152.50(d)(1) (notice to government agencies) have been met.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>3</SU>
                         In the decision being served concurrently with this notice, the Board grants LBRR's motion to waive the Board's regulation at 49 CFR 1152.50(b) to the extent it requires LBRR to have had Board-authorized ownership of the Line for at least two years in order to qualify for a class exemption under 49 CFR part 1152 subpart F.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>4</SU>
                         On April 5, 2024, LBRR submitted a verified supplement and amendment to its verified notice of exemption, which included a revised E&amp;H Report. On April 29, 2024, LBRR submitted additional revisions to its E&amp;H Report.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>As a condition to this exemption, any employee adversely affected by the abandonment shall be protected under Oregon Short Line Railroad—Abandonment Portion Goshen Branch Between Firth &amp; Ammon, in Bingham &amp; Bonneville Counties, Idaho, 360 I.C.C. 91 (1979). To address whether this condition adequately protects affected employees, a petition for partial revocation under 49 U.S.C. 10502(d) must be filed.</P>
                <P>
                    Provided no formal expression of intent to file an offer of financial assistance (OFA) has been received,
                    <SU>5</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     this exemption will be effective on February 13, 2025, unless stayed pending reconsideration.
                    <SU>6</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Petitions to stay that do not involve environmental issues,
                    <SU>7</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     formal expressions of intent to file an OFA under 49 CFR 1152.27(c)(2), and interim trail use/railbanking requests under 49 CFR 1152.29 must be filed by January 24, 2025.
                    <SU>8</SU>
                    <FTREF/>
                     Petitions to reopen and requests for public use conditions under 49 CFR 1152.28 must be filed February 3, 2025.
                </P>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>5</SU>
                         Persons interested in submitting an OFA must first file a formal expression of intent to file an offer, indicating the type of financial assistance they wish to provide (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         subsidy or purchase) and demonstrating that they are preliminarily financially responsible. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         49 CFR 1152.27(c)(2)(i).
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>6</SU>
                         The Board received numerous comments in this docket from parties opposing the abandonment. In the decision served concurrently with this notice, the Board considers these comments as petitions to reject the verified notice and denies the petitions.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>7</SU>
                         The Board will grant a stay if an informed decision on environmental issues (whether raised by a party or by the Board's Office of Environmental Analysis (OEA) in its independent investigation) cannot be made before the exemption's effective date. 
                        <E T="03">See Exemption of Out-of-Serv. Rail Lines,</E>
                         5 I.C.C.2d 377 (1989). Any request for a stay should be filed as soon as possible so that the Board may take appropriate action before the exemption's effective date.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <SU>8</SU>
                         Filing fees for OFAs and trail use requests can be found at 49 CFR 1002.2(f)(25) and (27), respectively.
                    </P>
                </FTNT>
                <P>All pleadings, referring to Docket No. AB 180X, must be filed with the Surface Transportation Board either via e-filing on the Board's website or in writing addressed to 395 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20423-0001. In addition, a copy of each pleading must be served on LBRR's representative, John K. Fiorilla, Dyer &amp; Peterson PC, 605 Main Street, Suite 104, Riverton, NJ 08077-1440.</P>
                <P>If the verified notice contains false or misleading information, the exemption is void ab initio.</P>
                <P>LBRR has filed a combined environmental and historic report that addresses the potential effects, if any, of the abandonment on the environment and historic resources. OEA will issue a Draft Environmental Assessment (Draft EA) by January 17, 2025. The Draft EA will be available to interested persons on the Board's website, by writing to OEA, or by calling OEA at (202) 245-0294. If you require an accommodation under the Americans with Disabilities Act, please call (202) 245-0245. Comments on environmental or historic preservation matters must be filed within 15 days after the Draft EA becomes available to the public.</P>
                <P>Environmental, historic preservation, public use, or trail use/railbanking conditions will be imposed, where appropriate, in a subsequent decision.</P>
                <P>Pursuant to the provisions of 49 CFR 1152.29(e)(2), LBRR shall file a notice of consummation with the Board to signify that it has exercised the authority granted and fully abandoned the Line. If consummation has not been effected by LBRR's filing of a notice of consummation by January 14, 2026, and there are no legal or regulatory barriers to consummation, the authority to abandon will automatically expire.</P>
                <P>
                    Board decisions and notices are available at 
                    <E T="03">www.stb.gov.</E>
                </P>
                <SIG>
                    <DATED>Decided: January 8, 2025.</DATED>
                    <P>By the Board, Valerie O. Quinn, Acting Director, Office of Proceedings.</P>
                    <NAME>Jeffrey Herzig,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>Clearance Clerk.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00628 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4915-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.: FAA-2024-0194; Summary Notice No. 2025-03]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Petition for Exemption; Summary of Petition Received; Wheels Up</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This notice contains a summary of a petition seeking relief from specified requirements of Federal Aviation Regulations. The purpose of this notice is to improve the public's awareness of, and participation in, the FAA's exemption process. Neither publication of this notice nor the inclusion nor omission of information in the summary is intended to affect the legal status of the petition or its final disposition.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this petition must identify the petition docket number and must be received on or before February 3, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2024-0194 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Send comments to Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                         In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                        <E T="03">http://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.dot.gov/privacy.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to the Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Kara White, Office of Rulemaking, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591.</P>
                    <P>This notice is published pursuant to 14 CFR 11.85.</P>
                    <SIG>
                        <PRTPAGE P="3274"/>
                        <P>Issued in Washington, DC.</P>
                        <NAME>Dan Ngo,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Manager, Part 11 Petitions Branch, Office of Rulemaking.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Petition for Exemption</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket No.:</E>
                         FAA-2024-0194.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Petitioner:</E>
                         Wheels Up Private Jets LLC.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Section(s) of 14 CFR Affected:</E>
                         §§ 135.324, 135.329(a)(2), 135.329(a)(3), 135.329(a)(4), 135.329(b), 135.330, 135.331, 135.341, 135.345, 135.347
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Description of Relief Sought:</E>
                         Wheels Up requests relief from the requirements in § 135.324 to allow it to credit pilot training conducted by another certificate holder, without a contract or other arrangement, for the training required by §§ 135.329(a)(2), 135.329(a)(3), 135.329(a)(4), 135.329(b), 135.330, 135.331, 135.341, 135.345, 135.347, to meet their regulatory obligations with respect to pilot training.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00561 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION</AGENCY>
                <SUBAGY>Federal Aviation Administration</SUBAGY>
                <DEPDOC>[Docket No.: FAA-2024-0196; Summary Notice No. 2025-02]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Petition for Exemption; Summary of Petition Received; Wheels Up</SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of Transportation (DOT).</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>This notice contains a summary of a petition seeking relief from specified requirements of Federal Aviation Regulations. The purpose of this notice is to improve the public's awareness of, and participation in, the FAA's exemption process. Neither publication of this notice nor the inclusion nor omission of information in the summary is intended to affect the legal status of the petition or its final disposition.</P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>Comments on this petition must identify the petition docket number and must be received on or before February 3, 2025.</P>
                </DATES>
                <ADD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                    <P>Send comments identified by docket number FAA-2024-0196 using any of the following methods:</P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal:</E>
                         Go to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and follow the online instructions for sending your comments electronically.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Mail:</E>
                         Send comments to Docket Operations, M-30; U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Room W12-140, West Building Ground Floor, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Hand Delivery or Courier:</E>
                         Take comments to Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        • 
                        <E T="03">Fax:</E>
                         Fax comments to Docket Operations at (202) 493-2251.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Privacy:</E>
                         In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at 
                        <E T="03">http://www.dot.gov/privacy.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket:</E>
                         Background documents or comments received may be read at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at any time. Follow the online instructions for accessing the docket or go to the Docket Operations in Room W12-140 of the West Building Ground Floor at 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m., Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays.
                    </P>
                </ADD>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>Kara White, Office of Rulemaking, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW, Washington, DC 20591.</P>
                    <P>This notice is published pursuant to 14 CFR 11.85.</P>
                    <SIG>
                        <P>Issued in Washington, DC.</P>
                        <NAME>Dan Ngo,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Manager, Part 11 Petitions Branch, Office of Rulemaking.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Petition for Exemption</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Docket No.:</E>
                         FAA-2024-0196.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Petitioner:</E>
                         Wheels Up Private Jets LLC.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Section(s) of 14 CFR Affected:</E>
                         §§ 135.293, 135.297, 135.299.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Description of Relief Sought:</E>
                         Wheels Up requests the pilot checking requirements of §§ 135.293, 135.297, 135.299 completed by another air carrier be credited to Wheels Up to meet their regulatory obligations with respect to pilot checking.
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00562 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4910-13-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
        <NOTICE>
            <PREAMB>
                <AGENCY TYPE="N">DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS AFFAIRS</AGENCY>
                <DEPDOC>[OMB Control No. 2900-0016]</DEPDOC>
                <SUBJECT>Agency Information Collection Activity: Claim for Disability Insurance Benefits, Government Life Insurance; Withdrawal </SUBJECT>
                <AGY>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                    <P>Veterans Benefits Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs.</P>
                </AGY>
                <ACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                    <P>Notice; withdrawal.</P>
                </ACT>
                <SUM>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                    <P>
                        On Tuesday, January 7, 2025 the Veterans Benefits Administration (VBA), published a notice in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         announcing an opportunity for public comment on the proposed collection Claim for Disability Insurance Benefits, Government Life Insurance, VA Form 29-357. This notice was published in error; therefore, this document corrects that error by withdrawing this FR notice.
                    </P>
                </SUM>
                <DATES>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                    <P>As of January 7, 2025, the FR notice published at 90 FR 1222 on Tuesday, January 7, 2025, is withdrawn.</P>
                </DATES>
                <FURINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                    <P>
                        Maribel Aponte, 202-461-8900, 
                        <E T="03">vacopaperworkreduact@va.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                </FURINF>
            </PREAMB>
            <SUPLINF>
                <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                <P>FR Doc. 2025-00015, published on January 7, 2025 (90 FR 1222), is withdrawn by this notice.</P>
                <SIG>
                    <P>By direction of the Secretary.</P>
                    <NAME>Maribel Aponte,</NAME>
                    <TITLE>VA PRA Clearance Officer, Office of Enterprise and Integration/Data Governance Analytics, Department of Veterans Affairs.</TITLE>
                </SIG>
            </SUPLINF>
            <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00580 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
            <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 8320-01-P</BILCOD>
        </NOTICE>
    </NOTICES>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>8</NO>
    <DATE>Tuesday, January 14, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="3275"/>
            <PARTNO>Part II</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Consumer Financial Protection Bureau</AGENCY>
            <CFR>12 CFR Part 1022</CFR>
            <TITLE>Prohibition on Creditors and Consumer Reporting Agencies Concerning Medical Information (Regulation V); Final Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <RULES>
            <RULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3276"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">CONSUMER FINANCIAL PROTECTION BUREAU</AGENCY>
                    <CFR>12 CFR Part 1022</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[Docket No. CFPB-2024-0023]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 3170-AA54</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Prohibition on Creditors and Consumer Reporting Agencies Concerning Medical Information (Regulation V)</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Consumer Financial Protection Bureau.</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Final rule.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>The Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB) is issuing a final rule amending Regulation V, which implements the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA), concerning medical information. The FCRA prohibits creditors from considering medical information in credit eligibility determinations. The CFPB is removing a regulatory exception that had permitted creditors to obtain and use information on medical debts notwithstanding this statutory limitation. The final rule also provides that a consumer reporting agency generally may not furnish to a creditor a consumer report containing information on medical debt that the creditor is prohibited from using.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>This final rule is effective March 17, 2024.</P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>
                            George Karithanom, Regulatory Implementation &amp; Guidance Program Analyst, Office of Regulations, at 202-435-7700 or 
                            <E T="03">https://reginquiries.consumerfinance.gov/.</E>
                             If you require this document in an alternative electronic format, please contact 
                            <E T="03">CFPB_Accessibility@cfpb.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Overview</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Summary of the Final Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        Information about a person's medical history and health is sacrosanct and among the most intimate and sensitive categories of data. Recognizing the uniquely sensitive nature of such information, Congress acted to limit the use and sharing of medical information in the financial system by amending the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) through the Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act of 2003 (FACT Act).
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In doing so, Congress “establish[ed] strong privacy protections for consumers' sensitive medical information,” 
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         in line with the overarching privacy protection purpose of the FCRA.
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As part of these protections, Congress generally limited a creditor's ability to obtain or use a consumer's medical information in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit (creditor prohibition), subject to certain exceptions.
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         One of these exceptions required the Federal financial banking agencies and the National Credit Union Administration (Agencies) to prescribe regulations that permit transactions that are determined to be necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs (including administrative verification purposes), consistent with congressional intent to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes.
                        <SU>5</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act of 2003 (FACT Act), Public Law 108-159, 117 Stat. 1952, 1999 (2003).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             149 Cong. Rec. H8122-02, H8122 (daily ed. Sept. 10, 2003) (statement of Rep. Kanjorsky).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681 
                            <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                             1681(a)(4).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(5).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In 2005, the Agencies issued a regulatory exception (financial information exception) to this statutory prohibition, permitting consumers' medical financial information to be obtained and used by creditors in connection with credit eligibility determinations if certain conditions were met.
                        <SU>6</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Since the financial information exception was created, a number of concerns have been raised about whether a regulatory exception that permits creditors to consider sensitive medical information about a consumer's debts and certain other types of medical information is necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs, and consistent with the congressional intent to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             70 FR 70664 (Nov. 22, 2005).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>First, when the Agencies issued the financial information exception to the statutory prohibition, they did so without providing evidence or reasoning to support their main conclusion that an exception from a congressionally created legal requirement was warranted.</P>
                    <P>
                        Second, research has shown that medical debt has limited predictive value in predicting future default for credit underwriting purposes. Questions about the reliability of information about medical debt, as compared to information about other types of consumer debt, have been raised based on research performed by the CFPB and others.
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Medical debt may be less predictive of whether a consumer will pay a future loan, because medical debts can occur and are collected through unique circumstances and practices. For example, consumers often have limited ability to control the timing and types of medical services that are required.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Kenneth P. Brevoort &amp; Michelle Kambara, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Data point: Medical debt and credit scores</E>
                             (May 2014), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/201405_cfpb_report_data-point_medical-debt-credit-scores.pdf. See also</E>
                             Mark Rukavina, 
                            <E T="03">Medical Debt and Its Relevance When Assessing Creditworthiness,</E>
                             46 Suffolk U. L. Rev. 967 (2013), 
                            <E T="03">https://bpb-us-e1.wpmucdn.com/sites.suffolk.edu/dist/3/1172/files/2014/01/Rukavina_Lead.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Third, market participants, including in the consumer reporting industry and those most financially incentivized to assess the predictive value of medical debt, have reduced their reliance on medical debt in recognition of its limited utility. Consumer reporting agencies have removed certain medical debts from consumer reports.
                        <SU>8</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Major credit scoring companies have accorded less weight to, or excluded entirely, medical debt information in their newer scoring models.
                        <SU>9</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Similarly, some creditors have adjusted how their underwriting standards treat medical debt information.
                        <SU>10</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Bus. Wire, 
                            <E T="03">Equifax, Experian, and TransUnion Support U.S. Consumers With Changes to Medical Collection Debt Reporting</E>
                             (Mar. 18, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.businesswire.com/news/home/20220318005244/en/Equifax-Experian-and-TransUnion-Support-U.S.-Consumers-With-Changes-to-Medical-Collection-Debt-Reporting.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             AnnaMaria Andriotis, 
                            <E T="03">Major Credit-Score Provider to Exclude Medical Debts,</E>
                             Wall St. J. (Aug. 10, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.wsj.com/articles/major-credit-score-provider-to-exclude-medical-debts-11660102729</E>
                             (VantageScore CEO quoted as saying that having medical debt is not necessarily reflective of a consumer's ability to pay back a loan); Ethan Dornhelm, 
                            <E T="03">The Impact of Medical Debt on FICO Scores,</E>
                             FICO Blog (July 13, 2015), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fico.com/blogs/impact-medical-debt-ficor-scores.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>10</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Fed. Nat'l Mortg. Ass'n, 
                            <E T="03">Single Family Selling Guide,</E>
                             B3-2-03 (2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://selling-guide.fanniemae.com/#Public.20Records.2C.20Foreclosures.2C.20and.20Collection.20Accounts</E>
                             (noting that “[c]ollection accounts reported as medical collections are not used in the DU [Desk Underwriter] risk assessment”); Fed. Home Loan Mortg. Corp., 
                            <E T="03">The Single-Family Seller/Servicer Guide,</E>
                             5201.1 (2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://guide.freddiemac.com/app/guide/section/5201.1;</E>
                             U.S. Dep't of Hous. &amp; Urban Dev., 
                            <E T="03">Single Family Housing Policy Handbook,</E>
                             4000.1 (2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.hud.gov/sites/dfiles/OCHCO/documents/4000.1hsgh-112021.pdf. See also</E>
                             The White House, 
                            <E T="03">Fact Sheet: The Biden Administration Announces New Actions to Lessen the Burden of Medical Debt and Increase Consumer Protection</E>
                             (Apr. 11, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/briefing-room/statements-releases/2022/04/11/fact-sheet-the-biden-administration-announces-new-actions-to-lessen-the-burden-of-medical-debt-and-increase-consumer-protection/</E>
                             (announcing changes to certain Federal government underwriting standards to remove medical debt from evaluations of whether a consumer will repay a loan, including those for the U.S. Department of Agriculture's rural housing 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            service loans and the Small Business Administration's loan programs and the Federal Housing Finance Authority's review of credit models).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3277"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Key Changes</HD>
                    <P>
                        Given the developments over the past decade in its understanding of how consumer medical debt differs from other types of consumer debt and its uses in credit underwriting, the CFPB, now with primary regulatory authority over the FCRA, is updating the non-statutory exceptions in Regulation V to ensure the use of medical information is consistent with the congressional intent to safeguard consumers' privacy and restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes. To do so, the CFPB is finalizing changes to how creditors and consumer reporting agencies treat medical information concerning a consumer's medical debt in §§ 1022.3, 1022.30, and 1022.38, as outlined below and discussed in further detail in part IV, 
                        <E T="03">Discussion of the Final Rule.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        These amendments apply to any person that participates as a creditor in a transaction, except for a person excluded from coverage by section 1029 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010 (CFPA) 
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         certain auto dealers). According to existing Regulation V, the term “creditor” has the same meaning as in section 702 of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA).
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The amendments also apply to a consumer reporting agency as defined in section 603(f) of the FCRA.
                        <SU>13</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 1955, 2004 (2010).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             12 CFR 1022.30(b)(2)(ii); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681a(r)(5). ECOA is codified at 15 U.S.C. 1691 
                            <E T="03">et seq.;</E>
                             ECOA section 702 is codified at 15 U.S.C. 1691a(e). The term creditor means any person who regularly extends, renews, or continues credit; any person who regularly arranges for the extension, renewal, or continuation of credit; or any assignee of an original creditor who participates in the decision to extend, renew, or continue credit.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681a(f). The term consumer reporting agency means any person which, for monetary fees, dues, or on a cooperative nonprofit basis, regularly engages in whole or in part in the practice of assembling or evaluating consumer credit information or other information on consumers for the purpose of furnishing consumer reports to third parties, and which uses any means or facility of interstate commerce for the purpose of preparing or furnishing consumer reports.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Removal of the Financial Information Exception</HD>
                    <P>Under this final rule, a creditor will no longer be able to consider medical information related to a consumer's medical debt in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit, unless one of the specific exceptions in final § 1022.30(e) applies. Specifically, the CFPB is finalizing its interpretation as set forth in the proposed rule that for information about a consumer's debt to be “medical information” under FCRA section 603(i), the information must relate to a debt the consumer owes, or at one time owed, directly to a health care provider or to the health care provider's agent or assignee for the provision of the health care underlying the payment obligation.</P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed in further detail in part IV.B.1, 
                        <E T="03">Medical Information Related to Debts,</E>
                         the CFPB finalizes its definition of medical debt information in final § 1022.3(j), as medical information that pertains to a debt owed by a consumer to a person whose primary business is providing medical services, products, or devices (also referred to herein as a health care provider), or to the person's agent or assignee, for the provision of such medical services, products, or devices. The definition also provides that medical debt information includes, but is not limited to, medical bills that are not past due or that have been paid.
                    </P>
                    <P>The CFPB is removing the financial information exception to the creditor prohibition in current § 1022.30(d). This non-statutory exception provides that a creditor may generally obtain and use medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit subject to certain exceptions. With respect to information concerning a consumer's medical debts, the CFPB has concluded that it generally is neither “necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs,” nor consistent with Congress's intent “to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes,” for creditors to consider such sensitive financial information in underwriting. Because of the CFPB's elimination of the financial information exception, the FCRA will return to its original restrictions on creditors considering, in connection with credit eligibility determinations, certain medical information related to consumers' medical debts.</P>
                    <P>
                        The final rule is also removing the financial information exception for expenses, assets, and collateral and related examples at current § 1022.30(d). As discussed in more detail in part IV.B.2, 
                        <E T="03">Medical Information Related to Expenses, Assets, and Collateral,</E>
                         the CFPB has determined that the financial information exception for a creditor to consider medical information relating to a consumer's expenses, assets, and collateral is also not warranted to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, or consumer needs and is not consistent with the intent of the creditor prohibition to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes as required under FCRA section 604(g)(5).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed in more detail in part IV.B.3, 
                        <E T="03">Medical Information Related to Income, Benefits, or the Purpose of the Loan,</E>
                         the CFPB is retaining certain elements of the financial information exception related to income, benefits, and the purpose of the loan in current § 1022.30(d) by moving relevant provisions to the list of specific exceptions to the creditor prohibition at § 1022.30(e)(1)(x), with technical edits for renumbering, and is finalizing proposed § 1022.30(e)(7) (Example 7) which is an example that illustrates a use of medical information related to long-term disability income.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        This final rule is also modifying the text of proposed § 1022.30(e)(1)(x)(A) to add a new provision at final § 1022.30(e)(1)(x)(A)(
                        <E T="03">1</E>
                        ), as to medical information included in the transaction information of an account for a consumer financial product or service described in 12 CFR 1033.111(b)(1) through (3), and accessed with the consumer's authorization. As discussed in more detail in part VI.A, 
                        <E T="03">Consumer-Authorized Transaction History,</E>
                         the CFPB has determined that including medical information included in the transaction history of a consumer's account in this exception is necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs, including permitting actions necessary for administrative verification purposes, consistent with FCRA's intent to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Limits on a Consumer Reporting Agency's Disclosure of Medical Debt Information</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the final rule, new § 1022.38 to subpart D addresses how a consumer reporting agency's medical debt information reporting responsibilities are impacted when creditors are prohibited from obtaining or using medical debt information. As discussed in more detail in part IV.C, 
                        <E T="03">Limits on a Consumer Reporting Agency's Disclosure of Medical Debt Information,</E>
                         final § 1022.38 provides that a consumer reporting agency is permitted to include medical debt information in a consumer report furnished to a creditor for credit eligibility purposes only if the following criteria are met: (1) the consumer reporting agency has reason to believe the creditor intends to use the medical debt information in a manner not prohibited by § 1022.30; and (2) the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3278"/>
                        consumer reporting agency has reason to believe the creditor is not otherwise legally prohibited from obtaining or using the medical debt information, including by a State law that prohibits a creditor from obtaining or using medical debt information. The CFPB has determined that a creditor who is prohibited from obtaining or using medical debt information does not have a permissible purpose for a consumer report containing medical debt information. The CFPB has also determined that limiting the circumstances under which consumer reporting agencies may furnish medical debt information is necessary or appropriate to administer and carry out the purposes and objectives of the FCRA to protect consumers' privacy, and to prevent evasions or to facilitate compliance.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Example To Comply With Applicable Requirements of Local, State, or Federal Laws</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB is finalizing a specific example for obtaining and using medical information as proposed in new § 1022.30(e)(6) (Example 6) concerning the ability-to-repay or pay requirements in Regulation Z with respect to mortgages and credit card accounts, with one clarification as discussed below. The CFPB has determined that Example 6 does not conflict with the ability-to-repay or pay requirements in Regulation Z and provides sufficient information for how creditors may comply with both the ability-to-repay or pay requirements in Regulation Z and the changes in this final rule with respect to use of medical information. The CFPB has determined it would not be necessary or appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs, including permitting actions necessary for administrative verification purposes, nor consistent with Congress's intent to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes, for a creditor or card issuer under § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii) to use medical information contained in a consumer report in order to comply with the applicable laws because a creditor or card issuer can comply with the applicable laws using the information provided by the consumer, including any medical information received from the consumer on the application in response to a general inquiry about debts or obligations.</P>
                    <P>The final rule revises Example 6 from the proposal, however, to make clear that this example only relates to the exception under § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii), and a creditor or card issuer may obtain and use medical information for purposes of Regulation Z's ability-to-repay or pay determinations pursuant to other exceptions in § 1022.30(e), as applicable. With respect to the ability-to-repay requirements in Regulation Z § 1026.43(c), final Example 6 also contains additional information on the interplay between the ability-to-repay requirement in Regulation Z § 1026.43(c) and final § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Effective Date</HD>
                    <P>
                        The final rule will take effect sixty days after the date the rule is published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Market Background</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unique Characteristics of Medical Debt in the United States</HD>
                    <P>
                        A significant number of Americans have medical debt.
                        <SU>14</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         According to one nationally representative survey, in 2022 around 41 percent of adults stated that they had some kind of medical debt, including debt that they were unable to pay, that was on credit cards, that was being paid over time, directly to a provider, or that they owed to family members, or to a bank, collection agency, or other lender.
                        <SU>15</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>14</SU>
                             For more information about medical debt in the United States, including population disparities, impacts on consumers, and COVID-19 impacts, 
                            <E T="03">see</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Medical Debt Burden in the United States</E>
                             (Feb. 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_medical-debt-burden-in-the-united-states_report_2022-03.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>15</SU>
                             Lunna Lopes et al., Kaiser Fam. Found., 
                            <E T="03">Health Care Debt In The U.S.: The Broad Consequences Of Medical And Dental Bills</E>
                             (June 16, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.kff.org/report-section/kff-health-care-debt-survey-main-findings/</E>
                             (reporting results of 2022 Kaiser Family Foundation Health Care Debt Survey, which polled 2,375 adults).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Several characteristics of medical debt pose special risks to consumers and distinguish it from other types of debt.
                        <SU>16</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The need for medical care can be unexpected,
                        <SU>17</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and medical debt often results from bills for a one-time or short-term medical expense due to an unforeseen event such as an accident or sudden illness.
                        <SU>18</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Consumers are rarely informed of the costs of medical treatment in advance, and because of price opacity and an often immediate need for medical care, consumers have little or no ability to “shop around.” 
                        <SU>19</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Americans that live in rural communities may also experience limited choices when trying to access health care,
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         which may impact the amount of their medical debt in ways that are not reflective of their other debts.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>16</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See generally</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Bulletin 2022-01: Medical Debt Collection and Consumer Reporting Requirements in Connection with the No Surprises Act,</E>
                             87 FR 3025 (Jan. 20, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-2022-01-20/pdf/2022-01012.pdf;</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Consumer credit reports: A study of medical and non-medical collections,</E>
                             at 15-16, 38-42 (Dec. 2014), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/201412_cfpb_reports_consumer-credit-medical-and-non-medical-collections.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>17</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Complaint Bulletin: Medical billing and collection issues described in consumer complaints,</E>
                             at 7 (Apr. 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_complaint-bulletin-medical-billing_report_2022-04.pdf</E>
                             (describing consumer complaints received by the CFPB about unexpected medical care).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>18</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Lunna Lopes et al., Kaiser Fam. Found., 
                            <E T="03">Health Care Debt in the U.S.: The Broad Consequences of Medical and Dental Bills</E>
                             (June 16, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.kff.org/report-section/kff-health-care-debt-survey-main-findings/</E>
                             (reporting survey results that 7 in 10 adults with health care debt say the debt arose from bills for a one-time or short-term medical expense). 
                            <E T="03">But see</E>
                             Sara R. Collins et al., Commonwealth Fund, 
                            <E T="03">Paying for It: How Health Care Costs and Medical Debt Are Making Americans Sicker and Poorer—Findings from the Commonwealth Fund 2023 Health Care Affordability Survey</E>
                             (Oct. 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.commonwealthfund.org/publications/surveys/2023/oct/paying-for-it-costs-debt-americans-sicker-poorer-2023-affordability-survey</E>
                             (about half of adults with medical debt say it is from treatment received for an ongoing condition).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>19</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Bulletin 2022-01: Medical Debt Collection and Consumer Reporting Requirements in Connection with the No Surprises Act,</E>
                             87 FR 3025 (Jan. 20, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-2022-01-20/pdf/2022-01012.pdf. See also</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Complaint Bulletin: Medical billing and collection issues described in consumer complaints,</E>
                             at 7-8 (Apr. 20, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/research-reports/complaint-bulletin-medical-billing-and-collection-issues-described-in-consumer-complaints/</E>
                             (detailing consumer complaints received by the CFPB).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             U.S. Gov't Acct. Off., 
                            <E T="03">Health Care Capsule: Accessing Health Care in Rural America</E>
                             (May 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.gao.gov/assets/gao-23-106651.pdf</E>
                             (generally describing health care access challenges for rural populations).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        There are significant concerns with the accuracy of medical bills. For example, 43 percent of all adults and 53 percent of adults with medical debt in a nationally representative survey believed they had received a medical or dental bill that included an error.
                        <SU>21</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         While the survey found that most of these adults had taken some action to dispute the mistake, 51 percent reported that they either did not dispute the bill or were unable to successfully resolve their dispute. This may be because medical billing and collections can be complicated and confusing since a consumer may have difficulty determining whether the amount is covered by insurance or a hospital's financial assistance program (if 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3279"/>
                        applicable) and, if so, whether and to what extent the amount was already paid or reduced.
                        <SU>22</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Also some health care providers and debt collectors exploit these complications and charge inflated or unearned bills.
                        <SU>23</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Karen Pollitz &amp; Kaye Pestaina, Kaiser Fam. Found., 
                            <E T="03">Could Consumer Assistance Be Helpful to People Facing Medical Debt?</E>
                             (July 14, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.kff.org/policy-watch/could-consumer-assistance-be-helpful-to-people-facing-medical-debt/</E>
                             (analyzing results of 2022 Kaiser Family Foundation Health Care Debt Survey).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>22</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Medical Debt Burden in the United States,</E>
                             at 9-14 (Feb. 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_medical-debt-burden-in-the-united-states_report_2022-03.pdf</E>
                             (describing issues with medical billing and collections practices); Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Complaint Bulletin: Medical billing and collection issues described in consumer complaints</E>
                             (Apr. 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_complaint-bulletin-medical-billing_report_2022-04.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>23</SU>
                             Press Release, U.S. Dep't of Just., 
                            <E T="03">Hospital Chain Will Pay Over $260 Million to Resolve False Billing and Kickback Allegations; One Subsidiary Agrees to Plead Guilty</E>
                             (Sept. 25, 2018), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.justice.gov/opa/pr/hospital-chain-will-pay-over-260-million-resolve-false-billing-and-kickback-allegations-one;</E>
                             Press Release, U.S. Atty's Off. for C.D. Cal., 
                            <E T="03">Prime Healthcare Services and its CEO Agree to Pay $65 Million to Settle Medicare Overbilling Allegations at 14 California Hospitals</E>
                             (Aug. 3, 2018), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.justice.gov/usao-cdca/pr/prime-healthcare-services-and-its-ceo-agree-pay-65-million-settle-medicare-overbilling;</E>
                             Press Release, Off. of Pub. Affairs, U.S. Dep't of Just., 
                            <E T="03">Clinical Laboratory and Its Owner Agree to Pay an Additional $5.7 Million to Resolve Outstanding Judgement for Billing Medicare for Inflated Mileage-Based Lab Technician Travel Allowance Fees</E>
                             (Aug. 1, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.justice.gov/opa/pr/clinical-laboratory-and-its-owner-agree-pay-additional-57-million-resolve-outstanding;</E>
                             Press Release, Off. of Pub. Affairs, U.S. Dep't of Just., 
                            <E T="03">Physician Partners of America to Pay $24.5 Million to Settle Allegations of Unnecessary Testing, Improper Remuneration to Physicians and a False Statement in Connection with COVID-19 Relief Funds</E>
                             (Apr. 12, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.justice.gov/opa/pr/physician-partners-america-pay-245-million-settle-allegations-unnecessary-testing-improper;</E>
                             Erica Zucco, 
                            <E T="03">Providence will refund medical bills for thousands of patients after agreement with attorney general,</E>
                             King 5 News (Feb. 1, 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.king5.com/article/news/health/providence-forgive-137-million-medical-payments-refund-20m-patients-after-agreement/281-3063dd66-ab54-413a-893a-73463f213a5b;</E>
                             Off. of the Att'y Gen. of Va., 
                            <E T="03">Common Health Care Fraud Schemes, https://www.oag.state.va.us/contact-us/frequently-asked-questions?id=511</E>
                             (last visited Dec. 2, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Medical Debt and Consumer Reporting</HD>
                    <P>
                        Information about medical debt is used in different ways in the financial system. Consumer reporting agencies play a key role in assembling and evaluating consumer credit and other information on consumers 
                        <SU>24</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                        —including information about a consumer's medical debt—and in providing consumer reports to other companies for employment, housing, insurance, and other decisions.
                        <SU>25</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Medical debt information on a consumer report can increase the cost and reduce the availability of credit, and can even reduce access to employment and housing.
                        <SU>26</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>24</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681(a)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>25</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Medical Debt Burden in the United States,</E>
                             at 26 n.117 (Feb. 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_medical-debt-burden-in-the-united-states_report_2022-03.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>26</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Data Point: Consumer Credit and the Removal of Medical Collections from Credit Reports,</E>
                             at 2 (Apr. 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_consumer-credit-removal-medical-collections-from-credit-reports_2023-04.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Generally, information about a medical debt on a consumer report appears as a collection tradeline. After a medical debt has been placed by the creditor in collections status because the debt has been unpaid for a period of time, the medical debt may be furnished as a collections tradeline to consumer reporting agencies by a debt collector, including a debt collector who collects on behalf of the original creditor for a fee, as well as a debt collector who purchases overdue accounts outright from the original creditor (also known as a debt buyer).
                        <SU>27</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Such tradelines are referred to as medical collections or medical collections tradelines. Research by the CFPB has found that nearly all medical collections furnishing is performed by debt collectors, rather than by health care providers (as original creditors) themselves.
                        <SU>28</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, a debt collector may have limited access to an original creditor's system of records, which may contribute to higher dispute rates for collections tradelines compared to other components of consumer reports.
                        <SU>29</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         When debt collectors furnish to consumer reporting agencies, they generally report to one or more of the three largest nationwide consumer reporting agencies (NCRAs). Debt collections tradelines may persist on consumer reports for up to seven years; 
                        <SU>30</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         however, many collections tradelines are removed well in advance of seven years.
                        <SU>31</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>27</SU>
                             Payments made to medical balances not yet sent to collections generally are not furnished to consumer reporting agencies.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>28</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Market Snapshot: An Update on Third Party Debt Collections Tradelines Reporting,</E>
                             at 5 (Feb. 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_market-snapshot-third-party-debt-collections-tradelines-reporting_2023-02.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>29</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>30</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681c(a)(4).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>31</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Consumer credit reports: A study of medical and non-medical collections,</E>
                             at 27 (Dec. 2014), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/201412_cfpb_reports_consumer-credit-medical-and-non-medical-collections.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Historically, medical debts have been the most common type of debt on consumer reports at both the consumer-report and individual collections tradeline level. The CFPB estimated that medical collections accounted for 57 percent of all collections tradelines in Q1 2022 and 58 percent in Q2 2018.
                        <SU>32</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         When debt collectors acting as agents or assignees of health care providers furnish information about medical collections, they must notify the consumer reporting agency that they are furnishing medical information.
                        <SU>33</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The FCRA generally prohibits consumer reporting agencies from reporting to third parties the name, address, and telephone number of the health care provider for any account identified as from a medical information furnisher that has notified the consumer reporting agency of its status, unless that information is restricted or coded such that persons other than the consumer cannot identify or infer the specific provider or the nature of the medical services provided.
                        <SU>34</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Nevertheless, despite the coding of information on the consumer reports, a consumer report user could infer from the coding that certain debts relate to the provision of health care. Like with medical bills, consumers often find errors with medical collections tradeline information on their consumer reports. A CFPB analysis found that almost 6 percent of medical collections in its data were flagged as having been disputed at some point, almost three times higher than the rate of dispute flags on credit cards and seven times the rate of dispute flags on student loans.
                        <SU>35</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>32</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Market Snapshot: An Update on Third Party Debt Collections Tradelines Reporting,</E>
                             at 16-17 (Feb. 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_market-snapshot-third-party-debt-collections-tradelines-reporting_2023-02.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>33</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681s-2(a)(9).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>34</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681c(a)(6); 
                            <E T="03">see</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681s-2(a)(9) (requiring medical information furnishers to notify consumer reporting agencies of such status).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>35</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Paid and Low-Balance Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Reports</E>
                             (July 27, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/research-reports/paid-and-low-balance-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        A 2022 review of consumer complaints submitted to the CFPB found that many consumers complaining of disputed debt collection attempts reported first learning of the debt from viewing their consumer report. Consumers expressed concern with inaccurate information leading to a decrease in their credit score. Some consumers reported paying debt they did not believe they owed in order to have the tradeline removed from their consumer report.
                        <SU>36</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A 2024 review of consumer complaints found that consumers complain that debt collectors 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3280"/>
                        continue to collect on and report medical bills to credit reporting agencies even after the consumer has shown that they do not owe the amount.
                        <SU>37</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>36</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Complaint Bulletin: Medical billing and collection issues described in consumer complaints</E>
                             (Apr. 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_complaint-bulletin-medical-billing_report_2022-04.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>37</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Fair Debt Collection Practices Act: CFPB Annual Report 2024</E>
                             (Sept. 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_fdcpa-2024-annual-report_2024-09.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Some of the errors in medical collections tradelines could be due to debt collection furnishing practices. Some medical debt collectors previously used debt collection furnishing to engage in a practice known as “debt parking,” or “passive collection.” Debt collectors would report a debt to a consumer reporting agency, then wait for the consumer to notice the tradeline when, for example, applying for credit. The consumer may then pay the debt, possibly without raising any dispute as to any errors in order to access needed credit. The CFPB issued final rules on debt collection, which took effect November 30, 2021, that addressed this practice by requiring a debt collector to take certain actions intended to convey information about the debt to the consumer before furnishing information on that debt to a consumer reporting agency.
                        <SU>38</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Despite the protections offered by these rules, CFPB investigations indicate that some medical debt collectors may still be attempting to collect on medical debts that were not substantiated after consumers disputed the validity of the debts.
                        <SU>39</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>38</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             12 CFR 1006.30(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>39</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">CFPB Takes Action Against Phoenix Financial Services for Illegal Medical Debt Collection and Credit Reporting Practices</E>
                             (June 8, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/about-us/newsroom/cfpb-takes-action-against-phoenix-financial-services-for-illegal-medical-debt-collection-and-credit-reporting-practices/</E>
                            ; Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">CFPB Shuts Down Commonwealth Financial Systems for Illegal Debt Collection Practices</E>
                             (Dec. 15, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/about-us/newsroom/cfpb-shuts-down-commonwealth-financial-systems-for-illegal-debt-collection-practices/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Recent reporting changes announced by the NCRAs in 2022 and 2023 have begun to reduce the amount of medical debt reported on consumer reports and benefit some consumers. Specifically, the NCRAs announced that, starting on July 1, 2022, unpaid medical collections will not appear on a consumer's report for up to one year (an increase from 180 days), and paid medical collections will no longer be on consumer reports.
                        <SU>40</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In April 2023, the NCRAs also announced that medical collections with initial balances below $500 had been removed from consumer reports.
                        <SU>41</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>40</SU>
                             Equifax, 
                            <E T="03">First Changes to Reporting of Medical Collection Debt Roll Out July 1, 2022</E>
                             (July 1, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.equifax.com/newsroom/all-news/-/story/first-changes-to-reporting-of-medical-collection-debt-roll-out-july-1-2022</E>
                            ; Experian, 
                            <E T="03">First Changes to Reporting of Medical Collection Debt Roll Out July 1, 2022</E>
                             (July 1, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.experianplc.com/newsroom/press-releases/2022/first-changes-to-reporting-of-medical-collection-debt-roll-out-july-1-2022</E>
                            ; TransUnion, 
                            <E T="03">First Changes to Reporting of Medical Collection Debt Roll Out July 1, 2022</E>
                             (July 1, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://newsroom.transunion.com/first-changes-to-reporting-of-medical-collection-debt-roll-out-july-1-2022/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>41</SU>
                             PR Newswire, 
                            <E T="03">Equifax, Experian and TransUnion Remove Medical Collections Debt Under $500 From U.S. Credit Reports</E>
                             (Apr. 11, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.prnewswire.com/news-releases/equifax-experian-and-transunion-remove-medical-collections-debt-under-500-from-us-credit-reports-301793769.html.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB conducted an analysis of the impacts of the NCRAs' medical debt reporting changes through June 2023.
                        <SU>42</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB found that after these changes, 15 million Americans still have $49 billion in medical bills on their consumer reports. Because the medical collections tradelines removed by the NCRAs were those with low balances, the total dollar balances of medical collections on consumer reports fell by only 38 percent nationwide.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>42</SU>
                             Ryan Sandler &amp; Zachary Blizard, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Recent Changes in Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Records Data Point,</E>
                             at 3-4, 17 (Mar. 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_recent-changes-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports_2024-03.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Several States and at least one Federal agency have also enacted policies that limit the inclusion of medical debt on consumer reports.
                        <SU>43</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For example, Colorado 
                        <SU>44</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and New York 
                        <SU>45</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         each passed laws in 2023 prohibiting medical debts from appearing on consumer reports. California, Connecticut, Minnesota, New Jersey, Illinois, and Virginia followed suit earlier this year.
                        <SU>46</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Maine, in 2019, passed a law requiring consumer reporting agencies to remove medical debt upon receiving reasonable evidence that the debt has been settled or paid.
                        <SU>47</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In 2022, the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) finalized a rule providing that the VA will report medical debt to consumer reporting agencies only if all other debt collection efforts have been exhausted, the individual is not catastrophically disabled or entitled to free medical care from the VA, and the outstanding debt is over $25.
                        <SU>48</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>43</SU>
                             In 2022, the CFPB issued an interpretive rule clarifying that because FCRA's express preemption provisions have a narrow and targeted scope, States retain substantial flexibility to pass laws involving consumer reporting to reflect emerging problems affecting their local economies and citizens, including problems related to medical debt. Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">The Fair Credit Reporting Act's Limited Preemption of State Laws,</E>
                             87 FR 41042 (July 11, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>44</SU>
                             Colo. Rev. Stat. section 5-18-109.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>45</SU>
                             N.Y. Pub. Health Law art. 49-A.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>46</SU>
                             2024 Calif. SB 1061; 2024 Conn. Act 24-6; 2024 Minn. Ch. 332C; 2024 New Jersey A3681; 2024 Ill. Pub. Act 103-0648; 2024 Va. Acts ch. 751.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>47</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Consumer Data Indus. Ass'n</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Frey,</E>
                             26 F.4th 1 (1st Cir. 2022), cert. denied, 143 S. Ct. 777 (2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>48</SU>
                             U.S. Dep't of Veterans Affairs, 
                            <E T="03">Threshold for Reporting VA Debts to Consumer Reporting Agencies,</E>
                             87 FR 5693 (Feb. 2, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Current Use of Medical Debt in Credit Scoring and Underwriting</HD>
                    <P>
                        Collections tradelines are considered negative information and can lower consumers' credit scores. A 2014 CFPB analysis found that the presence of medical collections tradelines on consumer reports is less predictive of future defaults or serious delinquencies than the presence of nonmedical collections tradelines, and that consumers with paid medical debts have delinquency rates well below those of consumers with the same credit scores whose medical debts were mostly unpaid.
                        <SU>49</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Following the CFPB's publication of its research and in recognition of the limited predictive value of medical bills, major credit score providers FICO and VantageScore made changes so that newer versions of their credit scoring models differentiate between medical and nonmedical collections tradelines, give less weight to unpaid medical collections tradelines than to other collections tradelines, and ignore paid medical collections of any kind.
                        <SU>50</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In January 2023, VantageScore implemented changes to VantageScore models 3.0 and 4.0 to ignore all medical collections tradelines.
                        <SU>51</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>49</SU>
                             Kenneth P. Brevoort &amp; Michelle Kambara, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Data point: Medical debt and credit scores</E>
                             (May 2014), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/201405_cfpb_report_data-point_medical-debt-credit-scores.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>50</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Ethan Dornhelm, 
                            <E T="03">The Impact of Medical Debt on FICO Scores,</E>
                             FICO Blog (July 13, 2015), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fico.com/blogs/impact-medical-debt-ficor-scores</E>
                            ; VantageScore, 
                            <E T="03">How will changes in how medical collection accounts get reported impact credit scores?</E>
                             (July 5, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.vantagescore.com/how-will-changes-in-how-medical-collection-accounts-get-reported-impact-credit-scores/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>51</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             AnnaMaria Andriotis, 
                            <E T="03">Major Credit-Score Provider to Exclude Medical Debts,</E>
                             Wall St. J. (Aug. 10, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.wsj.com/articles/major-credit-score-provider-to-exclude-medical-debts-11660102729</E>
                             (VantageScore CEO quoted as saying that having medical debt is not necessarily reflective of a consumer's ability to pay back a loan).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Older FICO scoring models that do not differentiate between medical and nonmedical collections tradelines, however, remain common in the market. For example, while the Government-Sponsored Enterprises (GSEs), the Federal National Mortgage Association (Fannie Mae) and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (Freddie Mac), and the Federal Housing 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3281"/>
                        Administration generally do not consider medical debt in their credit risk assessments within their respective automated underwriting systems,
                        <SU>52</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the GSEs require creditors to provide credit scores derived from the older Classic FICO 
                        <SU>53</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         for each borrower on a loan that the GSEs purchase to assess eligibility for certain loan products and make certain pricing decisions.
                        <SU>54</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The GSEs and the Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) announced in 2022 that they had validated and approved two of the new credit score models that lessen the weight of or do not consider medical collections, but that transition is not expected to occur until the fourth quarter of 2025.
                        <SU>55</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>52</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Fed. Nat'l Mortg. Ass'n, 
                            <E T="03">Single Family Selling Guide,</E>
                             B3-2-03 (2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://selling-guide.fanniemae.com/#Public.20Records.2C.20Foreclosures.2C.20and.20Collection.20Accounts</E>
                             (noting that “[c]ollection accounts reported as medical collections are not used in the DU risk assessment”); Fed. Home Loan Mortg. Corp., 
                            <E T="03">The Single-Family Seller/Servicer Guide,</E>
                             5201.1 (2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://guide.freddiemac.com/app/guide/section/5201.1</E>
                            ; U.S. Dep't of Hous. &amp; Urban Dev., 
                            <E T="03">Single Family Housing Policy Handbook,</E>
                             4000.1 (2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.hud.gov/sites/dfiles/OCHCO/documents/4000.1hsgh-102021.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>53</SU>
                             The Classic FICO score is comprised of the following models: Equifax Beacon® 5.0, Experian/Fair Isaac Risk Model V2SM, and TransUnion FICO® Risk Score, Classic 04.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>54</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Fed. Nat'l Mortg. Ass'n, 
                            <E T="03">Single Family Selling Guide</E>
                             (Oct. 5, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://selling-guide.fanniemae.com/sel/b3-5.1-01/general-requirements-credit-scores.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>55</SU>
                             Fed. Hous. Fin. Agency, 
                            <E T="03">FHFA Announces Key Updates for Implementation of Enterprise Credit Score Requirements</E>
                             (Feb. 29, 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fhfa.gov/Media/PublicAffairs/Pages/FHFA-Announces-Key-Updates-for-Implementation-of-Enterprise-Credit-Score-Requirements.aspx.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. The Proposal and Other Procedural Background</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Small Business Advisory Review Panel</HD>
                    <P>
                        Pursuant to the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (SBREFA),
                        <SU>56</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the CFPB issued its Outline of Proposals and Alternatives under Consideration (Outline or SBREFA Outline).
                        <SU>57</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The SBREFA Outline addressed a number of consumer reporting topics under the FCRA, including medical debt collections information proposals under consideration. The CFPB convened a SBREFA Panel on October 16, 2023, and held Panel meetings on October 18 and 19, 2023.
                        <SU>58</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Representatives from 16 small businesses were selected as small entity representatives for this SBREFA process. These entities represented small businesses that the CFPB determined would likely be directly affected by one or more of the proposals under consideration. On December 15, 2023, the Panel completed the Final Report of the Small Business Review Panel on the CFPB's Proposals and Alternatives Under Consideration for the Consumer Reporting Rulemaking (Panel Report or SBREFA Report).
                        <SU>59</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In addition to the SBREFA Panel and Panel Report, the CFPB also invited feedback on the proposals under consideration from other stakeholders, including small stakeholders who were not small entity representatives.
                        <SU>60</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB considered the feedback related to the medical debt collection information proposals from small entity representatives and other stakeholders, as well as the findings and recommendations of the Panel, in preparing the proposed rule and this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>56</SU>
                             Pub. L. 104-121, 110 Stat. 857 (1996).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>57</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Small Business Advisory Review Panel for Consumer Reporting Rulemaking Outline of Proposals and Alternatives Under Consideration</E>
                             (Sept. 15, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_consumer-reporting-rule-sbrefa_outline-of-proposals.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>58</SU>
                             The Panel was comprised of a representative from the CFPB, the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration (Office of Advocacy), and a representative from the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA) in the Office of Management and Budget.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>59</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Final Report of the Small Business Review Panel on the CFPB's Proposals and Alternatives Under Consideration for the Consumer Reporting Rulemaking</E>
                             (Dec. 15, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_sbrefa-final-report_consumer-reporting-rulemaking_2024-01.pdf.</E>
                             The CFPB considers the Panel's findings in its final regulatory flexibility analysis, as set out in part VIII.B below.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>60</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             SBREFA Outline at 5.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Other Stakeholder Outreach</HD>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB has long been engaged in outreach and research related to medical debt information in the consumer reporting ecosystem. In 2013, the CFPB and the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) jointly hosted a public roundtable for industry and other stakeholders on the integrity of record keeping by debt collectors, debt buyers, and original creditors. Participants acknowledged that record keeping practices may introduce variability or inaccuracy to the consumer reporting systems.
                        <SU>61</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In December 2014, following the CFPB's publication of its research report, 
                        <E T="03">Data Point: Medical Debt and Credit Scores,</E>
                        <SU>62</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the CFPB issued a study of medical and nonmedical collections tradelines on consumer reports that assessed the furnishing practices of debt collectors and debt buyers, the incidence and type of collections tradelines on consumer reports, and differences between medical and nonmedical debt reporting.
                        <SU>63</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB has continued to monitor the incidence of medical debt on consumer reports and released several other market analyses and research reports on medical debt collection and consumer reporting between 2019 and 2024.
                        <SU>64</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>61</SU>
                             Fed. Trade Comm'n &amp; Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Roundtable on Data Integrity in Debt Collection: Life of a Debt</E>
                             (2013), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/news-events/events/2013/06/life-debt-data-integrity-debt-collection.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>62</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Kenneth P. Brevoort &amp; Michelle Kambara, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Data point: Medical debt and credit scores</E>
                             (May 2014), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/201405_cfpb_report_data-point_medical-debt-credit-scores.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>63</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Consumer credit reports: A study of medical and non-medical collections</E>
                             (Dec. 2014), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/201412_cfpb_reports_consumer-credit-medical-and-non-medical-collections.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>64</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Market Snapshot: Third-Party Debt Collections Tradeline Reporting</E>
                             (July 2019), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/201907_cfpb_third-party-debt-collections_report.pdf;</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Market Snapshot: An Update on Third-Party Debt Collections Tradeline Reporting</E>
                             (Feb. 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_market-snapshot-third-party-debt-collections-tradelines-reporting_2023-02.pdf;</E>
                             Ryan Sandler &amp; Zachary Blizard, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Recent Changes in Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Records Data Point,</E>
                             at 3-4, 17 (Mar. 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_recent-changes-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports_2024-03.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In developing this final rule and the proposed rule, the CFPB consulted with staff from various Federal agencies to discuss aspects of its proposal, in accordance with CFPA section 1022(b)(2)(B). Specifically, the CFPB met with staff from the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Office of Comptroller of the Currency, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the National Credit Union Administration (NCUA), the FTC, the Department of Health and Human Services, Department of Housing and Urban Development, the FHFA, the Small Business Administration, the VA, and the Department of Agriculture.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Summary of the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        On June 11, 2024, the CFPB issued a notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) containing several proposed amendments to Regulation V, which implements the FCRA, concerning medical information.
                        <SU>65</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The NPRM was published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on June 18, 2024.
                        <SU>66</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB proposed that the final rule, if adopted, would 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3282"/>
                        take effect sixty days after the date it is published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>65</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Prohibition on Creditors and Consumer Reporting Agencies Concerning Medical Information (Regulation V)</E>
                             (June 11, 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/rules-policy/rules-under-development/prohibition-on-creditors-and-consumer-reporting-agencies-concerning-medical-information-regulation-v/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>66</SU>
                             89 FR 51682 (June 18, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In the proposed rule, the CFPB discussed how Congress recognized that a consumer's medical information is particularly sensitive, warranting heightened privacy protections. The CFPB explained while Congress did permit the Agencies to create exceptions, Congress mandated that the Agencies determine that any exception be “necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs” and consistent with the congressional intent “to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes.” 
                        <SU>67</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Based on the CFPB's understanding of how consumer medical debt differs from other types of consumer debt and its uses in credit underwriting, the CFPB preliminarily determined that creditors' use of medical debt in underwriting does not meet that statutory standard, as a result, does not warrant an exception to the medical information privacy protections established by Congress.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>67</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(5).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB proposed targeted amendments to Regulation V that would: (1) remove the financial information exception which broadly permits creditors to obtain and use medical financial information (including information about medical debt) in connection with credit eligibility determinations, while retaining select elements of the exception related to income, benefits, and loan purpose; and (2) limit the circumstances under which consumer reporting agencies are permitted to furnish medical debt information to creditors in connection with credit eligibility determinations.</P>
                    <P>Under the proposed rule, a creditor would no longer be able to obtain or use medical information related to debts, expenses, assets, or collateral, in connection with a credit eligibility determination, unless a specific exception otherwise applies to the creditor's consideration of the medical information. And a consumer reporting agency generally would be prohibited from furnishing to a creditor a consumer report containing medical debt information in connection with a credit eligibility determination.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB also explained in the proposed rule that as a result of these changes, consumers' sensitive medical information would be protected, and consumers would no longer be unfairly penalized in the credit market for having medical debt. Consumers with and without medical debt would have equal access to credit at comparable terms and debt collectors would have less leverage over consumers to pressure consumers into paying medical debts that they may not owe.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Comments</HD>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB received over 74,000 comments on the proposal.
                        <SU>68</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Around 2,000 of these comments were unique comment letters. These commenters included: consumers; consumer advocacy groups; consumer reporting, debt collection, and banking trade groups; economic research and taxpayer advocacy groups; governmental entities, including members of Congress; medical, dental and hospital practitioner groups; and patient advocacy groups.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>68</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See https://www.regulations.gov/document/CFPB-2024-0023-0001/comment.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The remaining comments included some duplicate submissions (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         letters with the same content from the same commenter submitted through multiple channels, or letters with the same content submitted by multiple people on behalf of the same commenting organization) as well as comments that appeared to be part of several comment submission campaigns. Such comment campaigns typically advocated for or against particular provisions in the proposal and urged additional changes.
                    </P>
                    <P>The CFPB considered all the comments it received regarding the proposal, made certain modifications, and is adopting the final rule as described in part IV below.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Legal Authority</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. CFPA Section 1022(b)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 1022(b)(1) of the CFPA authorizes the CFPB to prescribe rules “as may be necessary or appropriate to enable the [CFPB] to administer and carry out the purposes and objectives of the Federal consumer financial laws, and to prevent evasions thereof.” 
                        <SU>69</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The term “Federal consumer financial laws” includes the “enumerated consumer laws,” which include the FCRA.
                        <SU>70</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>69</SU>
                             12 U.S.C. 5512(b)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>70</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             12 U.S.C. 5481(12), (14).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Section 1022(b)(2) of the CFPA prescribes certain standards for rulemaking that the CFPB must follow in issuing rules under Federal consumer financial laws.
                        <SU>71</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For a discussion of the CFPB's standards for rulemaking under CFPA section 1022(b)(2), see part VII below.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>71</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             12 U.S.C. 5512(b)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Fair Credit Reporting Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        The FCRA was enacted in 1970 and was one of the world's first data privacy laws. The law was enacted after growing public concern about the lack of regulation concerning the widespread dissemination of sensitive information about Americans. One of Congress's main purposes in passing the FCRA was a respect for the consumer's right to privacy.
                        <SU>72</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The law has been amended several times in the ensuing years, including by the FACT Act.
                        <SU>73</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For example, Congress, through the FACT Act, amended the FCRA to include additional protections for consumer privacy, such as restricting the use and transfer of sensitive medical information, enhancing the ability of consumers to combat identity theft, increasing the accuracy of consumer reports, and allowing consumers to exercise greater control regarding the type and amount of marketing solicitations they receive.
                        <SU>74</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>72</SU>
                             FCRA section 602(a)(4) (15 U.S.C. 1681(a)(4)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>73</SU>
                             Pub. L. 108-159 (Dec. 4, 2003). Congress also enacted specific protections for servicemembers and veterans, including with respect to medical debt and credit monitoring. Economic Growth, Regulatory Relief, and Consumer Protection Act, Pub. L. 115-174, section 302, 132 Stat. 1296, 1333 (2018).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>74</SU>
                             H. Rep. No. 108-396, at 1 (2003) (Conf. Rep.); S. Rep. No. 108-166, at 3 (2003) (Conf. Rep.).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The FCRA governs the collection, assembly, and use of consumer report information and provides the framework for the consumer reporting system in the United States. The FCRA regulates the practices of consumer reporting agencies that collect and compile consumer information into consumer reports for use by creditors, insurance companies, employers, landlords, and other entities in making eligibility decisions affecting consumers. The FCRA also limits the circumstances under which persons, such as creditors, may obtain and use consumer report information from consumer reporting agencies.</P>
                    <P>
                        The FCRA was enacted to (1) prevent the misuse of sensitive consumer information by limiting recipients to those who have a legitimate need for it; (2) improve the accuracy and integrity of consumer reports; and (3) promote the efficiency of the nation's banking and consumer credit systems.
                        <SU>75</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         An important purpose of the FCRA is to enable creditors to make appropriate credit decisions based on accurate consumer reporting information that truly reflects whether a consumer will repay a loan, while simultaneously 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3283"/>
                        protecting the privacy of consumer data.
                        <SU>76</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>75</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Safeco Ins. Co. of Am.</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Burr,</E>
                             551 U.S. 47, 52 (2007); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681(a)(4) (recognizing “a need to insure that consumer reporting agencies exercise their grave responsibilities with fairness, impartiality, and a respect for the consumer's right to privacy”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>76</SU>
                             S. Rep. No. 91-517, at 1 (1969); 
                            <E T="03">see also Trans Union Corp.</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">FTC,</E>
                             81 F.3d 228, 234 (D.C. Cir. 1996).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">FCRA Section 621(e)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Effective July 21, 2011, section 1088 of the CFPA made conforming amendments to the FCRA, transferring rulemaking authority under much of the FCRA, except with respect to sections 615(e) and 628 and with respect to certain motor vehicle dealers, to the CFPB. Section 621(e) of the FCRA authorizes the CFPB to issue regulations as “necessary or appropriate to administer and carry out the purposes and objectives of [the FCRA], and to prevent evasions thereof or to facilitate compliance therewith.” 
                        <SU>77</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>77</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CFPA section 1088(a)(10)(E) (15 U.S.C. 1681s(e)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">FCRA Section 604(g)(2) and (5)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Through the FACT Act, Congress added, in FCRA section 604(g)(2), a broad new limitation on the ability of creditors to obtain or use medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit.
                        <SU>78</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Congress also limited the circumstances under which consumer reporting agencies could furnish consumer reports containing medical information for credit, employment, or insurance purposes,
                        <SU>79</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and generally required consumer reporting agencies providing consumer reports not to furnish contact information for medical information furnishers—who were also required to identify themselves to consumer reporting agencies 
                        <SU>80</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                        —without restrictions or coding “that do not identify, or provide information sufficient to infer, the specific provider or the nature of such services, products, or devices to a person other than the consumer.” 
                        <SU>81</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Congress also broadly defined medical information in FCRA section 603(i) to include “information or data . . . created or derived from a health care provider or the consumer, that relates to . . . the payment for the provision of health care to an individual.” 
                        <SU>82</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>78</SU>
                             FACT Act sections 411(a), 412(f)(2), 117 Stat. 1999-2000, 2003 (15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(2)). FCRA section 604(g)(2) provides: “Except as permitted pursuant to paragraph (3)(C) or regulations prescribed under paragraph (5)(A), a creditor shall not obtain or use medical information (other than medical information treated in the manner required under section 1681c(a)(6) of this title) pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit.” 15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>79</SU>
                             FACT Act section 411(a), 117 Stat. 2000 (15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(1)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>80</SU>
                             FACT Act section 412(a), 117 Stat. 2002 (15 U.S.C. 1681s-2(a)(9)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>81</SU>
                             FACT Act section 412(b), 117 Stat. 2002 (15 U.S.C. 1681c(a)(6)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>82</SU>
                             FACT Act section 411(c), 117 Stat. 2001 (15 U.S.C. 1681a(i)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Congress initially granted rulemaking authority to the Agencies to make exceptions to the limitation on creditors obtaining and using medical information that are necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs (including administrative verification purposes), consistent with congressional intent to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes.
                        <SU>83</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Pursuant to this authority, the Agencies promulgated final rules that, among other things, implemented the statute's general prohibition on creditors obtaining or using medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit and created exceptions to the prohibition.
                        <SU>84</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>83</SU>
                             FACT Act section 411(a), 117 Stat. 2001 (15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(5)(A)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>84</SU>
                             70 FR 70664 (Nov. 22, 2005). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             interim final rules published at 70 FR 33958 (June 10, 2005).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Agencies' final rules contain the financial information exception for creditors obtaining and using medical information in credit eligibility determinations.
                        <SU>85</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The financial information exception consists of a three-part test which allows creditors to use medical information in connection with credit eligibility determinations so long as (1) the information is the type of information routinely used in making credit eligibility determinations; (2) the creditor uses the information in a manner and to an extent no less favorably than comparable nonmedical information; and (3) the creditor does not take the consumer's physical, mental, or behavioral health, condition or history, type of treatment, or prognosis into account when making the determination. The Agencies stated that the “three-part test strikes a balance between permitting creditors to obtain and use certain medical information about consumers when necessary and appropriate to satisfy prudent underwriting criteria and to ensure that credit is extended in a safe and sound manner, while restricting the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes.” 
                        <SU>86</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Although the Agencies explained the boundaries of their three-part test, and gave responses to commenters on various examples, they did not provide evidence or reasoning to support the main conclusion that an exception from a congressionally created legal requirement was warranted, other than a single conclusory sentence in the proposed rule stating that “[a] creditor should not be prohibited from obtaining or using information about a debt, for example, in connection with making a credit decision, just because that debt happens to be for medical products or services.” 
                        <SU>87</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>85</SU>
                             70 FR 70664, 70667 (Nov. 22, 2005).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>86</SU>
                             69 FR 23380, 23384 (Apr. 28, 2004).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>87</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Agencies' final rules also identified a limited number of other particular purposes for which a creditor may use medical information in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit.
                        <SU>88</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For example, a creditor may use medical information in credit eligibility determinations to comply with applicable requirements of local, State, or Federal laws.
                        <SU>89</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Agencies found that this exception, and the other enumerated specific exceptions, are necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs (including administrative verification purposes), and are consistent with the congressional intent to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes.
                        <SU>90</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>88</SU>
                             70 FR 70664, 70668 (Nov. 22, 2005).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>89</SU>
                             This exception is restated at § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>90</SU>
                             69 FR 23380, 23382 (Apr. 28, 2004).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Congress (through the CFPA) transferred to the CFPB primary regulatory authority for the FCRA.
                        <SU>91</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB restated the Agencies' regulations as an interim final rule, with request for comment, on December 21, 2011.
                        <SU>92</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         On April 28, 2016, the CFPB finalized the interim final rule without assessing or otherwise reconsidering the policy decisions and justifications that served as the basis for the regulations.
                        <SU>93</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>91</SU>
                             Title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Pub. L. 111-203, section 1088, 124 Stat. 1376, 1955 (2010).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>92</SU>
                             76 FR 79308 (Dec. 21, 2011).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>93</SU>
                             81 FR 25323 (Apr. 28, 2016).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As a result of the transfer of authority, FCRA section 604(g)(5) now authorizes the CFPB to prescribe regulations to create exceptions from the statutory prohibition on obtaining or using medical information in connection with determinations of credit eligibility. However, the CFPB must determine that such exceptions to the general prohibition in FCRA section 604(g)(2) are necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs (including administrative verification purposes), consistent with the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3284"/>
                        congressional intent to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes.
                        <SU>94</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Because the CFPB has determined that a regulatory exception for certain financial information is not necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs (including administrative verification purposes), the CFPB is removing the exception. This ensures that only exceptions that are necessary and appropriate, consistent with the CFPB's rulemaking authority under FCRA section 604(g)(5), remain in § 1022.30.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>94</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(5).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">FCRA Section 604(a) Permissible Purposes and Related Provisions</HD>
                    <P>
                        The FCRA protects consumer privacy in multiple ways, including by clearly prohibiting certain uses of data and limiting the circumstances under which consumer reporting agencies may disclose consumer information. FCRA section 604, entitled 
                        <E T="03">Permissible purposes of consumer reports,</E>
                         identifies an exclusive list of permissible purposes for which consumer reporting agencies may provide consumer reports.
                        <SU>95</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The statute states that a consumer reporting agency may provide consumer reports under these circumstances “and no other.” In addition, FCRA section 607(a) requires that “[e]very consumer reporting agency shall maintain reasonable procedures designed to . . . limit the furnishing of consumer reports to the purposes listed under section 604.” 
                        <SU>96</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>95</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681b(a). Other sections of the FCRA identify additional limited circumstances under which consumer reporting agencies are permitted or required to disclose certain information to government agencies. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681f, 1681u, 1681v; 
                            <E T="03">see also, e.g., FTC</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Manager, Retail Credit Co., Miami Beach Branch Off.,</E>
                             515 F.2d 988, 994-95 (D.C. Cir. 1975) (holding that 15 U.S.C. 1681s(a) authorizes the FTC to obtain consumer reports in FCRA enforcement investigations). Further, the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996, Pub. L. 104-134, section 31001(m)(1), 110 Stat. 1321-366, allows the head of an executive, judicial, or legislative agency to obtain a consumer report under certain circumstances relating to debt collection. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 U.S.C. 3711(h).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>96</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681e(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In addition to imposing permissible purpose limitations on consumer reporting agencies, the FCRA limits the circumstances under which third parties may obtain and use consumer report information from consumer reporting agencies. FCRA section 604(f) provides that a person shall not use or obtain a consumer report unless the consumer report is obtained for a purpose for which the consumer report is authorized to be furnished under FCRA section 604 and the purpose is certified in accordance with FCRA section 607 by a prospective user of the report.
                        <SU>97</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>97</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681b(f).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The FCRA's permissible purpose provisions are thus a key component to the statute's protection of consumer privacy. Consumers suffer harm when consumer reporting agencies provide consumer reports to persons who are not authorized to receive the information or when recipients of consumer reports obtain or use such reports for purposes other than permissible purposes. These harms include the invasion of consumers' privacy, as well as reputational, emotional, physical, and economic harms.</P>
                    <P>Because the CFPB is removing the financial information exception, which broadly permitted creditors to obtain and use medical financial information (including information about medical debt) in connection with credit eligibility determinations, creditors generally will no longer have a permissible purpose for consumer reports containing medical debt information.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Discussion of the Final Rule</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Overview of the CFPB's Approach</HD>
                    <P>As discussed above, the CFPB proposed to amend Regulation V to remove a regulatory exception from the limitation in the FCRA on creditors obtaining or using information on medical debts for credit eligibility determinations. The CFPB also proposed that a consumer reporting agency generally may not furnish to a creditor a consumer report containing information on medical debt that the creditor is prohibited from using.</P>
                    <P>
                        Congress restricted a creditor's ability to obtain or use a consumer's medical information in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit.
                        <SU>98</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         When the Agencies issued the current regulatory exception to the statutory prohibition, they did so without providing evidence or reasoning to support their main conclusion that an exception from a congressionally created legal requirement was warranted. Research has shown that medical debt has limited predictive value for credit underwriting purposes. Market participants, including in the consumer reporting industry and those most financially incentivized to assess the predictive value of medical debt, have reduced their reliance on medical debt in recognition of its limited utility.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>98</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB proposed this rule to address concerns that the regulatory exception to the medical information privacy protections established by Congress, which allows creditors to use medical debt information for underwriting, is not necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs, nor consistent with the intent to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes. The CFPB proposed removing the broad regulatory exception—while retaining select elements of the exception related to income, benefits, and loan purpose—and limiting the circumstances under which consumer reporting agencies are permitted to furnish medical debt information to creditors in connection with credit eligibility determinations.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB is adopting the same general approach in the final rule, with some modifications, as discussed herein.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Comments Received on the CFPB's Proposed Approach Generally</HD>
                    <P>Comments received by the CFPB on the proposal, and responses thereto, are discussed in more detail throughout this notice. The following is a synopsis of comments received on the CFPB's proposed approach generally.</P>
                    <P>Commenters, including consumer advocate groups and consumers (generally in the form of a comment submission campaign), supported the CFPB's proposal, noting that the rule would align with congressional intent behind the FCRA, as amended by the FACT Act, and agreeing that medical debt information should be treated differently than other debt information. Commenters stated that the proposed rule is within the CFPB's legal authority under FCRA sections 621(e) and 604(g)(5) and will promote the FCRA's objectives as to the accuracy, fairness, and privacy of consumer information—given that medical debt is often inaccurate or error prone, is inconsistently reported, and has limited predictive value for credit underwriting. Commenters also stated that medical debt disproportionately impacts vulnerable populations and the CFPB's proposal would mitigate medical debt's negative impacts on consumers' health decisions and financial well-being, including by increasing consumers' access to credit.</P>
                    <P>
                        Other commenters including industry commenters and consumers opposed the CFPB's proposal, asserting that it is arbitrary and capricious, exceeds the CFPB's legal authority, and conflicts with FCRA, as amended by the FACT 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3285"/>
                        Act, and other laws. Commenters disagreed with the proposal's evidence that medical debt information has limited predictive value and asserted it is necessary for credit underwriting purposes and should not be treated differently than other debt information. Commenters stated that the CFPB's proposal would undermine the fairness and accuracy of credit reports and have negative impacts on consumers' ability to repair credit scores by making payments on collection tradelines and on creditors' ability to accurately assess creditworthiness—resulting in less-qualified consumers becoming overleveraged and well-qualified consumers experiencing decreased access to credit. Commenters also contended that the CFPB's proposal could result in lost income for medical providers, higher healthcare costs for consumers, and increased debt collection litigation.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Removal of the Financial Information Exception to the Creditor Prohibition on Obtaining or Using Medical Information</HD>
                    <P>
                        The creditor prohibition in section 604(g)(2) of the FCRA,
                        <SU>99</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         incorporated at Regulation V § 1022.30(b), restricts creditors from obtaining or using (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         considering) medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit. Regulatory exceptions to this prohibition are at current § 1022.30(d) and (e), which are respectively titled “Financial information exception for obtaining and using medical information” (financial information exception) and “Specific exceptions for obtaining and using medical information”.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>99</SU>
                             FCRA section 604(g)(2) (15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(2)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB proposed removing the financial information exception at § 1022.30(d). For the reasons discussed in part IV.B.1, 
                        <E T="03">Medical Information Related to Debts,</E>
                         and part IV.B.2, 
                        <E T="03">Medical Information Related to Expenses, Assets, and Collateral,</E>
                         the CFPB is finalizing this change as proposed. The CFPB also proposed retaining certain elements of the financial information exception related to income, benefits, and purpose of the loan by moving relevant provisions to the list of specific exceptions to the creditor prohibition at § 1022.30(e). For reasons discussed in part IV.B.3, 
                        <E T="03">Medical Information Related to Income, Benefits, or the Purpose of the Loan,</E>
                         the CFPB is finalizing its proposal to retain elements of the financial information exception as to income, benefits, and the purpose of the loan. The CFPB has also revised the proposed text for the revised exception to include medical information contained in the transaction information of an account for a consumer financial product or service described in 12 CFR 1033.111(b)(1) through (3), and accessed with the consumer's authorization, as discussed in part VI.A, 
                        <E T="03">Consumer-Authorized Transaction History.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, the CFPB proposed adding a definition for “medical debt information” at § 1022.3(j). The CFPB is finalizing the definition as proposed for the reasons discussed in the relevant portion of the discussion in part IV.B.1, 
                        <E T="03">Medical Information Related to Debts.</E>
                         The CFPB also proposed and is finalizing conforming amendments to § 1022.30(c) to remove the reference to the financial information exception in § 1022.30(d), because the exception is removed under the final rule. Further, the CFPB proposed and is finalizing the removal of an example at existing § 1022.30(c)(3)(iii), which the CFPB discusses further in part IV.C, 
                        <E T="03">Limits on a Consumer Reporting Agency's Disclosure of Medical Debt Information.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the NPRM, the CFPB explained that Congress had put in place strong privacy protections for consumers' medical information in the FCRA, including by enacting the creditor prohibition through FCRA section 604(g)(2).
                        <SU>100</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Congress also provided additional protections by stipulating that the CFPB may permit exceptions to the creditor prohibition only when the CFPB has determined the exceptions to be “necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs . . . consistent with the intent of [FCRA section 604(g)(2)] to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes.” 
                        <SU>101</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>100</SU>
                             As described above, Congress also limited the circumstances under which consumer reporting agencies can provide consumer reports containing medical information for credit, employment, or insurance purposes, and required consumer reporting agencies to restrict or code contact information for medical information furnishers. 15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(1), 1681c(a)(6).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>101</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(5).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB further explained that, consistent with the general creditor prohibition in FCRA section 604(g)(2), current § 1022.30(b)(1) states: “A creditor may not obtain or use medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit, except as provided in this section.” The CFPB also noted that in 2005, before the CFPA transferred primary regulatory authority for the FCRA to the CFPB, the Agencies adopted the exceptions to this prohibition that are now codified in the financial information exception at § 1022.30(d) and the list of specific exception at § 1022.30(e) (listing specific exceptions).</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB also explained that the financial information exception allows a creditor to consider medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit if the conditions of the following three-part test are met: (1) the information is the type routinely used in making credit eligibility determinations, such as information relating to debts, expenses, income, benefits, assets, collateral, or the purpose of the loan, including the use of proceeds; (2) the creditor uses the medical information in a manner and to an extent no less favorable than it would use comparable information that is not medical information; and (3) the creditor does not take the consumer's physical, mental, or behavioral health, condition or history, type of treatment, or prognosis into account as part of the credit eligibility determination.
                        <SU>102</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>102</SU>
                             12 CFR 1022.30(d)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB observed that the predecessor Agencies had stated that it was their belief that the financial information exception struck a balance between permitting creditors to obtain and use certain medical information about consumers when necessary and appropriate to satisfy prudent underwriting criteria and ensuring that credit is extended in a safe and sound manner, while restricting the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes.
                        <SU>103</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, the CFPB noted that the Agencies had not cited evidence or provided analysis in support of this statement of their conclusion.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>103</SU>
                             Fair Credit Reporting Medical Information Regulations (2004 NPRM), 69 FR 23380, 23384 (Apr. 28, 2004).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Comments received in response to specific aspects of the CFPB's proposal to remove the financial information exception, and the CFPB's reasons for finalizing its proposed removal of the exception with regard to each such aspect, are discussed separately below in this part IV.B, 
                        <E T="03">Removal of the Financial Information Exception to the Creditor Prohibition on Obtaining or Using Medical Information.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Medical Information Related to Debts</HD>
                    <P>
                        In its proposal, the CFPB explained that by proposing to eliminate the financial information exception, the CFPB was generally proposing to prohibit creditors from considering, in 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3286"/>
                        connection with credit eligibility determinations, certain financial information related to consumers' medical debts.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The financial information exception currently permits a creditor to consider certain medical information related to a consumer's debts in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit.
                        <SU>104</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Such medical information related to medical debt includes, for example, “[t]he dollar amount, repayment terms, repayment history, and similar information regarding medical debts to calculate, measure, or verify the repayment ability of the consumer, the use of proceeds, or the terms for granting credit” 
                        <SU>105</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and “[t]he identity of creditors to whom outstanding medical debts are owed in connection with an application for credit, including but not limited to, a transaction involving the consolidation of medical debts” 
                        <SU>106</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         (collectively referred to herein as financial information).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>104</SU>
                             12 CFR 1022.30(d)(1)(i).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>105</SU>
                             12 CFR 1022.30(d)(2)(i)(A).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>106</SU>
                             12 CFR 1022.30(d)(2)(i)(D).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Thus, under the CFPB's proposal, which the CFPB is finalizing as proposed for the reasons discussed in this part IV.B.1, a creditor would no longer be able to consider such medical information related to a consumer's medical debt, unless one of the specific exceptions in final § 1022.30(e) applies. Specifically, as discussed in further detail below, the CFPB is finalizing its interpretation as set forth in the proposed rule that for information about a consumer's debt to be “medical information” under FCRA section 603(i), the information must relate to a debt the consumer owes, or at one time owed, directly to a health care provider or to the health care provider's agent or assignee for the provision of the health care underlying the payment obligation. The CFPB is also finalizing its definition of medical debt information in final § 1022.3(j), as medical information that pertains to a debt owed by a consumer to a person whose primary business is providing medical services, products, or devices (also referred to herein as a health care provider), or to the person's agent or assignee, for the provision of such medical services, products, or devices. The definition also provides that medical debt information includes, but is not limited to, medical bills that are not past due or that have been paid. Further, the CFPB has concluded that it generally is neither “necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs,” nor consistent with Congress's intent “to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes,” for creditors to consider sensitive financial information concerning a consumer's medical debt in underwriting.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Preliminary Interpretation—Owes or Owed to a Health Care Provider</HD>
                    <P>FCRA section 603(i)'s definition of “medical information,” incorporated in Regulation V at § 1022.3(k), informs the types of medical debt that creditors are generally prohibited from considering, but for which the financial information exception currently applies. Medical information is defined as “[i]nformation or data, whether oral or recorded, in any form or medium, created by or derived from a health care provider or the consumer” that relates to, among other things, “[t]he payment for the provision of health care to an individual.”</P>
                    <P>
                        In its proposal, the CFPB explained that with regard to “[t]he payment for the provision of health care to an individual”—
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the subset of “medical information” concerning debt—the CFPB proposed to interpret FCRA section 603(i) to mean that medical information about a consumer's debt must relate to a debt the consumer owes, or at one time owed (for example, in the case of paid medical debt), directly to a health care provider or to the health care provider's agent or assignee.
                        <SU>107</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Specifically, the CFPB stated that the statute provides that medical information is information or data “created by or derived from a health care provider or the consumer” that relates to “the payment for the provision of health care to an individual.” And, as a result, the CFPB preliminarily interpreted the statute's use of the phrase “provision of health care,” following the requirement that the medical information must be “created by or derived from a health care provider or the consumer,” to mean that for information on a debt to be medical information under the FCRA, the information must relate to a debt arising from a payment obligation that the consumer owes (or at one time owed) directly to a health care provider for the provision of the health care underlying the payment obligation.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>107</SU>
                             The CFPB explained that its use of the word “owed” referred to the characterization of the debt by the health care provider or its agent or assignee.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB also stated that its preliminary interpretation would include medical debt that had been sold or resold to a debt buyer, who had become the health provider's assignee for the debt, because the payment obligation that was sold was created by a health care provider and at one time was owed to the health care provider. It would also include medical debt that had been assigned to a third-party debt collector, who was acting as an agent on behalf of the health care provider, or debt buyer to whom the debt was owed.
                        <SU>108</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Further, it would include medical information in the form of a civil judgment arising from a debt collection action as to a medical debt directly owed to a health care provider or debt buyer, whether provided on a consumer report, by the consumer on a credit application, or if the creditor learned of the civil judgment through other means; a credit score that had weighed medical debt information; and debts arising from medical care that is elective, or otherwise not medically necessary (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         some cosmetic surgeries).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>108</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Cf.</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681s-2(a)(9) (providing that the term “medical information furnisher” includes the “agent or assignee” of a medical provider).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB further explained that because medical information on a consumer's debt must relate to a debt the consumer owes (or owed) directly to a health care provider under the CFPB's preliminary interpretation, medical debt would not include a debt owed to a third-party lender (including a medical credit card issuer whose products are offered specifically for the payment of medical services or general purpose credit card issuer), from whom a consumer took out a loan to pay medical expenses or bills. The CFPB noted that such loans would be new debt obligations used to pay the medical debt obligation owed to a health care provider. Moreover, the CFPB also preliminarily concluded that debts owed to such third-party lenders are distinguishable from debts that health care providers have sold to debt buyers because medical debts are assigned to such debt buyers, but not to third-party lenders.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB sought comment on its approach and on whether, in the alternative, information about debts generally incurred to pay for medical bills and expenses should be considered to be “medical information” that is “derived” from a health care provider or consumer. The CFPB also sought comment on the feasibility of furnishing such medical debt information under this latter approach to consumer reporting agencies and reporting to creditors in a way that distinguishes between loan obligations and disbursements that pay for medical expenses and those that do not.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3287"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>In consideration of its preliminary interpretation of FCRA section 603(i), the CFPB also proposed adding a definition for medical debt information at § 1022.3(j) to facilitate compliance with various aspects of the proposed rule. As explained in the NPRM, the CFPB's intent was for the definition of medical debt information under proposed § 1022.3(j) to align with the scope of information about medical debt (also referred to herein as medical debt information) that creditors would be prohibited from considering if the financial information exception is removed.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB's proposed medical debt definition, comments received in response to the proposed definition, and the CFPB's responses are generally discussed later in this part. To the extent commenters raised issues related to and about the CFPB's preliminary interpretation of medical debt information under FCRA section 603(i) in the context of their discussion of other aspects of the CFPB's proposal, including of the proposed definition at § 1022.3(j), such issues are generally addressed immediately below.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Comments—Preliminary Interpretation: Owes or Owed to a Health Care Provider</HD>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB received a number of comments related to and about its preliminary interpretation of medical information under FCRA section 603(i), that medical information about a consumer's debt must relate to a debt the consumer owes, or at one time owed, directly to a health care provider or to the health care provider's agent or assignee. Comments also discussed the corresponding scope of the proposed medical debt information definition at § 1022.3(j) in relation to medical debt owed to third-party lenders, information about civil judgments arising from medical debt collection litigation, and credit scores that weighed medical debt information.
                        <SU>109</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>109</SU>
                             The CFPB also received comments addressing its preliminary interpretation that information about a debt originally owed to a health care provider that has been sold and resold to a debt buyer or assigned to a third-party debt collector is generally medical information. These comments are discussed with comments about the CFPB's proposed medical debt information definition (§ 1022.3(j)) later in this part.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Third-Party Lenders</HD>
                    <P>A number of commenters agreed with the CFPB's position that medical debt directly owed to a health care provider, or to their agent or assignee, should be information about medical debt that is subject to the creditor prohibition. One such commenter, who generally supported the CFPB's proposal, stated that the CFPB's interpretation of FCRA section 603(i) would protect consumers' sensitive medical information and prevent the mischaracterization or improper assignments of debts arising from services directly provided by health care professionals. However, the commenter, and many others that also substantially supported the CFPB's proposal, expressed concern that the CFPB's proposed interpretation and proposed medical debt information definition did not also include information about medical debts incurred by a consumer that had been paid for with third-party lender payment products. Some of these commenters urged the CFPB to revise its preliminary interpretation as to medical debt information under FCRA section 603(i) and/or its proposed definition under § 1022.3(j) to include information about such debts owed to third-party lenders.</P>
                    <P>Specifically, commenters stated that the CFPB should include other sources of medical debt, such as general purpose credit cards, medical credit cards, medical installment loans, loans owed to friends and family, and loans owed to third-party lenders, within the scope of the rulemaking. While some commenters urged the CFPB to include all types of third-party loan products, many commenters specifically emphasized that medical debt incurred through medical credit cards and general purpose credit cards should be included. Others requested that the CFPB include medical credit cards without mention of general purpose credit cards. Some commenters urged the CFPB to more broadly include third-party medical payment or lending products specifically meant to pay for medical care, such as medical credit cards (including those used to pay dental expenses) or medical financing plans.</P>
                    <P>
                        With regard to credit cards, commenters stated that credit cards are a significant source of medical debt, with some commenters flagging that they are prevalently used by specific populations like older Americans or patients with chronic conditions or cancer. These commenters also stated that the same reasons that make information about medical debt unfair and unreliable indicators of a consumer's creditworthiness (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         that the debts are often incurred on an involuntary and unexpected basis so that consumers have little ability to compare and negotiate prices) also apply to medical debt paid for with these kinds of third-party lending products. The commenters expressed concern that not including medical debt from these types of products within the scope of the CFPB's final rule would leave consumers with such debt without the protections of the rule. One commenter stated that a broad interpretation of the term medical information and medical debt information definition would provide flexibility to capture future types of medical financing.
                    </P>
                    <P>With regard to medical payment products, commenters stated that if the CFPB's final rule does not apply to debts owed to issuers of medical payment products, such debts could become a loophole that would result in more medical providers promoting or requiring the use of these products, particularly if there is general shift towards requiring upfront payment for medical services. One commenter cited Arizona's Predatory Debt Collection Protection Act as an example of the importance of ensuring that such types of debt are included in the final definition. The commenter stated that although the Arizona law limits the maximum interest rate on medical debt to 3 percent, the law does not consider credit cards or loans taken out to pay for medical debt to be subject to the interest rate ceiling. And, as a result, there are medical credit cards charging Arizona residents significantly more than 3 percent interest.</P>
                    <P>With regard to medical credit cards, some commenters stated that medical credit cards can be more expensive than other forms of payment, may be advertised with low promotional interest rates but later have much higher interest rates, and may be used to pay for expenses that the consumer never incurred. Other commenters stated that consumers may be misled or not fully informed about such cards by their medical providers and in some instances may not even be aware that they are opening up a credit account. Commenters also noted that the use of medical credit cards is increasing, citing factors such as how they are being used to finance a growing array of medical services that may or may not be covered by health insurance, the trend of health insurance practices shifting costs to patients through high deductible and limited network plans, and that medical providers may be motivated to promote medical credit cards' use to reduce administrative billing costs and improve the timeliness of consumer payments. A couple of commenters also noted that some states, like Connecticut and New York, already restrict the medical debt from being on credit reports, including if charged to a medical credit card.</P>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters stated that expanding the CFPB's preliminary 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3288"/>
                        interpretation of medical debt information and proposed definition would be consistent with the FCRA. A couple of commenters stated that the CFPB should consider information about debts generally incurred to pay for medical bills and expenses to be “medical information” that is “derived” from a health care provider or consumer under FCRA section 603(i). Another commenter made a similar argument, specifically as to medical credit cards. One commenter suggesting that the interpretation and proposed definition should include all purchases for medical services, products and devices, irrespective of the type of financing, stated that these changes would be consistent with the FCRA, because a consumer creates medical information by seeking out and obtaining medical services, products or devices and creates a payment obligation through intermediary payment methods by opening up a credit card or medical payment product where they bear the financial obligation. The commenter cited, as an example, a definition for “medical debt” in legislation under consideration in Congress, which provides that a medical debt is a debt related to, in whole or in part, transactions, accounts, or balances arising from the receipt of medical services, products, or devices.
                        <SU>110</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Another commenter urging the CFPB to include medical credit cards within the final rule's scope stated that medical credit cards are lending products, which the CFPB has broad authority over.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>110</SU>
                             Medical Debt Relief Act, H.R. 6003, 118th Cong. (2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Some commenters stated that they agree with the CFPB's interpretation, and its proposed definition for medical debt information aligning with that interpretation, because they said it reflects the most reasonable interpretation of the statute. Consequently, these commenters stated that the CFPB should not revise the CFPB's interpretation of medical information under FCRA section 603(i) and the CFPB's proposed medical debt definition to include medical debts paid for with payment products from third-party lenders and creditors, such as general purpose credit card issuers, specialty credit card issuers, issuers of medical payment products, and home equity lenders. The commenters stated that the distinction was important, with several urging the CFPB to affirmatively exclude medical debt owed to third-party lenders and creditors in the final medical debt information definition. Several of the commenters, who also generally opposed the CFPB's proposal, stated that an expansion of the medical debt information definition would remove more types of debt information from creditors' consideration when underwriting credit and affect creditors' ability to make risk-based lending decisions, leading to overleveraged consumers or causing lenders to tighten their underwriting standards and increase the cost of credit to offset anticipated increases in a consumer's repayment risk.</P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter stated that the CFPB's preliminary interpretation of FCRA section 603(i) is arbitrary and capricious, because it distinguishes between creditors who are health care providers (and their agents or assignees) and credit card issuers. The commenter stated that such a distinction is arbitrary because whether a consumer pays a healthcare provider by credit card or if the healthcare provider sends a consumer a bill is the result of the consumer's choice of payment and individual health provider billing practices. Yet, under the CFPB's preliminary interpretation and its proposed rule, in the former scenario information about the debt could be on a consumer report and in the latter it could not be, even though the consumer has the same credit risk and the same amount of debt. The commenter stated the proposed approach could give consumers the ability to manipulate their credit scores. The commenter stated that the CFPB did not address this issue in the NPRM, which it says is arbitrary and capricious. The commenter also characterized the CFPB's interpretation as a departure from the position it states was taken by the CFPB's predecessor Agencies and accepted by the CFPB in restating Regulation V after primary regulatory authority for the FCRA was transferred to it. Specifically, the commenter cited the Agencies' interim final rule implementing section 411 of the FACT Act. The commenter pointed to language where the Agencies stated that the creditor prohibition at FCRA section 604(g)(2) applies to all creditors and that the scope of the exceptions to the prohibition adopted pursuant to FCRA section 604(g)(5) is as broad as the prohibition and applies to all creditors.
                        <SU>111</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter started that the CFPB did not address what the commenter characterized as a change in interpretation as to the statutory text.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>111</SU>
                             70 FR 33958, 33963 (June 10, 2005).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In the NPRM, the CFPB asked for public comment on the feasibility of furnishing medical debt information to consumer reporting agencies and reporting to creditors in a way that distinguishes between loan obligations and disbursements that pay for medical expenses and those that do not, if the CFPB were to consider information about debts generally incurred to pay for medical bills and expenses to be “medical information” that is “derived” from a health care provider or consumer. One commenter who supported expanding the CFPB's proposed definition of medical debt information (and interpretation of medical information under the FCRA) suggested that for medical expenses charged to general purpose credit cards, a furnisher or lender providing information to the credit reporting agencies would merely need to designate that the debt is medical debt. Other commenters stated that they believed medical expenses on credit cards could be identified by using Merchant Category Codes (MCC). One commenter stated that the CFPB should require credit card issuers to have medical providers identify themselves using the MCCs for medical services and supplies. Another commenter noted, for example, that flexible spending account credit cards use MCCs to automatically substantiate qualified expenses and suggested that a similar technology applied under the CFPB's final rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        Some commenters suggested that the CFPB require credit card issuers to exclude negative information about debts from merchants who are coded under the MCCs as medical providers. One such commenter stated that, under this approach, the CFPB would be required to establish rules for payment application and allocation of interest for mixed medical and non-medical credit card balances through a separate rulemaking, which it anticipated would not be more complicated than the rules for payment allocation and calculation of interest on balances with different annual percentage rates (APRs) under Regulation Z, to make clear to what portions of a consumer's credit card debt could be provided to consumer reporting agencies and creditors. Another commenter said that the CFPB should additionally develop mechanisms for identifying and tracking when loan disbursements or payments from other general purpose lending products are used to pay for medical expenses. A different commenter suggested that the CFPB require creditors to expand their categorization system to flag medical expenses at the point of transaction or through subsequent verification processes. The commenter stated that a new merchant code could be created to flag healthcare provider payments or existing medical 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3289"/>
                        merchant codes would be flagged as part of a broader medical expense category.
                    </P>
                    <P>In contrast, commenters supporting the current scope of the proposed medical debt information definition stated that it is not feasible to implement an expansion of the medical debt information definition and interpretation of medical information under the FCRA to include products from third-party lenders. Specifically, the commenters stated third-party lenders like credit card issuers or home equity lenders would need to be able to identify medical charges or expenses and recalculate fields such as the consumer's current balance, credit limit, amount past due, and actual payment amount. One commenter also stated that, unlike credit card issuers who may be able to identify which merchant a consumer has shopped with, banks that offer unsecured credit generally do not know how a consumer spends loan proceeds and if any of the loan was used to pay for medical expenses. A couple of commenters stated that even if a third-party lender or creditor were able to identify such charges using merchant category codes or some other information, it would need to maintain two sets of records, one with medical debt information and one without, which may lead to consumer confusion and other operational risks.</P>
                    <P>Several commenters asked that if the CFPB does not include debts owed to third-party lenders or creditors such as credit card issuers within the scope of the final rule, that the CFPB continue to evaluate the impacts of such debt, such as for specific populations like family caregivers and persons in their care who may not understand the scope of the CFPB's final rule, and to ascertain the impact of the final rule. Other commenters asked the CFPB to actively regulate and implement consumer protections related to medical lending products.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Civil Judgments</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB also received several comments about its interpretation of FCRA section 603(i) that medical debt information includes civil judgments arising from medical debt collection actions, where the debt is directly owed to a health care provider, or to their agent or assignee. One commenter supported the CFPB's proposed approach, stating that the CFPB's interpretation is important considering that there are credit reporting agencies that specialize in providing consumer reports consisting of public records information, including about civil judgments. This commenter recommended that the CFPB include its interpretation about civil judgments in the final regulatory text or in official commentary. A couple of commenters opposed the CFPB's interpretation about civil judgments. The commenters generally stated that it is not apparent from public record information whether a debt underlying a civil judgment is owed or was once owed directly to a health care provider for the provision of health care, particularly if the legal action was brought by a debt buyer whose name does not reference health care. In such cases, the commenters stated creditors would need to engage in burdensome individualized investigations to determine if a civil judgment is medical debt information. The commenters suggested that the CFPB revise its interpretation so that information about a civil judgment arising from a medical debt collection action is not considered medical information under the FCRA. In the alternative, one of the commenters suggested that the CFPB revise its interpretation of what constitutes medical information about a debt, so that it includes, other than the name of the judgment creditor, publicly available information that the civil judgment arises from a debt collection action as to a medical debt directly owed to a health care provider or to such person's assignee (as opposed to debt buyer, as referenced in the CFPB's NPRM).</P>
                    <P>
                        This commenter also stated that the CFPB's discussion of its preliminary interpretation in the NPRM was inconsistent with its proposed definition for medical debt information. According to the commenter, while the proposed definition is clear that the debt at issue must be owed to health care provider or to their agent or assignee, in the NPRM the CFPB stated that medical information in the form of a civil judgment arising from a debt collection action as to a medical debt “directly owed to a health care provider or debt buyer” would be considered information about a debt that is medical information under FCRA section 603(i).
                        <SU>112</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter stated that this statement in the preamble of the NPRM could be read as meaning that the CFPB's proposal includes medical debt owed to a debt buyer even if the debt had not been originally owed to a health care provider.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>112</SU>
                             79 FR 51682, 51690 (June 18, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Credit Scores</HD>
                    <P>Several commenters generally opposing the CFPB's proposed rule also disagreed that credit scores that have weighed medical debt information should be medical debt information under the CFPB's preliminary interpretation. One commenter stated that the final rule should provide that a creditor that considers a credit score that could have weighed medical debt information does not violate the creditor prohibition. Another commenter, a financial institution, stated that credit scores are essential for lenders to determine a consumer's creditworthiness. The commenter argued that removing medical debt information from the data used to calculate credit scores would lead to the inflation of those scores, affect lenders' ability to accurately make credit risk assessments, and lead to loan defaults. The commenter stated that CFPB should consider establishing a safe harbor for financial institutions that inadvertently rely on a credit score that weighed medical debt information, because a lender would have difficulty recalculating a credit score due to the proprietary nature of the credit score algorithms used by consumer reporting agencies.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Final Rule—Owes or Owed to a Health Care Provider</HD>
                    <P>
                        For the reasons set forth herein, the CFPB is finalizing its interpretation as set forth in the proposed rule that for information about a consumer's debt to be “medical information” under FCRA section 603(i), the information must relate to a debt the consumer owes, or at one time owed, directly to a health care provider or to the health care provider's agent or assignee for the provision of the health care underlying the payment obligation. The CFPB's interpretation includes medical information in the form of a civil judgment arising from a debt collection action as to a medical debt directly owed to a health care provider or their assignee (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         a debt buyer), whether provided on a consumer report, by the consumer on a credit application, or if the creditor learns of the civil judgment through other means; a credit score that had weighed medical debt information; and debts arising from medical care that is elective, or otherwise not medically necessary (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         some cosmetic surgeries).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed later in this part with regard to the definition of medical debt information under proposed and final § 1022.3(j), the CFPB also finalizes its approach that its interpretation includes medical debt that has been sold or resold to a debt buyer—who has become the health provider's assignee for the debt, because the payment obligation that was sold was created by a health care provider and at one time was owed 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3290"/>
                        to the health care provider—as well as medical debt that has been assigned to a third-party debt collector, who is acting as an agent on behalf of the health care provider or debt buyer to whom the debt is owed. The CFPB also addresses comments regarding the CFPB's approach as to medical information about debts arising from elective versus non-elective care with the other comments about the CFPB's proposed medical debt information definition.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Third-Party Lenders</HD>
                    <P>
                        FCRA section 603(i) defines “medical information” as “[i]nformation or data, whether oral or recorded, in any form or medium, 
                        <E T="03">created by or derived from a health care provider</E>
                         or the consumer” that relates to, among other things, “[t]he payment for the 
                        <E T="03">provision of health care</E>
                         to an individual” (emphasis added). As set forth in its proposal, the CFPB believes that it is consistent with the text of FCRA section 603(i) to interpret the statute's use of these two phrases to mean that for information on a debt to be medical information under the FCRA, the information must relate to a debt arising from a payment obligation that the consumer owes (or at one time owed) directly to a health care provider for the provision of the health care underlying the payment obligation.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB also finds that the manner in which the final rule implements FCRA section 603(i) is appropriate at this time given operational difficulties for information furnishers, creditors, and consumer reporting agencies in distinguishing between third-party loan obligations and disbursements that pay for medical expenses and those that do not. To implement the rule, entities furnishing information on consumer debts, consumer reporting agencies receiving such information and providing consumer reports to creditors, and creditors receiving information about the consumer's debt obligations must be able to identify the specific information subject to the rule's requirements. Logically, a debt owed directly to a health care provider for the provision of health care to an individual is generally understood by consumers and the health care providers (and their agents and assignees) that are furnishing information to consumer reporting agencies to be medical debt. And, because of medical information furnisher obligations under FCRA section 623(a)(9), information about such debts that is furnished by health care providers (or their agents or assignees) already is and can be easily labeled as medical information by consumer reporting agencies so that they may comply with their medical debt information disclosure obligations under final § 1022.38.
                        <SU>113</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB also notes that it did not receive any comments disagreeing that information about debts owed directly to a health care provider for the provision of health care to an individual is medical information under the statute, even if some commenters urged the CFPB to expand its interpretation.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>113</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681c(a)(6), 1681s-2(a)(9).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In contrast, currently medical information is generally not easily identifiable when a consumer uses a credit card or the proceeds of a loan from a third-party lender to pay, for example, a medical bill. When a consumer owes a debt to a third-party lender, the amount of that debt may consist of a mix of both medical and non-medical debt.</P>
                    <P>
                        In the context of credit and debit cards, the CFPB does not believe that the problem of identifying medical debt can be resolved with existing MCCs 
                        <SU>114</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         used by credit card issuers to categorize businesses by the type of services or goods the business provides or existing systems in place for health-related tax-advantaged accounts or arrangements, including health savings accounts (HSAs), flexible spending accounts (FSAs), and health reimbursement accounts (HRAs) pursuant to guidelines set by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS).
                        <SU>115</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         With respect to MCCs, some commenters suggested that the CFPB simply require credit card issuers to exclude negative information about debts from merchants coded as some sort of health care provider under the MCCs when furnishing information to consumer reporting agencies. However, it is not clear that all credit card transactions at businesses that could reasonably be said to provide health care services, products, or devices would be related to a “payment for the provision of health care” as required for medical information under FCRA section 603(i). For example, as raised by other commenters, in addition to selling prescription medicine, a pharmacy may also sell household or grocery items. Medical credit cards are also currently used to pay for some expenses that are not clearly medical in nature, such as for funeral services.
                        <SU>116</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>114</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Visa, 
                            <E T="03">Visa Merchant Data Standards Manual—Visa Supplemental Requirements</E>
                             (Apr. 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://usa.visa.com/content/dam/VCOM/download/merchants/visa-merchant-data-standards-manual.pdf;</E>
                             Mastercard, 
                            <E T="03">Quick Reference Booklet—Merchant Edition</E>
                             (Apr. 16, 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.mastercard.us/content/dam/public/mastercardcom/na/global-site/documents/quick-reference-booklet-merchant.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>115</SU>
                             With these accounts or arrangements, consumers can use their cards to pay for certain medical care expenses that are deemed qualified under guidelines set by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS). 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">What is a flexible spending account (FSA) card or health savings account card (HSA)?, https://www.consumerfinance.gov/ask-cfpb/what-is-a-flexible-spending-account-fsa-card-health-savings-account-card-hsa-en-417/</E>
                             (last reviewed Sept. 6, 2024); Ryan J. Rosso, Cong. Rsch. Serv., R45277, 
                            <E T="03">Health Savings Accounts (HSAs)</E>
                             (2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://crsreports.congress.gov/product/pdf/R/R45277. See also</E>
                             Ryan J. Rosso, Cong. Rsch. Serv., R46782, 
                            <E T="03">A Comparison of Tax-Advantaged Accounts for Health Care Expenses</E>
                             5 (2021) (explaining qualified medical expenses under the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 213(d)), 
                            <E T="03">https://crsreports.congress.gov/product/pdf/R/R46782.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>116</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             CareCredit, 
                            <E T="03">Ways to use your health and wellness credit card, https://www.carecredit.com/procedures/</E>
                             (listing categories of procedures a CareCredit medical credit card can be used for) (last visited Nov. 15, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Similarly, one commenter suggested that technology similar to the inventory information approval system used for FSA cards could be adapted to identify specific medical expenses charged to credit or debit cards. But not all businesses participate in inventory approval systems and/or accept FSA and HSA cards, even if some system was developed to specifically identify expenses that would be medical information under FCRA section 603(i), as opposed to identification as medical expenses under other law. Furthermore, this system is complex; the IRS has issued detailed guidance with regard to the substantiation of eligible medical care expenses paid for with such cards, even at certain businesses with non-health care related MCCs if the business meets conditions such as participation in an inventory information approval system.
                        <SU>117</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>117</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Internal Revenue Serv., 
                            <E T="03">Notice 2007-2</E>
                             (addressing the use of debit cards for medical expense reimbursements at merchants with non-health care related MCCs), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-drop/n-07-02.pdf</E>
                             and 
                            <E T="03">Notice 2006-69 Debit cards used to reimburse participants in self-insured medical reimbursement plans and dependent care assistance programs</E>
                             (describing inventory information approval system requirements), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.irs.gov/pub/irs-drop/n-06-69.pdf</E>
                             (both last visited Dec. 5, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Some commenters suggested that the CFPB itself develop or require industry to develop and use transaction-level classification codes to identify what would be medical information at the transactional level under FCRA section 603(i). However, such work or any such requirements would require further input and consultation with industry experts and impose more burden on creditors, information furnishers, and consumer reporting agencies than have been contemplated for this rulemaking. As a result, the CFPB declines to impose such a requirement or itself develop such rules at this time.</P>
                    <P>
                        Identification of medical debt information could also be problematic 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3291"/>
                        in the case of third-party loans. For example, a home equity lender would not know whether and how much of the proceeds of the loan were used to pay for a medical expense and thus whether it should furnish the loan to consumer reporting agencies as being for medical purposes. As a result, the CFPB also declines to impose such a requirement or itself develop such rules at this time.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB appreciates, as raised by many commenters, that many Americans use credit products offered by third-party lenders to pay their medical bills. However, as described in more detail in part VII, 
                        <E T="03">CFPA Section 1022(b) Analysis,</E>
                         the CFPB has also determined that there is not yet substantial evidence that the inclusion of information related to medical debt owed to third-party lenders on consumer reports, or its use in underwriting, leads to consumer harm.
                    </P>
                    <P>While including information about medical debts owed to third-party lenders might have additional benefits for consumers, the CFPB has determined that such information is beyond the scope of this rulemaking and for the reasons stated above, the CFPB declines to change its approach at this time.</P>
                    <P>One commenter stated that the CFPB's approach is arbitrary and capricious, because it would generally provide that information about a debt owed directly to a health care provider, or its agent or assignee, for the payment of the provider's provision of health care is medical information about a debt under the FCRA and the CFPB's proposed rule, whereas a debt owed to a third-party lender would not be, even though the consumer (and their creditworthiness) is the same in either instance. However, as stated above, the CFPB believes that its approach aligns with the definition of medical information under FCRA section 603(i). Further, as noted, the operational difficulties and likely compliance burdens further justify its approach.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB also disagrees with the commenter's statement that the CFPB's interpretation was an arbitrary and capricious deviation from the predecessor Agencies' interpretation of the FCRA in the 2005 interim final rule implementing section 411 of the FACT Act. The language cited by the commenter from the 2005 interim final rule relates to the Agencies' interpretation of the general applicability of the creditor prohibition and the exceptions to the creditor prohibition. The CFPB agrees with the Agencies' statements in the 2005 interim final rule that the creditor prohibition and any exceptions to the prohibition are applicable to all creditors. Accordingly, the CFPB did not propose to, and the final rule does not, distinguish between creditor types in regulating creditors' ability to 
                        <E T="03">obtain or use</E>
                         medical information for the purpose of making credit eligibility determinations. The CFPB's interpretation pertains to the issue of what types of information fall under the definition of medical information under FCRA section 603(i), which is entirely distinct from the issue considered by the Agencies in 2005 of whether all creditors should be subject to the creditor prohibition and any exceptions to the prohibition under FCRA section 604(g)(2) and (g)(5).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        With regard to some commenters' requests that the CFPB evaluate the impacts of its final rule and examine or engage in rulemaking as to medical lending products, the CFPB has long been engaged in outreach and research related to medical debt information in the consumer reporting ecosystem, including on issues such as medical lending products.
                        <SU>118</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB will continue to observe the market and may consider issuing other guidance or rules if it later determines that doing so is consistent with its authority under the FCRA.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>118</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Medical Credit Cards and Financing Plans</E>
                             (May 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_medical-credit-cards-and-financing-plans_2023-05.pdf;</E>
                             Lorelei Salas, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Ensuring consumers aren't pushed into medical payment products</E>
                             (June 18, 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/about-us/blog/ensuring-consumers-arent-pushed-into-medical-payment-products/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Civil Judgments</HD>
                    <P>
                        As explained above, the CFPB interprets FCRA section 603(i) to mean that medical information about a consumer's debt must relate to a debt the consumer owes, or at one time owed (for example, in the case of paid medical debt), directly to a health care provider or to the health care provider's agent or assignee. Generally, the CFPB's approach applies regardless of the form of the medical information pertaining to a consumer's debt owed to a health care provider, or their agent or assignee. A civil judgment on a medical debt is information about a medical debt that has been reduced to judgment. Thus, under the CFPB's interpretation, medical information about a consumer's debts includes medical information in the form of a civil judgment arising from a debt collection action as to a medical debt directly owed to a health care provider or to their assignee (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         a debt buyer), whether provided on a consumer report or by the consumer on a credit application. It also includes information about a civil judgment the creditor learned of through other means. The CFPB declines to revise its interpretation to exclude civil judgments as suggested by several commenters.
                    </P>
                    <P>The CFPB appreciates the comment it received supporting its approach to civil judgments. However, the CFPB declines to explicitly address civil judgments in the regulation or in official commentary as suggested by the commenter. The CFPB believes that its approach to civil judgments is a straightforward application of its interpretation and that it is not necessary to include it in regulatory text or in official commentary.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB declines to revise its interpretation in the manner suggested by one commenter. The commenter suggested that the CFPB clarify that as to civil judgments, medical information would include publicly available information—other than the name of the judgment creditor—that the judgment was related to a debt collection action arising from a debt directly owed to a health care provider or their assignee, which the commenter stated would avoid having creditors engage in individualized investigations to determine whether a civil judgment is medical information about a medical debt. The CFPB does not believe that the commenter's suggested clarification aligns with the text of the statute. The definition of medical information under FCRA section 603(i) does not imply that only publicly available information can be medical information. It also does not provide a basis for stating that the name of the entity to whom the consumer owes a debt is not medical information.
                        <SU>119</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>119</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Cf.</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681c(a)(6) (the name of a medical information furnisher—
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             a health care provider or its agent or assignee—that has notified the consumer reporting agency of its status must be coded or restricted on a consumer report in a manner that would not identify, or provide information sufficient to infer, the specific provider or the nature of the services, products, or devices).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB appreciates, as raised by the commenter and others, that a creditor may need to engage in follow-up inquiries to determine if a civil judgment is medical information about a debt under the CFPB's interpretation of FCRA section 603(i) and under final § 1022.3(j). The CFPB reminds creditors that the example in final § 1022.30(e)(6) explains how creditors may use medical information provided by the consumer in compliance with TILA and Regulation Z, as set forth in § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii), for purposes of compliance with the ability-to-repay 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3292"/>
                        rule under § 1026.43(c) for closed-end mortgages, the repayment ability rule under § 1026.34(a)(4) for open-end, high-cost mortgages, and the ability-to-pay rule under § 1026.51(a) for open-end (not home-secured) credit card accounts.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The commenter also suggested that the CFPB's statements in the preamble about its approach to civil judgments were inconsistent, and could be read to mean that the CFPB intends to treat as medical information civil judgments arising from a debt collection action brought by a debt buyer, even if the underlying debt was not originally owed to a health care provider. The CFPB clarifies that under its interpretation of FCRA section 603(i), medical information about a consumer's debts includes medical information in the form of a civil judgment arising from a debt collection action as to a medical debt directly owed to a health care provider or to their assignee (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         a debt buyer).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Credit Scores</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB declines to adopt suggestions from some commenters that the CFPB provide that credit scores that weighed information about medical debt should not be subject to the creditor prohibition under the CFPB's final rule or that the CFPB establish a safe harbor for creditors that inadvertently use such scores. The CFPB's approach to credit scores is a logical extension of its interpretation of FCRA section 603(i) as to medical debt information (and, correspondingly, the definition for medical debt information under § 1022.3(j)). As explained above, the removal of the existing financial information exception in § 1022.30(d) as to medical debt information in the final rule means that the creditor prohibition under FCRA section 604(g)(2) and § 1022.30(b) will apply to generally prohibit creditors from obtaining or using such information for credit eligibility determinations. It would be a paradoxical effect if creditors were then permitted to use a credit score that weighed such information in making those same credit eligibility determinations.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB also does not believe that a safe harbor for a creditor's inadvertent use of a credit score that weighed medical debt information is necessary. Under final § 1022.38, consumer reporting agencies will generally be prohibited from furnishing consumer reports reflecting medical debt information to creditors, and any credit score based on the information in a consumer's file generally would not weigh medical debt information after the effective date of the final rule. Accordingly, no safe harbor is required.
                        <SU>120</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>120</SU>
                             As discussed in part XI, the CFPB intends that, if the consumer reporting agency prohibition on furnishing medical debt information finalized in § 1022.38 (or any provision or application of that section) is stayed or determined to be invalid, the amendments to § 1022.30 are severable and shall continue in effect. Should that occur, consumer reporting agencies would not be prohibited from furnishing medical debt information to creditors for use in underwriting, and accordingly their credit scores could also reflect medical debt information. In such a circumstance, the CFPB could revisit the question of a safe harbor for creditors that inadvertently use such scores.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposed Definition—Medical Debt Information (§ 1022.3(j))</HD>
                    <P>
                        In consideration of its preliminary interpretation of FCRA section 603(i), the CFPB also proposed adding a definition for medical debt information at § 1022.3(j) to facilitate compliance with various aspects of the proposed rule. Under proposed § 1022.3(j), medical debt information would have been defined as medical information that pertains to a debt owed by a consumer to a person whose primary business is providing medical services, products, or devices (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         a health care provider), or to the person's agent or assignee, for the provision of such medical services, products, or devices. The definition would have also clarified that medical debt information includes, but is not limited to, medical bills that are not past due or that have been paid.
                    </P>
                    <P>The CFPB explained that it intended for the definition of medical debt information to align with the scope of information about medical debt that creditors would be prohibited from considering if the financial information exception is removed.</P>
                    <P>The proposed definition would have also clarified that the term includes information about a debt owed to a health care provider's agent or assignee. The CFPB explained that it intended, by including agents and assignees in the medical debt information definition, to include medical debt that has been purchased by a debt buyer or that is being collected by a third-party debt collector. The CFPB sought comment on whether this aspect of the proposed definition should be modified, such as to ensure it accommodated circumstances where the medical debt has been sold and then resold, as well as on its proposed definition for medical debt information generally.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB also sought comment on whether the proposed definition provided the clarity needed for consumers, creditors, and consumer reporting agencies to implement the proposed rule if finalized.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Comments—Proposed Definition, Medical Debt Information (§ 1022.3(j))</HD>
                    <P>
                        In addition to comments about whether the CFPB's interpretation of FCRA section 603(i) as to medical debt information and the CFPB's proposed definition at § 1022.3(j) should be revised to include information about debts paid for with third-party lender or creditor products, civil judgments, and credit scores (discussed above), the CFPB also received comments about other aspects of the proposed medical debt information definition. Such comments included those about the types of expenses and providers included under the definition (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         because they are “medical” or “health care”-related in nature), suggestions for different treatment of debt arising from elective versus non-elective care, and other general comments about the proposed inclusion of information about debts owed to agents and assignees of medical providers. These comments, and others, are described below.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">General Comments and Payment Status</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB received one comment explicitly supporting the inclusion of a proposed definition for medical debt information, which the commenter stated would facilitate compliance with and enforcement of the final rule. Another commenter stated that the CFPB's proposed medical debt definition was insufficiently clear as to what constitutes medical debt, but did not provide any explanation or illustrative examples.</P>
                    <P>A couple of commenters expressed support for the CFPB's proposal to expressly provide that medical debt information includes, but is not limited to, information involving medical bills that have already been paid or that are not yet past due. One such commenter suggested that the CFPB include an example about a past-due medical bill to clarify that medical debt information also includes information about past-due medical debt.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Agents and Assignees</HD>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters agreed with the CFPB's proposal that generally information about a debt owed to a health care provider's agent or assignee should be considered medical debt information, as well as with the CFPB's statements in the preamble that such agents and assignees would include third-party debt collectors and debt buyers. One such commenter stated that the CFPB should explicitly reference debt buyers and debt collectors in either the text of the definition or in official 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3293"/>
                        commentary to the final rule to facilitate the CFPB's intent.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Health Care Providers</HD>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB received a few comments about whether certain persons would be considered a “person whose primary business is providing medical services, products, or devices” (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         a health care provider) under the proposed medical debt information definition.
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter stated that the proposal was not clear as to whether unlicensed or unregulated providers of complementary and alternative medicine would be considered covered health care providers under the definition. The commenter stated its belief that medical debt information under the rule should be limited to information about debts owed to only regulated or licensed persons who provide medical services, products, or devices. The commenter also suggested that, accordingly, the text of the proposed definition be modified to refer to a “health care provider” in place of a “person” and to explicitly state that the term refers to a provider of services or a provider of medical or health services as defined under the statute governing the Medicare program, at 42 U.S.C. 1395x(u) and 1395x(s), respectively.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter asked the CFPB to clarify whether a person who, in addition to “providing medical services, products, and devices,” also provides a significant amount of non-medical services, products, and devices would be considered to be a health care provider under the CFPB's proposed medical debt information definition.</P>
                    <P>One commenter generally supporting the CFPB's proposal expressed concern that the medical debt information definition may not include debts owed to hospitals or health care facilities. The commenter explained that consumers often receive bills not just from providers who provide a health care service like radiological services, but also a bill from the facility in the form of a facility fee. The commenter stated that limiting the definition of medical debt information debts owed to a person, or a person's agent or assignee, may exclude such facility fees charged by hospitals or health care facilities. To avoid this outcome, the commenter suggested that the CFPB include hospitals and health care facilities in the medical debt information definition.</P>
                    <P>With regard to hospitals, one commenter generally supporting the proposed rule stated its view that hospital bills are particularly prone to error, and as a result also expressed concern that existing § 1022.30(c)(3)(i)'s example refers to information about a hospital bill that a creditor “receives” (which the commenter also said was ambiguous). This commenter also suggested that the CFPB require creditors to include a disclaimer on credit applications to inform consumers that it is not necessary to include medical debt information and if the consumer chooses to disclose such information, it will be used by the creditor to determine the consumer's creditworthiness.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Medical Services, Products, and Devices</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB also received comments about whether specific types of services, products, or devices should be considered “medical services, products, or devices” under the proposed medical debt information definition. Several commenters stated that the CFPB's proposed definition was unclear in this regard and as a result may lead to confusion and add to the compliance and operational burden for regulated entities and small businesses.</P>
                    <P>Several commenters stated that information about debt arising from dental care should be included in the scope of the medical debt information definition. One of the commenters emphasized that dental debt can present a burden for consumers, citing reports that many Americans report that dental bills are the cause of some of their medical debt and that there may be a disproportionate impact on Black and Latino communities who have a higher incidence of periodontal disease. The commenter also noted that many dental costs may not be covered by health insurance. Another commenter stated that the CFPB should explicitly note in the final rule and provide official staff commentary stating that medical debt information includes information about dental debt. The commenter suggested that the CFPB revise its proposed medical debt information definition to change references to “medical services, products, or devices” to “health care services, products, or devices” to capture information about dental debt. Other commenters questioned generally if dental debt was within the scope of the CFPB's proposed definition.</P>
                    <P>Several commenters raised questions about whether debt related to other specific types of services, products, or devices were included in the CFPB's proposed medical debt information definition. For example, the commenters asked for clarity about whether veterinarian services, eye care or vision services, counseling, therapy, over-the-counter medication, bandages, dermatological services, cosmetic procedures, pharmacy expenses, primary and specialty care, lab and diagnostic expenses, other outpatient care, and massages were covered under the definition.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Elective Medical Care</HD>
                    <P>Some commenters suggested that the CFPB's final rule should distinguish between information about medical debt that arises from elective care versus non-elective (or emergency) care. Generally, these commenters stated that elective medical procedures are typically planned and discretionary, unlike non-elective medical debt which arise from unexpected or unavoidable circumstances. Specifically, the commenters stated that elective medical care reflect a consumer's conscious financial decision and thus should be included in creditors' determination of a consumers' ability to repay a future loan. The commenters suggested that by categorizing medical debt in this way, the CFPB would be able to protect consumers from the adverse effects of medical debt and also allow lenders to have access to necessary information for making informed credit decisions. One commenter similarly suggested that the CFPB's final medical debt information definition not include information about debt arising from elective procedures, unless the elective procedure was needed as the result of an injury or illness. Another commenter suggested that the CFPB distinguish between non-elective care and other types of health care-related debt, including daily goods and services. A few commenters suggested that the CFPB's rule should not apply to elective and cosmetic surgery and should be limited to emergency medical treatment only.</P>
                    <P>One commenter stated that the CFPB's approach may lead to unequal treatment. The commenter, who generally argued that the CFPB's proposal would cause distortions in the credit market, stated that consumers with recurring medical expenses would benefit less from the rule, because they continually will have new medical debts.</P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter, who also generally supported the CFPB's proposed rule and urged the CFPB to include debt paid for with third-party medical payment products in the final medical debt definition, suggested that CFPB restrict reporting of debt paid for with third-party medical payment products unless the medical provider and the consumer each attest to the elective or non-elective nature of the medical service, to allow the medical and financial industries to report debt related to only elective medical care to a consumer reporting agency, but did not make a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3294"/>
                        similar suggestion for medical debts owed directly to a health care provider.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Final Rule—Definition, Medical Debt Information (§ 1022.3(j))</HD>
                    <P>For the reasons stated herein, the CFPB finalizes its definition as proposed for medical debt information at § 1022.3(j). Under final § 1022.3(j), medical debt information is defined as medical information that pertains to a debt owed by a consumer to a person whose primary business is providing medical services, products, or devices (also referred to herein as a health care provider), or to the person's agent or assignee, for the provision of such medical services, products, or devices. The definition also provides that medical debt information includes, but is not limited to, medical bills that are not past due or that have been paid.</P>
                    <P>Generally, under the final definition, for information about a debt to be medical debt information, it must meet two requirements. First, the debt must be directly owed to a person whose primary business is providing medical services, products, or devices, or their agent or assignee. Second, the debt must be for the provision of the medical services, products, or devices by the health care provider.</P>
                    <P>The final definition is adapted from FCRA section 623(a)(9), which defines the term “medical information furnisher” as a person whose primary business is providing medical services, products, or devices, or the person's agent or assignee, who furnishes information to a consumer reporting agency on a consumer. The CFPB believes that aligning the definition of “medical debt information” with the FCRA definition for “medical information furnisher” will provide a familiar standard under the FCRA that will facilitate compliance with the proposed rule. For consumer reporting agencies specifically, the CFPB anticipates that the self-identification of medical information furnishers under FCRA section 623(a)(9) will assist consumer reporting agencies in identifying and excluding medical debt information from consumer reports provided to creditors, as required under final § 1022.38.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB intends for the final medical debt information definition to align with the CFPB's interpretation of FCRA section 603(i) as to medical information and thus correspond with the scope of the medical information about a consumer's medical debts that a creditor generally may not obtain or use under final § 1022.30, as revised to remove the financial information exception at § 1022.30(d). The medical debt information definition also establishes what medical information a consumer reporting agency must consider in complying with final § 1022.38.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">General Comments and Payment Status</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB agrees with the commenter stating that including a medical debt definition in the final rule will facilitate compliance and enforcement of the final rule. The CFPB also appreciates the comments supporting the proposed definition's clarification that medical debt information includes information about medical bills that are not past due or that have been paid. The CFPB disagrees, however, with one commenter's suggestion that the CFPB include a specific example in the text of the regulation as to a past-due medical bill. The CFPB believes that it is clear from the definition and use of the term “debt” that medical information about a past-due medical bill is medical debt information under the rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Agents and Assignees</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB appreciates the comments it received supporting its interpretation that agents and assignees of a health care provider under the proposed medical debt information definition includes third-party debt collectors and debt buyers. The CFPB is finalizing this approach for the proposed definition (which the CFPB intends to align with the scope of medical debt information under its interpretation of FCRA section 603(i)). The CFPB declines to implement a suggestion from one commenter that it explicitly reference debt buyer and third-party debt collectors in the text of the regulation. The CFPB believes the medical debt information definition is sufficiently clear and finalizes § 1022.3(j) as proposed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Health Care Providers</HD>
                    <P>Under the CFPB's proposed and final definition at § 1022.3(j), for information about a consumer's debt to be medical debt information, the debt must be owed by the consumer to “a person whose primary business is providing medical services, products, or devices.” For the purposes of this document, the CFPB refers to such a person as a health care provider. As noted above, this aspect of the final medical debt information definition at § 1022.3(j) is adapted from the definition of “medical information furnisher” in FCRA section 623(a)(9) and the CFPB anticipates it will provide a familiar standard that will facilitate compliance with the final rule.</P>
                    <P>Some commenters asked for clarification as to whether specific types of providers, such as providers of complementary and alternative medicine or pharmacies, would be health providers under the rule. The CFPB notes neither the definition of medical information in FCRA section 603(i) nor the definition of medical information furnisher in FCRA section 623(a)(9) states that only providers of certain kinds of health care are “medical.” The CFPB likewise declines to do so for the final rule. Generally, the CFPB anticipates that whether a provider is a health care provider for the purposes of the final rule will depend on the specific facts and circumstances for each provider. The CFPB also anticipates that such determinations may be guided by whether such providers, as well as their agents and assignees, notify consumer reporting agencies of their status as medical information furnishers under FCRA section 623(a)(9).</P>
                    <P>As to the comment seeking clarification about whether hospitals and health care facilities and facility fees they may charge would be covered under the CFPB's rule, the CFPB believes the definition is sufficiently clear and as a result declines to revise the definition to reference hospitals and health care facilities as suggested by the commenter. However, while generally a determination as to whether a person is a health care provider under the final rule may depend on individual facts and circumstances, the CFPB believes that hospitals and health care facilities are plainly “person[s] whose primary business is providing medical services, products, or devices.” Further, the CFPB also believes that facility fees that may be charged in association with a consumer's health care are clearly part of the “provision of such medical services, products, or devices” to a consumer and that information about a medical debt arising from such fees are medical debt information under the final rule, even if the specific medical professional providing care at, for example, a hospital sends a separate bill for the care provided.</P>
                    <P>
                        In response to one commenter expressing concerns about hospitals and requesting the CFPB require disclaimers on credit applications, the CFPB does not believe that any examples in § 1022.30 should be revised to refer to something other than a hospital bill where currently used. The examples are meant to be illustrative and hospital bills are often a source of medical information, even if they contain errors. Further, the CFPB declines to require creditors to include a disclaimer informing consumers that they do not need to provide medical debt 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3295"/>
                        information on credit applications. Such a disclaimer would not be an accurate reflection of the proposed or final rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Medical Services, Products, and Devices</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB disagrees with commenters stating that the proposed definition for medical debt information, which the CFPB is finalizing as proposed, is unclear. As noted earlier, neither the definition of medical information in FCRA section 603(i) nor the definition of medical information furnisher in FCRA section 623(a)(9) states that only certain types of health care or providers of such health care are “medical.” It also does not state that only certain types of services, products, or devices are “medical.” The CFPB accordingly declines to specify in the text of the definition or in official commentary, as urged by a commenter, that certain types of medical services, products, or devices are covered under the CFPB's medical debt information definition or under the CFPB's interpretation of FCRA section 603(i). As with health care providers, the CFPB anticipates that industry's interpretation of the similar definition for medical information furnisher under FCRA section 623(a)(9) will provide a familiar standard that will facilitate compliance with the final rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        Generally, as long as both requirements of the definition are satisfied (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         that the debt is directly owed to a health care provider, or their agent or assignee, and it is for the provision of medical services, products, or devices), information about the debt at issue is considered medical debt information under the final rule. Thus, for example, the CFPB would anticipate that debt owed to an optometry or ophthalmology practice (or its agent or assignee) arising from its provision of eye care would be covered under the CFPB's final rule, as well as a debt owed to a dental practice (or its agent or assignee) arising from its provision of dental care. Similarly, the CFPB would also anticipate that a debt owed to a health care provider or a supplier of durable medical equipment (or their agent or assignee) arising from the purchase of a wheelchair, or a debt owed to a supplier of orthotic and prosthetic devices (or its agent or assignee) arising from the purchase of a prosthetic limb, would generally also be covered under the final rule. However, a debt to a grocery store arising from bandages purchased there would not meet the requirements, because the primary business of the grocery store is not the provision of medical services, products, or devices.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Elective Medical Care</HD>
                    <P>Some commenters urged the CFPB to distinguish and provide different treatment under the final rule for different types of medical debt, including as to debt arising from elective care versus non-elective care or emergency care. The CFPB understands that many elective procedures are treatment for serious illnesses and health conditions that are often unanticipated. In such circumstances, consumers still have limited ability to shop around or control the timing of costs. And, many of the factors regarding errors in medical billing and collections still apply to limit the value of information about such types of medical debt. Further, CFPB research discussed elsewhere in this preamble indicates generally that the use of medical debt information (including information about debts related to both elective and non-elective medical care) in credit eligibility determinations does not reduce the delinquency risk faced by creditors, and commenters have not cited any research establishing that debt related to elective medical care is more predictive of delinquency risk than debt related to non-elective medical care. As a result, after further consideration, the CFPB declines to provide different treatment for debt arising from elective care than from other types of medical debt under the final rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB also disagrees with the commenter stating that a failure to distinguish between medical debt arising from elective care versus non-elective care would benefit consumers unequally because some consumers have recurring medical expenses that may lead to new debt. Under the final rule, treatment by creditors and consumer reporting agencies of medical debt will be the same, without regard to whether the debt is recurring. To the extent the commenter was expressing the general concern, also expressed by other commenters, that the rule would impact creditors' ability to accurately assess consumers' delinquency risk because they would have less information about consumers' medical debts, the CFPB disagrees as discussed in part VII, 
                        <E T="03">CFPA Section 1022(b) Analysis.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Determination that Medical Debt Information Is Not Necessary and Appropriate for Credit Eligibility Determinations</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under FCRA section 604(g)(5), the CFPB (like the predecessor Agencies before it) has authority to permit an exception to the creditor prohibition that it determines to be necessary and appropriate, consistent with the intent of the creditor prohibition to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes.
                        <SU>121</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>121</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(5).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        When the predecessor Agencies established the existing financial information exception at § 1022.30(d), it appears that the Agencies addressed specific comments on the parameters of their proposal for the financial information exception (which they substantially finalized as proposed) but did not provide evidence or analysis to support their determination.
                        <SU>122</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>122</SU>
                             70 FR 33958, 33966-67 (June 10, 2005)
                            <E T="03">; see also</E>
                             part III.B, 
                            <E T="03">Fair Credit Reporting Act.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In the period since the predecessor Agencies enacted their rule, creditors have been able to obtain and use financial information relating to a consumer's medical debts as a result of the financial information exception. However, and as the CFPB explained in its proposal, there has been a significant body of research and marketplace changes that have shed more light on the nature of medical debt and financial information available to creditors about medical debt. The CFPB stated that these developments provide a more nuanced picture that raises questions about creditors' use of medical debt information in credit underwriting.</P>
                    <P>
                        In consideration of its stated points, the CFPB preliminarily determined that it is not “necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs” for creditors to consider sensitive financial information concerning consumers' medical debt, nor is it consistent with the intent of the creditor prohibition to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes, as required for an exception under FCRA section 604(g)(5).
                        <SU>123</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB sought comment on its preliminary determination.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>123</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(5).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In support of this preliminary conclusion, the CFPB cited a number of points. Comments addressing these points, and others, are discussed below, with references where they are also discussed in part VII, 
                        <E T="03">CFPA Section 1022(b) Analysis,</E>
                         as part of the CFPB's discussion of the potential benefits, costs, and impacts of the rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        First, the CFPB noted that recent research has demonstrated that unlike other types of debt, medical debt often results from an event such as an accident or sudden illness.
                        <SU>124</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In these 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3296"/>
                        circumstances, the CFPB explained that consumers have no control over whether to incur a debt; they may have limited or no ability to shop around and may not be able to control the amount or timing of their costs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>124</SU>
                             Lunna Lopes et al., Kaiser Fam. Found., 
                            <E T="03">Health Care Debt in the U.S.: The Broad Consequences of Medical and Dental Bills</E>
                             (June 16, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">
                                https://www.kff.org/health-costs/report/kff-
                                <PRTPAGE/>
                                health-care-debt-survey/
                            </E>
                             (results of national survey show that 7 in 10 adults with health care debt say that the bills that led to their debt were for a one-time or short-term medical expense).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Many commenters, who generally supported the CFPB's proposal, agreed with these findings by the CFPB. Some such commenters emphasized that patients in need of urgent or emergency medical care are not in a position to negotiate the costs of their care and have little choice about which health providers to receive care from based on who will accept their insurance (if the consumer has any). A few commenters also stated there is also generally a lack of price transparency for care, despite Federal law requiring it, because providers may not comply with the law or the prices are missing, unreliable, or difficult to obtain in advance or because of the health providers' practice (also known as chargemaster pricing) of charging high rates that are discounted for insurers but not for uninsured or out-of-network patients.</P>
                    <P>
                        In contrast, and as described in more detail in part VII, 
                        <E T="03">CFPA Section 1022(b) Analysis,</E>
                         commenters opposing the CFPB's proposed rule alleged that the CFPB had overstated the extent to which medical debt results from circumstances over which consumers have no control. The commenters also stated that there is no statutory basis for excluding a creditor's consideration of such debt because it is unexpected. They further questioned this aspect of the CFPB's rationale, noting that the CFPB's proposal is not limited to just unexpected medical debt and also covered elective services. These commenters and others stated their opinion that, even assuming a medical debt is unexpected, there are many consumer debts that are the result of unplanned events that are not the fault of the consumer and all such information is still pertinent for credit underwriting regardless of their underlying cause. Another commenter stated that even if medical debt is not a good indicator of a consumer's repayment risk because in many cases it is unavoidable or the result of an emergency, it does not alter the consumer's ability to repay even if relevant to a consumer's willingness to repay. One commenter stated that medical debt should not be treated differently from other kinds of consumer debt because it is taken on involuntarily, because consumers are aware that illness is inevitable and should be saving for such expenses.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As explained above and in part VII, 
                        <E T="03">CFPA Section 1022(b) Analysis,</E>
                         available data implies that a substantial fraction of medical debt results from unplanned expenditures. The CFPB did not state in its proposal or mean to imply that all medical debt is the result of sudden events. However, as stated in the NPRM, the fact that much medical debt is unexpected means that, as to much medical debt, consumers had limited ability to understand and control costs or their timing, distinguishing such debt from other types of consumer debt. For example, as noted by a commenter, even when a hospital must make prices known to consumers under Federal law,
                        <SU>125</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         reporting indicates that consumers may still have difficulty ascertaining the cost of their care.
                        <SU>126</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         And, while consumers may also encounter a need to take on debt as a result of unexpected, non-medical events, the CFPB notes that medical debt is also unique in ways that limit its informational value, such as because of the prevalence of errors in such information and inconsistent reporting, as further addressed below and elsewhere in this preamble.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>125</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             45 CFR part 180 (Centers for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Services Hospital Price Transparency rule).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>126</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             U.S. PIRG Educ. Fund, 
                            <E T="03">Post the Price: Hospital Price Transparency Could Save Patients Thousands</E>
                             (May 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://publicinterestnetwork.org/wp-content/uploads/2024/05/Re-uploaded-Revised-After-Release_-Cleveland-Price-Transparency-Report-.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In response to commenters noting that the rule covers both non-elective care that stems from emergency health needs as well as elective care that is planned, the CFPB notes that, as discussed above with regard to comments about the proposed medical debt information definition, elective care is inclusive of necessary health care for unanticipated health conditions. Further, many of the same issues limiting the informational value of information about non-elective care applies to medical debt information about elective care.</P>
                    <P>With regard to the comment about how medical debt information, even if related to an unexpected or sudden health event, is relevant to a creditor's assessments of a consumer's ability to repay, the CFPB refers to its discussion in part VII.E.5, as to the availability of information on consumer reports used in underwriting and the ability-to-repay or pay requirements under the Truth in Lending Act and Regulation Z.</P>
                    <P>
                        In the proposal, the CFPB also noted that, second, in the period of time since the predecessor Agencies enacted their rule, more evidence has come to light showing that information about medical debt is prone to error. The CFPB stated that third-party surveys and complaints received by the CFPB have shown that medical bills commonly contain errors and are frequently disputed by consumers.
                        <SU>127</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Further, the CFPB noted that the complexity of medical billing, the third-party reimbursement process, and debt collection practices can lead to consumer confusion on payment due dates and amounts owed for medical bills, as well as questions about the accuracy of their bills.
                        <SU>128</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>127</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Karen Pollitz &amp; Kaye Pestaina, Kaiser Fam. Found., 
                            <E T="03">Could Consumer Assistance Be Helpful to People Facing Medical Debt?</E>
                             (July 14, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.kff.org/policy-watch/could-consumer-assistance-be-helpful-to-people-facing-medical-debt/</E>
                             (reporting survey results that 43 percent of all adults and 53 percent of adults with health care debt say they thought they received a medical or dental bill with an error).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>128</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Medical Debt Burden in the United States,</E>
                             at 9-14 (Feb. 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_medical-debt-burden-in-the-united-states_report_2022-03.pdf</E>
                             (describing issues with medical billing and collections practices); Gideon Weissman et al., Frontier Grp. &amp; U.S. Pub. Int. Rsch. Grp. Educ. Fund, 
                            <E T="03">Medical Debt Malpractice: Consumer Complaints About Medical Debt Collectors, and How the CFPB Can Help</E>
                             (Spring 2017), 
                            <E T="03">https://publicinterestnetwork.org/wp-content/uploads/2017/04/Medical-Debt-Malpractic-vUS-1.pdf</E>
                             (63 percent of medical debt collection complaints submitted to the CFPB asserted that the debt had never been owed in the first place, had already been paid or discharged in bankruptcy, or was not verified as the consumer's debt).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Comments about inaccuracy and errors in medical debt information and with medical billing are addressed in part VII, 
                        <E T="03">CFPA Section 1022(b) Analysis.</E>
                         However, to summarize at a high level, the CFPB received a large number of comments agreeing with the CFPB's point, with many commenters providing or citing to consumer anecdotes or publicly available consumer complaints about consumers encountering errors in their medical bills, notices of collection for medical debt, or on their consumer reports. In addition to the issues raised by the CFPB, commenters also stated that third-party debt collectors and debt buyers often lack access to original creditors' systems of records about medical debt, which can lead to errors on collection notices sent to consumers or in medical debt information reported to consumer reporting agencies. Several commenters also flagged that many consumers have difficulty understanding medical bills, navigating insurance appeals, or successfully using the dispute process for errors related to medical debt information on their consumer reports, suggesting that the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3297"/>
                        rate of error may be higher than is known.
                    </P>
                    <P>Some commenters generally opposing the CFPB's proposal did not disagree with the CFPB that information about medical debt often contains errors, but either implied that even erroneous medical debt information is needed for accurate credit assessments or stated that the solution for errors in medical debt information is to improve the accuracy of medical debt information that is reported to consumer reporting agencies or reform the health care system. One commenter stated that billing errors should be resolved between health care providers and consumers rather than by removing medical debt information from consumer reports. Other commenters opposing the proposal stated that the CFPB's assessment that information about medical debt is prone to error is based upon biased and/or flawed studies and information.</P>
                    <P>
                        As explained in detail in part VII, 
                        <E T="03">CFPA Section 1022(b) Analysis,</E>
                         the CFPB understands that many medical collections included on consumer reports reflect incorrect billing, including debts that were already paid by either the consumer or by their insurance company, or debts that are not owed by the consumer. Further, the CFPB understands that the prevalence of such errors could be due to factors such as that, unlike other consumer debts like banking/financial debts, nearly all credit reporting of medical debt is managed by third-party debt collection agencies, who may have limited access to the original creditors' systems of records.
                        <SU>129</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB disagrees with commenters implying that erroneous medical debt information can assist in making accurate evaluations of a consumer's ability to repay future debt. The CFPB has also assessed potential alternatives for improving the accuracy of medical debt information reported to consumer reporting agencies and determined that such measures would not be sufficient to achieve the objective of protecting consumer privacy with respect to sensitive medical information.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>129</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Market Snapshot: An Update on Third Party Debt Collections Tradelines Reporting,</E>
                             at 5 (Feb. 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_market-snapshot-third-party-debt-collections-tradelines-reporting_2023-02.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In support of its preliminary determination, the CFPB also explained that, third, its work shows that medical debt information has relatively limited predictive value. Generally, the CFPB cited its research from 2014, which the CFPB explained found that medical debt collections tradelines (also referred to as medical collections) are less predictive of future consumer credit performance than nonmedical collections.
                        <SU>130</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB cited research included in part XI, 
                        <E T="03">Technical Appendix,</E>
                         of the NPRM (which is also addressed in part XII, 
                        <E T="03">Technical Appendix,</E>
                         of this final rule), which the CFPB said suggests that not only can creditors responsibly underwrite credit without information about consumers' medical debts, but also that such information may lead to a market failure because it may be an inaccurate signal of whether a consumer will pay a future debt. The CFPB also stated that under the assumption that two-year serious delinquency is a good proxy for the overall risk of a credit account, the 
                        <E T="03">Technical Appendix</E>
                         implies that information about consumers' medical debts distorts underwriting decisions, impairs creditors' ability to make safe and low-risk credit approvals, and thus reduces credit approval volumes within creditors' risk-tolerances.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>130</SU>
                             Kenneth P. Brevoort &amp; Michelle Kambara, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Data point: Medical debt and credit scores</E>
                             (May 2014), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/201405_cfpb_report_data-point_medical-debt-credit-scores.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB also noted that two major credit score providers had adjusted their newer models to reduce or eliminate the weight of medical debt collections,
                        <SU>131</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         which it said further confirmed the limited value of medical debt information for ensuring that credit decisions are based on whether a consumer will repay a loan. The CFPB observed that, however, some widely used models still weigh medical and nonmedical collections equally.
                        <SU>132</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB stated that this means that consumers with medical debt may still be negatively affected if creditors use older scoring models that overweigh medical debt.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>131</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             VantageScore, 
                            <E T="03">Major Credit Score News: VantageScore Removes Medical Debt Collection Records From Latest Scoring Models [Update]</E>
                             (Aug. 10, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.vantagescore.com/major-credit-score-news-vantagescore-removes-medical-debt-collection-records-from-latest-scoring-models/</E>
                             (VantageScore to remove medical collection data from VantageScore 3.0 and 4.0 models by January 2023); Ethan Dornhelm, 
                            <E T="03">The Impact of Medical Debt Collections on FICO Scores,</E>
                             FICO Blog (July 13, 2015), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fico.com/blogs/impact-medical-debt-collections-ficor-scores</E>
                             (describing changes to FICO Score 9 with regard to medical collections).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>132</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Medical Debt Burden in the United States,</E>
                             at 27-28 (Feb. 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_medical-debt-burden-in-the-united-states_report_2022-03.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Comments about the CFPB's findings and research about the limited predictive value of medical debt information are discussed in part VII, 
                        <E T="03">CFPA Section 1022(b) Analysis.</E>
                         Generally, however, the CFPB received comments both agreeing and disagreeing with the CFPB's findings about the value of medical debt information for predicting a consumer's ability to repay a future debt. Commenters disagreeing with the CFPB's conclusions emphasized that the CFPB's research states that medical debt is less predictive and is not “not” predictive of a consumer's risk of delinquency. These commenters also stated that because, in their view, medical debt information is predictive, creditors need such information to make accurate assessments of a consumers' creditworthiness and capacity to take on debt. One commenter also stated that the CFPB had failed to consider whether voluntarily incurred medical debt differs from involuntarily incurred medical debt in terms of predictiveness. Commenters disputing the CFPB's finding that medical debt information has limited predictive value also stated that even though one major credit score provider, VantageScore, has removed medical debt as a factor in its newer credit score models, another major credit score provider, FICO, has found that consumers with unpaid medical debt tradelines are more risky than consumers without any derogatory information in their credit files.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Commenters opposing the rule also stated that several public statements by CFPB officials that medical debt information is not predictive contradict the CFPB's research findings that medical collections information is relatively less predictive than nonmedical collections information. Commenters also stated that the proposal conflicts with the CFPB's positions in other contexts, such as with regard to a CFPB blog post about credit reporting and the buy now pay later industry encouraging more information furnishing of both positive and negative information.
                        <SU>133</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>133</SU>
                             Martin Kleinbard &amp; Laura Udis, 
                            <E T="03">Buy Now, Pay Later and Credit Reporting,</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau (June 15, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/about-us/blog/by-now-pay-later-and-credit-reporting/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As explained further by the CFPB in part VII, 
                        <E T="03">CFPA Section 1022(b) Analysis,</E>
                         the CFPB maintains that its research shows that medical debt information overall has only limited predictive value and the CFPB expects that medical collections can be removed from underwriting models without significantly reducing their ability to predict serious delinquency if underwriting models continue to include other variables that are sufficiently predictive of delinquency risk. The CFPB reminds creditors and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3298"/>
                        consumer reporting agencies to look to the requirements of the final rule to determine their compliance obligations and not statements generally characterizing the rule for the public. The CFPB also disagrees with commenters that the CFPB's proposed approach is contradictory; any general statements about credit reporting or consideration of consumer information for credit eligibility were made under contexts specific to those statements and were not made in consideration of the findings, evidence, and policies for this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In support of its preliminary determination, the CFPB also noted that, fourth, the inconsistent nature of medical collection furnishing and medical debt collection practices likely limits the value of such information for credit underwriting. The CFPB expressed that the vast majority of such medical debt reporting is done by third-party debt collectors,
                        <SU>134</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         who use consumer reporting as a way to coerce consumers to pay medical debt, even in some cases for medical debt that the consumer may not owe or that has already been paid.
                        <SU>135</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, the CFPB also explained that not all medical debt is reported; not all medical debt collectors report medical debts to consumer reporting agencies and health care providers themselves rarely do so.
                        <SU>136</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB suggested that these issues imply that even consumers with similar amounts of medical debt may face markedly different outcomes in the credit market based on whether their medical debt is furnished or not.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>134</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Market Snapshot: An Update on Third-Party Debt Collections Tradelines Reporting,</E>
                             at 16 (Feb. 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_market-snapshot-third-party-debt-collections-tradelines-reporting_2023-02.pdf</E>
                             (as of Q1 2022, 57 percent of all tradelines were medical collections and were the most common collections type); Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Market Snapshot: Third-Party Debt Collections Tradelines Reporting,</E>
                             at 12-13 (July 2019), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/201907_cfpb_third-party-debt-collections_report.pdf</E>
                             (finding that 58 percent of collections tradelines in credit records from 2004 to 2018 were for medical debt); Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Consumer credit reports: A study of medical and non-medical collections,</E>
                             at 5 (Dec. 2014), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/201412_cfpb_reports_consumer-credit-medical-and-non-medical-collections.pdf</E>
                             (medical collections account for 52.1 percent of all collections tradelines).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>135</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Market Snapshot: An Update on Third-Party Debt Collections Tradelines Reporting,</E>
                             at 12 n.9 (Feb. 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_market-snapshot-third-party-debt-collections-tradelines-reporting_2023-02.pdf</E>
                             (describing how medical tradelines often do not persist on consumer reports, how medical collections accounts are rarely marked as paid, and noting “pay-to-delete” practices used by debt collectors and debt buyers to pressure consumers into paying or settling debt).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>136</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Medical Debt Burden in the United States,</E>
                             at 26 (Feb. 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_medical-debt-burden-in-the-united-states_report_2022-03.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB did not receive any comments disputing that medical debt information is inconsistently reported. One commenter, however, stated that the CFPB's proposal would not resolve this issue and medical debt information is nonetheless an important data point for creditors. In response to this commenter, the CFPB notes that as explained in part VII.E.5, 
                        <E T="03">Availability of information on consumer reports used in underwriting,</E>
                         evidence shows that some medical collections reflect inaccurate billing practices, and their inconsistent inclusion on consumer reports adds only a noisy signal of consumers' ability to pay.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the proposal, the CFPB also stated that, fifth, many industry participants have reduced or stopped their reliance on information about medical debt, casting doubt on its value. The three NCRAs have stopped reporting medical collections that are under $500, less than a year old, or paid.
                        <SU>137</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         And, the CFPB observed, large credit scoring companies are moving to models that completely or partially exclude medical collections.
                        <SU>138</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB also noted that it had learned from several small entity representatives during the SBREFA process that some creditors have stopped considering medical collections in their underwriting.
                        <SU>139</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>137</SU>
                             Bus. Wire, 
                            <E T="03">Equifax, Experian, and TransUnion Support U.S. Consumers With Changes to Medical Collection Debt Reporting</E>
                             (Mar. 18, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.businesswire.com/news/home/20220318005244/en/Equifax-Experian-and-TransUnion-Support-U.S.-Consumers-With-Changes-to-Medical-Collection-Debt-Reporting.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>138</SU>
                             One such credit score provider, VantageScore, has completely stopped factoring medical collections in the latest versions of its models due to lack of their predictiveness as compared with other accounts in collections. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             AnnaMaria Andriotis, 
                            <E T="03">Major Credit-Score Provider to Exclude Medical Debts,</E>
                             Wall St. J. (Aug. 10, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.wsj.com/articles/major-credit-score-provider-to-exclude-medical-debts-11660102729.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>139</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Comment from Arlington Cmty. Fed. Credit Union, 
                            <E T="03">Re: FCRA Proposals and Alternatives Under Consideration,</E>
                             at 2-3 (Nov. 6, 2023), SBREFA Report app. A; Comment from First Sec. Bank &amp; Tr., 
                            <E T="03">Re: CFPB's Outline of Proposals and Alternatives Under Consideration, Small Business Advisory Review Panel for Consumer Reporting Rulemaking,</E>
                             at 7 (Nov. 6, 2023), SBREFA Report app. A (bank does not consider medical collections unless aware the consumer has made periodic payment arrangements with a collection agency or medical establishment).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Some commenters disagreed with the CFPB that these developments imply that the market likewise finds that medical debt information has limited value for credit underwriting. The commenters generally stated that the market actions indicate that the CFPB's proposal is duplicative and unnecessary. Some other commenters emphasized, however, that the NCRAs' actions were not about the predictiveness of information, but rather were meant to provide more time for health insurance reimbursements. Other commenters stated that the NCRAs' changes have left large medical debts on consumer reports, which the commenters said should be considered in credit underwriting. Commenters supporting the CFPB's proposal, however, stated the market changes have been insufficient and many Americans still have medical debt information on their consumer reports, emphasized that the national consumer reporting agencies' actions are voluntary and could be stopped, and observed that there are still older credit scores and metrics in use that do not have the same adjustments that reduce the amount of medical debt information on consumer reports.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB disagrees with the commenters implying the market participant actions described in the proposal are not significant indicators it should take under consideration for the final rule. For example, the NCRAs' actions to remove medical debt collections with balances of less than $500 and paid medical collections on consumer reports, credit score providers FICO's and VantageScore's actions to reduce or remove consideration of medical debt collection information from their newer models, and changes by individual lenders represent a clear trend in the credit reporting and credit markets to reduce the weight of medical debt information for credit evaluation purposes. However, as noted by commenters, the NCRAs' actions are voluntary and could be reversed, and medical debt information still remains on consumer reports. Given the CFPB's finding, as noted above, that medical debt information has limited predictive value and its expectation that medical collections can be removed from underwriting models without significantly reducing their ability to predict serious delinquency if underwriting models continue to include other variables that are sufficiently predictive of delinquency risk, the CFPB concludes that it is no longer appropriate and necessary for creditors to consider medical debt information under a regulatory exception to the statutory creditor prohibition.</P>
                    <P>
                        Sixth, the CFPB also explained in the proposal that some States and some Federal agencies have also acted to limit creditors' access to, or ability to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3299"/>
                        consider, certain medical debt information. As an example, the CFPB noted that several States had prohibited, or had been considering prohibiting, the inclusion of consumer medical debt on consumer reports at the time of the NPRM.
                        <SU>140</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB stated that although such efforts were in their early stages, the CFPB was not aware of evidence that such actions had affected creditors' underwriting standards or that creditors have materially curtailed access to credit or tightened credit terms in those States. The CFPB also explained that some Federal government agencies had also been reviewing and modifying their underwriting practices to reduce or eliminate medical debt collections from consideration when evaluating whether a consumer will repay a loan.
                        <SU>141</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB stated that these changes by the States and by the Federal government indicate a growing awareness that medical debt information may have limited value for credit underwriting purposes. The CFPB also stated that consumer reporting agencies and creditors will already need to comply with these new laws and best practices and, given operational and business realities, may need to do so on a broad basis. The CFPB concluded that removing the financial information exception in Regulation V would create a uniform nationwide baseline consistent with these advancements.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>140</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Colo. Rev. Stat. section 5-18-109; N.Y. Pub. Health Law art. 49-A; 2024 Conn. Act 24-6; 2024 Va. Acts ch. 751. Since the NPRM was issued, several other states have passed similar laws. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             2024 Cal. SB 1061; 2024 Minn. Ch. 332C; 2024 New Jersey A3681; 2024 Ill. Pub. Act 103-0648.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>141</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             The White House, 
                            <E T="03">Fact Sheet: The Biden Administration Announces New Actions to Lessen the Burden of Medical Debt and Increase Consumer Protection</E>
                             (Apr. 11, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/briefing-room/statements-releases/2022/04/11/fact-sheet-the-biden-administration-announces-new-actions-to-lessen-the-burden-of-medical-debt-and-increase-consumer-protection/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Commenters opposing the rule disagreed with the CFPB that State and Federal actions related to medical debt also argue in favor of the CFPB's preliminary determination. Some such commenters said that the CFPB should not finalize its proposed rule because some States have already enacted reforms as to medical debt information and credit reporting. One commenter stated that the proposed rule, if finalized, could create confusion for small entities in States with such protections and the CFPB should clarify which law controls. One commenter supporting the proposed rule stated that the rule enhances some States' consumer protection efforts as to medical debt, such as those in New York, or provide protection for residents of states without such measures.</P>
                    <P>Other commenters stated that changes on the Federal level on medical debt remove the need for any intervention by the CFPB, citing the passage of the No Surprises Act, changes to Regulation F (which implements the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act), and inquiries into medical credit cards and other medical payment products, among others. One commenter also stated that health insurance under the Affordable Care Act is more accessible than before and there currently are high rates of insurance coverage. One commenter stated that the CFPB's reference to actions by Freddie Mac and Fannie Mae to no longer consider medical collections in mortgage underwriting does not prove the CFPB's preliminary determination; the two entities, who are under conservatorship, were directed to make such changes by the Federal government and the changes were not based on research and analysis.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB reaffirms its point in the proposal that the changes that have been made by the States and by the Federal government indicate that there is a growing awareness that medical debt information may have limited value for credit underwriting purposes. The CFPB agrees with commenters that the CFPB's proposal would facilitate such efforts. Further, contrary to some commenters' assertions, the CFPB believes that the actions to date, which are not uniform in their scope or execution, suggest that consumers would benefit from having a Federal, baseline standard for the creditors' treatment of medical debt information.</P>
                    <P>Although not mentioned by the CFPB as part of the reasoning behind its preliminary determination, a few commenters stated the CFPB also claimed that the proposal will solve the issue of debt parking, which the commenters stated is not a real concern. In response, the CFPB notes that debt parking was not a focus of its proposal and was not cited as a one of the reasons underlying its preliminary determination. Likewise, debt parking is not one of the justifications for the final rule.</P>
                    <P>In addition to disputing the specific points raised by the CFPB in support of its preliminary determination, some commenters also disagreed with the CFPB's preliminary determination that the financial information exception as to medical debt information is not consistent with the intent of the creditor prohibition to protect consumers' sensitive medical information. These commenters stated that current privacy protections are sufficient and that the CFPB had not considered or presented evidence of inappropriate practices by lenders under the current rule that warrant the change in policy. Commenters also stated that the FCRA does not delegate the power to change privacy protections to the CFPB; that the proposal might increase privacy risks, because it may require handling of medical information across more entities; and that consumers would have less privacy because of a likely increase in debt collection litigation as a result of the rule.</P>
                    <P>With regard to these commenters' concerns about privacy, the CFPB observes that by enacting FCRA section 604(g)(2), Congress made a determination that all medical information—including medical debt information, as a type of medical information—is sensitive data warranting specific privacy protections in the form of the creditor prohibition. By removing the financial information exception, the CFPB is acting within its authority to remove an exception put in place by the predecessor Agencies and is facilitating Congress's intent to provide privacy protections in the manner it determined was appropriate to protect consumers' medical information.</P>
                    <P>Some commenters also generally stated that the CFPB had not met the requirements of FCRA section 604(g)(5). One commenter stated that Congress had not granted the CFPB authority to further limit the use of medical information at all. And, instead, FCRA section 604(g)(5) authorizes the CFPB to allow more medical information to be considered. Another commenter stated that the CFPB had effectively ignored the statutorily required balancing process by largely ignoring legitimate needs for the information and concluding that use of medical debt information for purposes of assessing credit risk is virtually always an inappropriate purpose. One commenter supporting the rule, however, stated that the CFPB had clearly acted within its authority under FCRA section 604(g)(5) and had used reasoned decision-making in removing a regulatory exception, via notice and comment rulemaking. The commenter also stated that the CFPB's multiple research studies demonstrate that the CFPB's decision was well reasoned.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB disagrees that it has not met the requirements to amend or remove an exception under FCRA section 604(g)(5). FCRA section 604(g)(5) provides the CFPB with the authority to “prescribe regulations that permit transactions” under the creditor 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3300"/>
                        prohibition in FCRA section 604(g)(2) or, in other words, establish exceptions to the prohibition.
                        <SU>142</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB is exercising that authority here by amending its existing regulation, 12 CFR 1022.30, that creates exceptions to the statutory creditor prohibition. In particular, the CFPB is amending the financial information exception by rescinding the financial information exception in most of its existing applications but retaining a version of the exception in § 1022.30(e)(1)(x), with revisions discussed later in this preamble. Logically, in addition to establishing regulations to permit creditors' consideration of more medical information, the CFPB likewise has authority to amend or rescind, partially or fully, previously promulgated exceptions to the creditor prohibition, if it determines that such an exception is not necessary and appropriate, consistent with the intent of the creditor prohibition to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes. When determining whether to amend or remove a regulatory exception, the CFPB carefully considers the underlying rationales as well as the policy and economic consequences of doing so, while taking into account the baseline obligations created by Congress. As explained above, the CFPB has carefully reviewed the evidence about medical debt information and its value for credit underwriting, which was not available at the time the predecessor Agencies promulgated the financial information exception, in consideration of the privacy purpose of the creditor prohibition. Its final determination is based upon this review.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>142</SU>
                             As explained below in part VI.B, commenters are also incorrect to assert that the CFPB lacks authority to prohibit creditors from obtaining or using financial aspects of medical information because FCRA section 604(g)(2) has a parenthetical cross-referencing FCRA section 605(a)(6).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        For the reasons above, the CFPB is finalizing its determination that it generally is not “necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs” for creditors to consider sensitive financial information concerning a consumer's medical debt for underwriting purposes. The CFPB also finds that creditors' consideration of such information under the existing financial information exception is not consistent with the intent of the creditor prohibition to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes, as required for an exception under FCRA section 604(g)(5).
                        <SU>143</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>143</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(5).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Medical Information Related to Expenses, Assets, and Collateral</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposal</HD>
                    <P>The financial information exception currently permits a creditor to obtain and use medical information relating to expenses, assets, and collateral, including the value, condition, and lien status of a medical device that may be collateral to secure a loan. As the CFPB explained in the NPRM, medical expenses and medical debts are closely related, in that unpaid medical expenses often become medical debts. Because of the similarities between medical expenses and medical debts, the CFPB proposed to treat these categories of medical information the same. The CFPB also explained that medical information related to a consumer's assets and collateral generally refers to medical equipment serving as an asset or as collateral for a loan, which a creditor could potentially seize or anticipate could be liquidated to pay off a loan. The CFPB understood that such medical equipment is often necessary and potentially lifesaving. Because of the similarities between medical expenses and medical debts and the importance of medical assets and collateral to a consumer's well-being, the CFPB preliminarily determined in its proposal that it is not “necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs” for creditors to consider medical information relating to a consumer's expenses or assets and collateral.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB sought comment on its proposed approach to removing the financial information exception for expenses, assets, and collateral, and expressed particular interest in receiving feedback from creditors and their representatives regarding whether they take medical devices as collateral or into consideration as assets that may be used by consumers to pay a future debt obligation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Comments</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB received many comments related to its proposed approach to removing the financial information exception for expenses, assets, and collateral, most of which expressed support for the CFPB's proposal.</P>
                    <P>Commenters expressed that as a consumer's medical debt has not been found to have predictive value as to a consumer's ability to repay a loan, the fact that a consumer has medical expenses or durable medical equipment is likewise unlikely to have predictive value.</P>
                    <P>One commenter shared their opinion that all debt is relevant to creditworthiness, so medical equipment should not be shielded from repossession for failure to pay. However, the same individual commenter ultimately expressed support for the rule as proposed, explaining that the rule as proposed is the best solution given the complex nature of health care and medical billing practices.</P>
                    <P>Many commenters expressed support for the removal of the financial information exception for collateral, characterizing their support for the rule as support for prohibiting debt collectors from taking medical devices as loan collateral, and protecting consumers from having their medical equipment such as wheelchairs or prosthetic limbs repossessed. Many commenters further indicated that the possibility that medical equipment could be used as collateral and consequently repossessed for a consumer's inability to pay was unreasonable.</P>
                    <P>A comment from a coalition of several major national orthotic and prosthetic organizations in support of the proposal expressed concern that the rule is unclear as to whether a health care provider or supplier of medical devices would fall under the definition of “creditor” for the purposes of determining whether they are entities that may not repossess a medical device under the rule. The same commenter also expressed that they were unaware of repossession of orthotics and prosthetics as a practice and elaborated that because many types of medical devices, including some orthotics and prosthesis, cannot be reused by other patients, holding such devices as collateral serves only to punish the patient. The CFPB did receive one comment from an attorney saying that she had personally seen medical devices being repossessed, but the CFPB did not hear evidence from other commenters of this being a widespread issue.</P>
                    <P>
                        Many commenters expressed that medical devices should be prohibited from serving as collateral for a loan. Commenters expressed that repossession of medical devices is a dangerous practice that limits or altogether prohibits individuals' mobility, productivity, and overall well-being. Commenters elaborated that this makes it even more difficult or perhaps impossible for consumers to ever pay their debts. Other commenters also explained the disparate impact using medical devices as collateral has on certain communities, particularly veterans and disabled individuals who 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3301"/>
                        may be more likely to rely on medical devices.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Final Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB understands that medical information related to a consumer's assets and collateral generally refers to medical equipment serving as an asset or as collateral for a loan, which a creditor may potentially seize or anticipate could be liquidated to pay off a loan. The CFPB also understands that such medical equipment is often necessary and potentially lifesaving. The CFPB has also not observed the repossession of medical devices as a typical practice in the market, despite the personal experience from one commenter, suggesting that there is likely to be low or non-existent costs or other burdens associated with the rule as it pertains to repossession of medical devices. Thus, given the importance of medical assets and collateral to a consumer's well-being and the apparent limited existence of this practice currently, the CFPB has determined that it is not “necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs,” or consistent with the intent of the creditor prohibition to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes, for creditors to consider medical information relating to a consumer's assets and collateral. For the reasons stated above, the CFPB finalizes as proposed, removing the financial information exception for expenses, assets, and collateral and related examples at previously existing § 1022.30(d). The CFPB anticipates that under the final rule, creditors will not be able to obtain medical information for purposes of creating a security interest in medical devices, and consequently, typically will not use medical devices as collateral.
                        <SU>144</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>144</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             U.C.C. 9-203(b)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In response to the commenter expressing concern about whether health care providers and suppliers of medical devices fall under the definition of “creditor” for the purposes of the rule, this rule does not purport to modify the definition of “creditor,” which is defined in 12 CFR 1022.30(b)(2)(ii). Determining whether a health care provider or supplier of medical devices is a creditor is a fact-specific inquiry that depends on the facts and circumstances. In assessing their obligations under the rule, health care providers and suppliers of medical devices should look to the definition of “creditor” in 12 CFR 1022.30(b)(2)(ii), which provides that the term has the same meaning as in section 702 of the ECOA. And, separately, the CFPB reminds health care providers and suppliers to look to final § 1022.30 to determine their obligations as to obtaining or using medical information for credit eligibility determinations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Medical Information Related to Income, Benefits, or the Purpose of the Loan</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposal</HD>
                    <P>
                        The financial information exception currently permits creditors to consider medical information related to income, benefits, and the purpose of the loan, including the use of the loan proceeds under certain conditions. The CFPB proposed to remove the financial information exception while retaining these elements of the exception that permit a creditor to consider medical information relating to income, benefits, and the purpose of the loan. In its proposal, the CFPB explained its preliminary determination that the elements of the exception relating to income, benefits, and the purpose of the loan are necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs, including permitting actions necessary for administrative verification purposes, consistent with FCRA's intent to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes. The CFPB explained that consumers whose primary source of income is disability benefits might not be able to obtain credit at all if creditors could not consider their income.
                        <SU>145</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         And since creditors may be unwilling to underwrite if they lack information about the purpose of a loan, consumers might not be able to obtain needed credit unless creditors have access to that information.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>145</SU>
                             The CFPB notes that ECOA and Regulation B prohibit creditors from discriminating in any aspect of a credit transaction against an applicant because all or part of the applicant's income derives from a public assistance program, which includes but is not limited to Social Security disability income. 15 U.S.C. 1691(a)(2); 12 CFR 1002.2(z), 1002.4(a); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             Regulation B comment 2(z)-3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Comments</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB received a number of comments related to its approach to retaining elements of the financial information exception that permit a creditor to consider medical information relating to income, benefits, and the purpose of the loan. Most comments were from consumers expressing approval of the CFPB's proposal.</P>
                    <P>One commenter, a professional association for physicians and medical students, stated that this aspect of the financial information exception was appropriate because it ensures that creditors can consider necessary financial information, such as income from disability or workers' compensation, without compromising the privacy and sensitivity of the consumer's medical information. The commenter elaborated that the proposed rule balances the need for accurate credit assessments with the protection of consumer privacy. Another commenter, citing a report by a nonpartisan research and policy institute, explained that a large percentage of Supplemental Security Income (SSI) beneficiaries rely on SSI benefits as their only source of income, and the CFPB's proposal ensures that these consumers can access credit and qualify for a loan.</P>
                    <P>One commenter expressed concern about the potential for misuse of information obtained under proposed § 1022.30(e)(1)(x). The commenter suggested that once a creditor becomes aware of information obtained under the exception, it may be difficult to measure bias or ensure the information is used in a permitted manner. Another commenter, a State insurance commissioner, expressed support for the CFPB's proposal, but similarly expressed concern about the lack of visibility into a credit reporting agency's use of this type of medical information.</P>
                    <P>One commenter expressed concern that § 1022.30(e) includes examples illustrating the exception as applied to medical information related to benefits and income but does not include examples illustrating the exception as applied to medical information related to the purpose of the loan.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Final Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        Except as discussed in as discussed in part VI.A, 
                        <E T="03">Consumer-Authorized Transaction History</E>
                         below, the CFPB finalizes § 1022.30(e)(1)(x) as substantially proposed, with technical edits for renumbering. Final § 1022.30(e)(1)(x)(A)(
                        <E T="03">2</E>
                        ), previously proposed § 1022.30(e)(1)(x)(A), generally provides an exception for the use of medical information relating to income, benefits, or the purpose of the loan, including the use of proceeds. Section 1022.30(e)(1)(x)(A)(
                        <E T="03">2</E>
                        ) also provides examples of the types of financial information related to income and benefits relied upon as a source of repayment. Final § 1022.30(e)(1)(x)(B) and (C) provide that a creditor must use the medical information described in § 1022.30(e)(1)(x)(A) in a manner and to an extent that is no less favorable than comparable, nonmedical information and that the creditor cannot take the consumer's physical, mental, or 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3302"/>
                        behavioral health, condition or history, type of treatment, or prognosis into account.
                    </P>
                    <P>Regarding comments expressing concerns about transparency and the potential for misuse of information obtained under the rule, final § 1022.30(e)(1)(x) restates the previously codified exception with a narrower scope. The CFPB is not aware of any concerns related to the consideration of medical information related to income, benefits, or purpose of the loan, and declines to make any further revisions.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB also finalizes as proposed Example 7 in § 1022.30(e)(7), which illustrates a use of medical information related to long-term disability income. Regarding the comment about the need for examples illustrating when medical information may relate to the purpose of the loan, the commenter did not suggest language, and the CFPB declines to revise § 1022.30(e) to include examples illustrating the exception as applied to medical information related to the purpose of the loan.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Limits on a Consumer Reporting Agency's Disclosure of Medical Debt Information</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposal</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB proposed to add new § 1022.38 to subpart D to address how a consumer reporting agency's medical debt information reporting responsibilities would be impacted by the proposal to remove the financial information exception for obtaining and using medical information in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility for credit. Proposed § 1022.38 would have permitted a consumer reporting agency to include medical debt information in a consumer report furnished to a creditor for credit eligibility purposes only if the following criteria are met: (1) the consumer reporting agency has reason to believe the creditor intends to use the medical debt information in a manner not prohibited by § 1022.30; and (2) the consumer reporting agency is not otherwise prohibited from furnishing to the creditor a consumer report containing the medical debt information, including by a State law that prohibits furnishing to the creditor a consumer report containing medical debt information.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB also proposed a related amendment to remove the example in § 1022.30(c)(3)(iii), which describes a creditor receiving medical information on a consumer report furnished by a consumer reporting agency. While there may be some instances where a consumer reporting agency may furnish to a creditor a consumer report containing medical information, the proposed amendments would limit those instances and render the example less instructive and potentially confusing. Therefore, the CFPB proposed to remove the example.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB considered alternatives to its proposed approach to § 1022.38 but preliminarily determined that its rulemaking goals were best achieved through the proposed approach. For example, as discussed in the SBREFA Outline and the proposed rule, the CFPB considered mandating a delay in the furnishing and reporting of medical debt for a particular period of time, and not reporting or furnishing medical debt below a particular dollar amount.
                        <SU>146</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB also considered requiring consumer reporting agencies and medical information furnishers, upon receiving a dispute, to conduct an independent investigation to certify that a disputed medical debt is accurate and not subject to pending insurance disputes.
                        <SU>147</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB requested comment on all aspects of proposed § 1022.38, including the alternatives discussed.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>146</SU>
                             SBREFA Outline at 19; 89 FR 51682, 51695 (June 18, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>147</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 51696.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Comments</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposed § 1022.38 Generally</HD>
                    <P>
                        A number of commenters expressed general support for proposed § 1022.38 and identified benefits of the proposal. For example, some commenters stated that proposed § 1022.38 would stop debt collectors from using the credit reporting system as a payment coercion tactic and forcing consumers to pay debts that they may not owe. Commenters also explained that proposed § 1022.38 would protect consumers' health privacy. See part VII, 
                        <E T="03">CFPA Section 1022(b) Analysis,</E>
                         for a more fulsome discussion of benefits.
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition, the CFPB received comments that appeared to be part of several comment submission campaigns in support of the proposed rule. Such comments typically advocated for finalizing the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        Other commenters expressed general opposition to proposed § 1022.38 and identified various categories of harms, including to consumers (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         increased healthcare costs, reduced access to medical care), medical providers (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         loss of income from non-payment, increased reliance on litigation), debt collectors (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         decrease in collectible accounts, increased collection costs), creditors (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         unable to assess the true credit risk of potential borrowers, increased reliance on litigation), insurance providers (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         consumers would be disincentivized from purchasing health insurance), and consumer reporting agencies (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         removal of medical debt from consumer reports would be complex and costly). One commenter noted that household surveys, court records, and information collected from providers will be increasingly important sources of data for tracking the prevalence of medical debt, as less of this debt appears on consumer reports. Another commenter noted that the transition to newer credit score models that exclude medical debt is not expected until the fourth quarter of 2025. See part VII, 
                        <E T="03">CFPA Section 1022(b) Analysis,</E>
                         for a more fulsome discussion of potential harms.
                    </P>
                    <P>The CFPB also received comments that appeared to be part of several comment submission campaigns opposing the proposed rule. Such comments typically identified potential harms and requested that the CFPB reconsider the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>Some commenters appear to have misunderstood the proposal as limiting the circumstances in which a consumer reporting agency can receive information about a consumer's medical information.</P>
                    <P>A number of commenters stated that proposed § 1022.38 is unnecessary because the recent market changes leave only unpaid medical debts greater than $500 on consumer reports, and the proposal fails to recognize the marketplace's ongoing self-corrections and innovation. At least one commenter pointed to the CFPB's Data Point as demonstrating that debts above $500 are associated with higher delinquency rates and should continue to be reported and considered in underwriting. Some commenters requested that the CFPB at least allow more time to evaluate whether the NCRAs' reporting changes from 2022 and 2023 will address the CFPB's concerns about medical debt.</P>
                    <P>
                        Some commenters questioned the CFPB's authority to promulgate § 1022.38. For example, commenters stated that FCRA section 604(g)(1)(C) affirmatively authorizes a consumer reporting agency to furnish a consumer report that contains such medical debt information if the information is coded to hide the identity of the provider or nature of services. Commenters therefore concluded that Congress's intent to permit consumer reporting agencies to furnish medical debt information is clear and the CFPB cannot supersede such a statutory authorization. At least one commenter stated that because FCRA section 604(g)(1)(C) affirmatively permits a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3303"/>
                        consumer reporting agency to provide medical information related to transactions, accounts or balances relating to debts arising from the receipt of medical services, products, or devices, the FCRA section 621(e) general rulemaking authority, which is limited to those rules necessary and appropriate to administer and carry out the purposes and objectives of the FCRA, and to prevent evasions thereof or to facilitate compliance therewith, is insufficient to support proposed § 1022.38. A commenter noted that Congress has attempted, but failed, to pass legislation to give CFPB the explicit authority to eliminate medical debt from consumer reports. In addition, commenters pointed to the congressional finding in the FCRA that the banking system is dependent upon fair and accurate credit reporting and stated that a consumer report that does not reflect significant debts owed by a consumer is, by definition, inaccurate. One commenter noted that Congress chose to promote the accuracy of information on consumer reports by expressly requiring furnishers to have reasonable procedures to ensure they provide complete and accurate information, and by enabling consumers to dispute the accuracy of specific items on their consumer reports, not by suppressing information.
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition, commenters stated that FCRA section 605(a) specifically identifies types of records that may not be included on a consumer report (unless an exception applies). They further stated that in 2018, Congress amended the list of items specifically excluded from consumer reports to include, under certain circumstances, information related to a veteran's medical debt. From this, the commenters concluded that Congress clearly articulated in the FCRA information that may not be included in a consumer report and considered the impact of medical debt reporting but chose not to exclude all categories of medical debt from consumer reports. Another commenter noted that on multiple occasions, Congress has amended the FCRA to regulate when, how, and to what extent medical information may be included in consumer reports and concluded that if Congress wanted to ban medical debt from consumer reports, it would have done so.</P>
                    <P>Commenters also stated that the specific grants of rulemaking authority in FCRA section 604(g) do not provide the CFPB with authority to restrict account information included in consumer reports or to otherwise regulate how medical debt is reported.</P>
                    <P>To be clear, the proposed rule did not purport to, and the final rule does not, prohibit furnishers from furnishing accurate medical debts to consumer reporting agencies. Section 1022.38 addresses how consumer reporting agencies' responsibilities, with respect to medical debt information, are impacted when creditors are prohibited from obtaining or using the medical debt information.</P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed above, the CFPB acknowledges the value of the voluntary consumer reporting changes by the three NCRAs that stopped the reporting of some, but not all, medical debt on a consumer report. However, the CFPB has determined that these types of changes do not do enough to protect the privacy of consumers' medical data during the credit underwriting process, nor do they resolve concerns about accuracy. Although these market changes have reduced the total number of medical collections tradelines reflected on consumer reports, their voluntary nature means there is some uncertainty about whether the changes could be reversed in the future, and, as discussed in part I.B, 
                        <E T="03">Market Background, Medical Debt and Consumer Reporting,</E>
                         15 million Americans still have $49 billion in medical bills on their consumer reports even after the NCRAs' voluntary changes. A number of commenters share the CFPB's position that because the changes are voluntary and do not cover all amounts of medical debt, the permanence and broader effect of removing the financial information exception in this rulemaking is important. And, the fact that the CFPB has no evidence that the voluntary NCRA reporting changes have disrupted the market provides another basis for finalizing this rule, which builds upon those voluntary changes to provide expanded and permanent protections for consumers.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Contrary to some commenters' assertions, FCRA section 604(g)(1)(C) does not affirmatively authorize a consumer reporting agency to furnish a consumer report containing medical information. FCRA section 604(g)(1)(C) is a prohibition. FCRA section 604(g)(1)(C) states “
                        <E T="03">Limitation on consumer reporting agencies.</E>
                         A consumer reporting agency shall not furnish . . . in connection with a credit . . . transaction . . . .” FCRA section 604(g)(1)(C) prohibits a consumer reporting agency from furnishing, in connection with a credit transaction, a consumer report that contains medical debt information that is not anonymized (assuming the consumer has not consented to the furnishing of a report under FCRA section 604(g)(1)(B)). Such protections are necessary when creditors are lawfully permitted to obtain and use medical information, such as when an appropriate agency has used its delegated authority to create an exception to the general prohibition on creditors obtaining and using medical information as set forth in FCRA section 604(g)(2) and (5)(A). The protection in FCRA section 604(g)(1)(C) ensures that the medical information obtained or used by creditors would be anonymized to protect consumers' privacy. The fact that FCRA section 604(g)(1)(C) carves certain anonymized information out of the general prohibition in FCRA section 604(g)(1) does not immunize such anonymized information from restrictions contained in other provisions, such as FCRA section 604(a)'s permissible purpose restrictions or regulations issued under FCRA section 621(e).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, the fact that FCRA section 605(a) identifies some types of records that may not be included on a consumer report does not mean that the CFPB lacks authority to determine that other types of records also may not be included on a consumer report. To the contrary, when Congress gave the CFPB rule writing authority under the FCRA, it excepted only two specific provisions of the FCRA—sections 615(e) and 628.
                        <SU>148</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         By implication, with respect to every other provision of the FCRA, Congress intended the CFPB to be able to prescribe regulations as may be necessary or appropriate to administer and carry out the purposes and objectives of the FCRA, and to prevent evasions thereof or to facilitate compliance therewith.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>148</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681s(e)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Relatedly, the fact that Congress enacted a specific, narrow solution to address particular concerns with veterans' medical debt does not mean that Congress intended to preclude the CFPB from addressing a different type of problem, albeit also related to medical debt. This rulemaking is directly related to the prohibition on creditors obtaining or using medical information in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility for credit, also enacted by Congress. This rulemaking merely removes an unwarranted regulatory exception to that prohibition, and the result of the removal of the exception, in light of other provisions in the FCRA, is that medical debt information is now an additional type of record that cannot be included in a consumer report under certain circumstances.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3304"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, as discussed in the 
                        <E T="03">Final Rule</E>
                         section below, the CFPB is not relying on the specific grants of rulemaking authority in FCRA section 604(g) as authority for § 1022.38.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposed § 1022.38(a)</HD>
                    <P>
                        The scope of proposed § 1022.38 would have applied to any consumer reporting agency as defined in section 603(f) of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f). At least one commenter noted that where Congress restricted veterans' medical debt on consumer reports, the provision was limited to the NCRAs as defined under section 603(p) of the FCRA.
                        <SU>149</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>149</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681c(a)(7) through (8).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB is finalizing § 1022.38(a) as proposed. Section 1022.38(a) references the definition of consumer reporting agency in FCRA section 603(f) and reflects the coverage of existing Regulation V. Limiting the scope of § 1022.38 to the NCRAs would not make sense because the permissible purpose provision in FCRA section 604(a)(3)(A), which supports the intervention, applies to consumer reporting agencies as that term is defined in FCRA section 603(f). Further, applying § 1022.38 to all consumer reporting agencies would facilitate compliance with the creditor prohibition in § 1022.30(b) when creditors use consumer reports from consumer reporting agencies that are not NCRAs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposed § 1022.38(b)(1)</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1022.38 would have permitted a consumer reporting agency to include medical debt information in a consumer report furnished to a creditor for credit eligibility purposes only if certain criteria are met. One criterion, in proposed § 1022.38(b)(1), was that the consumer reporting agency has reason to believe the creditor is not prohibited from using the medical debt information under § 1022.30.</P>
                    <P>Some commenters stated that the reason to believe standard in proposed § 1022.38(b)(1) is too loose or vague of a standard to adequately protect consumers, noting that the same language in FCRA section 604(a) has been interpreted by courts to absolve consumer reporting agencies of liability if the user merely avers a permissible use. Commenters identified various solutions, including requiring consumer reporting agencies to have strict procedures to prevent including medical debt in a report unless the user is permitted to use medical information under § 1022.30; replacing the reason to believe standard with a reasonable belief or actual knowledge standard; removing proposed § 1022.38(b)(1); or adding an objective criterion to the reason to believe standard.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter stated that the proposal to restrict the sharing of medical debt information is not necessary because, if the CFPB prohibits creditors from considering medical debt in making credit decisions, then consumer reporting agencies will neither collect nor share that information with creditors.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB is finalizing § 1022.38(b)(1) as proposed. The reason to believe standard in § 1022.38(b)(1) is derived from the permissible purpose requirement in FCRA section 604(a)(3)(A). FCRA section 604(a)(3)(A) states that one of the circumstances under which a consumer reporting agency may furnish a consumer report is to a person which it has reason to believe intends to use the information in connection with a credit transaction involving the consumer on which the information is to be furnished and involving the extension of credit to the consumer. With respect to the comment about this provision being unnecessary in light of the prohibition on creditors' consideration of medical debt information in credit decisions, this intervention will facilitate compliance with § 1022.30 by ensuring that consumer reporting agencies do not share information with creditors that creditors are prohibited from obtaining or using. If, in response to the prohibition on creditors obtaining or using medical debt information in § 1022.30, consumer reporting agencies would not collect or share consumers' medical debt information as the commenter asserts, then there should be no compliance burden or industry concerns associated with this provision.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposed § 1022.38(b)(2)</HD>
                    <P>The second criterion, in proposed § 1022.38(b)(2), was that the consumer reporting agency is not otherwise prohibited from furnishing to the creditor a consumer report containing the medical debt information, including by a State law that prohibits furnishing to the creditor a consumer report containing medical debt information. The purpose of proposed § 1022.38(b)(2) was to make clear that proposed § 1022.38 does not override any other prohibition regarding the furnishing of consumer reports.</P>
                    <P>At least one commenter stated that the CFPB failed to comply with Federal regulations governing incorporation by reference. And relatedly, the commenter noted that incorporating 50 different State laws into Federal law undermines the FCRA's goal of uniform credit-reporting standards.</P>
                    <P>Some commenters asserted that State laws that regulate what information may or may not be included on a consumer report are preempted by the FCRA and that the proposal violates the Tenth Amendment because CFPB does not have the authority to enforce State laws (or determine whether or not they are preempted by the FCRA). The commenters stated that proposed § 1022.38(b)(2) would have the effect of making a violation of State law into a violation of this rule.</P>
                    <P>Other commenters expressed support for proposed § 1022.38(b)(2). These commenters stated that Regulation V should not be interpreted to allow consumer reporting agencies to violate State laws governing medical information, and appreciated the CFPB's acknowledgment that states can implement additional consumer protections.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB is finalizing § 1022.38(b)(2) with amendments. The criterion set out in final § 1022.38(b)(2) requires the consumer reporting agency to have reason to believe the creditor is not otherwise legally prohibited from obtaining or using the medical debt information, including by a State law that prohibits a creditor from obtaining or using medical debt information. The CFPB is not, in final § 1022.38(b)(2), incorporating by reference State laws, deeming a violation of State law to be a violation of the FCRA, or otherwise affecting the enforcement of State laws, as some commenters asserted the proposed language would have done. As revised, final § 1022.38(b)(2) merely ensures that, independent of the prohibition in § 1022.30, a consumer reporting agency would generally still be prohibited from furnishing a consumer report containing medical debt information to a creditor who is legally prohibited from obtaining or using the medical debt information. FCRA section 604(a)(3)(A) permits a consumer reporting agency to furnish a consumer report to a person which it has reason to believe intends to use the information in connection with a credit transaction involving the consumer. Under the final rule, a consumer reporting agency would not have reason to believe that a creditor who is legally prohibited from obtaining or using medical debt information intends to use that information in connection with a credit transaction. Laws within the scope of § 1022.38(b)(2) include applicable State laws that prohibit a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3305"/>
                        creditor from obtaining or using medical debt information.
                        <SU>150</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>150</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             87 FR 41042 (July 11, 2022) (describing the FCRA's limited preemptive scope). Whether the FCRA or any other Federal law preempts any particular State law is beyond the scope of this rulemaking.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Requests To Add Provisions</HD>
                    <P>Some commenters requested that the CFPB add additional provisions to § 1022.38. For example, one commenter requested a safe harbor for credit unions that are unintentionally in possession of information that they are no longer permitted to obtain or use. The commenter was concerned about the security and operational risk that would be experienced by a credit union if a consumer reporting agency furnishes medical debt information to a credit union that the credit union is not permitted to obtain or use. Alternatively, the commenter recommended that the CFPB not finalize the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        A number of commenters suggested that the CFPB expand the rule to also prohibit the inclusion of medical debt on consumer reports used for employment or tenant screening. Other commenters suggested that the CFPB expand the rule to prohibit the inclusion of medical debt on consumer reports 
                        <E T="03">altogether.</E>
                         One commenter requested that the CFPB prohibit consumer reporting agencies from reporting medical debt incurred by individuals under the age of 18. The commenter also requested that the CFPB prohibit data furnishers from reporting to consumer reporting agencies medical debts of minors, particularly those under state wardship.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter suggested that the CFPB amend the rule to require consumer reporting agencies to screen medical information for compliance with already existing non-discrimination language-access protections. The commenter stated that such an amendment would incentivize the industry to safeguard health consumers.</P>
                    <P>A commenter recommended that the CFPB require consumer reporting agencies to establish a robust appeal process for consumers to address complaints and grievances should consumer reporting agencies erroneously or purposefully include their medical debt information in consumer reports provided to potential creditors.</P>
                    <P>One commenter requested that the CFPB monitor heath care providers' billing, pricing, and collection practices, to make sure consumers are not paying more or denied care under the new rules.</P>
                    <P>For the reasons discussed herein, the CFPB is not revising proposed § 1022.38 in response to these requests. The commenter's concern prompting a request for a safe harbor is addressed by the statutory rule of construction in § 1022.30(c)(1). Section 1022.30(c)(1) provides that a creditor does not obtain medical information in violation of the prohibition if it receives medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit without specifically requesting medical information. The CFPB's proposed removal of the example in § 1022.30(c)(3)(iii), which describes a creditor receiving medical information on a consumer report furnished by a consumer reporting agency, may have created confusion. The CFPB proposed to remove this example because the proposed amendments would have limited the circumstances under which a consumer reporting agency could permissibly furnish a consumer report containing medical debt information, rendering the example less instructive and potentially confusing. Even though the CFPB is finalizing the removal of § 1022.30(c)(3)(iii), it would still be the case that if a creditor receives, on a consumer report, unsolicited medical debt information, the creditor would not have obtained medical information in violation of the prohibition as provided by the statutory rule of construction in existing § 1022.30(c)(1).</P>
                    <P>The CFPB declines to expand the rule to cover medical debt on consumer reports used for employment or tenant screening, or for all uses. The requests to cover other uses or to prohibit the reporting of medical debt information based on a consumer's age fall outside the scope of this rule. The request to prohibit data furnishers from reporting to consumer reporting agencies medical debts of minors also falls outside the scope of this rule. This final rule merely removes an exception, promulgated under FCRA section 604(g)(2) and (5), that permitted creditors to obtain and use a consumer's medical information in connection with a determination of eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit. Under the final rule, a creditor will no longer be able to obtain or use medical information related to a consumer's medical debt in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit, unless one of the specific exceptions in final § 1022.30(e) applies. Relatedly, final § 1022.38 addresses how a consumer reporting agency's medical debt information reporting responsibilities are impacted when creditors are prohibited from obtaining or using medical debt information. Therefore, final § 1022.38 governs only consumer reporting agencies' actions and covers only medical debt information contained in a consumer report furnished to a creditor for credit eligibility purposes.</P>
                    <P>The commenter's request to require consumer reporting agencies to screen medical information for compliance with already existing non-discrimination language-access protections is also outside the scope of this targeted rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB appreciates the suggestion to require consumer reporting agencies to establish a robust appeals process for consumers to address complaints and grievances. The CFPB is not implementing such a process as part of this rulemaking but will monitor consumer reporting agencies' compliance with § 1022.38.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB acknowledges the suggestion to monitor health care providers' billing, pricing, and collection practices, to make sure consumers are not paying more or denied care once the rule is implemented. The CFPB currently engages in the monitoring of markets within its authority and will continue to do so.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Alternatives</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB considered alternatives to proposed § 1022.38, including mandating a delay in the furnishing and reporting of medical debt for a particular period of time, and not reporting or furnishing medical debt below a particular dollar amount; and requiring consumer reporting agencies and medical information furnishers, upon receiving a dispute, to conduct an independent investigation to certify that a disputed medical debt is accurate and not subject to pending insurance disputes. The CFPB solicited comment on these identified alternatives.</P>
                    <P>
                        Some of the alternatives considered by the CFPB would have been similar to the voluntary reporting changes made by the NCRAs in 2022 and 2023, but would have had an expanded scope (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         apply to all consumer reporting agencies) and permanent duration (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         be issued as an amendment to Regulation V). Some commenters noted the similarities and stated that the NCRA reporting changes are sufficient to address the concerns raised by the CFPB.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        At least one commenter stated that the proposal fails to consider less expensive alternatives such as implementing a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3306"/>
                        waiting period before medical debt can be reported.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters offered various suggestions regarding reporting accuracy and dispute procedures in response to the CFPB's request for comment on alternatives to the proposal. For example, commenters suggested that the CFPB allow only legitimate and verified debts to be reported to consumer reporting agencies (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         establish guidelines for medical billing companies, healthcare providers, and collection agencies for reporting medical debt); use enforcement actions on businesses that provide inaccurate information; improve the accuracy and transparency of the medical billing process; and improve the consumer dispute resolution process.
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters also suggested a number of other alternatives to the proposal. For example, at least one commenter suggested that the CFPB permit positive credit reporting of medical debt information. Another commenter expressed a somewhat opposing position, stating that the CFPB should have considered allowing for the deletion of only paid medical debt from consumer reports.</P>
                    <P>A commenter suggested that the CFPB permit only the account owner, such as hospitals or medical debt purchasers, to report medical debt to consumer reporting agencies, rather than collection agencies, to reduce consumer distress and improve the accuracy of balance audits. Other commenters suggested that the CFPB prohibit furnishers from reporting a medical debt as long as the consumer makes minimum payments toward the debt.</P>
                    <P>A commenter suggested the CFPB could instead strengthen Regulation F to improve communication protocols to ensure that they are clear, compassionate, and supportive to consumers.</P>
                    <P>Commenters suggested that the CFPB differentiate between patients who are unwilling to pay for the services provided and those who are genuinely unable to do so. For example, a commenter suggested that the CFPB could require a doctor or medical practice to have the patient or guarantor fill out a form and if they meet certain metrics, the debt should not be reported. Another commenter suggested the CFPB allow consumer reporting agencies to report medical debt incurred by commercially insured health plan beneficiaries for cost-sharing obligations on insurer or health plan adjudicated amounts of between $100-1,000.</P>
                    <P>One commenter suggested that, in lieu of finalizing the proposed rule, the CFPB should promote financial literacy among consumers regarding medical debt and provide better resources for consumers to understand their medical bills.</P>
                    <P>One commenter suggested that the CFPB allow medical debt to remain on consumer reports, but give it much less weight than other debts.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB is not adopting any alternatives to the proposal. As discussed in the proposed rule and the SBREFA outline, and noted above, the CFPB did consider mandating a delay in the furnishing and reporting of medical debt for a particular period of time, which would have been similar to one of the NCRA's recent reporting changes.
                        <SU>151</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, the CFPB has determined that these types of changes by themselves do not do enough to protect the privacy of consumers' medical data during the credit underwriting process, as mandated by the FCRA.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>151</SU>
                             SBREFA Outline at 19; 89 FR 51682, 51695 (June 18, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB also notes that consumer reporting agencies are already subject to accuracy and dispute resolution requirements and the CFPB has played an active role in this space. For example, FCRA section 607(b) requires consumer reporting agencies to follow reasonable procedures to assure maximum possible accuracy of the information concerning the consumer. In addition, the CFPB has published multiple advisory opinions on FCRA issues, including on accuracy requirements,
                        <SU>152</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and the CFPB is continuing to consider a possible rulemaking to improve the dispute process for consumers under the FCRA.
                        <SU>153</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB also has engaged in supervision 
                        <SU>154</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and enforcement 
                        <SU>155</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         activity with respect to consumer reporting agencies and furnishers to ensure their compliance with the FCRA's accuracy and dispute requirements, and has filed multiple amicus briefs relating to the FCRA's accuracy and dispute requirements.
                        <SU>156</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>152</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g., https://www.consumerfinance.gov/about-us/newsroom/cfpb-addresses-inaccurate-background-check-reports-and-sloppy-credit-file-sharing-practices/</E>
                             (background check AO); 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_name-only-matching_advisory-opinion_2021-11.pdf</E>
                             (name-only matching AO).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>153</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See https://mobile.reginfo.gov/public/do/eAgendaViewRule?pubId=202404&amp;RIN=3170-AB24</E>
                             (Unified Agenda entry listing disputes as long-term action item).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>154</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g., https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_supervisory-highlights_issue-32_2024-04.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>155</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g., https://www.consumerfinance.gov/about-us/newsroom/cfpb-orders-td-bank-to-pay-28-million-for-breakdowns-that-illegally-tarnished-consumer-credit-reports/</E>
                             (TD Bank); 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/about-us/newsroom/cfpb-orders-toyota-motor-credit-to-pay-60-million-for-illegal-lending-and-credit-reporting-misconduct/</E>
                             (Toyota Motor Credit); 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/about-us/newsroom/cfpb-ftc-take-actions-against-transunion-illegal-rental-background-check-and-credit-reporting-practices/</E>
                             (TransUnion).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>156</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g., https://www.consumerfinance.gov/about-us/blog/the-law-requires-companies-to-delete-disputed-unverified-information-from-consumer-reports/</E>
                             (Suluki); 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/compliance/amicus/briefs/nelson-v-experian-information-solutions-inc/</E>
                             (Nelson).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As discussed in part IV.B, 
                        <E T="03">Removal of the Financial Information Exception to the Creditor Prohibition on Obtaining or Using Medical Information,</E>
                         the available evidence suggests that creditors can underwrite sufficiently to maintain a responsible lending operation without paid or unpaid medical debt information. The CFPB therefore concludes that an exception allowing creditors to consider paid medical debt information is not necessary or appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs. In addition, permitting paid or unpaid medical debt information to be included on consumer reports furnished to creditors would undermine the consumer privacy protections provided by this rule. With respect to the comment supporting positive credit reporting, the CFPB does not have any evidence that paid medical debt collection items are treated positively in any lending models.
                    </P>
                    <P>The CFPB declines to amend the scope of this rule to prohibit certain parties from furnishing to consumer reporting agencies medical debt information. This rule removes an exception that pertains to creditors' use of medical debt information, and addresses how consumer reporting agencies' responsibilities, with respect to medical debt information, are impacted by the removal of the financial information exception now that creditors generally do not have a permissible purpose for consumer reports containing medical debt information.</P>
                    <P>
                        With respect to the comment suggesting that CFPB instead strengthen Regulation F, the CFPB notes that it has done substantial work to strengthen Regulation F. In October 2020, the CFPB issued a final rule implementing the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA), addressing topics such as communications in connection with debt collection and prohibitions on harassment or abuse, false or misleading representations, and unfair practices in debt collection.
                        <SU>157</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In December 2020, the CFPB issued a final rule amending 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3307"/>
                        Regulation F to provide additional requirements regarding validation information and disclosures provided at the outset of debt collection communications, prohibit suits and threats of suits regarding time-barred debt, and identify actions that must be taken before a debt collector may report information about a debt to consumer reporting agencies.
                        <SU>158</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Most recently, in October 2024, the CFPB issued an advisory opinion to remind debt collectors of their obligation to comply with the FDCPA and Regulation F's prohibitions on false, deceptive, or misleading representations or means in connection with the collection of any medical debt and unfair or unconscionable means to collect or attempt to collect any medical debts.
                        <SU>159</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>157</SU>
                             85 FR 76734 (Nov. 30, 2020).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>158</SU>
                             86 FR 5766 (Jan. 19, 2021).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>159</SU>
                             89 FR 80715 (Oct. 4, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB also declines to implement the suggestion to differentiate between consumers who are unwilling to pay for the services provided and those who are genuinely unable to do so. These types of policies would undermine the consumer privacy protections provided by this rule, impose significant compliance burdens, and be difficult to administer and enforce.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB has done considerable work to promote financial literacy, and will continue to do so. However, consumer education will not address the principal concern solved by this rulemaking—that information about medical debt in credit underwriting is not necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs, nor consistent with Congress's intent to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes, and as a result, does not warrant an exception to the medical information privacy protections established by Congress.</P>
                    <P>Finally, the CFPB declines the suggestion to allow medical debt to remain on consumer reports, but give it much less weight than other debts. Not only would such a policy be difficult to administer and enforce, but it also does not address the principal concern solved by this rulemaking—that information about medical debt in credit underwriting is not necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs, nor consistent with Congress's intent to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes, and as a result, does not warrant an exception to the medical information privacy protections established by Congress.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Final Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        For the reasons discussed in this part IV.C, 
                        <E T="03">Limits on a Consumer Reporting Agency's Disclosure of Medical Debt Information,</E>
                         the CFPB is finalizing § 1022.38 with amendments to § 1022.38(b)(2). New § 1022.38 to subpart D addresses how a consumer reporting agency's medical debt information reporting responsibilities are impacted when creditors are prohibited from obtaining or using medical debt information. A consumer reporting agency is permitted to include medical debt information in a consumer report furnished to a creditor for credit eligibility purposes only if the consumer reporting agency (1) has reason to believe the creditor intends to use the medical debt information in a manner not prohibited by § 1022.30; and (2) has reason to believe the creditor is not otherwise legally prohibited from obtaining or using the medical debt information, including by a State law that prohibits a creditor from obtaining or using medical debt information. Relatedly, the CFPB is finalizing the proposed removal of the example in § 1022.30(c)(3)(iii) which describes a creditor receiving medical information on a consumer report furnished by a consumer reporting agency.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        FCRA section 604, entitled 
                        <E T="03">Permissible purposes of consumer reports,</E>
                         identifies an exclusive list of permissible purposes for which consumer reporting agencies may provide consumer reports.
                        <SU>160</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The statute states that a consumer reporting agency may furnish consumer reports under these circumstances “and no other.” 
                        <SU>161</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         One such circumstance, covered by FCRA section 604(a)(3)(A), permits a consumer reporting agency to furnish a consumer report to a person which it has reason to believe “intends to use the information in connection with a credit transaction involving the consumer on whom the information is to be furnished and involving the extension of credit to, or review or collection of an account of, the consumer” (credit permissible purpose).
                        <SU>162</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>160</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681b(a) (providing that, “[s]ubject to subsection (c), any consumer reporting agency may furnish a consumer report under the following circumstances and no other”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>161</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             Other sections of the FCRA identify additional limited circumstances under which consumer reporting agencies are permitted or required to disclose certain information to government agencies. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681f, 1681u, 1681v; 
                            <E T="03">see also, e.g., FTC</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Manager, Retail Credit Co., Miami Beach Branch Off.,</E>
                             515 F.2d 988, 994-95 (D.C. Cir. 1975) (holding that 15 U.S.C. 1681s(a) authorizes the FTC to obtain consumer reports in FCRA enforcement investigations). Further, the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996, Pub. L. 104-134, 110 Stat. 1321, tit. III, section 31001(m)(1), allows the head of an executive, judicial, or legislative agency to obtain a consumer report under certain circumstances relating to debt collection. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             31 U.S.C. 3711(h).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>162</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681b(a)(3)(A).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Final § 1022.38(b)(1) addresses how consumer reporting agencies' responsibilities under FCRA section 604(a)(3)(A) are impacted by the removal of the financial information exception and related amendments to § 1022.30. As discussed in part IV.B, 
                        <E T="03">Removal of the Financial Information Exception to the Creditor Prohibition on Obtaining or Using Medical Information,</E>
                         the CFPB is finalizing the proposal to remove the financial information exception in § 1022.30(d). The result of removing the financial information exception is that a creditor will be prohibited from obtaining or using medical debt information—a subcategory of medical information—in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility for credit under the general prohibition in § 1022.30(b), unless a specific exception for obtaining and using medical information in § 1022.30(e) applies to the medical debt information. Under the final rule, a creditor who is legally prohibited from obtaining or using medical debt information in connection with a determination of the consumer's eligibility or continued eligibility for credit does not have a permissible purpose for a consumer report containing that information; the creditor could not plausibly intend to use that information in connection with a credit transaction. Similarly, a consumer reporting agency would not have reason to believe that a creditor who is legally prohibited from obtaining or using the medical debt information intends to use the information in connection with a credit transaction involving the consumer.
                        <SU>163</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB therefore finalizes § 1022.38(b)(1) to explain the impact of the credit permissible purpose provision in FCRA section 604(a)(3)(A) on the FCRA section 604(g)(2) creditor prohibition as implemented in final § 1022.30.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>163</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681b(a)(3)(A).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The same is true under the final rule for any other legal prohibition under which creditors may neither obtain nor use medical debt information. Thus, the CFPB determines that amending proposed § 1022.38(b)(2) to include a similar provision to final § 1022.38(b)(1), to cover other scenarios in which a creditor is legally prohibited from obtaining or using medical debt information, is warranted. Regardless of the source of the prohibition, under the final rule, if a creditor is legally 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3308"/>
                        prohibited from obtaining or using medical debt information, a creditor does not have a permissible purpose for a consumer report containing that information; a creditor cannot plausibly intend to use that information in connection with a credit transaction. Final § 1022.38(b)(2) explains the impact of the credit permissible purpose provision in FCRA section 604(a)(3)(A) on any legal prohibition on creditors obtaining or using medical debt information. Final § 1022.38(b)(2) ensures that, independent of the prohibition in § 1022.30, a consumer reporting agency would generally still be prohibited from furnishing a consumer report containing medical debt information to a creditor who is legally prohibited from obtaining or and using the medical debt information.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Section 621(e) of the FCRA authorizes the CFPB to issue regulations as “necessary or appropriate to administer and carry out the purposes and objectives of [the FCRA], and to prevent evasions thereof or to facilitate compliance therewith.” 
                        <SU>164</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB has determined that the limits on a consumer reporting agency's disclosure of a consumer's sensitive medical debt information to a creditor who is legally prohibited from obtaining or using such information are necessary or appropriate to administer and carry out the purposes and objectives of the FCRA, and to prevent evasions or to facilitate compliance.
                        <SU>165</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In particular, the limitations on consumer reporting agencies in § 1022.38(b)(1) would markedly facilitate compliance for creditors by ensuring that creditors do not receive from consumer reporting agencies medical debt information that they are not permitted to obtain or use under FCRA section 604(g)(2) and § 1022.30. If consumer reporting agencies continued to furnish to creditors, in connection with eligibility determinations, consumer reports containing medical debt information, creditors would need to screen out such information to comply with the creditor prohibition in FCRA section 604(g)(2) and § 1022.30. Screening out medical debt information may be cumbersome for creditors, especially those that use automated underwriting processes. On the other hand, consumer reporting agencies could more easily implement automatic processes that remove medical debt information provided by medical information furnishers from those reports that are requested for credit eligibility determinations because medical information furnishers are required to identify themselves to consumer reporting agencies.
                        <SU>166</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         At least one commenter questioned this assertion, but the CFPB notes that the NCRAs have recently implemented reporting changes to remove certain medical debt information from consumer reports and therefore have shown they are capable of creating such infrastructure.
                        <SU>167</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>164</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             CFPA section 1088(a)(10)(E) (15 U.S.C. 1681s(e)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>165</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681s(e)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>166</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681s-2(a)(9).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>167</SU>
                             Equifax, 
                            <E T="03">First Changes to Reporting of Medical Collection Debt Roll Out July 1, 2022</E>
                             (July 1, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.equifax.com/newsroom/all-news/-/story/first-changes-to-reporting-of-medical-collection-debt-roll-out-july-1-2022;</E>
                             Experian, 
                            <E T="03">First Changes to Reporting of Medical Collection Debt Roll Out July 1, 2022</E>
                             (July 1, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.experianplc.com/newsroom/press-releases/2022/first-changes-to-reporting-of-medical-collection-debt-roll-out-july-1-2022;</E>
                             TransUnion, 
                            <E T="03">First Changes to Reporting of Medical Collection Debt Roll Out July 1, 2022</E>
                             (July 1, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://newsroom.transunion.com/first-changes-to-reporting-of-medical-collection-debt-roll-out-july-1-2022/;</E>
                             PR Newswire, 
                            <E T="03">Equifax, Experian and TransUnion Remove Medical Collections Debt Under $500 From U.S. Credit Reports</E>
                             (Apr. 11, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.prnewswire.com/news-releases/equifax-experian-and-transunion-remove-medical-collections-debt-under-500-from-us-credit-reports-301793769.html.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB has also determined that § 1022.38(b) is necessary and appropriate to administer and carry out the purposes and objectives of the FCRA, especially that of “need[ing] to insure that consumer reporting agencies exercise their grave responsibilities with fairness, impartiality, and a respect for the consumer's right to privacy.” 
                        <SU>168</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Medical information is uniquely sensitive and intimate information, and it thus advances the purposes and objectives of the FCRA to protect consumers' privacy by limiting the circumstances under which consumer reporting agencies may furnish medical debt information.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>168</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681(a)(4).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Example To Comply With Applicable Requirements of Local, State, or Federal laws</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Proposal</HD>
                    <P>
                        During the SBREFA process, several financial institutions, furnisher small entity representatives, and debt collectors expressed concern about how the proposal under consideration to remove the financial information exception in § 1022.30(d) and prohibit consumer reporting agencies from including medical debt collections tradelines on consumer reports furnished to creditors for credit eligibility determinations would interact with repayment ability determination requirements under the Truth in Lending Act (TILA) and Regulation Z for mortgage loans and credit cards.
                        <SU>169</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Stakeholders stated that these laws require creditors to consider all of a consumer's current debt obligations, such that the proposal under consideration would impede their ability to make the required determination in compliance with Federal law. A small entity representative recommended that the CFPB consider (1) stating what creditors should tell consumers regarding whether medical debt information should be disclosed on applications for credit, and (2) providing to creditors information about any limitations on financial institutions' use of consumer-provided medical information for underwriting.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>169</SU>
                             SBREFA Report at 36.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In the NPRM, the CFPB proposed to eliminate current § 1022.30(d). The CFPB preliminarily found that the financial information exception was not necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs (including administrative verification purposes) as set forth in current § 1022.30(d). However, the CFPB preliminarily determined to not eliminate other exceptions, including the exception in § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii) for medical information necessary to comply with applicable local, State, or Federal laws, such as Regulation Z's ability-to-repay or pay requirements. In response to comments during the SBREFA process, the CFPB proposed an example in proposed § 1022.30(e)(6) to direct creditors and card issuers that are creditors regarding how to obtain and use medical information provided by the consumer in compliance with TILA and Regulation Z, as set forth in § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii), for purposes of compliance with the ability-to-repay rule under § 1026.43(c) for closed-end mortgages, the repayment ability rule under § 1026.34(a)(4) for open-end, high-cost mortgages, and the ability-to-pay rule under § 1026.51(a) for open-end (not home-secured) credit card accounts.</P>
                    <P>
                        Under existing § 1022.30(c)(1), a creditor does not violate the prohibition on obtaining medical information in § 1022.30(b) if the creditor receives medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with the creditor's determination of the consumer's eligibility for credit without specifically requesting such information. For example, if a consumer applies for a mortgage loan and the creditor has not specifically requested medical information on the application, but asks for all current debts or 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3309"/>
                        obligations, and the consumer self-discloses by providing medical information in the form of a monthly medical payment plan, the creditor does not violate the prohibition on obtaining medical information. In this circumstance, under § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii), the creditor would be permitted to use this information by considering the existence and the amount of the medical payment plan as required in considering certain factors under § 1026.43(c)(2), such as the current debt obligations, consumer's monthly debt-to-income ratio, and residual income, in making the repayment ability determination required under § 1026.43(c)(1). Proposed § 1022.30(e)(6) also would have provided that, in accordance with § 1026.43(c)(3)(iii), the creditor would not be required to independently verify the existence and amount of the consumer's monthly medical payment plan if the consumer's application states a current debt, even if that debt is not shown in the consumer report. This is also consistent with Regulation Z comment 43(c)(3)-6 describing a situation where a consumer, through the application, provides a creditor with information on a debt obligation that is not listed on a consumer report. Therefore, the creditor would not violate the prohibition on obtaining or using medical information in § 1022.30(b) if the creditor obtains and uses medical information disclosed by the consumer on their application as an ongoing payment obligation in response to a general inquiry about debts or obligations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1022.30(e)(6) would have explained that a creditor (for mortgage loans) or card issuer (for credit cards) relying on the specific exception for compliance with applicable laws at § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii) is not permitted to obtain or use medical information from a consumer report. In the proposed rule, the CFPB preliminarily determined that the creditor or card issuer can comply with the applicable laws using the information provided by the consumer on the application, including any medical information received from the consumer in response to a general inquiry about debts or obligations; therefore, it would not be necessary or appropriate for a creditor or card issuer to use medical information contained in a consumer report in order to comply with the applicable laws. As explained in part IV.C, 
                        <E T="03">Limits on a Consumer Reporting Agency's Disclosure of Medical Debt Information,</E>
                         the CFPB also believed it would be administratively difficult for consumer reporting agencies to determine which information in a consumer's credit file is necessary for a particular creditor's compliance with the requirement to make a repayment ability determination and which information is not. In the context of creditors' obligations to make repayment ability determinations under Regulation Z, determining the medical debt information that would be relevant to ability-to-repay or pay rules, as well as the administrative burdens of segmenting this information out, is impractical for a consumer reporting agency to undertake. For the reasons discussed in the NPRM, the CFPB preliminarily found that preventing creditors from purposefully obtaining—and under new § 1022.38, consumer reporting agencies from furnishing—medical information on consumer reports for credit eligibility purposes will both ease burdens on consumer reporting agencies and prevent attempts by creditors to evade the rule by requesting consumer reports in the hopes of learning indirectly the same sensitive medical information the rule prohibits creditors from soliciting directly under the guise of compliance with the ability-to-repay or pay rules.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the proposed rule, the CFPB preliminarily determined that creditors would not need to begin obtaining medical information from consumers under the proposed rule if they do not already do so. For example, the CFPB did not intend the NPRM to change any existing law or guidance regarding the extent to which creditors may rely on consumer reports to assess consumers' current obligations in complying with repayment ability determination requirements.
                        <SU>170</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>170</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Regulation Z comment 51(a)(1)(i)-7 (“A card issuer may consider the consumer's current obligations based on information provided by the consumer or in a consumer report.”); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             § 1026.43(c)(3)(iii) (“[I]f a creditor relies on a consumer's credit report to verify a consumer's current debt obligations and a consumer's application states a current debt obligation not shown in the consumer's credit report, the creditor need not independently verify such an obligation.”)
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB requested feedback on this aspect of the proposed rule and whether that proposal would assist a creditor or card issuer in making its repayment ability determination under TILA/Regulation Z. The CFPB also sought comment on whether amendments should be made to § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii) to reflect the language in proposed § 1022.30(e)(6)—providing that a creditor or card issuer may not obtain or use medical information from a consumer reporting agency to comply with the ability-to-repay rule under 12 CFR 1026.43(c) for closed-end mortgages, the repayment ability rule under 12 CFR 1026.34(a)(4) for open-end, high-cost mortgages, or the ability-to-pay rule under 12 CFR 1026.51(a) for open-end (not home-secured) credit card accounts—or if the language in proposed § 1022.30(e)(6) is sufficient to explain how creditors can comply with the repayment ability determination requirements under TILA/Regulation Z.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Comments</HD>
                    <P>Many industry commenters and several individual commenters submitted comments indicating that the NPRM contradicts TILA's and Regulation Z's ability-to-repay requirements. One industry commenter asserted that the proposed rule is likely to create compliance challenges with regard to TILA and Regulation Z, which require creditors to make a reasonable, good faith determination of a consumer's ability to repay any residential mortgage loans. Another industry commenter asserted that the CFPB has the responsibility to create rules regarding ability-to-repay requirements for mortgage lending in TILA and the CFPB's own rules require among other things, that a creditor consider all of a borrower's outstanding liabilities at the time of loan origination. This commenter asserted that (1) the NPRM places the burden of reporting medical debt on the consumer, who would be falsely representing their application if the information is material and omitted, yet the CFPB is intending to protect consumers from this disclosure by banning it from the consumer reports furnished by the national consumer reporting agencies; and (2) under the CFPB's proposed rule, creditors would have no way of verifying whether medical debt liabilities disclosed by a consumer (or lack thereof) were in fact accurate. Another industry commenter asserted that the NPRM would conflict with TILA, which requires the reasonable and good-faith determination that the consumer has the ability to repay before a mortgage loan is made.</P>
                    <P>One consumer reporting agency asserted that the CFPB in the NPRM did not adequately address industry concerns regarding creditors' ability to assess a borrower's ability to repay. This commenter asserted that it is not adequate to just allow lenders to ask the borrower directly for all current debts, and the borrower may include medical debt information in response. This commenter asserted that consumers might decline to include the information, and even if consumers provided information, creditors would be unable to verify its accuracy.</P>
                    <P>
                        One trade group commenter representing banks asserted that (1) 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3310"/>
                        banks would face significant potential uncertainty about compliance and liability if the final rule is unclear on how to comply with the mortgage ability-to-pay rules in Regulation Z; and (2) the CFPB must provide additional assurances regarding the inclusion or exclusion of medical debt information from mortgage-related calculations.
                    </P>
                    <P>Two industry trade group commenters representing banks and other financial institutions urged the CFPB to clarify that creditors are permitted to verify medical debt information received from the consumer in response to a general inquiry about debts or obligations using reliable third-party records that are not the credit report. These commenters also urged the CFPB to clarify that a creditor is permitted to consider debts listed on a consumer report that are not obviously medical debts. In this regard, the commenters urged the CFPB to amend Example 6 to provide that a creditor or card issuer is not required to independently verify that a debt listed on a consumer report is for purposes other than medical debt. Another industry commenter urged the CFPB to clarify that a creditor that considers a consumer's FICO score or a report of credit report attributes that could encompass medical debt does not violate the proposed prohibition on obtaining or using medical debt for credit eligibility determinations.</P>
                    <P>Also, an industry commenter representing credit unions noted that the CFPB and banking regulators have previously encouraged lenders to evaluate alternative data in making credit decisions, as evidenced by the CFPB's 2017 “Request for Information Regarding Use of Alternative Data and Modeling Techniques in the Credit Process.” By restricting access to medical debt information, this commenter asserted that the CFPB would be limiting the very type of alternative data it has previously endorsed.</P>
                    <P>Several industry commenters also raised concerns that the proposed rule could increase exposure to enforcement action by other Federal agencies, and violations of State laws, related to the consumer's ability to repay. One commenter advocating for small entities argued that (1) a large medical debt may interfere with a consumer's ability to repay; (2) by not considering it, a consumer may become overextended and suffer financial embarrassment; and (3) small entities are concerned that if they do not consider the consumer's ability to repay and the consumer faces financial embarrassment, the small entity may be exposed to an enforcement action by other Federal agencies. One trade group representing community bankers asserted that the NPRM would create an irreconcilable regulatory contradiction between what the banking regulators require and what the CFPB will be preventing and prohibiting. This commenter indicated that it agrees with these other banking regulators because complete information and the accurate calculation of a borrower's ability to repay is needed to make prudent lending decisions that benefit both the bank and the borrower. One credit union trade group asserted that (1) credit unions are already required to accurately determine their member's ability-to-repay as a risk management requirement; and (2) the proposed rule creates an irreconcilable regulatory contradiction between what the financial regulators require and what the CFPB prohibits.</P>
                    <P>
                        Many industry commenters and several individual consumer commenters also asserted that banning medical debt from being included in a consumer report would harm both consumers and creditors. They asserted that the proposed rule could lead to incomplete or inaccurate assessments of a borrower's ability to repay, potentially resulting in either overly restrictive lending practices or an increased risk of defaults due to approving loans for consumers who may not be able to afford them when all debts are considered. These comments are discussed in more detail in part VII, 
                        <E T="03">CFPA Section 1022(b) Analysis.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>Several consumer group commenters, on the other hand, questioned industry concerns that the NPRM, if adopted, would contradict the requirements in TILA or Regulation Z. In particular, one of these consumer group commenters asserted that, following enactment of Colorado's law restricting medical debt on credit reports, there have been no reports of the other negative consequences in Colorado predicted by the debt collection industry's hired economist, such as increased financing for unqualified borrowers, decreased access for credit-qualified borrowers, difficulties in repairing credit scores, or conflicts with the ability-to-repay requirement in Regulation Z. Several other consumer group commenters and several individual commenters also asserted that medical debts are not a good predictor of general creditworthiness, nor representative of an individual's ability to repay debts.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Final Rule</HD>
                    <P>For the reasons discussed herein, the CFPB is finalizing Example 6 as proposed with one clarification as discussed below. The CFPB has determined that Example 6 does not conflict with the ability-to-repay or pay requirements in Regulation Z. The CFPB also has determined that Example 6 provides sufficient information for how creditors may comply with both the ability-to-repay or pay requirements in Regulation Z with respect to mortgages and credit card accounts and the changes in this final rule with respect to use of medical information. Final Example 6 describes a scenario where a consumer applies for a mortgage loan subject to Regulation Z § 1026.43(c) or § 1026.34(a)(4), or an open-end (not home-secured) credit card account subject to Regulation Z § 1026.51(a). In this scenario, the application does not specifically request medical information, but the consumer provides medical information on the application in response to a general inquiry about debts or obligations. Final Example 6 explains that the creditor or the card issuer is permitted under § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii) to use such medical information in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit only to the extent required by the applicable Federal law and implementing regulation. Final Example 6 also explains that a creditor or card issuer is not permitted to obtain or use any medical information from a consumer reporting agency under § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii) to comply with the ability-to-repay rule under Regulation Z § 1026.43(c) for closed-end mortgages, the repayment ability rule under Regulation Z § 1026.34(a)(4) for open-end, high-cost mortgages, or the ability-to-pay rule under Regulation Z § 1026.51(a) for open-end (not home-secured) credit card accounts, because the creditor or card issuer can comply with those rules using information provided by the consumer. Consistent with the proposed rule, the CFPB has determined that a creditor or card issuer can comply with the applicable laws using the information provided by the consumer, including any medical information received from the consumer on the application in response to a general inquiry about debts or obligations; therefore, it would not be necessary or appropriate for a creditor or card issuer under § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii) to use medical information contained in a consumer report in order to comply with the applicable laws.</P>
                    <P>
                        The final rule revises Example 6 from the proposal, however, to make clear that this example only relates to the exception under § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii), and a creditor or card issuer may obtain and use medical information for purposes of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3311"/>
                        Regulation Z's ability-to-repay or pay determinations pursuant to other exceptions in § 1022.30(e), as applicable. See parts IV.B.3, 
                        <E T="03">Medical Information Related to Income, Benefits, or the Purpose of the Loan,</E>
                         and VI.A, 
                        <E T="03">Consumer-Authorized Transaction History.</E>
                         The CFPB has determined that this final rule does not conflict with the use of alternative data in complying with Regulation Z's ability-to-repay or pay requirements. For instance, if a consumer authorizes a creditor to access transaction information from a Regulation E account, a Regulation Z credit card, or facilitation of payments from a Regulation E account or Regulation Z credit card, as the creditor might obtain through the exception under § 1022.30(e)(1)(x)(A)(
                        <E T="03">1</E>
                        ), and that transaction information happens to contain medical information, such as payments on a medical payment plan, the creditor is permitted under § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii) to use such medical information in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit only to the extent required by the applicable Federal law and implementing regulation, and is permitted to use such medical information under § 1022.30(e)(1)(x) to the extent the creditor satisfies the additional requirements of that exception stated in § 1022.30(e)(1)(x)(B) and (C).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        With respect to the ability-to-repay requirements in Regulation Z § 1026.43(c), final Example 6 also contains additional information on the interplay between the ability-to-repay requirements in Regulation Z § 1026.43(c) and final § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii). Again, under this scenario discussed in final Example 6, the creditor has not specifically requested medical information on the application, but the consumer provides information on a current debt obligation, such as a monthly medical payment plan, that is medical information. For mortgages subject to Regulation Z § 1026.43(c), creditors typically ask consumers on applications to disclose their current debt obligations/liabilities, but the applications do not specifically request medical information.
                        <SU>171</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To the extent that consumers provide medical information in response to this general request for debt information, creditors generally are required to consider such medical debt information under § 1026.43(c)(2).
                        <SU>172</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Final Example 6 explains that the creditor is permitted under § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii) to consider the existence and the amount of the medical payment plan as required in Regulation Z § 1026.43(c)(2) in considering factors under Regulation Z § 1026.43(c)(2), such as the current debt obligations, consumer's monthly debt-to-income ratio, and residual income, in making the repayment ability determination required under Regulation Z § 1026.43(c)(1). In this circumstance, final Example 6 explains that the creditor would not be required to independently verify the existence and amount of the monthly medical payment plan, as provided for under Regulation Z § 1026.43(c)(3)(iii) and comment 43(c)(3)-6, describing a situation in which a consumer provides a creditor with information on a debt obligation that is not listed on a consumer report. As discussed above, two industry trade group commenters urged the CFPB to clarify that creditors are permitted under § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii) to verify medical debt information received from the consumer in response to a general inquiry about debts or obligations using reliable third-party records that are not the credit report. However, while Regulation Z § 1026.43(c)(3) generally requires creditors to use reasonably reliable third party records to verify any information the creditor relies upon under Regulation Z § 1026.43(c)(2) to make the repayment ability determination required by Regulation Z § 1026.43(c)(1), Regulation Z § 1026.43(c)(3)(iii) and comment 43(c)(3)-6 clarify that if a creditor relies on a consumer's credit report to verify a consumer's current debt obligations and a consumer's application states a current debt obligation not shown in the consumer's credit report, the creditor need not independently verify such an obligation. Consistent with final § 1022.38, medical debt information generally will not appear on credit reports. Accordingly, creditors may not rely on the exception in § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii) to obtain and use medical information to independently verify such medical debt obligation. A creditor, however, may obtain and use medical information to verify such medical debt obligations pursuant to other exceptions in § 1022.30(e), as applicable.
                        <SU>173</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>171</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Fannie Mae, 
                            <E T="03">Uniform Residential Loan Application (Form 1003), https://singlefamily.fanniemae.com/delivering/uniform-mortgage-data-program/uniform-residential-loan-application</E>
                             (last visited Nov. 25, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>172</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             12 CFR 1026.43(c)(2), (3)(iii); Regulation Z comment 43(c)(3)-6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>173</SU>
                             Section 307 of the Economic Growth, Regulatory Relief, and Consumer Protection Act (EGRRCPA), among other things, directs the CFPB to prescribe ability-to-repay rules for Property Assessed Clean Energy (PACE) financing. Public Law 115-174, 132 Stat. 1296, 1347 (2018). The CFPB issued a final rule on December 17, 2024. As finalized, the PACE rule applies the existing framework of Regulation Z § 1026.43(c) to PACE transactions in the same manner as the framework applies to other closed-end mortgages, with adjustments to account for the unique nature of PACE financing.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB notes that with respect to Regulation Z § 1026.34(a)(4) for open-end, high-cost mortgages, situations also may arise where the creditor has not specifically requested medical information on the application, but the consumer provides information on a current debt obligation, such as a monthly medical payment plan, that is medical information. For mortgages subject to Regulation Z § 1026.34(a)(4), creditors typically ask consumers on applications to disclose their current debt obligations/liabilities, but the applications do not specifically request medical information.
                        <SU>174</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To the extent that consumers provide medical information in response to this general request for debt information, creditors generally are required to consider such medical debt information under § 1026.34(a)(4). In complying with Regulation Z § 1026.34(a)(4), comment 34(a)(4)(ii)(B)-1 discusses the scenario where a consumer lists an obligation on an application but the credit report does not reflect such obligation. Comment 34(a)(4)(ii)(B)-1 makes clear that the creditor is responsible for considering such an obligation under Regulation Z § 1026.34(a)(4), but the creditor is not required to independently verify the obligation. Thus, a creditor is permitted under § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii) to consider the existence and the amount of the medical payment plan as required in § 1026.34(a)(4) in making the repayment ability determination required under Regulation Z § 1026.34(a)(4). The CFPB notes, however, that because Regulation Z § 1026.34(a)(4) and comment 34(a)(4)(ii)(B)-1 do not require creditors to independently verify a debt obligation that a consumer provides to a creditor that is not listed on a consumer report, creditors may not rely on the exception in § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii) to obtain and use medical information to independently verify such medical debt obligation. A creditor, however, may obtain and use medical information to verify such medical debt obligations pursuant to other exceptions in § 1022.30(e), as applicable.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>174</SU>
                             Fannie Mae, 
                            <E T="03">Uniform Residential Loan Application (Form 1003), https://singlefamily.fanniemae.com/delivering/uniform-mortgage-data-program/uniform-residential-loan-application</E>
                             (last visited Nov. 25, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        With respect to the ability-to-pay rule under Regulation Z § 1026.51(a) for open-end (not home-secured) credit 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3312"/>
                        card accounts, the CFPB notes that card issuers typically do not ask consumers on applications to disclose their debt obligations. Instead, card issuers typically obtain a consumer's debt obligations from a consumer report. Consistent with the NPRM, the CFPB has determined that creditors would not need to begin obtaining medical information from consumers under the final rule if they do not already do so. For example, the CFPB does not intend the final rule to change any existing law or guidance regarding the extent to which creditors may rely on consumer reports to assess consumers' current obligations in complying with repayment ability determination requirements. Specifically, Regulation Z comment 51(a)(1)(i)-7 provides that a card issuer may consider the consumer's current obligations based on information provided by the consumer or in a consumer report. Thus, a card issuer may continue to rely on the consumer report to obtain information about a consumer's current obligations and is not required under § 1026.51(a)(1) to request information from the consumer on the application about their debt obligations. The CFPB has determined that this is true even though a consumer report under this final rule will not contain information about a consumer's medical debt obligations. Further, as with the ability-to-repay provisions discussed above, because § 1026.51(a)(1) does not require card issuers to verify any current debt obligations that may be listed on an application, a card issuer may not rely on the exception in § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii) to obtain and use medical information to independently verify a medical debt obligation listed on a consumer's application. A card issuer, however, may obtain and use medical information to verify such medical debt obligations pursuant to other exceptions in § 1022.30(e), as applicable.
                    </P>
                    <P>The CFPB declines to amend Example 6 to clarify that creditors and card issuers are permitted to consider debts listed on a consumer report for purposes of the ability-to-repay or pay requirements in Regulation Z that are not obviously medical debts and are not required to independently verify that a debt listed on a consumer report is for purposes other than medical debt. The CFPB also declines to clarify that creditors or card issuers that consider a consumer's FICO score or a report of credit report attributes that could encompass medical debt do not violate the proposed prohibition on obtaining or using medical information for credit eligibility determinations. The CFPB has determined that this additional guidance is not necessary. The restriction in § 1022.30(b) only applies to medical information, and creditors and card issuers must consider the definition of “medical information” as defined in § 1022.3(k) to determine if particular information meets that definition.</P>
                    <P>
                        With respect to ability-to-repay or pay requirements imposed by other Federal agencies, and State laws, the CFPB notes that final § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii) permits a creditor to obtain and use medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit to comply with applicable requirements of local, State, or Federal laws. The CFPB did not receive comments from other Federal regulators or State regulators indicating that the proposed rule was in conflict with ability-to-repay or pay requirements imposed by other Federal agencies or State laws, as applicable. The CFPB also is not aware of any reported negative consequences of State laws generally limiting consumer reporting agencies from reporting medical debt on credit reports (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Colorado), such as conflicts with the ability-to-repay or pay requirement in Regulation Z. Also, the CFPB is not aware of any ability-to-repay or pay requirements of other regulators or State laws that specifically require a creditor to obtain medical information from consumer reports. Thus, a creditor or card issuer can comply with the applicable laws using any medical information provided by the consumer, including any medical information received from the consumer on the application in response to a general inquiry about debts or obligations; therefore, it would not be necessary or appropriate under § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii) for a creditor or card issuer to use medical information contained in a consumer report in order to comply with the applicable laws.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Effective Date</HD>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB proposed an effective date for this final rule of 60 days after publication in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act, which generally requires that rules be published not less than 30 days before their effective dates.
                        <SU>175</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB received eight comments from industry, government, trade association, and non-profit stakeholders on the proposed effective date. Several of these commenters argued that the proposed 60-day implementation period is unfeasible and that businesses would require more time to adjust to the changes to the FCRA. More specifically, five commenters stated that the proposed rule's changes to FCRA compliance would require small entities to train employees, obtain legal advice, and invest time and resources into complying with the rule. Industry and government stakeholders provided a range of alternative effective dates for the CFPB to consider ranging from 12 to 36 months while a non-profit commenter expressed support for the proposed effective date. Additionally, one trade association commenter advocated for a phase-in period to the rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>175</SU>
                             5 U.S.C. 553(d).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB has considered these comments and determines to finalize the effective date as proposed. The CFPB finds that the compliance costs to creditors will be low since creditors will likely need to do very little to comply with the rule to the extent that creditors currently only utilize medical debt information provided through consumer reports, which the CFPB understands is creditors' main source of medical debt information. In such cases, so long as the consumer reporting agency providing the consumer report has complied with the rule, no medical debt information would be conveyed to the creditor, unless the consumer reporting agency has reason to believe the creditor intends to use the medical debt information in a manner not prohibited by the creditor prohibition. Creditors who currently obtain and use medical debt information (and other prohibited medical information) from other sources will need to establish controls to ensure that they do not obtain or use the medical debt information in a manner prohibited by the rule. Consumer reporting agencies will need to make coding changes to exclude data identified as medical information from consumer reports sent to creditors. However, the CFPB expects this to be a relatively simple coding change, particularly for the NCRAs and the consumer reporting agencies that obtain consumer reports from NCRAs for resale because the NCRAs already limit their reporting of medical collections. In addition, consumer reporting agencies may have already scoped out this kind of coding change to comply with reforms in several States. Thus, the rule will take effect 60 days after publication in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                        <PRTPAGE P="3313"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Other Comments</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Consumer-Authorized Transaction History</HD>
                    <P>In the NPRM, the CFPB noted that consumer reporting agencies could incur additional compliance costs if medical information furnishers do not notify consumer reporting agencies of their status as required by FCRA section 623(a)(9), and, similarly, that creditors could incur additional compliance costs if they use consumer reports that contain medical debt information notwithstanding § 1022.38.</P>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters raised concerns along these lines about the proposal's interaction with the CFPB's Required Rulemaking on Personal Financial Data Rights (PFDR Rule), which could result in transmission of medical information that is not identified as such.
                        <SU>176</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Specifically, a bank trade association commented that prohibiting creditors from considering medical debts and expenses could impede the development of cashflow underwriting, which considers the general inflows and outflows from a consumer's depository account. This commenter highlighted cashflow underwriting's value for expanding credit to underserved populations and argued that limiting the use of medical debt information could restrict the predictive power of this method. And an industry trade association commented that the proposal could pose challenges for data aggregators in the open banking system because no clear mechanism exists for identifying medical debt accounts. This commenter recommended that the CFPB require data providers to identify when a consumer is authorizing access to a medical account.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>176</SU>
                             Required Rulemaking on Personal Financial Data Rights, 89 FR 90838 (Nov. 18, 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_personal-financial-data-rights-final-rule_2024-10.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB is modifying the proposal to better allow consumers to authorize access to their accounts containing medical information for cashflow underwriting purposes. Final § 1022.30(e)(1)(x)(A)(
                        <E T="03">1</E>
                        ) provides, in part, that a creditor may consider medical information that is included in the transaction information of an account for a consumer financial product or service described in 12 CFR 1033.111(b)(1) through (3), and accessed with the consumer's authorization. This new provision is independent of the PFDR Rule and applies in situations where the PFDR Rule does not apply to the consumer-authorized access.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As the CFPB has recognized in the PFDR Rule and elsewhere,
                        <SU>177</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the use of cashflow data in underwriting offers substantial benefits to consumers, especially consumers who have a limited credit history or do not have a credit file with a nationwide consumer reporting agency. For example, among consumers who do have credit scores, a study by FinRegLab found that cash-flow underwriting can help identify consumers who have low traditional credit scores but are actually a low credit risk for lenders.
                        <SU>178</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Allowing creditors to consider cashflow data may increase access to credit or lower prices for consumers. But, as discussed above in connection with debts owed to third-party lenders, it is not operationally feasible for creditors or consumer reporting agencies to easily identify transactions that pertain to a medical debt. Without either the ability to easily filter out medical-debt transactions, or the ability to consider medical debts or expenses, creditors would be unable to fully assess the outflows from a consumer's account. Accordingly, the CFPB has determined that it is necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs, including permitting actions necessary for administrative verification purposes, and consistent with FCRA's intent to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes, to allow creditors to consider medical information included in the transaction history of a consumer's account with the consumer's authorization.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>177</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Alexei Alexandrov, Alyssa Brown, &amp; Samyak Jain, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Looking at credit scores only tells part of the story—cashflow data may tell another part</E>
                             (July 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/about-us/blog/credit-scores-only-tells-part-of-the-story-cashflow-data/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>178</SU>
                             FinRegLab, 
                            <E T="03">The Use of Cash-Flow Data in Underwriting Credit</E>
                             (July 2019), 
                            <E T="03">https://finreglab.org/wp-content/uploads/2019/07/FRL_Research-Report_Final.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Final § 1022.30(e)(1)(x)(A)(
                        <E T="03">1</E>
                        )'s exception applies to medical information contained in an account for a consumer financial product or service described in 12 CFR 1033.111(b)(1) through (3). 12 CFR 1033.111(b) provides a definition of “covered consumer financial product or service” for purposes of the PFDR Rule. This term means a consumer financial product or service, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5481(5), that is: (1) A Regulation E account, which means an account, as defined in Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.2(b); (2) A Regulation Z credit card, which means a credit card, as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(15)(i); or (3) Facilitation of payments from a Regulation E account or Regulation Z credit card, excluding products or services that merely facilitate first party payments.
                        <SU>179</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Such accounts include checking accounts, savings accounts, digital wallets, and other accounts that provide data about a consumer's income, expenses, and spending. This transaction data is generally the type of data that financial institutions would need to access to engage in cashflow underwriting.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>179</SU>
                             As the PFDR Rule explains, a “first party payment” is “a transfer initiated by the payee or an agent acting on behalf of the underlying payee.” 89 FR 90838, 90990 (Nov. 18, 2024) (to be codified at 12 CFR 1033.111(b)(3)). “First party payments include payments initiated by loan servicers.” 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Final § 1022.30(e)(1)(x)(A)(
                        <E T="03">1</E>
                        ) also specifies that the medical information must have been accessed with the consumer's authorization. The PFDR Rule establishes authorization procedures for third parties seeking to access consumer data for purposes such as cashflow underwriting. As described in detail in the PFDR Rule, these authorization procedures and obligations are designed to ensure that consumers understand the data access they are authorizing and are able to exercise meaningful control with respect to such access.
                        <SU>180</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Accordingly, a creditor satisfies final § 1022.30(e)(1)(x)(A)(
                        <E T="03">1</E>
                        )'s requirement that it obtain medical information “with the consumer's authorization” if it accesses consumer data following procedures that comply with—or in situations not covered by the rule, conform to—the PFDR Rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>180</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                             at 90920-50.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB declines to require data providers or data aggregators to identify medical accounts. To the extent that the accounts discussed by the commenter are covered by the PFDR Rule because they are Regulation E accounts, Regulation Z credit cards, or payment facilitation products and services, final § 1022.30(e)(1)(x)(A)(
                        <E T="03">1</E>
                        ) allows consumers to authorize access to the cashflow data from such accounts. To the extent such accounts fall outside the coverage of the PFDR Rule, such a requirement is beyond the scope of this rulemaking. The CFPB notes, however, that nothing in this rule or the PFDR Rule prevent industry from developing such an identification system.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. FCRA Section 605(a)(6)—Information Excluded From Consumer Reports: Name, Address, and Telephone Number of any Medical Information Furnisher</HD>
                    <P>
                        Industry commenters asserted that the creditor prohibition in FCRA section 604(g)(2) does not prohibit creditors from obtaining or using financial 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3314"/>
                        aspects of medical information because FCRA section 604(g)(2) has a parenthetical cross-referencing FCRA section 605(a)(6). Specifically, commenters contended that the parenthetical cross-referencing FCRA section 605(a)(6) has the effect of allowing creditors to obtain or use medical information so long as it is restricted or reported using codes that do not reveal the specific provider or the nature of such services, products, or devices. This reading of FCRA section 604(g)(2) is contrary to the approach that the CFPB's predecessor agencies used when initially creating the provisions of Regulation V being repealed in this final rule; they expressly stated that “Section 604(g)(2) of the FCRA prohibits creditors from either obtaining or using medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit.” 
                        <SU>181</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In fact, were the commenters' position the correct reading, industry would have no need for the regulatory exemptions being repealed in this final rule—at least with respect to medical information in consumer reports that is treated in the manner required under 15 U.S.C. 1681c(a)(6), which the CFPB understands constitutes the bulk of the medical information that creditors consider in connection with credit-eligibility determinations. In full, FCRA section 604(g)(2) reads: “
                        <E T="03">Limitation on creditors.</E>
                         Except as permitted pursuant to paragraph (3)(C) or regulations prescribed under paragraph (5)(A), a creditor shall not obtain or use medical information (
                        <E T="03">other than medical information treated in the manner required under section 1681c(a)(6) of this title</E>
                         [
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         section 605(a)(6) of the FCRA]) pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit.” 
                        <SU>182</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>181</SU>
                             70 FR 70664, 70664 (Nov. 22, 2005).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>182</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(2) (emphasis added).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB believes that commenters misunderstand the plain text, context, and history of FCRA sections 604(g)(2) and 605(a)(6), which were enacted via two separate provisions of the FACT Act. Properly understood, the relevant sections of the FACT Act—sections 411 and 412—contemplate two separate mechanisms, regulating two different types of entities and on two different prescribed schedules, for ensuring protections for consumers' medical information in the financial system: (1) the limitation on 
                        <E T="03">creditors'</E>
                         use of medical information in underwriting under FCRA section 604(g)(2), subject to exceptions the Agencies might authorize in a final rule to be issued six months after the enactment of the FACT Act, and (2) the requirement under FCRA section 605(a)(6) that 
                        <E T="03">consumer reporting agencies</E>
                         mask certain information in consumer reports, to take effect fifteen months after the enactment of the FACT Act.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        First, FACT Act section 411,
                        <SU>183</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         titled “Protection of Medical Information in the Financial System,” added the bulk of FCRA section 604(g)—including the creditor prohibition—but did not add a parenthetical cross-referencing FCRA section 605(a)(6). FACT Act section 411 required the Agencies to issue final regulations by six months after the enactment of the FACT Act and tethered the effective date of the creditor prohibition in FCRA section 604(g)(2) to those regulations.
                        <SU>184</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>183</SU>
                             FACT Act section 411(a), 117 Stat. 1999-2001.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>184</SU>
                             FACT Act section 411(d), 117 Stat. 2002 (providing that FCRA section 604(g)(2), as enacted in FACT Act section 411(a), shall take effect on the later of (1) 90 days after the Agencies' issuance of final regulations under FCRA section 604(g)(5), or (2) the date specified in such final regulations). Although FACT Act section 411(a) required the Agencies to issue regulations under FCRA section 604(g)(5) by six months after the FACT Act's December 4, 2003 enactment, they did not publish interim final rules under FCRA section 604(g)(5) until June 10, 2005. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Fair Credit Reporting Medical Information Regulations, 70 FR 33958 (June 10, 2005); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             Fair Credit Reporting Medical Information Regulations, 70 FR 70664 (Nov. 22, 2005) (subsequent final rule).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Second, FACT Act section 412,
                        <SU>185</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         titled “Confidentiality of Medical Contact Information in Consumer Reports,” added several complementary provisions related to how consumer reporting agencies are to identify and appropriately protect medical information on consumer reports. FACT Act section 412 added FCRA section 623(a)(9), requiring persons whose primary business is providing medical services, products, or devices (or their agents or assignees) and who furnish information to consumer reporting agencies to notify the agencies of their status as medical information furnishers.
                        <SU>186</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         FACT Act section 412 authorized the FTC to “issu[e] model guidance or prescribe[e] reasonable policies and procedures, as necessary” to ensure that a medical information furnisher notifies the consumer reporting agencies of its status.
                        <SU>187</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Then, FACT Act section 412 added FCRA section 605(a)(6), which generally prohibits consumer reporting agencies from reporting to any third parties (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         not just creditors) the “name, address, and telephone number of any medical information furnisher” that has notified the agency of its status, unless “such name, address, and telephone number” are restricted or reported using codes for confidentiality.
                        <SU>188</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In conjunction with this new requirement for consumer reporting agencies, FACT Act section 412 inserted in FCRA section 604(g)(1) and (g)(2), as “technical and conforming amendments,” the parentheticals cross-referencing FCRA section 605(a)(6).
                        <SU>189</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Recognizing that medical information furnishers and consumer reporting agencies would need time for implementation, Congress stated that the “amendments made by [FACT Act section 412] shall take effect at the end of the 15-month period beginning on the date of enactment of this Act.” 
                        <SU>190</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>185</SU>
                             FACT Act section 412, 117 Stat. 2002-03.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>186</SU>
                             FACT Act section 412(a), 117 Stat. 2002.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>187</SU>
                             FACT Act section 412(e), 117 Stat. 2003.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>188</SU>
                             FACT Act section 412(b), 117 Stat. 2002. FCRA section 605(a)(6) exempts from its restrictions consumer reports “provided to an insurance company for a purpose relating to engaging in the business of insurance other than property and casualty insurance.” 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             (15 U.S.C. 1681c(a)(6)(B)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>189</SU>
                             FACT Act section 412(f), 117 Stat. 2003.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>190</SU>
                             FACT Act section 412(g), 117 Stat. 2003. Before the text of FCRA section 604(g)(2), as set forth in FACT Act section 411(a), itself took effect, the FACT Act section 412(f) “technical and conforming” amendment inserted in FCRA section 604(g)(2) the parenthetical cross-referencing FCRA section 605(a)(6). Congress contemplated that the text of FCRA section 604(g)(2) set forth in FACT Act section 411(a) could take effect within approximately nine months after the enactment of the FACT Act (
                            <E T="03">i.e., before</E>
                             the FACT Act section 412(f) “technical and conforming” amendment adding the parenthetical referring to FCRA section 605(a)(6) would take effect)—but Congress also provided that FCRA section 604(g)(2) could take effect later, 
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             if the Agencies specified a later date in their final regulations. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FACT Act section 411(a), 117 Stat. 2001 (requiring Agencies to issue final regulations under FCRA section 604(g)(5) within six months of the FACT Act's enactment); FACT Act section 411(d), 117 Stat. 2002 (providing that FCRA section 604(g)(2), as set forth in FACT Act section 411(a), could take effect on the later of 90 days after issuance of final regulations under FCRA section 604(g)(5) or the date specified in those final regulations).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Commenters appear to posit an unlikely and odd legislative maneuver whereby Congress simultaneously passed a law and repealed it in substantial part when commenters assert that the parenthetical cross-referencing FCRA section 605(a)(6) (added by FACT Act section 412) in large part negates the creditor prohibition in FCRA section 604(g)(2) (added by FACT Act section 411). As noted above, the two sections of the FACT Act contemplate two separate mechanisms, regulating two different types of entities and on two different prescribed schedules, for ensuring protections for consumers' medical information in the financial system. Accordingly, as Congress indicated by designating the parenthetical in FCRA section 604(g)(2) a “technical and conforming amendment,” the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3315"/>
                        parenthetical reference to “medical information treated in the manner required under section 605(a)(6)” is nothing more than an acknowledgment in the first mechanism that the second exists. In other words, Congress anticipated that the Agencies would be considering regulatory exceptions in their upcoming regulations, and to ensure that any of the Agencies' upcoming regulatory exceptions under FACT Act section 411 would also be consistent with the separate “name, address, and telephone number” confidentiality provisions of FACT Act section 412, Congress added a cross-reference. This cross-reference serves to emphasize that if the Agencies' upcoming regulations included regulatory exceptions to the creditor prohibition in FCRA section 604(g)(2), creditors would nonetheless still be prohibited from obtaining or using a consumer report containing the “name, address, and telephone number” of a health care provider unless such name, address, and telephone number are restricted or reported using codes for confidentiality.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Commenters' interpretation of the parenthetical, which was added through FACT Act section 412, would swallow much of the creditor prohibition that Congress added through FACT Act section 411. Contrary to commenters' assertion, the parenthetical merely ensures consistency between FACT Act section 411 and section 412, so that—notwithstanding any agency regulation creating regulatory exceptions to the creditor prohibition—consumer reports containing medical information obtained or used by creditors would restrict the “name, address, and telephone number” of a health care provider or otherwise report using codes for confidentiality. Besides ensuring the confidentiality of the “name, address, and telephone number,” FACT Act section 412 does not otherwise change the broad creditor prohibition in FCRA section 604(g)(2), which Congress added through FACT Act section 411. As recognized by the prudential regulators, FCRA “section 604(g)(2) prohibits all creditors from obtaining or using key financial information that is also medical information in the credit underwriting process,” and “[s]ection 604(g) does not contain any specific statutory exception to this broad [creditor] prohibition.” 
                        <SU>191</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Commenters are thus incorrect to assert that the creditor prohibition that Congress added through FACT Act section 411 distinguishes between financial and non-financial aspects of medical information; rather, the only exceptions are exceptions pursuant to regulatory determinations under FCRA section 604(g)(3)(C) (by the FTC, Federal banking agencies, NCUA, or applicable State insurance authority) or pursuant to regulations under FCRA section 604(g)(5) (by the Federal banking agencies and NCUA).
                        <SU>192</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>191</SU>
                             70 FR 33958, 33962 (June 10, 2005).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>192</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             Congress subsequently (through the CFPA) transferred to the CFPB primary regulatory authority for the FCRA. Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1955, 2004 (2010). 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(3)(C), (5)(A).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Implications for Other Laws</HD>
                    <P>
                        Some commenters supporting the proposed rule stated that the rule would help to further strengthen existing consumer protections provided by other laws, such as the FDCPA 
                        <SU>193</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA).
                        <SU>194</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Several commenters opposing the proposed rule stated that the rule unnecessarily duplicates or overlaps with these and other Federal statutes and regulations addressing debt collection, abusive conduct, privacy issues, discrimination, and consumer credit eligibility.
                        <SU>195</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These laws are discussed below and include, among others, the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act 
                        <SU>196</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and the No Surprises Act.
                        <SU>197</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Some commenters also went further and stated that the proposed rule is in conflict with some provisions of other laws. For example, commenters asserted that the proposed rule may cause creditors to violate ECOA 
                        <SU>198</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         if, in lieu of medical debt information, potential creditors rely more heavily on non-medical debt information about consumers that is less predictive and potentially biased. Commenters also contended that the proposed rule would require handling of sensitive information across multiple entities in violation of the HIPAA and the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) 
                        <SU>199</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and would impede creditors' ability to make repayment ability determinations required under TILA and Regulation Z. Another commenter asserted that the proposed rule does not comport with CFPB enforcement actions related to abusive acts or practices. With respect to HIPAA, some commenters stated that the proposed rule would conflict with HIPAA's provisions permitting covered entities (such as health care providers) to use and disclose protected health information, with certain limits and protections, for treatment, payment, and health care operations activities. Another commenter asserted that the proposed rule contradicts bankruptcy law generally, under which a bankruptcy filer is required to pay back at least some portion of their debt.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>193</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1692 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>194</SU>
                             Pub. L. 104-191, 110 Stat. 1936 (1996).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>195</SU>
                             Comments regarding State laws, and responses thereto, are discussed in part IV.C, 
                            <E T="03">Limits on a Consumer Reporting Agency's Disclosure of Medical Debt Information,</E>
                             above.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>196</SU>
                             Pub. L. 111-148, 124 Stat. 119 (2010).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>197</SU>
                             Pub. L. 116-260, div. BB, tit. I, 134 Stat. 2758 (2020).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>198</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1691 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>199</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 6801 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The FDCPA and the CFPB's implementing regulation, Regulation F, 12 CFR part 1006, govern certain activities of debt collectors, as that term is defined in the FDCPA. Among other things, the FDCPA and Regulation F prohibit debt collectors from engaging in unfair, deceptive, or abusive conduct when collecting or attempting to collect debts and require debt collectors to make certain disclosures to consumers in debt collection. Effective November 30, 2021, a new provision of Regulation F requires a debt collector to take certain actions intended to convey information about the debt to the consumer before furnishing information on that debt to a consumer reporting agency.
                        <SU>200</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>200</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             12 CFR 1006.30(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The HIPAA and the Department of Health and Human Services' (HHS) implementing regulations 
                        <SU>201</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         also limit or regulate the use, collection, and sharing of certain health information. Among other things, the HIPAA, as implemented by HHS regulations, sets national standards for the protection of individually identifiable health information by health plans, health care clearinghouses, and health care providers, as well as the security of electronic protected health information.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>201</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             45 CFR parts 160 and 164.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act revised section 501(r) of the Internal Revenue Code such that non-profit hospitals may lose their non-profit tax status if they fail to evaluate patients for eligibility for financial assistance before the hospital takes certain types of collection actions.
                        <SU>202</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>202</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             26 U.S.C. 501(r)(6).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The No Surprises Act protects participants, beneficiaries, and enrollees in group health plans and group and individual health insurance coverage from surprise medical bills when they receive, under certain circumstances, emergency services, non-emergency services from nonparticipating providers at participating health care facilities, and air ambulance services from nonparticipating providers of air ambulance services.
                        <SU>203</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In addition, the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3316"/>
                        No Surprises Act, among other things, requires certain health care facilities and providers to disclose Federal and State patient protections against balance billing and sets forth complaint processes with respect to potential violations of the protections against balance billing and out-of-network cost sharing.
                        <SU>204</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The No Surprises Act also includes certain protections for uninsured (or self-pay) individuals from surprise medical bills.
                        <SU>205</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Several Federal agencies have published rules implementing the No Surprises Act.
                        <SU>206</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>203</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Requirements Related to Surprise Billing; Part I, 86 FR 36872 (July 13, 2021). The protections 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            against surprise billing also apply to health benefits plans offered by carriers under the Federal Employees Health Benefits (FEHB) Act. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             5 U.S.C. 8901(p).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>204</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Requirements Related to Surprise Billing; Part I, 86 FR 36872 (July 13, 2021).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>205</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Requirements Related to Surprise Billing; Part II, 86 FR 55980 (Oct. 7, 2021).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>206</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g., id.</E>
                             (interim final rule issued by Office of Personnel Management; Internal Revenue Service, Department of the Treasury; Employee Benefits Security Administration, Department of Labor; Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, Department of Health and Human Services); Requirements Related to Surprise Billing; Part I, 86 FR 36872 (July 13, 2021) (same).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        ECOA and the CFPB's implementing regulation, Regulation B, 12 CFR part 1002, make it illegal for a creditor to discriminate against an applicant in any aspect of a credit transaction on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex (including sexual orientation and gender identity), marital status, or age (provided the applicant has the capacity to contract), on the fact that all or part of the applicant's income derives from a public assistance program, or on the fact that the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act.
                        <SU>207</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The general rule stated in § 1002.4(a) “covers, for example, application procedures, criteria used to evaluate creditworthiness, administration of accounts, and treatment of delinquent or slow accounts.” 
                        <SU>208</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>207</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1691(a); 12 CFR 1002.4(a); 86 FR 14363 (Mar. 16, 2021).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>208</SU>
                             Regulation B comment 4(a)-1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The GLBA and the CFPB's implementing regulation, Regulation P, 12 CFR part 1016, require financial institutions subject to the CFPB's jurisdiction to provide their customers with notices concerning their privacy policies and practices, among other things. They also place certain limitations on the disclosure of nonpublic personal information to nonaffiliated third parties, and on the redisclosure and reuse of such information. Other parts of the GLBA, as implemented by regulations and guidelines of certain other Federal agencies (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the Federal Trade Commission's Safeguards Rule and the prudential regulators' Safeguards Guidelines), set forth standards for administrative, technical, and physical safeguards with respect to financial institutions' customer information.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        TILA 
                        <SU>209</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and the CFPB's implementing regulation, Regulation Z, 12 CFR part 1026, impose disclosure and other requirements on creditors. For example, TILA and Regulation Z generally prohibit creditors from making mortgage loans unless they make a reasonable and good faith determination that the consumer will have the ability to repay the loan. TILA and Regulation Z also contain ability-to-pay requirements for credit cards.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>209</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1601 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Commenters provided no evidence that the proposed rule would conflict with other Federal laws. For example, while they pointed to HIPAA implementing regulations permitting covered entities, such as health care providers, to furnish payment information to consumer reporting agencies, they did not address the fact that the proposed rule would not have imposed any obligations or restrictions on furnishers. Nor would the rule unnecessarily duplicate or overlap with other laws; to the contrary, issuing this final rule will effectuate a congressionally enacted restriction on creditors' utilization of medical information and further strengthen consumer protections. Moreover, § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii) permits a creditor to obtain and use medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit to comply with applicable requirements of local, State, or Federal laws. For example, how to obtain and use medical information provided by the consumer in compliance with TILA and Regulation Z, as set forth in § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii), is discussed in part IV.D, 
                        <E T="03">Example to Comply With Applicable Requirements of Local, State, or Federal laws,</E>
                         above. With respect to the CFPB's pending enforcement actions, as referenced by a commenter, the CFPB notes that enforcement actions alleging unfair, deceptive, or abusive acts or practices under the CFPA are tethered to their particular facts and circumstances.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Other Comments Regarding Legal Authority</HD>
                    <P>Industry commenters asserted that the CFPB lacked authority to issue this rule, arguing that the rule constituted a matter of vast economic and political significance subject to the “major questions” doctrine. Industry commenters also contended that reliance on the words “necessary and appropriate” in Congress's delegations of authority to the CFPB does not provide an intelligible principle to guide agency action and would violate the “nondelegation” doctrine.</P>
                    <P>
                        Consistent with the discussion above, the CFPB has the legal authority to implement this rule. First, the CFPB has determined that the FCRA authorizes it to issue this rule and that the rule does not run afoul of the major questions doctrine. The rule merely (1) amends (including by revoking in substantial part) a discretionary exemption previously issued under expressly conferred rulemaking authority, thereby giving effect to a congressionally enacted restriction on creditors' utilization of medical information, and (2) prohibits consumer reporting agencies from providing creditors information that they cannot consider in underwriting in any event. Far from “claim[ing] the power to resolve a matter of great political significance,” 
                        <SU>210</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the CFPB here is removing a discretionary, insufficiently supported regulatory barrier to the implementation of an express statutory restriction on creditors obtaining or using medical information in connection with lending decisions. As the discussion of the rule's benefits and costs in part VII.E, 
                        <E T="03">Potential Benefits and Costs to Consumers and Covered Persons,</E>
                         demonstrates, the rule will not “involve[] hundreds of billions of dollars of impact,” as have other rules triggering the major questions doctrine.
                        <SU>211</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Nor is this a case in which an agency has “claim[ed] to discover in a long-extant statute an unheralded power.” 
                        <SU>212</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Instead, the rule here returns to FCRA section 604(g)(2) the effect it would have had if the Agencies had not adopted the financial information exception. Further, Congress itself recognized that the CFPB has “comparative expertise” 
                        <SU>213</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         to make the determination at the heart of this rulemaking: It expressly provided that the CFPB may determine whether an exemption like the financial information exception is “necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs” related to consumer-credit transactions.
                        <SU>214</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The rule thus does not have the hallmarks of a regulation 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3317"/>
                        potentially subject to the major questions doctrine.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>210</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">West Virginia</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                             597 U.S. 697, 743 (2022) (Gorsuch, J., concurring).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>211</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Mayfield</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Dep't of Labor,</E>
                             117 F.4th 611, 616 (5th Cir. 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>212</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">West Virginia,</E>
                             597 U.S. at 724 (majority opinion) (citation omitted).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>213</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 729 (citation omitted).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>214</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(5).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Second, the CFPB has determined that this rule does not run afoul of the nondelegation doctrine, which provides that it is unconstitutional for Congress to delegate its legislative powers to an actor in another branch of government, such as an executive agency. The consensus articulation that has emerged in Supreme Court jurisprudence is that Congress does not impermissibly delegate legislative authority if the statute contains an “intelligible principle” to guide the relevant actor in exercising its statutory authority.
                        <SU>215</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Under this standard, the Court has upheld broad delegations, such as “to regulate in the `public interest,' ” “to set `fair and equitable' prices and `just and reasonable' rates,” and “to issue whatever air quality standards are `requisite to protect the public health.' ” 
                        <SU>216</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Here, Congress's delegations of authority to the CFPB, in FCRA sections 604(g)(5) and 621(e), and CFPA section 1022(b)(1), meet that standard.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>215</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g., Whitman</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Am. Trucking Ass'ns,</E>
                             531 U.S. 457, 472 (2001) (quoting 
                            <E T="03">J.W. Hampton, Jr., &amp; Co.</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">United States,</E>
                             276 U.S. 394, 409 (1928)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>216</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Gundy</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">United States,</E>
                             588 U.S. 128, 146 (2019) (plurality opinion).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. CFPA Section 1022(b) Analysis</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB has considered the potential benefits, costs, and impacts of the rule. In the proposal, the CFPB requested comment on the impact analysis, as well as submissions of additional data that could inform its consideration of the impacts of the proposed rule. The CFPB has incorporated the information provided by commenters in the analysis and estimates that follow. This section contains an analysis of the benefits and costs of the rule for consumers, consumer reporting agencies, creditors, and other entities, such as health care providers and debt collectors.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Statement of Need</HD>
                    <P>The FCRA supports the fairness, accuracy, and privacy of personal information in consumer reporting. Among the protections in the FCRA for consumers' medical information, FCRA section 604(g)(2) generally restricts creditors from obtaining or using medical information in connection with credit eligibility determinations, absent a regulatory exception. FCRA section 604(g)(5) requires that the CFPB determine that any such exception be necessary and appropriate and consistent with the intent of FCRA section 604(g)(2) to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes. The CFPB is also authorized under section 621(e) of the FCRA to issue regulations as may be necessary or appropriate to administer and carry out the purposes and objectives of the FCRA, and to prevent evasions thereof or to facilitate compliance therewith. The CFPB anticipates that the rule will enhance consumer privacy by removing the financial information exception at § 1022.30(d) that currently permits creditors to consider medical debt information and medical information about expenses, assets, and collateral, among other types of medical information, in underwriting decisions under certain circumstances.</P>
                    <P>
                        Medical debt is prevalent in the United States, with 20 percent of households reporting that they had medical debt in 2022.
                        <SU>217</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Reflecting this prevalence, medical collections have recently comprised the majority of credit collection tradelines found on consumer reports.
                        <SU>218</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Like other information on consumer reports, medical collections information may be used by creditors to assess a consumer's ability to handle credit obligations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>217</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">CFPB Estimates $88 Billion in Medical Bills on Credit Reports</E>
                             (Mar. 1, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/about-us/newsroom/cfpb-estimates-88-billion-in-medical-bills-on-credit-reports/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>218</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Medical debt burden in the United States,</E>
                             at 5 (Mar. 1, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/research-reports/medical-debt-burden-in-the-united-states/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Medical collections may result from unplanned expenditures, making medical collections information on consumer reports a potentially noisy or inaccurate signal of a consumer's ability to meet credit obligations. In the United States, high health care prices, uneven insurance coverage, complex health insurance networks, and cost-sharing features of health insurance may cause unexpected or chronic illnesses to result in large medical bills for individual consumers. Due to opaque medical pricing and billing practices, consumers often do not know the cost of medical services at the time those services are incurred, and may receive medical bills that they are uncertain they actually owe.
                        <SU>219</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Some consumers are unable to pay these bills on time, and some of these past-due medical bills eventually become medical collections.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>219</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Complaint Bulletin: Medical billing and collection issues described in consumer complaints,</E>
                             at 7-8 (Apr. 20, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/research-reports/complaint-bulletin-medical-billing-and-collection-issues-described-in-consumer-complaints/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Multiple consumer advocates and at least one researcher submitted comments agreeing with the CFPB's understanding of how many consumers acquire medical debt, though one individual stated that only a fraction of medical debt is the result of an unavoidable emergency. The CFPB understands that 72 percent of consumers with medical debt reported that the debt originated from a one-time or short-term medical expense, such as for treatment from an accident or a single hospital stay, implying that a substantial fraction of medical debt results from unplanned expenditures.
                        <SU>220</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>220</SU>
                             Lunna Lopes et al., Kaiser Fam. Found., 
                            <E T="03">Health Care Debt In The U.S.: The Broad Consequences Of Medical And Dental Bills</E>
                             (June 16, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.kff.org/report-section/kff-health-care-debt-survey-main-findings/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Another factor that potentially makes medical collections an imprecise signal is that they are unevenly reported. Many health care providers allow debt collectors to furnish to consumer reporting agencies, while others do not. Because of this, it is possible for consumers' medical debt in collections to be included unevenly on consumer reports, potentially leading to different financial outcomes. While a consumer could theoretically be able to factor this into their decision when selecting a health care provider, it is more likely that a consumer is not aware of which health care providers furnish and usually does not choose a health care provider based solely on a health care provider's collection policies, if they consider them at all.
                        <SU>221</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>221</SU>
                             Noam M. Levey, 
                            <E T="03">Hundreds of Hospitals Sue Patients or Threaten Their Credit, a KHN Investigation Finds. Does Yours?,</E>
                             KFF Health News (Dec. 21, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://kffhealthnews.org/news/article/medical-debt-hospitals-sue-patients-threaten-credit-khn-investigation/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>When creditors base underwriting decisions on information that is unevenly reported and potentially erroneous, an economic tradeoff arises. Creditors balance the probabilities of making two types of error when deciding whether to lend to consumers. The first type of error occurs when creditors lend to consumers who are unable to repay the loan. The second type of error occurs when creditors choose not to lend to consumers who are able and willing to repay. Creditors lose potential revenues when they decline credit for consumers with reported medical collections. Similarly, consumers, who would have benefitted from access to credit, also lose from being denied credit because of reported medical collections.</P>
                    <P>
                        The likelihood of making each of these types of error is affected by the informativeness of the signal medical collections provide to creditors. When medical collections are reported for debts that do not exist (for instance, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3318"/>
                        because medical bills have been paid by insurance) and are prevalent, using this information will tend to increase the likelihood of the second type of error, without reducing the likelihood of the first type of error. In that situation, creditors who use medical collection information would benefit from not considering this information in their credit decisions. When medical collections are reported on the basis of debts that may in fact impair consumers' future repayment and are prevalent, creditors would experience a reduction in revenue if they do not consider medical collections in their credit decisions, due to an increase in the likelihood of the first type of error. As a result, whether creditors would benefit from not being able to consider medical collections in their credit decisions is an empirical question. As discussed in part XII, 
                        <E T="03">Technical Appendix,</E>
                         empirical analysis suggests that, on balance, preventing creditors from using medical collection information in credit decisions would result in creditors extending credit to more consumers without diminishing the average performance of newly opened credit accounts.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As noted by a researcher commenter, credit scores that exclude or underweight medical debt were created in response to market demand, but market forces have not yet driven creditors to cease using medical debt information in underwriting. The CFPB agrees that if creditors could in fact benefit from disregarding medical debt information when making credit decisions, one would expect that creditors would have abandoned the practice out of their own profit motive. While, as discussed above, the industry has trended in this direction in recent years, the transition has not occurred fully, or quickly. The CFPB hypothesizes that the nexus of current contracts, expectations, and institutional structures that govern creditors' behavior prevents markets from moving to a potentially better equilibrium outcome. For instance, the market for mortgages is heavily driven by the secondary market for those loans. Similar factors likely drive creditor behavior in other consumer loan markets. Mortgage originators must follow underwriting practices that are expected by buyers in the secondary market, or they will not be able to securitize their loans. Since consideration of medical debt information has been expected by the market (if only implicitly through the use of commercially available credit scores), it is difficult for any one firm to move away from using that information, even if doing so would not increase risks for investors.
                        <SU>222</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>222</SU>
                             Loretta J. Mester, Fed. Rsrv. Bank of Phila., 
                            <E T="03">What's the Point of Credit Scoring?,</E>
                             Bus. Rev., at 6 (Sept./Oct. 1997), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.philadelphiafed.org/-/media/frbp/assets/economy/articles/business-review/1997/september-october/brso97lm.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The rule would generally prohibit creditors from considering medical debt information from consumer reports in underwriting decisions. Consequently, the incentive for medical debt holders and collectors to furnish to consumer reporting agencies would decrease. As a result, the rule would enhance consumers' privacy with respect to their medical information, while also reducing the likelihood that the uneven reporting of medical collections would affect credit outcomes. While the rule would reduce the amount, though not necessarily the quality, of information on which creditors can base underwriting decisions, the CFPB expects that, over time, those credit scoring models that currently use medical collections would be adjusted to reweight the remaining information on consumer reports. In the long run, the expected adjustments to credit scoring models may help markets move toward a more efficient allocation of credit.</P>
                    <P>Adjustments to credit scoring models may result in credit being extended to more consumers who are able and willing to repay their credit obligations. This may allow consumers to benefit from increased access to credit and creditors to increase overall revenues. Moreover, since medical collections tradelines on consumer reports are prone to error, removing medical debt from consumer reports could reduce the need for dispute resolution, potentially saving time and resources for consumers, consumer reporting agencies, and furnishers of medical debt information.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Baseline for Consideration of Costs and Benefits</HD>
                    <P>The impact analysis compares the rule's potential benefits and costs against a baseline in which the CFPB takes no regulatory action. This baseline includes existing Federal and State law and current furnishing practices. Under the baseline, creditors are generally allowed to consider medical collections information on consumer reports in underwriting decisions due to the financial information exception at § 1022.30(d).</P>
                    <P>
                        Over the last few years, the three NCRAs implemented several changes in the consumer reporting of medical debt. In September 2017, as part of a settlement with 31 State attorneys general, the NCRAs implemented a 180-day waiting period before including furnished medical collections on consumer reports.
                        <SU>223</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In July 2022, the NCRAs voluntarily extended the waiting period from 180 days to one year and removed all paid medical collections from consumer reports. Finally, in April 2023, the NCRAs voluntarily removed both paid and unpaid medical collections under $500 from consumer reports.
                        <SU>224</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>223</SU>
                             Press Release, Atty. Gen's. Off., State of Ohio, 
                            <E T="03">Attorney General DeWine Announces Major National Settlement with Credit Reporting Agencies,</E>
                             (May 20, 2015), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ohioattorneygeneral.gov/Media/News-Releases/May-2015/Attorney-General-DeWine-Announces-Major-National-S.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>224</SU>
                             Fredric Blavin et al., Urban Wire, Urban Inst., 
                            <E T="03">Medical Debt Was Erased from Credit Records for Most Consumers, Potentially Improving Many Americans' Lives</E>
                             (Nov. 2, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.urban.org/urban-wire/medical-debt-was-erased-credit-records-most-consumers-potentially-improving-many.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        A researcher commenter cited research showing that these voluntary NCRA reporting changes disproportionately benefited consumers in census tracts that had higher average incomes or had larger white shares of the population. The commenter stated that disparities in credit access persist for consumers who live in lower-income or non-white communities. The CFPB agrees and its own research has reached similar findings.
                        <SU>225</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>225</SU>
                             Ryan Sandler &amp; Zachary Blizard, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Recent Changes in Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Records Data Point,</E>
                             at 4 (Mar. 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_recent-changes-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports_2024-03.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>It is the CFPB's understanding that health care providers and debt collectors they contract with currently use three types of collection practices to collect medical debt, often in combination: contacting consumers by mail, phone, or other means; debt collection litigation; and furnishing medical collections information to consumer reporting agencies. The impact analysis considers how health care providers and debt collectors may respond to the rule by increasing their use of the first two collection practices if furnishing becomes a less effective means of inducing payment.</P>
                    <P>
                        The evolving landscape of State laws and consumer reporting practices may change medical collections reporting in the absence of the rule, affecting the baseline. The voluntary changes recently implemented by the NCRAs could be reversed at any time, and such reversals would tend to amplify the impacts of the rule.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3319"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the current state of the world, creditors are generally allowed to consider medical debt information in underwriting decisions, including medical collections information found on consumer reports. Some recently passed State laws establish when medical collections information originating from these States can be furnished to consumer reporting agencies or included on consumer reports.
                        <SU>226</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As a result of their voluntary reporting changes, the only medical collections that the NCRAs currently include in their consumer reports are those that: (1) are more than one year past due, (2) are for collection amounts greater than $500, and (3) are unpaid, in addition to those that (4) would not violate State laws that restrict or prohibit consumer reporting of medical collections. By August 2023, after the voluntary NCRA changes were fully implemented but before most of the State-level changes took effect, an estimated 5 percent of consumers had medical collections on their consumer reports.
                        <SU>227</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The rule removes these remaining medical collections from, and generally prohibits future medical collections from being included in, consumer reports provided to creditors.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>226</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Colo. Rev. Stat. section 5-18-109; N.Y. Pub. Health Law art. 49-A; 2024 Conn. Act 24-6; 2024 Va. Acts ch. 751.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>227</SU>
                             Ryan Sandler &amp; Zachary Blizard, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Recent Changes in Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Records Data Point,</E>
                             at 3 (Mar. 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_recent-changes-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports_2024-03.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Data and Evidence</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Primary Sources</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB's analysis of costs, benefits, and impact is informed by data from a range of sources. As discussed in part III.A, when the interventions discussed in this rule were part of the broader Consumer Reporting Rulemaking, the CFPB convened a Small Business Review Advisory Panel in October 2023 to gather input from small businesses. The discussions at the panel meetings and the comment letters submitted by small entity representatives during this process were presented in a Panel Report completed in December 2023. The CFPB also invited and received feedback on the proposals under consideration from other stakeholders, including stakeholders who were not small entity representatives. The impact analysis is further informed by academic research, reports on research by industry and trade groups, practitioner studies, and comment letters received by the CFPB. Where used, these specific sources are cited in this analysis.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB also used its own Consumer Credit Information Panel (CCIP) to estimate the potential impacts of the proposed rule on consumers and creditors. The CCIP is a 1-in-50, nationally representative sample of deidentified consumer reports from one of the three NCRAs. The data allowed the CFPB to conduct analyses of the effect of medical collections information on the success of a consumer's application for credit (determined by whether a creditor's inquiry following such an application led to the origination of a credit account or, in other words, inquiry success) and future credit account delinquencies. Such analyses are useful for quantifying the rule's potential impacts to consumers and creditors. Because the CCIP data are drawn from consumer reports from a single NCRA and because medical collections are unevenly reported, the data might not contain all medical collections that exist in the United States.</P>
                    <P>
                        To quantify health care providers' exposure to unpaid medical bills, the CFPB used data from the Hospital Cost Reporting Information System (HCRIS), which is administered by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. The HCRIS data contain annual cost reports filed by Medicare-certified hospitals in the United States. The data comprise information on hospitals, their revenues, operating costs, and bad debt expenses not reimbursable by Medicare. While almost all hospitals file these cost reports, the data do not include unpaid medical debts owed to health care providers that are not hospitals.
                        <SU>228</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>228</SU>
                             Nat'l Pub. Radio, 
                            <E T="03">Nursing homes are suing friends and family to collect on patients' bills</E>
                             (July 28, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.npr.org/sections/health-shots/2022/07/28/1113134049/nursing-homes-are-suing-friends-and-family-to-collect-on-patients-bills.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Due to these data limitations, the analysis presented in this part generally provides a qualitative discussion of the rule's costs and benefits and includes quantitative estimates whenever possible.</P>
                    <P>
                        Multiple commenters, including at least one bank trade association, consumer reporting agency trade association, and consumer reporting agency, as well as multiple debt collectors and researchers, stated that the CFPB did not adequately gather data and estimate impacts in the proposed rule. The CFPB uses available data, economic reasoning, and evidence provided by commenters to justify its conclusions in the below impact analysis. The Supreme Court has acknowledged that executive branch decision-making relies on imperfect data, and “[t]he APA [Administrative Procedure Act] imposes no general obligation on agencies to conduct or commission their own empirical or statistical studies.” 
                        <SU>229</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In this rule the CFPB has gone beyond the minimum requirements of the APA and section 1022(b)(2)(B) of the CFPA by conducting its own statistical study, documented in the Technical Appendix.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>229</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">FCC</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Prometheus Radio Project,</E>
                             592 U.S. 414, 427 (2021).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. ACA International Survey</HD>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB requested data that can be used to quantify the analysis of impacts, or submission of studies that contain relevant estimates that can be used in the analysis of impacts. The CFPB received a research report commissioned by a debt collection industry trade association which critiqued several elements of the analysis in the proposal and introduced some new evidence. The CFPB discusses the findings of that report (referred to as the Report) below.
                        <SU>230</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>230</SU>
                             Andrew R. Nigrinis, 
                            <E T="03">Economic Analysis of the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau's Prohibition on Creditors and Consumer Reporting Agencies Concerning Medical Information (Regulation V)</E>
                             (July 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://policymakers.acainternational.org/wp-content/uploads/2024/07/AndrewNigrinisEconomicAnalysis-CFPB-FCRA-NPRM-July2024.pdf.</E>
                             The Report was included as an exhibit to a comment by the debt collector trade association commenter, and also submitted by its author in his individual capacity.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Report documents the results of a survey of members of ACA International, a debt collector trade association, executed in two “waves” which surveyed different samples of 19 debt collectors, for a total of 38 surveyed debt collectors across both waves. The first wave of the survey was fielded in the last two months of 2023 and the second wave of the survey was fielded in May 2024. Both waves asked about medical debt referrals and collections in the first and second quarters of 2022 and 2023, as well as in the fourth quarter of 2023.
                        <SU>231</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The surveys also requested the debt collectors' predicted changes in medical debt collection rates if they were no longer permitted to use consumer reporting as a debt collection practice. Broadly, the surveyed debt collectors reported lower referrals and collected amounts in 2023 than in 2022 and reported lower expected medical debt collection rates if consumer reporting was not permitted. The CFPB does not find the results of this survey 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3320"/>
                        to be reliable evidence of the likely effects of the rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>231</SU>
                             The Report does not describe how respondents to the first wave of the survey provided data for the fourth quarter of 2023 when they were surveyed before the end of that quarter.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Beyond specific concerns about the results of the surveys in the Report, which the CFPB describes below, the CFPB notes that the surveys do not appear to have been representative of the debt collection industry. The Report does not provide information on how these debt collectors were selected for the surveys, and it is unlikely that these 38 debt collectors are representative of the 2,100 members of ACA International, much less representative of debt collectors overall.
                        <SU>232</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Report does not provide data on the states in which the 38 debt collectors are located in, but rather the states in which the debt collectors' referring “client accounts” (which the CFPB assumes to mean health care providers) are located. Across both surveys, nearly 47 percent of the client accounts held by surveyed debt collectors—almost half—were located in California. In contrast, data from the 2017 Economic Census indicate that only around 10 percent of collection agencies were located in California.
                        <SU>233</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The survey responses are not weighted to be more representative of debt collection nationwide. The overrepresentation of California medical debt may be especially likely to bias the inferences drawn from the surveys, as the CFPB understands that California's consumer protections that impact the debt collection industry are more robust than those in other states.
                        <SU>234</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, just under 12 percent of survey respondents' client accounts were from Southern states, but medical debt is heavily concentrated in Southern states. Ninety-nine of the 100 counties with the largest shares of adults with medical collections are located in the South, as described in research cited by the Report.
                        <SU>235</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The survey is unlikely to be representative of debt collectors in the South who may be more likely to have medical debt as a large share of their portfolio. As such, although the CFPB discusses the specific arguments of the Report that are based on its survey of ACA International members, on balance the CFPB determines that this survey does not provide reliable evidence that can be relied upon to evaluate the benefits, costs and impacts of this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>232</SU>
                             ACA Int'l, 
                            <E T="03">ACA International Advocacy Fact Sheet,</E>
                             at 5 (2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.acainternational.org/wp-content/uploads/2022/WI/Advocacy-Booklet-May2022-FINAL.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>233</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             U.S. Census Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">2017 Economic Census Data, https://www.census.gov/programs-surveys/economic-census/year/2017/economic-census-2017/data.html</E>
                             (last revised Feb. 27, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>234</SU>
                             California imposed new conditions on the sale of hospital medical debt to debt buyers in 2022, including that the hospital has either found the patient ineligible for financial assistance (income above 400 percent of the Federal poverty level and annual out-of-pocket costs at the hospital lower than the lesser of 10 percent of the patient's current family income or the patient's family income in the prior 12 months) or found the patient has not responded to attempts to offer financial assistance for 180 days. A previous law prohibits collection actions before 150 days after initial billing if the patient lacks coverage or may have high medical costs. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             2021 Cal. AB 1020. In addition, after this survey was performed, California's governor signed a law on September 24, 2024 to pass its own prohibition on credit reporting agencies including medical debts in consumer credit reports. SB 1061.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>235</SU>
                             Frederic Blavin et al., Urban Inst., 
                            <E T="03">Brief: Which County Characteristics Predict Medical Debt?</E>
                             (June 15, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.urban.org/research/publication/which-county-characteristics-predict-medical-debt.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Report includes aggregated dollar amounts of medical debt referred to debt collectors from health care providers (“referrals”) and total collections recovered, as reported by the 38 survey respondents. The Report indicates that, for survey respondents, there were more referrals to debt collectors by health care providers in 2023 than in 2022, though the Report does not discuss whether this difference is statistically significant. The Report interprets this result as showing that consumers have lowered willingness to pay their medical bills after the voluntary NCRA reporting changes were completed in April 2023.</P>
                    <P>
                        Setting aside the issue of representativeness discussed above, the CFPB finds that the increase in medical collection referrals among survey respondents documented in the Report is not likely due to the voluntary changes by the NCRAs in 2022 and 2023. First, the Report does not account for growth in health care costs. National health expenditure spending grew by 4.1 percent in 2022 and was expected to grow by 7.5 percent in 2023.
                        <SU>236</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This would explain much of the growth in referral amounts between 2022 and 2023 by itself. The data in the Report also show indications of seasonality, which the Report makes no effort to adjust for. That is, referrals may be routinely higher in the winter compared to the spring, such that the Report's comparison of the referrals in the second quarter of 2022 to the first quarter of 2023 primarily captures this seasonal change. Indeed, the Report shows that referral amounts are much closer to the 2022 amounts by the fourth quarter of 2023. Additionally, the Report finds that referrals fell between June 2022 and December 2023 in the South, where medical debt is more prevalent than other regions. If there were declines in referral amounts because of the voluntary NCRA reporting changes, they would have been more likely to occur in the fourth quarter of 2023 than in the second quarter, because the removal of debts under $500 from consumer reports did not occur until April 2023, but this is not what the data show. Given these concerns, the CFPB determines that it cannot rely upon the Report as evidence that health care provider referrals were impacted by the voluntary NCRA reporting changes, and thus would be likely to be impacted by this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>236</SU>
                             Ctrs. for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Servs., 
                            <E T="03">NHE Fact Sheet, https://www.cms.gov/data-research/statistics-trends-and-reports/national-health-expenditure-data/nhe-fact-sheet</E>
                             (last modified Sep. 10, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Report constructed collection rates by dividing the aggregate collection data by the aggregate referral data for each debt collector, in each quarter. The Report provided median collection rates in each quarter by geographic region and for the United States overall. Collection rates are similar across the first two quarters of 2022 and the first quarter of 2023, but there appears to be a sizable reduction in the median collection rate in the second quarter of 2023, falling to 11.7 percent from 14.5 percent in the second quarter of 2022. Collection rates fell to 9.6 percent by the fourth quarter of 2023.
                        <SU>237</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Report interprets this as showing that consumers were receiving a message that medical debts do not need to be paid during this time period.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>237</SU>
                             The text of the Report compares the first quarter of 2022 to the fourth quarter of 2023. As discussed above in this final rule, the CFPB would expect and the Report shows significant seasonality in debt collection, such that comparing the first quarter of one year to the fourth quarter of another year is likely to pick up this seasonal variation, rather than any impacts of the voluntary changes by the NCRAs. As such, the CFPB focuses on the comparison between the second quarter of 2022 and the second quarter of 2023.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Despite the surveys' methodological flaws outlined above, taking the data of the Report at face value, the CFPB does not agree with the interpretation that consumers were more likely to believe that medical debts do not need to be paid in the second quarter of 2023, in comparison to the second quarter of 2022. Instead, the CFPB expects that this change in the collection rate is, in large part, the result of the removal of medical debts under $500. After medical debts under $500 could no longer be reported to the NCRAs as of April 2023, debt collectors may have prioritized alternative mechanisms for collecting older debts under $500 which, absent the voluntary change, they may have collected through collection tools including consumer reporting. This change in debt collection practices may have temporarily reduced collection rates until debt collectors 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3321"/>
                        implemented equally effective practices for debts under $500, or until debt collectors changed the types of debt for which they accept referrals, as debt collectors could choose not to service debt that they expect would only be collectable with the use of consumer reporting. The CFPB expects there may be a similar temporary reduction in collection rates under the rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Report also summarizes debt collectors' subjective expectations as to how a cessation of consumer reporting of medical debts would impact collection rates, using survey responses from the debt collector respondents.
                        <SU>238</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB does not find these results to be a reliable way of estimating the likely impacts of this final rule. The CFPB does not believe that the respondents to the survey of ACA members possessed any means to provide a precise numerical forecast of the effect of the proposal on collection rates. Instead, the survey responses convey the subjective, qualitative opinions of the surveyed debt collectors, who have a financial interest in overestimating the costs of the proposal (to the extent that higher estimated costs reduce the likelihood that the proposal is finalized). While qualitative views can be valid, it is not appropriate to treat these as quantitative measures that can be aggregated and used to calculate median and mean values, as the Report does. The Report indicates that the median debt collector expected the collection rate 
                        <SU>239</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         to decrease by 2.0 percent if debt collectors ceased consumer reporting.
                        <SU>240</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In the South, where the highest concentrations of medical collections occur, the median expected change was 1.0 percent.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>238</SU>
                             The CFPB notes that the rule would not prevent debt collectors from furnishing medical debt information which could be included on consumer reports sent to landlords, employers, other debt collectors, or consumers, so these estimates may overestimate the impact of the rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>239</SU>
                             Though the Report describes this as a “liquidation rate”, it appears to be equivalently measured as the dollar amount collected divided by the dollar amount referred, which the Report also describes as a “collection rate.” The CFPB uses “collection rate” throughout its discussion.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>240</SU>
                             The CFPB focuses on responses from the later wave of the survey documented in the Report, as this took place after the voluntary changes by the NCRAs and some recent changes in State laws, and thus is closer to the baseline.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The Report argues that, if anything, the subjective estimates of the ACA International survey respondents understate the likely impact of the proposed rule. The Report states that respondents' expected reductions in collection rates were comparable to estimates from the Nevada Hospital Association (NHA) of the likely impact of Nevada State legislation that would prevent medical debts from being included on consumer reports for at least 60 days. The Report states that because the proposed rule would instead prevent medical debts from ever being included on consumer reports, respondents' estimates in response to the survey should have been higher than the NHA estimates. However, the Report misstated the requirements of the Nevada legislation. This State law requires debt collectors to provide written notification to a consumer 60 days before they take any action, not just consumer reporting, to collect a medical debt.
                        <SU>241</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This State law is not equivalent to the final rule and the CFPB does not interpret the NHA estimate as implying that ACA International survey respondents underestimated the impacts of the rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>241</SU>
                             Br. for the Nev. Hosp. Ass'n as Amicus Curiae, 
                            <E T="03">Aargon Agency, Inc.</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">O'Laughlin,</E>
                             70 F.4th 1224 (9th Cir. 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.acainternational.org/wp-content/uploads/2022/04/Dkt-13-Motion-to-file-Amicus-Curiae-Brief-Amicus-Curiae-Brief.pdf</E>
                             (filed Apr. 12, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Report uses its survey of ACA International members and publicly available data sources to estimate the impact of the rule on the aggregate amount of recoverable medical debt. The Report uses estimates for the existing stock of medical debt that would be impacted by the rule, as well as the flow of new medical debt. The CFPB does not find these estimates to be reasonable, as described below.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Report assumes that the aggregate amount of medical debt that would be impacted by the rule is about $220 billion, based on an estimate from the Kaiser Family Foundation (KFF) of the total amount of medical debt outstanding. The CFPB estimates that approximately $50 billion in medical collections is currently included on consumer reports.
                        <SU>242</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB expects that the stock of medical debt that is not included on consumer reports comprises debt that is at least seven years old and therefore cannot be included on a consumer report under the FCRA, debt that is not subject to consumer reporting because of NCRA policies or the preferences of the debt holder, and debt that may be eligible for consumer reporting but is not reported because the debt holder expects that reporting would not sufficiently increase the likelihood of payment. Recovery rates of debts that fall into these three categories will not be directly affected by the rule, so the CFPB's $50 billion estimate is a better approximation of the relevant inventory of medical debt.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>242</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Ryan Sandler &amp; Zachary Blizard, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Recent Changes in Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Records Data Point,</E>
                             at 4 (Mar. 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_recent-changes-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports_2024-03.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        To estimate the annual flow of medical debt that newly appears on consumer reports, the Report cited Kluender et al. (2021), which found that 13 percent of consumers incurred medical debt, with a mean value of $2,396, in 2020.
                        <SU>243</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Report used an estimate of 258.3 million adults in the United States and concluded that new medical debt accrues at a rate of $80.46 billion per year. Though the Report used the KFF total inventory of medical debt to estimate the stock of medical debt, it used medical collections information provided on consumer reports to estimate the flow of medical debt. The CFPB agrees with the Report's decision to use medical collections included on consumer reports, as this reflects the portion of medical debt that will be impacted by the rule. However, the data from 2020 are outdated and do not reflect the amount of medical debt that is included on consumer reports at this rule's baseline. The CFPB assumes that the ratio between the stock and flow of consumers with medical collections included on consumer reports would have remained unchanged between 2020 and 2023, even though the stock and flow would have both responded to the voluntary NCRA reporting changes. Using evidence from Kluender et al. (2021), the CFPB finds that this flow-to-stock ratio was 0.73 in 2020.
                        <SU>244</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB found that in June 2023, 15.6 million consumers had medical collections on their consumer reports.
                        <SU>245</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Applying the ratio from Kluender et al. (2021) allows the CFPB to estimate that 11.4 million consumers incur medical collections on their consumer reports each year. The CFPB assumes that this flow of medical collections would be of similar dollar amounts to the stock of medical collections because Kluender et al. (2021) found that the difference between flow and stock medical collections was just $29.
                        <SU>246</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB found that the average amount of a medical collection 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3322"/>
                        on a consumer report in June 2023 was $3,148.70.
                        <SU>247</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, the CFPB estimates that new medical debt in collections that appears on consumer reports accrues at an annual rate of approximately $36 billion.
                        <SU>248</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>243</SU>
                             Raymond Kluender et al., 
                            <E T="03">Medical Debt in the US, 2009-2020,</E>
                             JAMA (July 20, 2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://jamanetwork.com/journals/jama/fullarticle/2782187.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>244</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                             at Tbl.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>245</SU>
                             Ryan Sandler &amp; Zachary Blizard, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Recent Changes in Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Records Data Point</E>
                             (Mar. 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_recent-changes-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports_2024-03.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>246</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Raymond Kluender et al., 
                            <E T="03">Medical Debt in the US, 2009-2020,</E>
                             at Tbl., JAMA (July 20, 2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://jamanetwork.com/journals/jama/fullarticle/2782187.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>247</SU>
                             Ryan Sandler &amp; Zachary Blizard, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Recent Changes in Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Records Data Point</E>
                             (Mar. 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_recent-changes-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports_2024-03.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>248</SU>
                             This estimate is not equivalent to the annual flow of medical debt because most medical debt is not included on consumer reports and, since June 2022, medical debt must be at least one year past due before it can be added to a consumer report. Instead, this estimate provides the annual flow of medical debt that newly appears on a consumer report.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Report next applies the mean expected change in the collection rate for the debt collectors included in its surveys, estimating that there would be an 8 percent reduction in expected collection rates. The CFPB understands that the median better approximates the expected impact of the rule because it reduces the influence of outlier survey responses, and further expects that the results from the second wave of the survey better reflect conditions under the baseline because debt collectors had ample time to understand and respond to the NCRA reporting changes. Therefore, though the CFPB disagrees that these survey responses are informative as described above, the CFPB uses a 2 percent reduction in collection rates in its estimation of the change in recoverable medical debt under the rule below.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Report applies an 8 percent reduction in expected collection rates to the entire stock and flow of estimated medical debt, which assumes that medical debt has a 100 percent expected collection rate at baseline. This is contrary to evidence in the Report, which showed that the median collection rate was just 9.6 percent amongst survey respondents in the most recent quarter for which they were surveyed. Therefore, the Report's 8 percent reduction in the collection rate should have been applied to the Report's estimated collection rate, which would find that collection rates would fall from 9.6 percent to 8.8 percent under the rule.
                        <SU>249</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>249</SU>
                             Though the Report exclusively describes survey respondents' expectations for the change in collection rates under the proposal in percent terms, it is possible that survey respondents interpreted this request in percentage point terms instead. In this case, the collection rate would be expected to fall from 9.6 percent to 1.6 percent.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Report uses a present value of growing perpetuity formula to estimate the indefinite loss of recoverable medical debt under the rule. The Report assumes a 5.11 percent discount rate and a 4.1 percent annual growth rate to estimate that there would be a $654.87 billion loss in recoverable medical debt over an infinite time horizon.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB produces its own estimate for the aggregate loss in recoverable medical debt under the rule based on the evidence provided in the Report. The CFPB uses a 2 percent change in the collection rate, such that collection rates would fall from 9.6 percent to 9.4 percent under the rule, as well as its estimates for the stock and flow of medical debt, $50 billion and $36 billion, respectively. The CFPB uses the Report's 4.1 percent annual growth rate but assumes a 2 percent discount rate, as recommended by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in their guidance to regulatory agencies for cost and benefit analyses.
                        <SU>250</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, the CFPB only considers a 10-year time horizon, as OMB has no guidance for the discount rate in an infinite horizon.
                        <SU>251</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Applying a standard discounted cash flow formula, the CFPB estimates a reduction in recoverable medical debt of approximately $900 million under the rule.
                        <SU>252</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>250</SU>
                             Off. of Mgmt. &amp; Budget, 
                            <E T="03">OMB Circular No. A-4</E>
                             (Nov. 9, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CircularA-4.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>251</SU>
                             The OMB's long-term estimates only go so far as 150 years, with increasingly smaller discount rates. Off. of Mgmt. &amp; Budget, 
                            <E T="03">OMB Circular No. A-4 Appendix</E>
                             (Nov. 9, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CircularA-4Appendix.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>252</SU>
                             If the survey respondents' expected change in collection rates under the proposal is provided as a percentage point change, instead of a percent change, then the collection rate in this estimate would fall from 9.6 percent to 7.6 percent under the proposal. The estimate for the 10-year reduction in recoverable medical debt in this scenario is approximately $8 billion.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The Report interprets its estimate of the reduction in collection rates under the proposed rule as the cost for health care providers, rather than for medical debt holders overall. Many health care providers sell medical debt to debt buyers, who then retain the legal right to collect on the debt. The CFPB is not aware of the portion of medical debt that is held by health care providers but understands that the aggregate estimates of the reduction in medical debt recoverable under the rule would only partially impose direct costs on health care providers.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Brevoort and Kambara (2014)</HD>
                    <P>
                        In the proposed rule, the CFPB cited previous CFPB research by Brevoort and Kambara (2014), which showed that medical collections tradelines are less predictive of serious delinquency than nonmedical collections.
                        <SU>253</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This research showed that, holding credit scores constant, a consumer who has more medical collections than nonmedical collections may be less likely to become seriously delinquent within two years than a consumer with more nonmedical than medical collections.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>253</SU>
                             Kenneth P. Brevoort &amp; Michelle Kambara, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Data point: Medical debt and credit scores</E>
                             (May 2014), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/201405_cfpb_report_data-point_medical-debt-credit-scores.pdf. See also</E>
                             Kenneth P. Brevoort &amp; Michelle Kambara, 
                            <E T="03">Are All Collections Equal? The Case of Medical Debt,</E>
                             11:4 J. Credit Risk, at 73-97 (Dec. 2015).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Multiple commenters, including a bank trade association, a consumer reporting agency trade association, a debt collector trade association, a health care provider, a NCRA, a researcher, and an individual, disputed the relevance of this research to the proposed rule. A NCRA commenter analyzed its own data in response to Brevoort and Kambara (2014) and found that consumers with medical collections have delinquency rates that are at least 8 percent higher than consumers with nonmedical collections. The commenter did not state whether it held other consumer characteristics constant while making this comparison. The commenter further found that adding medical collections to a model with nonmedical collections increased predictive fit by 34 percent. However, the commenter did not provide any details about the other variables included in this model. The CFPB expects that a model with few variables would experience a large increase in predictive fit from the addition of most consumer report characteristics: if the model does not perform well at baseline, there is ample margin for predictive fit to improve. This does not imply that medical collections would increase predictive fit by 34 percent, or at all, in models used for credit scoring or credit eligibility determinations.</P>
                    <P>
                        Broadly, the CFPB agrees that Brevoort and Kambara (2014) would be more relevant to the rule if it were updated with more recent data or included some additional analyses as suggested by commenters. Since the impact of the rule derives from the prohibition on reporting of medical collections, the CFPB conducted new research, described in the Technical Appendix to the NPRM and included below in part XII, that isolated the effect of reporting from other effects that the presence of medical collections may have on consumers' financial outcomes. Based on this research, the CFPB expects that medical collections can be 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3323"/>
                        removed from underwriting models without significantly reducing their ability to predict serious delinquency if underwriting models continue to include other variables that are sufficiently predictive of delinquency risk. The Technical Appendix shows that medical collections reporting likely reduces access to credit and creditor revenue.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Coverage of the Rule</HD>
                    <P>Part VIII.B.4 provides a discussion of the estimated number and types of entities potentially affected by the rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Potential Benefits and Costs to Consumers and Covered Persons</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB assessed the potential benefits and costs of the rule using the data and evidence described above, as well as comments submitted in response to the proposal. Based on the information available, the CFPB concludes that the rule is likely to confer a number of benefits, and limited costs, on consumers and covered persons. In brief, the CFPB expects that consumers will experience increased access to credit and a reduction in the use of consumer reporting to induce payment of medical collections, including those that may be inaccurate. The CFPB expects that the marginal loans provided under the rule would be similarly profitable to those that creditors provide at baseline, leading to increased revenue for creditors. The CFPB does not expect that consumers would be significantly less likely to pay their bills under the rule, and as a result, expects limited impacts on the revenues of health care providers and debt collectors. All potential benefits and costs are described in more detail below.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Consumer Willingness To Pay Medical Bills</HD>
                    <P>
                        Consumers facing debt collection attempts may pay or settle debts to remove the tradelines from their consumer reports, as medical collections are removed from the NCRAs' consumer reports when paid.
                        <SU>254</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Previous research from the CFPB found evidence indicating that some consumers may act to remove medical collections from their consumer reports when they plan to apply for a mortgage.
                        <SU>255</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This suggests that furnishing can be an effective tool for inducing payment of debts. To the extent this is true, the rule could reduce consumers' willingness to pay those medical debts that would or might be sent to collections and ultimately be furnished at baseline.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>254</SU>
                             Bus. Wire, 
                            <E T="03">Equifax, Experian, and TransUnion Support U.S. Consumers with Changes to Medical Collection Debt Reporting</E>
                             (Mar. 18, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>255</SU>
                             Alyssa Brown &amp; Eric Wilson, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Consumer Credit and the Removal of Medical Collections from Credit Reports</E>
                             (Apr. 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_consumer-credit-removal-medical-collections-from-credit-reports_2023-04.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Several health care providers, debt collectors, consumers, health care trade associations, the SBA Office of Advocacy, and at least one researcher and one credit union, stated that, with fewer repercussions for medical debt, consumers would not pay their medical debts under the proposed rule. Several debt collectors, at least one healthcare provider and one debt collection trade association stated that, because consumer willingness to pay medical bills would be lower under the proposed rule, there would be decreased recoveries and revenue for debt collectors and health care providers as a result. Multiple debt collector commenters provided specific estimates for expected reductions in recovery rates and revenues. At least one debt collector commenter and at least one health care provider stated that they expect a revenue decline close to 9 percent because of decreased recovery. A debt collector commenter in the SBREFA process stated that there would be a significant decrease in the number of individuals with overdue medical debt who take proactive steps to resolve their accounts as a result of the proposed rule. In contrast, a consumer advocate commenter stated that consumers would be more likely to pay, even partially, if the proposed rule reduced coercive collection tactics. Another consumer advocate commenter stated that consumers would still pay their medical debts and there would be limited revenue impacts to health care providers, because health care providers and debt collectors have other strategies for inducing payment besides furnishing medical debt information to consumer reporting agencies.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB acknowledges that if consumers are no longer concerned that medical collections will appear on their consumer report when they are seeking credit, they may have less incentive to pay their medical collections. However, the CFPB expects that only a few consumers would pay their medical collections in response to consumer reporting or the threat of consumer reporting under the baseline, but would not pay their medical collections in response to alternative collection mechanisms under the rule. This is because at the baseline most consumers with medical debt face little consequence from furnishing of a medical collections tradeline, for several reasons. For one, consumers would need to have medical collections over $500, as medical collections tradelines below $500 are suppressed at baseline. Also, consumers who have medical collections generally have fairly low credit scores, which already constrain their access to credit.
                        <SU>256</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As such, further reducing scores through the furnishing of medical collections may not have a meaningful impact on access to credit. The CFPB cannot precisely estimate the number of consumers who would be disincentivized to pay medical collections due to the rule, but at baseline fewer than 5 percent of consumers have medical collections, and as a result the share of consumers who would be disincentivized to pay is quite small, since it must necessarily be less than 5 percent.
                        <SU>257</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>256</SU>
                             The average credit score for consumers with medical collections in June 2023 was 582. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Ryan Sandler &amp; Zachary Blizard, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Recent Changes in Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Records Data Point</E>
                             (Mar. 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_recent-changes-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports_2024-03.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>257</SU>
                             Ryan Sandler &amp; Zachary Blizard, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Recent Changes in Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Records Data Point,</E>
                             at 3-4 (Mar. 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_recent-changes-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports_2024-03.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Multiple debt collectors, at least one health care provider, a credit union trade association, and an individual consumer commented that the proposed rule would encourage consumers to ignore eligibility for enrollment in support programs that help patients pay medical bills, including patient financing programs and other forms of financial assistance, because there would no longer be consequences for unpaid medical bills. The CFPB does not expect that consumers will respond to the rule by ignoring financial assistance. Consumers will remain liable for their medical debts, and it is implausible that removing the prospect of future consumer reporting will lead to many consumers forgoing support that would help them pay these debts.</P>
                    <P>
                        The rule is unlikely to substantially impact aggregate revenue for health care providers, as most health care revenue does not consist of consumers paying their bills after receiving treatment. The vast majority of health care providers' revenues comes from insurance (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         Medicare, Medicaid, private insurance) and other third-party payers. Indeed, out-of-pocket spending by consumers at baseline only accounts for about 12 percent of personal health care 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3324"/>
                        expenditures.
                        <SU>258</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This means that there is less margin for consumers that do not pay their bills to have a significant impact on personal health care expenditures.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>258</SU>
                             The CFPB calculated this estimate by dividing the aggregate amount of out-of-pocket spending in 2020 by the aggregate amount of personal health care expenditures in 2020. Personal health care expenditures represent health expenses directly related to patient care, such as hospital care, physicians' and dentists' services, prescription drugs, eyeglasses, and nursing home care, and accounts for the largest shares of total national health expenditures. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Ctrs. for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Servs., 
                            <E T="03">Health Expenditures by state of provider: summary tables (ZIP), https://www.cms.gov/data-research/statistics-trends-and-reports/national-health-expenditure-data/nhe-fact-sheet</E>
                             (last modified Sept. 10, 2024); Ctrs. for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Servs., 
                            <E T="03">National Health Expenditures 2022 Highlights</E>
                             (Dec. 13, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cms.gov/newsroom/fact-sheets/national-health-expenditures-2022-highlights;</E>
                             Nat'l Ctr. for Health Stat., U.S. Ctrs. for Disease Control &amp; Prevention, 
                            <E T="03">Health Care Expenditures, https://www.cdc.gov/nchs/hus/topics/health-care-expenditures.htm</E>
                             (last reviewed Aug. 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Indeed, as at least one debt collector commenter stated, recovery rates for medical collections are already low on accounts with outstanding balances. In the proposal, the CFPB estimated that approximately 2.5 percent of medical collection accounts are recovered by debt collectors who furnish medical collections information to the NCRAs, based on the share of medical collections tradelines marked as paid on consumer reports before these tradelines were removed by the NCRAs in 2022.
                        <SU>259</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB requested comment or data submissions that could better approximate the share of medical debts placed with debt collectors that are ultimately recovered. Two commenters stated that historical recovery rates on bad medical debts were between 18.2 and 24.8 percent but did not cite a source for this statistic.
                        <SU>260</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Multiple health care provider commenters stated that they expected bad debt liquidation to fall by 10.9 percent under the proposed rule. The commenters stated that this estimation was based on updated research from 2024 but did not provide a citation or supporting evidence.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>259</SU>
                             Approximately 2.5 percent of medical collections were marked as paid in the five years before paid medical collections were removed from consumer reports in June 2022. Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Paid and Low-Balance Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Reports</E>
                             (July 27, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/research-reports/paid-and-low-balance-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>260</SU>
                             This range appears to come from a model form letter provided to debt collectors and healthcare providers by a consumer reporting industry trade group, but that form letter also does not cite a source for the statistic. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Meduit, 
                            <E T="03">CFPB Proposed Regulation Comment Samples</E>
                             (Aug. 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cdiaonline.org/wp-content/uploads/2024/08/Meduit.pdf.</E>
                             However, this is consistent with other industry sources on bad debt recovery rates for medical debt. 
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             MD Clarity, 
                            <E T="03">RCM Metrics Bad Debt Recovery Rate, https://www.mdclarity.com/rcm-metrics/bad-debt-recovery-rate</E>
                             (last visited May 22, 2024). According to a Healthcare Financial Management Association (HFMA) report, the industry expectation is health care providers will recover only 30 percent of amounts billed after discharge. Healthcare Fin. Mgmt. Ass'n, 
                            <E T="03">Address Patient Financial Risk in Pre-Service to Boost Revenue and Earn Loyalty</E>
                             (July 12, 2018), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.hfma.org/revenue-cycle/financial-counseling/61208/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB notes that the relevant quantity for this analysis is not the recovery rate on medical debts overall, which includes debts that are paid after patient outreach by the medical provider and other collection methods that will still be available under the rule. Instead, the relevant quantity is the recovery rate for medical debts that are placed with a debt collector and furnished to a consumer reporting agency. While the CFPB does not have a precise estimate of this quantity, clearly this will be less than the recovery rate for bad debts overall, as some debts are furnished only after other collection methods have failed. However, the CFPB acknowledges that the 2.5 percent figure from the cited 2022 research report seems low. From its market monitoring activities, the CFPB is aware that debt collectors have often engaged in a “pay for delete” practice, under which they offer to consumers to remove a debt collections tradeline in exchange for making payment. To the extent this occurred prior to the implementation of the voluntary NCRA removal of paid medical collections from consumer reports in 2022, there was a possibility that medical collections tradelines that were in fact paid would never be marked paid on consumers' credit reports, leading to an undercount of medical collections tradelines that were ever paid. Using evidence provided in comments, the CFPB believes that 25 percent is a conservative estimate of the baseline recovery rate for medical debts overall, while the baseline recovery rate for medical debts that are furnished to a consumer reporting agency is less than 25 percent.</P>
                    <P>
                        Because recovery rates are low at baseline, even if all consumers with medical debt would not pay their medical debt in collections under the rule, health care providers' overall costs would not be greatly increased. The CFPB's analysis of hospital-level cost reports from the Healthcare Provider Cost Reporting Information System (HCRIS) provided by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) indicates that 72 percent of hospitals had non-Medicare bad debt expenses in 2021.
                        <SU>261</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB's analysis showed that these bad debt expenses on average represent about 6 percent of total costs in 2021 for hospitals that had non-Medicare bad debt. Assuming that health care providers achieve a 25 percent recovery rate and bad debt expenses account for 6 percent of total costs at baseline, the CFPB estimates that bad debt expenses would rise to at most 8 percent of total costs on average. However, this is almost certainly an overestimate for the increase in bad debt costs to health care providers. Bad debt recovery rates almost certainly will not decrease to zero, since health care providers will continue to use other collection practices, such as patient outreach, phone calls and other communications by debt collectors, and debt collection litigation.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>261</SU>
                             2021 is the latest year for which the cost report data are available. Hospitals classify medical bills as bad debt expenses when they determine that consumers are unlikely to repay. Non-Medicare bad debt consists of past-due medical bills from patients who are not Medicare beneficiaries. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Am. Hosp. Ass'n, 
                            <E T="03">Uncompensated Hospital Care Cost Fact Sheet</E>
                             (Feb. 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.aha.org/fact-sheets/2020-01-06-fact-sheet-uncompensated-hospital-care-cost</E>
                             and Ctrs. for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Servs., 
                            <E T="03">Hospital Provider Cost Report Data Dictionary</E>
                             (Dec. 13, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://data.cms.gov/resources/hospital-provider-cost-report-data-dictionary.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>A debt collector trade association submitted the results from a poll of 165 health care providers who attended a webinar. The results showed that 8 percent of the polled health care providers estimated a less than 6 percent reduction in their revenue as a result of the proposed rule, 23 percent estimated a 6 to 10 percent reduction, 36 percent of respondents expected a 10 to 15 percent decrease in revenue, 17 percent of respondents expected a 15 to 20 percent decrease, and 16 percent of the respondents expected a loss in revenue greater than 20 percent.</P>
                    <P>One health care provider stated that, if patients do not pay, it would experience an annual impact of $10 million on its business and predicted that it would close within 6 months as its margins are extremely tight. At least one health care provider stated that reimbursement is already low because reimbursements from Medicare and commercial payers that follow the Medicare fee schedule have dropped 44 percent over the past 10 years. One debt collector trade association commenter stated that the CFPB has not studied what the impact of the rule will be on Medicare co-pays and deductibles if consumers stop paying their medical bills.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB notes that the above comments regarding health care provider revenue and bill payment rates 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3325"/>
                        implicitly assume that consumers will stop paying medical bills or will no longer be required to pay these bills. As discussed above, this is not a reasonable assumption. Consistent with existing practice, many consumers will be charged at point of sale or have to pay an outstanding bill to continue to be a patient at a non-emergency health care provider. Consumers will continue to be legally responsible for their medical bills, and all other methods of collection that are available at baseline will remain available under the rule. Indeed, most consumers with medical debt do not have medical collections tradelines on their consumer reports as discussed above, and, even though medical debts do not appear on their consumer reports, those consumers are still responsible for their debts and often pay those debts if they have the financial means to do so. And the CFPB has no evidence to conclude that patients are regularly engaging in strategic non-payment of medical bills—as opposed to non-payment due to financial distress or error. The CFPB calculated potential reductions in recoverable medical debt in this final rule based on the total amount of medical collections on consumer reports not because this is a likely or plausible outcome, but rather because this calculation places an upper bound on the potential costs to health care providers stemming from the rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB acknowledges that there has been no study of the impact of the rule on Medicare co-pays and deductibles specifically. However, if anything, the CFPB expects that consumers with Medicare coverage will be less impacted by the rule because they are less likely to have medical debt than other populations.
                        <SU>262</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>262</SU>
                             Roughly half as many adults aged 65 and older had medical or dental debt relative to adults aged 50 to 64, which may be due to the nearly universal Medicare coverage among adults aged 65 and older. Alex Cottrill et al., Kaiser Fam. Found., 
                            <E T="03">What are the consequences of health care debt among older adults?</E>
                             (July 26, 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.kff.org/medicare/issue-brief/what-are-the-consequences-of-health-care-debt-among-older-adults/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Multiple health care provider and debt collector commenters stated that hospitals have low operating margins, such that a small reduction in payments could force hospitals to only provide profitable services, or to close their doors. The CFPB understands that some hospitals and other health care providers may have low operating margins (nearly half of hospitals are nonprofits) 
                        <SU>263</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and recognizes that significant revenue reductions can theoretically result in the closure of some health care providers. As indicated above, the CFPB does not share commenters' views on the magnitude of these revenue reductions, or that these revenue reductions would not be offset by other business adjustments.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>263</SU>
                             W. Pete Welch et al., U.S. Dep't of Health &amp; Hum. Servs., 
                            <E T="03">Ownership of Hospitals: An Analysis of Newly-Released Federal Data &amp; A Method for Assessing Common Owners</E>
                             (Aug. 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://aspe.hhs.gov/sites/default/files/documents/582de65f285646af741e14f82b6df1f6/hospital-ownership-data-brief.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Multiple debt collector, health care provider, and consumer commenters cited the Report's prediction of an estimated first year loss of $24 billion for health care providers that over time may range from $82 billion to $655 billion in losses. A consumer advocate commenter stated that this $24 billion estimate was inflated. At least one health care provider commenter cited the Report's finding that medical debt collection rates would fall by more than 8 percent under the proposed rule. The CFPB found serious flaws in the Report's research methodology, detailed in part VII.C, 
                        <E T="03">Data and Evidence,</E>
                         and expects the costs of the rule would be substantially lower. Using the evidence provided in the Report, the CFPB estimated a $900 million reduction in recoverable medical debt over 10 years under the rule, which would only partially be borne by health care providers because the loss would be shared with debt collectors and debt buyers.
                    </P>
                    <P>Although recent changes in the reporting of medical collections due to actions by the NCRAs and State laws are part of the baseline, these changes provide a benchmark to gauge the plausible effects of the rule. Some commenters provided information suggesting that the actions by the NCRAs to remove medical collections tradelines that are paid, less than one year past due, or less than $500 resulted in substantial reductions in debt collector recoveries.</P>
                    <P>Commenters, including at least one health care provider and one debt collector, stated that most medical debts are ineligible to be furnished to the three NCRAs because their average balance is under $500. One debt collector commenter reported that the average balance of medical accounts referred to them for collection services by health care providers between 2021 and 2023 was $414. To the extent that debt collectors are referred debts under $500 and rely on debt collection practices other than consumer reporting for those medical debts at baseline, the CFPB understands that the impact of the rule will be lower. Debt collectors that have updated their strategies for collecting medical debts under $500 may have lower costs by applying those strategies to medical debts over $500 under the rule.</P>
                    <P>Multiple debt collector and health care provider commenters provided quantitative estimates for recent changes in recoverable medical debt experienced, which may have been impacted by the voluntary NCRA reporting changes.</P>
                    <P>One debt collector commenter stated that their recovery rate had dropped from 17.1 percent in 2022 to 12.7 percent by 2024.</P>
                    <P>A health care provider commenter stated that their recoverable amounts had fallen by 7 percent since medical collections under $500 were removed from consumer reports, while a debt collector commenter stated they had experienced a 25 percent decline in recoverable amounts in the same time frame.</P>
                    <P>One debt collector commenter stated that their business experienced a 7.37 percent decline in revenue in 2023 compared to 2022. The commenter experienced an additional 12 percent decline in revenue in the first two quarters of 2024. The commenter attributed this decline to the NCRA reporting changes.</P>
                    <P>The SBA Office of Advocacy commented that one small debt collector entity reported a $369,637 decline in dollars collected since the changes by the NCRAs in 2022 and 2023.</P>
                    <P>One debt collector commenter stated that, when the consumer reporting agencies banned the reporting of medical debts under $500, they observed a 13 to 22 percent decrease in the recovery of past due medical debts below $500.</P>
                    <P>At least one debt collector commented that decreases in recovery rates in States, such as New York and Colorado, which banned all consumer reporting of medical debt around the same time as the changes by the NCRAs, were comparable to changes in States which only experienced the NCRA changes. This suggests that the rule will not reduce recovery rates above and beyond the reductions that have already occurred under the baseline.</P>
                    <P>These comments did not state that reductions in recoverable amounts were specific to medical debts that were directly impacted by the NCRA reporting changes, and the trends described by commenters may reflect more general changes in medical debt collection that are unrelated to consumer reporting.</P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed above, the rule may impose reductions in revenue for 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3326"/>
                        medical debt holders if the removal of medical collections from some consumer reports leads to lower recoverable medical debt amounts. This cost may be passed through to health care providers that sell medical debt to debt buyers, instead of placing the debts with a third-party debt collector to collect on the provider's behalf. These debt buyers often also engage in debt collection and furnish medical collections information to consumer reporting agencies. Debt buyers purchase these bundles of medical debt from health care providers at a price that is a fraction of the nominal value of the medical bills.
                        <SU>264</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Because the rule may reduce the effectiveness of furnishing medical collections as a collection practice, the CFPB expects debt buyers' demand for medical debt bundles sold by health care providers to potentially decrease. If so, the resulting decrease in the price of medical debt bundles would reduce the revenues of health care providers who sell past-due bills. However, the revenues of health care providers that at baseline do not allow debt buyers to furnish medical collections information on debts they sell would not be affected in this way.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>264</SU>
                             Fed. Trade Comm'n, 
                            <E T="03">The Structure and Practices of the Debt Buying Industry,</E>
                             at 22-23 (Jan. 2013), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/reports/structure-practices-debt-buying-industry.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB requested data from health care providers to help quantify their potential reduction in revenues from the sale of medical debt bundles to debt buyers. One debt collector commenter stated that the rule would reduce the incentive for patients to resolve their debt, which would, in turn, negatively affect health care providers that rely on the ability to collect or sell their patient receivables, but no comments provided quantitative information on this point. The CFPB does not have data with which to quantify the magnitude of this expected decrease in the price of medical debt bundles on the secondary market, nor does it have information on the current prevalence of health care providers allowing debt buyers to furnish medical collections information to consumer reporting agencies.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Changes in Insurance</HD>
                    <P>To the extent that health care provider revenue is impacted by the rule, contracts between health care providers and health insurers, as well as between consumers and health insurers, may be renegotiated to mitigate potential reductions in revenue and reflect changes in the incentives faced by these entities. In theory, consumers may be less likely to demand health insurance if they perceive medical debt to be less costly. In practice, the CFPB does not expect that the rule will significantly impact the demand for or health insurance because pharmaceutical drugs generally require point-of-sale payment, the majority of other direct-to-consumer health care costs are charged point-of-sale before obtaining service, and the other consequences of non-payment remain.</P>
                    <P>Several debt collectors and individuals commented that health care providers may minimize the risk of patient nonpayment under the proposal by renegotiating contracts with insurers so that they receive a higher portion, or the entirety, of the cost of patient care directly from the insurer. Commenters including debt collectors, an individual, an attorney group representing health care providers, and a debt collector trade association, stated that increased costs for insurers under the proposal would be passed on to consumers through higher premiums, copays, and deductibles. Conversely, at least one health care provider stated that the proposal would induce insurers to pay a smaller portion of the cost of patient care to health care providers, because the cost to consumers of higher patient responsibilities would be lower.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB understands that hospitals contract with many payors and contract provisions vary significantly across and within hospitals, with most contracts containing multiple contracting methodologies.
                        <SU>265</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For example, according to the American Medical Association, physicians face a large set of options when negotiating the terms and conditions of payments, and use several reimbursement methodologies and structures.
                        <SU>266</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Negotiation is costly for both health care providers and insurers, given the number and complexity of contracts. Additionally, as discussed above, the CFPB has determined that reductions in medical debt recovery rates and recoverable amounts would be limited under the rule. Accordingly, the CFPB expects that most health care providers and insurers will not choose to renegotiate their contracts under the rule, because the fundamental negotiating incentives (for providers to receive higher reimbursement and insurers to pay lower reimbursement), and relative negotiating power, would not change. Therefore, the extent to which costs will be passed through to consumers through higher premiums, copays, or deductibles will be limited.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>265</SU>
                             Morgan A. Henderson &amp; Morgane C. Mouslim, 
                            <E T="03">Facts About Hospital-Insurer Contracting,</E>
                             30:2 AM. J. Managed Care (Feb. 12, 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ajmc.com/view/facts-about-hospital-insurer-contracting.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>266</SU>
                             Am. Med. Ass'n, 
                            <E T="03">Payor Contracting 101</E>
                             (2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ama-assn.org/system/files/payor-contracting-toolkit.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Commenters including a debt collector and a health care provider stated that the proposal would prevent health care providers from receiving insurance information from consumers, including coordination of benefits and accident claim forms, because the cost of communicating this information would outweigh the benefit of having insurers pay for medical bills.</P>
                    <P>Under the rule, consumers will remain liable for medical debt, and the cost of coordinating benefits, for most consumers, would be lower than the cost of the potential debt. The CFPB expects health care providers to continue to receive insurance information from consumers.</P>
                    <P>Commenters including debt collectors, health care providers, individuals, and a debt collector trade association stated that, under the proposed rule, consumers may be more likely to be uninsured or under-insured because there would be no incentive for patients to purchase insurance if they expect not to have to pay their medical bills. One debt collector trade association cited a webinar poll of 165 health care providers reporting that 74.9 percent of respondents thought that “[t]here is a moderate or high chance th[e] proposed rule would impact a patient's view of the need for insurance.” Some health care providers who submitted comments to the SBREFA Outline stated that the removal of medical debt from consumer reports would “eliminate” a consumer's incentive to pay for a health insurance plan, especially for consumers that are young and in good health. The providers stated that, as a result, the cost of health insurance will increase for those that do want or need to be insured. Several commenters including debt collectors, health care providers, an individual, and a debt collector trade association stated that the proposal would lead to adverse selection in health care insurance markets, and that health care insurance markets would enter a “death spiral.” In contrast, at least one consumer advocate commenter highlighted that it is irrational for consumers to choose to get sued over a larger debt received without health insurance and that other debt collection methods would prevent reductions in the insurance rate.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB understands that the predominant factor in whether a consumer is likely to have health insurance is whether they have access to affordable health care coverage, as 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3327"/>
                        opposed to other factors. Uninsured consumers cite “coverage not affordable” and “not eligible for coverage” as the most common reasons for lacking health insurance.
                        <SU>267</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Furthermore, even absent consideration of the other debt enforcement mechanisms, consumers benefit from health insurance coverage when paying for pharmaceutical drugs or non-emergency health care services, where point-of-sale payment requirements are common. The rule will have no impact on the real or perceived value of health insurance for those health care costs. The CFPB expects that the rule would be unlikely to affect either access to health insurance or its affordability and has therefore determined that changes to the insured population will be minimal under the rule. Additionally, because there would be minimal changes to the insured population, the CFPB does not expect adverse selection or changes in premiums as a result of the rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>267</SU>
                             Jennifer Tolbert et al., Kaiser Fam. Found., 
                            <E T="03">Key Facts about the Uninsured Population</E>
                             (Dec. 18, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.kff.org/uninsured/issue-brief/key-facts-about-the-uninsured-population/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Operational Changes</HD>
                    <P>In theory, to the extent that health care providers face reductions in revenue due to the rule, they may implement operational changes to mitigate such potential reductions in revenue. Potential changes include altering how and when consumers pay for health care, refusing nonemergency care for consumers with outstanding balances, reducing the amount or type of services, or ceasing to provide services altogether. However, the CFPB does not expect the rule will generally impact health care provider revenue to an extent that would justify these operational changes, given the costs associated with implementing such changes.</P>
                    <P>Multiple commenters including individuals, debt collectors, health care providers, researchers, health care trade associations, and debt collector trade associations stated that health care providers may be more likely to require upfront payments or other alternative payment schemes like membership-based or concierge-based services. One debt collector trade association commenter provided results from a webinar poll of 165 health care providers, indicating that 72 percent of respondents would require full or partial upfront payments for non-emergencies if consumer reporting of medical debts was eliminated. Several commenters, including health care providers, debt collectors, and individuals, stated that even insured consumers would need to pay for health care upfront and out of pocket. The commenters stated that the onus of working with insurers to receive health care payments would be shifted from health care providers to consumers.</P>
                    <P>
                        Available evidence shows that most health care providers currently have policies and procedures for pre-service or point-of-service payment of most medical bills.
                        <SU>268</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Consequently, there would not be much margin for health care providers to begin requiring upfront payments under the final rule. Multiple health care providers, debt collectors, consumer advocates, individuals, and health care trade association commenters rejected this argument and stated that the presence of these policies does not mean that patients always pay before receiving health care. While it may be true that health care providers do not always require payment before providing health care, it is also true that many health care providers do require upfront payment or require recurring patients to eventually pay upfront before continuing to see the health care provider. And upfront payment for drugs is the universal market norm. In addition, the CFPB understands that health care providers lose revenue when they do not receive payment for services, but they also forego revenue if they do not provide health care to consumers who cannot pay upfront but who would have paid their medical bills after the service was provided, or whose insurance would have paid for the majority of the overall bill. It is unlikely that a small decrease in the recovery rates of furnished medical collections under the rule would cause health care providers to substantially change their operational and billing procedures in light of already existing incentives that determine payment policies.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>268</SU>
                             According to an HFMA survey, 96 percent of health care industry respondents reported having pre-payment or point-of-service collection policies and procedures. Healthcare Fin. Mgmt. Ass'n, 
                            <E T="03">Analyzing pre-payment and point-of-service collections efforts</E>
                             (Aug. 15, 2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.hfma.org/technology/analyzing-pre-payment-and-point-of-service-collections-efforts/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Health care providers, researchers, debt collectors, and debt collector trade associations commented that some consumers may increase their use of third-party credit products to meet increased upfront payment requirements. Some commenters described these third-party credit products as high-interest or predatory. Commenters including debt collectors, a health care provider, a credit union trade association, and an individual consumer stated that, as a result of the proposed rule, there would be reduced options for debt repayment because consumers that use third-party credit products to pay for medical care would not be offered low- or no-interest payment plans by their health care providers.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB understands that many consumers, at baseline, use third-party credit products to pay their medical bills.
                        <SU>269</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB expects that most consumers that rely on third-party credit products to pay for health care would do so regardless of whether payments were required upfront. Affected consumers may incur third-party credit debt instead of medical debt, which may be more costly if they are charged interest on the third-party credit debt and would have been charged less (or no) interest if the debt was owed to a health care provider or debt collector.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>269</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Medical Credit Cards and Financing Plans</E>
                             (May 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_medical-credit-cards-and-financing-plans_2023-05.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB expects that the rule would have a small or negligible impact on consumers' ability to access emergency medical care, as all hospital emergency rooms that receive Medicare funds are required to provide emergency medical care, irrespective of an individual's ability to pay.
                        <SU>270</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As an attorney group representing health care providers commented, emergency medical treatment for insured patients typically leads to copayments of less than $500, and uninsured patients typically qualify for charity care and have bills below $500 as well. Because medical collections under $500 are not included on consumer reports at baseline, the rule is unlikely to directly impact emergency health care. Additionally, because emergency services represent a significant share of health care spending, a significant portion of health care revenue would not be impacted by the rule.
                        <SU>271</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>270</SU>
                             Ctrs. for Medicare &amp; Medicaid Servs., 
                            <E T="03">Emergency Room Rights, https://www.cms.gov/priorities/your-patient-rights/emergency-room-rights</E>
                             (noting Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act, 42 U.S.C. 1395dd, protections) (last visited May 9, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>271</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Scott KW et al., 
                            <E T="03">Healthcare spending in U.S. emergency departments by health condition, 2006-2016,</E>
                             PLoS One (Oct. 2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC8550368/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB received feedback from several health care providers during the SBREFA process stating that the proposed rule would lead them to deny non-emergency care to patients who cannot pay upfront or have not paid their previous balances in full. At least 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3328"/>
                        one health care provider commented that the proposed rule may cause health care providers to delay providing health care until they can verify that patients can afford to pay. Health care providers commented that, as a result of the proposed rule, consumers that are denied health care because they cannot meet payment requirements will use hospital emergency room services for non-emergency health care, which will lead to longer wait times and overburdened emergency rooms.
                    </P>
                    <P>There could be a marginal increase in the number of health care providers who will not provide health care until the patient pays or who will stop providing services to the patient after a period of nonpayment, though, as discussed above, the forgone revenue from denying health care to patients whose insurance will pay the majority of the bill or who would have paid at a later date is likely the reason some health care providers have not already shifted to this model. Those incentives would remain. In the case where a health care provider stops providing health care until a patient pays, some patients may use hospital emergency rooms and others may choose to forego care. The CFPB does not expect that a significant number of patients will seek these services at emergency rooms.</P>
                    <P>Debt collectors, health care providers, financial institutions, and research institutes commented that patients may delay seeking health care if they are unable to meet updated provider standards for pre-care payments. A debt collector further commented that if fewer people seek preventive care, more people will end up with long-term medical conditions. In contrast, a consumer advocacy organization and a State attorney general commented that the rule will allow patients to seek care without fearing harm to their consumer reports.</P>
                    <P>On balance, the CFPB expects most patients will seek the health care they need regardless of their financial situation.</P>
                    <P>Individuals, debt collectors, debt collection trade associations, health care providers, researchers, and health care trade associations stated that the proposed rule may cause health care providers to cut health care services, which would reduce health care access. At least one debt collector commented that even a 2 to 3 percent reduction in payments could cause health care providers to stop providing unprofitable services. At least one debt collector stated that the quality of health care may decline under the rule. Several commenters including individuals, health care providers, and debt collectors stated that health care providers may reduce their workforce to cut costs.</P>
                    <P>It does not seem plausible in practice that health care providers will reduce the extent or quality of services they provide in response to the rule. Reductions in the type of health care provided, health care quality, or staffing levels would also reduce health care provider revenue, since fewer patients could be served, or patient demand for medical services may be reduced as a result of lower patient satisfaction. The CFPB expects that any reductions in health care provider revenue occurring under the rule would not justify limiting the types of provided health care services or providing lower quality of service.</P>
                    <P>Several commenters including researchers, individuals, health care providers, debt collectors, health care trade associations, debt collection trade associations, and financial institutions stated that health care providers may raise prices under the proposed rule. At least one debt collector trade association commented that 15 percent of health care respondents to a webinar poll stated that they would start or increase the use of legal strategies for collecting payments, with the increased costs being passed through to consumers through higher prices for health care services.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB does not expect that reductions in health care provider revenue or changes in collection strategies by health care providers under the rule would be significant enough to justify raising prices. As described in part VII.E.1, the CFPB expects that the reduction in health care provider revenue under the rule would be equal to no more than 2 percent of their total costs. Raising prices would require renegotiating contracts with insurers, as described in part VII.E.2, and the CFPB does not expect that limited reductions in revenue would justify the cost of these renegotiations. However, if some health care providers raise prices under the rule, higher prices would only partially be passed through to insured consumers, with the other portion passed on to health insurers. Higher prices would only partially be passed through to uninsured consumers as well, to the extent that these consumers receive financial assistance. For a more in depth discussion of changes in collection strategies, see part VII.E.4.</P>
                    <P>Multiple debt collectors, health care providers, debt collection trade associations, and financial institutions commented that health care providers may close as a result of the rule. One health care provider stated that if consumers stopped paying their bills as a result of the rule, it would reduce their revenues by $10 million and they would close within six months. Several commenters stated that increased health care provider closures, especially in rural areas, will require patients to drive further to access health care. At least one debt collector stated that small health care providers, if they do not close, may be acquired by larger companies leading to reduced market competition.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB agrees that, if patients stopped paying their medical bills, and health care providers could not compensate for reductions in revenue through renegotiating contracts with insurers, many health care providers may cease operating. However, as discussed above, the CFPB does not expect that patients will stop paying their medical bills under the rule.</P>
                    <P>A debt collector stated that the NCRA reporting changes have caused health care providers to reduce staffing, reduce the types of services they provide, require upfront payment for services, consider using litigation to recoup debts from consumers, or close their doors completely. The commenter also stated that insurance companies have raised premiums while lowering the benefits covered. The commenter cited media articles about hospital closures in California as evidence of these changes.</P>
                    <P>
                        The evidence cited by the commenter does not support the commenter's stated view that the NCRA reporting changes led to operational changes. The articles cited by the commenter do not mention the NCRA reporting changes or the importance of consumer reporting for debt collection. Instead, the articles describe low reimbursement rates for Medi-Cal patients, and high shares of some hospitals' population base that receive care through Medi-Cal, among other concerns with rising costs of health care.
                        <SU>272</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB expects that these factors, and not the NCRA reporting changes, were more likely the drivers of the impacts the commenter describes. As such, the CFPB finds that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3329"/>
                        it is not likely that the final rule will lead to operational changes by health care providers, as the comments suggest. Regardless, California has already passed a bill prohibiting medical debt consumer reporting, so any impact on these health care providers will already be experienced absent this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>272</SU>
                             Madeline Ashley, 
                            <E T="03">Los Angeles hospital on `brink of closure',</E>
                             Becker's Healthcare Rev. (June 10, 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.beckershospitalreview.com/finance/los-angeles-hospital-on-brink-of-closure.html.</E>
                             Ana B. Ibarra, 
                            <E T="03">Hospital Closures, cuts in services loom for some communities. How the state may step in to help,</E>
                             Cal Matters (Apr. 6, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://calmatters.org/health/2023/04/hospital-closures-california/.</E>
                             Ron Southwick, 
                            <E T="03">One in five California hospitals at risk of closing: Report,</E>
                             Chief Healthcare Executive (Apr. 13, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.chiefhealthcareexecutive.com/view/one-in-five-california-hospitals-face-risk-of-closing-report.</E>
                             Scott Wilson, 
                            <E T="03">A hospital's abrupt closure means, for many, help is distant,</E>
                             The Wash. Post (Nov. 16, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.washingtonpost.com/nation/2023/11/16/california-health-care-hospital-closing/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Several debt collectors commented that debt collectors may change their staffing and payroll in response to the rule. One debt collector stated that in the last 12 months it had to double its number of staff to handle the increase in litigation. The SBA Office of Advocacy described a small entity that reported a 16 percent increase in payroll costs for the first quarter of the year after the NCRA reporting changes in 2023. In contrast, multiple commenters including debt collectors, individuals, and financial institutions stated that debt collection employees will be paid less or there will be staff reductions.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB acknowledges that debt collectors may need to increase or decrease staffing under the rule but does not have information sufficient to quantify this impact.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Use of Other Collection Mechanisms</HD>
                    <P>
                        The potential for reductions in revenue due to the rule, as discussed above, may affect how health care providers or debt collectors use other collection mechanisms to collect unpaid medical debt, such as contacting consumers via mail and phone calls, as well as debt collection litigation.
                        <SU>273</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         While these collection mechanisms are available at baseline, health care providers and debt collectors may increase their reliance on these mechanisms to induce payments for certain consumers after the rule is implemented.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>273</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Fair Debt Collection Practices Act Annual Report 2012</E>
                             (Mar. 13, 2012), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/research-reports/fair-debt-collection-practices-act/;</E>
                             Emily Alpert Reyes, 
                            <E T="03">Hospitals that pursue patients for unpaid bills will have to tell L.A. County,</E>
                             L.A. Times (Aug. 6, 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.latimes.com/california/story/2024-08-06/hospitals-report-medical-debt;</E>
                             Judith Garber, Lown Inst., 
                            <E T="03">Which hospitals are suing patients? Investigation reveals hospital billing practices</E>
                             (Feb. 17, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://lowninstitute.org/which-hospitals-are-suing-patients-investigation-reveals-hospital-billing-practices/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Contacting consumers via mail and phone calls is usually part of a comprehensive debt collection strategy. However, these collection mechanisms are time-consuming and labor intensive relative to furnishing, and may be less effective for inducing payment. Litigation is more costly than furnishing medical debt information to consumer reporting agencies for consumers, health care providers, and debt collectors. Debt collectors who were small entity representatives in the SBREFA process reported that the average cost of furnishing is $10 per account, compared to $500 for litigation.
                        <SU>274</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Because medical debt litigation can impose relatively large costs, the CFPB has considered if such litigation would become more common under the rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>274</SU>
                             SBREFA Report at 38.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Typically, when a medical bill is overdue, health care providers and debt collectors first contact consumers by mail or phone calls to seek payment. A debt collector trade association stated that, at baseline, entities that follow industry best practices will attempt several patient communications over a timeframe of 360 days, in line with the NCRAs' practice of waiting for one year past the date of first delinquency to include medical collections on consumer reports, before furnishing an outstanding medical debt to consumer reporting agencies. A financial trade association and a debt collectors trade association stated that consumers, especially those that are unresponsive to mail and phone calls, sometimes first learn of a medical collection from their consumer report, such as when they are applying for credit.</P>
                    <P>
                        In deciding whether to incorporate debt collection litigation into their debt collection strategy, medical debt holders take into consideration the laws that apply in their jurisdiction. Several debt collector commenters noted that litigation is not allowed as a means of inducing payment of medical debt in some jurisdictions. For example, New Mexico prohibits debt collection lawsuits against consumers whose incomes fall below 200 percent of the Federal poverty line.
                        <SU>275</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These laws limit increases in debt collection litigation that may occur due to the rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>275</SU>
                             Jack Pitsor, 
                            <E T="03">Medical Debt: How States are Supporting Consumers,</E>
                             Nat'l Conf. of State Legislatures (Jan. 26, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ncsl.org/state-legislatures-news/details/medical-debt-how-states-are-supporting-consumers.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In addition to restrictions on the use of debt collection lawsuits, recent changes to industry practices and State laws governing the furnishing of medical debt information also limit further increases in litigation that may occur due to the rule. In particular, the CFPB does not expect the rule to impact litigation for medical debts under $500, because any increases in litigation for those debts would have already occurred due to the voluntary NCRA changes that removed medical debts under $500 from consumer reports in April 2023. A debt collector commenter stated that health care providers in California have increased their use of litigation following the $500 restriction. This may also imply that further increases in litigation may be limited for certain types of overdue medical bills, such as those stemming from emergency room visits. For example, an attorney group representing health care providers stated that emergency room visits typically result in medical bills under $500 after insurance or financial assistance is taken into account. Because the rule will not impact medical debts below $500, and because, where available, debt collection litigation is already an option at baseline, the CFPB expects that increases in litigation due to the rule will only occur for consumers with medical debts greater than $500. In addition, the CFPB does not expect the rule to cause increases in debt collection lawsuits in States that have already implemented the removal of medical collections from consumer reports. Similarly with the voluntary NCRA changes, the removal of medical collections from consumer reports will have already increased litigation risks for consumers in these States independently of this rule.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB does not have data or information available to estimate the extent to which the rule may affect the use of litigation over medical debts, relative to the baseline. The CFPB requested comment on this issue, particularly data or quantitative estimates of the expected changes in litigation were the rule to go into effect. Commenters, including debt collectors, health care providers, debt collector trade associations, a bank trade association, a credit union trade association, individuals, a researcher, and the SBA Office of Advocacy, stated generally that consumers may face increased litigation if the rule makes furnishing a less effective means of inducing payment. In particular, according to a debt collector trade association, 38 percent of respondents to a webinar poll of 165 health care providers stated that they would start or increase the use of legal strategies for collection.</P>
                    <P>
                        However, these commenters did not provide quantitative estimates or data that can be used to estimate the expected changes in litigation. Historically, repayment rates for medical debt in collections have been quite low. As discussed in part VII.E.1, the CFPB believes that the recovery rate at baseline is less than 25 percent for medical debts that are furnished to a consumer reporting agency, which are the medical debts for which litigation might be more likely to be used under 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3330"/>
                        the rule. Moreover, litigation is a relatively expensive option for debt holders. As such, pursuing additional lawsuits because of the rule is not likely to result in a significant increase in marginal net recovery rates.
                        <SU>276</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For these reasons, the CFPB expects that any increase in overall litigation frequency would be limited.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>276</SU>
                             As discussed in the 
                            <E T="03">Consumer willingness to pay medical bills</E>
                             part, two commenters stated that historically recovery rates on bad medical debts were between 18.2 and 24.8 percent. CFPB research suggests that only around 2.5 percent of medical collection accounts furnished to the NCRAs are ever reported as paid. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Paid and Low-Balance Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Reports</E>
                             (July 27, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/research-reports/paid-and-low-balance-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB expects that any increase in overall litigation frequency due to the rule would be limited to certain types of consumers who live in States that have not already removed medical collections from consumer reports. The CFPB understands that, while consumer reporting sometimes results in the payment of overdue debt, existing research suggests that debt collection litigation more often leads to a default judgment in favor of the plaintiff, making debt collection litigation a more effective, albeit more costly, means of inducing payment.
                        <SU>277</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These default judgments can lead to asset seizures or wage garnishment.
                        <SU>278</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Because litigation can be costly, debt collection lawsuits would be more likely to be filed against consumers who have the means to pay a civil judgment, whether by having their wages garnished or liens placed on their assets. Moreover, a debt collector commenter stated that adverse judgments from litigation, such as bank levies or wage garnishments, would have a greater detrimental effect on consumers than being denied a loan or paying a higher risk adjusted rate on a loan.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>277</SU>
                             The Pew Charitable Trs., 
                            <E T="03">How Debt Collectors Are Transforming the Business of State Courts</E>
                             (May 6, 2020), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.pewtrusts.org/en/research-and-analysis/reports/2020/05/how-debt-collectors-are-transforming-the-business-of-state-courts.</E>
                             Medical debt collection lawsuits tend to be filed in small claims courts and to involve amounts of less than $10,000.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>278</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The type of consumer that will most likely see an increase in litigation risk under the rule is a consumer who would have paid or settled a medical debt if a collection was added to their consumer report but would not respond to other debt collection mechanisms. In the baseline, medical collections are removed from the NCRAs' consumer reports when paid.
                        <SU>279</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Generally, the CFPB understands that consumers seeking credit may be more likely to pay medical collections included on their consumer reports, assuming they have the means to do so, to ensure these collections are removed and unobservable to creditors and improve their credit scores. These consumers may be more sensitive to the threat of medical debts being furnished or the availability of medical debt information to creditors than they would be to the threat of litigation. However, the CFPB understands that, at baseline, furnishing may induce some consumers who have an immediate need for credit to pay debts they do not actually owe or debts based on incorrect bills, and the rule may reduce the likelihood that these consumers pay spurious debts.
                        <SU>280</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>279</SU>
                             Bus. Wire, 
                            <E T="03">Equifax, Experian, and TransUnion Support U.S. Consumers with Changes to Medical Collection Debt Reporting</E>
                             (Mar. 18, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.businesswire.com/news/home/20220318005244/en/Equifax-Experian-and-TransUnion-Support-U.S.-Consumers-With-Changes-to-Medical-Collection-Debt-Reporting.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>280</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Fair Debt Collection Practices Act: CFPB Annual Report 2023,</E>
                             at 2-5 (Nov. 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_fdcpa-annual-report_2023-11.pdf</E>
                             (describing consumer medical collection complaints received by the CFPB).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        For the subset of consumers who legally owe the debt, the rule may lead to increased debt resolution costs if the consumers are required to pay for the plaintiff's court filing fees or legal fees, which may occur for the majority of cases that end in a default judgement against the consumer. At least one debt collector who was a small entity representative in the SBREFA process suggested that the proposed rule would also lead to increased costs for consumers, if debt collectors are currently more likely to settle medical debts for less than the dollar amount owed when consumers respond to medical debt collections added to their consumer reports, but may not be willing to settle or will settle only for relatively higher amounts during the course of litigation.
                        <SU>281</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>281</SU>
                             Comment from Jennifer Whipple, Collection Bureau Servs., Inc., RE: Small Entity Representative Jennifer Whipple's Comment to CFPB regarding the Small Business Review Panel regarding the Fair Credit Reporting Act Proposal, SBREFA Report app. A.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Should certain health care providers decide to increase their use of debt collection lawsuits, they may do so either by working with debt collectors to file debt collection lawsuits on their behalf, or by bringing the lawsuits themselves. Health care providers may sell medical debt to debt buyers who also engage in debt collection, thereby transferring ownership for the debt.
                        <SU>282</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In such cases, the decision of whether to pursue litigation is made by the debt buyer, and they become the main plaintiff in a debt collection lawsuit.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>282</SU>
                             Fed. Trade Comm'n, 
                            <E T="03">The Structure and Practices of the Debt Buying Industry</E>
                             (Jan. 2013), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/reports/structure-practices-debt-buying-industry.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        However, some health care providers only assign medical debt to debt collectors while retaining ownership of the medical debt, and ultimately decide themselves whether to pursue debt collection litigation. When debt collection litigation happens this way, the debt collectors may be listed as plaintiffs even though it may be the health care providers that pay the bulk of the litigation costs. For example, debt collectors working with UC Health, the largest hospital system in Colorado, were reported to have filed 15,710 lawsuits from 2019 through 2023.
                        <SU>283</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In this case, the medical debts were “assigned” to debt collectors, but UC Health retained ownership of the medical debts and shared a portion of the recovered payments with the debt collectors.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>283</SU>
                             John Ingold &amp; Chris Vanderveen, 
                            <E T="03">Colorado's largest hospital system is quietly suing thousands of patients every year over unpaid bills,</E>
                             The Denver Post (Feb. 21, 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.denverpost.com/2024/02/21/uchealth-medical-debt-lawsuits-colorado/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Health care providers that choose to file more debt collection lawsuits on their own behalf because of the rule may incur a mix of fixed costs and variable litigation costs.
                        <SU>284</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Fixed costs of litigation may include the costs of retaining and maintaining relationships with legal providers, as well as hiring additional staff. Health care providers that already take legal action against their patients might not need to incur these fixed costs. Using a random 10 percent sample of hospitals in the United States, a recent investigation found that over two-thirds of hospitals already take legal action to collect unpaid medical bills, implying that many health care providers currently have some capacity to file debt collection lawsuits at baseline.
                        <SU>285</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>284</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Joseph Giuseppe R. Paturzo et al., 
                            <E T="03">Trends in Hospital Lawsuits Filed Against Patients for Unpaid Bills Following Published Research About This Activity,</E>
                             JAMA Network Open (Aug. 23, 2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://jamanetwork.com/journals/jamanetworkopen/article-abstract/2783297.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>285</SU>
                             Noam M. Levey, 
                            <E T="03">Hundreds of Hospitals Sue Patients or Threaten Their Credit, a KHN Investigation Finds. Does Yours?,</E>
                             KFF Health News (Dec. 21, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://kffhealthnews.org/news/article/medical-debt-hospitals-sue-patients-threaten-credit-khn-investigation/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Separate from fixed costs are variable costs that increase with the number and complexity of the debt collection lawsuits that hospitals choose to pursue. These are primarily court filing fees and attorney fees. Court filing fees vary 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3331"/>
                        depending on the jurisdiction and the collection amounts, making it difficult to estimate costs that hospitals may face.
                        <SU>286</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Health care provider commenters stated that court filing fees can be as high as $270 while serving fees can be as high as $200. Attorneys can be paid on an hourly basis or on a contingency fee basis. However, if health care providers already employ in-house attorneys or retain attorneys using a flat fee, this may reduce the need to pay additional attorney fees to pursue debt collection litigation. In addition, some jurisdictions allow health care providers to add filing fees, attorney fees, and other litigation costs to the judgment amount, partially shifting some of the cost of pursuing debt collection lawsuits to consumers if health care providers secure a favorable judgment.
                        <SU>287</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Because health care providers already have the option to pursue debt collection lawsuits or have otherwise adapted their collection mechanisms in response to industry changes and State laws under the baseline, the total costs of increased debt collection litigation would depend on how many additional medical debt collection lawsuits arise because of the rule. The CFPB does not have data to estimate the additional number of debt collection lawsuits that health care providers may pursue after the rule is implemented.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>286</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             the fee schedule for Small Claims Court in Maryland, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.mdcourts.gov/legalhelp/smallclaims,</E>
                             the corresponding fee schedule for regular civil cases, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.mdcourts.gov/courts/feeschedules,</E>
                             a comparison between small claims and regular civil cases in California, 
                            <E T="03">https://selfhelp.courts.ca.gov/small-claims-or-limited-civil</E>
                             (all last visited May 12, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>287</SU>
                             Casey Tolan &amp; Ed Lavandera, 
                            <E T="03">Arkansas hospital sued thousands of patients over medical bills during the pandemic, including hundreds of its own employees,</E>
                             CNN (Sept. 8, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cnn.com/2023/09/08/us/arkansas-hospital-debt-collections-lawsuits-pandemic/index.html.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB requested information from health care providers on the costs and amounts involved in current debt collection litigation, as well as estimates or information that can be used to estimate the number of debt collection lawsuits that might result from the rule. Commenters, including debt collectors, health care providers, a debt collector trade association, individuals, a researcher, and the SBA Office of Advocacy stated that health care providers will face increased costs associated with litigation, because they anticipate that the rule will cause them to file more debt collection lawsuits against consumers. However, these commenters did not provide quantitative estimates or data that can be used to estimate the expected changes in health care providers' litigation costs. As discussed above, the CFPB expects that any increase in overall litigation frequency and costs would be limited to States that have not removed medical collections from consumer reports, and to health care providers within those States whose consumers have medical debts greater than $500.</P>
                    <P>Rather than collecting unpaid medical bills themselves, health care providers may choose to contract with debt collectors. Debt collectors may switch to other collection mechanisms if consumer reporting agencies stop including medical collections information on consumer reports provided for credit eligibility determinations. To the extent that debt collectors rely primarily on furnishing to induce payment at baseline, the rule may reduce their profits if the other collection practices are costlier or less effective than furnishing.</P>
                    <P>Debt collectors may have to incur both fixed and variable costs to increase their use of collection mechanisms other than medical collections furnishing if the rule is finalized, including debt collection lawsuits. Fixed costs of litigation include the costs of hiring and maintaining relationships with attorneys. Debt collectors that already pursue debt collection lawsuits may not need to incur these fixed costs. Variable costs include court filing fees, which vary depending on the jurisdiction and the collection amounts, making it difficult to estimate the increase in costs that debt collectors may incur. Variable costs also include attorney fees, which can be paid on an hourly basis or on a contingency fee basis. If debt collectors already employ attorneys in house or under a flat-fee arrangement, this may reduce the need to pay additional attorney fees should they increasingly pursue debt collection lawsuits. However, as discussed above, it is possible that some debt collectors have at least partially incurred the fixed and variable costs of switching to collection practices that do not involve furnishing of medical debt given the recent voluntary NCRA changes and State laws. The CFPB requested further information on the collection activities of debt collectors to quantify these costs of debt collection litigation but did not receive relevant comments or data.</P>
                    <P>
                        Debt collectors may also respond to the rule by increasing their use of debt collection lawsuits. In choosing whether to pursue debt collection litigation, debt collectors likely compare the cost of litigation with the expected recovery amount in the event of a favorable judgment. Under the baseline, debt collectors also likely compare the expected cost effectiveness of litigation against furnishing, although they can choose to furnish and pursue litigation for the same debt. The CFPB does not have data to directly compare the relative efficacy of furnishing and litigation for inducing payment. However, the CFPB expects that per-lawsuit litigation costs may be lower for larger debt collectors, or for larger health care providers if they sue patients directly, given the potential for economies of scale. Comments received from debt collector small entity representatives during the SBREFA process indicate that furnishing medical collections information to NCRAs costs approximately $10 per account, while debt collection litigation costs approximately $500 per account.
                        <SU>288</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Due to the cost difference, debt collectors likely incur furnishing costs on a much larger percentage of accounts than they incur litigation costs, and so this may represent either a net saving or net cost for debt collectors, depending on the specific firm's furnishing practices and increase in litigation activity. The CFPB requested comment on this issue but did not receive relevant comments or data on this subject.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>288</SU>
                             SBREFA Report at 38.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In the proposed rule, the CFPB requested data to quantify the impacts on debt collectors. Commenters, including debt collectors and a law firm representing health care providers stated that they would need to increase their use of debt collection lawsuits. A debt collector stated that over the last 12 months, which the CFPB understands to cover the period of time after the voluntary NCRA changes, it had increased the number of lawsuits it filed each month by over 400 percent and had to double the number of staff handling litigation. Because the medical debts removed from consumer reports due to the voluntary NCRA changes were under $500, the commenter claimed that the remaining medical debts on consumer reports that will be affected by the rule are larger. Recent CFPB research shows that the average balance of medical collections included on consumer reports is around $3,100.
                        <SU>289</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To the extent that consumers with larger medical debts have income or assets that can be used to repay in the event of a debt collection lawsuit 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3332"/>
                        against them, the CFPB expects that debt collectors will be more likely to litigate over larger medical debts.
                        <SU>290</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As discussed above, the CFPB does not have data or information available to quantify this increase, and commenters did not provide such information.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>289</SU>
                             Ryan Sandler &amp; Zachary Blizard, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Recent Changes in Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Records Data Point</E>
                             (Mar. 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_recent-changes-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports_2024-03.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>290</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Keith Ericson &amp; Tal Gross, 
                            <E T="03">Limits on Medical Debt Lawsuits,</E>
                             The Abell Found. (Feb. 9, 2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://abell.org/wp-content/uploads/2022/02/Final20Medical20Debt20Report.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Relative to furnishing medical collections information, contacting consumers through traditional methods of debt collection that include mail, phone, or other means such as text messages may be more time-consuming and expensive. In a comment letter responding to the proposed rule, the SBA Office of Advocacy stated that one small entity reported a 16 percent increase in payroll costs for first quarter of the year after the NCRA voluntary change that removed medical debts under $500 from consumer reports. Some debt collector small entity representatives stated during the SBREFA process that they expected to have to increase staffing by 10 percent as a result of the proposed rule. Increased staffing would impose additional labor costs. These small entity representatives also expect to incur fixed costs associated with “rewriting policies and procedures, training employees, updating systems, and renegotiating contracts” with health care providers.
                        <SU>291</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB does not have further data to assess the relative prevalence, costs, and effectiveness of the various collection mechanisms that debt collectors use at baseline.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>291</SU>
                             SBREFA Report at 38.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Availability of Information on Consumer Reports Used in Underwriting</HD>
                    <P>Under the final rule, creditors generally would not be permitted to use consumer report information related to medical debt in their determinations of consumers' eligibility for credit by utilizing the financial information exception at § 1022.30(d). This section below discusses possible impacts, including impact on creditors' underwriting practices and revenues, consumers' access to credit, debt collectors' assessments of consumers' ability to pay medical debts, and the revenue received by consumer reporting agencies for consumer reports.</P>
                    <P>Creditors use information from consumer reports, usually obtained from the NCRAs, to reduce the risk of lending to consumers who may be unable to repay. Removing medical collections information from consumer reports provided to creditors for credit eligibility determinations would reduce the information they contain relative to the baseline. In theory, if creditors expect medical collections information to be on consumer reports, or if they view medical collections information as critical to their assessment of the riskiness of lending to consumers, their willingness to pay consumer reporting agencies for consumer reports that do not contain medical collections information may decrease. However, creditors would likely find the remaining information on consumer reports to still be valuable, mitigating the reduction in demand for consumer reports that may result from the rule. Furthermore, the market for consumer reports used to underwrite credit is highly concentrated amongst the NCRAs. Lenders will not be in a position to refuse to obtain a consumer report because they will still need the information contained in consumer reports to underwrite, and so there is no plausible mechanism by which a lender's perceived reduction in consumer report quality would affect price. If there were such a mechanism, consumers may face lower loan origination costs because consumer report fees are often passed on at loan origination to the borrower.</P>
                    <P>One NCRA SBREFA commenter stated that it considers medical collections as predictive of a consumer's repayment willingness and ability and believes that the complete removal of medical collections from consumer reporting would “degrade the accuracy of consumer reporting.” As described above, some medical collections reflect inaccurate billing practices, and their inconsistent inclusion on consumer reports adds only a noisy signal of consumers' ability to pay. The CFPB expects that removing medical collections from consumer reports used in credit eligibility determinations would instead improve the accuracy of consumer reporting.</P>
                    <P>
                        For purposes of complying with laws requiring an assessment of a consumer's ability to repay a loan, the rule allows creditors to consider medical debt information that consumers provide in response to general requests for information on a consumer's debt. The rule, however, does not allow creditors to obtain or use medical information from consumer reporting agencies for such purposes. The CFPB understands that creditors for many types of credit products do not generally ask explicitly for medical debt information on applications for credit at baseline, and instead rely on the medical collection information provided in consumer reports. Some forms of credit, like mortgages, more commonly require that an applicant report all debts on the credit application.
                        <SU>292</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The rule will not change any existing law or guidance regarding the information that creditors must request from applicants.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>292</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Fannie Mae, 
                            <E T="03">Uniform Residential Loan Application (Form 1003), https://singlefamily.fanniemae.com/delivering/uniform-mortgage-data-program/uniform-residential-loan-application</E>
                             (last visited Nov. 25, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Commenters, including a bank trade association, an NCRA, and a researcher stated that consumers may withhold medical debt information from creditors if more general requests on a credit application for a consumer's debt information do not specify medical debt. These commenters further stated that creditors would have no mechanism for verifying whether disclosed liabilities were accurate.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB does not agree with the commenters that the rule will generally prevent creditors from learning about the scope of consumers' liabilities. Creditors largely rely on consumers to provide information about their medical debts at baseline because most medical debts are not included on consumer reports, as discussed below. To the extent that creditors do explicitly ask for medical debt information at baseline, this rule changes the process by which creditors obtain medical debt information from consumers. Specifically, creditors will no longer be able to explicitly ask for information about medical debt. Instead, consumers will need to provide this information in response to a more general request for debt information.</P>
                    <P>
                        To the extent that consumers are less likely to provide medical debt information in credit applications under the rule relative to the baseline, the CFPB does not expect this to impose major costs on creditors. For example, the Federal Housing Administration currently omits medical debt information from its calculations of debt-to-income ratios in mortgage underwriting.
                        <SU>293</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This suggests that, to the extent consumers cease to provide their own medical debt information after the rule is issued, mortgage underwriters will likely adjust eligibility criteria to account for this change without significantly increasing repayment risk to creditors, including by placing more weight on other borrower characteristics. Additionally, few creditors explicitly ask for medical debt information at baseline; for example, the Uniform Residential Loan 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3333"/>
                        Application, required for loans sold to Freddie Mac and Fannie Mae, does not specifically request medical debt information.
                        <SU>294</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB requested evidence for how the continued ability to observe medical debt on credit applications may impact creditors and consumers but did not receive relevant evidence.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>293</SU>
                             U.S. Dep't of Hous. &amp; Urban Dev., 
                            <E T="03">Single Family Housing Policy Handbook 4000.1, https://www.hud.gov/program_offices/housing/sfh/handbook_4000-1</E>
                             (last visited Nov. 21, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>294</SU>
                             Fannie Mae, 
                            <E T="03">Uniform Residential Loan Application (Form 1003), https://singlefamily.fanniemae.com/delivering/uniform-mortgage-data-program/uniform-residential-loan-application</E>
                             (last visited Nov. 25, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The medical collections included on consumer reports comprise only a subset of consumers' medical debt for several reasons. First, not all medical debt, including past-due medical debt, is in collections at any given time, and not all medical debts that are in collections are included on consumer reports, for a variety of reasons. For one, a medical collection that appears on a consumer report from one NCRA may not appear on other consumer reports if the debt collector did not report to all three NCRAs. Additionally, the NCRAs entered into a settlement, called the National Consumer Assistance Plan (NCAP), with over thirty States' attorneys general in 2015 that required them to remove from consumer reports all medical collections that were paid by insurance, as well as ensure that medical collections were not included on consumer reports until they were at least 180 days past due from the date of first delinquency.
                        <SU>295</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Since that agreement, the NCRAs have voluntarily removed many types of medical collections from consumer reports, including medical collections that were paid by any source, medical collections under $500, and medical collections that have not been outstanding for at least one year.
                        <SU>296</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>295</SU>
                             Assurance of Voluntary Compliance/Assurance of Voluntary Discontinuance (May 20, 2015), 
                            <E T="03">In re Equifax Info. Servs., https://www.ohioattorneygeneral.gov/Files/Briefing-Room/News-Releases/Consumer-Protection/2015-05-20-CRAs-AVC.aspx.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>296</SU>
                             PR Newswire, 
                            <E T="03">Equifax, Experian and TransUnion Remove Medical Collections Debt Under $500 From U.S. Credit Reports</E>
                             (Apr. 11, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.prnewswire.com/news-releases/equifax-experian-and-transunion-remove-medical-collections-debt-under-500-from-us-credit-reports-301793769.html.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In addition, the medical collections that currently appear on consumer reports are rarely reported for the full seven years that the FCRA permits. Previous CFPB research found that fewer than half of medical collections over $500 were reported for longer than one year, and just over 10 percent were reported for at least four years.
                        <SU>297</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Since the NCRAs' voluntary medical debt reporting changes were fully implemented in April 2023, the persistence of medical collection reporting has been substantially reduced. The CFPB analyzed CCIP data and found that fewer than half of the medical collections reported in May 2023 were reported in November 2023, and just 26 percent were reported in February 2024.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>297</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Paid and Low-Balance Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Reports</E>
                             (July 27, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/research-reports/paid-and-low-balance-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Finally, several states have passed laws that significantly restrict or prohibit consumer reporting of medical debt information.
                        <SU>298</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Creditors that serve consumers for whom consumer reports will have medical collections removed pursuant to these State laws provide or will soon be providing credit without knowledge from consumer reports of their applicants' outstanding medical debt for reasons unrelated to this final rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>298</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Colo. Rev. Stat. section 5-18-109; N.Y. Pub. Health Law art. 49-A; 2024 Calif. SB 1061; 2024 Conn. Act 24-6; 2024 Minn. Ch. 332C; 2024 New Jersey A3681; 2024 Ill. Pub. Act 103-0648; 2024 Va. Acts ch. 751.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Nationally representative surveys indicate that between 15 and 41 percent of adults had some form of outstanding medical debt between 2021 and 2022, depending on the definition of “medical debt” used.
                        <SU>299</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, only 14 percent of consumers had a medical collection on their consumer report in 2022.
                        <SU>300</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         By June 2023, after the NCRAs' voluntary removal of all medical collections under $500 in April 2023, only 5 percent of people with a consumer report had a medical collection included on their consumer report.
                        <SU>301</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Because most consumers with medical debt do not have medical collections on their consumer report, creditors that do not request medical debt information on credit applications provide credit accounts to many consumers who have medical debt without any knowledge of that debt under the baseline. The CFPB understands that medical collections are not primarily reported to the NCRAs to assist creditors in assessing delinquency risk, but rather to induce repayment.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>299</SU>
                             U.S. Census Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Wealth, Asset Ownership, &amp; Debt of Households Detailed Tables: 2021</E>
                             (2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.census.gov/data/tables/2021/demo/wealth/wealth-asset-ownership.html;</E>
                             Lunna Lopes et al., Kaiser Fam. Found., 
                            <E T="03">Health Care Debt In The U.S.: The Broad Consequences Of Medical And Dental Bills</E>
                             (June 16, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.kff.org/report-section/kff-health-care-debt-survey-main-findings/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>300</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Paid and Low-Balance Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Reports</E>
                             (July 27, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/research-reports/paid-and-low-balance-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>301</SU>
                             Ryan Sandler &amp; Zachary Blizard, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Recent Changes in Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Records Data Point</E>
                             (Mar. 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_recent-changes-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports_2024-03.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The general prohibition of the use of consumer report information related to medical debt in creditors' determinations of consumers' eligibility for credit may affect the performance of creditors' loan portfolios if the absence of this medical debt information reduces the accuracy of creditors' assessments of delinquency risk. Indeed, the removal of information from the set of variables that can be used in underwriting models should not improve performance if models optimally assess risk at baseline. The variables included in underwriting models are generally selected because they are predictive of the risk of loss a creditor would experience from providing a new credit account to a given consumer. Creditors typically measure risk by predicting the probability that a new account will become at least 90 days past due (or “seriously delinquent”) within two years of origination.</P>
                    <P>
                        The evidence available to the CFPB indicates that the predictive performance of underwriting models would not be impaired by the removal of all medical collections information from consumer reports. Many creditors have voluntarily reduced or eliminated the use of medical collections from their underwriting standards, and indeed, credit scoring companies have either removed or differentiated medical collections in their models and found minimal or no negative effects on performance.
                        <SU>302</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Furthermore, an 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3334"/>
                        industry analysis of the NCRAs' June 2022 voluntary medical debt reporting changes found that because 
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>302</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Fed. Nat'l Mortg. Ass'n, 
                            <E T="03">Single Family Selling Guide,</E>
                             B3-2-03 (2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://selling-guide.fanniemae.com/#Public.20Records.2C.20Foreclosures.2C.20and.20Collection.20Accounts</E>
                             (noting that “[c]ollection accounts reported as medical collections are not used in the DU [Desk Underwriter] risk assessment”); Fed. Home Loan Mortg. Corp., 
                            <E T="03">The Single-Family Seller/Servicer Guide,</E>
                             5201.1 (2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://guide.freddiemac.com/app/guide/section/5201.1. See also</E>
                             The White House, 
                            <E T="03">Fact Sheet: The Biden Administration Announces New Actions to Lessen the Burden of Medical Debt and Increase Consumer Protection</E>
                             (Apr. 11, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/briefing-room/statements-releases/2022/04/11/fact-sheet-the-biden-administration-announces-new-actions-to-lessen-the-burden-of-medical-debt-and-increase-consumer-protection/</E>
                             (announcing changes to certain Federal government underwriting standards); Ethan Dornhelm, 
                            <E T="03">The Impact of Medical Debt Collections on FICO Scores,</E>
                             FICO Blog (July 13, 2015), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fico.com/blogs/impact-medical-debt-collections-ficor-scores;</E>
                             VantageScore, 
                            <E T="03">
                                What was the rationale for removing Medical Debt from VantageScore 4.0?, https://www.vantagescore.com/faq/what-was-the-rationale-
                                <PRTPAGE/>
                                for-removing-medical-debt-from-vantagescore-4-0/
                            </E>
                             (last visited May 9, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FP>
                        the vast majority of the impacted consumers would likely have other derogatory information and FICO® Scores that remain low, the ability of FICO® Scores to rank order risk on the total population prior to these medical debt collections being excluded is almost identical to what lenders would experience with these medical debt collections excluded.
                        <SU>303</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </FP>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>303</SU>
                             Tommy Lee, Senior Director, Analytics &amp; Scores, 
                            <E T="03">Medical Collection Removals Have Little Impact on FICO Scores,</E>
                             FICO Blog (June 30, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.fico.com/blogs/medical-collection-removals-have-little-impact-fico-scores.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The NCRAs' June 2022 medical debt reporting changes removed paid medical collections from consumer reports and required medical collections to be at least one year past the date of first delinquency before being included on consumer reports. Though these changes were more limited in scope than those in this rule, the CFPB expects that an ex-post analysis of the rule's impacts would draw a similar conclusion as the industry analysis above, given the CFPB's evidence in the Technical Appendix showing that there is sufficient information remaining on consumer reports to enable creditors to make credit eligibility determinations without the inclusion of medical collections information on those consumer reports. Consumers with medical collections on their consumer reports in June 2023, after the NCRA voluntary reporting changes were fully implemented, had an average credit score of 582, near the deep subprime cutoff; 
                        <SU>304</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         additionally, more than 40 percent had at least one nonmedical collection and nearly 19 percent had no other tradelines.
                        <SU>305</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The fact that a consumer has a thin credit file 
                        <SU>306</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and information about nonmedical collections will remain available to creditors under the rule, to the extent that creditors use these markers to assess delinquency risk.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>304</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Borrower risk profiles, https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/consumer-credit-trends/student-loans/borrower-risk-profiles/</E>
                             (last visited May 9, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>305</SU>
                             Ryan Sandler &amp; Zachary Blizard, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Recent Changes in Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Records Data Point</E>
                             (Mar. 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_recent-changes-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports_2024-03.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>306</SU>
                             A thin credit file is a consumer report that contains fewer than five credit accounts. Jennifer White, Experian, 
                            <E T="03">What is a Thin Credit File?</E>
                             (May 25, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.experian.com/blogs/ask-experian/what-is-a-thin-credit-file-and-how-will-it-impact-your-life/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>An important remaining question is whether consumers with medical debt and medical collections on their consumer reports are meaningfully more likely to become seriously delinquent than consumers with medical debt but no medical collections on their consumer reports, again holding all else equal. If this were true, the rule would reduce the accuracy of assessments of delinquency risk.</P>
                    <P>Several commenters, including credit union trade associations, a bank trade association, a consumer reporting agency trade association, a debt collector trade association, a health care trade association, debt collectors, research institutions, researchers, a health care provider, members of Congress, and the SBA Office of Advocacy, expressed an expectation that the proposed rule would reduce the accuracy of assessments of delinquency risk. Conversely, multiple commenters, including consumer advocates and individuals, stated that medical debt is not a good predictor of delinquency risk.</P>
                    <P>
                        Multiple commenters, including credit union trade associations and at least one debt collector, stated that the proposed rule would increase the likelihood of consumer bankruptcy because, absent the use of medical collections information in credit eligibility determinations, creditors would approve consumers for unaffordable loans and consumers would become overleveraged. A debt collector trade association commenter cited research suggesting that medical debt is the largest driver of consumer bankruptcy and stated that creditors would be exposed to default risk if they could not infer a consumer's bankruptcy risk through the use of medical debt information in underwriting.
                        <SU>307</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, a researcher commenter discussed the academic literature on the subject of medical debt and bankruptcy, and stated that, based on the cited evidence, fewer than 5 percent of bankruptcies of nonelderly adults are caused by hospitalization.
                        <SU>308</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>307</SU>
                             Arthur L. Kellerman, 
                            <E T="03">The U.S. Spends More On Healthcare Than Other Wealthy Nations But Ranks Last In Outcomes,</E>
                             Forbes (Oct. 24, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.forbes.com/sites/arthurkellermann/2023/10/24/the-us-spends-more-on-healthcare-than-other-wealthy-nations-but-ranks-last-in-outcomes.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>308</SU>
                             Carlos Dobkin et al., 
                            <E T="03">The Economic Consequences of Hospital Admissions,</E>
                             108:2 a.m. Econ. Rev. 308-52 (2018), 
                            <E T="03">https://doi.org/10.1257/aer.20161038.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB expects that creditors will have sufficient information to accurately assess a consumer's bankruptcy risk under the rule, as the evidence presented in the Technical Appendix shows that the rule would lead to an expansion of credit without added risk of delinquency.</P>
                    <P>
                        One researcher commenter cited an academic study that considered how privacy ordinances impacted the likelihood of foreclosure in one Metropolitan Statistical Area between 2001 and 2006.
                        <SU>309</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Three counties within the MSA enacted an opt-in ordinance in 2003, in which financial institutions had to receive consumers' permission to share their information, while two counties did not enact the opt-in ordinance. The study found that loan denial rates fell, and foreclosure rates in 2007-2008 rose in the counties that enacted an opt-in ordinance. The commenter stated that the proposed rule was akin to a privacy rule against medical debt information and that there would be increases in lending to unqualified borrowers under the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>309</SU>
                             Jin-Hyuk Kim &amp; Liad Wagman, 
                            <E T="03">Screening Incentives and Privacy Protection in Financial Markets: A Theoretical and Empirical Analysis,</E>
                             46:1 RAND J. Econ. 1-22 (2015), 
                            <E T="03">https://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=2317942.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The study cited by the commenter is not specific to medical debt and includes all information about a consumer that would be available at a financial institution, making the study substantially broader in scope than the rule. Furthermore, the study does not support the commenter's claims, as the study explicitly states that the evidence in support of the relationship between the privacy ordinances and foreclosure rates is not causal.
                        <SU>310</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Instead, the CFPB provided causal evidence in the Technical Appendix showing that the availability of medical collection information in underwriting does not reduce the delinquency risk faced by creditors. Because delinquency risk is indicative of foreclosure risk, the CFPB concludes that there is minimal risk of increased foreclosure rates under the rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>310</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                             at 23.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        One researcher commenter cited an academic study showing that an auto finance company increased its profits when it began using credit scores in its underwriting in 2001.
                        <SU>311</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB does not see a direct implication from the results of this study to the rule and agrees that credit scoring models can be valuable for creditors. However, no credit scoring model is entirely reliant on any one element of credit 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3335"/>
                        information, and at least one credit scoring company has voluntarily removed medical collections from its model with minimal changes in predictive performance.
                        <SU>312</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>311</SU>
                             Liran Einav et al., 
                            <E T="03">The impact of credit scoring on consumer lending,</E>
                             44:2 RAND J. Econ. 249-74 (2013), 
                            <E T="03">https://web.stanford.edu/~leinav/pubs/RAND2013.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>312</SU>
                             VantageScore, 
                            <E T="03">What was the rationale for removing Medical Debt from VantageScore 4.0?, https://www.vantagescore.com/faq/what-was-the-rationale-for-removing-medical-debt-from-vantagescore-4-0/</E>
                             (last visited May 9, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Numerous commenters, including debt collectors, credit union trade associations, health care providers, individuals, a financial trade association, a consumer reporting agency trade association, a debt collector trade association, a bank trade association, a consumer reporting agency, a consumer advocate, a health care trade association, a research institute, and a researcher stated that creditors would provide more credit to consumers with medical debt under the proposed rule. These commenters stated that this increased access to credit would harm creditors and consumers because many consumers with medical debt would not be able to afford the credit they were provided, causing them to default. Other commenters, including at least one research institute, health care provider, government official, an individual, as well as multiple researchers and consumer advocates, stated that consumers with medical debt would experience increased access to credit under the proposed rule without repercussions.</P>
                    <P>In the Technical Appendix, the CFPB finds that medical collection reporting did not change the delinquency risk faced by creditors, as credit accounts provided to consumers with medical collections that were included on their consumer report were no more or less likely to become seriously delinquent than credit accounts provided to consumers with medical collections that were not included on their consumer report. The CFPB expects that creditors and consumers will benefit from increased access to credit under the rule, as described in more detail below.</P>
                    <P>A debt collector trade association commented that the proposed rule would not increase access to mortgages for consumers with medical debt because creditors use several factors to make mortgage eligibility determinations and medical debt is unlikely to be the marginal, deciding factor. However, the CFPB uses evidence from the Technical Appendix to estimate that an additional 21,882 mortgages would be originated annually under the rule. Though this would be a small percent increase in the number of mortgages originated annually, it suggests that medical debt is a deciding factor for some mortgage originations.</P>
                    <P>Multiple debt collectors commented that consumers with credit profiles similar to those of consumers with medical debt would be less likely to receive credit or may receive worse terms under the proposed rule, as creditors would proxy for medical debt information with other available information. Two researchers commented that creditors would begin to engage in statistical discrimination, whereby they restrict access to credit or provide worse terms to protected classes that are more likely to have medical debt.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB finds in the Technical Appendix that the use of medical collections information in credit eligibility determinations does not reduce the delinquency risk faced by creditors, relative to a baseline in which medical collection information is not used because the information has not yet been added to a consumer report. This implies that underwriting models are oversaturated with information at baseline, meaning that they use more information than is necessary to optimally predict default risk. Furthermore, because medical collections information does not improve the predictiveness of credit eligibility determinations, holding other inputs constant, creditors would not find value from proxying for medical collection information. This is especially true if creditors chose to proxy for medical collection information by membership in a protected class, which is illegal under the Equal Credit Opportunity Act and may therefore create the risk of costly litigation.
                        <SU>313</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>313</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             12 CFR part 1002.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        A research institute commented that lenders may cease providing credit to low-income consumers because 2.9 million of the 19.9 million households with medical debt in 2021 had household income below the poverty threshold. However, using the same data set as the commenter, the CFPB finds that an almost identical share of households below the poverty line as households above the poverty line have medical debt: 14.8 percent of households with incomes below the poverty line have medical debt, compared to 15.1 percent of households with incomes above the poverty line.
                        <SU>314</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As such, even if creditors desired to specifically exclude potential borrowers with medical debt, excluding low-income consumers would not accomplish this purpose, and as such it is unlikely that this outcome would occur.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>314</SU>
                             U.S. Census Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Wealth, Asset Ownership, &amp; Debt of Households Detailed Tables: 2021</E>
                             (2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.census.gov/data/tables/2021/demo/wealth/wealth-asset-ownership.html.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Several commenters, including multiple credit union trade associations, debt collectors, individuals, financial trade associations, at least one bank trade association, at least one consumer reporting agency trade association, at least one health care provider trade association, and at least one health care provider, stated that consumers generally would experience reduced access to credit or receive worse terms under the proposed rule. These commenters stated that the proposed rule would impact access to credit for all consumers, not just those with medical debt, because creditors would experience higher default rates from providing too much credit to consumers with medical debt and would pass those costs on to all consumers by raising interest rates or reducing the number or dollar amounts of originated loans. During the SBREFA process, debt collectors expressed similar concern that creditors would be concerned about the possibility of providing credit to consumers who cannot pay their medical debt under the proposed rule, leading creditors to raise interest rates and fees to account for anticipated increased delinquency rates.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB does not expect that creditors would experience any significant decline in their customers' willingness or ability to repay, or in account performance under the rule. Instead, the evidence available to the CFPB and described in the Technical Appendix suggests that the rule will enable creditors to provide more credit accounts that have similar delinquency risk to credit accounts in their baseline lending portfolio. The data used in the Technical Appendix does not include the terms of credit accounts, so the CFPB cannot estimate how the terms provided to consumers may change under the rule, though it understands that any changes in terms would likely not be limited to consumers with medical debt. However, the CFPB expects that creditors, overall, would experience an increase in profitable loan volume under the rule, as market frictions have prevented creditors from fully reaching this more profitable equilibrium at baseline, as described above in part VII.A, 
                        <E T="03">Statement of Need.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        One researcher commenter stated that firms may become insolvent from mispricing risk under the proposed rule. However, many creditors currently approve applications for credit without full knowledge of consumer medical 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3336"/>
                        debts because most medical debts are not included on many consumer reports, as discussed above. Comparing the performance of credit accounts that creditors made without medical collections information to the performance of accounts made with this information would provide the most direct evidence on how the rule may impact account performance, and therefore, creditors' profits. Ideally, this analysis would be performed with data from consumer reports linked with the timing and presence of consumers' outstanding and unreported medical debts. The CFPB does not have access to such linked data and is not aware of such data being available.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The research described in the Technical Appendix provides the closest feasible analysis of the potential effect of the rulemaking against the baseline by considering if the visibility of medical collections that remain on consumer reports enables creditors to provide fewer credit accounts that result in serious delinquency. The CFPB uses de-identified consumer report data from the CFPB's CCIP and leverages the 180-day waiting period for reporting medical collections implemented under NCAP.
                        <SU>315</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB's research considers inquiries made by creditors to one of the NCRAs in response to an application for credit in the 180 days before a medical collection was added to a consumer report, using data after the NCAP 180-day waiting period was implemented in September 2017.
                        <SU>316</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Credit applications made during this 180-day period were made by consumers who had outstanding, but unreported, medical collections. The CFPB's research finds that the characteristics of inquiries made before and after a medical collection's addition to a consumer report are similar; therefore, any difference in the likelihood that a credit application led to an opened line of credit, or in the performance of those opened lines of credit, is likely caused by whether or not the creditor observed the consumer's medical collection.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>315</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             part XII, 
                            <E T="03">Technical Appendix.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>316</SU>
                             The April 2023 NCRA reporting changes were too recent to be the focus of the analysis in the Technical Appendix, but the appendix provides heterogeneity results for whether all medical collections were at least $500 to provide the closest analog to the current lending environment. The CFPB relies on these results to estimate the impact of the rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB uses a regression discontinuity design in the Technical Appendix to analyze how the presence of a medical collection on a consumer report when an inquiry is made affects the likelihood that the consumer opened a new account in connection with that inquiry. The CFPB's data cannot identify the cause of an unsuccessful inquiry, which may include a credit denial, unfavorable terms, or a change in the consumer's credit demand.
                        <SU>317</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For all credit account categories, the CFPB's research finds lower inquiry success rates for inquiries made immediately after a medical collection is added to a consumer report, compared to inquiries made immediately before a medical collection is added. This implies that creditors use medical collections information to deny or worsen the terms of credit provided to applicants. Table 1 uses coefficients estimated in the Technical Appendix (provided in Column 1 of Table 7) to estimate the annual number of additional credit accounts that would be originated if medical collections were removed from all consumer reports, all else equal.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>317</SU>
                             The data used and empirical strategy of the CFPB's analysis are described in the Technical Appendix. This section describes the estimation of the effect of medical collection reporting on the likelihood that a hard pull of a consumer report (an inquiry) made by a creditor in response to a consumer's credit application led to an originated loan. Under the assumption that inquiries made just before and just after a medical collection is added to a consumer report have similar underlying delinquency risk and reflect similar consumer preferences for terms and other loan qualities, differences in inquiry success can be attributed to creditors' use of medical collections information in their underwriting processes. These assumptions are justified in the Technical Appendix.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,12,12">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 1—Estimated Changes in the Number of Originated Loans Under the Rule by Credit Account Type 
                            <SU>318</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (1)
                                <LI>Account type</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (2)
                                <LI>Estimated</LI>
                                <LI>coefficient</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (3)
                                <LI>Baseline</LI>
                                <LI>inquiry</LI>
                                <LI>success rate</LI>
                                <LI>(%)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (4)
                                <LI>Expected</LI>
                                <LI>percent</LI>
                                <LI>change in</LI>
                                <LI>originated</LI>
                                <LI>accounts</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (5)
                                <LI>Annual</LI>
                                <LI>number of</LI>
                                <LI>originated</LI>
                                <LI>accounts</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (6)
                                <LI>Expected</LI>
                                <LI>change in</LI>
                                <LI>annual</LI>
                                <LI>originated</LI>
                                <LI>accounts</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Credit card</ENT>
                            <ENT>***−0.047</ENT>
                            <ENT>26.0</ENT>
                            <ENT>18.1</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,014,427</ENT>
                            <ENT>364,611</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Mortgage</ENT>
                            <ENT>*−0.026</ENT>
                            <ENT>17.2</ENT>
                            <ENT>15.1</ENT>
                            <ENT>144,915</ENT>
                            <ENT>21,882</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Other loans</ENT>
                            <ENT>*−0.014</ENT>
                            <ENT>23.9</ENT>
                            <ENT>5.9</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,083,879</ENT>
                            <ENT>63,949</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>Estimates marked with *** are statistically significantly different from zero at the one percent confidence level. Estimates marked with * are statistically different from zero at the 10 percent confidence level.</TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        For all credit
                        <FTREF/>
                         account categories, the CFPB expects that more loans would be originated if all medical collections were removed from consumer reports provided to creditors under the rule. The estimates in Columns 5 and 6 are underestimates because not all originated loans can be connected to an inquiry in the CFPB's CCIP, as the data only include inquiries made to one NCRA, and many non-mortgage creditors pull consumer reports from only one or two NCRAs. Additionally, these estimates assume that credit demand would not change under the rule. The CFPB's research in the Technical Appendix finds that consumers are more likely to apply for 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3337"/>
                        credit in the weeks before a medical collection is added to their consumer report than in the weeks after. However, the characteristics of credit applications made before and after a medical collection is added (and their associated consumers) do not appear to have any statistically distinguishable differences between them. This finding suggests that any increase in credit demand under the rule will not lead to declines in credit application quality.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>318</SU>
                             All credit accounts in the CFPB's CCIP (excluding collections and non-loan information, such as child support tradelines) are included in one of the three categories of Column 1. Estimated coefficients in Column 2 are taken from Table 7 in the Technical Appendix. Column 3 includes the baseline inquiry success rate for inquiries made when medical collections are reported in the sample of the Technical Appendix. These baselines differ from those in the Technical Appendix because the CFPB reports baseline inquiry success rates for inquiries made when medical collections are unreported in the Technical Appendix, as it is standard to provide the average of the dependent variable to the left of the threshold in regression discontinuity analyses. Column 4 calculates the estimated percent change in the number of loans that would be originated under the rule by first dividing the estimated coefficient in Column 2 by the baseline average inquiry success rate in Column 3. Column 4 is then multiplied by negative one because the coefficients in Column 2 were estimated for medical collections moving from being unreported to reported in the Technical Appendix, but the change here is estimated for medical collections moving from being reported to unreported. Column 5 includes the number of inquiries made by creditors for consumer reports with reported medical collections between May 2023 and October 2023 in the CFPB's CCIP, multiplied by 50 to create a national estimate from the CCIP's 2 percent sample, annualized by multiplying by 2, and then multiplied by the baseline inquiry success rate for people with reported medical collections in Column 3 to estimate the annual number of credit accounts originated. Column 6 multiplies Column 4 by Column 5 to calculate the expected change in the number of originated credit accounts under the rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The results in Table 1 provide evidence that creditors will provide more credit to consumers with medical collections under the rule. At baseline, the CFPB assumes that creditors only make loans to people with reported medical collections if those loans are profitable on average, holding consumer report characteristics constant. If the marginal loans that would be made under the rule have similar revenue potential to those made to consumers with reported medical collections at baseline, the increase in the number of loans made to people with medical collections would increase creditor profits. To estimate the revenue potential of originated accounts, the CFPB estimates the likelihood of serious delinquency within two years of a credit account's origination date for accounts that are opened in connection with an inquiry made in the 180 days before or after a medical collection is included on a consumer report. If creditors' use of medical collections information in their underwriting decisions reduces the delinquency risk of newly opened accounts, one would expect that credit provided to consumers with outstanding, but unreported, medical collections will have higher delinquency propensity than credit provided to consumers with outstanding and reported medical collections.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB tests this hypothesis, and estimates ranges for the number of delinquent loans that would be issued if medical collections were not included on consumer reports, as when the rule is finalized, in Table 2. These ranges also incorporate the evidence from the Technical Appendix on how the number of newly originated loans would change, shown above in Table 1. The estimated coefficients from Column 1 of Table 8 in the Technical Appendix are listed in Table 2 in Column 2.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,18,21">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 2—Estimated Changes in the Number of Seriously Delinquent Loans Under the Rule by Credit Account Type 
                            <SU>319</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (1)
                                <LI>Account type</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (2)
                                <LI>Estimated</LI>
                                <LI>coefficient</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (3)
                                <LI>Baseline</LI>
                                <LI>D90+ rate</LI>
                                <LI>(%)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (4)
                                <LI>Expected</LI>
                                <LI>change in</LI>
                                <LI>annual</LI>
                                <LI>originated</LI>
                                <LI>accounts</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (5)
                                <LI>Expected number of</LI>
                                <LI>D90+ accounts</LI>
                                <LI>within two years</LI>
                                <LI>of origination at</LI>
                                <LI>baseline D90+ rate</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (6)
                                <LI>Expected number of</LI>
                                <LI>annual D90+ accounts</LI>
                                <LI>within two years</LI>
                                <LI>of origination at</LI>
                                <LI>estimated delinquency</LI>
                                <LI>rate for unreported</LI>
                                <LI>medical collections</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Credit card</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>20.7</ENT>
                            <ENT>364,611</ENT>
                            <ENT>75,474</ENT>
                            <ENT>75,474</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Mortgage</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.011</ENT>
                            <ENT>3.1</ENT>
                            <ENT>21,882</ENT>
                            <ENT>678</ENT>
                            <ENT>438</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Other loans</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.012</ENT>
                            <ENT>17.1</ENT>
                            <ENT>63,949</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,935</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,168</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>None of the estimated coefficients are statistically significantly different from zero.</TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Table 2
                        <FTREF/>
                         shows that, for mortgages and other (not credit card and not mortgage) account types, accounts originated by consumers with reported medical collections have slightly higher delinquency propensity than accounts originated by consumers with unreported medical collections. This is not consistent with creditors using medical collections information to reduce the delinquency risk of originated accounts. The coefficients are not statistically distinguishable from zero, so the evidence is only suggestive, rather than conclusive, that the expansion of credit under the rule would yield a rate of serious delinquency that is lower than the rate of serious delinquency currently faced by creditors for accounts they provide to consumers with reported medical collections. The CFPB interprets its findings as evidence against any significant increase in the rate of serious delinquency as compared to the rate of serious delinquency for accounts provided to consumers with reported medical collections at baseline. The CFPB notes that this claim holds if all else is equal under the rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>319</SU>
                             All credit accounts in the CFPB's CCIP (excluding collections and non-loan information, such as child support tradelines) are included in one of the three categories of Column 1. Estimated coefficients in Column 2 are taken from Table 8 in the Technical Appendix. Column 3 includes the baseline two-year serious delinquency propensity for loans opened when medical collections were reported in the sample of the Technical Appendix, though the CFPB provides baseline inquiry success rates for inquiries made when medical collections are unreported in the Technical Appendix, as is standard in reporting regression discontinuity results. Column 4 is copied from Column 6 of Table 1. Column 5 multiplies Column 3 by Column 4, describing the expected number of additional accounts that would be originated under the proposed rule and would be D90+ within two years at the baseline D90+ rate. Column 6 multiplies Column 4 by the difference between Column 3 and Column 2 (where Column 3 is reflected as a decimal instead of as a percent, 
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             20.7 percent is equal to 0.207), describing the expected number of additional accounts that would be originated under the proposed rule and would be D90+ within two years at the D90+ rate for accounts originated when consumers have unreported medical collections. Columns 2 and 3 are differenced instead of added because the coefficients in Column 2 were estimated for medical collections moving from being unreported to being reported in the Technical Appendix, but the expected impact of the proposed rule is for medical collections moving from being reported to being unreported.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>If consumer demand for credit is affected by the rule, the credit applications that creditors receive may have different underlying delinquency risk. Some consumers may avoid applying for credit when a medical collection appears on their consumer report if they understand that this information lowers the likelihood that their credit application will be approved or provided with favorable terms. Removing medical collections from consumer reports used in credit eligibility determinations may lead these consumers to submit credit applications, which could lead to an increase or decrease in the delinquency risk of applicant pools. As discussed in the Technical Appendix, the CFPB finds that consumers are less likely to apply for credit after a medical collection is added to their consumer report; however, the underlying delinquency risk of the remaining credit applications is not statistically distinguishable from the delinquency risk of credit applications made before the medical collection is reported.</P>
                    <P>
                        To provide further evidence for how credit demand may respond to the rule, the CFPB used data from the CCIP to estimate if the NCRAs' voluntary removal of medical collections under $500 in April 2023 was associated with 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3338"/>
                        increased credit demand.
                        <SU>320</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB found that consumers who had medical collections under $500 included on their consumer reports in the first quarter of 2023 were just 0.07 percent less likely to have an inquiry in the six months after medical collections under $500 were removed from their consumer reports. This suggests that credit demand is not responsive to the removal of medical collections from consumer reports, at least in the short run. In the long-run equilibrium, the CFPB expects that consumer demand for credit may increase without the use of medical collections information in underwriting, but the CFPB does not expect that either the underlying delinquency risk of consumers with medical collections that apply for credit, or creditors' ability to predict those consumers' delinquency risk, will change under the rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>320</SU>
                             The CFPB compared the credit demand of “treated” consumers, who had medical collections under $500 included on their consumer reports in the first quarter of 2023, to the credit demand of “control” consumers, who had medical collections under $500 included on their consumer reports in the last quarter of 2022, but not in 2023. Neither group had any medical collections over $500 on their consumer reports in 2023. The treated group was directly affected by the April 2023 removal of medical collections under $500, but the control group was not, though both groups likely have similar underlying delinquency risk and credit demand. The CFPB estimated a linear regression of a binary monthly indicator describing if consumers had an inquiry on their consumer report in each of the six months between May and October 2023 on a binary indicator describing whether the consumer was in the treated or control group. The regression further included month fixed effects. The coefficient was statistically significant at the ten percent level.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Creditors may change their underwriting processes in response to the rule, which may impact the allocation of credit. The CFPB's research in the Technical Appendix analyzed inquiries that were made when a subset of medical debt information was available to creditors on consumer reports. If creditors instead knew that they could not generally use any medical debt information in their underwriting processes, they may change their underwriting models to put more weight on other variables. The CFPB expects that these changes would improve model performance relative to the baseline, and as a result, delinquency rates may be lower under the rule.</P>
                    <P>Although the CFPB does not estimate that there will be a significant number of additional seriously delinquent accounts as a result of the rule, the CFPB does not have data available that would enable it to calculate the monetary cost to creditors of potential additional delinquencies. The CFPB requested information on the dollar cost to creditors of an account that becomes seriously delinquent within two years of its origination. A researcher commenter stated that even if the probability of serious delinquency or default did not change under the rule, the Exposure at Default, or the dollar amount that the consumer is delinquent for, may be higher for credit card lenders under the rule. This would lead to a higher expected loss and reduced revenues.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB agrees that the profitability of a loan is not solely defined by whether it becomes delinquent or not. However, the other factors that determine profitability do not unambiguously point toward lower revenue for creditors due to the rule, all else equal. For example, credit card borrowers who carry a balance month-to-month (often termed revolvers), are more profitable for credit card companies than other types of consumers.
                        <SU>321</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, higher credit limits for these consumers under the rule may lead to higher revenue. If this source of higher revenue does not balance higher costs of default, the CFPB expects that credit card lenders may reduce the credit limits they provide under the rule. The CFPB does not expect this outcome to be likely because credit card lenders already do not observe most medical debts, as most medical debts are not included on consumer reports and credit card lenders do not generally explicitly ask for medical debt information on credit applications.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>321</SU>
                             Robert Adams et al., Bd. of Governors of the Fed. Rsrv. Sys., 
                            <E T="03">Credit Card Profitability</E>
                             (Sept. 9, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.federalreserve.gov/econres/notes/feds-notes/credit-card-profitability-20220909.html.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Increases in access to credit may revert over the long run if credit scoring companies change their models or creditors change their underwriting practices in response to the rule. Other information on consumer reports could receive different weights to compensate for the loss of medical collection information, which could attenuate these increases or even reduce access to credit for some consumers. However, the CFPB understands that credit scoring companies and creditors would only implement these changes if the benefit from doing so outweighed the costs of changing these models and procedures. The results in the Technical Appendix suggest that medical collections reporting does not enable creditors to make fewer delinquent loans, implying that creditors on average would not experience any decline in revenue from the absence of this information. Accordingly, the expected small (or zero) benefit of recalibrating credit scoring models and underwriting practices may lead to longer-term increases in access to credit for consumers with medical debt.</P>
                    <P>
                        Because commonly used commercial credit scoring models require a minimal number of credit tradelines to generate a score, some consumers may lose their credit scores if medical collections are removed from their consumer reports. For instance, FICO will only provide a credit score if the consumer has at least one credit account that is at least six months old and there has been activity on the credit account in the previous six months.
                        <SU>322</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Similarly, VantageScore requires at least one tradeline with any activity before providing a score.
                        <SU>323</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For consumers with few tradelines, the removal of medical collections could lead them to lose their credit score.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>322</SU>
                             Louis DeNicola, Experian, 
                            <E T="03">Improve Credit: How to Establish Credit if You're Unscoreable</E>
                             (Feb. 12, 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.experian.com/blogs/ask-experian/how-to-establish-credit-if-youre-unscoreable/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>323</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Multiple commenters, including at least one debt collector, health care provider, and an individual, agreed with this point, stating that the proposed rule would cause more people to have thin credit files.
                        <SU>324</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         One NCRA commenter estimated that over three million consumers would lose their credit score under the proposed rule, though the commenter did not list the scoring model or models that provided the basis for their estimation.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>324</SU>
                             A thin credit file is a consumer report that contains fewer than five credit accounts. Jennifer White, Experian, 
                            <E T="03">What is a Thin Credit File?</E>
                             (May 25, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.experian.com/blogs/ask-experian/what-is-a-thin-credit-file-and-how-will-it-impact-your-life/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        To provide evidence for the scale of this effect, the CFPB analyzed CCIP data from the months immediately before and after the NCRAs' voluntary removal of medical collections under $500 in April 2023. This internal analysis estimated that these reporting changes caused approximately 5,500 consumers to lose their credit score, representing 0.03 percent of consumers who had all their medical collections removed because of the April 2023 reporting changes. The median credit score for these consumers before their medical collections were removed was 581. The CFPB estimated using consumer reports from January 2024 in CFPB's CCIP as the baseline that fewer than 1,000 consumers may lose their credit scores if all medical collections were to be removed from consumer reports. The median credit score for these consumers in January 2024 was 573. Though not having a credit score can reduce access to credit, so too does having a subprime 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3339"/>
                        credit score, and the generally low baseline credit scores of affected consumers indicate that any increase in the number of consumers without credit scores under the rule may not lead to an overall reduction in consumers' access to credit. Indeed, as stated by one NCRA, generally “no credit is better than bad credit” for the purposes of accessing credit.
                        <SU>325</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Based on CFPB's analysis of the CCIP data, the CFPB expects that any reduction in access to credit because of an increase in the population of consumers without credit scores would be very small.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>325</SU>
                             Jim Akin, Experian, 
                            <E T="03">Credit Reports &amp; Scores: Is No Credit Better than Bad Credit</E>
                             (Oct. 3, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.experian.com/blogs/ask-experian/is-no-credit-better-than-bad-credit/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Despite these potential negative effects, the CFPB expects that consumers who at baseline have medical collections on their consumer reports would generally experience increased access to credit under the rule, in part caused by increases in their credit scores. Multiple commenters, including consumer advocates, at least one research institute, and at least one researcher, stated that the proposed rule would lead to higher credit scores for consumers, though a bank trade association stated that any expected gains are speculative without access to credit scoring models. The CFPB agrees that existing research cannot conclusively describe how credit scores will be impacted by the rule, but the research sheds light on potential changes.</P>
                    <P>
                        Consumers with medical collections on their consumer reports in August 2022 had credit scores that were 30 points higher in August 2023 than in August 2022, after the implementation of the voluntary removal of medical collections under $500 in April 2023; consumers without medical collections on their consumer reports in August 2022 experienced a one-point decline in their average credit scores by August 2023.
                        <SU>326</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This suggests that the removal of medical collections under $500 may have increased credit scores by at least 30 points, on average, though there may be other differences between consumers with and without medical collections on their consumer reports in August 2022 that explain part of the difference in their credit scores.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>326</SU>
                             Fredric Blavin et al., Urban Wire, Urban Inst., 
                            <E T="03">Medical Debt Was Erased from Credit Records for Most Consumers, Potentially Improving Many Americans' Lives</E>
                             (Nov. 2, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.urban.org/urban-wire/medical-debt-was-erased-credit-records-most-consumers-potentially-improving-many.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Evidence from CFPB research suggests that consumers experience a 25-point increase in their credit score, on average, after their last medical collection is removed from their consumer report.
                        <SU>327</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, the causes of the studied medical collection removals were unknown, and there may be unobservable factors that caused both the medical collection removal and increases in consumer credit scores, so these results cannot be interpreted causally.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>327</SU>
                             Alyssa Brown &amp; Eric Wilson, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Consumer Credit and the Removal of Medical Collections from Credit Reports</E>
                             (Apr. 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_consumer-credit-removal-medical-collections-from-credit-reports_2023-04.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>One researcher commenter identified several methodological limitations of the study that the commenter stated meant that the CFPB study did not capture the causal effect of removing medical collections on consumers' credit scores. While the CFPB does not agree with many of the specific methodological critiques made by the commenter, the CFPB stated in the proposal and again above that it does not see this evidence as causal and agrees with the commenter on this broader point.</P>
                    <P>
                        Other CFPB research has leveraged the recent voluntary removal of medical collections tradelines below $500, finding that consumers for whom all medical collections were below $500 prior to the changes saw their credit scores increase 20 points more than consumers who had some medical collections tradelines above $500.
                        <SU>328</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>328</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Data Spotlight: Early Impacts of Removing Low-balance medical collections</E>
                             (May 16, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/research-reports/data-spotlight-early-impacts-of-removing-low-balance-medical-collections/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        One researcher commenter stated that this conclusion could not be validated because there is no control group.
                        <SU>329</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The researcher commenter further stated that any increase in credit scores would lead to higher delinquency rates. With respect to the consequences of increases in credit scores for creditors, the CFPB does not agree that creditors will face higher delinquency rates as a result. When a credit scoring company removed medical collections from its model in 2023, the company reported that there was minimal change in predictive performance.
                        <SU>330</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>329</SU>
                             Regression discontinuity is a widely used policy evaluation tool and is described in detail in the Technical Appendix. In this context, the “control group” includes consumers whose largest medical debt is just over $500, compared to the “treatment group” of consumers whose largest medical debt is just under $500. Under the assumptions adopted in this estimation strategy, assignment to the treatment or control group is as good as random, so the credit score difference can be attributed to the medical collection reporting change.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>330</SU>
                             VantageScore, 
                            <E T="03">What was the rationale for removing Medical Debt from VantageScore 4.0?, https://www.vantagescore.com/faq/what-was-the-rationale-for-removing-medical-debt-from-vantagescore-4-0/</E>
                             (last visited May 9, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        For a sample of fewer than 3,000 consumers who had their medical debts removed from their consumer reports after their debt was relieved by a nonprofit organization, Kluender et al. (2024) found that credit scores increased by an average of just three points; however, this sample may not be representative of all consumers with medical debts, as the reported collections were much older on average than most medical collections on consumer reports.
                        <SU>331</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>331</SU>
                             Raymond Kluender et al., 
                            <E T="03">The effects of medical debt relief: evidence from two randomized experiments,</E>
                             Nat'l Bureau of Econ. Rsch. Working Paper No. 32315 (Apr. 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.nber.org/system/files/working_papers/w32315/w32315.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        VantageScore removed all medical collections from its credit scoring model in 2022 and reported that “millions of consumers may see an increase of up to 20 points in their VantageScore credit scores.” 
                        <SU>332</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB expects that consumers may experience similar increases in their credit scores from other credit scoring companies if medical debt information is removed from consumer reports under the rule. Higher credit scores can lead to higher loan approval rates and more favorable terms.
                        <SU>333</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB requested information on the dollar value to consumers of higher credit scores but did not receive relevant comments.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>332</SU>
                             VantageScore, 
                            <E T="03">VantageScore Excluding Medical Debt from Credit Scores</E>
                             (Aug. 12, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.vantagescore.com/press_releases/vantagescore-excluding-medical-debt-from-credit-scores/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>333</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">What is a credit score?</E>
                             (Aug. 28, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/ask-cfpb/what-is-a-credit-score-en-315/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters, including debt collectors, individuals, and at least one health care provider, one researcher, and one debt collector trade association, commented that the proposed rule will make it more challenging for consumers to repair their credit scores. The commenters stated that “clearing” or “resolving” medical debts from a consumer report signals that a consumer is a good credit risk. The CFPB understands that this concern is not accurate based on the way credit scores currently operate. In the past, it was possible for consumers to increase their credit scores by paying a collections item, as paid collections tradelines are typically treated as less negative than unpaid collections tradelines. However, currently there is no mechanism for 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3340"/>
                        paid medical collections to appear as a positive indicator because the NCRAs voluntarily removed paid medical collections from consumer reports in June 2022. Even before this change, the removal of a medical collection tradeline would typically be better for consumers' credit scores than a paid medical collections tradeline. Furthermore, it would typically be even better for the consumer to never have the medical collection appear on their consumer report in the first place, as under the rule.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        At baseline, debt collectors may use information from consumer reports to determine a consumer's ability to pay the collection amount and to guide what collection practices will be most cost-effective. Debt collector small entity representatives, in their submitted comments during the SBREFA process, stated that they found medical debt information on consumer reports to be relevant to estimating whether a consumer will repay a debt that is in collections.
                        <SU>334</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Under the rule, debt collectors will continue to be permitted to use medical debt information on consumer reports because debt collection is not considered a credit eligibility determination. The CFPB expects that, if medical debt information is a critical indicator of a consumer's ability to repay a debt in collections, debt collectors will continue to furnish medical debt information to consumer reporting agencies. Furthermore, debt collectors and health care providers may continue to furnish medical collections to consumer reporting agencies because consumer reporting agencies would still be able to include medical collections information on the reports that they provide for other non-credit eligibility determination purposes such as employment or insurance, or to consumers seeking a copy of their own consumer reports.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>334</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 36.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">6. Compliance Costs</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the rule, consumer reporting agencies will need to ensure that medical information is removed from consumer reports that are provided to creditors for credit eligibility determinations, which will require significant changes to existing consumer reporting systems and databases. Compliance costs will be low because furnishers have an obligation to notify consumer reporting agencies of their status,
                        <SU>335</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         thus making their removal from certain consumer reports a simple coding adjustment, which the consumer reporting agencies will already have to do to comply with several states' laws. The rule also has the potential to reduce consumer reporting agencies' costs by reducing the number of consumer disputes. Creditors may incur compliance costs to update their underwriting systems. Creditors may also need to train and staff attorneys to ensure they continue to meet their obligations to assess a consumer's ability to repay under the Truth in Lending Act and Regulation Z.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>335</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681s-2(a)(9).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Commenters noted that consumer reporting agencies may incur one-time costs to develop practices to comply with the rule. At least one credit union commenter and consumer reporting agency trade group commenter stated that removing medical debt from consumer reports would require significant changes to existing consumer reporting systems and practices. One consumer reporting agency commenter wrote that implementing the NCAP required working with furnishers and took two years to complete. The commenter stated they would require at least the same amount of time to implement the changes needed to comply with the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB agrees that some consumer reporting agencies may need to add new code to computer systems and databases such that no medical debt information is contained in consumer reports provided to creditors for credit eligibility determinations. However, some operational and compliance costs that may have otherwise been caused by the rule may have already been incurred to some degree to comply with certain State laws as well as the NCAP changes, and the consumer reporting agencies should be able to scale those coding changes nationwide. The CFPB requested data that could be used to quantify costs that may be incurred or have already been incurred by consumer reporting agencies but did not receive relevant quantitative information.</P>
                    <P>
                        A SBREFA commenter, not representing the NCRAs, posited that making the necessary changes would be a significant undertaking in terms of time and cost and that the NCRAs would have to reconfigure, test, and validate their current compliance programs. The CFPB agrees that compliance costs may be different for the three NCRAs (Equifax, Experian, and TransUnion) and Innovis compared to other consumer reporting agencies. The NCRAs and Innovis are known to provide a standardized reporting format to be used by furnishers, called Metro 2, and have organized their databases to process and screen data furnished in this format.
                        <SU>336</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Metro 2 format that the NCRAs and Innovis currently provide to furnishers may help facilitate compliance because tradeline information submitted by furnishers is already required to include codes that specify when a debt is a medical debt.
                        <SU>337</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>336</SU>
                             The CFPB does not have information on whether other consumer reporting agencies also rely on the Metro 2 format. For an overview of how NCRAs and Innovis, another CRA, receive and screen furnished data, see Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Key Dimensions and Processes in the U.S. Credit Reporting System: A review of how the nation's largest credit bureaus manage consumer data,</E>
                             at 19 (Dec. 2012), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/201212_cfpb_credit-reporting-white-paper.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>337</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 16-19.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, the three NCRAs currently do not include medical collections under $500, medical collections that are less than one year past due, or paid medical collections on any consumer report provided to third parties. The NCRAs also remove medical collections as required by State laws.
                        <SU>338</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         It is likely that the NCRAs already have systems in place to screen out any furnished medical collections that may violate these conditions. These systems may be specific to removing furnished medical collections from all consumer reports, rather than only from consumer reports provided to creditors for the purposes of a credit eligibility determination as required under the rule. It is possible that the NCRAs' and Innovis's screening process may have to be expanded such that they only selectively remove medical collections information from consumer reports as required by the rule, or they may choose to remove medical collections from all consumer reports. The CFPB does not have information that would allow it to predict how the NCRAs and Innovis would choose to comply with the rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>338</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Colo. Rev. Stat. section 5-18-109; N.Y. Pub. Health Law art. 49-A; 2024 Conn. Act 24-6; 2024 Va. Acts ch. 751.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Consumer reporting agencies that have different screening processes and databases that do not rely on the Metro 2 format may incur different compliance costs associated with their own systems, though, as noted above, some compliance costs may already have been incurred to comply with State laws, and efforts to comply with those state laws are likely replicable or scalable for a nationwide change. Consumer reporting agencies may incur costs to screen medical information provided by such furnishers, or for which there is no medical information furnisher within the meaning of FCRA section 623(a)(9), from consumer reports provided to creditors for credit eligibility 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3341"/>
                        determinations. The CFPB requested comment and information on this potential compliance cost, general operational and compliance costs, and other possible one-time costs for consumer reporting agencies, but it did not receive relevant information.
                    </P>
                    <P>The U.S. Chamber of Commerce and an individual commenter stated that determining which debts are “medical” could be complex and that any broadening to include debts owed to third-party lenders would result in debts not connected to the provision of health care being removed from consumer reports. The CFPB is not broadening the rule to include debts owed to third-party lenders, however, and there is no indication that consumer reporting agencies currently have difficulty determining which debts are “medical.”</P>
                    <P>
                        The removal of medical collections information from consumer reports provided to creditors for the purpose of credit eligibility determinations may reduce consumer reporting agencies' costs by reducing the number of accounts that consumer reporting agencies must screen or conduct accuracy checks for, and the number of consumer disputes that they may need to resolve. Consumer reporting agencies regularly process significant amounts of data. For example, the NCRAs receive information on over 1 billion tradelines each month and must accurately compile this information for each consumer.
                        <SU>339</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Under the FCRA, consumers have the right to dispute inaccuracies on their consumer reports, and consumer reporting agencies are obligated to investigate and resolve disputes if necessary.
                        <SU>340</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This dispute resolution process imposes costs on consumer reporting agencies. A CFPB analysis shows that 5.7 percent of reported medical collections tradelines have had a dispute flag, much higher than the rate of dispute flags for credit cards and student loans.
                        <SU>341</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         One NCRA commenter reported that their data shows that while consumers dispute medical collections tradelines more often than other collections tradelines, they do so at a similar rate to consumers disputing other delinquent non-collections tradelines.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>339</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Key Dimensions and Processes in the U.S. Credit Reporting System: A review of how the nation's largest credit bureaus manage consumer data,</E>
                             at 21 (Dec. 2012), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/201212_cfpb_credit-reporting-white-paper.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>340</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1681i(a)(1)(A).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>341</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Paid and Low-Balance Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Reports</E>
                             (July 27, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/research-reports/paid-and-low-balance-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>To the extent that medical collections tradelines contribute to the number of disputes that consumer reporting agencies must address and, if possible, resolve, removing medical collections information from consumer reports may reduce consumer reporting agencies' costs associated with addressing disputes and dispute resolution. However, the CFPB does not have data to estimate the cost reduction arising from dispute management that consumer reporting agencies may experience if medical debt information is prohibited from appearing on most consumer reports provided to creditors. The CFPB requested data to quantify these potential cost-reducing benefits but did not receive relevant information.</P>
                    <P>One credit union commenter wrote that consumer reporting agencies may provide medical debt information in violation of the rule, which puts the recipient creditors at legal risk if they then rely on that information for credit eligibility determinations. The CFPB, however, has no reason to believe that consumer reporting agencies will fail to comply with their obligations under § 1022.38 to exclude medical debt information from consumer reports furnished to creditors, and assuming such compliance on the part of consumer reporting agencies, there will generally be no costs to creditors arising from litigation concerning medical information when they rely on consumer reports from consumer reporting agencies.</P>
                    <P>One credit union trade association commented that, for creditors that use information beyond consumer reports, there will be costs associated with excluding medical information. At least one credit union commenter and one credit union trade association commenter stated that financial institutions would incur significant costs to update their underwriting systems, consumer reporting systems, and practices, and that there is a risk of errors during the removal process which could lead to further complications and disputes. The SBA Office of Advocacy commented that it may be challenging for creditors to prove whether medical debt information was disclosed by consumers themselves, and making these determinations would require training and staffing attorneys.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB agrees that creditors may incur compliance costs from the rule. Creditors will need to ensure that they are not unintentionally using medical information in making lending determinations in circumstances that fall outside the exceptions to the creditor prohibition. The CFPB has determined that costs related to ensuring that no medical information is unintentionally used in lending determinations should be minor to the extent that creditors currently only utilize medical debt information provided through consumer reports. In such cases, so long as the consumer reporting agency providing the consumer report has complied with the rule, no medical debt information would be conveyed to the creditor, unless the consumer reporting agency has reason to believe the creditor intends to use the medical debt information in a manner not prohibited by the creditor prohibition. Creditors who use consumer reports may have additional costs if they utilize consumer reports from which the consumer reporting agency has not excluded medical debt information in compliance with § 1022.38. In such cases creditors would need to employ systems and staff time to identify and exclude that information. But as explained above, the CFPB has no reason to believe that consumer reporting agencies will fail to comply with their obligations under § 1022.38.</P>
                    <P>In addition, creditors that rely on information outside of consumer reports will face compliance costs related to identifying medical information from other sources and excluding it from their underwriting (except as permitted by an exception to the creditor prohibition). The CFPB does not have data available to quantify the extent or dollar amount of any of these compliance costs, and requested comment on this issue but did not receive relevant data or estimates.</P>
                    <P>Commenters including health care providers, a researcher, debt collectors, credit unions, the U.S. Chamber of Commerce, and the SBA Office of Advocacy commented that the proposed rule would create conflicting obligations for creditors under the Truth in Lending Act (TILA) and Regulation Z, particularly with respect to the ability-to-repay provisions. They stated that it would be more difficult to respond to ability-to-repay laws under the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        The rule, however, allows creditors to obtain and use medical information to comply with applicable requirements of local, State, or Federal laws, including ability-to-repay laws, and provides an example of how a creditor can consider consumers' self-reported medical debt information to comply with such laws. The CFPB thus concludes that creditors can comply with both the rule and the requirements of ability-to-repay laws.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3342"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>One credit union commented that, by complying with the proposed rule, they would be at risk of losing a member with medical debt who receives credit from the credit union that they would not have received otherwise and who feels that they were not adequately educated or protected. The CFPB does not expect that consumers with medical debt would be provided credit they cannot afford under the rule.</P>
                    <P>One bank trade association expressed confusion about including certain types of medical payments in underwriting. They stated that transaction data includes payments to medical providers, and they were unclear if this information could be used by creditors for the purpose of credit eligibility determinations under the proposed rule. The CFPB has permitted the use of medical information that is included in the transaction information of an account by creditors for the purpose of credit eligibility determinations in the final rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Inaccurate Billing</HD>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB understands that many medical collections included on consumer reports reflect incorrect billing, including debts that were already paid by either the consumer or by their insurance company, or debts that are not owed by the consumer. Nearly half of consumers who made formal complaints to the CFPB about medical debt collection in 2021 reported that they did not owe the debt, and many consumers did not know that they had outstanding medical debt until they discovered a collections tradeline on their consumer report.
                        <SU>342</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>342</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Complaint Bulletin: Medical billing and collection issues described in consumer complaints</E>
                             (Apr. 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_complaint-bulletin-medical-billing_report_2022-04.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Numerous commenters, including individuals, debt collectors, health care providers, and health care trade associations, disputed the prevalence of inaccurate medical billing as described in the proposed rule. These commenters stated that most patient accounts are billed accurately and that the CFPB's complaint database, which was cited as evidence of inaccurate medical billing in the proposed rule, does not reflect health care provider perspectives. Multiple individuals, debt collectors, health care providers, NCRAs, and debt collection trade associations commented that most medical bills are accurate and that there is no evidence that bills are inaccurate. One debt collection trade association commented that disputes are generally the result of conflicts between health insurers and consumers, so the fault for inaccurate medical billing lies with health insurers rather than with debt collectors. An NCRA commented that medical collections are disputed less frequently than other collections, and when disputed, are verified at higher rates.</P>
                    <P>
                        One debt collector commented that consumer reporting agencies already have methods for consumers to dispute and pursue legal remedies for inaccurate data. A financial trade association noted that the proposed rule referenced a study in which, of the 43 percent of consumers that reported receiving a medical bill that they believed contained an error, 79 percent took actions to dispute the mistake with their insurer or health care provider.
                        <SU>343</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Seventy percent of those disputes led to a successful resolution, which the commenter interpreted as evidence that there are already measures in place within the health care system to address erroneous billing.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>343</SU>
                             Karen Pollitz &amp; Kaye Pestaina, Kaiser Fam. Found., 
                            <E T="03">Could Consumer Assistance be Helpful to People Facing Medical Debt?</E>
                             (July 14, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.kff.org/policy-watch/could-consumer-assistance-be-helpful-to-people-facing-medical-debt/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>At least one consumer advocate stated that, citing public statements from medical billing advocate groups, 60 to 80 percent of hospital medical bills have errors, with multiple individuals, research centers, consumer advocates, and law firms stating that inaccuracies in medical billing data are pervasive. At least one consumer advocate cited survey results that found most consumers have received a medical bill they believe to have errors.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB acknowledges that its complaint database is centered around consumers' negative experiences with medical debt, and the database cannot provide an estimate of the share of medical collections that result from inaccurate billing. However, even though there are existing mechanisms for consumers to dispute inaccurate medical bills with health care providers, debt collectors, and consumer reporting agencies, consumers will benefit from not needing to dispute these debts under the rule in order to avoid inaccurate negative information on their credit reports.</P>
                    <P>At baseline, consumers may pay debts they do not owe to remove them from their consumer report. The CFPB does not have information available to estimate how many medical debts are paid despite containing inaccurate information but expects that fewer of these erroneous debts will be paid under the final rule. The CFPB requested comment and submissions of data, or any other relevant information, that may be helpful in estimating this reduction in erroneous debts paid but did not receive data or evidence.</P>
                    <P>At least one debt collector commented that consumer privacy would be harmed under the proposal because many entities would need to handle sensitive information. The commenter did not explain why this would be the case. In fact, the CFPB expects that fewer entities would need to handle sensitive information under the rule because medical information would no longer be provided to creditors on consumer reports.</P>
                    <P>A researcher commenter stated that consumer privacy would be harmed by increased use of litigation under the rule, because litigation can lead to the formation of public records, unlike consumer reporting. The CFPB agrees that this is a potential cost of the rule but expects that the rule will not greatly increase the number of consumers that are subject to litigation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">8. Alternatives Considered</HD>
                    <P>Government officials and consumer advocate commenters recommended extending the rule to include medical credit cards, medical financing plans, and medical information on general-purpose credit cards. Under this alternative construction of the rule, consumer reporting agencies would not be permitted to provide this information to creditors, and creditors could not use this information in their credit eligibility determinations. One consumer advocate commented that, in addition, the CFPB should prohibit common features of medical payment products that can lead to consumer harm, including deferred interest, charging for services before they are rendered, and issuing payment products to consumers whose insurance would otherwise pay or who qualify for financial assistance. One government official suggested that this alternative may be preferable in part because card issuers' merchant category code system includes categories that would be similar to those needed to label medical information as such, simplifying the process by which creditors would be required to identify medical information.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB's own research has shown that medical payment products can pose financial risk to consumers.
                        <SU>344</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB is working with the U.S. 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3343"/>
                        Departments of Health and Human Services and Treasury to monitor the relationships between financial institutions and health care providers and gather relevant information.
                        <SU>345</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB has also considered the use of medical transaction information in credit eligibility determinations but understands that most creditors do not use granular transaction data. The CFPB has determined that there is not yet substantial evidence that the inclusion of medical payment products information on consumer reports, or its use in underwriting, leads to consumer harm and has chosen not to include this information in the rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>344</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Medical Credit Cards and Financing Plans</E>
                             (May 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_medical-credit-cards-and-financing-plans_2023-05.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>345</SU>
                             Lorelei Salas, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Ensuring consumers aren't pushed into medical payment products</E>
                             (June 18, 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/about-us/blog/ensuring-consumers-arent-pushed-into-medical-payment-products/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Government officials and consumer advocates recommended extending the rule to consumer reports used for employment and tenant screening, rather than limiting the prohibition to medical information provided on consumer reports for the purpose of credit eligibility determinations as proposed.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB does not have insight into the use of medical information by employers or landlords, but it did study its use by creditors to deny access to credit through its CCIP, as discussed in part VII.E.5. This evidence motivates the rule's focus on consumer reports provided to creditors for the purpose of credit eligibility determinations. The CFPB has determined that while these proposals might have additional benefits for consumers, they are beyond the scope of this rulemaking.</P>
                    <P>Commenters including a debt collector trade association and multiple credit union trade associations stated that the CFPB should provide guidance to, or increase its enforcement of, relevant entities instead of issuing the final rule. The SBA Office of Advocacy commented that CFPB should consider using enforcement actions with respect to businesses that furnish inaccurate medical debt information instead of the proposed rule. A debt collector trade association commented that the CFPB should provide guidance to medical debt collectors covering the inclusion of financial assistance policies in debt collection communications under the safe harbor provisions of Regulation F. The commenter also stated that the CFPB should better enforce the FCRA consumer dispute provisions to ensure the accuracy of medical debt reporting and should work with the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services to provide information about financial assistance to consumers who may qualify. One credit union trade association commented that the CFPB should provide a safe harbor provision for credit unions that unintentionally possess medical debt information. A second credit union trade association commented that the CFPB should issue guidance to financial institutions to help them better understand the predictive value of medical debt or permit lenders to use medical debt as long as it is assigned a lower weight in credit eligibility determinations.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB has determined that these proposed alternatives may be marginal improvements toward the intended goals of the rulemaking but would not fully realize the full scope of the rule's benefits for consumers. As such, it has decided not to implement these suggestions.</P>
                    <P>Multiple commenters suggested alternatives that are beyond the jurisdiction of the CFPB. A debt collector trade association commented that it would be preferable to target health plan cost-sharing and policies that impact consumers' ability to pay large bills from any source, not just from health care. A debt collector commented that the CFPB should provide financial assistance programs, improve health insurance coverage, and simplify billing processes. A different debt collector stated that the CFPB should encourage health insurers to improve their health care coverage, so consumers incur less medical debt in the first place. A credit union trade association stated that the CFPB should require health care providers to require transparency in medical pricing and billing.</P>
                    <P>These alternatives may achieve some of the goals of the rulemaking, but the CFPB does not have the regulatory authority to implement them.</P>
                    <P>Commenters suggested that the CFPB conduct additional research before finalizing the proposed rule to evaluate whether the rule is necessary. A debt collector trade association commented that the CFPB could evaluate the benefit of the No Surprises Act after it has been fully implemented. A debt collector stated that the CFPB should not finalize the rule before it studies the impacts of the voluntary NCRA reporting changes, while another debt collector stated that the CFPB should first study how the marketplace responds to credit scoring models that reduce the weight that medical collection information receives.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB shares the commenters' interest in ensuring the rule is supported by research. The evidence in the Technical Appendix shows that the inclusion of medical information on consumer reports reduces consumer access to credit without lowering creditors' delinquency risk. As such, the CFPB does not believe that additional research is needed.</P>
                    <P>Two debt collectors commented that the CFPB should differentiate between consumers who can and cannot pay under the rule. One debt collector recommended making this differentiation by consumers that are insured versus uninsured, while the other recommended finding alternative measures to differentiate between consumers that are unwilling to pay versus those that are unable to pay.</P>
                    <P>Information about consumers' insured status or that specifically addresses consumers' ability to pay is not commonly available on consumer reports. Including insurance information on consumer reports would impose substantial costs on consumer reporting agencies and on health insurers that would presumably be responsible for furnishing health insurance information, and it would exacerbate the privacy concerns that this rule aims to address. Including information on consumer ability to pay may pose even more challenges as many consumers' incomes and financial responsibilities are not included on consumer reports, and numerous entities that do not commonly furnish to consumer reporting agencies, such as landlords and employers, would be required to begin doing so. This would also not resolve the privacy concerns that this rule aims to address. As such, the CFPB has decided not to differentiate between groups of consumers in the rule.</P>
                    <P>A debt collector commented that the CFPB should allow for positive consumer reporting of medical debts, such that consumers that make payments on medical bills would have those payments reported as positive information demonstrating an ability to pay debts.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB understands that, at baseline, most medical debts are furnished to consumer reporting agencies by debt collectors rather than by health care providers. If consumers are more likely to make on-time payments to health care providers before the debt is placed with a debt collector, this would impose costly furnishing requirements on health care providers. It would also impose furnishing costs on debt collectors that, at baseline, often only furnish medical debts a few times, as discussed above. The CFPB does not have any evidence that paid medical collection items are treated positively in any lending models, and reporting positive medical 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3344"/>
                        payment information also would only add to the privacy concerns that this rule seeks to address.
                    </P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that the CFPB should allow medical debt to remain on consumer reports but require that it is given less weight than other debts.</P>
                    <P>It would be impracticable for the CFPB to dictate a precise weight that creditors may or may not give to medical debts in their underwriting or how credit scoring companies weight their algorithms. In addition, it is unclear to what debts the medical debt weights should be compared. Furthermore, reducing the weight on medical debts would not resolve the privacy concerns that this rule aims to address.</P>
                    <P>A commenter stated that the CFPB should prevent health care providers and debt collectors from reporting medical debts as long as the consumer makes minimum payments.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB understands that, at baseline, most medical debt furnishers use consumer reporting as a mechanism to induce payment. Therefore, it is unlikely that consumers making minimum payments on their medical debt would have it furnished to a consumer reporting agency. This suggested alternative to the rule would not achieve the same benefit to consumers as would the rule.</P>
                    <P>A debt collector commented that the CFPB should implement a waiting period before medical debt can be reported and remove paid medical debt from consumer reports instead of finalizing the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>The NCRAs have implemented these changes voluntarily, so limiting the rule to these changes would not benefit consumers relative to the current baseline.</P>
                    <P>A credit union trade association commented that the CFPB should require medical debt furnishers to ensure the accuracy of the information they provide to consumer reporting agencies.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB agrees with this comment and issued similar guidance to medical debt collectors in October 2024.
                        <SU>346</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>346</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">CFPB Takes Aim at Double Billing and Inflated Charges in Medical Debt Collection</E>
                             (Oct. 1, 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/about-us/newsroom/cfpb-takes-aim-at-double-billing-and-inflated-charges-in-medical-debt-collection/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Specific Impacts on Consumers in Rural Areas</HD>
                    <P>
                        The costs and benefits to consumers of the rule will likely be the same, on average, for consumers regardless of where they reside. However, consumers who have outstanding medical debt may be more likely to be affected by the rule. Research by the CFPB and others shows that medical collections on consumer reports are more common for consumers who reside in rural areas, compared to those who reside in non-rural areas.
                        <SU>347</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Therefore, in the aggregate, the rule may have a disproportionate impact on consumers in rural areas. Additionally, to the extent that the rule will lead to consumers being denied services by a health care provider, that cost could be greater for consumers in rural areas, where there are often fewer options for medical care.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>347</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Matthew Liu et al., Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Consumer Finances in Rural Appalachia</E>
                             (Sept. 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/research-reports/consumer-finances-in-rural-appalachia/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters, including numerous debt collectors, multiple health care providers, at least one health care administration trade association, at least one debt collector trade association, and at least one individual, stated that the proposed rule may decrease access to health care in rural settings. At least one health care provider trade association commenter and at least one individual commenter stated that small rural health care providers are at a disadvantage at baseline and would face more challenges under the proposed rule. Commenters including multiple health care providers, at least one health care administration trade association, several debt collectors, at least one debt collector trade association, and at least one researcher, stated that the proposed rule may lead to increased closures among providers in rural areas and may result in patients needing to travel longer distances for treatment, or may force them to use emergency rooms for non-emergency care. At least one individual commenter, at least one debt collector trade association commenter, and at least one health care provider commenter cited that over 700 rural hospitals are already at risk of closure, and more than half of the 700 face an immediate risk of closure.
                        <SU>348</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         More than one health care provider commenter stated that hospital closures in rural areas will lead to worse health outcomes or more deaths. At least one consumer advocate commenter stated that closures of health care facilities lead to longer travel distances for consumers in rural areas, and that for some consumers, longer travel times can increase unpaid time off from work and paying for childcare, in addition to the cost of health care received.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>348</SU>
                             Molly Gamble, 
                            <E T="03">703 hospitals at risk of closure, state by state,</E>
                             Becker's Hosp. Rev. (Aug. 5, 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.beckershospitalreview.com/finance/703-hospitals-at-risk-of-closure-state-by-state.html?utm_medium=email&amp;utm_content=newsletter.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB does not expect that the rule will result in increased closures of rural health care providers. The CFPB expects that rural health care providers would only close if their revenue decreases significantly. As discussed above, the rule is unlikely to substantially impact revenue for health care providers in the aggregate, as most health care revenue does not consist of consumers paying their bills after receiving treatment and the CFPB does not expect that there will be significantly reduced incentive to pay medical debts as a result of the rule. Additionally, the CFPB does not expect rural providers' revenue to be differentially impacted by the rule. Therefore, the CFPB does not expect increased closures of rural health care providers and significant changes to access to health care in rural settings.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Specific Impacts on Depository Institutions With $10 Billion or Less in Assets</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB does not expect that the rule will have significantly different impacts on depository institutions with $10 billion or less in assets, compared to larger institutions. The CFPB concludes that the costs to creditors, described above, would apply equally to these smaller institutions.</P>
                    <P>Several commenters, including at least one credit union trade association and at least one bank trade association, highlighted that small institutions, including some credit unions, lack the same risk mitigation resources as larger institutions. These commenters stated that the proposed rule would have a disparate negative impact on smaller institutions in terms of risk mitigation. At least one credit union trade association commenter stated that the proposal would likely lead to a scenario where small lenders decide the risk is too great and leave the lending market. At least one bank trade association commenter predicted that community banks would need to reduce their lending the most, leading to competitive losses and operational and compliance costs under the proposed rule. The commenter did not provide evidence for why community banks would be disproportionately impacted by the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB finds in the Technical Appendix that the use of medical collections information in underwriting does not reduce the delinquency risk of accounts originated to consumers with reported medical collections relative to consumers with unreported medical collections, and therefore expects that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3345"/>
                        removing medical collection information from consumer reports will not reduce the ability of institutions to assess delinquency risk. The CFPB does not expect the impact to vary by the size of institution. Thus, the CFPB does not expect significantly different impacts on depository institutions with $10 billion or less in assets.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Specific Impacts on Access to Credit</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB discusses impacts on access to credit in detail above. In brief, the CFPB expects that some consumers will lose their credit score, although it is unclear whether this will decrease these consumers' access to credit relative to only having medical collections tradelines. Other consumers will likely see increased access to credit due in part to increased credit scores.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Regulatory Flexibility Act Analysis</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) generally requires the CFPB to conduct an initial regulatory flexibility analysis (IRFA) and a final regulatory flexibility analysis (FRFA) and convene a panel to consult with small entity representatives before proposing a rule subject to notice-and-comment requirements,
                        <SU>349</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         unless it certifies that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
                        <SU>350</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB provided its analysis to “describe the impact of the rule on small entities” in the NPRM and requested public comment.
                        <SU>351</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>349</SU>
                             5 U.S.C. 603, 609(b), (d)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>350</SU>
                             5 U.S.C. 605(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>351</SU>
                             5 U.S.C. 603(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In the NPRM, the CFPB Director certified that the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of the RFA. Thus, neither an IRFA nor a Small Business Advisory Review Panel (SBREFA Panel) was required. Nonetheless, the CFPB decided in an abundance of caution to include the proposed rule in the SBREFA Panel convened to address a number of topics under the FCRA on October 18 and 19, 2023, and to provide an analysis consistent with the requirements of an IRFA. In response to the NPRM, the CFPB received comments relevant to the IRFA, which are reflected in the FRFA set forth in part VIII.B.</P>
                    <P>The Small Business Review Panel for this rule is discussed in part VIII.A. Among other things, the FRFA contains a statement of the significant issues raised by the public comments in response to the IRFA, a statement of the assessment of the agency of such issues, a statement of any changes made in the proposed rule as a result of such comments, the response of the CFPB to comments filed by the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration in response to the proposed rule, and estimates of the number of small entities that may be subject to the rule and descriptions of the impact on those entities. The FRFA for this rule is set forth in part VIII.B.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Small Business Review Panel</HD>
                    <P>Under section 609(b) of the RFA, as amended by SBREFA and the CFPA, the CFPB must seek, prior to publishing the IRFA, information from representatives of small entities that may potentially be affected by its proposed rule to assess the potential impacts of that rule on such small entities. The CFPB complied with this requirement when it included the proposed rule in the Small Business Review Panel convened on October 18 and 19, 2023.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Final Regulatory Flexibility Analysis</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Statement of the Need for, and Objectives of, the Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        The creditor prohibition in section 604(g)(2) of the FCRA reflects Congress's intention to protect the privacy of sensitive medical information.
                        <SU>352</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The creditor prohibition generally prevents creditors from considering medical information pertaining to a consumer in determining the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit. As described in more detail in part IV.B, Congress allowed certain Agencies, and later the CFPB, to make exceptions to this prohibition, consistent with the congressional intent “to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes.” 
                        <SU>353</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In 2005, the Federal financial agencies and the National Credit Union Administration promulgated the financial information exception, restated in the CFPB's regulations at § 1022.30(d), which allows a creditor to consider certain medical information, including medical debt information and information relating to expenses, assets, and collateral, pertaining to a consumer in crediting decisions, provided the conditions of a three-part test are met.
                        <SU>354</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB has determined that an exception for creditors to consider this type of medical information for credit eligibility determinations is not “necessary and appropriate” to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, or other needs, nor is an exception consistent with the intent of the creditor prohibition to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes as required for an exception under FCRA section 604(g)(5). The CFPB has also determined that an exception for creditors to consider medical information relating to a consumer's expenses, assets, and collateral would not meet the requirements for an exception under FCRA section 604(g)(5). As a result, the CFPB is removing the financial information exception and limiting the circumstances under which consumer reporting agencies can include medical collections information in consumer reports provided to creditors. Further details may be found in parts I.B and IV.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>352</SU>
                             FCRA section 604(g)(2) (15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(2)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>353</SU>
                             FCRA section 604(g)(5) (15 U.S.C. 1681b(g)(5)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>354</SU>
                             This background and the three-part test are discussed in part III.B.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The primary objectives of this rule are to enhance consumer privacy with respect to sensitive medical information and enable creditors to make appropriate credit decisions based on accurate information, in line with the purposes of the FCRA. The CFPB is authorized under section 604(g)(5) of the FCRA to promulgate exceptions to the creditor prohibition “that are determined to be necessary and appropriate to protect legitimate operational, transactional, risk, consumer, and other needs . . . consistent with the intent of [the prohibition] to restrict the use of medical information for inappropriate purposes.” The CFPB also has authority under section 621(e) of the FCRA to issue regulations to carry out the purposes and objectives of, and to prevent evasions of or to facilitate compliance with, the FCRA. A discussion of the background leading to the rule may be found in part I, and a discussion of the legal authority relevant to this rule may be found in part III.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Significant Issues Raised by Public Comments in Response to the IRFA, a Statement of the Assessment of the Agency of Such Issues, and a Statement of Any Changes Made in the Proposed Rule as a Result of Such Comments</HD>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB received few comments that were explicitly in response to the IRFA of the proposed rule. Commenters, including small entity representatives in the SBREFA process and debt collectors, stated that the SBREFA process was rushed and that they did not have enough information to provide input on the proposed rule. Commenters also stated that some types of entities that would be affected by the proposed rule were not considered in the IRFA, such as nonbank lenders, health care 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3346"/>
                        providers, and payors. A debt collector trade organization stated that initial compliance costs would be about $100,000 for each of its member debt collectors, most of which, according to the commenter, are small entities. Several commenters, including debt collectors and a debt collector trade association, stated that the CFPB should consider some exemptions or longer implementation timelines.
                    </P>
                    <P>In response to these comments, the CFPB respectfully disagrees that the SBREFA process was rushed or that participants needed more information—the proposal relevant to this rulemaking was straightforward, the CFPB gave participants an outline summary of the proposal one month in advance of hosting the panel and gave participants an opportunity to provide written feedback three weeks after the panel. Additionally, with respect to the IRFA, the CFPB has revised its estimate of the number of small entities that may be affected by the rule to include debt collectors and health care providers in addition to the consumer reporting agencies and creditors listed in the IRFA. In its discussion of projected reporting, recordkeeping and compliance costs, the CFPB includes estimates provided by commenters. The CFPB also includes a discussion of the alternatives proposed by commenters in its description of significant alternatives to the rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Response of the Agency to Any Comments Filed by the Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Administration in Response to the Proposed Rule, and a Detailed Statement of Any Change Made to the Proposed Rule in the Final Rule as a Result of the Comments</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Chief Counsel for Advocacy of the Small Business Association (Advocacy) provided comments on several aspects of the proposal, which generally echoed comments received from both small and large industry entities. Advocacy stated that the rule will significantly impact small entities involved in debt collection and that the CFPB has underestimated the number of small entities that may be impacted. Advocacy stated that the CFPB did not provide sufficient information to meet the requirements of a certification of no significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, and that the IRFA did not contain economic information on the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other compliance costs. Advocacy also commented that the rule will increase litigation, causing harm to small entities and consumers because litigation is costly. Advocacy stated that the rule will lead to conflicts with other laws, including TILA and Regulation Z, as well as applicable State laws. Furthermore, Advocacy stated that the rule is redundant in light of changes to industry practices and State laws. In their comment, Advocacy stated that the CFPB should issue clarifications on which laws are controlling so as to mitigate litigation risks for small entities, including creditors who have ability-to-repay requirements under TILA and Regulation Z, and debt collectors who operate in states with their own medical debt collection laws. Advocacy also stated, based on feedback from small entity representatives during the SBREFA Panel, that the cost of credit for small entities may be affected by the rule because removing medical collections from consumer reports may increase credit scores and cause creditors to increase their underwriting standards.
                        <SU>355</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Finally, Advocacy suggests that the CFPB provide guidance to small entities for complying with the rule, and develop a mechanism to ensure that small entities are not penalized for not including medical debt in their ability-to-repay determinations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>355</SU>
                             Advocacy also commented that the cost of credit for small entities will increase because of the “written instructions” provision. The “written instructions” provision would specify what is needed to establish a permissible purpose for an entity to obtain a consumer report pursuant to the written instructions of the consumer. While the “written instructions” provision was included in the topics under the FCRA that were discussed during at the SBREFA Panel convened, it is not included in this rulemaking.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In this FRFA, the CFPB has considered indirect impacts to small entities that are health care providers and debt collectors, in addition to the direct impacts to consumer reporting agencies and creditors considered in the IRFA.
                        <SU>356</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         By examining all credit inquiries made between July 2023 and December 2023 contained in the CCIP, the CFPB determined that most small creditors receive few applications from consumers with medical collections that appear on their consumer reports. In order for the rule to create a significant reduction in revenue, consumers with medical collections would have to experience unreasonably high default rates. Thus, the CFPB has determined that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities directly impacted by the rule, specifically, consumer reporting agencies and creditors. The rule will not directly impact the behavior of medical debt holders such as health care providers and debt collectors since the rule will not affect their ability to furnish medical debt information to consumer reporting agencies. However, to the extent that furnishing becomes a less effective means of inducing payment, health care providers and debt collectors may incur costs associated with their use of other collection mechanisms as well as potential reductions in revenue. For these reasons, the CFPB acknowledges the possibility of indirect economic impacts on small entities that are health care providers or debt collectors. In some parts of the FRFA, the CFPB references the impact analysis part of this rule and presents quantitative estimates when available, including estimates provided by commenters in response to the proposed rule. In addition, the CFPB has revised its estimates of the number of small entities that are creditors that will be affected by the rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>356</SU>
                             By considering impacts on small entities not directly regulated by the rule, the CFPB has gone beyond the statutory requirements for a FRFA. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             5 U.S.C. 604(a)(4)-(5) (calling for analysis focused on “small entities 
                            <E T="03">to which the rule will apply</E>
                            ” and “small entities 
                            <E T="03">which will be subject to the requirement[s]</E>
                            ” of the rule) (emphasis added); 
                            <E T="03">see also Mid-Tex Elec. Coop., Inc.</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">FERC,</E>
                             773 F.2d 327, 342 (D.C. Cir. 1985) (“Congress envisioned that the relevant `economic impact' [under the Regulatory Flexibility Act] was the impact of compliance with the proposed rule on regulated small entities.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>With regard to the harm to consumers and small entities from litigation, the CFPB has considered the extent to which litigation might increase as a means of inducing payment of medical debt under the rule. As discussed in part VII.E.4, debt collection litigation is already a collection mechanism used at baseline, and the rule might increase debt collection litigation. Increased debt collection litigation may be most likely to occur in States that have not already passed laws prohibiting medical collections from appearing in consumer reports, and also for small entities collecting on medical debts that are over $500.</P>
                    <P>
                        In the proposed rule, the CFPB included an example in proposed § 1022.30(e)(6) to direct creditors and card issuers that are creditors regarding how they may use medical information provided by the consumer in compliance with TILA and Regulation Z, as set forth in § 1022.30(e)(1)(ii), for purposes of compliance with the ability-to-repay rule under § 1026.43(c) for closed-end mortgages, the repayment ability rule under § 1026.34(a)(4) for open-end, high-cost mortgages, and the ability-to-pay rule under § 1026.51(a) for open-end (not home-secured) credit card accounts. With respect to Advocacy's comment that the rule is redundant in light of changes to State 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3347"/>
                        laws and industry practices, the CFPB's expectation is that the rule will provide clarity and uniformity in the treatment of medical collections on consumer reports across the US. The rule will also complement the voluntary NCRA changes that removed medical collections from consumer reports under $500 as well as paid medical collections, which are industry practices that apply only to medical collections furnished to the NCRAs and can be reversed at any time.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB acknowledges that it is possible that underwriting standards might tighten if the rule causes credit scores to increase for a substantial fraction of the population. However, the CFPB's recent research shows that only 5 percent of consumers still have medical debt on their consumer reports at baseline.
                        <SU>357</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB expects that any increase in credit scores may represent a more accurate reflection of credit risk, and that it is unlikely that creditors will raise underwriting standards sufficiently to cause a significant impact on the cost of credit for small entities.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>357</SU>
                             Ryan Sandler &amp; Zachary Blizard, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Recent Changes in Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Records Data Point,</E>
                             at 3 (Mar. 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_recent-changes-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports_2024-03.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Description and, Where Feasible, Provision of an Estimate of the Number of Small Entities to Which the Rule Will Apply</HD>
                    <P>The rule will directly affect small entities that participate as creditors as that term is defined in section 702 of the ECOA, except for small entities excluded from coverage by section 1029 of the CFPA, because it will prohibit them from considering certain medical information in their underwriting decisions. This information has been available to creditors under the financial information exception. In limiting the circumstances under which medical debt information can be included on consumer reports, the rule will also directly affect some small consumer reporting agencies. Specifically, consumer reporting agencies that currently provide medical debt information to creditors for credit eligibility determinations will generally no longer be able to do so.</P>
                    <P>
                        For the purposes of assessing the impacts of the rule on small entities, “small entities” are defined in the RFA to include small businesses, small nonprofit organizations, and small government jurisdictions.
                        <SU>358</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A “small business” is determined by application of Small Business Administration (SBA) regulations in reference to the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) classification and size standards.
                        <SU>359</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>358</SU>
                             5 U.S.C. 601(6)
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>359</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             U.S. Small Bus. Admin., 
                            <E T="03">Table of size standards, https://www.sba.gov/document/support-table-size-standards</E>
                             (last visited May 13, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        There are several NAICS industries with small entities that may be subject to this rule. Consumer reporting agencies receive and assemble various types of consumer information and provide consumer reports to third parties for various purposes. Consumer reporting agencies are mostly contained within the NAICS industry “credit bureaus” (561450). However, not all entities within this NAICS code are consumer reporting agencies.
                        <SU>360</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, some consumer reporting agencies specialize in providing consumer reports to facilitate other operations, such as employment screening, check and bank account screening, and insurance, and not for credit purposes.
                        <SU>361</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Many small consumer reporting agencies will not be affected by the rule, either because they do not currently furnish consumer reports containing medical debt information or because, under the rule, consumer reports containing medical debt information may continue to be provided for purposes other than credit eligibility, such as employment screening or insurance.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>360</SU>
                             NAICS 561450 also includes mercantile credit reporting bureaus. There may also be a small number of consumer reporting agencies classified under Investigation and Personal Background Check Services (NAICS 561611).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>361</SU>
                             An overview of the types of consumer reporting agencies may be found at: Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">List of consumer reporting companies, https://www.consumerfinance.gov/consumer-tools/credit-reports-and-scores/consumer-reporting-companies/</E>
                             (last visited Apr. 15, 2024). This list is not intended to be all-inclusive and does not cover every company in the industry.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Creditors potentially directly affected by the rule are contained in multiple NAICS categories. These include depository institutions, such as commercial banks and credit unions, and non-depository institutions, such as mortgage and non-mortgage loan brokers, as well as firms that are primarily engaged in sales lending, consumer lending, or real estate credit. Creditors that currently use medical information related to debts, expenses, assets, and collateral in connection with a determination of a consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit will be directly affected by the rule.</P>
                    <P>Medical debt holders, which include health care providers and debt buyers, may also be indirectly affected by the rule. The rule will not affect these entities' ability to furnish information to consumer reporting agencies. However, because consumer reporting agencies will generally not be able to include medical debt on consumer reports provided to creditors for credit eligibility determinations, the rule may reduce the effectiveness of furnishing as a collection mechanism. Health care providers are broadly contained in the NAICS subsector 62. Debt collectors are contained in several NAICS categories, and include small entities such as debt buyers, collection agencies, and collection law firms.</P>
                    <P>The SBA size standards use asset thresholds for depository institutions and revenue thresholds for non-depository institutions. Depository institutions are small if they have less than $850 million in assets. Consumer reporting agencies are small if they receive less than $47 million in annual revenues. Non-depository institutions in many industries are small if they receive less than $47 million in annual revenues, but the threshold is lower for some NAICS categories of non-depository institutions. The revenue thresholds for health care providers and debt collectors differ depending on the NAICS industry they belong to, ranging between $9 million in annual revenues and $47 million in annual revenues.</P>
                    <P>Table 3 shows the number of small businesses within NAICS categories that may be subject to the rule according to the December 2023 NCUA and FFIEC Call Report data and the 2017 Economic Census data from the U.S. Census Bureau, which are the most recent sources of data available to the CFPB.</P>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3348"/>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="xs48,r50,10,12,xs72">
                        <TTITLE>Table 3—Number of Entities Within NAICS Industry Codes That May Be Subject to the Rule</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                NAICS
                                <LI>codes</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">NAICS description</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Total
                                <LI>number of</LI>
                                <LI>entities</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Total
                                <LI>number of</LI>
                                <LI>small entities</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">SBA size standard</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">522110</ENT>
                            <ENT>Commercial Banking</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,248</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,170</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$850M (assets).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">522130</ENT>
                            <ENT>Credit Unions</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,702</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,202</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$850M (assets).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">522180</ENT>
                            <ENT>Savings Institutions and Other Depository Credit Intermediation</ENT>
                            <ENT>322</ENT>
                            <ENT>239</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$850M (assets).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">522210</ENT>
                            <ENT>Credit Card Issuing</ENT>
                            <ENT>6</ENT>
                            <ENT>1</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$850M (assets).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">522220</ENT>
                            <ENT>Sales Financing</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,367</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,124</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$47M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">522291</ENT>
                            <ENT>Consumer Lending</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,037</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,915</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$47M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">522292</ENT>
                            <ENT>Real Estate Credit</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,289</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,904</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$47M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">522298</ENT>
                            <ENT>International, Secondary Market, and All Other Non-depository Credit Intermediation</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,422</ENT>
                            <ENT>128</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$47M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">522310</ENT>
                            <ENT>Mortgage and Nonmortgage Loan Brokers</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,809</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,684</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$15M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">522320</ENT>
                            <ENT>Financial Transactions Processing, Reserve, and Clearinghouse Activities</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,068</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,928</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$47M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">522390</ENT>
                            <ENT>Other Activities Related to Credit Intermediation</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,772</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,621</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$28.5M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">541110</ENT>
                            <ENT>Offices of Lawyers</ENT>
                            <ENT>163,725</ENT>
                            <ENT>833</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$15.5M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">561440</ENT>
                            <ENT>Collection Agencies</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,224</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,050</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$19.5M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">561450</ENT>
                            <ENT>Credit Bureaus</ENT>
                            <ENT>307</ENT>
                            <ENT>279</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$41M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621111</ENT>
                            <ENT>Offices of Physicians (except Mental Health Specialists)</ENT>
                            <ENT>161,286</ENT>
                            <ENT>158,262</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$16M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621112</ENT>
                            <ENT>Offices of Physicians, Mental Health Specialists</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,561</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,407</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$13.5M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621210</ENT>
                            <ENT>Offices of Dentists</ENT>
                            <ENT>125,329</ENT>
                            <ENT>124,787</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$9M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621310</ENT>
                            <ENT>Offices of Chiropractors</ENT>
                            <ENT>38,695</ENT>
                            <ENT>38,665</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$9M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621320</ENT>
                            <ENT>Offices of Optometrists</ENT>
                            <ENT>19,627</ENT>
                            <ENT>19,492</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$9M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621330</ENT>
                            <ENT>Offices of Mental Health Practitioners (except Physicians)</ENT>
                            <ENT>24,236</ENT>
                            <ENT>23,958</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$9M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621340</ENT>
                            <ENT>Offices of Physical, Occupational and Speech Therapists and Audiologists</ENT>
                            <ENT>26,722</ENT>
                            <ENT>26,217</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$12.5M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621391</ENT>
                            <ENT>Offices of Podiatrists</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,304</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,241</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$9M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621399</ENT>
                            <ENT>Offices of All Other Miscellaneous Health Practitioners</ENT>
                            <ENT>19,442</ENT>
                            <ENT>19,170</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$10M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621410</ENT>
                            <ENT>Family Planning Centers</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,472</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,398</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$19M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621420</ENT>
                            <ENT>Outpatient Mental Health and Substance Abuse Centers</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,523</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,879</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$19M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621491</ENT>
                            <ENT>HMO Medical Centers</ENT>
                            <ENT>27</ENT>
                            <ENT>3</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$44.5M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621492</ENT>
                            <ENT>Kidney Dialysis Centers</ENT>
                            <ENT>431</ENT>
                            <ENT>374</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$47M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621493</ENT>
                            <ENT>Freestanding Ambulatory Surgical and Emergency Centers</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,385</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,888</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$19M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621498</ENT>
                            <ENT>All Other Outpatient Care Centers</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,630</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,845</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$25.5M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621511</ENT>
                            <ENT>Medical Laboratories</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,365</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,106</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$41.5M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621512</ENT>
                            <ENT>Diagnostic Imaging Centers</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,272</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,898</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$19M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621610</ENT>
                            <ENT>Home Health Care Services</ENT>
                            <ENT>23,801</ENT>
                            <ENT>22,840</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$19M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621910</ENT>
                            <ENT>Ambulance Services</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,071</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,940</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$22.5M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">621999</ENT>
                            <ENT>All Other Miscellaneous Ambulatory Health Care Services</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,557</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,332</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$20.5M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">622110</ENT>
                            <ENT>General Medical and Surgical Hospitals</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,560</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,130</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$47M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">622210</ENT>
                            <ENT>Psychiatric and Substance Abuse Hospitals</ENT>
                            <ENT>396</ENT>
                            <ENT>213</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$47M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">622310</ENT>
                            <ENT>Specialty (except Psychiatric and Substance Abuse) Hospitals</ENT>
                            <ENT>332</ENT>
                            <ENT>131</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$47M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">623110</ENT>
                            <ENT>Nursing Care Facilities (Skilled Nursing Facilities)</ENT>
                            <ENT>9,137</ENT>
                            <ENT>8,374</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$34M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">623210</ENT>
                            <ENT>Residential Intellectual and Developmental Disability Facilities</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,885</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,322</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$19M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">623220</ENT>
                            <ENT>Residential Mental Health and Substance Abuse Facilities</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,165</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,674</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$19M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">623311</ENT>
                            <ENT>Continuing Care Retirement Communities</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,874</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,533</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$34M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">623312</ENT>
                            <ENT>Assisted Living Facilities for the Elderly</ENT>
                            <ENT>14,338</ENT>
                            <ENT>13,885</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$23.5M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">623990</ENT>
                            <ENT>Other Residential Care Facilities</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,194</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,931</ENT>
                            <ENT>&lt;$16M.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>739,915</ENT>
                            <ENT>554,973</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Table 4 provides the estimated number of small entities within the categories of credit bureaus, depository institutions, and non-depository institutions, debt collectors (including debt buyers), and health care providers as well as the NAICS codes these entities may fall within. Under the rule, small consumer reporting agencies will no longer be able to provide to creditors consumer reports that contain medical debt information under the financial information exception. The CFPB is not able to precisely estimate the number of small consumer reporting agencies whose activities will be affected by the rule. As discussed above, many consumer reporting agencies currently specialize in providing consumer reports for purposes that will not be affected by the rule. Additionally, consumer credit markets currently rely heavily on consumer reports from consumer reporting agencies which are not small entities.
                        <SU>362</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For these reasons, the CFPB estimates that only a small fraction of the small consumer reporting agencies identified in Table 4 will be affected by the rule. The CFPB requested data to more precisely quantify the number of small consumer reporting agencies that will be affected by the rule, but did not receive relevant comments.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>362</SU>
                             Impacts to consumer reporting agencies are also described within part VII.E.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Small creditors that will be directly affected by the rule are included in several NAICS categories that can be broadly divided into depository and non-depository institutions. Small creditors will be generally prohibited from considering medical information from consumer reports (and other sources) in credit eligibility determinations under the rule, unless a specific exception applies. However, some small creditors currently do not consider medical information that will be prohibited under the rule, and others only consider medical debt information if consumers disclose that they have 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3349"/>
                        made monthly payment arrangements with medical debt holders.
                        <SU>363</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>363</SU>
                             Two small entity representatives provided this context in their comment letters. Written Submission of Evelyn Schroeder, Vice President, First Security Bank and Trust, to the CFPB, “Re: CFPB's Outline of Proposals and Alternatives Under Consideration, Small Business Advisory Review Panel for Consumer Reporting Rulemaking” at 7 (Nov. 6, 2023). Written Submission of Jeff Jacobson, Vice President, New Market Bank, to the CFPB, “RE: SER response to SBREFA Outline for Consumer Reporting Rulemaking” at 5 (Nov. 6, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>While all small creditors will be subject to the rule, the CFPB lacks the data to precisely quantify how many small creditors currently make credit decisions in ways that will be affected by the rule. Small creditors who are currently in compliance, whether in whole or in part, with the rule might not be impacted as much as small creditors who currently consider medical debt information (and certain other categories of medical information) from consumer reports or other sources. The CFPB requested data to precisely quantify the number of small creditors that may be directly affected by the rule, but did not receive relevant comments.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,nj,i1" CDEF="s50,r75,12">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 4—Estimated Number of Small Entities by Category 
                            <SU>364</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">NAICS code(s)</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Estimated
                                <LI>number of</LI>
                                <LI>small entities</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Consumer Reporting Agencies</ENT>
                            <ENT>561450</ENT>
                            <ENT>281</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Depository Institutions</ENT>
                            <ENT>522110, 522130, 522180, 522210</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,612</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Non-depository Institutions</ENT>
                            <ENT>522220, 522291, 522292, 522310, 522320, 522390</ENT>
                            <ENT>14,454</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Debt Collectors</ENT>
                            <ENT>522298, 541110, 561440</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,011</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Healthcare Providers</ENT>
                            <ENT>621111, 621112, 621210, 621310, 621320, 621330, 621340, 621391, 621399, 621410, 621420, 621491, 621492, 621493, 621498, 621511, 621512, 621610, 621910, 621999, 622110, 622210, 622310, 623110, 623210, 623220, 623311, 623312, 623990</ENT>
                            <ENT>521,895</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                        5. Projected Reporting,
                        <FTREF/>
                         Recordkeeping, and Other Compliance Requirements of the Rule, Including an Estimate of the Classes of Small Entities Which Will Be Subject to the Requirement and the Type of Professional Skills Necessary for the Preparation of the Report
                    </HD>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>364</SU>
                             The estimated number of small entities is calculated by taking the sum of the number of entities whose assets held or annual revenues fall below the relevant SBA thresholds for each NAICS code under the three categories, using the data presented in Table 3. When entity counts for a NAICS category in Table 3 are reported for two revenue limits (an upper and a lower bound), the average of the two entity counts is taken to estimate the number of small entities in that NAICS category.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The rule may impose reporting, recordkeeping, and other compliance requirements on small entities subject to the rule. These requirements generally differ for entities in two classes: credit bureaus that function as consumer reporting agencies, and depository or non-depository institutions that function as creditors. Based on Table 4, these requirements will be imposed on, at most, an estimated 281 small consumer reporting agencies and 22,006 small creditors. The CFPB does not expect that debt collectors and health care providers listed in Table 4 will have reporting, record keeping and other compliance requirements.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Requirements for Consumer Reporting Agencies</HD>
                    <P>Under the rule, consumer reporting agencies will only be able to provide to creditors (in connection with credit eligibility determinations) consumer reports that contain medical debt information if they have reason to believe that the creditor intends to use the medical debt information in a manner that is not prohibited. Thus, if consumer reporting agencies continue to receive and record medical debt information from furnishers, consumer reporting agencies may need to devise policies and procedures to ensure that they appropriately restrict the provision of medical debt information to creditors. However, these compliance costs may only apply to consumer reporting agencies who, at baseline, provide consumer reports containing medical debt information to creditors based on the existing financial information exception. It is the CFPB's understanding that this task is mostly performed by the NCRAs (none of which are small entities), and the CFPB is not aware of any small consumer reporting agencies that provide consumer reports containing medical debt information to creditors at baseline. Compliance for affected small consumer reporting agencies will generally require professional skills related to software development, legal expertise, compliance, and customer support. The CFPB does not have the data to estimate the costs of reporting, recordkeeping, and other compliance requirements for small consumer reporting agencies, and requested but did not receive data to quantify these costs.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Requirements for Creditors</HD>
                    <P>
                        The rule will generally prohibit creditors from using information related to medical debt (among other categories of medical information) in credit eligibility decisions. The CFPB's final rule prohibits CRAs from furnishing medical debt information to creditors pulling a general report in order to underwrite a loan, which means small creditors would not have to incur the compliance costs associated with updating their underwriting procedures to exclude medical debt information. However, creditors using their own proprietary credit score may choose to change their underwriting procedures in response. Currently, many creditors use medical debt information from consumer reporting agencies that will no longer be included in consumer reports under the rule. The rule will not change any existing law or guidance regarding the information that creditors must request from applicants. Creditors may use (or continue to use) certain information, including information relating to medical debt, that consumers provide in response to questions in credit applications that do not specifically request medical information to satisfy ability-to-repay requirements. The rule may cause creditors to modify their underwriting procedures to rely more heavily on consumer information that they obtain from credit applications. These changes will generally require professional skills related to compliance, underwriting, and legal expertise. The CFPB requested data and evidence to estimate these costs, but did not receive relevant comments.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3350"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Requirements for Debt Collectors</HD>
                    <P>One debt collector trade association commented that initial compliance costs will be at least $100,000 per debt collector. This estimate included costs such as updating software, hiring attorneys to ensure compliance with the rule, renegotiating contracts with vendors, and updating their business practices. However, the rule will not prohibit debt collectors from furnishing medical debt information to consumer reporting agencies or directly impose any other reporting, recordkeeping, or other compliance burdens on them. As discussed in part VII.E.4, the rule may make furnishing a less effective means of inducing payment of medical debts. This may reduce debt collectors' revenue; however, reductions in revenue will not be due to reporting, recordkeeping or compliance requirements that the rule imposes on debt collectors.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Requirements for Health Care Providers</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB understands that at baseline, health care providers do not generally furnish medical debt information to consumer reporting agencies. But even if they do furnish debt collection information to consumer reporting agencies, as described above, the rule does not impose any requirements on furnishers, nor does the rule impose other requirements on health care providers. Accordingly, the CFPB has determined that the rule will not impose reporting, recordkeeping, and other compliance costs on health care providers. However, as discussed in part VII.E.4, the rule may make furnishing a less effective means of inducing payment of medical debts. This may impose costs on health care providers if they turn to other collection mechanisms that may be more costly or less effective than furnishing, such as debt collection litigation, or if the rule causes them to renegotiate contracts with medical debt buyers or debt collectors, but these costs will not be due to reporting, record keeping, or compliance requirements that the rule imposes on health care providers.</P>
                    <FP>6. Description of the Steps the Agency Has Taken To Minimize the Significant Economic Impact on Small Entities Consistent With the Stated Objectives of Applicable Statutes, Including a Statement of the Factual, Policy, and Legal Reasons for Selecting the Alternative Adopted in the Final Rule and Why Each One of the Other Significant Alternatives to the Rule Considered by the Agency Which Affect the Impact on Small Entities Was Rejected</FP>
                    <P>When developing the proposal, the CFPB decided to include a prohibition on consumer reporting agencies furnishing medical debt information to creditors who did not have a permissible purpose by virtue of the fact that this rule (or other laws) prohibit them from considering the information in credit underwriting. This provision was in large part proposed, and is now finalized, in order to minimize the economic impact on small entities. In the absence of such a prohibition, consumer reporting agencies might continue to include medical debt information on credit reports, in which case creditors would have to update underwriting models and credit scores to avoid giving it any weight. By prohibiting consumer reporting agencies from sending the data, creditors are able to forgo that substantial compliance cost.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB considered exempting small entities from the rule, in whole or in part. Several commenters, including debt collectors, stated that the CFPB should consider limiting the scope of the rule to apply only to some forms of data, or to certain medical debts, such as those originating from emergency medical services. Another commenter stated that the CFPB should consider exempting small businesses below a certain size threshold. However, the CFPB has determined that such exemptions will not achieve the objective of FCRA section 604(g)(2) and the rule to protect consumer privacy with respect to sensitive medical information.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB also considered several other alternatives to the rule that would possibly result in lower costs for small entities. These alternatives include: (1) alternative compliance timelines, (2) allowing creditors to consider specific types of medical information, (3) codifying and broadening the voluntary changes in medical collections reporting implemented by the NCRAs in 2022 and 2023, (4) requiring consumer reporting agencies to independently investigate the accuracy of furnished medical debt collections, and (5) defining when a furnisher must investigate the accuracy of furnished medical collections information.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB considered making the rule effective more than 60 days after the issuance of a final rule. During the SBREFA process, several small creditors stated that they would need time to comply with the proposals discussed at the panel. One small creditor stated that their compliance department is already working at full capacity to comply with recently issued rules, and that they and others in the financial industry would need additional time to comply with further rules. A debt collector trade association stated in a comment that an implementation period of 60 days is too short for small businesses to comply with the rule, while Advocacy stated that stakeholders believe it will take 18 to 20 months to comply with the rule. The CFPB has determined that compliance with the rule would not impose significant compliance costs on small entities, and as a result the CFPB does not believe additional time for compliance is necessary. Further, allowing additional time for compliance would extend the period during which sensitive medical information may continue to be used for credit eligibility determinations.</P>
                    <P>As described in the SBREFA Outline, the CFPB considered removing the financial information exception only with respect to medical information relating to debts, while continuing to allow creditors to consider medical information relating to expenses, assets, collateral, income, benefits, and the purpose of the loan. The CFPB has determined that a creditor's consideration of medical information relating to expenses, assets, and collateral is not warranted, and is therefore removing the financial information exception with respect to these additional categories of medical information.</P>
                    <P>The final three alternatives considered may not achieve some of the objectives of the rule. These alternatives were included in the discussions with small entity representatives and the SBREFA Panel. As discussed in part VII.B, the NCRAs voluntarily implemented changes in the consumer reporting of medical debt. Because their changes were voluntary, codifying and broadening the changes may protect consumers from the possibility that NCRAs might choose to reverse their policies in the future. The last two alternatives would serve to increase the accuracy of medical collections information on credit reports. The CFPB has determined that these three alternatives would not achieve the objective of protecting consumer privacy with respect to sensitive medical information.</P>
                    <P>
                        After considering these significant alternatives, the CFPB declines to adopt them because none of the alternatives would achieve the objective of FCRA section 604(g)(2) to protect consumer privacy with respect to sensitive medical information, and thus are not appropriate methods for reducing the economic impact on small entities in the context of this rule.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3351"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">7. Description of the Steps the Agency Has Taken To Minimize Any Additional Cost of Credit for Small Entities</HD>
                    <P>Because the rule will only affect how small consumer reporting agencies report and small creditors obtain or use consumers' medical information, the CFPB does not expect that the rule will affect the business lending market. The CFPB concludes that the costs of credit for small creditors and small consumer reporting agencies will not be impacted by the rule. Commenters, including the small entity representatives cited by Advocacy in its comment, stated the possibility of credit score creep increasing underwriting standards more broadly. To the extent that this happens, the cost of credit may rise for small business owners who rely on personal credit. However, because the share of consumers with medical collections on their consumer reports is only 5 percent at baseline, the CFPB views this possibility as unlikely.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IX. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB has determined that the final rule would not impose any new information collections or revise any existing recordkeeping, reporting, or disclosure requirements on covered entities or members of the public that would be collections of information requiring approval by the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act.
                        <SU>365</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The existing information collections contained in Regulation V, which implements the FCRA, are approved by OMB under OMB Control Number 3170-0002 which currently has an expiration date of October 31, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>365</SU>
                             44 U.S.C. 3501.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">X. Congressional Review Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ), the CFPB will submit a report containing this rule and other required information to the U.S. Senate, the U.S. House of Representatives, and the Comptroller General of the United States at least 60 days prior to the rule's published effective date. The Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has designated this rule as a “major rule” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">XI. Severability</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB intends that, if the consumer reporting agency prohibition on furnishing medical debt information finalized in § 1022.38 (or any provision or application of that section) is stayed or determined to be invalid, the amendments to § 1022.30 are severable and shall continue in effect. The CFPB also intends that if the amendments to § 1022.30 (or any provisions or applications of those amendments) were stayed or determined to be invalid, § 1022.38(b)(1) would not take (or continue in) effect, because it relies on the amendments to § 1022.30, but § 1022.38(b)(2) is severable and shall continue in effect. Furthermore, if the result of a stay or judicial determination is that creditors are generally able to obtain or use medical information in connection with determinations of consumers' eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit, the CFPB intends the prior version of § 1022.30(d) to continue in effect.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">XII. Technical Appendix</HD>
                    <P>
                        This appendix describes the technical details of the CFPB's analysis that aims to estimate how medical collection consumer reporting affects consumer access to credit, considering an “equilibrium” in which all medical collection tradelines are removed from consumer reports, as under the rule. The analysis also compares the performance of new credit accounts that can be traced to creditors' inquiries for consumers that have medical collections. The analysis exploits a change in consumer reporting practices that occurred in 2017 that has prevented medical collections that are less than 180 days past their date of first delinquency from appearing on consumer reports obtained from the nationwide consumer reporting agencies (NCRAs).
                        <SU>366</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As a result of this change, when consumers applied for credit in the 180 days before a medical collection tradeline was added to their consumer report, they had an outstanding medical debt that was in collections, but creditors would not have seen evidence of those medical collections on consumer reports when making determinations about whether to extend credit to the consumers.
                        <SU>367</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>366</SU>
                             Assurance of Voluntary Compliance/Assurance of Voluntary Discontinuance (May 20, 2015), 
                            <E T="03">In re Equifax Info. Servs., https://www.ohioattorneygeneral.gov/Files/Briefing-Room/News-Releases/Consumer-Protection/2015-05-20-CRAs-AVC.aspx</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>367</SU>
                             This practice continued through June 2022, when the 180-day period was extended to one year. PR Newswire, 
                            <E T="03">Equifax, Experian and TransUnion Remove Medical Collections Debt Under $500 From U.S. Credit Reports</E>
                             (Apr. 11, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.prnewswire.com/news-releases/equifax-experian-and-transunion-remove-medical-collections-debt-under-500-from-us-credit-reports-301793769.html</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">1. Data Used</HD>
                    <P>
                        The data for this analysis are derived from the CFPB's Consumer Credit Information Panel (CCIP), a 1-in-50 de-identified nationally representative sample of credit records from one of the three NCRAs. The data include information on consumers' credit accounts, collections, public records, credit scores, and inquiries, which are creditor requests for consumer reports. Each credit account is described by a “tradeline,” which includes the account's product type, balance amount, initial credit limit or loan principal, date of origination, anonymized firm identifier, and delinquency status.
                        <SU>368</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Collections are also described by tradelines, which include the collection's balance amount, the original creditor's industry classification, and the date that the collection was added to the consumer report. Each inquiry includes the product type for which the consumer applied and the date that the inquiry was made. The sample used in the analysis includes all inquiries made by creditors within 180 days of a medical collection tradeline's addition to a consumer report. In other words, the sample includes inquiries made within 180 days of the time each medical collection became visible to creditors.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>368</SU>
                             Credit record data are described in detail by Christa Gibbs et al., 
                            <E T="03">Consumer Credit Reporting Data</E>
                             (forthcoming), J. Econ. Literature, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.aeaweb.org/articles?id=10.1257/jel.20241737&amp;&amp;from=f</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB created two datasets to estimate the effect of medical collection reporting on access to credit and credit account performance. The first dataset includes all inquiries made in the 180 days before and after each medical collection's addition to a consumer report (inquiry dataset). The second dataset includes the two-year performance of all credit account tradelines that can be traced back to an inquiry in the inquiry dataset (performance dataset).
                        <SU>369</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Both datasets only include inquiries made and credit account tradelines opened in response to credit applications from consumers with medical collections. The analysis is limited to inquiries associated with medical collections first reported at least six months after the final implementation of the NCAP in September 2017, which ensured that all medical collections were identifiable as such and that all consumers with reported medical collections had a past-due medical bill for at least 180 days prior to the medical collection's 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3352"/>
                        appearance on their consumer report.
                        <FTREF/>
                        <SU>370</SU>
                         Given these constraints, the dataset includes inquiries associated with medical collections that were furnished to the NCRA that provides the CFPB's CCIP between March 2018 and July 2023.
                        <SU>371</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>369</SU>
                             The CFPB considered two-year delinquency as an outcome because it is the standard used in credit scoring models. VantageScore, 
                            <E T="03">Credit Score Basics, Part 1: What's Behind Credit Scores?</E>
                             (Nov. 2011), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.transunion.com/docs/rev/business/financialservices/VantageScore_CreditScoreBasics-Part1.pdf</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>370</SU>
                             Prior to NCAP, the field in credit record data indicating the original creditor type of a collections tradeline was optional and was left blank by the furnisher for around a quarter of all collections tradelines in the CCIP. Some of these tradelines with unreported original creditor type were likely medical collections tradelines. One component of the NCAP was to make the original creditor type a mandatory field, such that all medical collections reported after September 2017 can be identified as such.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>371</SU>
                             The sample is limited to inquiries associated with medical collections added to consumer reports between March 2018 and July 2023 because the dataset needs to include all inquiries made within a 361-day window of each medical collection. A medical collection reported before March 2018 may have an associated inquiry that was made before the September 2017 reporting change, while a medical collection reported after July 2023 may have an associated inquiry that was made after the final date of the CFPB's CCIP at the time of the research analysis, January 2024. The sample includes inquiries made in the 180 days before a medical collection is reported because all consumers have an outstanding medical collection during that period, and includes inquiries made in the 180 days after a medical collection is reported in order to have a balanced window. Additionally, note that the sample may omit some inquiries associated with medical collections. Some collections may not have been reported to all three NCRAs, so the CFPB may not observe all consumers' medical collections.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Each dataset in the primary sample includes a subsample of inquiries and tradelines that were associated with medical collection tradelines having initial balances over $500 and that were made when any other medical collection tradelines on the consumer report had initial balances over $500. This specification is referred to as the “over-$500” sample and mimics the current reporting environment in which medical collections under $500 are not included on consumer reports.
                        <SU>372</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB also created versions of the inquiry and performance datasets that do not make any restrictions on the dollar amount of medical collection tradelines and presents results for this “full sample” in parallel with those for the “over-$500 sample.”
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>372</SU>
                             The NCRAs removed medical collections with balances below $500 from consumer reports in April 2023. The datasets include inquiries made through January 2024, and so a small portion of the inquiries in the datasets were subject to this removal. All of these inquiries are included in the “over-$500” sample of the results. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             PR Newswire, 
                            <E T="03">Equifax, Experian and TransUnion Remove Medical Collections Debt Under $500 From U.S. Credit Reports</E>
                             (Apr. 11, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.prnewswire.com/news-releases/equifax-experian-and-transunion-remove-medical-collections-debt-under-500-from-us-credit-reports-301793769.html</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Creditors only observe the consumer reports of consumers that apply for credit, so the analysis is inherently limited to consumers that actively seek credit. The CFPB found in the proposed rule, and included in part VII.E.5, that there was a near-zero change in consumers' propensity to demand credit when medical collections under $500 were removed from consumer reports. The CFPB expects that the composition of consumers actively seeking credit will not be affected by the rule.</P>
                    <P>When a consumer has multiple medical collection tradelines, the data contain duplicates of the inquiries and credit account tradelines if they occur within 180 days of different medical collection tradelines. For example, suppose a consumer has two medical collection tradelines that are first reported on May 1 and on September 1. Suppose a creditor makes an inquiry on August 1. This inquiry will appear in the inquiry dataset twice: once for the May 1 collection, and once for the September 1 collection. Inquiries and credit account tradelines are also duplicated when consumers have multiple medical collection tradelines reported on the same day.</P>
                    <P>
                        Three reporting changes occurred during the sample period that removed certain types of medical collections from consumer reports.
                        <SU>373</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, because the analysis exploits the date that a medical collection was added to a consumer report instead of the date it was removed from a consumer report, these changes do not undermine the general methodology of the analysis. The reporting changes do affect the types of medical collections that were on consumer reports when inquiries were made.
                        <SU>374</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB first describes each of these three changes and their impact, before addressing the consequences for the analysis. First, all paid medical collections were removed from consumer reports in June 2022. Fewer than 2.5 percent of medical collections reported between January 2017 and March 2022 were ever marked as paid.
                        <SU>375</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Second, medical collections that were between 180 days and 365 days past due were removed from consumer reports in June 2022, and the delay before medical collections could be added to consumer reports was permanently extended to one year. The CFPB does not have an estimate of how many medical collections were affected by this change, as the number of days that the medical debt is past due is not provided in the CCIP. Finally, all medical collections under $500 were removed from the NCRAs' consumer reports in April 2023. Combined, these reporting changes contributed to a large decline in the number of consumers with medical collection tradelines on their consumer report, from 14 percent of consumers in March 2022 to 5 percent of consumers in June 2023.
                        <SU>376</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>373</SU>
                             PR Newswire, 
                            <E T="03">Equifax, Experian and TransUnion Remove Medical Collections Debt Under $500 From U.S. Credit Reports</E>
                             (Apr. 11, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.prnewswire.com/news-releases/equifax-experian-and-transunion-remove-medical-collections-debt-under-500-from-us-credit-reports-301793769.html</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>374</SU>
                             Furthermore, the reporting changes may impact how creditors used medical collections in their credit eligibility determinations. For example, suppose creditors weighted medical collections more heavily in their determinations after the April 2023 reporting change. Then inquiries made with reported medical collections after April 2023 may have a lower success rate than inquiries made prior to the change. The estimated coefficient provides an average impact of medical collection reporting on inquiry success and cannot identify these potential changes in creditor behavior.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>375</SU>
                             Lucas Nathe &amp; Ryan Sandler, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Paid and Low-Balance Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Reports</E>
                             (July 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/research-reports/paid-and-low-balance-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports/</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>376</SU>
                             Ryan Sandler &amp; Zachary Blizard, Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Recent Changes in Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Records Data Point,</E>
                             at 3-4, 17 (Mar. 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_recent-changes-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports_2024-03.pdf</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Because of these reporting changes for some inquiries that were made after a medical collection tradeline was first reported, the medical collection may not have been present on the consumer report by the date of the inquiry. For example, if a consumer had a medical collection with an initial balance less than $500 first reported in February 2023, and an inquiry in May 2023, the inquiry would be classified as occurring about three months after the collection but would not in fact have that collection tradeline included on the consumer report at the time of the inquiry. The CFPB expects this to attenuate the results, as inquiries made “with medical collection reporting” would have outcomes more similar to inquiries with the medical collection not yet reported. Medical collections reported before January 2022 would not have associated inquiries affected by any of these reporting changes.</P>
                    <P>The analysis of the performance dataset is not affected by the recent reporting changes. Because the focus is on two-year performance, the performance analysis only included tradelines opened before January 2022, as they require sufficient time to measure two-year performance. Therefore, the performance regressions are not impacted by these medical collection removals.</P>
                    <P>
                        Commenters including a bank trade association commenter and a researcher stated that the time period considered in the proposal was not reflective of the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3353"/>
                        current market because it was marked with instability in the medical debt collection environment, including pandemic-era changes and State policy changes. The CFPB acknowledges this limitation but finds it infeasible to study two-year delinquency risk without using accounts that were originated at least two years ago. Furthermore, because relatively few medical collections are included on consumer reports at baseline, the analysis needs to incorporate older data to have sufficient statistical power to identify statistically significant effects.
                        <SU>377</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB expects that any differences in consumer behavior as a result of these changes, compared to the current baseline, may affect the magnitude of the results but not the direction. For example, if mortgage forbearance caused fewer consumers with medical collections to become delinquent on their mortgages, the estimated difference in mortgage performance between consumers with reported medical collections and consumers with unreported medical collections may be smaller than at the current baseline. However, there should be no difference in the coefficient's sign if consumers with unreported collections are more likely, in any time period, to be seriously delinquent than consumers with reported medical collections because creditors use medical collection information to avoid bad debt risks.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>377</SU>
                             Mary-Alice Doyle &amp; Laura Feeney, 
                            <E T="03">Quick Guide to Power Calculations,</E>
                             Abdul Latif Jameel Poverty Action Lab, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.povertyactionlab.org/resource/quick-guide-power-calculations</E>
                             (last updated Mar. 2021).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Other commenters, including at least one researcher and at least one debt collector, stated that the analysis in the Technical Appendix to the proposed rule is subject to self-selection bias because only consumers actively seeking credit are included in the dataset. The inquiry and performance datasets are structured at the inquiry or credit account tradeline level, and not at the consumer or medical collection level. This means the analysis can be interpreted as modeling credit decisions and outcomes from creditors' perspective, rather than modeling the decisions of consumers or debt collectors.</P>
                    <P>Commenters, including at least one debt collector, health care provider, researcher, and individual, stated that the results of the Technical Appendix were skewed or too narrow because they were limited to medical collections with initial balances over $500. As described above, the CFPB also presents results for the full sample, regardless of medical collection balance amount. The results from this sample are similar to those in the primary sample, as described below.</P>
                    <P>
                        Multiple researcher commenters stated that the results of the CFPB's analysis could not be validated or fully evaluated with the information included in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking. Releasing the data would be a violation of the CFPB's contract with the NCRA that provides its CCIP, however, and courts have held that an agency can rely on confidential information in its rulemaking so long as the agency discloses information to allow interested parties to comment on the methodology and general data.
                        <SU>378</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Here, the CFPB discussed its data set, provided information about its methodologies, and invited interested parties to comment. The CFPB considered the comments that addressed the analysis and has determined that the available evidence supports the choices made in the final rule. While some commenters also suggested that the CFPB erred in not obtaining peer review of its analysis, they did not articulate why peer review would be required in this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>378</SU>
                              
                            <E T="03">See NRDC</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Thomas,</E>
                             805 F.2d 410, 418 n.13 (D.C. Cir. 1986); 
                            <E T="03">see also Riverkeeper Inc.</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">EPA,</E>
                             475 F.3d 83, 112 (2d Cir. 2007), 
                            <E T="03">rev'd on other grounds,</E>
                             556 U.S. 208 (2009).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">2. Construction of the Inquiry Dataset</HD>
                    <P>Because inquiries in the dataset are made in the 180 days before and after a medical collection is reported, the inquiries in the dataset occurred between September 2017 and January 2024. The dataset includes the number and type of medical and nonmedical collection tradelines that were included on the consumer report at the time each inquiry was made.</P>
                    <P>
                        Identifying unique medical collections over time in the CCIP may be imprecise; the CFPB assumes that unique medical collections are characterized by their dollar amounts, dates of medical collection account opening (usually the date the medical collection was assigned to the debt collector or other furnisher), and dates of the account's addition to the consumer report. Medical collections are rarely consistently reported for the full seven-year period for reporting adverse information permitted by the Fair Credit Reporting Act.
                        <SU>379</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This poses challenges in tracking the same medical debt over time, as debts can disappear and reappear. Medical debts in collections are often transferred between debt collectors (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         reassigned to a different collector by the health care provider or sold to a debt buyer), and when this happens the dates and dollar amounts associated with the medical collection tradelines may change, making it difficult to link these records. While these may be experienced as unique collections by the consumer as a new debt collector attempts to make contact, they may not be representative of the number of unique medical debts that each consumer has, as many of the debts are reflected by multiple subsequent collections.
                        <SU>380</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>379</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Paid and Low-Balance Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Reports</E>
                             (July 27, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/research-reports/paid-and-low-balance-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports/</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>380</SU>
                             A challenge in studying the impact of medical collections tradelines is that a shock to consumers' health, such as an injury or illness that results in hospitalization, may affect credit outcomes independently. Given this challenge, one benefit of these collection debt transfers is that it means that the medical expense that resulted in the medical collections tradeline is relatively more likely to have occurred long before the medical collection appeared.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3354"/>
                    <P>
                        The inquiry dataset is used to estimate the impact of medical collection reporting on consumers' access to credit, as measured by inquiry success. The CFPB classifies an inquiry as “successful” if the inquiry leads to an open tradeline. This definition of “success” does not necessarily mean that the specific credit application that generated the inquiry was being approved. The CFPB cannot directly observe whether the specific credit application that generated the inquiry in question was approved, and it is challenging to infer approval for a specific inquiry for several reasons. First, the CCIP does not include inquiries made to other NCRAs, and creditors do not always make inquiries to all three NCRAs. The CCIP therefore includes credit account tradelines that cannot be matched to an inquiry. These tradelines cannot be included in the CFPB's analysis because the empirical strategy requires that one know the date of each tradeline's associated inquiry. Second, the CCIP does not include creditor names, but instead has an anonymized company identifier; however, a particular creditor often has a different identifier for inquiries and for opened credit account tradelines. Thus, even if the consumer opened a tradeline with the same creditor that pulled their consumer report, it may not be identifiable as such in the data. Therefore, the CFPB cannot be certain that the observed inquiry is associated with a specific opened tradeline. The CFPB instead follows approaches used in academic research and the CFPB's Consumer Credit Trends credit tightness series and assumes that a credit account is associated with an inquiry if it is opened within a certain number of days after the observed inquiry and is of the same credit account type.
                        <SU>381</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The number of days varies for different account types because of differences in the typical length of time between an account application and origination.
                        <SU>382</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Finally, when consumers shop for credit, multiple inquiries may be made in a narrow window of time, even though the consumer only intends to open one account. The CFPB assumes that multiple inquiries for one consumer within a certain shopping window indicate the consumer's shopping behavior, and therefore only the last of these inquiries is included in the datasets, where each credit account type's window length is equivalent to its maximum time-to-origination.
                        <SU>383</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For example, if a consumer had inquiries from mortgage lenders on April 1 and May 1, these would be treated as one observation, dated May 1, and it would be counted as a successful inquiry if a mortgage account was opened by August 29.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>381</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Charles Romeo &amp; Ryan Sandler, Off. of Rsch., Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">The effect of debt collection laws on access to credit,</E>
                             195 J. Econ. (2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://ssrn.com/abstract=3124954</E>
                            ; Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Credit Trends: Market dashboards</E>
                             (Dec. 10, 2019), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/consumer-credit-trends/</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>382</SU>
                             The inquiries are considered to be within a shopping window if they are within 14 days for credit cards and auto loans, 120 days for mortgages, and 30 days for all other loan types, following approaches used in academic research and the CFPB's Consumer Credit Trends credit tightness series, both of which use data similar to the CCIP. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Charles Romeo &amp; Ryan Sandler, Off. of Rsch., Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">The effect of debt collection laws on access to credit,</E>
                             195 J. Econ. (2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://ssrn.com/abstract=3124954</E>
                            ; Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Credit Trends: Market dashboards</E>
                             (Dec. 10, 2019), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/consumer-credit-trends/</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>383</SU>
                             This follows approaches used in academic research and the CFPB's Consumer Credit Trends credit tightness series, both of which use data similar to the CCIP. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Charles Romeo &amp; Ryan Sandler, Off. of Rsch., Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">The effect of debt collection laws on access to credit,</E>
                             195 J. Econ. (2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://ssrn.com/abstract=3124954</E>
                            ; Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Credit Trends: Market dashboards</E>
                             (Dec. 10, 2019), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/consumer-credit-trends/</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>A researcher commenter restated the limitations described above, which were also described in the proposal, but characterized this discussion as indicating that the CFPB did not have a “clean standard” to identify inquiry success in the Technical Appendix to the proposed rule. As described above and in the rule, the CFPB's construction of inquiry success is the best available measure and has been used in academic research and the CFPB's policy research.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">3. Construction of the Performance Dataset</HD>
                    <P>
                        The performance dataset includes all originated credit account tradelines that are associated with successful inquiries in the inquiry dataset. The match between credit account tradelines and inquiries is one-to-one: each tradeline is matched to one inquiry, and each inquiry is matched to, at most, one tradeline.
                        <SU>384</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB calculated the two-year performance for each originated credit account tradeline, with performance success measured by whether the tradeline was ever 90 or more days delinquent (seriously delinquent) within the first two years of its origination date.
                        <SU>385</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Because the CFPB focuses on two-year performance, credit account tradelines opened after January 2022 are not included in the analysis as the CFPB cannot observe a full two years after origination. The CFPB was able to identify the two-year performance of over 94 percent of the credit account tradelines opened before January 2022. The exceptions are accounts that stopped being reported by the furnisher before the end of two years.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>384</SU>
                             When multiple credit account tradelines within a time 14, 30, or 120 days of an inquiry (as appropriate for the type of credit) are observed, the tradeline with the earliest origination date is kept.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>385</SU>
                             Credit account tradelines are matched over time either using the tradeline's account number or the tradeline's date of account opening and loan type. Tradelines are matched on origination date and loan type when there is no match on account number because account numbers can change when an account is lost or transferred, 
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             if a consumer loses their credit card and has a new card issued.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">4. Inquiry Summary Statistics</HD>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,16">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 5—Inquiry Summary Statistics 
                            <SU>386</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (1) 
                                <LI>Credit cards</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (2) 
                                <LI>Mortgages</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (3) 
                                <LI>Other inq. type</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel A: Unsuccessful, Over $500 Sample:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Shopping window (days)</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.47</ENT>
                            <ENT>16.87</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.89</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">No. open mortgages</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.03</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.11</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.04</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">No. open credit cards</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.73</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.18</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.68</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">No. open other trades</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.61</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.82</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.64</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Any D90+ trades</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.30</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.29</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.29</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Credit score</ENT>
                            <ENT>563.89</ENT>
                            <ENT>613.81</ENT>
                            <ENT>566.76</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Obs. (Unique Inquiries)</ENT>
                            <ENT>259,532</ENT>
                            <ENT>44,524</ENT>
                            <ENT>218,127</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel B: Successful, Over $500 Sample:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Shopping window (days)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>42.74</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.11</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">No. open mortgages</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.07</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.23</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.07</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">No. open credit cards</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.36</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.85</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.11</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="3355"/>
                            <ENT I="03">No. open other trades</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.71</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.99</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.08</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Any D90+ delinquent trades</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.26</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.20</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.29</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Credit score</ENT>
                            <ENT>624.44</ENT>
                            <ENT>673.12</ENT>
                            <ENT>602.45</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Credit amount</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,645.96</ENT>
                            <ENT>244,846.31</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,374.88</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Two-year D90+</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.21</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.03</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.25</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Past due amount</ENT>
                            <ENT>145.19</ENT>
                            <ENT>304.43</ENT>
                            <ENT>661.84</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Obs. (Unique Inquiries)</ENT>
                            <ENT>117,147</ENT>
                            <ENT>11,188</ENT>
                            <ENT>13,160</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel C: Unsuccessful, Full Sample:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Shopping window (days)</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.46</ENT>
                            <ENT>16.09</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.86</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">No. open mortgages</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.03</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.12</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.04</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">No. open credit cards</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.69</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.15</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.64</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">No. open other trades</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.56</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.80</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.60</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Any D90+ trades</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.30</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.30</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.30</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Credit score</ENT>
                            <ENT>562.12</ENT>
                            <ENT>607.76</ENT>
                            <ENT>563.39</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Obs. (Unique Inquiries)</ENT>
                            <ENT>892,295</ENT>
                            <ENT>171,704</ENT>
                            <ENT>761,275</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel D: Successful, Full Sample:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Shopping window (days)</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.97</ENT>
                            <ENT>40.69</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.06</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">No. open mortgages</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.08</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.26</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.06</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">No. open credit cards</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.32</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.84</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.98</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">No. open other trades</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.70</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.96</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.04</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Any D90+ trades</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.27</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.20</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.30</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Credit score</ENT>
                            <ENT>621.08</ENT>
                            <ENT>670.13</ENT>
                            <ENT>597.12</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Credit amount</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,582.59</ENT>
                            <ENT>238,199.13</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,597.18</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Two-year D90+</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.20</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.03</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.23</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Past due amount</ENT>
                            <ENT>125.17</ENT>
                            <ENT>201.84</ENT>
                            <ENT>598.32</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Obs. (Unique Inquiries)</ENT>
                            <ENT>409,209</ENT>
                            <ENT>42,138</ENT>
                            <ENT>52,669</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Table 5 provides summary statistics for the unique inquiries in the data. The summary statistics are provided separately for “unsuccessful” inquiries that do not result in originated credit account tradelines, which are provided in Panels A and C, and for “successful” inquiries that can be associated to originated tradelines, which are provided in Panels B and D. Panels A and B are limited to the over-$500 sample, while Panels C and D provide summary statistics for the full sample. Table 5 shows that successful inquiries are associated with stronger credit profiles for every inquiry type and for both considered samples. The average successful credit applicant has more open pre-existing credit account tradelines, fewer seriously delinquent pre-existing credit account tradelines, and a higher credit score in the month or quarter before inquiry was made than the average unsuccessful credit applicant.
                        <SU>387</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The table also shows that successful credit applicants shop for longer than unsuccessful credit applicants in the sample. Panels B and D further include the average characteristics of credit accounts opened in response to successful inquiries, measuring the credit limit at time of origination, the past due amount, and serious delinquency status two years after origination, showing that credit cards are much more likely than mortgages to be seriously delinquent within two years from opening, perhaps in part because credit cards are unsecured. However, the average past due amount is lower for credit cards, perhaps because average credit card monthly minimum payments are much lower than mortgage monthly payment amounts.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>386</SU>
                             Each panel in the table includes one observation per inquiry. All values are means. Panels A and B limit the sample to consumers with at least one inquiry that is associated with a medical collection over $500 and includes no medical collections on the consumer report under $500 when the inquiry is made. Panels C and D include the full sample. Panels A and C includes all inquiries that do not correspond to a tradeline opened within the inquiry type's origination window. Panels B and D includes all inquiries that can be matched to an originated tradeline. “Shopping window (days)” provides the length of the shopping window for each inquiry, where the shopping window is equal to zero if all inquiries are made on the same day. Variables providing the number of open accounts for a given credit account type, “No. open”, describe the number of accounts of a given type that appeared on the consumer report in the month before the inquiry. “Any D90+ trades” is equal to one if the consumer had at least one tradeline (open or closed) that had been at least 90+ days delinquent in the last seven years included on their consumer report in the month before the inquiry. “Credit score” is equal to the credit score in the month before the inquiry. “Credit amount”, “Two-year D90+”, and “Past due amount” describe tradelines that opened in response to the inquiry, where “Credit amount” provides the credit limit of revolving accounts or credit account principal of installment accounts, “Two-year D90+” is equal to one if the account is at least 90 days delinquent within two years of its origination date, and “Past due amount” is the dollar amount past due on the account after two years. These variables cannot be included in Panels A and C because no account was opened in response to unsuccessful inquiries.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>387</SU>
                             These characteristics are considered as of the month or quarter before the inquiry because they can be affected by the outcome of the inquiry. The month before the inquiry is used when data is available, but only quarterly data are available prior to 2020 for some variables.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">5. Consumer Summary Statistics</HD>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3356"/>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,12,12,16">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 6—Consumer Summary Statistics 
                            <SU>388</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (1) 
                                <LI>Mean</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (2) 
                                <LI>Median</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (3) 
                                <LI>Obs.</LI>
                                <LI>(unique consumers)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel A: Over $500 Sample:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">No. medical collections</ENT>
                            <ENT>2.24</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>266,147</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Months between date of last med. coll. and date of first med. coll</ENT>
                            <ENT>20.47</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>266,147</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">No. credit card inquiries</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.42</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>266,147</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">No. mortgage inquiries</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.21</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>266,147</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">No. other inquiries</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.11</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>266,147</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Credit score at first inquiry</ENT>
                            <ENT>594.52</ENT>
                            <ENT>588.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>214,485</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Missing credit score at first inquiry</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.19</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>266,147</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Consumer age at first inquiry</ENT>
                            <ENT>40.29</ENT>
                            <ENT>38.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>261,488</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Northeastern share at first inquiry</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.08</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>266,147</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Midwestern share at first inquiry</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.15</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>266,147</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Southern share at first inquiry</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.61</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>266,147</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Western share at first inquiry</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.14</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>266,147</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel B: Full sample:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">No. medical collections</ENT>
                            <ENT>4.08</ENT>
                            <ENT>2.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>688,682</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Months between date of last med. coll. and date of first med. coll</ENT>
                            <ENT>35.77</ENT>
                            <ENT>10.92</ENT>
                            <ENT>688,682</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">No. credit card inquiries</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.89</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>688,682</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">No. mortgage inquiries</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.31</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>688,682</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">No. other inquiries</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.52</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>688,682</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Credit score at first inquiry</ENT>
                            <ENT>596.10</ENT>
                            <ENT>590.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>558,362</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Missing credit score at first inquiry</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.19</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>688,682</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Consumer age at first inquiry</ENT>
                            <ENT>41.89</ENT>
                            <ENT>40.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>676,075</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Northeastern share at first inquiry</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.10</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>688,682</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Midwestern share at first inquiry</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.19</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>688,682</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Southern share at first inquiry</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.54</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>688,682</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Western share at first inquiry</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.16</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.00</ENT>
                            <ENT>688,682</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Table 6 provides summary statistics at the consumer level, using the first observation for each consumer observed in the inquiry dataset. On average, a consumer in the over-$500 sample experiences 2.24 medical collections that appear within 180 days of an inquiry. These medical collections are, on average, approximately 20 months apart from the earliest to the latest reported. Nineteen percent of the consumers in the sample do not have a credit score in the month before their first inclusion in the sample; for consumers who do have a credit score, it is most often subprime.
                        <SU>389</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         More than 60 percent of consumers in the sample are located in Southern States, reflecting the disproportionate share of consumers with medical debt in the South documented in prior research.
                        <SU>390</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These summary statistics support the generalizability of the results, as the sample of consumers is generally similar to the overall population of consumers with medical collections during this time period.
                        <SU>391</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>388</SU>
                             Each panel in the table includes one observation per consumer. All values are means. Panel A limits the sample to consumers with at least one inquiry that is associated with a medical collection over $500 and includes no medical collections under $500 on the consumer report when the inquiry is made. Panel B includes the full sample. “No. medical collections” provides the number of unique medical collections in the sample for each consumer. Because each observation in the analysis dataset corresponds to an inquiry, consumers may have additional medical collections that are not represented in the sample if there were no inquiries made in the 180 days before or after those medical collections were first reported. “Months between date of last med. coll. and date of first med. coll.” provides the number of months between each consumer's medical collections, for those medical collections that are represented in the sample. The “No. inquiries” variables only include inquiries made in the 180 days before or after a medical collection was first reported; consumers may have other inquiries that are not included in the data if they did not fall within these 361-day windows. Variables “at first inquiry” are provided for each consumer's earliest inclusion in the sample, as they may change within consumers over time. There are fewer consumer observations corresponding to average credit scores than for the other statistics in both panels because average credit score is only calculated using data from consumers whose credit scores are non-missing. There are also some consumers with missing birth year that are not included in the calculation of average age. State regional shares were calculated using Census Regions; 
                            <E T="03">see</E>
                             U.S. Census Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Geographic Levels, https://www.census.gov/programs-surveys/economic-census/guidance-geographies/levels.html</E>
                             (last revised Oct. 8, 2021).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>389</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Borrower risk profiles, https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/consumer-credit-trends/student-loans/borrower-risk-profiles/</E>
                             (last visited May 9, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>390</SU>
                             U.S. Census Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">19% of U.S. Households Could Not Afford to Pay for Medical Care Right Away</E>
                             (Apr. 7, 2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.census.gov/library/stories/2021/04/who-had-medical-debt-in-united-states.html</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>391</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Paid and Low-Balance Medical Collections on Consumer Credit Reports</E>
                             (July 27, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/research-reports/paid-and-low-balance-medical-collections-on-consumer-credit-reports/</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        One debt collector commenter stated that the CFPB should have instead considered all inquiries associated with medical collections over $500 instead of making the restriction, in the proposed rule, that these inquiries are not made when a medical collection under $500 is included on the consumer report. The CFPB chose not to change its construction of the over-$500 subsample because the relevant question is how inquiries would be evaluated under the rule, relative to the baseline, in which no medical collections under $500 are included on consumer reports. The over-$500 sample, as initially constructed, is the closest approximation for estimating the effects of the rule. Results are included for the full sample to show that the estimated effects are broadly similar for all inquiries associated with medical collections of any size. Furthermore, the summary statistics for consumers in the full sample are similar to those for the over-$500 sample, but consumers in the over-$500 have nearly two fewer medical collections reported within 180 days of an inquiry in the sample. Though this at first may seem counterintuitive, this is because consumers with several medical collections often have at least one medical collection under $500 which removes them from the over-$500 subsample.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3357"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">6. Empirical Strategy</HD>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB used a regression discontinuity in time (RDiT) design to estimate the effect of reported medical collections on consumers' access to credit and the performance of credit account tradelines resulting from creditors' inquiries. Regression discontinuity is a quasi-experimental design that, under certain assumptions, allows estimation of the causal effect of a treatment or intervention where a treatment is assigned by a threshold value of that variable.
                        <SU>392</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In the present context, inquiries are “treated” when a medical collection tradeline is added to the NCRA's database. The date that a medical collection is added to a consumer report is the “threshold” that potentially creates a discontinuous effect on the studied dependent variables: inquiry success and two-year serious delinquency. Before this date, creditors cannot observe the medical collection on the consumer report at the time an inquiry is made, but the CFPB can observe using the CCIP that the consumer did have a medical debt in collections that would eventually be reported. The proximity of each inquiry to the threshold, referred to as the “running variable” in regression discontinuity terminology, is equal to the number of days between the date that the collection was first included on the consumer report and the date that the inquiry was made. When the inquiry date occurred after the medical collection reported date (or in other words, the medical collection was included on the consumer report before the inquiry was made), this running variable is greater than or equal to the “threshold” zero; for values less than or equal to zero, the medical collection was not included on the consumer report when the inquiry was made. The key assumption of a regression discontinuity analysis is that nothing is changing discontinuously across the threshold besides the treatment.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>392</SU>
                             Guido W. Imbens &amp; Thomas Lemieux, 
                            <E T="03">Regression discontinuity designs: A guide to practice,</E>
                             142(2) J. Econometrics, at 615-35 (Feb. 2008), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/abs/pii/S0304407607001091</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>To analyze inquiry success, the CFPB estimated Equation 1 using the inquiry dataset:</P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                        Y
                        <E T="52">ijk</E>
                         = α + γD
                        <E T="52">ijk</E>
                         + βZ
                        <E T="52">ijk</E>
                         + δD
                        <E T="52">ijk</E>
                         × Z
                        <E T="52">ijk</E>
                         + ε
                        <E T="52">ijk</E>
                         (1)
                    </FP>
                    <P>
                        Where 
                        <E T="03">i</E>
                         is a consumer, 
                        <E T="03">j</E>
                         is an inquiry, and 
                        <E T="03">k</E>
                         is the medical collection associated with the inquiry. 
                        <E T="03">Y</E>
                        <E T="52">ijk</E>
                         is a binary variable equal to one if the inquiry is successful, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         if a tradeline is originated within 14 days for a credit card or auto loan, 120 days for a mortgage, or 30 days for other loans. 
                        <E T="03">D</E>
                        <E T="52">ijk</E>
                         is the running variable, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the number of days after medical collection 
                        <E T="03">k</E>
                         was added to the consumer report that inquiry 
                        <E T="03">j</E>
                         was made. 
                        <E T="03">D</E>
                        <E T="52">ijk</E>
                         is negative if the inquiry was made before the medical collection was added, and positive if the inquiry was made after. 
                        <E T="03">Z</E>
                        <E T="52">ijk</E>
                         is a binary variable equal to one if the inquiry 
                        <E T="03">j</E>
                         was made after the date when collection 
                        <E T="03">k</E>
                         was reported. The coefficient of interest, 
                        <E T="03">β,</E>
                         represents the difference in the likelihood that an inquiry is successful for inquiries made after a medical collection is added, relative to inquiries made before. The intercept 
                        <E T="03">α</E>
                         allows estimation of a more flexible linear form.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB also estimated Equation 1 for the performance dataset, using the two-year performance of tradelines that can be traced to an inquiry included in the inquiry dataset as the dependent variable. The estimating equation is largely unchanged, though 
                        <E T="03">j</E>
                         is interpreted as a tradeline associated with an inquiry in the inquiry dataset (rather than the inquiry itself), and 
                        <E T="03">Y</E>
                        <E T="52">ijk</E>
                         is a binary variable equal to one if the account is at least 90 days delinquent on the tradeline at any point within the first two years after the tradeline is originated (rather than if the inquiry is associated with a tradeline origination, as in the inquiry dataset regression).
                    </P>
                    <P>In the results described below, the CFPB estimated six specifications to estimate impacts on inquiry success and account performance. The first specification is limited to the over-$500 sample, as defined above. The second and third specifications separate the over-$500 sample into two groups: inquiries that were made when the consumer had no nonmedical collections on their consumer report, and inquiries made when consumers had nonmedical collections on their consumer report. These specifications test whether reported medical collections affect inquiry success and better predict account performance for consumers with fewer other signals of negative information. The hypothesis is that the effects of a reported medical collection should be larger for inquiries made without nonmedical collections on the consumer report. If a consumer already has nonmedical collections, the appearance of a medical collection likely implies a smaller marginal change in expected delinquency risk. Finally, the CFPB then estimated each of these three specifications for all inquiries in the sample.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB only reports its estimates of the parameter 
                        <E T="8153">b</E>
                        , which provides the effect of medical collection furnishing on inquiry success and account performance. Combined across the main results and balance tests described later, the CFPB estimated a total of 192 
                        <E T="8153">b</E>
                         coefficients, so the reported standard errors were adjusted using the Benjamini-Hochberg procedure, a method for accounting for multiple comparisons (under which it is more likely to find a statistically significant result by chance than in a one-off analysis).
                        <SU>393</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>393</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Yoav Benjamini &amp; Yosef Hochberg, 
                            <E T="03">Controlling the False Discovery Rate: A Practical and Powerful Approach to Multiple Testing,</E>
                             57(1) J. of the Royal Stat. Soc'y Series B (Methodological), at 289-300 (1995), 
                            <E T="03">http://www.jstor.org/stable/2346101.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        To justify the robustness of the main specification, the CFPB considers the potential threats to identification that can arise from RDiT specifications. RDiT varies from a standard regression discontinuity design because the running variable is not generally continuous. As summarized by an academic paper, RDiT designs can be biased if observations far from the threshold time period are used for identification, as there may be autoregressive properties or unobservable confounders.
                        <SU>394</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This is often required in RDiT designs that have little cross-sectional variation, as the sample size can only grow by adding observations further from the threshold, rather than by adding additional cross-sectional units. A researcher commenter cited this concern in their critique of the CFPB's analysis. However, the data underlying the analysis discussed in this document contains ample cross-sectional variation, with 663,678 unique inquiries in the inquiry dataset and 401,027 unique tradelines in the performance dataset for the over-$500 sample. Furthermore, the analysis considers observations that are no more than 180 days from the threshold, minimizing the extent of possible autoregression.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>394</SU>
                             Catherine Hausman &amp; David S. Rapson, 
                            <E T="03">Regression Discontinuity in Time: Considerations for Empirical Applications,</E>
                             10 Ann. Rev. of Res. Econ. (2018), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.annualreviews.org/content/journals/10.1146/annurev-resource-121517-033306.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In addition to these features of the datasets that limit the potential for bias arising from the RDiT design, the CFPB estimates the regressions using econometric best practices as implemented by a practitioner software package.
                        <SU>395</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Standard errors are 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3358"/>
                        clustered by consumer to account for correlation within consumer observations over time. Additionally, the CFPB conducted several robustness checks to support the validity of the main design, described in detail after the discussion of the main results.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>395</SU>
                             Specifically, the regressions are estimated using the Stata package rdrobust, implemented with a triangular kernel, a common mean-square-error-optimal bandwidth selector, and adjustments for mass points. Sebastian Calonico et al., 
                            <E T="03">rdrobust: Software for regression-discontinuity designs,</E>
                             17:2 Stata J. (2017), 
                            <E T="03">
                                https://rdpackages.github.io/
                                <PRTPAGE/>
                                references/Calonico-Cattaneo-Farrell-Titiunik_2017_Stata.pdf.
                            </E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>A researcher commenter stated that a consumer may take steps to improve their credit profile near the threshold time period, introducing bias into the model if the effects of these changes are erroneously attributed to the medical collection report. The CFPB finds it implausible that a consumer would choose to improve markers of their financial wellbeing over the short amount of time near the appearance of a medical collection on their consumer report. It estimates balance tests to test for this phenomenon in Tables 9 and 10 and finds no supporting evidence. Even if a consumer did improve their credit profile near the date that the medical collection is added to their consumer report, this would only attenuate results, as consumers with reported medical collections would look like better risks than they would absent this behavior. This would shrink the difference, from a creditor's perspective, between consumers with reported and unreported medical collections.</P>
                    <P>
                        One researcher commenter stated that the CFPB should not have included the D
                        <E T="52">ijk</E>
                         × Z
                        <E T="52">ijk</E>
                         term in its regression equation because it is highly correlated with other variables in the regression equation, leading to multicollinearity bias. In fact this term, which is standard in RDiT equations, does not lead to multicollinearity bias and instead increases the precision of the estimated parameters. The term allows the relationship between the running variable and the outcome variable to change across the reporting threshold. Because some medical collections appear on a consumer report for fewer than 180 days, the slope between the running variable 
                        <E T="03">D</E>
                        <E T="54">ijk</E>
                         and inquiry success 
                        <E T="03">Y</E>
                        <E T="54">ijk</E>
                         may be positive for positive values of 
                        <E T="03">D</E>
                        <E T="54">ijk</E>
                         because inquiries made farther from the medical collection report date are less likely to occur when the medical collection appears on the consumer report, likely leading to a greater likelihood of inquiry success. There is no similar expectation of a positive relationship in the 180 days before the medical collection is reported, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         for negative values of 
                        <E T="03">D</E>
                        <E T="54">ijk</E>
                        . The estimated parameter γ would conflate these two relationships if the interaction term is omitted from the regression equation.
                    </P>
                    <P>A researcher commenter stated that the CFPB should have considered more heterogeneity between groups in the Technical Appendix of the proposed rule, such as a consumer's age, their number of medical collections, and whether their medical collection has been disputed. While specific effects on these groups may be of general interest, the rule is not limited to certain subpopulations or types of medical collections, so the parameter of primary interest to the CFPB is the average effect taken over the entire population that has medical collections over $500, which mimics the current reporting environment.</P>
                    <P>One researcher commenter stated that the CFPB did not provide measures that can be used to assess model quality, primarily concerning a hypothetical in which consumers far from the regression discontinuity threshold receive too much weight in the analysis. The CFPB included just 180 days before and after the threshold to mitigate this concern, as well as using econometric best practices in its regression equation as described above. The commenter did not describe specific, actionable examples of the measures that would assuage their concern.</P>
                    <P>One NCRA commenter stated that the CFPB should have studied differences between consumers with medical collections and consumers without medical collections in the Technical Appendix of the proposed rule instead of limiting its focus to consumers with reported and unreported medical collections. The commenter stated that it was important to distinguish between consumers with and without medical collections because these groups have different payment performance.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB does not agree that a comparison between all consumers with medical collections and all consumers without medical collections is relevant to understanding the impacts of the rule. Although consumers with medical collections may have a different delinquency risk than consumers without medical collections, the rule will not change which consumers have outstanding medical collections. The rule instead changes whether medical collections appear on a consumer report that a creditor receives for the purpose of a credit eligibility determination. The analysis discussed in this part considers whether creditors use medical collection information that appears on a consumer report to deny consumers with medical collections access to credit and limit their delinquency risk. This provides the closest understanding of the environment that would be created by the rule: consumers with reported medical collections are like the baseline while consumers with unreported medical collections are like the post-rule environment, and the CFPB's analysis compares them.</P>
                    <P>A researcher commenter stated that the CFPB should have used propensity score matching instead of a RDiT approach in the Technical Appendix of the proposed rule. The commenter suggested a design that would compare consumers with “hidden” medical debts, or consumers in the 180 days before their medical collection is added to their consumer report, to similar consumers without medical debt on their consumer reports.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB does not agree that a propensity score matching approach as suggested by the commenter would be appropriate. The CFPB could control for information included on consumer reports, but not unobservable variables like outstanding medical debt, as most medical debt is not included on consumer reports. Therefore, the consumers with hidden medical debt would be compared to consumers who, for the most part, do not have medical debt. Differences between these groups would not be related to the inclusion of a medical collection on consumer reports but would instead be driven by the presence of medical debt. This analysis would not be as relevant to the rule as the CFPB's analysis.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">7. Results on Inquiry Success</HD>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB first uses the inquiry dataset to consider how medical collection reporting affects inquiry success. Importantly, an unsuccessful inquiry does not necessarily imply that the lender denied the credit application. Consumers may be approved for credit with worse terms than they would have received absent medical collection reporting and decline the offer of credit as a result, or consumers may choose not to take up approved credit for idiosyncratic reasons. The CCIP does not include data on the terms of originated accounts or on credit approvals that do not lead to originated accounts. However, this is less likely to be an issue with credit cards because the CFPB understands that credit card accounts are generally issued automatically if the creditor approves an application, with little opportunity for a consumer to decline. The CFPB assumes that consumers' underlying demand for credit is unaffected by medical collection reporting, so changes in inquiry success across the reporting threshold can be attributed to creditors' denial of credit account applications or provision of worse terms, rather than 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3359"/>
                        changes in who applies. The CFPB justifies this assumption below.
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,16,16,16,16,16,16">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 7—The Effect of Medical Collection Reporting on Inquiry Success 
                            <SU>396</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (1)
                                <LI>Over $500</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (2)
                                <LI>Over $500,</LI>
                                <LI>no NMC</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (3)
                                <LI>Over $500,</LI>
                                <LI>NMC</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (4)
                                <LI>All</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (5)
                                <LI>No NMC</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (6)
                                <LI>NMC</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel A: Credit cards:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>***−0.047</ENT>
                            <ENT>***−0.072</ENT>
                            <ENT>***−0.029</ENT>
                            <ENT>***−0.033</ENT>
                            <ENT>***−0.049</ENT>
                            <ENT>***−0.022</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.009)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.003)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.005)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.003)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.059, −0.036]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.090, −0.055]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.041, −0.018]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.038, −0.027]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.059, −0.040]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.028, −0.017]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. success</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.294</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.381</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.222</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.275</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.364</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.214</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>601,230</ENT>
                            <ENT>267,276</ENT>
                            <ENT>333,954</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,026,355</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,233,571</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,792,784</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel B: Mortgages:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>*−0.026</ENT>
                            <ENT>*−0.040</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.003</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.014</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.013</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.005</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.012)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.018)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.012)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.009)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.015)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.049, −0.004]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.074, −0.006]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.027, 0.022]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.031, 0.004]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.043, 0.017]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.016, 0.006]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. success</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.186</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.248</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.098</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.167</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.235</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.089</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>79,372</ENT>
                            <ENT>46,003</ENT>
                            <ENT>33,369</ENT>
                            <ENT>439,685</ENT>
                            <ENT>237,413</ENT>
                            <ENT>202,272</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel C: Other credit accounts:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>*−0.014</ENT>
                            <ENT>*−0.020</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.010</ENT>
                            <ENT>***−0.015</ENT>
                            <ENT>***−0.024</ENT>
                            <ENT>**−0.010</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.009)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.007)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.003)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.005)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.004)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.026, −0.003]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.038, −0.002]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.024, 0.004]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.021, −0.009]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.033, −0.015]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.017, −0.003]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. success</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.242</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.307</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.197</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.246</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.316</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.205</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>469,290</ENT>
                            <ENT>190,942</ENT>
                            <ENT>278,348</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,484,030</ENT>
                            <ENT>908,849</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,575,181</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>Standard errors in parentheses, 95 percent confidence intervals in brackets.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>* p &lt; 0.1, ** p &lt; 0.05, *** p &lt; 0.01.</TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Table 7 provides the results of the main regression discontinuity analysis on inquiry success. Each panel represents a different loan type, as products generally have different underwriting procedures. At a high level, several summary observations can be made. First, just over half of the inquiries in the full sample of the inquiry dataset are for credit cards. Only 7.4 percent of the inquiries in this sample are for mortgages, compared to almost 17 percent of all inquiries in the CCIP. This likely reflects the fact that most consumers in the sample have thin credit files 
                        <SU>397</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and subprime credit scores, and therefore may be less likely to apply for mortgages than for other types of credit, given the higher underwriting standards of mortgages.
                        <SU>398</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Inquiry success rates are higher for all loan types when inquiries are made without nonmedical collection tradelines on the consumer report than when nonmedical collection tradelines are present, with differences as large as 15.9 percentage points. This is expected because consumers with less negative information on their consumer reports are more likely to be approved for credit or receive favorable terms. Perhaps less intuitively, average success rates for credit cards and mortgages are also generally higher for the subsample of inquiries made by consumers who only have medical collection tradelines over $500, if they have any. As discussed above, inquiries made by consumers with many medical collection tradelines are often excluded from the over-$500 sample because at least one of those medical collection tradelines is under $500. The average number of medical collection tradelines on a consumer report when an inquiry is made in the full sample, in Column 4, across all loan types, is 5.03. Conversely, the average number of medical collection tradelines on a consumer report when an inquiry is made, for inquiries made with all medical collection tradelines greater than $500, in Column 1 is 1.08. Thus, the over-$500 sample is positively selected, 
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         consumers in this sample have less negative information than consumers in the full sample, at least as measured by the number of medical collection tradelines present on their consumer reports. Despite the positive selection into the over-$500 sample, the CFPB expects these results to most closely represent the effects of removing all medical collection tradelines from consumer reports given the parallel with the NCRAs' current practice for under-$500 medical collection tradelines.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>396</SU>
                             The table provides the regression discontinuity estimates for the inquiry dataset, separately by credit account type. Each coefficient (RD Estimate) estimates a percentage point effect of having an additional medical collection reported on inquiry success. These effects can be represented as percent changes by comparing to the baseline “Avg. success”, which is calculated as the success rate of all inquiries made to the left of the regression discontinuity threshold (or without medical collection reporting). Column 1 limits the sample to inquiries associated with medical collection tradelines over $500 made when the consumer had no medical collection tradelines under $500 on their consumer report, which is then subset into Columns 2 and 3. Column 2 limits the sample to inquiries made when the consumer did not have a nonmedical collection tradeline (NMC) on their consumer report; Column 3, when consumers did have a nonmedical collection tradeline on their consumer report. Column 4 includes the full sample. Columns 5 and 6 are defined equivalently to Columns 2 and 3 for the full sample. Standard errors are clustered by consumer and adjusted using the Benjamini-Hochberg procedure.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>397</SU>
                             A thin credit file is a consumer report that contains fewer than five credit accounts. Jennifer White, Experian, 
                            <E T="03">What is a Thin Credit File?</E>
                             (May 25, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.experian.com/blogs/ask-experian/what-is-a-thin-credit-file-and-how-will-it-impact-your-life/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>398</SU>
                             Consumers with credit scores below 500 may not be approved for a mortgage but can usually access secured credit cards. Louis DeNicola, Experian, 
                            <E T="03">How to Buy a House with Bad Credit</E>
                             (Oct. 7, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.experian.com/blogs/ask-experian/how-to-get-a-home-loan-with-bad-credit/;</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">How to rebuild your credit</E>
                             (July 2020), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_how-to-rebuild-your-credit.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Turning to the regression estimates in Table 7, Column 1 of Panel A (credit cards) shows that a medical collection being reported causes a 4.7 percentage point decline in the likelihood of inquiry success for the over-$500 sample. This represents a 16.0 percent decline from relative to the average success rate for inquiries to the left of the regression discontinuity threshold (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         inquiries made before the medical collection was reported). The effect is larger in absolute value for inquiries made when the consumer had no nonmedical collection tradelines on their consumer report, shown in Column 2, than when consumers had nonmedical collection tradelines on their consumer report, shown in Column 3. This supports the hypothesis that medical collection reporting has a larger effect on consumers without outstanding nonmedical collections. Columns 4 through 6 repeat the groups from Columns 1 through 3 but include the full sample. The regression result shown in Column 4 of Panel A describes a 3.3 percentage point, or 12.0 percent, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3360"/>
                        decline in inquiry success for inquiries made with these larger medical collections reported relative to inquiries made without these medical collections reported. Again, effects are larger in absolute value for inquiries made when consumers did not have nonmedical collection tradelines on their consumer report than when nonmedical collection tradelines were present.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The first three Columns of Panel B (mortgages) find relatively small and no more than marginally significant effects of medical collection reporting on mortgage inquiry success. Medical collection reporting reduces mortgage inquiry success by 2.6 percentage points, or 14.0 percent of its baseline level. The effect appears to be driven by inquiries made when there were no nonmedical collection tradelines on the consumer report, as the coefficient in Column 3 is statistically insignificant and small. However, the estimates in Columns 1 and 2 are only statistically significant at the 10 percent level.
                        <SU>399</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         All estimates for the full sample in Columns 4 through 6 are statistically insignificant. Using the 95 percent confidence interval for the coefficient in Column 4 of Panel B, it is possible to reject effects larger than a 3.1 percentage point, or 18.6 percent, decline in inquiry success for the full sample.
                        <SU>400</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>399</SU>
                             That is, given the variability in the data, if medical collections had no effect on inquiry success, one would expect an estimate as large as those show in Columns 1 and 2 less than 10 percent of the time, but more than 5 percent of the time, through chance alone.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>400</SU>
                             The confidence intervals provided in brackets in the tables contain the true value of the parameter being estimated with 95 percent confidence, 
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             if the CFPB had sufficient data to run this regression with 100 different samples, and estimated 100 different confidence intervals, one would expect 95 of these confidence intervals would contain the true value of the parameter. Therefore, the CFPB can reject coefficients outside of the bounds of its estimated confidence intervals as unlikely to be consistent with the true effect of medical collections reporting on inquiry success with 95 percent confidence.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Panel C provides results for all other types of credit accounts. The estimated effects are all smaller in magnitude than the results for credit cards and vary in statistical significance. The coefficients imply that medical collection reporting causes a 1.4 percentage point decline in the likelihood of inquiry success for non-mortgage and non-credit-card credit accounts for the over-$500 sample, or a 5.8 percent decline from the baseline inquiry success rate. Estimated effects are similar for the full sample. As with the effects on credit cards and mortgage inquiries, effects for both samples are larger for consumers without nonmedical collection tradelines.
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>401</SU>
                             The table provides the regression discontinuity estimates for the performance dataset, separately by credit account type. The results estimate effects on two-year 90-day delinquency rate for all accounts originated from a successful inquiry in the inquiry dataset. Each coefficient (RD Estimate) estimates a percentage point effect of having an additional medical collection reported on inquiry success. These effects can be represented as percent changes using the baseline “Avg. D90+”, which is calculated as the 90-day delinquency rate of all inquiries made to the left of the regression discontinuity threshold (or without medical collection reporting). Column 1 limits the sample to inquiries associated with medical collection tradelines over $500 made when the consumer had no medical collection tradelines under $500 on their consumer report, which is then subset into Columns 2 and 3. Column 2 limits the sample to inquiries made when the consumer did not have a nonmedical collection tradeline (NMC) on their consumer report; Column 3, when consumers did have a nonmedical collection tradeline on their consumer report. Column 4 includes the full sample. Columns 5 and 6 are defined equivalently to Columns 2 and 3 for the full sample.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">8. Results on Account Performance</HD>
                    <P>The estimated effects on inquiry success show that the underwriting procedures for many credit types penalize consumers for having medical collection tradelines on their consumer reports, with generally larger effects for consumers with medical collection tradelines over $500. The CFPB next considered whether this use of medical collection tradelines protects creditors from delinquency risk. If creditors use medical collection information to accurately predict whether consumers have high delinquency risk and deny their applications, then originated accounts resulting from a successful inquiry for a consumer with an unreported medical collection at the time of the inquiry would be more likely to be seriously delinquent than those resulting from a successful inquiry for a consumer with a reported medical collection. However, to the extent that creditors provide worse credit terms to consumers with reported medical collections and such worse credit terms increase the likelihood of serious delinquency, one might expect the opposite: Originated accounts resulting from an inquiry for a consumer with an unreported medical collection could be less likely to be seriously delinquent (because they received more affordable credit terms) than those resulting from an inquiry for a consumer with a reported medical collection (because they received worse credit terms). These opposing effects make it impossible to determine how the underlying delinquency risk of consumers with and without unreported medical collections varies. However, the results of this analysis are still informative as to how two-year delinquency rates are affected by medical collection reporting, net of the effects of application denials and the provision of worse terms.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/7,i1" CDEF="s50,16,16,16,16,16,16">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 8—The Effect of Medical Collection Reporting on Two-Year Credit Account Performance 
                            <SU>401</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (1)
                                <LI>Over $500</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (2)
                                <LI>Over $500,</LI>
                                <LI>no NMC</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (3)
                                <LI>Over $500,</LI>
                                <LI>NMC</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (4)
                                <LI>All</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (5)
                                <LI>No NMC</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (6)
                                <LI>NMC</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel A: Credit cards:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.002</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.003</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.002</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.004</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.005</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.012)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.014)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.021)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.007)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.008)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.023, 0.023]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.026, 0.031]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.045, 0.038]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.009, 0.013]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.010, 0.018]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.021, 0.011]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. D90+</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.231</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.190</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.293</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.223</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.171</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.284</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>96,297</ENT>
                            <ENT>56,423</ENT>
                            <ENT>39,874</ENT>
                            <ENT>565,680</ENT>
                            <ENT>305,980</ENT>
                            <ENT>259,700</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel B: Mortgages:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.011</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.021</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.033</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.004</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.006</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.034</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.014)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.014)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.034)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.007)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.019)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.039, 0.017]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.049, 0.007]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.033, 0.100]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.009, 0.017]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.018, 0.007]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.003, 0.071]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. D90+</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.035</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.025</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.069</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.038</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.029</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.065</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,177</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,944</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,233</ENT>
                            <ENT>56,976</ENT>
                            <ENT>43,106</ENT>
                            <ENT>13,870</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel C: Other credit accounts:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.012</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.011</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.009</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.001</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.002</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.002</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.014)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.015)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.021)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.009)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.040, 0.015]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.041, 0.019]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.050, 0.033]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.012, 0.011]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.014, 0.011]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.019, 0.016]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. D90+</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.182</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.135</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.235</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.171</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.120</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.216</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>71,760</ENT>
                            <ENT>36,951</ENT>
                            <ENT>34,809</ENT>
                            <ENT>459,094</ENT>
                            <ENT>213,481</ENT>
                            <ENT>245,613</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>Standard errors in parentheses, 95 percent confidence intervals in brackets.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>* p &lt; 0.1, ** p &lt; 0.05, *** p &lt; 0.01.</TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3361"/>
                    <P>
                        Table 8 shows the results of the main regression discontinuity analysis in the performance dataset. Across all loan types and subsamples, the estimated effects of medical collection reporting on serious delinquency are small and statistically insignificant. Column 1 of Panel A shows that, in the over-$500 sample, the CFPB can reject effects larger in absolute value than 2.3 percentage points, or 10.0 percent of the baseline delinquency rate, with 95 percent confidence. That is, it would be highly unlikely to find an estimate as small as what is reported in Table 8 through chance alone if having an unreported medical collection was associated with an increase in the rate of serious delinquency by 10 percent or more. The confidence interval is tighter and the central estimate more positive (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         unreported medical collections associated with less delinquency) for inquiries made when consumers did not have nonmedical collection tradelines on their consumer report than when these collection tradelines were present. This means that the true effects for inquiries made without nonmedical collection tradelines are more likely to be positive. Further, if there is a difference in delinquency rate for consumers with unreported medical collections, these consumers are less likely to be delinquent than consumers with reported medical collections. This also holds for the full subsample in Columns 4 through 6.
                    </P>
                    <P>These results broadly find that credit card lenders use medical collection information in underwriting, but do not reduce their two-year serious delinquency risk for originated credit account tradelines by doing so. Fewer accounts are originated to consumers with reported medical collections, but those that are originated are no less likely to be delinquent than accounts originated to consumers with unreported medical collections. This suggests that removing medical collections information from credit card underwriting would increase access to credit without negatively impacting the likelihood of serious delinquency for consumers with medical collections, all else equal.</P>
                    <P>The results in Panel B show qualitatively similar estimates for mortgages, but with less precisely estimated effects. The effects are less precise because the average serious delinquency rate is much lower for mortgages than for credit cards: only 3.5 percent of mortgages in the over-$500 sample are seriously delinquent within two years, compared to 23.1 percent of credit cards. The lower frequency in the dependent variable as well as the smaller sample size will naturally lead to wider confidence intervals. Column 1 shows that the CFPB can only reject marginal reductions in mortgage delinquency rates with reported medical collections that are larger in absolute value than 3.9 percentage points, or 111.4 percent of the baseline delinquency rate, with 95 percent confidence. For the full sample, the CFPB can reject marginal reductions larger in absolute value than 0.9 percentage points, or 23.7 percent of baseline delinquency rate. Though these results are too imprecise to allow the rejection of large effects, their statistical insignificance can be interpreted as suggestive that removing larger medical collection tradelines from mortgage underwriting would not cause increases in serious delinquency risk.</P>
                    <P>As for credit cards, the results for non-mortgage and non-credit-card accounts, shown in Table 8, are mostly statistically insignificant and small in magnitude. Again, the CFPB concludes that the use of medical collections information in underwriting does not reduce the delinquency risk of accounts originated to people with reported medical collections.</P>
                    <P>These results suggest that, absent consumer reporting of medical collections, the additional credit accounts that creditors provide to consumers whose medical collections would no longer be reported would be no more likely to be delinquent than the credit accounts creditors provide at baseline. In line with economic theory, the CFPB expects that creditors only provide credit if the account's expected profit is positive. Under this expectation, creditors would not provide accounts to consumers with unreported medical collections at baseline if they were not profitable. However, it is possible that creditors currently provide those accounts not because they are profitable, but because they have no other mechanism for identifying and either denying the credit applications of, or changing the terms provided to, applicants with unreported medical collections. In this case, the rule would reduce profit for creditors by increasing the number of unprofitable loans in their portfolio.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB illustrates this concern with a simple example. Suppose that a creditor's applicant pool is equally divided across three nonoverlapping groups of consumers, which are identical in all attributes except for the presence of collections and delinquency risk. Assume that applicants with no collections have a delinquency risk of 1 percent and applicants with medical collections have a delinquency risk of 1.25 percent. Suppose for simplicity that a lender seeks to minimize their delinquency risk and is unwilling to provide loans if the expected delinquency rate is 1.2 percent or higher. If half of consumers with medical collections (or one-sixth of the total population) have those medical collections included on their consumer report at baseline, the lender provides loans to consumers with no collections and those with unreported medical collections, for an overall delinquency risk of 1.08 percent. If no medical collections were included on consumer reports, creditors would provide accounts to all consumers with no collections and with medical collections, for an overall delinquency risk of 1.13 percent.</P>
                    <P>Under this line of reasoning, the above results related to account performance would be unrelated to the consequences of the rule. It would be unsurprising that consumers with reported medical collections have the same underlying delinquency risk as consumers with unreported medical collections, because in the example delinquency risk is determined by the medical collection itself, and not as a consequence of consumer reporting. Instead, the relevant question would be whether consumers with medical collections have a higher delinquency risk than consumers without medical collections, holding all else equal.</P>
                    <P>However, this example presupposes that delinquency risk is an inherent quality of consumers, rather than in part determined by the terms of credit extended to consumers. The dollar amounts and interest rates impact the likelihood of delinquency, as well as creditor revenue. These levers remain available to creditors under the rule and can be used to attenuate reductions in revenue that result from any increases in delinquency risk. Indeed, unlike in this simple example, the performance results in Table 8 show that creditors willingly provide accounts to people with reported medical collections at baseline. This requires that there exist terms for which credit accounts can be profitably, on expectation, provided to consumers with medical collections. Because creditors will not be able to differentiate between consumers with and without medical collections using information provided on consumer reports under the rule, any changes in terms of credit under the rule may impact all consumers, not just those with medical collections.</P>
                    <P>
                        Furthermore, if the credit extended to consumers with unreported medical collections were unprofitable at the pre-rule baseline, the CFPB expects that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3362"/>
                        creditors could request this information on credit applications to ensure they do not provide loans to these applicants or provide different terms. Credit applications commonly request information from consumers that may not be available on their consumer reports, such as their employment status or income. Given the relatively small share of medical debt that is included on consumer reports, creditors could request this information from consumers directly if it were a key determinant of account profitability. At baseline, however, mortgage creditor applications, for example, ordinarily do not specifically request medical information.
                    </P>
                    <P>A researcher commenter described these results in the proposed rule, equivalent to Table 8, as showing that not having nonmedical debt, including products like student loans and auto loans, leads to higher rates of delinquency than having a product like a credit card. The commenter stated that these results suggested a problem with the CFPB's methodology for the Technical Appendix overall, as one would expect nonmedical debt to be associated with a greater rate of delinquency.</P>
                    <P>While the CFPB agrees with the general principle that counterintuitive results of any statistical analysis may warrant additional scrutiny, the commenter does not accurately characterize the analysis above, and the results are not counterintuitive in the way the commenter suggests, much less indicating a problem with the CFPB's methodology. The CFPB's analysis does not compare delinquency rates between consumers with and without nonmedical debt in general. Rather, as discussed above, the results in Table 8 include versions with the sample split by the presence or absence of nonmedical collections tradelines. Nonmedical collections are not equivalent to nonmedical forms of debt such as student loans or auto loans, as a debt only goes to collections after it is seriously delinquent. Further, comparing Columns 2 and 3 or Columns 5 and 6 shows that credit products originated to people with nonmedical collections have higher delinquency rates, on average, than credit products originated to people without nonmedical collections, as would be expected.</P>
                    <P>The researcher commenter also stated that the results in the proposed rule equivalent to Table 8 showed that there was a near-significant impact of nonmedical debt on mortgage delinquency. Again, this is an inaccurate characterization of the analysis presented above. The CFPB did not estimate the effect of nonmedical debt on delinquency at all. Instead, the CFPB found one subsample—consumers with non-medical collections tradelines and medical collections of any dollar amount—for which the effect of having a medical collections tradeline reported on mortgage delinquency is positive and close to being statistically significant at 95 percent. This is shown in Column 6 of Panel B of Table 8. If the effect were estimated with statistical significance, it would suggest that consumers with reported medical collections in this subsample are more likely to become seriously delinquent on mortgages. Differences in the terms provided to consumers with reported and unreported medical collections could lead to these higher delinquency rates, but the CFPB expects that this result is more likely attributed to statistical noise, given the inconsistency with the results from the other subsamples studied.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB also considered whether to compare different credit scoring models, constructed with and without medical information, as a way to determine how well such models predict account performance. Such an approach, however, would call on the CFPB to design its own credit scoring models and determine what types and magnitude of differences between the results of the models were meaningful, and may depend more on the specifications of the models constructed than the actual rate of default in any studied population. The CFPB finds its regression discontinuity design and balance tests a more appropriate and reliable measure for how medical information improves creditors' ability to minimize their risk of default. The results of the CFPB's analysis of the performance of actual accounts indicate that creditors who use medical information do not reduce risk by doing so.
                        <SU>402</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>402</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">E.g.,</E>
                             Fannie Mae, 
                            <E T="03">Uniform Residential Loan Application (Form 1003), https://singlefamily.fanniemae.com/delivering/uniform-mortgage-data-program/uniform-residential-loan-application</E>
                             (last visited Nov. 25, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">9. Results Related to Credit Demand and Selection</HD>
                    <P>The results described in the previous two subsections suggest that creditors use medical collections information in their underwriting procedures, but this information does not enable them to originate accounts that are less likely to become seriously delinquent. This interpretation of the regression discontinuity results relies on the identifying assumption discussed above: the only difference between the inquiries made before and after a medical collection tradeline is added to a consumer report is the medical collection reporting itself, rather than that the application delinquency risk (quality) is lower for consumers with reported medical collections. This section discusses evidence supporting this identifying assumption.</P>
                    <P>
                        Though the analysis benefits from ample observations near the threshold, as discussed above, RDiT specifications may still be affected by anticipation or selection effects if cross-sectional observations can sort themselves on either side of the threshold. In this setting, consumers may be less likely to apply for credit after a medical collection tradeline is added to their consumer report. If consumers with lower delinquency risk have more knowledge about when a medical collection tradeline will be added to their consumer report, they may be more likely to apply for credit immediately to the left of the threshold (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         just before the medical collection tradeline is added to the consumer report). The CFPB first considered how the magnitude of credit demand changes across the reporting threshold by plotting the number of inquiries made in each week relative to the week of the medical collection tradeline's addition to the consumer report.
                    </P>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3363"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">
                        Figure 1: Inquiry Distribution Across Weeks 
                        <E T="51">403</E>
                    </HD>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="142">
                        <GID>ER14JA25.000</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Figure 1 plots the number of inquiries made in each week relative to the week before the date a medical collection tradeline was added to a consumer report, represented as week zero. For all credit account products, credit demand is largely stable through the 25 weeks before the medical collection is reported, but there is an immediate reduction in the week that the medical collection is reported. Credit demand rebounds quickly from this initial drop but remains persistently lower for the 25 weeks after the medical collection is reported, only approaching its pre-report level by the final considered week for credit cards and mortgages. Though the reduction in credit demand is sharp around the week of the medical collection's first report, it is not large; at most, credit demand falls by 8 percent of the baseline (for mortgages).
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>403</SU>
                             This figure plots the number of inquiries made in each week within 180 days of the medical collection's first reported date. The number of inquiries is provided as a ratio, relative to the number of inquiries made in the week before the associated medical collection's first reported date. The first and last week of the 180-day window include only six days and are not plotted.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Any reduction in credit demand corresponding to medical collection reporting may appear to threaten the identifying assumption, which requires that applications for credit made by consumers with reported medical collections only differ from those made by consumers whose medical collections were not yet reported because of the medical collection reporting itself, and not because application quality differs. However, credit demand may fall for reasons that do not simultaneously affect credit application quality. For example, many NCRAs provide credit monitoring services that alert a consumer when a collection is added to their consumer report.
                        <SU>404</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A consumer who planned to apply for credit may no longer do so if they are aware of a medical collection tradeline's negative effect on their credit score, which would affect their access to credit. The causality may also flow in the other direction if debt collectors track consumer reports and use “collection triggers” to focus their medical collection reporting after consumers apply for or open new credit accounts.
                        <SU>405</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These mechanisms cannot be observed in the data but could explain the observed discontinuous decline in credit demand around medical collection reporting.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>404</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Equifax, 
                            <E T="03">
                                Equifax Complete 
                                <SU>TM</SU>
                                , https://www.equifax.com/personal/products/credit/monitoring-and-reports/
                            </E>
                             (last visited May 15, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>405</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Experian, 
                            <E T="03">
                                Collection Triggers 
                                <SU>SM</SU>
                                : Monitoring your collections accounts, https://www.experian.com/business/products/collection-triggers
                            </E>
                             (last visited May 15, 2024).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>406</SU>
                             The table includes balance tests for the inquiry sample. Panel A limits the sample to inquiries associated with a medical collection tradeline over $500 and no medical collection tradelines under $500 on the consumer report when the inquiry is made. Panel B includes the full sample. These balance tests estimate Equation 1 using characteristics from the consumer's consumer report in the month before the creditor makes an inquiry. “RD Estimate” provides the estimate for β when the dependent variable is the variable whose average is provided. Each column limits the sample by inquiry type. “Any D90+” describes whether any open or closed account on the consumer report is at least 90 days delinquent, and “tot. past due am.” describes the total amount past due or charged off across all accounts. Standard errors are clustered by consumer and adjusted using the Benjamini-Hochberg procedure.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        To estimate if credit application quality changes across the threshold, the CFPB estimated balance tests using Equation 1, where 
                        <E T="03">Y</E>
                        <E T="52">ijk</E>
                         is equal to one of several variables that describe the consumer report at the time of the inquiry 
                        <E T="03">j.</E>
                         This estimates how inquiries made with reported medical collections differ from inquiries made with unreported medical collections. If such differences are large in absolute value and statistically significant, one might be concerned that there are underlying differences in the types of credit applications made when medical collections are reported that could be driving the regression discontinuity results, instead of the medical collection reporting itself. Finding small or imprecise coefficients would support the identifying assumption that the only difference in inquiries across the regression discontinuity threshold is the addition of a medical collection tradeline to the consumer report.
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,13,13,13">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 9—Inquiry Balance Tests 
                            <SU>406</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (1)
                                <LI>Credit card</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (2)
                                <LI>Mortgage</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (3)
                                <LI>Other credit</LI>
                                <LI>accounts</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel A: Over $500 sample:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.117</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.257</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.118</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.172)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.464)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.172)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. consumer age</ENT>
                            <ENT>39.295</ENT>
                            <ENT>41.430</ENT>
                            <ENT>38.637</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>**−3.208</ENT>
                            <ENT>4.034</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.540</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="3364"/>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(1.192)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(3.572)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(1.255)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. credit score</ENT>
                            <ENT>576.254</ENT>
                            <ENT>617.565</ENT>
                            <ENT>569.366</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>** 0.012</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.001</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.008</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.005)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.009)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.005)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. missing credit score</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.197</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.074</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.151</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.032</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.050</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.026</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.035)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.115)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.039)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. num. open loans</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.328</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.997</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.275</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.001</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.010</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.008</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.005)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.012)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. any D90+</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.265</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.256</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.268</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>49.549</ENT>
                            <ENT>*−259.894</ENT>
                            <ENT>29.122</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(63.234)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(149.575)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(72.823)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. tot. past due am</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,131.626</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,155.664</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,276.969</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel B: Full sample:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.072</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.111</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.077</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.077)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.235)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.087)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. age</ENT>
                            <ENT>41.092</ENT>
                            <ENT>43.078</ENT>
                            <ENT>40.784</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>*−1.472</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.868</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.817</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.590)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(1.990)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.642)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. credit score</ENT>
                            <ENT>569.811</ENT>
                            <ENT>606.276</ENT>
                            <ENT>561.472</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>** 0.007</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.002</ENT>
                            <ENT>* 0.005</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.003)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.004)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.003)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. missing credit score</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.171</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.073</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.134</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.010</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.092</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.010</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.020)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.047)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.018)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. num. open loans</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.122</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.749</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.065</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.001</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.003)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.004)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. any D90+</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.262</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.260</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.267</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>−33.152</ENT>
                            <ENT>−72.382</ENT>
                            <ENT>70.836</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(42.478)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(76.899)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(40.274)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. tot. past due am</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,073.628</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,135.919</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,190.611</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>Standard errors in parentheses.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            * 
                            <E T="03">p</E>
                             &lt; 0.1, ** 
                            <E T="03">p</E>
                             &lt; 0.05, *** 
                            <E T="03">p</E>
                             &lt; 0.01.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,13,13,13">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 10—Performance Balance Tests 
                            <SU>407</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (1)
                                <LI>Credit card</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (2)
                                <LI>Mortgage</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (3)
                                <LI>Other credit</LI>
                                <LI>accounts</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel A: Over $500 sample:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.261</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.294</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.200</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.296)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.894)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.366)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. consumer age</ENT>
                            <ENT>41.404</ENT>
                            <ENT>42.692</ENT>
                            <ENT>40.184</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>−3.694</ENT>
                            <ENT>7.807</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.502</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(2.012)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(7.099)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(2.608)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. credit score</ENT>
                            <ENT>618.329</ENT>
                            <ENT>668.427</ENT>
                            <ENT>601.025</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.005</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.005</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.002</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.010)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.007)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. missing credit score</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.078</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.014</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.099</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>*** 0.286</ENT>
                            <ENT>* 0.564</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.089</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.092)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.340)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.092)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. num. open loans</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.884</ENT>
                            <ENT>2.834</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.804</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.017</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.019</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.002</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.009)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.027)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.013)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. any D90+</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.248</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.191</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.268</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>175.228</ENT>
                            <ENT>−332.580</ENT>
                            <ENT>16.765</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(112.690)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(302.978)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(180.777)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. tot. past due am</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,034.492</ENT>
                            <ENT>673.171</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,220.532</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel B: Full sample:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>** 0.411</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.871</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.068</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.154)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.630)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.200)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. consumer age</ENT>
                            <ENT>43.264</ENT>
                            <ENT>44.083</ENT>
                            <ENT>42.246</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>−1.670</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.602</ENT>
                            <ENT>−1.194</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.921)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(3.340)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(1.197)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. credit score</ENT>
                            <ENT>611.625</ENT>
                            <ENT>660.599</ENT>
                            <ENT>590.484</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.001</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.002</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.000</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.003)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.005)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.004)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="3365"/>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. missing credit score</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.057</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.016</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.087</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.027</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.162</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.029</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.042)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.157)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.045)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. num. open loans</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.671</ENT>
                            <ENT>2.588</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.530</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.003</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.028</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.007</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.005)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.016)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.007)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. any D90+</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.256</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.189</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.274</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>82.685</ENT>
                            <ENT>−135.890</ENT>
                            <ENT>35.141</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(88.985)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(138.828)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(76.515)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. tot. past due am</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,005.487</ENT>
                            <ENT>609.676</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,191.860</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>Standard errors in parentheses.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            * 
                            <E T="03">p</E>
                             &lt; 0.1, ** 
                            <E T="03">p</E>
                             &lt; 0.05, *** 
                            <E T="03">p</E>
                             &lt; 0.01.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Table 9 provides results for the inquiry dataset and Table 10 provides results for the performance dataset. Nearly all coefficients are not statistically significant, and where there is statistical significance, the magnitude of the coefficient is never larger than 20 percent of the mean value. This implies that credit applications submitted by consumers with reported medical collections are similar to those submitted by consumers whose medical collections are not yet on their consumer reports at the time of application, and differences in inquiry success and account performance can be attributed to the medical collection reporting itself.
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>407</SU>
                             The table includes balance tests for the performance sample. Panel A limits the sample to inquiries associated with a medical collection tradeline over $500 and no medical collection tradelines under $500 on the consumer report when the inquiry is made. Panel B includes the full sample. These balance tests estimate Equation 1 using characteristics from the consumer's consumer report in the month before the creditor makes an inquiry. “RD Estimate” provides the estimate for β when the dependent variable is the variable whose average is provided. Each column limits the sample by inquiry type. “Any D90+” describes whether any open or closed account on the consumer report is at least 90 days delinquent, and “tot. past due am.” describes the total amount past due or charged off across all accounts. Standard errors are clustered by consumer and adjusted using the Benjamini-Hochberg procedure.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        If all credit accounts were equivalent in their terms, and delinquency risk was an immutable characteristic of consumers, one may instead expect creditors to require applicants with reported medical collections to have credit profiles that reflect lower risk than those without reported medical collections, because consumers with reported medical collections have an additional, potentially negative, signal on their consumer report. Consider, under these assumptions, a simple example in which a creditor only provides credit to applicants whose expected delinquency risk is less than 10 percent. Suppose also that the presence of at least one medical collection increases an applicant's true delinquency risk by 1 percentage point. In this case, creditors will provide accounts to consumers whose true delinquency risk is between 0 and 11 percent for applicants with unreported medical collections, and between 0 and 10 percent for applicants with reported medical collections. If risk is equally distributed across the population, on average, a consumer offered credit with unreported medical collections would be 0.5 percentage points more likely to be delinquent than a consumer offered credit with reported medical collections.
                        <SU>408</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>408</SU>
                             In this example, the average delinquency rate for credit recipients with unreported medical collections is 5.5 percent, compared to 5 percent for credit recipients with reported medical collections.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>To the contrary, the balance tests estimated in Table 10 show that there are no sizable and statistically significant differences between the credit profiles of consumers with reported or unreported medical collections that open credit accounts, for the considered possible differentiating variables. These balance tests suggest two possible explanations:</P>
                    <P>First, some creditors could use medical collection information to deny all applicants with such information, while other creditors could disregard this information. In this case, creditors that ignore medical collections information would provide credit to the same types of consumers on either side of the regression discontinuity threshold, thus not causing a discontinuous change in the delinquency risk of approved consumers. The findings in Table 7 would be explained by creditors that deny all consumers with reported medical collections, but these creditors would not contribute to estimating the delinquency risk of consumers with reported medical collections; there is no delinquency rate to measure because these consumers did not open an account. These differences in creditors' understanding of the usefulness of medical collection information could explain the statistically insignificant differences in delinquency rates across the regression discontinuity threshold shown in Table 8.</P>
                    <P>
                        Second, creditors could provide different terms to consumers with reported medical collections, which may impact their delinquency risk. Consumers with reported medical collections may appear to be better credit risks than consumers with unreported medical collections (on a differentiating variable for which the balance tests were not estimated because the CFPB does not have the relevant data), but if they are provided worse terms, those terms may increase their delinquency risk above what it would have been had they received the terms provided to consumers with unreported medical collections. Additionally, consumers with lower delinquency risk may be less likely to take up an offered loan with worse terms. If, in the example above, consumers with a delinquency risk between 0 and 1 percent choose not to take up an offered credit account when their medical collection is reported and they are provided worse terms, the average delinquency rate would be 5.5 percent for consumers with reported medical collections, as in the sample of consumers with unreported medical collections.
                        <SU>409</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>409</SU>
                             In this example, consumers with reported medical collections that originate an account have a delinquency rate between 1 and 10 percent, and consumers with unreported medical collections that originate an account have a delinquency rate between 0 and 11 percent. The average delinquency rate for both groups is 5.5 percent.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB does not have information about the terms of credit provided to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3366"/>
                        consumers with reported or unreported medical collections, or information about credit application approvals that are not taken up by consumers, and therefore cannot estimate the extent to which the delinquency results are driven by either possible explanation. Regardless of the underlying mechanism, the CFPB concludes that even when creditors, at baseline, use medical collection information, they do not reduce their underlying delinquency risk by doing so. This suggests that differences in inquiry success and account performance can be attributed to the medical collection reporting itself, rather than a change in the consumer's risk of default arising from the underlying medical debt. Therefore, removing this information under the rule will lead creditors to provide more credit accounts to consumers that are similar in delinquency risk to the credit accounts they already provide.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Two researcher commenters stated that the CFPB needed to include control variables in its regressions, specifically suggesting State of residence, credit score, or credit balances. One of these commenters stated these variables may need to be controlled for if they are correlated with either inquiry success or account performance and change discontinuously around the medical collection reporting threshold date, citing academic literature.
                        <SU>410</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>410</SU>
                             Catherine Hausman &amp; David S. Rapson, 
                            <E T="03">Regression Discontinuity in Time: Considerations for Empirical Applications,</E>
                             10 Ann. Rev. of Res. Econ. (2018), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.annualreviews.org/content/journals/10.1146/annurev-resource-121517-033306.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB does not agree that including controls for State of residence, credit score, or credit balances is necessary or appropriate. If these control variables were correlated with inquiry success or account performance and changed discontinuously across the threshold date, estimating balance tests on these control variables would lead to statistically significant and large effects, but Tables 9 and 10 find no evidence in support of this hypothesis. The CFPB did not estimate balance tests for State of residence but finds it implausible that sufficiently many consumers would change States in response to a medical collection (so that a consumer's State correlated with the time between the inquiry and the medical collection report) that the move would discontinuously impact either inquiry success or account performance. Instead, the CFPB interprets its coefficients as an average of effects across all states, weighted by the number of inquiries included in the sample from each State. Additionally, the CFPB included in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking, and reproduced below, a version of its results including control variables for day-of-week effects. These are the only effects mentioned as likely needed control variables in the academic literature cited by a commenter, but they do not meaningfully change the results.
                        <SU>411</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>411</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>412</SU>
                             The table provides regression discontinuity estimates for the inquiry and performance datasets, separately by credit account type, and omitting all inquiries made within seven days of the associated medical collection's reporting date, making a 14-day “donut hole” of omitted inquiries. Each coefficient (RD Estimate) estimates a percentage point effect of having an additional medical collection reported on inquiry success (in Columns 1 and 3) using the inquiry dataset or 90-day delinquency (in Columns 2 and 4) using the performance dataset. These effects can be represented as percent changes by comparing to a baseline “Avg. dep. var.”, which is calculated as the success rate or 90-day delinquency rate of all inquiries made to the left of the regression discontinuity threshold (or without medical collection reporting). Columns 1 and 2 limit the sample to inquiries associated with medical collection tradelines over $500 made when the consumer had no medical collection tradelines under $500 on their consumer report. Columns 3 and 4 include the full sample. Standard errors are clustered by consumer and adjusted using the Benjamini-Hochberg procedure.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>To further test for the presence of anticipation or selection effects, the CFPB estimated a “donut” regression that removes from the sample all inquiries made within seven days of their associated medical collection's addition to the consumer report. If the regression estimates are driven by anticipation or selection, the effects would be much smaller when estimated without observations near the reporting threshold, as application quality would be less selected from the threshold. In addition, medical collections may not be reported to all three NCRAs on precisely the same date. The creditors that make inquiries to the NCRA that provides the CFPB's CCIP may observe a medical collection on an inquiry they make to a different NCRA and use this information, even though it appears in the CCIP that the medical collection was not reported. Additionally, the construction of inquiry shopping windows and inherent imprecision in connecting inquiries to opened tradelines may further limit the accuracy of calculating the running variable to a precise day. This is especially important near the reporting threshold because a one-day error in assigning the date a medical collection was reported or an inquiry was made could be sufficient to erroneously categorize the medical collection reporting status of an inquiry. The CFPB further considered variation in dates within inquiry shopping windows below.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,16,16,16,16">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 11—The Effect of Medical Collection Reporting on Inquiry Success and Credit Account Performance, Using a 14-Day Donut 
                            <SU>412</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (1)
                                <LI>Over $500, success</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (2)
                                <LI>Over $500, D90+</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (3)
                                <LI>All, success</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (4)
                                <LI>All, D90+</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel A: Credit cards:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                ***−0.060
                                <LI>(0.0080)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.075, −0.045]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                −0.006
                                <LI>(0.015)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.036, 0.024]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                ***−0.041
                                <LI>(0.005)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.050, −0.032]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                0.008
                                <LI>(0.008)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.009, 0.024]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. dep. var</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.294</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.232</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.275</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.223</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>578,088</ENT>
                            <ENT>92,708</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,908,047</ENT>
                            <ENT>543,865</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel B: Mortgages:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                **−0.037
                                <LI>(0.017)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.071, −0.004]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                −0.022
                                <LI>(0.025)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.071]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                ***−0.043
                                <LI>(0.008)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.060, −0.027]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                −0.003
                                <LI>(0.011)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.026, 0.019]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. dep. var</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.186</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.035</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.167</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.038</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>76,358</ENT>
                            <ENT>9,797</ENT>
                            <ENT>422,584</ENT>
                            <ENT>54,818</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel C: Other Credit Accounts:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                −0.009
                                <LI>(0.009)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.027, 0.009]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                −0.038
                                <LI>(0.025)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.087, 0.012]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                *−0.010
                                <LI>(0.004)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.018, −0.002]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                0.008
                                <LI>(0.010)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.012, 0.027]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="3367"/>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. dep. var</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.242</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.182</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.245</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.171</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>451,474</ENT>
                            <ENT>69,159</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,387,333</ENT>
                            <ENT>441,523</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>Standard errors in parentheses, 95 percent confidence intervals in brackets.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            * 
                            <E T="03">p</E>
                             &lt; 0.1, ** 
                            <E T="03">p</E>
                             &lt; 0.05, *** 
                            <E T="03">p</E>
                             &lt; 0.01.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>Table 11 provides the “donut” specification regression results. By comparing Column 1 of Table 7 to Column 1 of Table 11 and comparing Column 4 of Table 7 to Column 3 of Table 11, one can observe that effects on inquiry success are larger in absolute magnitude and more statistically significant for credit cards and mortgages in the donut specification than in the main specification. This shows that the main results using the inquiry data are not driven by selection or anticipation effects. Instead, the results in the main specification may be attenuated by fuzziness in the date that the medical collection was reported or that the inquiry was made, as discussed above.</P>
                    <P>Despite the modest differences between Table 11 and Table 7 for the inquiry dataset, there are no meaningful differences in the magnitude or statistical significance of effects for the performance datasets, as shown by comparing Column 1 of Table 8 to Column 2 of Table 11 and comparing Column 4 of Table 8 to Column 4 of Table 11. This provides further evidence that the use of medical collection reporting in underwriting does not improve account performance.</P>
                    <P>
                        A final concern is that it could be problematic if there is bunching at certain values of the running variable because the likelihood of a medical collection being reported, or an inquiry being made, differs across days of the week. For example, fewer than 4 percent of the medical collection tradelines associated with inquiries in the inquiry dataset were reported on a Sunday, compared to nearly 28 percent reported on a Tuesday. The distribution of inquiries in the inquiry dataset (across all inquiry product types) is more even, with a low of 8.5 percent on Sunday, just over 15 percent on Monday through Friday, and nearly 14 percent on Saturday. Combining these two features, an inquiry made on a Monday is more likely to correspond to a medical collection tradeline on the subsequent day than an inquiry made on a Saturday. If the types of inquiries made on Mondays differ from those made on Saturdays, there may be disproportionately more inquiries made on Monday for the running variable value immediately before the threshold (equal to -1), which could cause selection bias in the estimated effect. To test whether this selection biases the regression results, the CFPB estimated an additional specification that adds binary indicator variables to the main specification for the day of the week of each observation's inquiry date and date of the medical collection report.
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>413</SU>
                             The table provides regression discontinuity estimates for the inquiry and performance datasets, separately by credit account type, and including binary control variables for the day of the week that the inquiry was made (or the inquiry shopping window's last date) and the day of the week of the associated medical collection tradeline's addition to the consumer report. Each coefficient (RD Estimate) estimates a percentage point effect of having an additional medical collection reported on inquiry success (in Columns 1 and 3) in the inquiry dataset or 90-day delinquency (in Columns 2 and 4) in the performance dataset. These effects can be represented as percent changes by comparing to a baseline “Avg. dep. var.”, which is calculated as the success rate or 90-day delinquency rate of all inquiries made to the left of the regression discontinuity threshold (or without medical collection reporting). Columns 1 and 2 limit the sample to inquiries associated with medical collections over $500 made when the consumer had no medical collection tradelines under $500 on their consumer report. Columns 3 and 4 include the full sample. Standard errors are clustered by consumer and adjusted using the Benjamini-Hochberg procedure.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,16,16,16,16">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 12—The Effect of Medical Collection Reporting on Inquiry Success and Credit Account Performance, Controlling for Day-of-Week Effects 
                            <SU>413</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (1)
                                <LI>Over $500, success</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (2)
                                <LI>Over $500, D90+</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (3)
                                <LI>All, success</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (4)
                                <LI>All, D90+</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel A: Credit cards:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>***−0.048</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.002</ENT>
                            <ENT>***−0.034</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.001</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.012)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.003)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.059, −0.038]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.024, 0.021]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.039, −0.028]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.010, 0.012]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. dep. var</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.294</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.231</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.275</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.223</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>601,230</ENT>
                            <ENT>96,297</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,026,355</ENT>
                            <ENT>565,680</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel B: Mortgages:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>*−0.027</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.017</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.014</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.005</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.011)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.015)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.009)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.007)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.049, −0.004]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.045, 0.012]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.032, 0.003]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.008, 0.018]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. dep. var</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.186</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.035</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.167</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.038</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>79,372</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,177</ENT>
                            <ENT>439,685</ENT>
                            <ENT>56,976</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel C: Other credit accounts:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>*−0.014</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.015</ENT>
                            <ENT>***−0.015</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.002</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.014)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.003)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.026, −0.003]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.042, 0.013]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.021, −0.010]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.013, 0.010]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. dep. var</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.242</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.182</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.246</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.171</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>469,290</ENT>
                            <ENT>71,760</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,484,030</ENT>
                            <ENT>459,094</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>Standard errors in parentheses, 95 percent confidence intervals in brackets.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            * 
                            <E T="03">p</E>
                             &lt; 0.1, ** 
                            <E T="03">p</E>
                             &lt; 0.05, *** 
                            <E T="03">p</E>
                             &lt; 0.01.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3368"/>
                    <P>Table 12 provides the regression results for a version of Equation 1 that includes day-of-the-week controls. Results are very similar to the main specification, as can be seen by comparing Column 1 of Table 7 to Column 1 of Table 12, Column 4 of Table 7 to Column 3 of Table 12, Column 1 of Table 8 to Column 2 of Table 12 and comparing Column 4 of Table 8 to Column 4 of Table 12. The CFPB concluded that the main results are not caused by bias in the distribution of inquiry or medical collection timing across days of the week.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">10. Results Related to Credit Shopping</HD>
                    <P>
                        As described above, the main specification defines the running variable using the date of the last inquiry observed within the inquiry shopping window. This creates imprecision in the measurement of the inquiry date for inquiry observations that reflect shopping windows with multiple inquiries if they were not made on the same date.
                        <SU>414</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Because this imprecision could attenuate results, the CFPB estimated Equation 1 separately for inquiry observations that reflect multi-inquiry-date shopping windows (Shopping) and for inquiry observations that reflect shopping windows that only contain one inquiry date (No Shopping). The CFPB estimated this robustness check for the inquiry dataset first, and then for the performance dataset.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>414</SU>
                             Note that there may be imprecision in assignment of inquiry date for all inquiries, even those associated with no other inquiries within a shopping window, because the CFPB's CCIP only contains inquiries made to one NCRA.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,16,16,16,16">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 13—The Effect of Medical Collection Reporting on Inquiry Success, Separated by Shopping Behavior 
                            <SU>415</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (1)
                                <LI>Over $500,</LI>
                                <LI>shopping</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (2)
                                <LI>Over $500,</LI>
                                <LI>no shopping</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (3)
                                <LI>All, shopping</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (4)
                                <LI>All, no shopping</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel A: Credit cards:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                −0.043
                                <LI>(0.020)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.082, −0.003]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                ***−0.050
                                <LI>(0.005)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.060, −0.039]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                0.000
                                <LI>(0.013)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.025, 0.026]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                ***−0.035
                                <LI>(0.003)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.040, −0.030]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. success</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.445</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.279</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.422</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.262  </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>51,481</ENT>
                            <ENT>549,749</ENT>
                            <ENT>250,319</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,776,036</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel B: Mortgages:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                −0.019
                                <LI>(0.028)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.074, 0.037]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                −0.022
                                <LI>(0.011)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.043, −0.001]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                ***−0.041
                                <LI>(0.014)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.068, −0.014]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                −0.002
                                <LI>(0.011)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.024, 0.020]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. success</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.329</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.123</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.308</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.111</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>24,266</ENT>
                            <ENT>55,106</ENT>
                            <ENT>126,393</ENT>
                            <ENT>313,292</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel C: Other credit accounts:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                0.002
                                <LI>(0.015)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.030, 0.027]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                −0.016
                                <LI>(0.006)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.029, −0.004]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                −0.015
                                <LI>(0.007)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.029, −0.001]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                ***−0.015
                                <LI>(0.003)</LI>
                                <LI>[−0.021, −0.008]</LI>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. success</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.391</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.213</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.394</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.217</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>77,603</ENT>
                            <ENT>391,687</ENT>
                            <ENT>400,620</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,083,410</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>Standard errors in parentheses, 95 percent confidence intervals in brackets.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            * 
                            <E T="03">p</E>
                             &lt; 0.1,  ** 
                            <E T="03">p</E>
                             &lt; 0.05, *** 
                            <E T="03">p</E>
                             &lt; 0.01.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Table 13 shows results for inquiry success for inquiries associated with multi-date versus single-date shopping windows. For credit cards and other non-mortgage accounts, the results are only statistically significant for single-date shopping windows and are also larger in absolute magnitude. Fewer than 10 percent of credit card inquiries are associated with multi-date shopping windows, which is expected given the small average shopping windows for credit cards shown in Table 5. Alternatively, the only statistically significant result for mortgages appears for inquiries associated with multi-date shopping windows in the full sample. This limited ability to identify a precise effect is reflected in the main specification as well, as shown in Table 7. The CFPB concluded that, for non-mortgage products, the inability to observe the exact date that an inquiry was made may attenuate the results in the main specification, and the true effect of having a medical collection reported may be a larger decrease in inquiry success than what is reported in Table 7.
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>415</SU>
                             The table provides regression discontinuity estimates for the inquiry and performance datasets, separately by credit account type, and separately by shopping behavior. Each coefficient (RD Estimate) estimates a percentage point effect of having an additional medical collection reported on inquiry success (in Columns 1 and 3) in the inquiry dataset or 90-day delinquency (in Columns 2 and 4) in the performance dataset. These effects can be represented as percent changes by comparing to a baseline “Avg. dep. var.”, which is calculated as the success rate or 90-day delinquency rate of all inquiries made to the left of the regression discontinuity threshold (or without medical collection reporting). Columns 1 and 2 limit the sample to inquiries associated with medical collection tradelines over $500 made when the consumer had no medical collections under $500 on their consumer report. Columns 3 and 4 include the full sample. Columns 1 and 3 include only inquiries with shopping windows that contained inquiries made on different dates. Columns 2 and 4 include only inquiries with sole-inquiry shopping windows or inquiry shopping windows where all inquiries were made on the same date. Standard errors are clustered by consumer and adjusted using the Benjamini-Hochberg procedure.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3369"/>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,16,16,16,16">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 14—The Effect of Medical Collection Reporting on Two-Year Credit Account Performance, Separated by Shopping Behavior 
                            <SU>416</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (1)
                                <LI>Over $500,</LI>
                                <LI>shopping</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (2)
                                <LI>Over $500,</LI>
                                <LI>no shopping</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (3)
                                <LI>All, shopping</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (4)
                                <LI>All, no shopping</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel A: Credit cards:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.010</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.023</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.001</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.035)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.013)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.018)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.079, 0.059]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.025, 0.025]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.013, 0.059]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.013, 0.011]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. D90+</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.320</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.218</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.313</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.210</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>12,288</ENT>
                            <ENT>84,009</ENT>
                            <ENT>70,222</ENT>
                            <ENT>495,458</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel B: Mortgages:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.005</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.025</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.009</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.001</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.020)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.020)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.011)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.008)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.045, 0.036]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.063, 0.014]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.012, 0.030]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.015, 0.018]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. D90+</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.041</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.027</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.046</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.030</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,673</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,504</ENT>
                            <ENT>30,756</ENT>
                            <ENT>26,220</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel C: Other credit Accounts:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.013</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.003</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.001</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.026)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.014)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.012)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.007)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.065, 0.039]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.030, 0.025]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.023, 0.023]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.014, 0.012]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. D90+</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.216</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.170</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.207</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.158</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>19,879</ENT>
                            <ENT>51,881</ENT>
                            <ENT>122,953</ENT>
                            <ENT>336,141</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>Standard errors in parentheses, 95 percent confidence intervals in brackets.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            * 
                            <E T="03">p</E>
                             &lt; 0.1,  ** 
                            <E T="03">p</E>
                             &lt; 0.05, *** 
                            <E T="03">p</E>
                             &lt; 0.01.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Table 14 provides the same robustness check as Table 13 but estimates effects on serious delinquency using the performance dataset. As in previous robustness checks, the estimated results on account performance are all statistically insignificant, and nearly all are small in comparison to the baseline average delinquency rate. The CFPB considers these results as evidence that imprecision in assigning inquiry dates does not drive the lack of statistical significance in the main specification.
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>416</SU>
                             The table provides regression discontinuity estimates for the performance dataset, separately by credit account type, and separating the sample by shopping behavior. Each coefficient (RD Estimate) estimates a percentage point effect of having an additional medical collection reported on inquiry success. These effects can be represented as percent changes by comparing to a baseline “Avg. D90+”, which is calculated as the 90-day delinquency rate of all inquiries made to the left of the regression discontinuity threshold (or without medical collection reporting). Columns 1 and 2 limit the sample to inquiries associated with medical collection tradelines over $500 made when the consumer had no medical collections under $500 on their consumer report. Columns 3 and 4 include the full sample. Columns 1 and 3 include only inquiries with shopping windows that contained inquiries made on different dates. Columns 2 and 4 include only inquiries with sole-inquiry shopping windows or inquiry shopping windows where all inquiries were made on the same date. Standard errors are clustered by consumer and adjusted using the Benjamini-Hochberg procedure.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <SU>417</SU>
                             The table provides regression discontinuity estimates for the inquiry and performance datasets, separately by credit account type, and using the date of the first inquiry observed within an inquiry shopping window instead of the date of the last inquiry observed, as in the primary specification. The sample is limited to inquiries whose first date of the inquiry shopping window was within 180 days of the medical collection's inclusion on the consumer report. Each coefficient (RD Estimate) estimates a percentage point effect having an additional medical collection reported on inquiry success (in Columns 1 and 3) in the inquiry dataset or 90-day delinquency (in Columns 2 and 4) in the performance dataset. These effects can be represented as percent changes by comparing to a baseline “Avg. dep. var.”, which is calculated as the success rate or 90-day delinquency rate of all inquiries made to the left of the regression discontinuity threshold (or without medical collection reporting). Columns 1 and 2 limit the sample to inquiries associated with medical collection tradelines over $500 made when the consumer had no medical collection tradelines under $500 on their consumer report. Columns 3 and 4 include the full sample. Standard errors are clustered by consumer and adjusted using the Benjamini-Hochberg procedure.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Finally, the CFPB tested whether classifying the timing of an inquiry shopping window using the last inquiry makes a difference to the results. Although it makes intuitive sense to focus on the last inquiry—a consumer finishes shopping, then either gets a new account or does not—this could impact whether a consumer is considered treated or not by having a medical collection reported or not. For example, if a consumer applied for accounts that created inquiries on March 5 and March 17, had an account opened on March 19, and had a medical collections tradeline reported on March 15, in the main specification described above, they would be considered to have a medical collection at the time of the inquiry. This may be accurate, if the March 17 inquiry (or another inquiry after March 15 that was made with a different NCRA) resulted in the open account, but it also may be inaccurate, and influence the results reported above. To further test how the definition of shopping windows may affect the main results, the CFPB estimated a version of the analysis using the first date of the shopping window instead of its last date to define the running variable.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,16,16,16,16">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 15—The Effect of Medical Collection Reporting on Inquiry Success and Credit Account Performance, Classifying Shopping Windows by First Inquiry Date 
                            <SU>417</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (1)
                                <LI>Over $500,</LI>
                                <LI>success</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (2)
                                <LI>Over $500, D90+</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (3)
                                <LI>All, success</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (4)
                                <LI>All, D90+</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel A: Credit cards:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>*** −0.049</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.002</ENT>
                            <ENT>*** −0.035</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.004</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.004)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.012)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.003)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="3370"/>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.058, −0.041]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.021, 0.025]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.040, −0.030]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.008, 0.016]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. dep. var</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.294</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.231</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.275</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.222</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>600,209</ENT>
                            <ENT>95,973</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,021,234</ENT>
                            <ENT>563,942</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel B: Mortgages:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.010</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.003</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.010</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.003</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.012)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.013)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.008)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.033, 0.014]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.022, 0.028]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.026, 0.006]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.009, 0.015]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. dep. var</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.182</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.033</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.163</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.035</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>74674</ENT>
                            <ENT>8836</ENT>
                            <ENT>415412</ENT>
                            <ENT>49986</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel C: Other credit Accounts:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.010</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.020</ENT>
                            <ENT>***−0.012</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.003</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.014)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.003)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.021, 0.002]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.048, 0.008]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.018, −0.006]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.015, 0.008]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. dep. var</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.242</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.182</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.246</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.171</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>467,949</ENT>
                            <ENT>71,401</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,476,494</ENT>
                            <ENT>456,828</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>Standard errors in parentheses, 95 percent confidence intervals in brackets.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>
                            * 
                            <E T="03">p &lt;</E>
                             0.1, ** 
                            <E T="03">p &lt;</E>
                             0.05, *** 
                            <E T="03">p &lt;</E>
                             0.01.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        The results in Table 15 are very similar in size to those in the main specification, as seen by comparing Column 1 of Table 7 to Column 1 of Table 15, Column 4 of Table 7 to Column 3 of Table 15, Column 1 of Table 8 to Column 2 of Table 15 and comparing Column 4 of Table 8 to Column 4 of Table 15. The coefficients in Column 1 of Table 15, estimating the impact of medical collection reporting on inquiry success, are no longer marginally significant for mortgages and other credit accounts. This may be because the last inquiry observed within an inquiry shopping window is a better proxy for the date that the creditor observed the consumer report for these products, which is sensible if consumers continue to shop when they reject an earlier credit offer, or their application is rejected. The CFPB considers these results as evidence that, given the inherent challenges in assigning inquiry dates, the method of using the last date that an inquiry was observed within a shopping window is the best available classification.
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>418</SU>
                             The table provides regression discontinuity estimates for the performance dataset, separately by credit account type, and using the credit limit or loan principal at time of origination as the dependent variable. Each coefficient (RD Estimate) estimates a percentage point effect of having an additional medical collection reported on the account's credit limit or loan principal. These effects can be represented as percent changes by comparing to a baseline “Avg. credit am.”, which is calculated as the average of the credit limit or loan principal for all inquiries made to the left of the regression discontinuity threshold (or without medical collection reporting). Column 1 limits the sample to inquiries associated with medical collection tradelines over $500 made when the consumer had no medical collection tradelines under $500 on their consumer report. Column 2 includes the full sample. The dependent variable is equal to the credit limit at the time of account origination for credit cards and other revolving accounts. The dependent variable is equal to the loan principal at the time of account origination for mortgages and other installment products. Standard errors are clustered by consumer and adjusted using the Benjamini-Hochberg procedure.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">11. Results Related to Alternative Measures of Account Performance and Inquiry Success</HD>
                    <P>Moving on from statistical and data construction considerations, the CFPB returns to the applicability of the results to the considered equilibrium in which all medical collection tradelines are removed from consumer reports. Creditors may respond to reported medical collections by providing lower amounts of credit, especially for products whose applications do not typically request a certain amount of credit, such as credit cards (and unlike mortgages). The CCIP does not contain data on the dollar amount of credit that consumers were offered if consumers decided not to open an account, but it can observe credit limits and loan principals for originated accounts. Moreover, the CFPB understands that credit card accounts are typically opened automatically if approved by the creditor, such that consumers do not have an opportunity to decline an offer of credit with a lower limit than they prefer. The CFPB estimated Equation 1 using the account's credit limit (for revolving accounts) or loan principal (for installment accounts) as the dependent variable. This regression can only be run for the performance dataset because credit limits and loan principals cannot be observed for unsuccessful inquiries.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,22,22">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 16—The Effect of Medical Collection Reporting on Credit Account Limits and Loan Principals 
                            <SU>418</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (1) 
                                <LI>Over 500</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (2) 
                                <LI>All</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel A: Credit cards:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>***−384.312</ENT>
                            <ENT>***−247.492</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(80.367)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(33.855)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−541.829, −226.795]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−313.848, −181.137]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. credit am</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,481.169</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,312.252</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>96,208</ENT>
                            <ENT>565,222</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel B: Mortgages:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>−12,746.532</ENT>
                            <ENT>−15,734.984</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(11,952.690)</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−36173.374, 10680.309]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−33208.174, 1738.206]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="3371"/>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. credit am</ENT>
                            <ENT>232,565.905</ENT>
                            <ENT>225,877.236</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,163</ENT>
                            <ENT>56,918</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel C: Other credit accounts:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>254.621</ENT>
                            <ENT>−195.017</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(398.877)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(220.971)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−527.164, 1036.407]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−628.113, 238.078]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. credit am</ENT>
                            <ENT>20,994.097</ENT>
                            <ENT>20,380.048</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>71,739</ENT>
                            <ENT>458,968</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>Standard error in parentheses, 95 percent confidence intervals in brackets.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>* p &lt; 0.1, ** p &lt; 0.05, *** p &lt; 0.01.</TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Table 16 provides estimates for the effect of medical collection reporting on credit limits and loan principals. The results in Panel A show that medical collection reporting leads to lower credit limits for originated credit cards, with an average reduction in provided credit limits of $384 for the over-$500 sample and $247 for the full sample. This represents a meaningful reduction in consumer access to credit, as baseline average credit limits are lower than $1,500 for both samples. As expected, the CFPB does not find statistically significant effects for mortgages or other non-credit-card account types. Consumers generally apply for a specific dollar amount of credit for installment products, and the dollar amount of credit provided is not a margin that would generally be affected by medical collection reporting.
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>419</SU>
                             The table provides regression discontinuity estimates for the performance dataset, separately by credit account type, and using alternative classifications of account performance. Each coefficient (RD Estimate) estimates a percentage point effect of having an additional medical collection reported on the account's credit limit or loan principal. These effects can be represented as percent changes by comparing to a baseline “Avg. credit am.”, which is calculated as the average of the credit limit or loan principal for all inquiries made to the left of the regression discontinuity threshold (or without medical collection reporting). Columns 1 through 3 limit the sample to inquiries associated with medical collection tradelines over $500 made when the consumer had no medical collection tradelines under $500 on their consumer report. Columns 4 through 6 includes the full sample. The dependent variable in Columns 1 and 4, “D30+”, is whether the account was ever at least 30 days delinquent within two years of its origination. The dependent variable in Columns 2 and 5, “D90+ alt.”, is whether the account was at least 90 days delinquent exactly two years after the origination date, in contrast to the primary classification which considers whether the account was ever at least 90 days delinquent within two years of the origination date. The dependent variable in Columns 3 and 6 is the total amount past due or charged off on the account exactly two years after the account's origination date if either value is positive and non-missing. If accounts have positive and non-missing past-due amounts and charged-off amounts, the classification uses the charged-off amount. Standard errors are clustered by consumer and adjusted using the Benjamini-Hochberg procedure.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB understands that the classification of serious delinquency is not the sole determinant of account performance. Three other measures of performance are considered in this final set of regressions, estimated on the performance dataset: whether the account is ever 30 days or more delinquent within two years of its origination, whether the account is 90 days or more delinquent at the end of its first two years after origination (instead of whether it was ever 90 days or more delinquent within that two-year period), and the dollar amount past due or charged off for accounts with nonzero past due or charged off amounts at the end of its first two years after origination. If the primary classification of serious delinquency is a good proxy for account performance, then results for the first two alternative measures should be similar to their counterparts in the main performance results in direction and statistical significance. The results for past due amounts may be more nuanced, as Table 16 above shows that medical collection reporting lowers the credit limits of credit cards. This may cause lower past due amounts in response to medical collection reporting because consumers cannot borrow as much as they can absent medical collection reporting.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s50,14,14,20,14,14,20">
                        <TTITLE>
                            Table 17—The Effect of Medical Collection Reporting on Two-Year Credit Account Performance, Alternative Classifications 
                            <SU>419</SU>
                        </TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (1) 
                                <LI>Over $500,</LI>
                                <LI>D30+</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (2) 
                                <LI>Over $500,</LI>
                                <LI>D90+ alt.</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (3) 
                                <LI>Over $500,</LI>
                                <LI>past due am.</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (4) 
                                <LI>All, D30+</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (5) 
                                <LI>All, D90+ alt.</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                (6) 
                                <LI>All, past due am.</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel A: Credit cards:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.008</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.006</ENT>
                            <ENT>**−215.199</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.002</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.003</ENT>
                            <ENT>**−62.830</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.013)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.011)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(86.597)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.006)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.005)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(29.197)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.017, 0.032]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.027, 0.015]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−384.926, −45.472]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.010, 0.015]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.013, 0.008]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−120.055, −5.604]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. dep. var</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.321</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.164</ENT>
                            <ENT>713.724</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.316</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.153</ENT>
                            <ENT>643.677</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>96,297</ENT>
                            <ENT>96,297</ENT>
                            <ENT>19,945</ENT>
                            <ENT>565,680</ENT>
                            <ENT>565,680</ENT>
                            <ENT>111,342</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel B: Mortgages:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.034</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.002</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,477.430</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.012</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.001</ENT>
                            <ENT>261.686</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.027)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.010)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(2,894.862)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.012)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.005)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(1,682.921)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.087, 0.018]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.018, 0.022]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−1196.394, 10151.255]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.012, 0.036]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.009, 0012]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−3036.779, 3560.152]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. dep. var</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.125</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.021</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,511.005</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.118</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.019</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,018.840</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,177</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,177</ENT>
                            <ENT>409</ENT>
                            <ENT>56,976</ENT>
                            <ENT>56,976</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,954</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22">Panel C: Other credit Accounts:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">RD Estimate</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.006</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.002</ENT>
                            <ENT>−803.533</ENT>
                            <ENT>−0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.000</ENT>
                            <ENT>−562.913</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.016)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.013)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(732.117)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.008)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(0.005)</ENT>
                            <ENT>(301.400)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.037, 0.025]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.027, 0.023]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−2238.455, 631390]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.016. 0.015]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−0.009, 0.010]</ENT>
                            <ENT>[−1153.647, 27.821]</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Avg. dep. var</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.322</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.156</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,012.189</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.316</ENT>
                            <ENT>0.145</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,510.499</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="3372"/>
                            <ENT I="03">Observations</ENT>
                            <ENT>71,760</ENT>
                            <ENT>71,760</ENT>
                            <ENT>13,777</ENT>
                            <ENT>459,094</ENT>
                            <ENT>459,094</ENT>
                            <ENT>81,546</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>Standard errors in parentheses, 95 percent confidence intervals in brackets.</TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>** p &lt; 0.1, ** p &lt; 0.05, *** p &lt; 0.01.</TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>Table 17 estimates Equation 1 on the performance dataset using alternative measures of account performance. Columns 1, 2, 4, and 5 show small and statistically significant effects of medical collection reporting on account performance, as in Columns 1 and 4 of Table 8. In Panel A, Columns 3 and 6 provide relatively small but at least marginally significant effects, suggesting that medical collection reporting may lead to lower past-due or charged-off amounts for credit cards, when those amounts are nonzero. This may be caused by the lower credit limits provided to consumers with reported medical collections, as shown in Table 16. Though credit cards originated to consumers with unreported medical collections may be no more likely to become seriously delinquent within two years, the dollar amount past due when the account is delinquent may be higher because consumers with unreported medical collections receive higher credit limits. The results in Panels B and C show no statistically significant effects on past-due or charged-off amounts for mortgages, as expected because there were no differences in serious delinquency or in the dollar amount of credit provided.</P>
                    <P>A researcher commenter suggested that the CFPB incorporate a risk management framework in its interpretation of the results in Tables 16 and 17, where a creditor's expected loss is modeled as:</P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Expected Loss = Probability of Default × Exposure at Default × Loss-Given Default</FP>
                    <P>The commenter notes that the analysis in the Technical Appendix focuses on the Probability of Default, finding that this would be unchanged under the proposed rule. For credit cards, the commenter stated that the Exposure at Default, generally the entire credit limit for consumers defaulting on credit cards, may be higher under the proposed rule because credit limits and amounts past due are higher for accounts originated by consumers with unreported medical collections, as shown in Tables 16 and 17.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB agrees that may be an appropriate theoretical framework to consider expected losses. However, the CFPB does not have the information needed to evaluate this formula.
                        <SU>420</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, the CFPB notes that what is ultimately important to creditors is profit, which includes both expected losses and expected revenue. Creditors can earn higher revenues when providing higher credit limits to consumers who revolve their balance from month-to-month and pay interest fees. Therefore, although expected loss for credit card lenders may be higher under the rule because the Exposure at Default is higher, the expected revenue may be higher, too.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>420</SU>
                             The commenter incorrectly interprets Loss-Given Default as Exposure at Default in his interpretation of the formula. Loss-Given Default is the percent of Exposure at Default that the creditor would lose if the consumer defaulted on the loan. The CFPB does not have any data that would allow it to estimate Loss-Given Default.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The researcher commenter further stated that the Loss-Given Default, or the percent of the loss that could not be recouped by the creditor in the case of default, might be higher under the proposed rule because recoverable debt values would fall under the proposed rule.
                        <SU>421</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The commenter did not explain why recoverable debt values would fall, but the comment seemed to be based on an assumption that medical debt will become more challenging to collect under the rule. While the CFPB does not agree with this assumption, as discussed above in part VII.E.1, this is not relevant to the analysis here, which pertains to potential losses for credit cards. The CFPB is not aware of evidence indicating that recoverable debt values would fall for types of debt other than medical debt, and the commenter did not provide any evidence suggesting as much. As such, the CFPB does not expect that Loss-Given Default will change due the rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>421</SU>
                             The commenter describes Loss-Given Default as the average dollar amount of loss given default, which is not generally how Loss-Given Default is calculated, per the equation provided by the commenter and described above. The CFPB interprets the comment as being about Loss-Given Default conceptually, regardless of the exact calculation.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 12 CFR Part 1022</HD>
                        <P>Banks, banking, Consumer protection, Credit unions, Holding companies, National banks, Privacy, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Savings associations.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority and Issuance</HD>
                    <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the CFPB amends Regulation V, 12 CFR part 1022, as set forth below:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1022—FAIR CREDIT REPORTING (REGULATION V)</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="12" PART="1022">
                        <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 1022 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P>12 U.S.C. 5512, 5581; 15 U.S.C. 1681a, 1681b, 1681c, 1681c-1, 1681c-3, 1681e, 1681g, 1681i, 1681j, 1681m, 1681s, 1681s-2, 1681s-3, and 1681t; Sec. 214, Pub. L. 108-159, 117 Stat. 1952.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General Provisions </HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="12" PART="1022">
                        <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 1022.3 by adding paragraph (j) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 1022.3 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (j) 
                                <E T="03">Medical debt information</E>
                                 means medical information that pertains to a debt owed by a consumer to a person whose primary business is providing medical services, products, or devices, or to such person's agent or assignee, for the provision of such medical services, products, or devices. Medical debt information includes but is not limited to medical bills that are not past due or that have been paid.
                            </P>
                            <STARS/>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <SUBPART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart D—Medical Information </HD>
                    </SUBPART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="12" PART="1022">
                        <AMDPAR>3. Amend § 1022.30 by:</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>a. Revising paragraph (c);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>b. Removing and reserving paragraph (d);</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>c. Revising paragraphs (e)(1)(viii) and (ix); and</AMDPAR>
                        <AMDPAR>d. Adding paragraphs (e)(1)(x) and (e)(6) and (7).</AMDPAR>
                        <P>The revisions and additions read as follows:</P>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 1022.30 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Obtaining or using medical information in connection with a determination of eligibility for credit.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (c) 
                                <E T="03">Rule of construction for obtaining and using unsolicited medical information</E>
                                —(1) 
                                <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                 A creditor 
                                <PRTPAGE P="3373"/>
                                does not obtain medical information in violation of the prohibition if it receives medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit without specifically requesting medical information.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (2) 
                                <E T="03">Use of unsolicited medical information.</E>
                                 A creditor that receives unsolicited medical information in the manner described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section may use that information in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit to the extent the creditor can rely on at least one of the exceptions in paragraph (e) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (3) 
                                <E T="03">Examples.</E>
                                 A creditor does not obtain medical information in violation of the prohibition if, for example:
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) In response to a general question regarding a consumer's debts or expenses, the creditor receives information that the consumer owes a debt to a hospital.</P>
                            <P>(ii) In a conversation with the creditor's loan officer, the consumer informs the creditor that the consumer has a particular medical condition.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(e) * * *</P>
                            <P>(1) * * *</P>
                            <P>(viii) To determine the consumer's eligibility for, the triggering of, or the reactivation of a debt cancellation contract or debt suspension agreement if a medical condition or event is a triggering event for the provision of benefits under the contract or agreement;</P>
                            <P>(ix) To determine the consumer's eligibility for, the triggering of, or the reactivation of a credit insurance product if a medical condition or event is a triggering event for the provision of benefits under the product; or</P>
                            <P>(x) So long as the conditions in paragraphs (e)(1)(x)(A) through (C) of this section are met:</P>
                            <P>
                                (A)(
                                <E T="03">1</E>
                                ) The medical information is included in the transaction information of an account for a consumer financial product or service described in 12 CFR 1033.111(b)(1) through (3), and accessed with the consumer's authorization; or
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (
                                <E T="03">2</E>
                                ) The medical information relates to income, benefits, or the purpose of the loan, including the use of proceeds. Medical information relating to income and benefits includes, for example, the dollar amount and continued eligibility for disability income, workers' compensation income, or other benefits related to health or a medical condition that is relied on as a source of repayment.
                            </P>
                            <P>(B) The creditor uses the medical information in a manner and to an extent that is no less favorable than it would use comparable information that is not medical information in a credit transaction.</P>
                            <P>(C) The creditor does not take the consumer's physical, mental, or behavioral health, condition or history, type of treatment, or prognosis into account as part of the determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit.</P>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>
                                (6) 
                                <E T="03">Example to comply with applicable requirements of local, State, or Federal laws.</E>
                                 A consumer applies for a mortgage loan subject to § 1026.43(c) or § 1026.34(a)(4) of this chapter, or an open-end (not home-secured) credit card account subject to § 1026.51(a) of this chapter. The application does not specifically request medical information, but the consumer provides unsolicited medical information on the application. The creditor or the card issuer is permitted under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section to use such medical information in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit only to the extent required by the applicable Federal law and implementing regulation. For example, assume a consumer applies for a mortgage loan subject to § 1026.43(c) of this chapter. Assume further that the creditor has not specifically requested medical information on the application, but the consumer provides information on a current debt obligation, such as a monthly medical payment plan, that is medical information. The creditor is permitted under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section to consider the existence and the amount of the medical payment plan as required in considering factors under § 1026.43(c)(2) of this chapter, such as the current debt obligations, consumer's monthly debt-to-income ratio, and residual income, in making the repayment ability determination required under § 1026.43(c)(1) of this chapter. In this circumstance, the creditor would not be required to independently verify the existence and amount of the monthly medical payment plan, as provided for under § 1026.43(c)(3)(iii) of this chapter. See also Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(c)(3), comment 43(c)(3)-6), describing a situation in which a consumer provides a creditor with information on a debt obligation that is not listed on a consumer report. Further, a creditor or card issuer is not permitted under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section to obtain or use any medical information from a consumer reporting agency to comply with the ability-to-repay rule under § 1026.43(c) of this chapter for closed-end mortgages, the repayment ability rule under § 1026.34(a)(4) of this chapter for open-end, high-cost mortgages, or the ability-to-pay rule under § 1026.51(a) of this chapter for open-end (not home-secured) credit card accounts, because the creditor or card issuer can comply with those rules using information provided by the consumer. This example only relates to the exception under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section. A creditor or card issuer may obtain and use medical information for purposes of Regulation Z's ability-to-repay or pay determinations pursuant to other exceptions in paragraph (e) of this section, as applicable.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (7) 
                                <E T="03">Example of medical information relating to income and benefits.</E>
                                 A consumer indicates on an application for a $200,000 mortgage loan that she receives $15,000 in long-term disability income each year from her former employer and has no other income. Annual income of $15,000, regardless of source, would not be sufficient to support the requested amount of credit. The creditor denies the application on the basis that the projected debt-to-income ratio of the consumer does not meet the creditor's underwriting criteria. The creditor has used medical information in a manner and to an extent that is no less favorable than it would use comparable non-medical information.
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="12" PART="1022">
                        <AMDPAR>4. Amend 12 CFR part 1022 by adding reserved §§ 1022.33 through 1022.37 and by adding § 1022.38 to subpart D to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ § 1022.33-1022.37 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>[Reserved]</SUBJECT>
                        </SECTION>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 1022.38 </SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Duty of consumer reporting agencies regarding medical debt information.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Scope.</E>
                                 This section applies to any consumer reporting agency as defined in section 603(f) of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Limitation regarding prohibited medical debt information.</E>
                                 A consumer reporting agency may include medical debt information, as defined in § 1022.3(j), in a consumer report furnished to a creditor only if the consumer reporting agency:
                            </P>
                            <PRTPAGE P="3374"/>
                            <P>(1) Has reason to believe the creditor intends to use the medical debt information in a manner not prohibited by § 1022.30; and</P>
                            <P>(2) Has reason to believe the creditor is not otherwise legally prohibited from obtaining or using the medical debt information, including by a State law that prohibits a creditor from obtaining or using medical debt information.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <SIG>
                        <NAME>Rohit Chopra,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Director, Consumer Financial Protection Bureau.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-30824 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-25-P</BILCOD>
            </RULE>
        </RULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>8</NO>
    <DATE>Tuesday, January 14, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="3375"/>
            <PARTNO>Part III</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P"> Department of the Treasury</AGENCY>
            <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
            <HRULE/>
            <CFR>26 CFR Part 28</CFR>
            <TITLE>Guidance Under Section 2801 Regarding the Imposition of Tax on Certain Gifts and Bequests From Covered Expatriates; Final Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <RULES>
            <RULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3376"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                    <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
                    <CFR>26 CFR Part 28</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[TD 10027]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 1545-BJ43</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Guidance Under Section 2801 Regarding the Imposition of Tax on Certain Gifts and Bequests From Covered Expatriates</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Final regulations.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>This document contains final regulations that provide guidance on the application of a tax on United States citizens and residents, as well as certain trusts, that receive, directly or indirectly, gifts or bequests from certain individuals who relinquished United States citizenship or ceased to be lawful permanent residents of the United States. The final regulations also provide guidance on the method of reporting and paying this tax. The final regulations primarily affect United States citizens and residents, as well as certain trusts, that receive one or more such gifts or bequests.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Effective Date:</E>
                             These regulations are effective January 14, 2025.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Applicability Dates:</E>
                             For dates of applicability, see §§ 28.2801-1(b), 28.2801-2(n), 28.2801-3(g), 28.2801-4(g), 28.2801-5(f), 28.2801-6(e), 28.2801-7(d), 28.6001-1(c), 28.6011-1(c), 28.6060-1(b), 28.6071-1(d), 28.6081-1(e), 28.6091-1(b), 28.6107-1(b), 28.6109-1(b), 28.6151-1(b), 28.6694-1(b), 28.6694-2(b), 28.6694-3(b), 28.6694-4(b), 28.6695-1(b), 28.6696-1(b), and 28.7701-1(b).
                        </P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>Mayer R. Samuels, Daniel J. Gespass, or Karlene M. Lesho at (202) 317-6859 (not a toll-free number).</P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority</HD>
                    <P>This document contains additions and amendments to 26 CFR part 28 (Imposition of Tax on Gifts and Bequests from Covered Expatriates) addressing the application of section 2801 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) and related provisions (the “final regulations”). The additions and amendments are issued under sections 2801, 6001, 6011, 6060, 6071, 6081, 6091, 6101, 6107, and 6109 pursuant to the express delegations of authority provided under those sections. The express delegations relied upon are referenced in the Background section of this preamble and in the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions describing the individual sections of the final regulations. The final regulations are also issued under the express delegation of authority under section 7805 of the Code.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                    <P>This document amends subchapter B of 26 CFR chapter 1 (Estate and Gift Taxes) by adding part 28 under section 2801 and by expanding several existing regulations to also apply to the filing and furnishing of returns and payment of the tax imposed by section 2801 (section 2801 tax). Section 301 of the Heroes Earnings Assistance and Relief Tax Act of 2008 (HEART Act), Public Law 110-245, 122 Stat. 1624 (2008), added chapter 15 (Gifts and Bequests from Expatriates) to subtitle B of the Code (subtitle B), effective June 17, 2008. Before the addition of chapter 15, subtitle B contained chapters 11 through 14 relating to the estate tax, the gift tax, and the generation-skipping transfer (GST) tax, as well as special valuation rules applicable for purposes of subtitle B. Chapter 15 consists solely of section 2801 and imposes the section 2801 tax on certain transfers of property by gift (covered gifts) and on certain transfers of property by bequest (covered bequests) from certain individuals who expatriate on or after June 17, 2008 (covered expatriates).</P>
                    <P>The section 2801 tax is imposed on each United States (U.S.) citizen or resident receiving a covered gift or covered bequest (U.S. recipient). For this purpose, domestic trusts and foreign trusts that elect to be treated as domestic trusts solely for purposes of section 2801 (electing foreign trusts) are included in the definition of a U.S. citizen. Foreign trusts that do not elect to be treated as domestic trusts for purposes of section 2801 (non-electing foreign trusts) are not U.S. citizens or residents and, therefore, do not become subject to the section 2801 tax upon receipt of covered gifts and covered bequests. Instead, the beneficiaries of non-electing foreign trusts who are U.S. citizens or residents (U.S. citizen or resident beneficiaries) become subject to the section 2801 tax upon their receipt of a distribution from a non-electing foreign trust that is attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests made to that non-electing foreign trust.</P>
                    <P>
                        The section 2801 tax will be computed on Form 708, 
                        <E T="03">United States Return of Tax for Gifts and Bequests Received from Covered Expatriates,</E>
                         on which a U.S. recipient will report covered gifts and covered bequests received during the calendar year. If the aggregate value of the covered gifts and covered bequests received by the U.S. recipient during the calendar year exceeds the amount of the inflation-adjusted annual exclusion under section 2503(b) of the Code ($18,000 for 2024), the section 2801 tax is computed by multiplying the excess by the highest estate tax rate specified in section 2001(c) of the Code in effect on the date of receipt, and then reducing the product by any gift or estate taxes paid to a foreign country with respect to the covered gifts and covered bequests. The value of each covered gift and covered bequest is its fair market value as of the date of its receipt.  
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        On September 10, 2015, a notice of proposed rulemaking and a notice of public hearing (REG-112997-10) were published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         (80 FR 54447) proposing rules related to the section 2801 tax (proposed regulations). A total of sixteen comments on the proposed regulations were received and are available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         or upon request. A public hearing on the proposed regulations was held on January 6, 2016. After consideration of all the comments, this Treasury decision adopts the proposed regulations, with revisions, as final regulations. The revisions are discussed in the following 
                        <E T="03">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions</E>
                         section. Unless otherwise indicated in the 
                        <E T="03">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions,</E>
                         provisions of the proposed regulations for which no comments were received are adopted without substantive change. The final regulations include non-substantive modifications, including modifications that promote consistency across definitions, rules, and examples and improve the overall clarity of the guidance. Such modifications are not addressed in the 
                        <E T="03">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">1. General Comments on Section 2801 and the Tax-Neutral Objective</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Department of the Treasury (Treasury Department) and the IRS received several general comments on section 2801. One comment objects to the enactment of section 2801, opining that the section 2801 tax is unnecessary, infringes on privacy rights, and unfairly applies to former long-term permanent residents. Other comments object by pointing out several ways in which the statutory provisions of section 2801 are not tax neutral, treat expatriates more harshly than if they had remained 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3377"/>
                        subject to U.S. gift and estate taxes, and thus violate what the commenters described as the intent of Congress in enacting section 2801 to make expatriation a tax-neutral event with regard to U.S. transfer taxes. Some comments request changes and additions to the proposed regulations to create a more tax-neutral outcome than under the statute.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The Background section of the preamble of the proposed regulations describes the history of the addition of chapter 15 and section 2801 to the Code and references the idea, as explained in a report of the House Ways and Means Committee regarding an earlier, pre-HEART Act, bill to enact chapter 15 and section 2801, that the decision to relinquish citizenship ought to be “tax neutral.” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         H.R. Rep. No. 110-431, at 113 (2007). More specifically, the report states that an individual's decision to relinquish citizenship or terminate long-term residency should not affect the total amount of taxes imposed; that is, the decision should be “tax neutral.” The report further states that, if U.S. estate or gift taxes are avoided with respect to a transfer of property to a U.S. person by reason of the expatriation of the donor, it is appropriate for the recipient to be subject to a tax similar to the transfer tax that the donor or donor's estate would have been subject to, had the donor not expatriated. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at 114.
                    </P>
                    <P>Despite the language in the report, section 2801 imposes a tax on the receipt by a U.S. citizen or resident of certain gifts or bequests which does not equal, and in some cases is not similar to, the tax that would have been imposed on the transfer of such gifts or bequests by a U.S. transferor (that is, one who had not expatriated), as illustrated by a comparison of the relevant statutory provisions of chapter 11 (estate tax), chapter 12 (gift tax), and chapter 13 (GST tax), with chapter 15 (section 2801 tax). Obvious dissimilarities between section 2801 and the provisions of chapters 11 through 13 include the absence in chapter 15 of an applicable credit amount that can be applied to offset or reduce the estate or gift tax liability (see sections 2010 and 2505 of the Code, for which transfers of up to $13.99 million (the 2025 inflation-adjusted amount) over a lifetime may be offset for purposes of gift and estate taxes) and the absence of a GST tax for covered gifts and covered bequests to a U.S. recipient who is a skip person (see section 2601 of the Code, imposing an additional transfer tax on GSTs). There are many other dissimilarities between section 2801 and the other transfer tax provisions.</P>
                    <P>The role of the Treasury Department and the IRS is to implement section 2801, as enacted by the HEART Act. Thus, to the extent the comments suggest changes to the statutory text of chapter 15 and section 2801, the Treasury Department and the IRS do not further address those comments in this preamble. To the extent the comments suggest changes or additions to the proposed regulations to create a more tax-neutral outcome, the Treasury Department and the IRS have responded to specific comments as the relevant issues are discussed in this preamble, and in doing so considered both the statutory language of section 2801 and the scope of regulatory authority granted by Congress.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">2. Definitions</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Expatriate and Covered Expatriate</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 2801(f) and proposed § 28.2801-2(h) define the term 
                        <E T="03">covered expatriate</E>
                         by reference to section 877A(g)(1) of the Code. Proposed § 28.2801-2(h) defines the term 
                        <E T="03">expatriate</E>
                         by reference to section 877A(g)(2). Proposed § 28.2801-2(h) further provides that, if an expatriate meets the definition of a covered expatriate, the expatriate is considered a covered expatriate for purposes of section 2801 at all times after the expatriation date, except during any period beginning after the expatriation date during which such individual is subject to United States estate or gift tax (estate or gift tax) as a U.S. citizen or resident. For this exception, the proposed regulations cite to section 877A(g)(1)(C) of the Code, which indicates that an individual will not be treated as a covered expatriate for certain purposes during the time that they are subject to tax as a U.S. citizen or resident.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Section 877A relies on the income tax definition of the term 
                        <E T="03">resident</E>
                         as described in section 7701(b)(1)(A). Section 28.2801-2(b) of the proposed regulations, however, applies the estate and gift tax rules under chapters 11 and 12 of subtitle B to define U.S. resident for purposes of section 2801, which also is in subtitle B, thereby providing consistency across the provisions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        One comment suggests that the exception in proposed § 28.2801-2(h), which excludes an expatriate from being treated as a covered expatriate during any period in which the expatriate is subject to estate or gift tax, creates a coherent structure for purposes of section 2801, but leaves open the possibility that an individual could be a covered expatriate for purposes of section 877A but not for purposes of section 2801 and vice versa. The comment states that this result seems to conflict with sections 2801(f) and 877A(g)(1)(C) and suggests that the final regulations provide that an expatriate who is deemed to be an income tax resident of the U.S. will be deemed not to be a covered expatriate. Another comment expresses support for the rule in proposed § 28.2801-2(h) as arguably necessary because applying sections 2801(f) and 877A(g)(1)(C) using the income tax definition of U.S. resident would create a convenient and simple way to avoid imposition of the section 2801 tax. For instance, a covered expatriate could become an income tax resident in one year during which such person does not also satisfy the transfer tax definition of 
                        <E T="03">resident.</E>
                         During that year, the covered expatriate could make gifts that would not be subject to gift tax. The following year, the covered expatriate could terminate the covered expatriate's income tax residency, thereby allowing the gifts to completely escape transfer taxation. The Treasury Department and the IRS agree with the latter comment that using the transfer tax definition of 
                        <E T="03">resident</E>
                         for the exception in proposed § 28.2801-2(h) avoids creating an opportunity to circumvent the section 2801 tax. Further, section 2801 is a transfer tax and is part of subtitle B; section 7701(b) of the Code specifically provides that the definitions in section 7701(b)(1) do not apply for purposes of subtitle B. Accordingly, applying the definition of 
                        <E T="03">resident</E>
                         under subtitle B for purposes of this transfer tax under section 2801 and the corresponding regulations is consistent with the purpose of the statute. Moreover, as one comment acknowledges, the use of the transfer tax definition is consistent with the concept of neutrality because it eliminates the avoidance of estate and gift tax that otherwise would result from expatriation. For these reasons, the final regulations adopt the transfer tax definition of U.S. resident without change.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        One comment points out that the date on which a person loses U.S. citizenship was changed by the HEART Act. The comment explains that this change could create ambiguity as to the exact date of a taxpayer's expatriation under certain circumstances. The comment requests clarification of how that date is determined for persons who had determined that they had expatriated before the effective date of the HEART Act, and for those with dual citizenship under section 7701(a)(50)(B). The 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3378"/>
                        Treasury Department and the IRS agree that such clarification would be both appropriate and helpful. Such clarification, however, would impact significantly more issues than those related to the section 2801 tax, and would be better addressed in guidance under sections 877A and 7701, rather than in regulations under section 2801. This issue is, therefore, beyond the scope of these final regulations. Accordingly, the final regulations adopt the language in proposed § 28.2801-2(h) without change.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Foreign Trust and Domestic Trust</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 2801(a) provides that the section 2801 tax is imposed on a covered gift or covered bequest received by a U.S. citizen or resident. Section 2801(e)(4)(A) and (B)(iii) explains that a domestic trust or an electing foreign trust that receives a covered gift or covered bequest is treated as a U.S. citizen for the purposes of section 2801. If a covered gift or covered bequest is received by a non-electing foreign trust, however, section 2801(e)(4)(B)(i) provides that the section 2801 tax is imposed on any distribution attributable to the covered gift or covered bequest from the trust to a U.S. citizen or resident. Therefore, it is important to properly classify a trust receiving a covered gift or covered bequest as either a domestic or foreign trust in order to determine the identity of the U.S. citizen or resident liable for, and the timing of, payment of the section 2801 tax. Section 28.2801-2(c) and (d)(1) of the proposed regulations defines the terms 
                        <E T="03">domestic trust</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">foreign trust</E>
                         by reference to section 7701(a)(30)(E) and (31)(B), respectively. No comments were received regarding the definitions of domestic trust or foreign trust. These final regulations maintain the same definitions as in the proposed regulations.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Covered Bequest</HD>
                    <P>Section 2801(e)(1)(B) defines a covered bequest as any property acquired directly or indirectly by reason of the death of an individual who, immediately before such death, was a covered expatriate. The proposed regulations define covered bequest in section 28.2801-2(f) and confirm that this definition includes any property acquired directly or indirectly by reason of the death of a covered expatriate, regardless of the situs of such property and whether such property was acquired by the covered expatriate before or after the covered expatriate's expatriation from the United States. Proposed § 28.2801-3(b), which contains additional rules and exceptions applicable to covered bequests, provides that property acquired by reason of the death of a covered expatriate for purposes of the definition of covered bequest in § 28.2801-2(f) includes any property that would have been includible in the gross estate of the covered expatriate under chapter 11 of subtitle B had the covered expatriate been a U.S. citizen at the time of death.</P>
                    <P>One comment acknowledges that including property that would have been includible in the gross estate of the covered expatriate had the covered expatriate been a U.S. citizen at the time of death appears to be consistent with legislative intent. However, the comment expresses concern that the definition of covered bequest in § 28.2801-2(f), which includes all property passing by reason of the decedent's death, was too broad. The comment points out that not all property passing by reason of a decedent's death would be includible in the decedent's gross estate. The comment provides, as an example, property passing to a child from a trust created by a grandparent after a term measured by a now deceased parent's life. The comment suggests revising the definition of covered bequest in § 28.2801-2(f) to include property acquired by reason of the death of a covered expatriate, but only to the extent the property would have been included in the gross estate of the covered expatriate had the covered expatriate been a United States citizen immediately before death.</P>
                    <P>The comment correctly observes that including any property acquired directly or indirectly by reason of the death of a covered expatriate may inappropriately subject property to section 2801 tax, such as in the example provided by the comment (assuming the facts do not support an indirect gift). However, the suggestion to limit the definition of covered bequest to property acquired by reason of the death of a covered expatriate that would have been included in the gross estate of the covered expatriate is too narrow. Such a definition, for example, would wrongly exclude property that would otherwise be included in the gross estate of a covered expatriate even though the property was not acquired on the death of the covered expatriate (for example, under section 2035, which increases the gross estate by the value of certain property transferred within the 3-year period ending on the date of the covered expatriate's death). The comment's suggested definition also would exclude all distributions made by reason of the death of a covered expatriate from non-electing foreign trusts to the extent the distributions are attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests made to the foreign trust on or after June 17, 2008. Under section 2801(e)(4)(B)(i), a distribution from a non-electing foreign trust that is attributable to a covered gift or covered bequest made to the trust is subject to section 2801 tax in the same manner as if the distribution were a covered gift or covered bequest. When such a distribution is made by reason of a death of a covered expatriate, the distribution is more similar to a covered bequest described in section 2801(e)(1)(B) than a covered gift described in section 2801(e)(1)(A) and, therefore, is appropriately classified as a covered bequest.</P>
                    <P>To address the concern expressed in the comment as to property that would not have been included in the gross estate of the decedent, the definition of covered bequest in the final regulations instead describes three categories of property that are included in the definition of covered bequest. The first category includes in the definition of covered bequest property acquired by a recipient on or after June 17, 2008, directly or indirectly by reason of the death of a covered expatriate but only to the extent the property would have been included in the covered expatriate's gross estate if the covered expatriate had been a U.S. citizen immediately before death. The second category includes in the definition property received from a covered expatriate that would have been included in the covered expatriate's estate, even if not acquired directly or indirectly by reason of the death of a covered expatriate, for example property includible under section 2035. The third category includes in the definition distributions made by reason of the death of a covered expatriate from a non-electing foreign trust to the extent the distributions are attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests made to the foreign trust on or after June 17, 2008.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">D. Indirect Acquisition of Property</HD>
                    <P>
                        A covered gift or covered bequest is defined in section 2801(e) as any property acquired directly or indirectly by gift from or by reason of the death of a covered expatriate. Using transfer tax principles, § 28.2801-2(i) of the proposed regulations identifies the transfers that constitute indirect acquisitions of property, to include property (1) acquired through ownership of an interest in a corporation or other entity, (2) acquired through one or more foreign trusts, entities, or persons not subject to the section 2801 tax, (3) paid in satisfaction of a debt or liability, (4) acquired 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3379"/>
                        through a power of appointment over property not in trust granted by a covered expatriate to a non-covered expatriate, and (5) acquired as a result of any other indirect transfer by a covered expatriate. Comments were received with respect to each example.
                    </P>
                    <P>One comment states that the examples of an indirect acquisition of property in § 28.2801-2(i)(2) and (3) of the proposed regulations go too far in that they are not limited by the extent to which the interest indirectly received is attributable to a covered gift or covered bequest. Although these examples illustrate the definition of “indirect acquisition of property” for purposes of the 2801 tax, this definition is relevant only to the extent that the indirect acquisition is of an interest in a covered gift or covered bequest. When the definition of indirect acquisition is applied in relation to a covered gift or covered bequest, the appropriate limitation is applied. As a result, no change is needed in the final regulations to achieve the limitation sought by the commenter.</P>
                    <P>
                        Several comments observe that the rule in § 28.2801-2(i)(1) of the proposed regulations is consistent with the rule in § 25.2511-1(h)(1) of the Gift Tax Regulations, which describes the gift tax consequences of a transfer made to a corporation. One comment requests that proposed § 28.2801-2(i)(1) be revised to clarify the metrics used for determining a U.S. citizen or resident owner's share of a covered gift or covered bequest made to the entity. For instance, the commenter noted that an owner of an interest in an entity could have a mix of interests and/or rights in capital, profits, voting, distribution, liquidation, etc., and suggested that the final regulations permit taxpayers to use any reasonable method to account for these interests and rights. The Treasury Department and the IRS note that this issue is not unique to section 2801; the same issue arises in the gift tax context under chapter 12. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         § 25.2511-1(h)(1) (extent of a shareholder's interest relevant to determine the gift tax consequences of a transfer made by a corporation to another shareholder). Given the broader, more factual nature of determining the extent of an owner's interest and rights in an entity, this issue is better addressed under the Gift Tax Regulations, and therefore is beyond the scope of these final regulations. As a result, this suggestion is not adopted.
                    </P>
                    <P>Several comments state that the illustrations in proposed § 28.2801-2(i)(2), (3), and (5) are overbroad. In particular, the comments state that the illustrations in § 28.2801-2(i)(2) (regarding property acquired through one or more persons not subject to the section 2801 tax) and (3) (regarding property paid in satisfaction of a debt or liability) are not tethered to any consideration of timing or gratuitous intent. One comment observes that the proposed definition would require a recipient to trace a potentially long chain of title to determine whether the property received would be a covered gift or covered bequest to that recipient. Another comment states that a non-covered expatriate family member of the covered expatriate and the U.S. recipient should not be considered an intermediary of the covered expatriate if that family member had dominion and control over the property and acted independently of the covered expatriate. Two comments suggest replacing § 28.2801-2(i)(2) and (5) of the proposed regulations with a rule that would include, as an indirect acquisition, only property acquired pursuant to a plan, one of the principal purposes of which is the avoidance of transfer tax, similar to the rules in §§ 1.643(h)-1 and 1.679-3(c) of the Income Tax Regulations. The rules in §§ 1.643(h)-1 and 1.679-3(c) employ a substance over form approach with respect to certain transfers made through an intermediary.</P>
                    <P>These final regulations modify, in part, the definition of indirect acquisition of property to address some of the concerns regarding proposed § 28.2801-2(i)(2), (3), and (5) as expressed in the comments. The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that the illustrations in § 28.2801-2(i)(2) and (5) of the proposed regulations may capture transfers that, in some cases, are not truly indirect transfers and should not be subject to tax under section 2801. Thus, the final regulations replace the rules in proposed § 28.2801-2(i)(2) and (5) with a single illustration that refers to an acquisition that is, in substance, a covered gift or covered bequest from a covered expatriate. In addition, the final regulations add a more general description of property that is gratuitously passed from or conferred by the covered expatriate through another person or entity, and the rules in proposed § 28.2801-2(i)(1) through (5) are converted in the final regulations to a nonexclusive list of illustrations describing the application of the definition for purposes of section 2801. The suggestion is not adopted to replace the rule in proposed § 28.2801-2(i)(2) and (5), applicable to acquisitions of property, with a rule that would add a principal purpose of tax avoidance test applicable to distributions from and to foreign trusts, similar to the rules in §§ 1.643(h)-1 and 1.679-3(c). As with other interpretations of terms in section 2801 (for example, U.S. resident), applying transfer tax principles to section 2801 is the better interpretation of the statute both because section 2801 is a transfer tax, and the intent of the transferor generally is irrelevant for transfer tax purposes.</P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, comments recommend narrowing the scope of proposed § 28.2801-2(i)(4) to include only property acquired pursuant to a non-covered expatriate's non-general power of appointment (as opposed to all types of powers of appointment) granted by a covered expatriate over property not in trust. Such a change would ensure that the exercise, release, or lapse of a non-covered expatriate's general power of appointment over property not in trust would not be a covered gift or covered bequest, which the commenters contend is consistent with the general gift tax treatment of the holder of a general power of appointment as the owner of the property subject to the power. If the commenters' recommendation were adopted, it would allow a covered expatriate to avoid the section 2801 tax by granting a general power of appointment over non-trust property to a person who is neither a covered expatriate nor a U.S. citizen or resident, but who will exercise or release the power or allow it to lapse in favor of a U.S. citizen or resident. Thus, the final regulations continue to describe the acquisition of property pursuant to a non-covered expatriate's power of appointment (whether general or non-general) granted by a covered expatriate over property not in trust as an example of an indirect acquisition of property for purposes of section 2801. The final regulations clarify, however, that acquiring property pursuant to a power of appointment means as the result of an exercise, release, or lapse of that power, without regard to the de minimis exceptions in section 2041(b)(2) or 2514(e). This latter clarification is necessary because section 2801(c) provides the only 
                        <E T="03">de minimis</E>
                         exception to the imposition of section 2801 tax.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">E. Other Definitions</HD>
                    <P>
                        Several comments suggest other revisions to § 28.2801-2 of the proposed regulations to make the regulations more user friendly, including using consistent terminology. Those suggestions include the replacement of 
                        <E T="03">citizen or resident of the United States</E>
                         with the term used in the statute, 
                        <E T="03">U.S. citizen or resident,</E>
                         the addition of a definition of the term 
                        <E T="03">non-electing foreign trust,</E>
                         and the correction of the reference in the definition of the term 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3380"/>
                        <E T="03">general power of appointment</E>
                         to section 2041(b)(1) (rather than section 2041(b)) to clarify that the exclusions for lapses and certain pre-1943 powers under section 2041(b)(2) and (3), respectively, do not apply for purposes of section 2801. These suggestions have been adopted and the appropriate changes are reflected in the final regulations. The suggestion that other terms (such as 
                        <E T="03">gift</E>
                         and 
                        <E T="03">charitable remainder trust</E>
                        ) used throughout the proposed regulations, as well as other terms unique to section 2801 that are defined elsewhere in the proposed regulations (in the particular section where each is relevant), either be defined in § 28.2801-2 or referred to by cross-references, has not been adopted. Several such terms are defined elsewhere in the Code or in the corresponding regulations, and those that are specific to a particular issue under section 2801 are defined and applied in the discussion of that particular issue in the relevant section of the regulations in an effort to make the regulations more readily understood.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">3. Exceptions to Definitions of Covered Gift and Covered Bequest</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Transfers Otherwise Subject to Gift or Estate Tax</HD>
                    <P>Section 2801(e)(2)(A) and (B) excepts from the definitions of covered gift and covered bequest, respectively, any taxable gift by a covered expatriate and any property included in the gross estate of a covered expatriate, if such property is reported on a timely filed gift or estate tax return (timely filed requirement).</P>
                    <P>
                        One comment suggests that a covered expatriate be allowed to treat transferred property as a transfer of a U.S. situs asset, report the transfer on a timely filed gift or estate tax return, and thereby avoid the transfer being a covered gift or covered bequest. By reducing the effective tax rate on the transfer, the comment states that this approach would be consistent with the tax neutrality intended at enactment of section 2801.
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These final regulations do not adopt the commenter's suggestion, because it is inconsistent with section 2801. Additionally, if adopted, such a filing in effect would override the provisions of sections 2511(a) (applying the gift tax only to transfers by nonresident, noncitizens of property situated within the United States) and 2103 (including in the gross estate of nonresident, noncitizens only that part of property that is situated within the United States at the time of death) for certain transfers by covered expatriates, a result not contemplated by the statutory language of section 2801. While section 2801 allows a foreign trust to elect to be treated as a domestic trust, there is no indication that Congress intended to allow other elections that would operate in the way suggested by this commenter.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             For a discussion of the “tax neutral” objective stated in H.R. Rep. No. 110-431 with regard to an earlier, pre-HEART Act, bill, see part 1 of the 
                            <E T="03">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions</E>
                             section of this preamble.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Timely Paid Requirement</HD>
                    <P>For property reported on the covered expatriate's gift or estate tax return to be excluded from the definition of a covered gift or covered bequest, § 28.2801-3(c)(1) and (2) of the proposed regulations requires not only the timely filing of that return, but also the timely payment of the tax shown on that return (timely paid requirement).</P>
                    <P>Comments state that the timely paid requirement should be eliminated because there is no statutory basis for imposing that requirement. Comments also note that the timely paid requirement would cause a double tax to be imposed on a single transfer if the gift or estate tax is not timely paid: gift or estate tax due from the covered expatriate or covered expatriate's estate, as well as section 2801 tax due from the U.S. recipient of that property. As to the latter comment, the Treasury Department and the IRS note that the potential for imposing tax on both the covered expatriate or the covered expatriate's estate and the U.S. citizen or resident receiving the covered gift or covered bequest is already created by the timely filed requirement under section 2801(e)(2)(A) and (B), which would deny the exception if the gift or estate tax return is filed late. Like the timely filed requirement, the timely paid requirement limits the potential for tax avoidance by ensuring that an excepted transfer is timely reported and that the tax on such excepted transfer is timely paid by the covered expatriate, over whom it may be difficult for the IRS to assert jurisdiction to enforce that tax liability.</P>
                    <P>Providing a timely paid requirement is not beyond the Treasury Department and IRS's general regulatory authority to implement the Congressional mandate of section 2801, including addressing compliance concerns. However, the Treasury Department and the IRS have considered other existing gift and estate tax enforcement mechanisms which also could address compliance concerns, such as under subtitle F of the Code and the ability of the IRS to collect the tax liability of the covered expatriate or covered expatriate's estate from any transferee of the property. See section 6324 of the Code (establishing special estate and gift tax liens that are separate and distinct from the general tax lien) and section 6901 of the Code (providing transferee gift tax or estate tax liability is to be assessed, paid, and collected in the same manner and subject to the same provisions and limitations as the tax imposed on the decedent or donor). Further, a timely paid requirement could present administrability and finality challenges—for example, when the amount paid with the return differs from the amount that is ultimately owed due to a valuation change or other adjustment after examination. In view of the above, the final regulations adopt the commenters' suggestion to eliminate the timely paid requirement as it relates to this exception from the definitions of covered gift and covered bequest.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Both Section 2801 Tax and Gift or Estate Tax on Same Transfer</HD>
                    <P>
                        As discussed in part 3.A.i. of the 
                        <E T="03">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions</E>
                         section of this preamble, a late filing of a gift or estate tax return by a covered expatriate or covered expatriate's estate prevents the transferred property from being excluded from the definition of a covered gift or covered bequest and may lead to the imposition of gift or estate tax as well as the imposition of the section 2801 tax on the same transfer of that property. Further, both the gift or estate tax and the section 2801 tax ultimately may be payable by the U.S. citizen or resident if transferee liability is imposed if the covered expatriate or covered expatriate's estate fails to pay the gift or estate tax due. See sections 6324(a)(2) and (b) and 6901.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Comments suggest that the final regulations provide a remedy to avoid the payment, on the same transfer, of both gift or estate tax by the covered expatriate or covered expatriate's estate and the section 2801 tax by the U.S. citizen or resident receiving the covered gift or covered bequest. The comments suggest alternative proposals to be added to the final regulations, including (a) providing for a refund to a U.S. citizen or resident who paid the section 2801 tax when gift or estate tax has been paid by a covered expatriate or covered expatriate's estate; (b) providing a credit or refund to the U.S. citizen or resident, or the covered expatriate or covered expatriate's estate, of whichever of those taxes is paid last; and (c) eliminating the timely filed requirement if the gift or estate tax is paid by the covered expatriate or the covered expatriate's estate prior to the due date of Form 708.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3381"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 2801(e)(2)(A) and (B) excepts from the definitions of covered gift and covered bequest, and thus from liability for the section 2801 tax, property reported on a timely filed gift or estate tax return. These sections explicitly provide an exception only for property shown on a timely filed return, and any exception from tax for covered gifts or covered bequests not reported on a timely return would ignore and give no meaning to the timely filed language in section 2801. Accordingly, eliminating liability for the section 2801 tax when the transfer of such property is not timely reported by a covered expatriate or covered expatriate's estate on a gift or estate tax return is contrary to the statute. Thus, despite the potential for the imposition of either estate or gift tax on the transfer of such property as well as the imposition of the section 2801 tax on the recipient's acquisition of such property, these final regulations do not adopt the suggestions of the comments.</P>
                    <P>
                        Similarly, one comment suggests that a recipient who paid the U.S. gift or estate tax liability of the donor or decedent due to transferee liability should have a credit for those taxes against the recipient's section 2801 tax liability. These final regulations do not adopt this comment for the following reasons. First, a credit given to the recipient for gift or estate tax paid pursuant to transferee liability could incentivize the transferor subject to gift or estate tax to resist payment and force collection from the recipient. Second, section 2801 (unlike section 1446(d) of the Code,
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         for example) does not provide for such a credit.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             Section 1446(d) provides a credit under section 33 of the Code for a foreign partner's share of the withholding tax paid by the partnership under section 1446.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Finally, in response to a comment, 
                        <E T="03">Example 2</E>
                         in proposed § 28.2801-3(f) is updated in the final regulations to clarify that, under the facts of the example, the covered expatriate's estate must file an estate tax return (Form 706-NA, 
                        <E T="03">United States Estate (and Generation-Skipping Transfer) Tax Return, Estate of nonresident not a citizen of the United States</E>
                        ), and pay the estate tax with respect to certain property, despite the requirement that the son of the covered expatriate in that example file Form 708 and pay the section 2801 tax with respect to the same property.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Property Subject to Section 2801 Tax Both as Covered Gift and as Covered Bequest</HD>
                    <P>Noting that a U.S. citizen or resident may receive property that constitutes a covered gift and, subsequently, a covered bequest, a comment suggests that the definition of covered bequest should exclude any property treated as acquired by reason of the death of a covered expatriate if the property previously was subject to the section 2801 tax as a covered gift from the same covered expatriate. For instance, when a covered expatriate transfers a remainder interest in real property to a U.S. recipient and retains a life estate, the value of the remainder interest is a covered gift, and the value of the entire real property is a covered bequest at the covered expatriate's death. See section 2036(a)(1).</P>
                    <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS are sympathetic to the commenter's concern that the same property could be subject to section 2801 tax first as a covered gift and subsequently as a covered bequest acquired from the same covered expatriate, and agree there should be no such duplication of the liability under section 2801. However, rather than excluding from the definition of covered bequest any property previously subject to the section 2801 tax as a covered gift, it is appropriate and more in line with the structure of the transfer tax system to exclude instead the value of the covered gift that was previously subject to section 2801 tax from the value of the covered bequest of that same property. In this way, similar to the way that section 2001(b) does not subject to estate tax the value of a gift that was previously subject to gift tax, the value already subjected to section 2801 would not be retaxed and the computation of the section 2801 tax would be able to properly take into account the post-gift appreciation in the value of the transferred property through the U.S. persons' receipt of the covered bequest. Accordingly, § 28.2801-3(c)(3) of the final regulations includes a rule that limits the value of a covered bequest to the amount that exceeds the value of the covered gift to which the section 2801 tax previously applied.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Transfers to Spouse</HD>
                    <P>Section 2801(e)(3) excepts from the definitions of covered gift and covered bequest a gift or bequest that would qualify for a marital deduction under section 2056 or 2523 if the donor or decedent were a U.S. person.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. QDOT and QTIP Elections for Non-U.S. Situs Property</HD>
                    <P>Under proposed § 28.2801-3(c)(4), the exception to the definitions of covered gift and covered bequest for transfers to a spouse that are dependent upon the making of a qualified terminable interest (QTIP) or qualified domestic trust (QDOT) election only applies if a valid QTIP or QDOT election in fact is made. Because these are elective choices with different tax consequences, the desire to make the election cannot be presumed in all cases.</P>
                    <P>Many of the comments received on the proposed rule requiring the making of a valid QTIP or QDOT election concern non-U.S. situs property. The comments received generally fall into two categories: those comments that conclude that a covered expatriate or a covered expatriate's executor may make a valid QTIP or QDOT election with respect to only U.S. situs property; and those comments that conclude that a QTIP or QDOT election also may be made with respect to non-U.S. situs property and request guidance on how such an election might be made with respect to non-U.S. situs property. With respect to the former, the comments state that a covered expatriate or a covered expatriate's estate is limited to making a QTIP or QDOT election with respect to U.S. situs property because only the transfer of U.S. situs property by a covered expatriate is subject to U.S. gift and estate taxation under sections 2511(a) and 2103. With respect to the latter, different comments suggest various methods of allowing a QTIP or QDOT election to be made with respect to non-U.S. situs property, including on a Form 706-NA filed by a trust, on a Form 708 filed by a U.S. recipient, and by a trust that is a U.S. recipient of a foreign non-electing trust.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Treasury Department and the IRS agree with the comments in the first category that, for the exception to the definitions of covered gift and covered bequest to apply under section 2801(e)(3), a covered expatriate or a covered expatriate's estate is limited to making a QTIP or QDOT election with respect to only U.S. situs property. Section 2801(e)(3) provides no basis for allowing a QTIP or QDOT election to be made for property that is not subject to U.S. gift or estate tax, and, furthermore, it provides no mechanism for making the election and no indication that the IRS should create such a mechanism through regulations. In addition, adopting the position of the latter comments and providing a method to make a QTIP or QDOT election for non-U.S. situs property (in addition to U.S. situs property) would be inconsistent with the QTIP and QDOT statutory provisions that defer, but do not eliminate, transfer tax on property qualifying for the marital deduction. If such a rule were adopted so that such property would not be subject to section 2801 tax upon the initial gift or bequest 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3382"/>
                        by the covered expatriate, such property also would not be subject to gift or estate tax under section 2519, 2044, or 2056A(b) upon any disposition or distribution or on the death of the covered expatriate's spouse. Consequently, covered expatriates and the estates of covered expatriates would be afforded more favorable transfer tax treatment than that available to U.S. citizens. The Treasury Department and the IRS also note that a covered expatriate may obtain the benefits of the exception in section 2801(e)(3) with respect to non-U.S. situs property by making an outright gift or bequest of that property to a U.S. citizen spouse, or a bequest to a trust described in section 2056(b)(5) that provides the surviving spouse with both a life estate and a general power of appointment. For these reasons, the final regulations retain the proposed rule that requires a valid QTIP and/or QDOT election in order for property to qualify for this exception to the definitions of covered gift and covered bequest, and the regulations further clarify that such an election can be made only with respect to property subject to gift or estate tax, that is, only with respect to U.S. situs property.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Distributions From Non-Electing Foreign Trusts</HD>
                    <P>Transfers from a covered expatriate to a non-electing foreign trust are covered gifts or covered bequests, but are not subject to the tax under section 2801 until a distribution is made from that trust. Specifically, section 2801 imposes the tax on distributions from that trust to a U.S. recipient to the extent those distributions are attributable to the covered gifts or covered bequests contributed to the trust.</P>
                    <P>
                        A few comments suggest that, for transfers to a non-electing foreign trust, section 2801(e)(4)(B)(i) supports applying the marital exception at the time of the distribution from the non-electing foreign trust to the U.S. spouse, because that is when tax under section 2801 tax is imposed. Recognizing that the marital deduction is applied at the time of the transfer giving rise to gift or estate tax, these comments contend that this approach would be consistent with transfer tax principles. These comments also state that this approach would be consistent with the goal of tax neutrality as applied to surviving spouses, in that the imposition of the section 2801 tax should not depend upon whether a non-electing foreign trust (that would qualify for the marital deduction) is interposed between the donor or decedent and the receipt by the surviving spouse. See part 1 of the 
                        <E T="03">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions</E>
                         section of this preamble for a discussion of the “tax neutral” objective stated in H.R. Rep. No. 110-431 with regard to an earlier, pre-HEART Act, bill. The comments acknowledge that, under their interpretation, a transfer of property to a non-electing foreign trust would be treated differently than a transfer of property to a domestic trust or an electing foreign trust; however, they posited that the difference is justified by the timing of the transfer taxable under section 2801. Specifically, the comments point out that by its express terms, the statute treats a non-electing trust differently with regard to the timing of the imposition of the tax and the payee of that tax.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS have carefully considered the merits and implications of the suggestion to apply the marital exception at the time of the distribution from the non-electing foreign trust. The proper interpretation of section 2801(e)(3) and (4)(B)(i), however, does not permit the creation of a special rule for non-electing foreign trusts that would provide an opportunity for a marital exception at the time of a distribution from the trust. Unlike the marital deduction for estate and gift taxes, the exception for marital transfers under section 2801 is an exception to the definitions of covered gift and covered bequest. Those definitions apply to determine whether a contribution to a non-electing foreign trust is a covered gift or covered bequest, and thus the availability of that exception is determined as of the time of the covered expatriate's funding of the non-electing foreign trust. For this reason, even though the U.S. spouse's receipt of property attributable to the covered gift or covered bequest occurs and becomes taxable under section 2801 only upon its distribution out of the trust, the availability of the marital exception cannot be applied instead at the time of the distribution from that trust.</P>
                    <P>Two other comments suggest that a distribution from a non-electing foreign trust to a U.S. citizen or resident spouse should be treated as an indirect gift or bequest to which the exception could be applied. However, to do so would imply that all trust distributions are indirect transfers, which would go too far. In addition, if such an indirect transfer would have qualified for the transfer tax marital deduction at all, it effectively would override section 2801(e)(4), would confer a tax advantage on a covered expatriate that is unavailable to a U.S. person, and would be (as one comment concludes) overly generous. For example, a transfer of non-U.S. situs property by a covered expatriate at death outright to the covered expatriate's U.S. citizen spouse is not a covered bequest, because such transfer would have qualified for the estate tax marital deduction if the covered expatriate were a U.S. person. Similarly, a transfer of non-U.S. situs property by a covered expatriate at death to a non-electing foreign trust that qualifies for the estate tax marital deduction under section 2056(b)(5) is not a covered bequest because such transfer would have qualified for the estate tax marital deduction if the covered expatriate were a U.S. person. In these situations, because the contributions to the trust are not covered bequests, not only are distributions from the non-electing foreign trust to the covered expatriate's U.S. citizen spouse not subject to the section 2801 tax pursuant to the exception in section 2801(e)(3), but distributions to the remainder beneficiary upon such spouse's death also are not subject to the section 2801 tax. By contrast, a transfer of non-U.S. situs property from a covered expatriate at death to a trust for the benefit of the covered expatriate's U.S. citizen spouse and U.S. citizen children is a covered bequest because such transfer would not have qualified for the estate tax marital deduction if the covered expatriate were a U.S. person. If such trust is a non-electing foreign trust, the section 2801 tax is not payable until there is a distribution to a U.S. citizen or resident. When the trust makes a distribution to the covered expatriate's U.S. citizen spouse, that spouse is liable for the section 2801 tax because the distribution is attributable to a covered bequest and is taxed “in the same manner as if such distribution were a covered gift or covered bequest.” Section 2801(e)(4)(B)(i).</P>
                    <P>
                        These final regulations explicitly address the application of the section 2801(e)(3) exception to the definition of covered gift or covered bequest in § 28.2801-3(c)(5) and in 
                        <E T="03">Example 2</E>
                         to § 28.2801-5(e).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">D. Transfers to Charity</HD>
                    <P>
                        To the extent a gift or bequest would qualify for a charitable deduction under section 2055 or 2522 if the donor or decedent were a U.S. citizen or resident, such gift or bequest is excepted under section 2801(e)(3) and § 28.2801-3(c)(3) of the proposed regulations from the definitions of covered gift and covered bequest. Regarding distributions to qualifying charitable organizations from a non-electing foreign trust, a few comments assert that section 2801(e)(4)(B)(i) supports applying the exception at the time of distribution and explain that this would avoid imposing 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3383"/>
                        the section 2801 tax on a U.S. charity. The comments explain that their analysis regarding the marital exception, which is set forth in part 3.C.ii. of the 
                        <E T="03">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions</E>
                         section of this preamble, applies equally to the charitable exception. Because this exception depends upon the contribution to the trust being eligible for a transfer tax charitable deduction, and for the reasons described in part 3.C.ii. of the 
                        <E T="03">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions</E>
                         section of this preamble, these final regulations have not adopted the interpretation advanced by the comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Section 28.2801-4(a)(2)(iii) of the proposed regulations provides that a domestic trust qualifying as a charitable remainder trust (as that term is defined in § 1.664-1(a)(1)(iii)(
                        <E T="03">a</E>
                        )) is subject to section 2801 when it receives a covered gift or covered bequest, and that the charitable remainderman's share of each transfer to the charitable remainder trust is not a covered gift or covered bequest. The proposed regulations further provide that, to compute the amount of covered gifts and covered bequests taxable to the charitable remainder trust for a calendar year, the charitable remainder trust will (A) calculate, in accordance with the regulations under section 664 and as of the date of the trust's receipt of the contribution, the value of the remainder interest in each contribution received in such calendar year that would have been a covered gift or covered bequest without regard to section 2801(e)(3), (B) subtract the remainder interest in each such contribution from the amount of that contribution to compute the annuity or unitrust (income) interest in that contribution, and (C) add the total of such income interests, each of which is the portion of the contribution that constitutes a covered gift or covered bequest to the trust.
                    </P>
                    <P>One comment notes that the proposed regulations do not indicate whether the payment of section 2801 tax by a charitable remainder trust is disregarded in computing the amount of annuity or unitrust distributions and in determining whether the 10 percent minimum remainder requirement in section 664(d)(1)(D) and (2)(D) and the probability of exhaustion test described in Rev. Rul. 70-452, 1970-2 C.B. 199, are satisfied. The comment observes that, if the tax imposed by section 2801 were considered in determining whether the 10 percent minimum remainder requirement and probability of exhaustion tests are satisfied, then most trusts that owe tax under section 2801 are likely to be disqualified as a charitable remainder trust. The comment also observes, however, that, if the tax is not considered in determining the annuity amount, then the charitable remainder will be overvalued.</P>
                    <P>One comment points out that the proposed regulations do not provide guidance on whether a charitable remainder trust's payment of section 2801 tax should be allocated to income or principal for the purpose of determining the character of distributions under section 664(b) and § 1.664-1(d)(2).</P>
                    <P>The proposed regulations also do not contain any guidance on how a domestic trust or electing foreign trust that qualifies as a charitable lead trust under section 2055(e)(2)(B) or 2522(c)(2)(B) is to compute the 2801 tax. Several comments suggest that the final regulations provide that a charitable lead trust should compute the section 2801 tax in a similar manner to a charitable remainder trust, such that the charitable lead interest could be subtracted from the total value of the covered gift or bequest to determine the amount that is subject to the section 2801 tax.</P>
                    <P>As the comments note, the proposed regulations do not provide any rules on the effect of a charitable remainder trust's tax payment on the trust's qualification under section 664. This is a complex and foundational issue, such that final rules regarding charitable remainder trusts should not be promulgated without further consideration and an opportunity for notice and comment. Additionally, as the comments point out, the proposed regulations do not provide any rules on charitable lead trusts, and, therefore, final rules regarding charitable lead trusts should not be promulgated without further consideration and an opportunity for notice and comment. Accordingly, § 28.2801-4(a)(2)(iii) of the final regulations is reserved for these purposes.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">4. Computation of Section 2801 Tax</HD>
                    <P>Under section 2801(a) and (c), the section 2801 tax is determined by reducing the total value of covered gifts and covered bequests received by a U.S. recipient during the calendar year by the dollar amount of the per-donee exclusion in effect under section 2503(b) for that calendar year ($18,000 in 2024) (section 2801(c) amount), and then multiplying the net amount by the highest estate or gift tax rate in effect during that calendar year (40 percent in 2024). The reference in section 2801(c) to section 2503(b) has the sole purpose of defining the amount by which to reduce the aggregate value of covered gifts and covered bequests received by a U.S. citizen or resident during the calendar year, as acknowledged in the comments. Under section 2801(d), the resulting tax then is reduced by any estate or gift tax paid to a foreign country with regard to such covered gifts and covered bequests. Section 28.2801-4(b) (on the computation of the section 2801 tax) and 28.2801-4(e) (on the reduction of the section 2801 tax for foreign gift or estate tax paid) of the proposed regulations are consistent with these statutory rules.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Effective Tax Rate</HD>
                    <P>Several comments note that the effective tax rate of the section 2801 tax on a covered gift is much higher than the effective tax rate for a gift subject to gift tax because the base on which the section 2801 tax is imposed includes the amount of the section 2801 tax payable by the U.S. recipient (making it “tax inclusive”) while the base on which the gift tax is imposed does not include the amount of the gift tax payable by the donor (making it “tax exclusive”). These comments contend that this result is a deviation from Congress' stated goal of tax neutrality, and one comment suggests that the final regulations allow a covered expatriate instead to elect to treat a gift as a transfer of U.S. situs property, to reduce the effective section 2801 tax rate on the covered gift.</P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed in part 1 of the 
                        <E T="03">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions</E>
                         section of this preamble, section 2801 imposes a tax that does not equal, and in some cases is not similar to, the tax that would have been imposed on the same transfer by a U.S. transferor. The effective tax rate on covered gifts under section 2801 as compared to the effective tax rate on taxable gifts under chapter 12 is another example of this. While Congress could have allowed a covered expatriate to elect to treat a covered gift of non-U.S. situs property as a transfer of U.S. situs property, it did not do so. (But see section 2801(e)(4)(B)(iii) allowing foreign trusts to elect to be treated as a domestic trust for purposes of section 2801). The statute does not provide any reasonable regulatory interpretation that the section 2801 tax on covered gifts should be levied on less than the entire amount of the covered gift, and the statute does not contemplate a regulatory rule allowing for a deduction or exclusion to estimate a tax exclusive section 2801 tax rate. Accordingly, these final regulations do not adopt the commenters' suggestion as it would be contrary to the statute.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3384"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Section 2801(c) Amount</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 28.2801-3(d) of the proposed regulations provides that the recipient of a covered gift or covered bequest made to a trust is the trust and not any individual who holds a general power of appointment or power of withdrawal over trust property. Several comments recommend that the final regulations treat a transfer to a trust as a transfer to an individual to the extent of the individual's general power or withdrawal right. The comments acknowledge that this would increase the section 2801(c) amount available to shield a covered gift or covered bequest from the section 2801 tax when multiple individuals have withdrawal rights, but state this treatment is consistent with the treatment of withdrawal rights under gift tax principles and thus furthers the statutory goal of tax neutrality. See part 1 of the 
                        <E T="03">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions</E>
                         section of this preamble for a discussion of the “tax neutral” objective stated in H.R. Rep. No. 110-431 with regard to an earlier, pre-HEART Act, bill. One comment suggests that there is no authority to deny the status of recipient to the holder of a withdrawal right. For the reasons stated below, these final regulations do not adopt the commenters' recommendation.
                    </P>
                    <P>The holder of a withdrawal right over trust property is the holder of a general power of appointment. For gift tax purposes, neither the grant nor the receipt of a general power of appointment is treated as a taxable gift; rather, it is the possession of such a power at death, or the exercise or release of such a power that is a taxable event for gift and estate tax purposes. Thus, the proposed treatment of a general power of appointment—that is, not as the receipt of a covered gift or bequest—is consistent with transfer tax principles. In addition, while section 2801 is silent on the treatment of general powers of appointment, section 2801(e)(4) provides specific rules applicable to a covered gift or covered bequest made to a domestic or electing foreign trust: specifically, the section 2801 tax is imposed on the recipient trust. Implementing the recommendation proposed by the commenters would violate the provisions of section 2801(e)(4)(A)(ii) requiring that the tax imposed on a covered gift or covered bequest made to a domestic trust be paid by that trust. By, in effect, defining the donee domestic trust as the recipient of the covered gift or covered bequest, the statute imposes the filing and tax payment obligations on the domestic trust, regardless of the identity and rights of the trust beneficiaries. As a result, the receipt of property by the domestic trust does not have to be reported by and taxed to both the trust and each holder of a general power of appointment or withdrawal right over trust property. Treating each such power holder as an additional recipient at the time of the trust contribution would add administrative complexity and burden both to taxpayers and the IRS.</P>
                    <P>Similarly, under section 2801(e)(4)(B), it is the recipient of a distribution from a non-electing foreign trust who is treated as the recipient of the covered gift or covered bequest to the trust. No section 2801 tax is imposed on covered gifts or covered bequests to a non-electing foreign trust until a trust distribution is made to a U.S. recipient. It is the property distribution pursuant to the exercise, release, or lapse of a general power of appointment over such a trust, rather than the grant of such a power, that is a distribution triggering the imposition of the section 2801 tax.</P>
                    <P>As a result, in the case of a transfer to a trust, a domestic trust is the recipient who is entitled to reduce the value of a covered gift or covered bequest received during the calendar year by the section 2801(c) amount. These rules also apply to an electing foreign trust.</P>
                    <P>Finally, comments request guidance for trusts in the potential situation where a domestic trust or an electing foreign trust may be unable to pay the section 2801 tax upon the exercise of an individual withdrawal right. Such a situation, where the trustee is faced with balancing the obligation to satisfy tax obligations with the duty to make distributions as directed by the trust instrument, is not unique to the section 2801 tax (for example, an obligation to satisfy an estate tax obligation may conflict with a specific bequest, or an obligation to satisfy a GST tax obligation may conflict with a distribution provision to a trust beneficiary). Given the broader issues concerning a trustee's duty to administer a trust, such issues are better addressed in more comprehensive regulations and are therefore beyond the scope of these final regulations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Foreign Gift or Estate Tax</HD>
                    <P>
                        Consistent with section 2801(d), § 28.2801-4(e) of the proposed regulations provides that the section 2801 tax is reduced by the amount of any gift or estate tax paid to a foreign country with respect to a covered gift or covered bequest. Pointing to section 2014(a), which allows a credit against estate tax for any estate, inheritance, legacy, or succession taxes paid to any foreign country, two comments suggest that, in the interest of tax neutrality, these final regulations also allow a reduction for any foreign tax imposed on a covered gift or covered bequest that is similar to, but imposed in lieu of, a gift or estate tax, such as an inheritance tax or a deemed capital gains tax. See part 1 of the 
                        <E T="03">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions</E>
                         section of this preamble for a discussion of the “tax neutral” objective stated in H.R. Rep. No. 110-431 with regard to an earlier, pre-HEART Act, bill. These final regulations do not adopt the commenters' suggestion, because the plain language of section 2801(d) unambiguously limits the reduction to the amount of gift or estate tax paid to a foreign country with respect to a covered gift or covered bequest and does not contain the kind of statutory language that appears in section 2014.
                    </P>
                    <P>A comment also suggests that these final regulations allow a refund of the section 2801 tax if foreign gift or estate tax is paid after payment of the section 2801 tax. In such a scenario, a refund is available under section 6511 if the U.S. recipient files a claim for refund or a protective claim for refund on or before the expiration of the applicable period of limitations. To confirm the U.S. recipient's ability to file a protective claim for refund, paragraph (e)(2) is added to § 28.2801-4 of the final regulations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">5. Value of a Covered Gift or Covered Bequest</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 28.2801-4(c) of the proposed regulations defines value using transfer tax principles, including the special valuation rules of chapter 14 (sections 2701 through 2704). Several comments recommend that the final regulations be amended to disregard chapter 14. Alternatively, the comments suggest that the value of a covered gift should be determined by subtracting from the value of the covered gift the total value of any interest retained by a covered expatriate donor, without regard to section 2701 or 2702. The comments posit that, because the section 2801 tax is payable by the recipient, unlike the gift and estate taxes that are payable by the donor or decedent's estate, the requested deviation from the usual gift tax valuation rules is necessary. However, like the gift and estate taxes, the section 2801 tax is a transfer tax. The transfer tax valuation rules, therefore, including the special valuation rules of chapter 14, apply to value the property subject to section 2801. The section 2801 tax is imposed 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3385"/>
                        on transfers that otherwise would have escaped gift or estate taxation as a consequence of the donor's or decedent's expatriation. Revising the section 2801 regulations in the suggested manner would decrease the value of a covered gift to which sections 2701 and 2702 apply below what otherwise would have been its gift tax value had the covered expatriate been a U.S. citizen. This result is inconsistent with the intended purpose of section 2801, and Congress did not provide an exception for the special valuation rules. Thus, the requested revisions are not adopted.
                    </P>
                    <P>One comment suggests that sections 2701 and 2702 should not apply in determining the tax liability of a covered bequest, because those sections have no applicability to the estate tax. While the Treasury Department and the IRS acknowledge that sections 2701 and 2702 generally apply only to inter vivos transfers, section 2701(d) provides in certain circumstances for a potential increase in the taxable estate of a transferor. Accordingly, the final regulations provide that the special valuation rules under chapter 14 apply only to the extent those rules are applicable to the specific transfer.  </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">6. Date of Receipt of a Covered Gift or a Covered Bequest</HD>
                    <P>Under § 28.2801-4(d)(2) of the proposed regulations, the date of receipt of a covered gift, which is the date the section 2801 tax is imposed, generally is determined by reference to the date of the gift under chapter 12 principles, as if the covered expatriate had been a U.S. citizen at the time of the transfer. In the event of a transfer of assets by a covered expatriate to a domestic revocable trust, proposed § 28.2801-4(d)(2) provides that the date of receipt of the transfer is the date the covered expatriate relinquishes the right to revoke the trust. Proposed § 28.2801-4(d)(3) provides that the date of receipt of a covered bequest generally is the date the property is distributed from the covered expatriate's estate or revocable trust, unless the interest passes by operation of law or beneficiary designation, in which case the date of receipt is the date of the decedent's death. Comments recommend changing the rules regarding the date of receipt for both covered gifts and covered bequests.</P>
                    <P>With respect to the date of receipt of a covered gift, comments point out that the date on which a covered expatriate makes a gift often is not the same date on which the property is received by the U.S. citizen or resident donee. A discrepancy between those dates can impact a recipient's ability to pay the section 2801 tax liability because the recipient may not yet have received the economic benefit of the gifted property. Comments suggest different methods of determining the date of receipt: (1) the date of “actual” receipt; (2) the date an interest in property becomes possessory; or (3) the date of distribution to the U.S. citizen or resident. The third method is intended to be comparable to the proposed rule for the date of receipt of a covered bequest. A few comments also suggest that the rule determining the date of receipt for purposes of the section 2801 tax should distinguish between receipt of a present interest in property and receipt of a future interest in property. Finally, a comment requests that the final regulations further elaborate on the date of receipt when a transfer of assets to a domestic revocable trust is an incomplete gift, pointing out that relinquishment of the right to revoke the trust may not be the trigger that completes the gift.</P>
                    <P>With respect to the date of receipt of a covered bequest, some comments object to treating interests passing by operation of law or beneficiary designation as received on the date of death, rather than on the date property is distributed to the recipient. Comments note that a decedent's property devolves to heirs at death by operation of law in civil law jurisdictions, even though significant time may elapse before the heirs' interests become possessory. Again, this delay could impact a recipient's ability to pay the section 2801 tax. To address these concerns, a few comments suggest defining the date of receipt of a covered bequest as the date of actual receipt by the recipient, whether a distribution from a decedent's estate or revocable trust or the transfer of property by operation of law, beneficiary designation, or other contractual arrangement. Another comment suggests that, if the date of receipt of a covered bequest is not changed from that identified in the proposed regulations, the final regulations should include an election to defer payment of the section 2801 tax and interest until the recipient's interest becomes possessory. Still another comment suggests that, because a date of death valuation is likely to be performed on inherited assets for non-section 2801 purposes, recipients should be able to elect to treat a covered bequest as received as of the date of death rather than the date of actual distribution to avoid the need for additional appraisals.</P>
                    <P>Defining the date of receipt of both a covered gift and a covered bequest as the date on which the recipient obtains actual receipt or a possessory interest in the transferred property would eliminate the concern regarding the recipient's ability to pay the section 2801 tax, particularly in civil law jurisdictions where property passes by operation of law to heirs at death but distribution is delayed for a period during administration of the decedent's estate. However, such a definition outside of the context of a distribution from a decedent's estate or revocable trust would raise other issues and administrability concerns. For instance, in some cases it may be difficult to determine the date of actual receipt of a covered gift or covered bequest, such as the receipt of a remainder interest in property or, in the case of a delay in distribution of property after title has vested in a civil law jurisdiction during the period of administration. In cases where property is distributed or an interest becomes possessory long after the transfer by the covered expatriate, it may be difficult for the recipient to obtain the information needed to determine whether the transfer is subject to the section 2801 tax and otherwise comply with reporting and paying the section 2801 tax. Further, such a definition could open the door to possible manipulation of the date of receipt and potential abuse, such as planning designed to ensure a covered gift or covered bequest is considered non-possessory for an extended period to delay and possibly defeat any section 2801 tax liability.</P>
                    <P>In most instances, the lengthy amount of time between the date of receipt and the due date of the return and payment of the section 2801 tax, which generally is 17.5 months after the close of the year in which the covered gift or covered bequest is received, should be sufficient to allow a U.S. recipient to make necessary arrangements to timely report and pay any section 2801 tax liability. See § 28.6071-1(a). Moreover, the rules for transfers in trust satisfactorily resolve the potential problems for many situations of deferred possession.</P>
                    <P>
                        However, for future interests in property that are not held in a trust (for example, a remainder interest in real property), the Treasury Department and the IRS appreciate the administrative and valuation concerns with the proposed definitions of the date of receipt. In view of these concerns, § 28.2801-4(d)(8)(i) of the final regulations includes a special rule providing that the date of receipt of a covered gift or covered bequest of a future interest in property that is not held in trust is the earlier of (1) the date the future interest is disposed of by the U.S. recipient or (2) the date that is the later of the date that the interest vests 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3386"/>
                        in the U.S. recipient or the date that the last term interest in the property held by an intervening recipient terminates. Further, to assist recipients both in achieving finality regarding the section 2801 tax liability and in avoiding the potential for administrative hurdles caused by a long delay in receipt, § 28.2801-4(d)(8)(ii) of the final regulations provides that the U.S. recipient of a covered gift or covered bequest of a future interest in property not held in trust may elect to treat the covered gift or covered bequest as having been received on the date of receipt of the gift or on the covered expatriate's date of death, respectively. To the extent a domestic or electing foreign trust receives or may eventually receive a covered gift or covered bequest that is a future interest in property that is not in trust, such domestic or electing foreign trust may take advantage of this election.
                    </P>
                    <P>Finally, to provide further clarification on the date of receipt of a transfer to a domestic trust or an electing foreign trust that is an incomplete gift, a new paragraph is added in § 28.2801-4(d)(4) of the final regulations. In the event of a transfer by a covered expatriate to a revocable domestic trust or electing foreign trust, the date of receipt by the trust is the later of (1) the date the right to revoke the trust is relinquished or extinguished and (2) the date of extinguishment of all powers over or interests in the trust that would prevent the transfer from being a competed transfer for gift tax purposes. In the event of a transfer by a covered expatriate to an irrevocable domestic trust or electing foreign trust over or in which the covered expatriate retains powers or interests that prevents the transfer from being complete, the trust receives the transfer on the date all of such powers or interests are extinguished.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">7. Non-Electing Foreign Trusts</HD>
                    <P>The section 2801 tax applies to a distribution attributable to a covered gift or covered bequest to a U.S. citizen or resident from a non-electing foreign trust. See section 2801(e)(4)(B)(i).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Distributions</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 28.2801-5(b) of the proposed regulations defines the term 
                        <E T="03">distribution</E>
                         broadly to include any direct, indirect, or constructive transfer from a non-electing foreign trust, including each disbursement from such non-electing foreign trust pursuant to the exercise, release, or lapse of a power of appointment. In response to some comments, the final regulations clarify that a distribution includes a transfer to the extent made for less than full and adequate consideration in money or money's worth.
                    </P>
                    <P>Several comments request clarification as to whether the uncompensated use of trust property by, or a loan from a non-electing foreign trust to, a U.S. citizen or resident would constitute a distribution for section 2801 tax purposes and point out that these are treated as distributions for income tax purposes under section 643(i). The comments recommend that neither one be treated as a distribution for purposes of section 2801 and request that the final regulations explicitly state that the deemed distribution rules of section 643(i) do not apply for purposes of section 2801. The comments suggest that, because there is no specific statutory direction to vary from the ordinary definition of distribution, the deemed distribution rules of section 643(i) should not be used to interpret the term as used in section 2801. The Treasury Department and the IRS agree with the latter recommendation to clarify that the deemed distribution rules of section 643(i) are not adopted as part of the definition of a distribution for purposes of section 2801(e)(4)(B)(i). However, that does not mean that a loan or use of property cannot be a distribution and thus a covered gift. To the extent that a loan from, or the use of property of, a non-electing foreign trust constitutes a gift under chapter 12 of the Code, then the portion of that loan or use received by a U.S. recipient constitutes a distribution and thus a covered gift to the extent of the trust's section 2801 ratio. The final regulations include this clarification.  </P>
                    <P>One comment recommends that the final regulations provide that a loan from a foreign trust which is a qualified obligation under section 643(i) and Notice 97-34, 1997-1 C.B. 422, should not be treated as a distribution for section 2801 tax purposes (even if it otherwise would be treated as a distribution using gift tax principles). The final regulations provide, as other comments suggest, that distribution should not be interpreted using principles from section 643(i), because Congress did not indicate that such standards should be used. Consistent with this approach of not using section 643(i) principles, the suggestion to exclude from the definition of a covered gift or bequest this particular category of loans described in section 643(i) is not adopted. Comments also recommend that the final regulations clarify that the uncompensated use of trust property that is de minimis, whether determined by duration or value, does not constitute a distribution, noting that it is costly, impractical, and time-consuming to value the use of property. Because foreign trusts with U.S. beneficiaries already must determine these values for income tax purposes (given that there is no de minimis exception under section 643(i)), taxpayers are not subject to any additional administrative burden. Accordingly, this recommendation has not been adopted.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Section 2801 Ratio</HD>
                    <P>Section 28.2801-5(c) of the proposed regulations provides that the amount of the distribution attributable to a covered gift or covered bequest is determined by multiplying the distribution by a ratio (section 2801 ratio) that is redetermined after each contribution to the non-electing foreign trust. The proposed regulations explain how to compute the section 2801 ratio and provide that each distribution from the non-electing foreign trust is considered to be made proportionally, without any tracing to particular property.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Calculating the Section 2801 Ratio</HD>
                    <P>
                        While acknowledging that the proposed method for determining the section 2801 ratio is based on the existing method for determining the inclusion ratio of a trust for GST tax purposes, several comments nonetheless object to this methodology, saying that its complexity, particularly the requirement to revalue trust property at each contribution, would discourage compliance. Comments offer multiple suggestions to avoid the complications of a section 2801 ratio of more than zero but less than one. Some suggestions involve recognizing separate accounting or separate shares within, or the severance of, a single trust so that separate section 2801 ratios could apply to the separate shares. For instance, such an approach could allow a non-electing foreign trust to utilize separate accounting for the portion of the trust that consists of only covered gifts and covered bequests (similar to separate accounting in the GST context under section 2654(b) and § 26.2654-1(a)(2) of the Generation-Skipping Transfer Tax Regulations for portions of a trust attributable to transfers from different transferors). Another approach could allow a non-electing foreign trust to treat a covered gift or covered bequest earmarked for a particular beneficiary as a separate share with a distinct section 2801 ratio (similar to separate share rules utilized for other tax purposes such as § 26.2654-1(a)(1) and §§ 1.672(f)-3(b)(3) and (d) and 1.663(c)-3 of the Income Tax Regulations). Another approach could allow the trustee to sever a trust with a mixed 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3387"/>
                        section 2801 ratio into two separate trusts, each with a section 2801 ratio of either zero or one, using the same method provided for qualified severances in section 2642(a)(3) and § 26.2642-6.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS recognize that, in the absence of an election by the foreign trust to be treated as an electing foreign trust, computing and re-computing the section 2801 ratio in the event of additional contributions may pose challenges to U.S. distributees unless the non-electing foreign trust has a section 2801 ratio of either one or zero. Nevertheless, a rule recognizing separate section 2801 ratios in the event of separate accounting, separate shares, or a severance of a single non-electing foreign trust presents administrability and enforcement concerns. For instance, because of the lack of jurisdiction over a foreign trust, it will be difficult to verify whether a single trust consists of substantially separate and independent shares with no commingling of trust assets and whether a qualified severance was done in a manner that complies with rules similar to § 26.2642-6. Although certain reporting and other administrative requirements are imposed in order for separate accounting, separate shares, and qualified severances to be recognized, no similar reporting or other administrative requirements could be enforced against the trustee of a non-electing foreign trust. Furthermore, the proposal to allow for separate accounts that are not actually separated into different shares or trusts similar to section 2654(b) would not eliminate the need for revaluation at each contribution, because revaluation would be necessary after each contribution in order to determine the portion of the trust allocable to each account. See § 26.2654-1(a)(2)(ii) (requiring the computation of a fraction that utilizes fair market valuations of the trust as well as of the portions treated as separate trusts). Accordingly, the final regulations do not adopt the commenters' suggestions related to separate accountings similar to that provided in section 2654(b) and § 26.2654-1(a)(2), separate shares similar in concept to those recognized in § 26.2654-1(a)(1) and §§ 1.672(f)-3(b)(3) and (d) and 1.663(c)-3, or severance of a single trust similar to qualified severances described in section 2642(a)(3) and § 26.2642-6.  </P>
                    <P>
                        Another comment suggests allowing a non-electing foreign trust to treat as a separate share gifts and bequests received prior to the effective date of section 2801. As is explained in part 7.B.ii. of the 
                        <E T="03">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions</E>
                         section of the preamble, such receipts are not included in the definition of a covered gift or covered bequest. Because the final regulations provide that such receipts are merely another example of noncovered receipts, this suggestion is not adopted for the same administrability concerns identified in the prior paragraph. See § 28.2801-2(f) and -2(g) and 
                        <E T="03">Example 3</E>
                         of § 28.2801-5(e) of these final regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>One comment suggests that separate accounting for the purpose of recognizing separate section 2801 ratios be permitted in the event a covered expatriate's contributions to a non-electing foreign trust can be traced to specific assets. Another comment recommends that the final regulations adopt a rule that would treat a distribution from a non-electing foreign trust as made either first or last from a covered gift or covered bequest, similar to the income tax treatment of certain inventory under sections 471 and 472, or in a manner analogous to the tiers applicable to distributions from a charitable remainder trust. Requiring the tracing or tracking of specific trust assets has the potential to be more onerous to administer than the section 2801 ratio, especially as trust property produces income, is reinvested, or otherwise changes form over time, and to the extent it is commingled or reinvested with other assets. Additionally, because the IRS has no jurisdiction over the foreign trustee, it would be difficult to verify that the assets were being traced or tracked properly. Given these administrability concerns, these suggestions are not adopted.</P>
                    <P>One comment suggests that the final regulations permit a non-electing foreign trust to use the value of each contribution to the trust as of the date of its contribution to compute the section 2801 ratio, thus eliminating the need for revaluations at the time of each subsequent contribution. However, as the comment acknowledges, computing the section 2801 ratio using contributed values is a less desirable alternative because, although simpler to administer, it would be far from accurate, so this suggestion has not been adopted.</P>
                    <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS recognize that calculation of a foreign trust's section 2801 ratio may be complicated when a single trust receives contributions attributable to both covered gifts or covered bequests and non-covered gifts or non-covered bequests at different points in time. In some circumstances, the complexity can be eliminated by establishing separate trusts and making covered gifts or covered bequests to one trust and non-covered gifts and non-covered bequests to the other trust. The Treasury Department and the IRS recognize that this might not always be possible or practical, particularly in the event of one or more transfers to a non-electing foreign trust as a result of the death of a covered expatriate. However, for the reasons previously stated, the final regulations retain the section 2801 ratio concepts enumerated in the proposed regulations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Inadequate Information To Calculate Section 2801 Ratio</HD>
                    <P>Section 28.2801-5(c)(3) of the proposed regulations provides that, if the trustee of the foreign trust does not have sufficient books and records to calculate the section 2801 ratio, or if the U.S. recipient is unable to obtain the necessary information with regard to the foreign trust, the U.S. recipient must proceed upon the assumption that the entire distribution for purposes of section 2801 is attributable to a covered gift or covered bequest. Some comments object to this assumption, contending that it is unduly harsh in that U.S. recipients of foreign trust distributions may be unable to determine the section 2801 ratio despite their best efforts. Comments also suggest applying a presumption under which property acquired by a non-electing foreign trust prior to June 17, 2008, would be presumed not to be a covered gift or covered bequest, and property acquired on or after that date would be presumed to be a covered gift or covered bequest.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Treasury Department and the IRS are persuaded that the entire trust should not be assumed to have a section 2801 ratio of one merely because the U.S. recipient cannot determine whether certain transfers are attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests. Accordingly, the final regulations retain the rule in the proposed regulations, but clarify that the assumption applies only to the extent the section 2801 ratio cannot be substantiated. See § 28.2801-5(c)(3) of these final regulations. For instance, even if the U.S. recipient lacks adequate information to determine whether certain transfers to a non-electing foreign trust are covered gifts or covered bequests, the U.S. recipient can still treat other transfers to the non-electing foreign trust as not being covered gifts or covered bequests if the U.S. recipient has adequate information to show that those transfers are not covered gifts or covered bequests. Additionally, the final regulations clarify that the assumption that a distribution is attributable to a covered gift or covered bequest can be rebutted 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3388"/>
                        to the extent the taxpayer can supply information sufficient to persuade the Commissioner that the assumption is not correct.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As to the suggestion to apply a presumption about property acquired by a non-electing foreign trust prior to the effective date of section 2801, the Treasury Department and the IRS agree that the final regulations should clarify the status of pre-enactment contributions to non-electing foreign trusts. However, rather than a presumption, the final regulations update the definitions of covered gift and covered bequest to clarify that such terms include only gifts and bequests made to the non-electing foreign trust after the effective date of section 2801. Thus, property attributable to a covered gift or covered bequest does not include pre-section 2801 contributions to the non-electing foreign trust. See § 28.2801-2(f) and -2(g) and 
                        <E T="03">Example 3</E>
                         of § 28.2801-5(e) of these final regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>Other comments propose that a U.S. recipient of a distribution from a non-electing foreign trust may use any reasonable method to estimate the section 2801 ratio based on the information available, such as affidavits from persons with relevant knowledge and reasonable assumptions regarding growth rates, contributions, and other pertinent information. The adequacy of the method and information used to compute the section 2801 ratio to avoid application of the assumption is most appropriately determined on a case-by-case basis. Accordingly, these final regulations do not contain a detailed list of the types of information, and the combinations thereof, that may be used to calculate the section 2801 ratio and rebut the presumption in § 28.2801-5(c)(3) of the final regulations.</P>
                    <P>One comment suggests that the burden to establish the section 2801 ratio should shift to the IRS if the U.S. recipient (i) affirms under penalties of perjury that best attempts were made to obtain necessary information, (ii) discloses all relevant information that the U.S. recipient has to the IRS, and (iii) identifies parties believed to have the necessary information. The Treasury Department and the IRS acknowledge that U.S. recipients of distributions from non-electing foreign trusts whose trustees do not keep proper records, or who do not cooperate with the U.S. recipients, may end up computing their section 2801 tax using an overstated section 2801 ratio. However, because all the information is in the hands of the trustees of the foreign trust (over which the IRS is unlikely to have any jurisdiction) and the IRS has limited ability to independently determine the section 2801 ratio of a non-electing foreign trust, leaving the burden of proof with the U.S. recipient more likely ensures that section 2801 tax is levied on all covered gifts and covered bequests. Accordingly, the final regulations do not adopt the suggestion to shift the burden in establishing the section 2801 ratio to the IRS.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">iii. Impact of Section 2801(c) Amount on Section 2801 Ratio</HD>
                    <P>
                        One comment requests clarification on when a section 2801 tax is deemed to have been paid and suggests that an example be added to the final regulations. Section 28.2801-5(c)(2) of the proposed regulations provides that, once a section 2801 tax has been timely paid on property that thereafter remains in a foreign trust, that property is no longer considered to be, or to be attributable to, a covered gift or covered bequest to the foreign trust for purposes of determining the trust's section 2801 ratio. Section 28.2801-5(c)(2) of the proposed regulations further provides that a section 2801 tax is deemed to have been timely paid on amounts for which no section 2801 tax was due as long as those amounts were reported as a covered gift or covered bequest on a timely filed Form 708. The final regulations clarify in § 28.2801-5(c)(1) that, because a non-electing foreign trust itself is not taxed on its receipt of covered gifts and covered bequests, the trust is not entitled to the exclusion under section 2801(c); instead, the section 2801(c) exclusion is allowed to the U.S. recipient with regard to distributions from the non-electing foreign trust. In addition, the final regulations expand an example to illustrate this situation. See 
                        <E T="03">Example 4</E>
                         of § 28.2801-5(e) of the final regulations. In addition, section 28.2801-5(c)(2) of the final regulations also is modified to provide that section 2801 tax is deemed to have been timely paid on amounts for which no section 2801 tax was due as a result of the section 2801(c) amount, whether or not those amounts were reported as a covered gift or covered bequest on a timely filed Form 708.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Income Tax Deduction for Section 2801 Tax on Certain Distributions</HD>
                    <P>Section 2801(e)(4)(B)(ii) allows a U.S. recipient of a distribution from a non-electing foreign trust to deduct under section 164 the section 2801 tax imposed on the portion of the distribution included in the U.S. recipient's gross income for the year. Section 28.2801-4(a)(3)(ii) of the proposed regulations provides instructions for calculating the amount of this deduction. That income tax deduction is available for the year in which the section 2801 tax is paid. Commenters questioned whether an accumulation distribution, taxable to a U.S. person in a given year, is to be included in this reference to “gross income” when computing this deduction.</P>
                    <P>Section 662(a), in effect, determines how to determine the portion of a trust's distributable net income (DNI) that is taxable to each beneficiary of the trust in a given year. That section provides that the gross income of a beneficiary of a complex trust includes both amounts required to be distributed to the beneficiary and amounts properly distributed to the beneficiary. That section and § 1.662(a)-3(c) provide that a beneficiary receiving such a distribution in a given year will recognize the distribution as gross income only to the extent the distribution is made out of the trust's DNI for the year.</P>
                    <P>Under section 665, a foreign trust's distribution to a beneficiary of income that exceeds that trust's DNI for the year is a distribution of income earned by the trust in a prior year, which is an accumulation distribution that is comprised of undistributed net income (UNI). That amount, therefore, would not be included in the reference to gross income as used in section 662(a).</P>
                    <P>Section 667(a) provides that a beneficiary receiving such an accumulation distribution must include that distribution as income in the year the distribution is received but must compute the tax on that distribution (to the extent it would have been included in the beneficiary's income under section 662) as though it had been received in a preceding taxable year. Section 667 provides the mechanism to compute the applicable income tax and interest charge on the distribution (throwback tax).</P>
                    <P>One comment suggests that the final regulations permit a deduction under section 164 of the full amount of the section 2801 tax paid on an accumulation distribution. The comments observe that, if any portion of a distribution from a non-electing foreign trust is attributable to a covered gift or covered bequest and is an accumulation distribution, the aggregate amount of the section 2801 tax and the throwback tax might exceed the amount of the distribution.</P>
                    <P>
                        Other comments suggest limiting the total tax liability under section 2801 and the throwback tax on a specific distribution to the amount of the distribution. One comment suggests this 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3389"/>
                        might be achieved by reducing the amount of the distribution that is treated as an accumulation distribution. The final regulations do not adopt the commenters' suggestions that involve limiting the total tax liability, other than through a deduction under section 164 as provided in section 2801(e)(4)(B)(ii) and described above. There is no mechanism under the income tax rules to re-classify an accumulation distribution as DNI because an accumulation distribution is, by definition, income in excess of DNI. Section 2801 does not limit the total tax liability under that section or the throwback tax.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Although section 2801(e)(4)(B)(ii) uses the term 
                        <E T="03">gross income,</E>
                         that section merely limits the available tax deduction to tax paid on income that was subjected to income tax. The reference to gross income does not reference any particular definition of that term and thus does not appear to create a distinction between different types of taxable income. For that reason, the final regulations provide that the reference to gross income in this section includes all forms of income subject to income tax in that year, including an accumulation distribution.
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 28.2801-4(a)(3)(ii) of the proposed regulations provides that the deduction under section 164 provided in section 2801(e)(4)(B)(ii) is available in the year in which the tax is paid or accrued. As a result, a cash method taxpayer will be entitled to the deduction only in the tax year in which the section 2801 tax is paid. Several comments suggest that the deduction instead should be available to a cash method taxpayer in the year the distribution is received and subject to income tax. The final regulations do not adopt this suggestion for the following reasons. Both section 2801(e)(4)(B)(ii) and section 164(a) allow the deduction only in the year in which the tax is paid or accrued, and references in the Code to items accrued generally do not apply to cash basis taxpayers. Congress has not provided a special rule (such as section 164(b)(4)(B) or 691(c), for example) allowing the deduction in the year of the distribution. Additionally, allowing the deduction in the year of the distribution for cash method taxpayers would be administratively difficult because the section 2801 tax for a distribution from a non-electing foreign trust attributable to a covered gift or covered bequest generally is due in the calendar year after the income tax attributable to that distribution is due (17.5 months after the close of the calendar year of receipt versus 3.5 months after the close of the calendar year). Although the deduction for section 2801 tax paid cannot be taken against the income carried out from the distribution attributable to the covered gift or bequest, the deduction can be taken against income in the year the section 2801 tax is paid (including against distributions of accumulated income). Accordingly, the final regulations retain the rule in the proposed regulations that the deduction under section 164 is available only in the year the section 2801 tax is paid or accrued.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">8. Election by Foreign Trust To Be Treated as Domestic Trust</HD>
                    <P>Section 2801(e)(4)(B)(iii) allows a foreign trust to elect to be treated as a domestic trust solely for purposes of section 2801. That election may be revoked with the consent of the Secretary of the Treasury or her delegate, but also may be terminated by the trust's failure to comply with the requirements for maintaining a valid election. An election to be treated as a domestic trust causes the electing foreign trust to become liable for the section 2801 tax liability on covered gifts and covered bequests received by the trust, thus relieving each U.S. citizen or resident receiving a trust distribution attributable to such covered gifts or bequests from that tax liability.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Reporting Requirements</HD>
                    <P>Section 28.2801-5(d)(4) of the proposed regulations provides that the trustee of an electing foreign trust must file a timely Form 708 annually either to report and pay the section 2801 tax on all covered gifts and covered bequests received by the trust during the calendar year, or to certify that the electing foreign trust did not receive any covered gifts or covered bequests during the calendar year. One comment requests that the final regulations eliminate the requirement to file a Form 708 for years in which no covered gift or covered bequest was received. The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that the trustee's requirement to certify annually that the electing foreign trust did not receive any covered gifts or bequests creates a burden that outweighs the benefit to the enforcement and administration of the section 2801 tax. Accordingly, the final regulations do not require annual reporting for electing foreign trusts. Instead, reporting will be required only by an electing foreign trust for years in which the total value of the covered gifts and covered bequests received by the electing foreign trust in that year exceeds the section 2801(c) amount for that year.</P>
                    <P>Section 28.2801-5(d)(3)(ii) of the proposed regulations details the requirements for a valid election. Among these is the requirement to notify and provide to the IRS information on each U.S. citizen or resident who is a permissible distributee of the trust. For this purpose, a permissible distributee is a U.S. citizen or resident who either may or must receive trust distributions, has a right (whether current or future) to withdraw income or principal from the trust, or would have been so described if either the trust or the interest of all persons so described had just terminated. Comments observe that this requirement is burdensome, infringes upon disclosure and privacy standards, and requests information that is not required to ensure that the tax is adequately administered. One comment suggests revising the requirements for making the election to be treated as a domestic trust so that only beneficiaries that have received distributions during the relevant period must be identified on Form 708. Another comment suggests adopting the standards devised for the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) information reporting under sections 1471 and 1472, so that only beneficiaries who actually receive a distribution or who have a mandatory payment right during the relevant period must be identified on Form 708.</P>
                    <P>
                        It is necessary for the trustee to provide information to the IRS on all U.S. citizens or residents who may receive distributions from the trust, because those persons may have to pay tax under section 2801 if the election terminates. Although the Treasury Department and the IRS are sensitive to the policy concerns of the commenters, this concern is outweighed by the IRS's need to obtain information from the trustee that would be necessary to assure the collection of tax should the election terminate. Additionally, because the final regulations do not require annual filings in the absence of the receipt of a covered gift or covered bequest by the electing foreign trust, as the proposed regulations did, an electing foreign trust's most recent return may be filed many years before the termination of the election (for example, if the election terminates for failure to pay 2801 tax or to file a return in a year that a contribution is made to the trust). In that event, the commenter's request would deprive the IRS of needed information about the actual distributees in the year of the termination of the election. Accordingly, the final regulations retain 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3390"/>
                        the definition of permissible distributee under the proposed regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Section 28.2801-5(d)(3)(iv) of the final regulations confirms that the appointment of the required U.S. agent is made by filing Form 2848, 
                        <E T="03">Power of Attorney and Declaration of Representative,</E>
                         or as may be directed otherwise in IRS forms or publications. Merely confirming the name and identifying information of that agent on the electing trust's Form 708 is not sufficient for this purpose.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Termination of Electing Foreign Trust Status</HD>
                    <P>Under § 28.2801-5(d)(5)(ii) of the proposed regulations, an election to be treated as a domestic trust is terminated by the failure of the foreign trust to timely file Form 708 or timely pay any required section 2801 tax. The termination is effective as of the first day of the calendar year for which the failure occurs.</P>
                    <P>A comment suggests that the trustee of an electing foreign trust should be permitted to cure the late filing of Form 708 and/or late payment of the section 2801 tax to avoid the retroactive termination of the foreign trust's election to be treated as a domestic trust for purposes of the section 2801 tax. The comment contends that an opportunity to cure is needed to avoid placing a reporting burden on a U.S. citizen or resident who received a distribution during the year for which the election is being terminated.</P>
                    <P>
                        As provided in paragraph 8.A. of the 
                        <E T="03">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions</E>
                         section of this preamble, the final regulations do not require annual filings for electing foreign trusts for years in which the electing foreign trust receives no covered gifts or covered bequests. Accordingly, under the final regulations, an electing foreign trust's election will not terminate for the failure to file a Form 708 for such a year. The final regulations, however, require that, unless the total value of the covered gifts and covered bequests received by the electing foreign trust in a calendar year does not exceed the section 2801(c) amount, the trustee of an electing foreign trust must report all covered gifts and covered bequests received during that calendar year on a timely filed Form 708 and timely pay the section 2801 tax in full. Because the IRS may lack jurisdiction to assess tax on a foreign trustee, voluntary payment by the foreign trustee is the only way to ensure collection of section 2801 tax on an electing foreign trust. If the foreign trustee fails to pay the section 2801 tax, then the section 2801 tax must be collected from the U.S. recipient to ensure collection. Providing a grace period to file a return and make a payment of tax beyond the original due date of the required return to provide the suggested opportunity to cure is not tenable because the identity of the taxpayer during this period would be uncertain, creating confusion and delaying finality as to whether the U.S. beneficiaries of the trust or the trustee of the trust is responsible for the payment of the section 2801 tax. In addition, providing such a grace period could encourage trustees to delay payment to the end of the grace period, notwithstanding that the original due date for such payment already is more than 17.5 months after the close of the year in which the covered gift or covered bequest was received. For these reasons, the regulations provide that, unless the total value of the covered gifts and covered bequests received by the electing foreign trust in a calendar year does not exceed the section 2801(c) amount, the failure to report all covered gifts and covered bequests received on a timely filed Form 708 or to timely pay the section 2801 tax in full will result in the termination of the foreign trust's election. The final regulations in § 28.2801-5(d)(5)(ii)(A)(
                        <E T="03">3</E>
                        ) further provide a method for the trust to affirmatively terminate its election to be treated as a domestic trust for purposes of section 2801.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Dispute as to Amount of Section 2801 Tax Owed</HD>
                    <P>Section 28.2801-5(d)(6)(i) of the proposed regulations describes the process for resolving or otherwise accounting for proposed adjustments to the amount of the section 2801 tax owed by an electing foreign trust. The proposed procedure entails the IRS notifying the trustee of the foreign trust of the additional tax due, including any penalties and interest, and the due date of payment. If the trustee of the electing foreign trust and the IRS are unable to come to an agreement and the trustee fails to timely pay the additional tax and other asserted amounts by the stated due date, then the election is terminated retroactively, effective as of January 1 of the year for which the Form 708 was filed and is converted as of that same date to an imperfect election. Any additional value determined by the IRS on which the foreign trust did not timely pay the section 2801 tax then is treated as a covered gift or covered bequest to the trust and should be taken into account as a covered gift or covered bequest by a U.S. recipient in computing the section 2801 ratio applicable to any distribution from the trust, although that valuation adjustment is an issue that may be challenged or otherwise resolved on examination of that U.S. recipient's Form 708 reporting a distribution.</P>
                    <P>Comments suggest that the final regulations provide the same opportunity, procedures, and rights to the electing foreign trust as are applicable to any other U.S. taxpayer, with regard to any challenge to the IRS's determination of value. One comment recommends that the IRS issue a statutory notice of deficiency to make possible these administrative and judicial review processes. Another comment suggests that allowing the electing foreign trust to resolve these valuation issues with the IRS would avoid the possibility that different trust beneficiaries might reach different resolutions of the same issue as their individual Forms 708 are separately examined by the IRS.</P>
                    <P>Establishing a statutory notice of deficiency process for resolving or otherwise addressing proposed adjustments to the amount of the section 2801 tax owed by an electing foreign trust would have a harmful effect on the IRS's ability to collect any unpaid deficiency, even a deficiency that has been reduced to judgment, given the IRS's lack of jurisdiction over the trustees and assets of a foreign trust. Additionally, if the foreign trust in such a situation refuses to pay the deficiency, it is not clear that the IRS would have the ability to assert transferee liability against a U.S. citizen or resident receiving distributions from the trust under section 6901 or 31 U.S.C. 3713. Therefore, allowing the continued validity of the election despite an unresolved dispute or unpaid tax and issuing a statutory notice of deficiency would jeopardize the IRS's ability to collect the unpaid deficiency from either the foreign trust or the U.S. recipient of a trust distribution.</P>
                    <P>
                        Given the jurisdictional limitations and because the statute contemplates that the section 2801 tax will be paid by the electing foreign trust, the proposed procedures for handling disputes involving electing foreign trusts are the practical approach and strike the appropriate balance of fairness, administrability, and enforcement of the section 2801 tax. However, the final regulations improve administrability by clarifying in § 28.2801-5(d)(6)(i) that the payment of any additional amount of section 2801 tax must be made either by the due date specified in the letter or the due date otherwise agreed to by the Commissioner. Note that the procedures as finalized also include the availability of a reasonable cause defense to the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3391"/>
                        imposition of failure to file and failure to pay penalties under section 6651 on the U.S. recipient's obligations with regard to distributions made from the trust. See, for example, § 28.2801-5(d)(6)(iii)(C) of the final regulations. Thus, the request of the commenters is not adopted.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">9. Income Tax Effects of Section 2801 Tax</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Income Tax Basis</HD>
                    <P>Section 28.2801-6(a) of the proposed regulations provides that the recipient's basis in property received as a covered gift is determined under section 1015. The proposed regulations further provide that section 1015(d) does not apply to increase the basis in a covered gift by the amount of the section 2801 tax paid with respect to that covered gift. Several comments state that a basis increase should be allowed for the section 2801 tax paid with respect to a covered gift based on simple fairness and to serve the statutory goal of tax neutrality. One comment acknowledges that section 1015(d) is inapplicable to section 2801 because section 1015(d) applies only to gift taxes paid under chapter 12 of the Code, not to the taxes on covered gifts defined in chapter 15. However, this comment states that section 164 does apply to increase basis in property received as a covered gift by the amount of the section 2801 tax paid because section 164(a) treats taxes that have been paid but are not deductible under section 164 as part of the acquisition cost of the property. As such, the comment concludes that payment of the section 2801 tax does increase the recipient's basis in the property.</P>
                    <P>
                        The comment is correct that the basis adjustment available under section 1015(d) is applicable only to gift tax paid under chapter 12. Section 2801 does not apply the rule of section 1015(d) to the section 2801 tax, which is in chapter 15 of subtitle B of the Code. However, neither does section 164 provide for an increase in the basis of property received as a covered gift by the amount of the section 2801 tax paid. The flush language in section 164(a) clarifies the treatment of certain taxes (other than those enumerated in section 164(a)) that are incurred in a trade or business or in an income-producing activity and are connected with the acquisition or disposition of property. Specifically, such taxes are treated as part of the cost of the acquired property or, in the case of a disposition, as a reduction in the amount realized on the disposition. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         H. Conf. Rept. 99-841 (Vol. 2), at II-20 (1986), 1986-3 C.B. 20 (Vol. 4); 
                        <E T="03">Sleiman</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 1997-530 at 10. The section 2801 tax paid on the receipt of a covered gift or covered bequest does not come within this description because, by its nature, it is not a tax that is incurred in a trade or business or an income-producing activity.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS understand the general proposition of the commenters that allowing a basis increase for the section 2801 tax paid with respect to a covered gift would be consistent with the rule in section 1015(d) that takes gift tax paid into account and thus would further serve the goal of tax neutrality and that such a rule might more fairly represent the acquisition cost of property received in a covered bequest. However, in order to create a special rule for an adjustment to the basis in property subject to the section 2801 tax, a statutory amendment to section 1015, 2801, or other statutory authority would be needed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Deduction for Portion of Section 2801 Tax Paid Attributable to Income in Respect of a Decedent</HD>
                    <P>Section 691(c)(1) provides that a person who includes an amount of income in respect of a decedent (IRD) in gross income under section 691(a) is allowed as an income tax deduction, for the same taxable year, a portion of the estate tax paid by reason of the inclusion of that IRD in the decedent's gross estate. A comment likens the estate tax paid to the section 2801 tax paid and suggests that, in the interest of tax neutrality, the final regulations should allow a U.S. recipient to deduct from gross income the portion of the section 2801 tax paid with respect to an item of IRD, when the amount of IRD is included in the U.S. recipient's gross income for the same taxable year.</P>
                    <P>
                        Although estate tax may be similar to section 2801 tax on the receipt of a covered bequest, in section 691(c)(2)(A), Congress explicitly defined the term 
                        <E T="03">estate tax</E>
                         for purposes of that section as the tax imposed on the estate of a decedent under section 2001 or 2101, and did not include analogous taxes imposed under other sections of the Code such as section 2801. Furthermore, where Congress believed that a deduction for section 2801 taxes paid is appropriate, it provided for that deduction explicitly. While section 2801(e)(4)(B)(ii) provides for an income tax deduction under section 164 for a certain amount of section 2801 tax imposed on a distribution from a non-electing foreign trust included in gross income that is attributable to a covered gift or covered bequest, Congress did not provide an income tax deduction under section 691(c) for section 2801 tax that is attributable to IRD.
                    </P>
                    <P>Additionally, the method for computing the deduction under section 691(c)(2) for estate taxes paid uses variables that are not applicable to the tax under section 2801. For instance, section 691(c)(1)(A) provides a deduction based on the “net value” for estate tax purposes of all items of IRD described in section 691(a). Section 691(c)(2)(C) provides that the net value shall be an amount equal to the excess of the estate tax over the estate tax computed without including in the gross estate such net value. Therefore, there would be no way to calculate the amount of an IRD deduction for section 2801 tax paid using the rules provided under section 691. Accordingly, in order to establish a similar regime for section 2801, the final regulations would need to contain a new set of comprehensive rules for determining the amount of a deduction against items of IRD for section 2801 tax paid.</P>
                    <P>For these reasons, adopting the commenter's suggestion would be both impractical and beyond what is provided by statute.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">10. Information Reporting Under Sections 6039F and 6048(c)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Generally, sections 6039F and 6048(c), respectively, require each U.S. person (as defined for income tax purposes) who receives a gift or bequest from a foreign person or a distribution from a foreign trust to report such receipt or transaction by filing Form 3520, 
                        <E T="03">Annual Return to Report Transactions With Foreign Trusts and Receipt of Certain Foreign Gifts.</E>
                         However, § 28.2801-6(c)(1) and (2) of the proposed regulations provides that, for purposes of the information reporting provisions of sections 6039F and 6048(c), 
                        <E T="03">U.S. person</E>
                         is defined to include a U.S. citizen or resident, as that term is defined in proposed § 28.2801-2(b), which adopts the gift and estate tax meaning of the term resident under subtitle B, based on domicile.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Several comments request that the final regulations revise the rule in § 28.2801-6(c) of the proposed regulations to reflect that the reporting requirements under sections 6039F and 6048(c) apply to U.S. residents as the term 
                        <E T="03">U.S. person</E>
                         is defined for income tax purposes. See section 7701(a)(30) and (b)(1)(A). Under this suggestion, the scope of the reporting requirements on Form 3520 would not be expanded to individuals who are U.S. residents for transfer tax purposes but not for income tax purposes. The comments point out that these taxpayers who are U.S. residents only for transfer tax purposes 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3392"/>
                        are the same persons (other than an electing foreign trust) who will be required to file a Form 708 to report the receipt of a covered gift or covered bequest and thus that the proposed expanded scope of the reporting requirements would be duplicative and would serve no tax enforcement purpose. Consequently, the comments contend that the expanded scope of the reporting requirements would serve only to add complexity and burden to information reporting and to increase the risk of the imposition of penalties.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS agree that the definition of U.S. person under section 7701(b)(1)(A) is the appropriate definition for purposes of the information reporting requirements under sections 6039F and 6048. Accordingly, the final regulations provide that the information reporting requirements in sections 6039F and 6048(c) apply only to U.S. persons within the meaning of section 7701(a)(30), and thus only apply to recipients of a covered gift or covered bequest who are U.S. persons for income tax purposes. See § 28.2801-6(c)(1) and (2) of the final regulations. This will include all U.S. citizens and domestic trusts receiving covered gifts and covered bequests, as well as U.S. residents as defined for income tax purposes.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">11. Determining Responsibility Under Section 2801</HD>
                    <P>The proposed regulations confirm, in § 28.2801-7(a), that it is the responsibility of the U.S. recipient of a gift or bequest from an expatriate, or a distribution from a trust funded at least in part by an expatriate, to determine whether the expatriate is a covered expatriate and whether the gift or bequest is a covered gift or covered bequest. Proposed § 28.2801-7(b)(1) further provides that, in some circumstances to be described in IRB guidance, the IRS may be permitted to disclose return or return information of the donor or decedent expatriate upon the request of a U.S. citizen or resident in receipt of a gift or bequest from such expatriate. In the event of a living donor expatriate, § 28.2801-7(b)(2) of the proposed regulations creates a rebuttable presumption that the donor is a covered expatriate and that the gift is a covered gift if donor does not authorize the disclosure of the donor's relevant return information.</P>
                    <P>The proposed rule further provides that a recipient may file a protective Form 708 in accordance with procedures set forth in proposed § 28.6011-1(b), to start the running of the period of limitations for the assessment of any section 2801 tax in the event the recipient reasonably concludes that a gift or bequest is not subject to section 2801.</P>
                    <P>Several comments request guidance and suggest additional rules as to how a U.S. citizen or resident receiving a gift or bequest may avoid penalties and interest for nonpayment or underpayment of the section 2801 tax if the U.S. recipient incorrectly concludes that section 2801 does not apply. The comments ask how a recipient can satisfy its responsibility to ascertain whether the donor or decedent is a covered expatriate, and how to determine whether the gift or bequest is a covered gift or covered bequest. These comments note that the ability to comply is based on access to a donor's private information that the IRS may not be able to provide. These comments predict that the U.S. recipient of a gift or bequest may encounter significant impediments to gathering the necessary information about the donor or decedent. Thus, the comments request that the rebuttable presumption be eliminated, and that the final regulations provide a safe harbor for making covered expatriate determinations based on facts reasonably available to the recipient.</P>
                    <P>
                        Comments also request that the final regulations elaborate on the acceptable criteria necessary to satisfy the due diligence requirement for filing a protective Form 708 as set forth in § 28.6011-1(b) of the proposed regulations, to start the running of the period of limitations for the assessment of any section 2801 tax, and to avoid penalties. For instance, some comments suggest that reliance on a certification as to covered expatriate status provided by the living donor or the decedent's estate should be sufficient, unless the U.S. recipient has reason to believe the certification is false. Alternatively, the comment suggests that the expatriate be required, on the Form 8854, 
                        <E T="03">Initial and Annual Expatriation Statement,</E>
                         filed at the time of expatriating, to authorize the IRS to disclose the relevant return information to each U.S. recipient of a gift from that expatriate. Another comment suggests that requesting certain information from the IRS and carrying out a background check on the donor or decedent should be sufficient for these purposes. Comments also suggest the creation of a searchable database of Forms 8854 that would allow the identification of covered expatriates. One comment suggests requiring the IRS to have a good faith basis for alleging that a donor or decedent is a covered expatriate before assessing a section 2801 tax because, otherwise, the IRS would be forcing recipients to prove a negative even where the IRS may have actual evidence to the contrary. Finally, another comment suggests creating a presumption in the final regulations that a donor is not a covered expatriate if the donor files a Form 709, 
                        <E T="03">United States Gift (and Generation-Skipping Transfer) Tax Return</E>
                         and provides a copy to the U.S. recipient.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS carefully considered during the development and drafting of the proposed regulations the potential difficulty a U.S. recipient may face in obtaining the information necessary to determine whether it has a tax obligation under section 2801. For the reasons stated below, the final regulations do not adopt the commenters' suggestions.</P>
                    <P>Regarding a certification as to covered expatriate status or a background check to establish that a gift or bequest is not a covered gift or covered bequest from a covered expatriate, requesting information from the donor or decedent's estate and the IRS is the most tenable option because of the factual nature of the determination and jurisdictional limitations with respect to the expatriate. For instance, although a certification from the donor or the decedent's estate provides some evidence of covered expatriate status, the particular facts in a given situation may cause the IRS to require corroborating information (for example, in the event of conflicting information discovered during examination or otherwise). As to the relevance of the filing of a Form 709 by an expatriate, the filing of a Form 709 does not suggest a determination as to covered expatriate status, although a timely filing supports a determination that a gift or bequest is excepted from the definition of a covered gift or covered bequest.</P>
                    <P>
                        A comment suggests eliminating the rebuttable presumption in proposed § 28.2801-7(b)(2) based on the contention that neither section 2801 nor the general rule-making authority provided in section 7805(a) authorize creating a rule that requires U.S. recipients of gifts and bequests to demand proof of a living donor's status. The Treasury Department and the IRS do not agree that providing a rebuttable presumption that, in certain circumstances, a living donor is a covered expatriate is beyond its regulatory authority for implementing the Congressional mandate of section 2801. A rebuttable presumption is not a mandate or final determination. Rather, a rebuttable presumption provides an opportunity and an incentive for the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3393"/>
                        recipient to overcome the presumption through the exercise of due diligence. It is the recipient's responsibility to determine whether section 2801 tax liability applies to a transfer received from a donor or decedent's estate. In the absence of evidence sufficient to allow the recipient to determine whether the donor is a covered expatriate, if the living donor refuses to cooperate or otherwise fails to authorize the disclosure of relevant return information, the presumption is reasonable.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, additional comments suggest that the IRS take action beyond issuing final regulations to make the information about the covered expatriate status of the donor or decedent more readily accessible. Specifically, comments suggest creating and administering a searchable and secure registry or database of expatriates and covered expatriates; modifying certain IRS forms (for example, Forms 8821, 
                        <E T="03">Tax Information Authorization,</E>
                         or Form W-8 BEN, 
                        <E T="03">Certificate of Foreign Status of Beneficial Owner for United States Tax Withholding and Reporting (Individuals)</E>
                        ), or creating new ones, to ensure only limited information relevant to the covered expatriate status of the donor or decedent is provided to the recipient. This would require the reconsideration of the retention policies and procedures of certain tax forms because section 2801 could require access to decades-old tax information.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS understand the potential difficulties underlying the commenters' concerns. However, the resolution of these concerns also must take into account both the IRS's resource constraints and disclosure and privacy concerns. Additional procedures, as requested by the commenters, may be forthcoming in guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">12. Recordkeeping Requirements</HD>
                    <P>Section 28.6001-1 of the proposed regulations provides that all documents and vouchers used in preparing the Form 708 must be retained by the person required to file the return so as to be available for inspection whenever required. A comment suggests that this retention standard be clarified, because it is open-ended and appears not to bear any relation to the three-to-six-year period of limitations for assessment for such return prescribed in section 6501.</P>
                    <P>The retention standard in § 28.6001-1(a) of the proposed regulations is the same as the retention standard for both the estate and gift taxes under §§ 20.6001-1(a) and 25.6001-1(a), respectively. This expansive standard is appropriate for estate and gift tax, because the records associated with estate and gift tax returns can be relevant many years later in the context of a GST tax return, a surviving spouse's gift and/or estate tax return, and income tax basis, well after the period of limitations for assessment under section 6501 has expired for such returns. Additionally, because the gift tax and estate tax computations are cumulative in nature, the records associated with gift tax returns filed during life may be relevant many years later in the preparation and filing of the estate tax return.</P>
                    <P>The section 2801 tax is less likely than the estate and gift taxes to have application for as long a period of time after the period of limitations for assessment has expired. Therefore, upon consideration of the comments, the Treasury Department and the IRS agree that a less expansive retention standard is appropriate for the section 2801 tax. Accordingly, the final regulations adopt the more limited income tax retention standard under § 1.6001-1(e), which requires documentation be retained so long as the contents thereof may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">13. Miscellaneous</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Power of Appointment Over Property Not in Trust</HD>
                    <P>Various sections of the proposed regulations refer to a power of appointment over property that is not in trust. Multiple comments request an example, explaining that a power of appointment typically is over trust property. For purposes of the Code, the classification of an arrangement as a trust is determined under § 301.7701-4 rather than under local law. Consequently, an arrangement that is classified as a trust under local law may not be a trust under the Code. Such an arrangement may include a grant of a power to an individual that is in substance a power of appointment but, because the arrangement does not constitute a trust under the Code, the power of appointment is over property that is not in trust. This is merely one example but, given the variety of arrangements worldwide that are available to a covered expatriate seeking to transfer property by gift or by reason of death, there may be several others. Because the determination of whether a certain arrangement is a power of appointment not in trust is fact specific, the final regulations do not include specific examples of a power of appointment over property that is not in trust.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Estate and Gift Tax Treaties</HD>
                    <P>The proposed regulations do not address the effect of estate and gift tax treaties on the section 2801 tax, except to explicitly state in several examples that the covered expatriate in the example resides in a non-treaty country. Several comments request guidance on the application of estate and gift tax treaties to section 2801 when a gift or bequest is made by a covered expatriate domiciled in a treaty country. One comment requests that the final regulations provide that section 2801 does not apply to property transfers by covered expatriates domiciled in a treaty country.</P>
                    <P>Neither the statutory language nor the legislative history of section 2801 provides any indication of Congressional intent concerning the effect of existing estate and gift treaties on the application of section 2801. In the absence of specific language overriding treaties, statutes generally are to work in harmony with existing treaties but, with the exception of certain treaty obligations in effect on August 16, 1954, neither the treaty nor the statute has preferential status. See section 7852(d). The U.S. currently has estate and gift tax treaties with Australia, Austria, Denmark, France, Germany, Japan, and the United Kingdom and estate tax-only treaties with Finland, Greece, Ireland, Italy, the Netherlands, South Africa, and Switzerland. There are also estate tax provisions in the U.S.-Canada income tax treaty. The effect of a particular treaty on the application of section 2801 to a gift or bequest by a covered expatriate in a treaty country must be evaluated on a case-by-case basis when a particular transfer falls within the reach of both section 2801 and an estate or gift tax treaty. Any unresolved issue at that time as to the effect of a particular treaty may be elevated under the competent authority procedures. In view of the above, the final regulations do not include guidance on the effect of existing gift and estate tax treaties on the application of section 2801.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Correction in § 28.2801-6(b)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 28.2801-6(b) of the proposed regulations clarifies the applicability of the GST tax to certain section 2801 transfers. A comment points out that the last sentence of § 28.2801-6(b) of the proposed regulations mistakenly refers to the failure to timely file and pay the section 2801 tax and suggests this language be replaced with a reference to the failure to timely file and pay the estate or gift tax under chapters 11 and 12, respectively. In the final regulations, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3394"/>
                        the last sentence of § 28.2801-6(b) is revised to refer to the failure to timely file an estate or gift tax return. See § 28.2801-3(c)(1) and (2) of the final regulations and part 3.A.i. of the 
                        <E T="03">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions</E>
                         section of this preamble (discussing the accepted recommendation of commenters to remove the timely paid requirement from these final regulations).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Effect on Other Documents</HD>
                    <P>Announcement 2009-57, 2009-29 I.R.B. 158, is obsolete as of January 14, 2025.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Analyses</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">1. Regulatory Planning and Review</HD>
                    <P>Pursuant to the Memorandum of Agreement, Review of Treasury Regulations under Executive Order 12866 (June 9, 2023), tax regulatory actions issued by the IRS are not subject to the requirements of section 6 of Executive Order 12866, as amended. Therefore, a regulatory impact assessment is not required.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">2. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        The collection of information contained in these final regulations under section 2801 is reported on Form 708, 
                        <E T="03">United States Return of Tax for Gifts and Bequests Received from Covered Expatriates,</E>
                         and has been reviewed and approved by the Office of Management and Budget in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3507(d)) under control number 1545-2309. The collection of information in these final regulations is in §§ 28.2801-4(e), 28.2801-5(d), 28.6001-1, and 28.6011-1.
                    </P>
                    <P>The collection of information in § 28.2801-4(e) is required to enable the IRS to verify that the U.S. citizens or residents who receive covered gifts and covered bequests are entitled to reduce the section 2801 tax by certain foreign taxes paid with respect to such gifts and bequests and, if so, the amount of the reduction. The collection of information is required to obtain a benefit. The likely respondents are individuals, domestic trusts, and electing foreign trusts.</P>
                    <P>The collection of information in § 28.2801-5(d) is required to notify the IRS and certain U.S. citizen or resident beneficiaries of a foreign trust that the foreign trust is electing to be treated as a domestic trust for purposes of section 2801. It also is required for the IRS to verify the proper amount of the section 2801 tax due. This alerts the IRS and the U.S. citizen or resident beneficiaries that the foreign trust will be liable for payment of the section 2801 tax while the election is in effect. This collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of IRS functions in the collection of the section 2801 tax. This collection of information is required to obtain a benefit. The likely respondents are foreign trusts.</P>
                    <P>The collection of information in § 28.6001-1 is required for the IRS to verify the books and records pertaining to covered gifts and covered bequests and for the proper performance of IRS functions in the collection of the section 2801 tax. It also is required to verify the receipt of covered gifts and covered bequests by U.S. citizens or residents and the value of such gifts and bequests. This collection of information is mandatory. The likely respondents are individuals and trusts.</P>
                    <P>The collection of information in § 28.6011-1 is required for the IRS to verify the receipt of covered gifts and covered bequests and other information relevant to the tax imposed under section 2801. This collection of information is necessary for the proper performance of IRS functions in the collection of the section 2801 tax. This collection of information is mandatory. The likely respondents are individuals and trusts.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated total annual reporting burden:</E>
                         6,000 hours.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated average annual burden hours per respondent:</E>
                         1 hour to prepare and attach documentation to Form 708 for the reduction of the section 2801 tax for foreign taxes paid; 2 hours to elect to treat a foreign trust as a domestic trust and notify the U.S. citizen or resident beneficiaries; 1 hour to notify the U.S. citizen or resident beneficiaries that the election is terminated; and 2 hours to prepare taxpayer records and the Form 708 to report the section 2801 tax.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated number of respondents:</E>
                         1,000.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated annual frequency of responses:</E>
                         Annually or less.
                    </P>
                    <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid control number.</P>
                    <P>Books and records relating to a collection of information must be retained as long as their contents might become material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Generally, tax returns and tax return information are confidential, as required by 26 U.S.C. 6103.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">3. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                    <P>It is hereby certified that the collection of information contained in these regulations will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. These regulations do not affect small entities because they apply to individuals and certain trusts. Thus, the number of affected small entities is not substantial.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">4. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                    <P>Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits and take certain other actions before issuing a final rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in expenditures in any one year by a State, local, or Tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. The final regulations do not include any Federal mandate that may result in expenditures by State, local, or Tribal governments, or by the private sector in excess of that threshold.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">5. Executive Order 13132: Federalism</HD>
                    <P>Executive Order 13132 (entitled “Federalism”) prohibits an agency from publishing any rule that has federalism implications if the rule either imposes substantial, direct compliance costs on State and local governments, and is not required by statute, or preempts State law, unless the agency meets the consultation and funding requirements of section 6 of the Executive Order. These proposed regulations do not have federalism implications and do not impose substantial direct compliance costs on State and local governments or preempt State law within the meaning of the Executive Order.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">6. Congressional Review Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ), the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs designated this rule as not a major rule, as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability of Documents</HD>
                    <P>
                        IRS Revenue Procedures, Revenue Rulings, Notices, and other guidance cited in this document are published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (or Cumulative Bulletin) and are available from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Publishing Office, Washington, DC 20402, or by visiting the IRS website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.irs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Drafting Information</HD>
                    <P>
                        The principal authors of these regulations are Mayer R. Samuels, Daniel J. Gespass, and S. Eva Wolf of the Office of the Associate Chief Counsel (Passthroughs and Special Industries). 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3395"/>
                        However, other personnel from the IRS and the Treasury Department participated in their development.
                    </P>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 26 CFR Part 28</HD>
                        <P>Taxes, Expatriate gifts and bequests, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Amendments to the Regulations</HD>
                    <P>Accordingly, the Treasury Department and the IRS amend 26 CFR subchapter B as follows:</P>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="28">
                        <AMDPAR>
                            <E T="04">Paragraph 1.</E>
                             Part 28 is added to read as follows:
                        </AMDPAR>
                        <PART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 28—IMPOSITION OF TAX ON GIFTS AND BEQUESTS FROM COVERED EXPATRIATES</HD>
                            <AUTH>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                                <P> 26 U.S.C. 7805.</P>
                            </AUTH>
                            <EXTRACT>
                                <P>Section 28.2801-0 through 28.2801-7 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 2801.</P>
                                <P>Section 28.6001-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6001.</P>
                                <P>Section 28.6011(a)-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6011 and 6011(a).</P>
                                <P>Section 28.6060-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6060 and 6060(a).</P>
                                <P>Section 28.6071(a)-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6071 and 6071(a).</P>
                                <P>Section 28.6081-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6081 and 6081(a).</P>
                                <P>Section 28.6091-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6091 and 6091(a).</P>
                                <P>Section 28.6101-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6101.</P>
                                <P>Section 28.6107-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6107 and 6107(c).</P>
                                <P>Section 28.6109-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6109 and 6109(a).</P>
                                <P>Section 28.6151-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6151.</P>
                                <P>Section 28.6694-1 through 28.6694-4 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6694.</P>
                                <P>Section 28.6695-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6695.</P>
                                <P>Section 28.6696-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6696 and 6696(c).</P>
                                <P>Section 28.7701-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 7701.</P>
                            </EXTRACT>
                            <CONTENTS>
                                <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                                <SECTNO>28.2801-0</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Table of contents.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.2801-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Tax on certain gifts and bequests from covered expatriates.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.2801-2</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.2801-3</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Rules and exceptions applicable to covered gifts and covered bequests.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.2801-4</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Liability for and payment of tax on covered gifts and covered bequests; computation of tax.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.2801-5</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Foreign trusts.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.2801-6</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Special rules and cross-references.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.2801-7</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Determining responsibility under section 2801.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.6001-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Records required to be kept.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.6011-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Returns.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.6060-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Reporting requirements for tax return preparers.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.6071-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Time for filing returns.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.6081-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Extension of time for filing returns reporting gifts and bequests from covered expatriates.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.6091-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Place for filing returns.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.6101-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Period covered by returns.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.6107-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Tax return preparer must furnish copy of return or claim for refund to taxpayer and must retain a copy or record.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.6109-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Tax return preparers furnishing identifying numbers for returns or claims for refund.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.6151-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Time and place for paying tax shown on returns.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.6694-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Section 6694 penalties applicable to return preparer.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.6694-2</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Penalties for understatement due to an unreasonable position.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.6694-3</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Penalty for understatement due to willful, reckless, or intentional conduct.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.6694-4</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Extension of period of collection when tax return preparer pays 15 percent of a penalty for understatement of taxpayer's liability and certain other procedural matters.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.6695-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Other assessable penalties with respect to the preparation of tax returns for other persons.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.6696-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Claims for credit or refund by tax return preparers and appraisers.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>28.7701-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Tax return preparer.</SUBJECT>
                            </CONTENTS>
                        </PART>
                        <PART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 28—IMPOSITION OF TAX ON GIFTS AND BEQUESTS FROM COVERED EXPATRIATES</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.2801-0</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Table of contents.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>This section lists the headings in §§ 28.2801-1 through 28.2801-7.</P>
                                <EXTRACT>
                                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                        <E T="03">§ 28.2801-1 Tax on certain gifts and bequests from covered expatriates.</E>
                                    </FP>
                                    <P>(a) In general.</P>
                                    <P>(b) Applicability date.</P>
                                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                        <E T="03">§ 28.2801-2 Definitions.</E>
                                    </FP>
                                    <P>(a) Overview.</P>
                                    <P>(b) U.S. citizen or resident.</P>
                                    <P>(c) Domestic trust.</P>
                                    <P>(d) Foreign trust.</P>
                                    <P>(1) In general.</P>
                                    <P>(2) Electing foreign trust.</P>
                                    <P>(3) Non-electing foreign trust.</P>
                                    <P>(e) U.S. recipient.</P>
                                    <P>(f) Covered bequest.</P>
                                    <P>(g) Covered gift.</P>
                                    <P>(h) Expatriate and covered expatriate.</P>
                                    <P>(i) Indirect acquisition of property.</P>
                                    <P>(j) Power of appointment.</P>
                                    <P>(k) Section 2801 tax.</P>
                                    <P>(l) Section 2801(c) amount.</P>
                                    <P>(m) Statutory references.</P>
                                    <P>(1) Code.</P>
                                    <P>(2) Subtitle B.</P>
                                    <P>(n) Applicability date.</P>
                                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                        <E T="03">§ 28.2801-3 Rules and exceptions applicable to covered gifts and covered bequests.</E>
                                    </FP>
                                    <P>(a) Covered gift.</P>
                                    <P>(b) Covered bequest.</P>
                                    <P>(c) Exceptions to covered gift and covered bequest.</P>
                                    <P>(1) Reported taxable gifts.</P>
                                    <P>(2) Property reported as subject to estate tax.</P>
                                    <P>(3) Covered bequest previously subject to section 2801 tax as a covered gift.</P>
                                    <P>(4) Transfers to charity.</P>
                                    <P>(5) Transfers to spouse.</P>
                                    <P>(6) Qualified disclaimers.</P>
                                    <P>(d) Covered gifts and covered bequests made in trust.</P>
                                    <P>(e) Powers of appointment.</P>
                                    <P>(1) Covered expatriate as holder of power.</P>
                                    <P>(2) Covered expatriate as grantor of power.</P>
                                    <P>(f) Examples.</P>
                                    <P>(g) Applicability date.</P>
                                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                        <E T="03">§ 28.2801-4 Liability for and payment of tax on covered gifts and covered bequests; computation of tax.</E>
                                    </FP>
                                    <P>(a) Liability for tax.</P>
                                    <P>(1) U.S. citizen or resident.</P>
                                    <P>(2) Domestic trust.</P>
                                    <P>(i) In general.</P>
                                    <P>(ii) Generation-skipping transfer tax.</P>
                                    <P>(iii) [Reserved].</P>
                                    <P>(iv) Migrated foreign trust.</P>
                                    <P>(3) Foreign trust.</P>
                                    <P>(i) In general.</P>
                                    <P>(ii) Income tax deduction.</P>
                                    <P>(b) Computation of tax.</P>
                                    <P>(1) In general.</P>
                                    <P>(2) Net covered gifts and covered bequests.</P>
                                    <P>(c) Value of covered gift or covered bequest.</P>
                                    <P>(d) Date of receipt.</P>
                                    <P>(1) In general.</P>
                                    <P>(2) Covered gift.</P>
                                    <P>(3) Covered bequest.</P>
                                    <P>(4) Domestic trusts and electing foreign trusts.</P>
                                    <P>(5) Non-electing foreign trusts.</P>
                                    <P>(6) Powers of appointment.</P>
                                    <P>(i) Covered expatriate as holder of power.</P>
                                    <P>(ii) Covered expatriate as grantor of power.</P>
                                    <P>(7) Indirect receipts.</P>
                                    <P>(8) Future interest in property not in trust.</P>
                                    <P>(i) Date of receipt.</P>
                                    <P>(ii) Date-of-receipt election for future interest in property not in trust.</P>
                                    <P>(e) Reduction of tax for foreign gift or estate tax paid.</P>
                                    <P>(1) In general.</P>
                                    <P>(2) Protective claim for refund.</P>
                                    <P>(f) Examples.</P>
                                    <P>(g) Applicability date.</P>
                                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                        <E T="03">§ 28.2801-5 Foreign trusts.</E>
                                    </FP>
                                    <P>(a) In general.</P>
                                    <P>(b) Distribution defined.</P>
                                    <P>(c) Amount of distribution attributable to covered gift or covered bequest.</P>
                                    <P>(1) Section 2801 ratio.</P>
                                    <P>(i) In general.</P>
                                    <P>(ii) Computation.</P>
                                    <P>(2) Effect of reported transfer and tax payment.</P>
                                    <P>(3) Inadequate information to calculate section 2801 ratio.</P>
                                    <P>(d) Foreign trust treated as domestic trust.</P>
                                    <P>(1) Election required.</P>
                                    <P>(2) Effect of election.</P>
                                    <P>(3) Time and manner of making the election.</P>
                                    <P>(i) When to make the election.</P>
                                    <P>(ii) Requirements for a valid election.</P>
                                    <P>(iii) Section 2801 tax payable with the election.</P>
                                    <P>(iv) Designation of U.S. agent.</P>
                                    <P>(A) In general.</P>
                                    <P>(B) Role of designated agent.</P>
                                    <P>(C) Effect of appointment of agent.</P>
                                    <P>(4) Filing requirement.</P>
                                    <P>
                                        (5) Duration of status as electing foreign trust.
                                        <PRTPAGE P="3396"/>
                                    </P>
                                    <P>(i) In general.</P>
                                    <P>(ii) Termination.</P>
                                    <P>(A) Manner of termination.</P>
                                    <P>(B) Effective date of termination.</P>
                                    <P>(C) Notice requirements upon termination.</P>
                                    <P>(iii) Subsequent elections.</P>
                                    <P>(6) Dispute as to amount of section 2801 tax owed by electing foreign trust.</P>
                                    <P>(i) Procedure.</P>
                                    <P>(ii) Effect of compliance.</P>
                                    <P>(iii) Effect of failing to comply (imperfect election).</P>
                                    <P>(A) In general.</P>
                                    <P>(B) Notice to permissible distributees.</P>
                                    <P>(C) Reasonable cause.</P>
                                    <P>(D) Interim period.</P>
                                    <P>(7) No overpayment caused solely by virtue of defect in election.</P>
                                    <P>(e) Examples.</P>
                                    <P>(f) Applicability date.</P>
                                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                        <E T="03">§ 28.2801-6 Special rules and cross-references.</E>
                                    </FP>
                                    <P>(a) Determination of basis.</P>
                                    <P>(b) Generation-skipping transfer tax.</P>
                                    <P>(c) Information returns.</P>
                                    <P>(1) Gifts and bequests.</P>
                                    <P>(2) Foreign trust distributions.</P>
                                    <P>(3) Penalties and use of information.</P>
                                    <P>(d) Application of penalties.</P>
                                    <P>(1) Accuracy-related penalties on underpayments.</P>
                                    <P>(2) Penalty for substantial and gross valuation misstatements attributable to incorrect appraisals.</P>
                                    <P>(3) Penalty for failure to file a return and to pay tax.</P>
                                    <P>(e) Applicability date.</P>
                                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                        <E T="03">§ 28.2801-7 Determining responsibility under section 2801.</E>
                                    </FP>
                                    <P>(a) Responsibility of U.S. citizens or residents receiving gifts or bequests from expatriates.</P>
                                    <P>(b) Disclosure of return and return information.</P>
                                    <P>(1) In general.</P>
                                    <P>(2) Rebuttable presumption.</P>
                                    <P>(c) Protective return.</P>
                                    <P>(d) Applicability date.</P>
                                </EXTRACT>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.2801-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Tax on certain gifts and bequests from covered expatriates.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     Section 2801 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) imposes a tax (section 2801 tax) on covered gifts and covered bequests, including distributions attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests from non-electing foreign trusts, received by a U.S. citizen or resident from a covered expatriate during a calendar year. Domestic trusts, as well as electing foreign trusts, are subject to tax under section 2801 in the same manner as if the trusts were U.S. citizens. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     section 2801(e)(4)(A)(i) and (B)(iii). Accordingly, the section 2801 tax is paid by the U.S. citizen or resident, domestic trust, or electing foreign trust that receives the covered gift or covered bequest, including distributions attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests from non-electing foreign trusts. For purposes of the regulations in this part 28 (26 CFR part 28), references to U.S. citizens are considered to include domestic trusts and electing foreign trusts.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies to covered gifts or covered bequests received on or after January 1, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.2801-2</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Overview.</E>
                                     This section provides definitions of terms applicable solely for purposes of section 2801 of the Code and the regulations in this part 28.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">U.S. citizen or resident.</E>
                                     A 
                                    <E T="03">U.S. citizen or resident</E>
                                     is an individual who is a citizen or resident of the United States for purposes of chapter 11 or 12 of subtitle B, as the case may be, at the time of receipt of the covered gift or covered bequest. Furthermore, references to a U.S. citizen also include a domestic trust, as well as an electing foreign trust. See § 28.2801-1(a).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Domestic trust.</E>
                                     The term 
                                    <E T="03">domestic trust</E>
                                     means a trust defined in section 7701(a)(30)(E) of the Code. References to a domestic trust include an electing foreign trust.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Foreign trust—</E>
                                    (1) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     The term 
                                    <E T="03">foreign trust</E>
                                     means a trust defined in section 7701(a)(31)(B).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Electing foreign trust.</E>
                                     The term 
                                    <E T="03">electing foreign trust</E>
                                     means a foreign trust that has in effect a valid election to be treated as a domestic trust for purposes of section 2801. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     § 28.2801-5(d).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) 
                                    <E T="03">Non-electing foreign trust.</E>
                                     The term 
                                    <E T="03">non-electing foreign trust</E>
                                     means any foreign trust other than an electing foreign trust described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (e) 
                                    <E T="03">U.S. recipient.</E>
                                     The term 
                                    <E T="03">U.S. recipient</E>
                                     means a U.S. citizen or resident, a domestic trust, or an electing foreign trust that receives a covered gift or covered bequest, whether directly or indirectly, during the calendar year. The term U.S. recipient includes a U.S. citizen or resident receiving a distribution from a non-electing foreign trust if the distribution is attributable (in whole or in part) to one or more covered gifts or covered bequests received by the non-electing foreign trust. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     § 28.2801-5(c) to determine the amount of a distribution attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests. This term also includes the U.S. citizen or resident shareholders, partners, or other interest-holders, as the case may be (if any), of a business entity that receives a covered gift or covered bequest.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (f) 
                                    <E T="03">Covered bequest.</E>
                                     The term 
                                    <E T="03">covered bequest</E>
                                     means any property acquired by a recipient on or after June 17, 2008, directly or indirectly by reason of the death of a covered expatriate, regardless of the situs of the property and of whether such property was acquired by the covered expatriate before or after expatriation from the United States, but only to the extent the property would have been included in the covered expatriate's gross estate for Federal estate tax purposes if the covered expatriate had been a U.S. citizen immediately before death. See paragraph (i) of this section for guidance in determining when property is acquired indirectly for purposes of this paragraph (f). The term 
                                    <E T="03">covered bequest</E>
                                     also includes any other property that would have been included in the covered expatriate's gross estate for Federal estate tax purposes (for example, under section 2035 of the Code) if the covered expatriate had been a U.S. citizen immediately before death, as well as distributions made by reason of the death of a covered expatriate from a non-electing foreign trust to the extent the distributions are attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests made to the non-electing foreign trust on or after June 17, 2008. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     § 28.2801-3 for additional rules and exceptions applicable to the term 
                                    <E T="03">covered bequest.</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (g) 
                                    <E T="03">Covered gift.</E>
                                     The term 
                                    <E T="03">covered gift</E>
                                     means any property acquired by a recipient on or after June 17, 2008, by gift directly or indirectly from an individual who is a covered expatriate at the time the property is received by the recipient, regardless of the situs of such property and of whether such property was acquired by the covered expatriate before or after expatriation from the United States. See paragraph (i) of this section for guidance in determining when property is acquired indirectly for purposes of this paragraph (g). The term 
                                    <E T="03">covered gift</E>
                                     also includes distributions made, other than by reason of the death of a covered expatriate, from a non-electing foreign trust to the extent the distributions are attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests made to the non-electing foreign trust on or after June 17, 2008. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     § 28.2801-3 for additional rules and exceptions applicable to the term covered gift.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (h) 
                                    <E T="03">Expatriate and covered expatriate.</E>
                                     The term 
                                    <E T="03">expatriate</E>
                                     has the same meaning for purposes of section 2801 as that term has in section 877A(g)(2) of the Code. The term 
                                    <E T="03">covered expatriate</E>
                                     has the same meaning for purposes of section 2801 as that term has in section 877A(g)(1). The determination of whether an individual is a covered expatriate is made as of the expatriation date as defined in section 877A(g)(3), and if an expatriate meets the definition of a covered expatriate, the expatriate is a covered expatriate for purposes of section 2801 at all times after the 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3397"/>
                                    expatriation date. However, an expatriate is not treated as a covered expatriate for purposes of section 2801 during any period beginning after the expatriation date during which such individual is subject to United States estate or gift tax (chapter 11 or chapter 12 of subtitle B) as a U.S. citizen or resident. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     section 877A(g)(1)(C). An individual's status as a covered expatriate will be determined as of the date of the most recent expatriation, if there has been more than one.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (i) 
                                    <E T="03">Indirect acquisition of property.</E>
                                     For purposes of paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section, an indirect acquisition of property means the receipt of an interest in property, gratuitously passed from or conferred by the covered expatriate, by or on behalf of the recipient through another person, or by a trust or entity in which the recipient has an interest, regardless of the means or device employed. Such an indirect acquisition includes but is not limited to—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Property acquired by a recipient through a transfer to a corporation or other entity other than a trust or estate, to the extent of the ownership interest of the recipient in that corporation or other entity;</P>
                                <P>(2) Money paid or property distributed by a covered expatriate, or distributed from a non-electing foreign trust that received a covered gift or covered bequest, in satisfaction of a debt or liability of the recipient, regardless of the payee of that payment or distribution;</P>
                                <P>(3) Property acquired by or on behalf of a recipient pursuant to the exercise, release, or lapse (without regard to the exception in section 2041(b)(2) or 2514(e) of the Code) of a non-covered expatriate's power of appointment granted by a covered expatriate over property not in trust, unless the property previously was subjected to section 2801 tax upon the grant of the power or the covered expatriate had no more than a non-general power of appointment over that property; and</P>
                                <P>(4) Property acquired through or from any person not subject to the section 2801 tax that is, in substance, a covered gift or covered bequest from a covered expatriate.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (j) 
                                    <E T="03">Power of appointment.</E>
                                     The term 
                                    <E T="03">power of appointment</E>
                                     refers to both a general and non-general power of appointment, except as expressly limited to one or the other in a particular provision of the regulations in this part 28. The term 
                                    <E T="03">general power of appointment</E>
                                     has the same meaning as in sections 2041(b)(1) and 2514(c). The term 
                                    <E T="03">non-general power of appointment</E>
                                     means any power of appointment that is not a general power of appointment. For purposes of section 2801, the term 
                                    <E T="03">power of appointment</E>
                                     is defined without regard to the exception in section 2041(b)(2) or 2514(e).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (k) 
                                    <E T="03">Section 2801 tax.</E>
                                     The term 
                                    <E T="03">section 2801 tax</E>
                                     has the meaning provided in § 28.2801-1(a).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (l) 
                                    <E T="03">Section 2801(c) amount.</E>
                                     The term 
                                    <E T="03">section 2801(c) amount</E>
                                     is the dollar amount of the per-donee gift tax exclusion in effect under section 2503(b) for that calendar year.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (m) 
                                    <E T="03">Statutory references</E>
                                    —(1) 
                                    <E T="03">Code.</E>
                                     The term 
                                    <E T="03">Code</E>
                                     means the Internal Revenue Code.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Subtitle B.</E>
                                     The term 
                                    <E T="03">subtitle B</E>
                                     means subtitle B of the Code.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (n) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies to covered gifts or covered bequests received on or after January 1, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.2801-3</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Rules and exceptions applicable to covered gifts and covered bequests.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Covered gift.</E>
                                     Subject to the provisions of paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section, the term 
                                    <E T="03">gift</E>
                                     as used in the definition of 
                                    <E T="03">covered gift</E>
                                     in § 28.2801-2(g) has the same meaning as in chapter 12 of subtitle B, but without regard to the exceptions in section 2501(a)(2), (4), and (5) of the Code, the per-donee exclusion under section 2503(b) of the Code for certain transfers of a present interest, the exclusion under section 2503(e) for certain educational or medical expenses, and the waiver of certain pension rights under section 2503(f).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Covered bequest.</E>
                                     Subject to the provisions of paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section, property acquired 
                                    <E T="03">by reason of the death of a covered expatriate</E>
                                     (one of the types of transfers defined as a covered bequest in § 28.2801-2(f)) includes any property that would have been includible in the gross estate of the covered expatriate under chapter 11 of subtitle B if the covered expatriate had been a U.S. citizen at the time of death. Therefore, property acquired by reason of a covered expatriate's death includes, without limitation, property or an interest in property acquired by reason of a covered expatriate's death—
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) By bequest, devise, trust provision, beneficiary designation, or other contractual arrangement, or by operation of law, to the extent the property would have been includible in the covered expatriate's gross estate if the covered expatriate had been a U.S. citizen at death;</P>
                                <P>(2) That was transferred by the covered expatriate during life, either before or after expatriation, and that would have been includible in the covered expatriate's gross estate under section 2036, 2037, or 2038 of the Code had the covered expatriate been a U.S. citizen at death;</P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) That was received for the benefit of a covered expatriate from such covered expatriate's spouse, or predeceased spouse, for which a valid qualified terminable interest property (QTIP) election was made on such spouse's, or predeceased spouse's, Form 709, 
                                    <E T="03">United States Gift (and Generation-Skipping Transfer) Tax Return,</E>
                                     Form 709-NA, 
                                    <E T="03">United States Gift (and Generation-Skipping Transfer) Tax Return of Nonresident Not a Citizen of the United States,</E>
                                     Form 706, 
                                    <E T="03">United States Estate (and Generation-Skipping Transfer) Tax Return,</E>
                                     or Form 706-NA, 
                                    <E T="03">United States Estate (and Generation-Skipping Transfer) Tax Return, Estate of nonresident not a citizen of the United States,</E>
                                     which would have been includible in the covered expatriate's gross estate under section 2044 of the Code if the covered expatriate had been a U.S. citizen at death; or
                                </P>
                                <P>(4) That otherwise passed from the covered expatriate by reason of his or her death, such as—</P>
                                <P>(i) Property held by the covered expatriate and another person as joint tenants with right of survivorship or as tenants by the entirety, but only to the extent such property would have been includible in the covered expatriate's gross estate under section 2040 of the Code if the covered expatriate had been a U.S. citizen at death;</P>
                                <P>(ii) Any annuity or other payment that would have been includible in the covered expatriate's gross estate if the covered expatriate had been a U.S. citizen at death;</P>
                                <P>(iii) Property subject to a general power of appointment held by the covered expatriate at death that would have been includible in the covered expatriate's gross estate under section 2041 if the covered expatriate had been a U.S. citizen at death; or</P>
                                <P>(iv) Life insurance proceeds payable upon the covered expatriate's death that would have been includible in the covered expatriate's gross estate under section 2042 of the Code if the covered expatriate had been a U.S. citizen at death.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Exceptions to covered gift and covered bequest.</E>
                                     Notwithstanding the definitions of 
                                    <E T="03">covered gift</E>
                                     and 
                                    <E T="03">covered bequest</E>
                                     in § 28.2801-2(f) and (g), respectively, as further described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the terms 
                                    <E T="03">covered gift</E>
                                     and 
                                    <E T="03">covered bequest</E>
                                     do not include property described in paragraphs (c)(1) through (6) of this section.
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3398"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (1) 
                                    <E T="03">Reported taxable gifts.</E>
                                     Property transferred as a taxable gift under section 2503(a) that is reported on the donor's timely filed Form 709 or Form 709-NA is not a covered gift. However, property excluded from the definition of a taxable gift, such as a present interest not in excess of the annual exclusion amount under section 2503(b), is not excluded from the definition of a covered gift under this paragraph (c)(1) even if reported on the donor's Form 709 or Form 709-NA.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Property reported as subject to estate tax.</E>
                                     Property that is includible in the gross estate of the covered expatriate and is reported on a timely filed Form 706, Form 706-NA, or Form 706-QDT, 
                                    <E T="03">U.S. Estate Tax Return for Qualified Domestic Trusts,</E>
                                     or any successor form, is not a covered bequest. Thus, if the covered expatriate's gross estate is not of sufficient value to require the filing of a Form 706-NA, for example, and no Form 706-NA is timely filed, the property passing from that covered expatriate is not excluded from the definition of a covered bequest under the rule of this paragraph (c)(2). Further, this exclusion does not apply to the property not reported on such a form, whether or not subject to United States estate tax (that is, non-U.S. situs property that passes to U.S. citizens or residents).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) 
                                    <E T="03">Covered bequest previously subject to section 2801 tax as a covered gift.</E>
                                     If a covered bequest from a covered expatriate previously constituted a covered gift from that covered expatriate (for example, because of a retained power or right described in section 2036), the property is a covered bequest only to the extent that the value of the covered bequest exceeds the value of the covered gift that was subject to section 2801.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (4) 
                                    <E T="03">Transfers to charity.</E>
                                     A gift to a donee described in section 2522(b) of the Code or a bequest to a beneficiary described in section 2055(a) of the Code is not a covered gift or covered bequest to the extent a charitable deduction under section 2522 or 2055 would have been allowed if the covered expatriate had been a U.S. citizen at the time of the transfer.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (5) 
                                    <E T="03">Transfers to spouse.</E>
                                     Property transferred from a covered expatriate to the covered expatriate's spouse generally is not a covered gift or covered bequest to the extent a marital deduction under section 2523 or 2056 of the Code would have been allowed if the covered expatriate had been a U.S. citizen at the time of the transfer. To the extent that a gift or bequest of property to a trust (or to a separate share of the trust) would qualify for the marital deduction, the property transferred in the gift or bequest is not a covered gift or covered bequest. To the extent the gift or bequest of property to the trust (or to a separate share of the trust) would not qualify for the marital deduction, the property transferred in the gift or bequest is a covered gift or covered bequest to the trust, and in the case of a non-electing foreign trust, distributions attributable to such gift or bequest will subject the U.S. citizen or resident spouse receiving such distributions to the section 2801 tax. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     §§ 28.2801-4(a)(3) and 28.2801-5(a). For qualified terminable interest property (QTIP) described in section 2056(b)(7) and for property in a qualified domestic trust (QDOT) described in section 2056A of the Code, a valid QTIP and/or QDOT election must be made by the covered expatriate or covered expatriate's estate in order for the gift or bequest of such property to qualify for the marital exclusion under section 2801(e)(3), and, thus not be a covered gift or covered bequest under this paragraph (c)(5). Such an election can be made only with respect to the transfer of property subject to gift or estate tax under section 2511(a) or 2103 of the Code. Furthermore, to exclude from covered bequests property in a QDOT for the benefit of a covered expatriate, funded pursuant to a bequest by the covered expatriate's predeceased spouse who also was a covered expatriate, a valid QDOT election must have been made in the predeceased covered expatriate's estate.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (6) 
                                    <E T="03">Qualified disclaimers.</E>
                                     Property transferred pursuant to a covered expatriate's qualified disclaimer, as defined in section 2518(b) of the Code, is not a covered gift or covered bequest from that covered expatriate.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Covered gifts and covered bequests made in trust.</E>
                                     For transfers of property to a trust that are covered gifts or covered bequests as described in §§ 28.2801-2 and 28.2801-3, the property is treated as a covered gift or covered bequest to the trust without regard to the beneficial interests in the trust or whether any person has a general power of appointment or a power of withdrawal over trust property. Accordingly, the rules in section 2801(e)(4) and § 28.2801-4(a) apply to determine liability for payment of the section 2801 tax. The U.S. recipient of a covered gift or a covered bequest made to a domestic trust or to an electing foreign trust is the domestic or electing foreign trust, and the U.S. recipient of a covered gift or a covered bequest made to a non-electing foreign trust is each U.S. citizen or resident receiving a distribution from the non-electing foreign trust (without regard to whether that distribution is or is not pursuant to the exercise or release of a general power of appointment). 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     § 28.2801-2(e) for the definition of a U.S. recipient.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (e) 
                                    <E T="03">Powers of appointment</E>
                                    —(1) 
                                    <E T="03">Covered expatriate as holder of power.</E>
                                     The exercise or release of a general power of appointment held by a covered expatriate over property, whether or not in trust (even if that covered expatriate was a U.S. citizen or resident when the general power of appointment was granted), for the benefit of a U.S. citizen or resident is a covered gift or covered bequest. For this purpose, the lapse of a general power of appointment held by a covered expatriate is treated as a release to the extent provided in sections 2041(b)(2) and 2514(e) of the Code. Furthermore, the exercise of a power of appointment by a covered expatriate that creates another power of appointment as described in section 2041(a)(3) or 2514(d) for the benefit of a U.S. citizen or resident is a covered gift or a covered bequest.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Covered expatriate as grantor of power.</E>
                                     The grant by a covered expatriate to an individual who is a U.S. citizen or resident of a general power of appointment over property not held in trust is a covered gift or covered bequest to the powerholder. For the rule applying to the grant by a covered expatriate of a general power of appointment over property in trust, see paragraph (d) of this section.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (f) 
                                    <E T="03">Examples.</E>
                                     The provisions of this section are illustrated by the following examples:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (1) 
                                    <E T="03">Example 1: Transfer to spouse.</E>
                                     In Year 1, CE, a covered expatriate domiciled in Country F, a foreign country with which the United States does not have a gift tax treaty, gives $300,000 cash to his wife, W, a U.S. resident and citizen of Country F. Under paragraph (c)(5) of this section, the $100,000 exclusion for a noncitizen spouse, as indexed for inflation in Year 1, is excluded from the definition of a covered gift under section 2801 because only that amount of the transfer would have qualified for the gift tax marital deduction if CE had been a U.S. citizen at the time of the gift. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     sections 2801(e)(3), 2523(i), and 2503(b). The remaining amount ($300,000, less the $100,000 exclusion for a noncitizen spouse, as indexed for inflation) is a covered gift from CE to W. W must timely file Form 708, 
                                    <E T="03">United States Return of Tax for Gifts and Bequests Received from Covered Expatriates,</E>
                                     and timely pay the tax. See §§ 28.6011-1(a), 28.6071-1(a), and 28.6151-1(a). W also must report the transfer on Form 3520, 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3399"/>
                                    <E T="03">Annual Return to Report Transactions With Foreign Trusts and Receipt of Certain Foreign Gifts,</E>
                                     and any other required form. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     § 28.2801-6(c)(1).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Example 2: Reporting property as subject to estate tax</E>
                                    —(i) 
                                    <E T="03">Year 1.</E>
                                     CE, a covered expatriate domiciled in Country F, a foreign country with which the United States does not have an estate tax treaty, owns a condominium in the United States with son, S, a U.S. citizen. CE and S each contributed their actuarial share of the purchase price when purchasing the condominium and own it as joint tenants with rights of survivorship. On December 14, Year 1, CE dies. At the time of CE's death, the fair market value of CE's share of the condominium, $250,000, is included in CE's gross estate under sections 2040 and 2103.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) 
                                    <E T="03">Year 2.</E>
                                     On September 14 of the following calendar year, Year 2, the executor of CE's estate timely files a Form 4768, 
                                    <E T="03">Application for Extension of Time to File a Return and/or Pay U.S. Estate (and Generation-Skipping Transfer) Taxes,</E>
                                     requesting a 6-month extension of time to file Form 706-NA, and a 1-year extension of time to pay the estate tax. The Internal Revenue Service grants both extensions, but CE's executor fails to file the Form 706-NA until after March 14 of Year 3.  
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (iii) 
                                    <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                                     S learns that the executor of CE's estate did not timely file Form 706-NA. CE's estate remains liable for estate tax on CE's interest in the condominium. In addition, because CE is a covered expatriate and CE's estate failed to timely file the tax return reporting the transaction, S received a covered bequest as defined in § 28.2801-2(f) and paragraph (b) of this section and must timely file Form 708 and pay the section 2801 tax. See §§ 28.6011-1(a), 28.6071-1(a), and 28.6151-1(a). S also must file Form 3520 to report a large gift or bequest from a foreign person and any other required form. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     § 28.2801-6(c)(1).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) 
                                    <E T="03">Example 3: Covered gift in trust with grant of general power of appointment over trust property</E>
                                    —(i) 
                                    <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                                     On October 20, Year 1, CE, a covered expatriate domiciled in Country F, a foreign country with which the United States does not have a gift tax treaty, transfers $500,000 in cash from an account in Country F to an irrevocable foreign trust created on that same date. The foreign trust does not elect to be treated as a domestic trust for purposes of section 2801. Under section 2511(a), no gift tax is imposed on the transfer and thus, CE is not required to file a U.S. gift tax return. Under the terms of the foreign trust, A, CE's child and a U.S. resident, and Q, A's child and a U.S. citizen, may receive discretionary distributions of income and principal during life. At A's death, the assets remaining in the foreign trust will be distributed to B, CE's other U.S. resident child, or if B is not living at the time of A's death, then to CE's then-living issue, per stirpes. The terms of the foreign trust also allow A to appoint trust principal and/or income to A, A's estate, A's creditors, the creditors of A's estate, or A's issue at any time. On March 5, Year 2, A exercises this power to appoint and causes the trustee to distribute $100,000 to Q.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) 
                                    <E T="03">Effects on Q.</E>
                                     On October 20, Year 1, the irrevocable, non-electing foreign trust receives a covered gift for purposes of section 2801, but no section 2801 tax is imposed at that time. On March 5, Year 2, when Q receives $100,000 from the irrevocable foreign trust pursuant to the exercise of A's power of appointment, Q receives a distribution attributable to a covered gift and section 2801 tax is imposed on Q. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     § 28.2801-4(d)(5). Q must timely file Form 708 to report the covered gift from a foreign person (specifically, from CE). 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     section 6039F(a) and §§ 28.6011-1(a), 28.6071-1(a), and 28.6151-1(a). Furthermore, because the $100,000 is being distributed from a foreign trust, Q must report the gift on a Form 3520 as a distribution from a foreign trust. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     § 28.2801-6(c)(2).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (iii) 
                                    <E T="03">Effects on A.</E>
                                     Although A has no section 2801 reporting requirement, under section 2501, A makes a taxable gift to Q of $100,000 when A exercises the general power of appointment for Q's benefit. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     section 2514(b). Accordingly, A must report A's $100,000 gift to Q on a timely filed Form 709. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     section 6019. Because A is considered the transferor of the $100,000 for gift and GST tax purposes, the distribution to Q is not a generation-skipping transfer under chapter 13. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     § 26.2652-1(a)(1) of this chapter.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (4) 
                                    <E T="03">Example 4: Lapse of power of appointment held by covered expatriate.</E>
                                     A, a U.S. citizen, creates an irrevocable domestic trust for the benefit of A's issue, CE, and CE's children. CE is a covered expatriate, but CE's children are U.S. citizens. CE has the right to withdraw $5,000 in each year in which A makes a contribution to the trust, but the withdrawal right lapses 30 days after the date of the contribution. In Year 1, A funds the trust, but CE fails to exercise CE's right to withdraw $5,000 within 30 days of the contribution. The $5,000 lapse is not considered to be a release of the power by CE, so it is neither a gift for U.S. gift tax purposes, nor a covered gift for purposes of section 2801 under paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (5) 
                                    <E T="03">Example 5: Property subject to section 2801 tax as a covered gift and as a covered bequest.</E>
                                     F, a CE, transfers an income interest in property to A, a U.S. citizen, while retaining the remainder interest. F was not required to, and did not, file a gift tax return. Upon F's death, A receives full title to the property. The initial transfer of the income interest was a covered gift valued at $1,000,000, upon which A paid the section 2801 tax. The value of the property at F's death is $4,500,000. Because the full value of the property would have been included in F's gross estate if F had died as a U.S. citizen, there is a covered bequest at F's death. The covered bequest is subject to section 2801 tax on the excess of the value of the covered bequest over the value of the covered gift ($4,500,000 minus $1,000,000), or $3,500,000.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (g) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies to covered gifts or covered bequests received on or after January 1, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.2801-4</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Liability for and payment of tax on covered gifts and covered bequests; computation of tax.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Liability for tax</E>
                                    —(1) 
                                    <E T="03">U.S. citizen or resident.</E>
                                     A U.S. citizen or resident who receives a covered gift or covered bequest is liable for payment of the section 2801 tax.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Domestic trust</E>
                                    —(i) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     A domestic trust that receives a covered gift or covered bequest is treated as a U.S. citizen and is liable for payment of the section 2801 tax. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     section 2801(e)(4)(A)(i) and § 28.2801-2(b).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) 
                                    <E T="03">Generation-skipping transfer tax.</E>
                                     A trust's payment of the section 2801 tax does not result in a taxable distribution under section 2621 of the Code to any trust beneficiary for purposes of the generation-skipping transfer tax to the extent that the trust, rather than the beneficiary, is liable for the section 2801 tax.
                                </P>
                                <P>(iii) [Reserved].</P>
                                <P>
                                    (iv) 
                                    <E T="03">Migrated foreign trust.</E>
                                     A non-electing foreign trust that has previously received a covered gift or covered bequest and that subsequently becomes a domestic trust as defined under section 7701(a)(30)(E) of the Code (migrated foreign trust), must file a timely Form 708, 
                                    <E T="03">United States Return of Tax for Gifts and Bequests Received from Covered Expatriates,</E>
                                     for the taxable year in which the trust becomes a domestic trust. The section 2801 tax, if any, must be paid by the due date of that Form 708. On that Form 708, the section 2801 tax is calculated in the same manner as if such trust were 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3400"/>
                                    making an election under § 28.2801-5(d) to be treated as a domestic trust solely for purposes of the section 2801 tax. Accordingly, the trustee must report and pay the section 2801 tax on all covered gifts and covered bequests received by the trust during the year in which the trust becomes a domestic trust, as well as on the portion of the trust's value at the end of the year preceding the year in which the trust becomes a domestic trust that is attributable to all prior covered gifts and covered bequests. Because the migrated foreign trust will be treated for purposes of section 2801 as a domestic trust for the entire year during which it became a domestic trust, distributions made to U.S. citizens or residents during that year but before the date on which the trust became a domestic trust will not be subject to section 2801.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) 
                                    <E T="03">Foreign trust</E>
                                    —(i) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     A foreign trust that receives a covered gift or covered bequest is not liable for payment of the section 2801 tax unless the trust makes an election to be treated as a domestic trust solely for purposes of section 2801 as provided in § 28.2801-5(d). Absent such an election, each U.S. recipient is liable for payment of the section 2801 tax on that person's receipt, either directly or indirectly, of a distribution from the foreign trust to the extent that the distribution is attributable to a covered gift or covered bequest made to the foreign trust. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     § 28.2801-5(b) and (c) regarding distributions from non-electing foreign trusts.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) 
                                    <E T="03">Income tax deduction.</E>
                                     The U.S. recipient of a distribution from a non-electing foreign trust is allowed a deduction against income tax under section 164 in the calendar year in which the U.S. recipient paid or accrued the section 2801 tax. Thus, for cash method taxpayers, the calendar year in which the payment of the section 2801 tax occurs is later than the year in which the distribution is received and becomes subject to income tax. The amount of the deduction is equal to the portion of the section 2801 tax attributable to such distribution, but only to the extent that portion of the distribution is included in the U.S. recipient's gross income (which, for this purpose, also includes accumulation distributions under section 665(b)). The amount of the deduction allowed under section 164 is calculated as follows:
                                </P>
                                <P>(A) First, the U.S. recipient must determine the total amount of distribution(s) from all non-electing foreign trusts treated as covered gifts and covered bequests received by that U.S. recipient during the calendar year to which the section 2801 tax payment relates.</P>
                                <P>(B) Second, of the amount determined in paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, the U.S. recipient must determine the amount that also is included in the U.S. recipient's gross income for that calendar year. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(B), distributions from non-electing foreign trusts included in the U.S. recipient's gross income are deemed first to consist of the portion of those distributions, if any, that are attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests.</P>
                                <P>(C) Finally, the U.S. recipient must determine the portion of the section 2801 tax paid for that calendar year that is attributable to the amount determined in paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(B) of this section, the covered gifts and covered bequests received from non-electing foreign trusts that also are included in the U.S. recipient's gross income. This amount is the allowable deduction. Thus, for a calendar year taxpayer, the deduction is determined by multiplying the section 2801 tax paid during the calendar year by the ratio of the amount determined in paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(B) of this section to the total covered gifts and covered bequests received by the U.S. recipient during the calendar year to which that tax payment relates (that is, 2801 tax liability x [non-electing foreign trust distributions attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests that are also included in gross income/total covered gifts or covered bequests received]).</P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Computation of tax</E>
                                    —(1) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     The section 2801 tax is computed by multiplying the net covered gifts and covered bequests (as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section) received by a U.S. recipient during the calendar year by the highest rate of estate tax under section 2001(c) in effect for that calendar year. See paragraph (f)(1) of this section (
                                    <E T="03">Example 1</E>
                                    ).  
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Net covered gifts and covered bequests.</E>
                                     The net covered gifts and covered bequests received by a U.S. recipient during the calendar year is the total value of all covered gifts and covered bequests received by that U.S. recipient during the calendar year, less the section 2801(c) amount, which is the dollar amount of the per-donee exclusion in effect under section 2503(b) for that calendar year. The total value of all covered gifts and covered bequests received by a U.S. recipient during the calendar year includes distributions made from a non-electing foreign trust to the extent the distributions are attributable to covered gifts or covered bequests made to the foreign trust on or after June 17, 2008.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Value of covered gift or covered bequest.</E>
                                     The value of a covered gift or covered bequest is the fair market value of the property as of the date of its receipt by the U.S. recipient. See paragraph (d) of this section regarding the determination of the date of receipt. As in the case of chapters 11 and 12, the fair market value of a covered gift or covered bequest is the price, as of the date of receipt, at which such property would change hands between a willing buyer and a willing seller, neither being under any compulsion to buy or to sell and both having reasonable knowledge of relevant facts. The fair market value of a covered gift is determined in accordance with the Federal gift tax valuation principles of section 2512 and chapter 14 and the corresponding regulations. The fair market value of a covered bequest is determined by applying the Federal estate tax valuation principles of section 2031 and chapter 14, to the extent applicable, and the corresponding regulations, but without regard to sections 2032 and 2032A.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Date of receipt</E>
                                    —(1) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     The section 2801 tax is imposed upon the receipt of a covered gift or covered bequest by a U.S. recipient.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Covered gift.</E>
                                     The date of receipt of a covered gift is the same as the date of the gift for purposes of chapter 12 of subtitle B as if the covered expatriate had been a U.S. citizen at the time of the transfer (subject to the other provisions of this paragraph (d)). For example, for a gift of stock, if the covered expatriate delivers a properly endorsed stock certificate to the U.S. recipient, the date of delivery is the date of receipt for purposes of this section. Alternatively, if the covered expatriate delivers the stock certificate to the issuing corporation or its transfer agent in order to transfer title to the U.S. recipient, the date of receipt is the date the stock is transferred on the books of the corporation. However, for an asset or property interest subject to a claim of right of another involving a bona fide dispute, the date of receipt is the date on which such claim is extinguished.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) 
                                    <E T="03">Covered bequest.</E>
                                     The date of receipt of a covered bequest is the date of distribution from the estate or the decedent's revocable trust rather than the date of death of the covered expatriate (subject to the other provisions of this subparagraph (d)). However, the date of receipt for property passing on the death of the covered expatriate by operation of law, or by beneficiary designation or other contractual agreement, is the date of death of the covered expatriate. Notwithstanding the previous sentences, for an asset subject to a claim 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3401"/>
                                    of right of another involving a bona fide dispute, the date of receipt is the date on which such claim is extinguished.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (4) 
                                    <E T="03">Domestic trusts and electing foreign trusts.</E>
                                     The U.S. recipient of a covered gift or covered bequest made to a domestic trust or an electing foreign trust is the trust. For a lifetime transfer of assets by a covered expatriate to a domestic trust or an electing foreign trust, the date of receipt of the covered gift is the date of the gift for purposes of chapter 12 of subtitle B, determined as if the covered expatriate had been a U.S. citizen at the time of the transfer. For example, in the event of a transfer by a covered expatriate to a revocable trust, the date of receipt is the later of the date the right to revoke the trust is relinquished or extinguished and the date when all powers over or interests in the trust (if any) that would prevent the transfer from being a completed transfer for gift tax purposes (determined as if the covered expatriate had been a U.S. citizen) are extinguished. Similarly, in the event of a transfer by a covered expatriate to an irrevocable domestic trust or electing foreign trust over or in which the covered expatriate retains powers or interests that would prevent the transfer from being a completed gift for gift tax purposes (determined as if the covered expatriate had been a U.S. citizen), the date of receipt by the trust is the date all such powers or interests are extinguished. Additionally, if before the relinquishment of the right to revoke the trust or relinquishment of some other powers or interests that would render the gift incomplete (determined as if the covered expatriate had been a U.S. citizen), such trust distributes property to a U.S. recipient not in discharge of a support or other obligation of the donor, then the U.S. recipient of that distribution receives a covered gift on the date of that distribution.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (5) 
                                    <E T="03">Non-electing foreign trusts.</E>
                                     A U.S. citizen or resident is treated as receiving a covered gift or covered bequest on the date that person receives a distribution from a non-electing foreign trust attributable to a covered gift or covered bequest that was received by the trust. The date of such a receipt by a U.S. citizen or resident is the date of each distribution from the non-electing foreign trust. In the event of a sale, encumbrance, monetization, or other disposition of a U.S. recipient's interest in a non-electing foreign trust, the date of receipt is the date of such sale, encumbrance, monetization, or other disposition of the interest.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (6) 
                                    <E T="03">Powers of appointment</E>
                                    —(i) 
                                    <E T="03">Covered expatriate as holder of power.</E>
                                     In the case of the exercise, release, or lapse of a power of appointment held by a covered expatriate that is a covered gift pursuant to § 28.2801-3(e)(1), the date of receipt is the date of the exercise, release, or lapse of the power. In the case of the exercise, release, or lapse of a power of appointment held by a covered expatriate that is a covered bequest pursuant to § 28.2801-3(e)(1), the date of receipt is the date the property subject to the power is distributed from the decedent's estate or any trust if the power of appointment is over property in such estate or trust, or the date of the covered expatriate's death if the power of appointment is over property passing on the covered expatriate's death by operation of law, or by beneficiary designation, or other contractual agreement.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) 
                                    <E T="03">Covered expatriate as grantor of power.</E>
                                     The date of receipt of property subject to a general power of appointment granted by a covered expatriate to a U.S. citizen or resident over property not transferred in trust that constitutes a covered gift or covered bequest pursuant to § 28.2801-3(e)(2) is the first date on which both the general power of appointment is exercisable by the U.S. citizen or resident and the property subject to the general power of appointment has been irrevocably transferred by the covered expatriate. The date of receipt of property subject to a general power of appointment over property in a domestic trust or an electing foreign trust is determined in accordance with paragraphs (d)(2) through (4) of this section, and over property in a non-electing foreign trust is determined in accordance with paragraph (d)(5) of this section. See § 28.2801-3(d) for the rule applying to covered gifts and covered bequests made in trust.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (7) 
                                    <E T="03">Indirect receipts.</E>
                                     The date of receipt by a U.S. recipient of a covered gift or covered bequest received indirectly from a covered expatriate is the date of its receipt, as determined under this paragraph (d), by the U.S. citizen or resident who is the first recipient of that property from the covered expatriate to be subject to section 2801 with regard to that property. For example, the date of receipt of property subject to a non-general power of appointment over property not held in trust given by a covered expatriate to a foreign person (other than another covered expatriate) is the date that property is received by the U.S. recipient in whose favor the power was exercised. Further, the date of receipt of property received through one or more entities not subject to section 2801 is the date of its receipt by the U.S. recipient from a conduit entity.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (8) 
                                    <E T="03">Future interest in property not in trust</E>
                                    —(i) 
                                    <E T="03">Date of receipt.</E>
                                     The date of receipt by a U.S. recipient (including a domestic trust or an electing foreign trust) of a future interest in property not held in trust is the earlier of the date such interest may be transferred by the U.S. recipient and the date that is the later of the date that such interest vests in the U.S. recipient or the date that the last intervening interest in the property is extinguished. For this purpose, a transfer includes a sale, encumbering, monetization, or other disposition of the interest.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) 
                                    <E T="03">Date-of-receipt election for future interest in property not in trust.</E>
                                     A U.S. recipient of a covered gift or covered bequest that is a future interest in property not held in trust instead may elect to treat the date of receipt as the date of the donor's transfer of that future interest in the event of a covered gift, or as the date of death of the covered expatriate in the event of a covered bequest. Such an election will be made on Form 708 for the year in which this elective date of receipt occurs, in accordance with the instructions for such form.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (e) 
                                    <E T="03">Reduction of tax for foreign gift or estate tax paid</E>
                                    —(1) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     The section 2801 tax is reduced by the amount of any gift or estate tax paid to a foreign country with respect to the covered gift or covered bequest. For this purpose, the term 
                                    <E T="03">foreign country</E>
                                     includes territories and political subdivisions of foreign states. However, no reduction is allowable for interest and penalties paid in connection with those foreign taxes. To claim the reduction of section 2801 tax, the U.S. recipient must attach to the Form 708 a copy of the foreign gift or estate tax return and a copy of the receipt or cancelled check for payment of the foreign gift or estate tax. The U.S. recipient also must report on an attachment to the Form 708:  
                                </P>
                                <P>(i) The amount of foreign gift or estate tax paid with respect to each covered gift or covered bequest and the amount and date of each payment thereof;</P>
                                <P>(ii) A description and the value of the property with respect to which such taxes were imposed;</P>
                                <P>(iii) Whether any refund of part or all of the foreign gift or estate tax has been or will be claimed or allowed, and the amount of such refund; and</P>
                                <P>(iv) All other information necessary for the verification and computation of the amount of the reduction of section 2801 tax.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Protective claim for refund.</E>
                                     A protective claim for refund under this section may be filed to preserve the U.S. recipient's right to claim a refund in the 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3402"/>
                                    event any gift or estate tax with respect to the covered gift or covered bequest is owed but not yet paid to a foreign country until after the expiration of the period of limitation for filing a claim for refund. Such a protective claim may be filed at any time before the expiration of the period of limitation prescribed in section 6511(a) for the filing of a claim for refund and shall be made in accordance with the usual procedures for filing a claim for refund. 
                                    <E T="03">See https://www.irs.gov</E>
                                     and Form 843, 
                                    <E T="03">Claim for Refund and Request for Abatement,</E>
                                     and its instructions. Action on a protective claim will proceed after the U.S. recipient has notified the Internal Revenue Service within a reasonable period that the gift or estate tax with respect to the covered gift or covered bequest has been paid to a foreign country.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (f) 
                                    <E T="03">Examples.</E>
                                     The provisions of this section are illustrated by the following examples.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (1) 
                                    <E T="03">Example 1: Computation of tax.</E>
                                     In Year 1, A, a U.S. citizen, receives a $50,000 covered gift from B and an $80,000 covered bequest from C. Both B and C are covered expatriates. In Year 1, the highest estate tax rate is 40 percent and the section 2801(c) amount is $16,000. A's section 2801 tax for Year 1 is computed by multiplying A's net covered gifts and covered bequests by 40 percent. A's net covered gifts and covered bequests for Year 1 are $114,000, which is determined by reducing A's total covered gifts and covered bequests received during Year 1, $130,000 ($50,000 + $80,000), by the section 2801(c) amount of $16,000. A's section 2801 tax liability then is reduced by any foreign gift or estate tax paid under paragraph (e) of this section. Assuming A, B, and C paid no foreign gift or estate tax on the transfers, A's section 2801 tax liability for Year 1 is $45,600 ($114,000 × 0.4).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Example 2: Deduction of section 2801 tax for income tax purposes.</E>
                                     In Year 1, B receives a covered bequest of $25,000. Also in Year 1, B receives an aggregate $500,000 of distributions from a non-electing foreign trust of which $100,000 was attributable to a covered gift. In Year 1, the highest estate and gift tax rate is 40 percent and the section 2801(c) amount is $16,000. Based on information provided by the trustee of the non-electing foreign trust, B includes $50,000 of the aggregate distributions from the non-electing foreign trust in B's gross income for Year 1. Under paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, B (a cash basis taxpayer) is entitled to an income tax deduction under section 164 for the calendar year in which the section 2801 tax is paid. In Year 2, B timely reports the distributions from the non-electing foreign trust and pays $43,600 in section 2801 tax (($125,000−$16,000) × 0.4). In Year 2, B is entitled to an income tax deduction because B paid the section 2801 tax in Year 2 on the Year 1 covered gift and covered bequest. B's Year 2 income tax deduction is computed as follows:
                                </P>
                                <P>(i) $100,000 of B's total covered gifts and covered bequests of $125,000 received in Year 1 consisted of the portion of the distributions from the non-electing foreign trust attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests received by the trust. See paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(A) of this section.</P>
                                <P>(ii) $50,000 of the $500,000 of trust distributions were includible in B's gross income for Year 1. This amount is deemed to consist first of distributions subject to the section 2801 tax ($100,000). Thus, the entire amount included in B's gross income ($50,000) also is subject to the section 2801 tax, and is used in the numerator to determine the income tax deduction available to B. See paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(B) of this section.</P>
                                <P>(iii) The portion of B's section 2801 tax liability attributable to distributions from a non-electing foreign trust that are both covered gifts or covered bequests and includible in B's taxable income is $17,440 ($43,600 × ($50,000/$125,000)). Therefore, B's deduction under section 164 is $17,440. See paragraph (a)(3)(ii)(C) of this section.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) 
                                    <E T="03">Example 3: Date of receipt; bona fide claim.</E>
                                     On October 10, Year 1, CE, a covered expatriate, died testate as a resident of Country F, a foreign country with which the United States does not have an estate tax treaty. CE designated his son, S, as the beneficiary of CE's retirement account. S is a U.S. citizen. CE's wife, W, who is a citizen and resident of Country F, elects to take her elective share of CE's estate under local law. S contests whether the retirement account is property subject to the elective share. S and W agree to settle their respective claims by dividing CE's assets equally between them. On December 15 of Year 2, Country F's court enters an order accepting the terms of the settlement agreement and dismissing the case. Under paragraph (d)(3) of this section, S received a covered bequest of one-half of CE's retirement account on December 15, Year 2, when W's claim of right was extinguished.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (g) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies to covered gifts or covered bequests received on or after January 1, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.2801-5</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Foreign trusts.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     The section 2801 tax is imposed on a U.S. recipient who receives distributions, whether of income or principal, from a non-electing foreign trust to the extent the distributions are attributable to one or more covered gifts or covered bequests made to that foreign trust. See paragraph (d) of this section regarding a foreign trust's election to be treated as a domestic trust for purposes of section 2801.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Distribution defined.</E>
                                     For purposes of determining whether a U.S. recipient has received a distribution from a non-electing foreign trust, the term 
                                    <E T="03">distribution</E>
                                     means any direct, indirect, or constructive transfer from a non-electing foreign trust, including a transfer to the extent made for less than full and adequate consideration in money or money's worth. Although section 643(i) of the Code does not apply for the purpose of defining a distribution under this section, certain loans from or uncompensated use of property held by a non-electing foreign trust nevertheless may satisfy the definition of a distribution under this paragraph if the loan or use of trust property would be a gift as defined for purposes of chapter 12 of subtitle B. For purposes of determining whether a U.S. recipient has received a distribution from a non-electing foreign trust, the term 
                                    <E T="03">distribution</E>
                                     also includes each distribution from a non-electing foreign trust pursuant to the exercise, release, or lapse (without regard to the exception in section 2041(b)(2) or 2514(e) of the Code) of a power of appointment, whether or not such power is a general power of appointment. In addition, the term 
                                    <E T="03">distribution</E>
                                     also includes the domestication of a foreign trust, and any sale, encumbering, monetization, or other disposition by the U.S. recipient of the recipient's interest in the trust to the extent of that disposition. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     § 28.2801-4(a)(2)(iv). The determination of whether a U.S. recipient has received a distribution is made without regard to whether any portion of the non-electing foreign trust is treated as owned by the U.S. recipient or any other person under subpart E of part I, subchapter J, chapter 1 of the Code (pertaining to grantors and others treated as substantial owners), and without regard to whether the U.S. recipient of the transfer is designated as a beneficiary by the terms of the trust. A U.S. recipient receiving a distribution for purposes of this section must determine whether the information reporting requirements of section 6048(c) apply. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     § 28.2801-6(c)(2).  
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3403"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Amount of distribution attributable to covered gift or covered bequest</E>
                                    —(1) 
                                    <E T="03">Section 2801 ratio</E>
                                    —(i) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     A foreign trust may have received covered gifts and covered bequests as well as contributions that were not covered gifts or covered bequests. Under such circumstances, the fair market value of the foreign trust at any time consists, in part, of a portion of the trust attributable to the covered gifts and covered bequests it has received (covered portion) and in part of a portion of the trust attributable to other contributions (non-covered portion). The covered portion of the trust includes the ratable portion of appreciation and income that has accrued on the foreign trust's assets from the date of the contribution of the covered gifts and covered bequests to the foreign trust. For purposes of section 2801, the amount of each distribution from the foreign trust, whether made from the income or principal of the trust, that is considered attributable to the foreign trust's covered gifts and covered bequests is determined on a proportional basis, by reference to the section 2801 ratio (as described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section), and not by the identification or tracing of particular trust assets. Specifically, this portion of each distribution is determined by multiplying the distributed amount by the percentage of the trust that consists of its covered portion immediately prior to that distribution (section 2801 ratio). Thus, for example, the section 2801 ratio of a foreign trust whose assets are comprised exclusively of covered gifts or covered bequests and the income and appreciation thereon, would be one and the full amount of each distribution from that foreign trust to a U.S. citizen or resident would be attributable to the foreign trust's covered gifts and covered bequests and subject to the imposition of section 2801 tax. Because the non-electing foreign trust itself is not taxed on its receipt of covered gifts and covered bequests, the trust is not entitled to an annual exclusion pursuant to section 2801(c); that exclusion is available only in computing the section 2801 tax payable by the U.S. recipient filing a Form 708, 
                                    <E T="03">United States Return of Tax for Gifts and Bequests Received from Covered Expatriates.</E>
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) 
                                    <E T="03">Computation.</E>
                                     The section 2801 ratio, which must be redetermined after each contribution to the foreign trust, is computed by using the following fraction:
                                </P>
                                <GPH SPAN="1" DEEP="19">
                                    <GID>ER14JA25.001</GID>
                                </GPH>
                                <EXTRACT>
                                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Where,</FP>
                                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">X = The value of the trust attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests, if any, immediately before the contribution (pre-contribution value); this value is determined by multiplying the fair market value of the trust assets immediately prior to the contribution by the section 2801 ratio in effect immediately prior to the current contribution. This amount will be zero for all years prior to the year in which the foreign trust receives its first covered gift or covered bequest;</FP>
                                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Y = The portion, if any, of the fair market value of the current contribution that constitutes a covered gift or covered bequest; and</FP>
                                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                        Z = The fair market value of the trust immediately after the current contribution. See paragraph (e)(1) of this section (
                                        <E T="03">Example 1</E>
                                        ), for an illustration of this computation.
                                    </FP>
                                </EXTRACT>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Effect of reported transfer and tax payment.</E>
                                     With regard to the value of property on which a section 2801 tax has been timely paid, even though that property thereafter remains in a non-electing foreign trust, that value no longer is considered to be, or to be attributable to, a covered gift or covered bequest to that foreign trust for purposes of the computation described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. For purposes of the prior sentence, a section 2801 tax is deemed to have been timely paid on amounts for which no section 2801 tax was due, provided those amounts were reported as a covered gift or covered bequest on a timely filed Form 708 or the total covered gifts and covered bequests received in a calendar year do not exceed the section 2801(c) amount. An amount for which no section 2801 tax was due refers to the amount of a covered gift or covered bequest received by an electing foreign trust not in excess of the section 2801(c) amount. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     § 28.2801-5(e) (
                                    <E T="03">Example 4</E>
                                    ).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) 
                                    <E T="03">Inadequate information to calculate section 2801 ratio.</E>
                                     A U.S. citizen or resident receiving a distribution from a non-electing foreign trust must proceed upon the assumption that the distribution is attributable to a covered gift or covered bequest to the extent the trustee of the foreign trust does not have sufficient books and records to calculate the section 2801 ratio or the taxpayer is unable to obtain the necessary information regarding the foreign trust to calculate the section 2801 ratio. The assumption is rebuttable to the extent the taxpayer can supply information sufficient to persuade the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) that the distribution is not entirely attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Foreign trust treated as domestic trust</E>
                                    —(1) 
                                    <E T="03">Election required.</E>
                                     To be considered an electing foreign trust, so that the foreign trust is treated as a domestic trust solely for purposes of the section 2801 tax, a valid election is required.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Effect of election</E>
                                    —(i) A valid election subjects the electing foreign trust to the section 2801 tax on all covered gifts and covered bequests received by the foreign trust during that calendar year, the portion of the trust attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests received by the trust in prior years, as determined in paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section, and all covered gifts and covered bequests received by the foreign trust during calendar years subsequent to the first year in which the election is effective, unless and until the election is terminated. To the extent that covered gifts and covered bequests are subject to the section 2801 tax under the prior sentence, those trust receipts are no longer treated as a covered gift or covered bequest for purposes of determining the portion of the trust attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests. Therefore, upon making a valid election, the foreign trust's section 2801 ratio described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section will be zero until the effective date of any termination of the election and the subsequent receipt of any covered gift or covered bequest, and a distribution made from the foreign trust while this election is in effect is not taxable under section 2801 to the U.S. recipient.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) This election has no effect on any distribution from the foreign trust that was made to a U.S. recipient in a calendar year prior to the calendar year for which the election is made. Thus, even after a valid election is made, a distribution to a U.S. recipient in a calendar year prior to the calendar year for which the election is made that was attributable to one or more covered gifts or covered bequests continues to be a distribution attributable to one or more covered gifts or covered bequests and the section 2801 ratio in place at the time of the distribution continues to apply to that distribution. Furthermore, an election under this section does not relieve the U.S. recipient from the information reporting requirements of section 6048(c). 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     § 28.2801-6(c)(2).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) 
                                    <E T="03">Time and manner of making the election</E>
                                    —(i) 
                                    <E T="03">When to make the election.</E>
                                     The election is made on a timely filed Form 708 for the calendar year for which the foreign trust seeks to subject itself to the section 2801 tax as described in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section. The election may be made for a calendar year whether or not the foreign trust received a covered gift or covered bequest during that calendar year. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     § 28.6071-1.
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3404"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) 
                                    <E T="03">Requirements for a valid election.</E>
                                     To make a valid election to be treated as a domestic trust for purposes of section 2801, the foreign trust must timely file a Form 708 and must, on such form—
                                </P>
                                <P>(A) Make the election, timely pay the section 2801 tax, if any, as determined under paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section, and include a computation illustrating how the trustee of the foreign trust calculated both the section 2801 ratio described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section and the section 2801 tax;</P>
                                <P>(B) Designate and authorize a U.S. agent as provided in paragraph (d)(3)(iv) of this section;</P>
                                <P>(C) Agree to timely file Form 708 to report each covered gift and bequest made to the trust in accordance with § 28.2801-5(d)(4);</P>
                                <P>(D) Identify the amount and year of all prior distributions attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests made to a U.S. recipient, and provide the name, address, and taxpayer identification number of each U.S. recipient;</P>
                                <P>(E) Provide a copy of the governing instrument of the trust and provide the name, address, and taxpayer identification number of each permissible distributee described in paragraph (d)(3)(ii)(F) of this section; and</P>
                                <P>(F) Affirm under penalties of perjury that each permissible distributee was notified that the trustee is making (or has made) the election, effective as of January 1 of the calendar year for which the Form 708 on which the election is made is filed. For this purpose, a permissible distributee is any U.S. citizen or resident who:</P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Currently may or must receive distributions from the trust, whether of income or principal;  
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) May withdraw income or principal from the trust during that year or in a future year, regardless of whether the right arises or lapses upon the occurrence of a future event; and
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) Would be described in either or both of paragraphs (d)(3)(ii)(F)(
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) and (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) of this section upon an immediate termination of either the trust or the interest of any person described in either or both of paragraphs (d)(3)(ii)(F)(
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) and (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) of this section.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (iii) 
                                    <E T="03">Section 2801 tax payable with the election.</E>
                                     To make a valid election to be treated as a domestic trust for purposes of section 2801, the electing foreign trust must timely pay the section 2801 tax on all covered gifts and covered bequests received by the electing foreign trust in the calendar year for which the Form 708 is being filed. In some cases, an electing foreign trust may have received covered gifts or covered bequests in prior calendar years during which no such election was in effect. In those cases, the trustee must also, at the same time, report and pay the tax on the fair market value, determined as of the last day of the calendar year immediately preceding the year for which the Form 708 is being filed, of the portion of the trust attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests received by such trust in prior calendar years (except as provided in paragraph (d)(6)(iii) of this section with regard to an imperfect election). That portion is determined by multiplying the fair market value of the trust, as of the December 31 immediately preceding the year for which the election is made, by the section 2801 ratio in effect on that date, as calculated under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. The trustee must proceed upon the assumption that the corpus and undistributed income are attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests to the extent the trustee does not have sufficient books and records to determine what amount of the corpus and undistributed income is attributable to prior covered gifts and covered bequests. The assumption is rebuttable by the taxpayer's furnishing information sufficient to persuade the IRS that corpus and undistributed income is not attributable to prior covered gifts or covered bequests. See paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (iv) 
                                    <E T="03">Designation of U.S. agent</E>
                                    —(A) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     The trustee of an electing foreign trust must designate and authorize a U.S. person, as defined in section 7701(a)(30) of the Code, to act as an agent for the trust for purposes of section 2801. The designation and authorization are made on a duly filed Form 2848, 
                                    <E T="03">Power of Attorney and Declaration of Representative,</E>
                                     or as may be directed otherwise in IRS forms or publications. By designating a U.S. agent, the trustee of the trust agrees to provide the agent with all information necessary to comply with any information request or summons issued by the Secretary of the Treasury or her delegate (Secretary) that is relevant to the collection or determination of tax under section 2801. Such information may include, without limitation, copies of the books and records of the trust, financial statements, and appraisals of trust property.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Role of designated agent.</E>
                                     Acting as an agent for an electing foreign trust for purposes of section 2801 includes serving as the trust's agent for purposes of section 7602 of the Code (
                                    <E T="03">Examination of books and witnesses</E>
                                    ), section 7603 of the Code (
                                    <E T="03">Service of summons</E>
                                    ), and section 7604 of the Code (
                                    <E T="03">Enforcement of summons</E>
                                    ) with respect to—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) Any request by the Secretary to examine records or produce testimony related to the proper identification or treatment of covered gifts or covered bequests contributed to the foreign trust and distributions of such contributions and the income therefrom; and
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Any summons by the Secretary for records or testimony related to the proper identification or treatment of covered gifts or covered bequests contributed to the foreign trust and distributions of such contributions and the income therefrom.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Effect of appointment of agent.</E>
                                     An electing foreign trust that appoints such an agent is not considered to have an office or a permanent establishment in the United States, or to be engaged in a trade or business in the United States, solely because of the agent's activities as an agent pursuant to this section.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (4) 
                                    <E T="03">Filing requirement.</E>
                                     The trustee of an electing foreign trust must timely file a Form 708 to report and pay the section 2801 tax on all covered gifts and covered bequests received by the trust during the calendar year. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     § 28.6071-1. Nevertheless, the trustee of an electing foreign trust is not required to file Form 708 for a calendar year in which either the trust received no covered gifts or covered bequests, or the total fair market value of all covered gifts and covered bequests received by the electing foreign trust during that calendar year is less than or equal to the section 2801(c) amount.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (5) 
                                    <E T="03">Duration of status as electing foreign trust</E>
                                    —(i) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     A valid election (one that meets all of the requirements of paragraph (d)(3) of this section) is effective as of January 1 of the calendar year for which the Form 708 on which the election is made is filed. The election, once made, applies for all calendar years until the election is terminated as described in paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) 
                                    <E T="03">Termination</E>
                                    —(A) 
                                    <E T="03">Manner of termination.</E>
                                     An election to be treated as a domestic trust for purposes of section 2801 is terminated by—
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) A failure of the foreign trust to timely file a required Form 708 and timely pay the section 2801 tax, as required by paragraph (d)(4) of this section;
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) A failure of the foreign trust to enter into a closing agreement and to timely pay any additional amount of section 2801 tax (in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (d)(6)(i) of this section) with respect to recalculations described in paragraph (d)(6) of this section (a termination that 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3405"/>
                                    also results in the conversion of the trust's election to an imperfect election); or
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) An affirmative revocation of the election made in accordance with the instructions for Form 708.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Effective date of termination.</E>
                                     The effective date of the termination of an election to be treated as a domestic trust for purposes of section 2801 is as follows:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) For a termination described in paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(A)(
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) of this section, the termination is effective as of the first day of the calendar year for which the Form 708 was required under paragraph (d)(4) of this section.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) For a termination described in paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(A)(
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) of this section, the termination is effective as of the first day of the calendar year for which the Form 708 was filed with respect to which the additional amount of section 2801 tax is claimed to be due by the IRS.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) For a termination described in paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(A)(
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) of this section, the termination is effective as of the first day of the calendar year for which a Form 708 was filed to affirmatively revoke the election.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Notice requirements upon termination.</E>
                                     In the case of a termination of the election, the trustee should notify promptly each permissible distributee of the trust, as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(ii)(F) of this section and determined as of the effective date of the termination of the election, that the foreign trust's election was terminated (or terminated and converted to an imperfect election) and the effective date of the termination, and that each U.S. recipient of a distribution made from the foreign trust on or after the effective date of that termination is subject to the section 2801 tax on the portion of each such distribution that is attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests. See paragraph (d)(6)(iii)(B) of this section for an additional notification requirement in the case of an imperfect election.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (iii) 
                                    <E T="03">Subsequent elections.</E>
                                     If a foreign trust's election is terminated under paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section, the foreign trust is not prohibited from making another election in a future year, subject to the requirements of paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (6) 
                                    <E T="03">Dispute as to amount of section 2801 tax owed by electing foreign trust</E>
                                    —(i) 
                                    <E T="03">Procedure.</E>
                                     If the IRS disputes the value of a covered gift or covered bequest, or otherwise challenges the computation of the section 2801 tax, that is reported on the electing foreign trust's timely filed Form 708 for any calendar year, the IRS will issue a letter (but not a notice of deficiency as defined in section 6212 of the Code) to the trustee of the trust and the appointed U.S. agent that details the disputed information and the proper amount of section 2801 tax as recalculated. The trustee of the foreign trust must pay the additional amount of section 2801 tax including interest and penalties, if any, on or before the due date specified in the letter (or other date agreed to by the IRS) and enter into a closing agreement with the IRS as described in section 7121 to maintain its election.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (ii) 
                                    <E T="03">Effect of compliance.</E>
                                     If the trustee of the foreign trust complies with the requirements of paragraph (d)(6)(i) of this section, then the foreign trust's election to be treated as a domestic trust under paragraph (d) of this section remains in effect. In the absence of fraud, malfeasance, or misrepresentation of a material fact, any value determined in the closing agreement will be deemed to be final and binding on both the IRS and the foreign trust. Subsequently, the IRS will not challenge the amount of section 2801 tax due from either the foreign trust or any of its distributees who are U.S. citizens or residents for the year for which that Form 708 was filed by the foreign trust, except with respect to any covered gifts or covered bequests not reported on that return. In addition, neither the foreign trust nor any of its distributees will be able to file a claim for refund with respect to section 2801 tax paid by the foreign trust on the covered gifts and covered bequests reported on that Form 708.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (iii) 
                                    <E T="03">Effect of failing to comply (imperfect election</E>
                                    )—(A) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     If the foreign trust fails to enter into the closing agreement and to timely pay any of the additional amount of section 2801 tax (with interest and penalties, if any) determined to be due by the IRS in accordance with the procedure in paragraph (d)(6)(i) of this section, then the foreign trust's valid election is terminated and is converted to an imperfect election. The conversion to an imperfect election is retroactive to the first day of the calendar year (subject year) for which the Form 708 was filed with respect to which the additional amount of section 2801 tax is claimed to be due by the IRS. The trust will be a non-electing foreign trust for the subject year and for each subsequent year until another valid election (if any) is made by the trust. However, the value the foreign trust reported on the Form 708 for the subject year and each other year during the interim period described in paragraph (d)(6)(iii)(D) of this section, and on which the trust paid the section 2801 tax, is no longer considered to be attributable to covered gifts or covered bequests when computing the section 2801 ratio (described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section) that will be applicable to distributions made by the foreign trust to U.S. recipients during the subject year and thereafter until the effective date of any subsequent election meeting the requirements of paragraph (d)(3) of this section. The U.S. recipients of distributions from the foreign trust, however, should take into consideration the additional value determined by the IRS, on which the foreign trust did not timely pay the section 2801 tax, when computing the section 2801 ratio to be applied to a distribution from the trust. See paragraph (c) of this section. Any disagreement with regard to that additional value will be an issue to be resolved as part of the review of that U.S. recipient's own Form 708 reporting a distribution.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (B) 
                                    <E T="03">Notice to permissible distributees.</E>
                                     If the trustee of the foreign trust fails to enter into the closing agreement and to remit, by the due date specified or otherwise agreed to by the IRS, the additional section 2801 tax, including all interest and penalties, in accordance with the procedure in paragraph (d)(6)(i) of this section, the trustee should notify promptly each permissible distributee, as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(ii)(F) of this section:
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">1</E>
                                    ) That the foreign trust's election was terminated and the effective date of the termination (see paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(B)(
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) of this section);
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">2</E>
                                    ) Of the amount of additional value on which the foreign trust did not timely pay the section 2801 tax as determined or otherwise agreed to by the IRS, which value the IRS thus deems to be attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests; and
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (
                                    <E T="03">3</E>
                                    ) That each U.S. recipient of a distribution made from the foreign trust on or after that termination date is subject to the section 2801 tax on the portion of each such distribution attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (C) 
                                    <E T="03">Reasonable cause.</E>
                                     If a U.S. recipient received a distribution from the foreign trust on or after January 1 of the year for which the election was terminated and the election became an imperfect election, provided the U.S. recipient files a Form 708 and pays the section 2801 tax within a reasonable period of time after being notified by the trustee of the foreign trust or otherwise becoming aware that a valid election was not in effect when the distribution was made, the U.S. recipient's failure to timely file and pay are due to reasonable cause and not willful neglect for purposes of section 6651. For this purpose, a reasonable period of time is 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3406"/>
                                    not more than six months after the U.S. recipient is notified by the trustee or otherwise becomes aware that a valid election is not in effect.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (D) 
                                    <E T="03">Interim period.</E>
                                     If a foreign trust's valid election is terminated and becomes an imperfect election, there is a period of time (interim period) that begins on the effective date of the termination of the election (see paragraph (d)(5)(ii)(B) of this section) during which both the foreign trust and its U.S. beneficiaries are likely to continue to comply with section 2801 as it applies to an electing foreign trust with a valid election in place. The interim period ends on the earlier of December 31 of the calendar year during which the additional amount of section 2801 tax was due to be paid, as described in paragraph (d)(6)(i) of this section, or the effective date of a subsequent valid election to be treated as a domestic trust for purposes of section 2801. As described in paragraph (d)(6)(iii)(A) of this section regarding imperfect elections, the value of the covered gifts and covered bequests received by the foreign trust during this interim period, which the foreign trust has reported on one or more filed Forms 708 and on which the foreign trust has paid the section 2801 tax, is no longer considered to be attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests for purposes of computing the section 2801 ratio described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section as it applies to distributions made by non-electing foreign trusts to their U.S. beneficiaries. In addition, each distribution made by the foreign trust to a U.S. citizen or resident during this interim period must be reported on that U.S. recipient's Form 708 by applying the section 2801 ratio to that distribution. If, once the interim period has ended, the foreign trust has no election in place, the rules of section 2801(e)(4)(B)(i) will apply until the foreign trust subsequently (if ever) makes another valid election to be treated as a domestic trust for purposes of section 2801.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (7) 
                                    <E T="03">No overpayment caused solely by virtue of defect in election.</E>
                                     Any remittance of section 2801 tax made by an electing foreign trust does not become an overpayment solely by virtue of a defect in the election. Instead, if at some subsequent time the IRS determines that the election was not in fact a valid election, then the election shall be considered valid only with respect to the value of the covered gifts or covered bequests on which the section 2801 tax was paid by the foreign trust and such value on which the section 2801 tax has been paid is no longer treated as attributable to a covered gift or covered bequest for purposes of determining the portion of the foreign trust attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests. See paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (6)(iii) of this section.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (e) 
                                    <E T="03">Examples.</E>
                                     The provisions of this section are illustrated by the following examples.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (1) 
                                    <E T="03">Example 1: Computation of section 2801 ratio.</E>
                                     A and B each contribute $100,000 to a new foreign trust. A (but not B) is a covered expatriate and A's contribution is a covered gift. The trustee of the trust does not make a valid election to have the trust treated as a domestic trust for purposes of section 2801. The section 2801 ratio immediately after these two contributions is 0.50, computed as follows: the pre-contribution value of the trust ($0) multiplied by the pre-contribution section 2801 ratio (0), plus the current covered gift ($100,000), divided by the post-contribution fair market value of the trust ($200,000). 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     § 28.2801-5(c). Therefore, 50 percent of each distribution from the trust to a U.S. recipient is subject to the section 2801 tax until the next contribution is made to the trust. If the trustee distributes $40,000 to C, a U.S. citizen, before the trust receives any other contributions, then $20,000 ($40,000 × 0.5) is a covered gift to C.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Example 2: Distribution to spouse.</E>
                                     In Year 1, A contributes $300,000 to a foreign trust. A is a covered expatriate. B, A's U.S. citizen spouse, and A's issue may receive discretionary distributions of income and principal. The transfer would not have qualified for the gift tax marital deduction if A had been a U.S. citizen or resident at the time of the gift; therefore, A's contribution is a covered gift. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     sections 2801(e)(3) and 2523. No one pays foreign gift taxes on A's contribution. The trustee of the trust does not make a valid election to have the trust treated as a domestic trust for purposes of section 2801. The section 2801 ratio immediately after A's contribution is one. The highest gift tax rate is 40 percent, and the section 2801(c) amount is $17,000. The trustee distributes $200,000 to B in Year 1. The entire amount is a covered gift to B. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     section 28.2801-3(c)(5). This is the only covered gift B receives in Year 1. B receives no covered bequests in Year 1. B's section 2801 tax for Year 1 is computed by multiplying B's net covered gift by 40 percent. B's net covered gift for Year 1 is $183,000, which is determined by reducing B's covered gift received during Year 1 by the section 2801(c) amount. B's section 2801 tax liability for Year 1 is $73,200 ($183,000 × 0.4).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) 
                                    <E T="03">Example 3: Computation of section 2801 ratio when multiple contributions are made to foreign trust.</E>
                                     (i) In 2005, A, a U.S. citizen, established and funded an irrevocable foreign trust with $200,000. On January 1 of each of the following three years (2006 through 2008), A contributed an additional $100,000 to the foreign trust. A reported A's contributions to the foreign trust as completed gifts on timely filed Forms 709, for calendar years 2005 through 2008. None of these contributions is a covered gift because the gifts predated the effective date of section 2801. On August 8, 2008, a date after the effective date of section 2801 (June 17, 2008), A expatriated and became a covered expatriate. On January 1 of a year after 2008 (Year X), A makes an additional $100,000 contribution to the trust. The aggregate $600,000 contributed to the trust by A, both before and after expatriation, are the only contributions to the trust. The trustee of the foreign trust does not make a valid election to have the trust treated as a domestic trust for purposes of section 2801. Each year, the trustee of the foreign trust provides beneficiary B, a U.S. citizen, with an accounting of the trust showing each receipt and disbursement of the trust during that year, including the date and amount of each contribution by A.
                                </P>
                                <P>(ii) The fair market value of the trust was $610,000 immediately prior to A's contribution to the trust on January 1, Year X. Therefore, upon the Year X contribution of A's first and only covered gift, the portion of the trust attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests (covered portion) changed from zero to 0.14 ([(section 2801 ratio of 0 × $610,000 fair market value pre-contribution) plus the $100,000 covered gift]/$710,000 fair market value post-contribution). See paragraph (c) of this section.</P>
                                <P>(iii) In February of Year X, B received a distribution of $225,000 from the foreign trust. Although A contributed a total of $600,000 to the foreign trust, only $100,000 of that total was a covered gift, being the only contribution made by A both after the enactment of section 2801 and after A's expatriation. Under paragraph (c) of this section, the portion of the $225,000 distribution from the foreign trust attributable to a covered gift is $31,500 ($225,000 × 0.14 (section 2801 ratio)) because the distribution is made proportionally from the covered and non-covered portions of the trust. See paragraph (c)(1) of this section. Accordingly, B received a covered gift of $31,500.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (iv) Pursuant to the terms of the foreign trust, the trust made a terminating distribution on August 5, 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3407"/>
                                    Year X, when B turned 35, and B received the balance of the appreciated trust, $505,000. The portion of this distribution attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests is $70,700 ($505,000 × 0.14). Therefore, B has received covered gifts from the foreign trust during Year X in the total amount of $102,200 ($31,500 + $70,700).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (4) 
                                    <E T="03">Example 4: Termination of election.</E>
                                     (i) In Year 1, A contributes $200,000 and B contributes $100,000 to Trust, a foreign trust. A and B are covered expatriates. A's and B's contributions are covered gifts. No one pays foreign gift taxes on A's and B's contributions. The trustee of Trust makes a valid election to have Trust treated as a domestic trust for purposes of section 2801. The highest gift tax rate is 40 percent, and the section 2801(c) amount is $17,000. The section 2801 tax for Year 1 is computed by multiplying the net covered gifts and covered bequests by 40 percent. The net covered gifts and covered bequests for Year 1 total $283,000, determined by reducing the covered gifts and covered bequests received by Trust during Year 1, $300,000, by the section 2801(c) amount, $17,000. Trust's 2801 tax liability for Year 1 is $113,200 ($283,000 × 0.4). Any distributions made to U.S. recipients before the trust receives another contribution have a section 2801 ratio of zero and are not subject to the section 2801 tax. See paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.
                                </P>
                                <P>(ii) In Year 2, A contributes $100,000 to Trust, all of which is a covered gift. The trustee of Trust fails to timely file a Form 708 for Year 2 and timely pay the section 2801 tax. The fair market value of Trust was $400,000 immediately prior to A's contribution. The section 2801 ratio immediately after A's contribution is 0.20, computed as follows: the pre-contribution value of Trust ($400,000) multiplied by the section 2801 ratio in effect immediately prior to the Year 2 contribution (0), plus the fair market value of the Year 2 contribution that constitutes a covered gift ($100,000), divided by the fair market value of Trust after the Year 2 contribution ($500,000). See paragraph (c)(1) and (2) of this section. If the trustee distributes $40,000 to C, a U.S. citizen, after the contribution in Year 2, then $8,000 ($40,000 × 0.20) is a covered gift to C. In Year 2, C also receives a covered gift of $50,000 directly from B. No one pays foreign gift taxes on B's covered gift. C receives no covered bequests in Year 2. C's section 2801 tax for Year 2 is computed by multiplying C's net covered gifts and covered bequests by 40 percent. C's net covered gifts and covered bequests for Year 2 total $41,000, determined by reducing the covered gifts and covered bequests received by C during Year 2, $58,000 ($8,000 + $50,000), by the section 2801(c) amount, $17,000. C's section 2801 tax liability for Year 2 is $16,400 ($41,000 × 0.4).</P>
                                <P>
                                    (5) 
                                    <E T="03">Example 5: Imperfect election of foreign trust.</E>
                                     (i) In Year 1, CE, a covered expatriate, gives a 20 percent limited partnership interest in a closely held business to a foreign trust created for the benefit of CE's child, A, who is a U.S. citizen. The limited partnership interest is a covered gift. The trustee of the foreign trust makes a valid election to have the trust treated as a domestic trust for purposes of section 2801, trustee timely files a Form 708, reports the fair market value of the covered gift as $500,000, and timely pays the section 2801 tax on the reported fair market value of the covered gift. Later in Year 1, the trust makes a $100,000 distribution to A.
                                </P>
                                <P>(ii) In Year 2, CE contributes $200,000 in cash to the foreign trust. The cash is a covered gift. The trustee of the foreign trust timely files a Form 708 reporting the transfer and pays the section 2801 tax. The trust does not make a distribution to any beneficiary during Year 2. In Year 3, the IRS disputes the reported value of the partnership interest transferred in Year 1 and determines that the proper valuation on the date of the gift was $800,000. In Year 3, the IRS issues a letter to the trustee of the foreign trust detailing its finding of the increased valuation and of the resulting additional section 2801 tax including accrued interest, if any, due on or before a later date in Year 3 specified in the letter. The foreign trust fails to pay the additional section 2801 tax liability on or before that due date.</P>
                                <P>(iii) Under paragraph (d)(6)(iii) of this section, the foreign trust's election for Year 1 is terminated and converted into an imperfect election as of January 1 of Year 1. In computing the foreign trust's section 2801 ratio for Year 1, the $500,000 of value on which the section 2801 tax was timely paid is no longer considered to be attributable to a covered gift. See paragraph (d)(6)(iii) of this section. When the trustee advises A of the letter from the IRS, A must file a late Form 708 reporting the portion of the Year 1 distribution attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests. Although A may owe section 2801 tax and interest, A will not owe any penalties under section 6651 as long as A files the Form 708 and pays the tax within six months after A receives notice of the termination of the election from the trustee of the foreign trust or otherwise becomes aware of the termination of the election. See paragraph (d)(6)(iii)(C) of this section.</P>
                                <P>(iv) When A files a Form 708 to report the Year 1 distribution, the IRS will verify whether A treated the $300,000 undervaluation claimed by the IRS as a covered gift in computing the section 2801 ratio. As with any other item reported on that return, A has the burden to prove the value of the covered gift to the foreign trust, and the IRS may challenge that value. If A treats the $300,000 as a covered gift to the trust, under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, the section 2801 ratio after the Year 1 contribution is 0.375 ($0 + ($300,000)/$800,000)). Thus, 37.5 percent of all distributions made to A from the foreign trust during Year 1 are subject to the section 2801 tax (plus interest from the due date of the tax as if reported on a Form 708 that was timely filed as to Year 1).</P>
                                <P>(v) Although the foreign trust timely filed the Form 708 for Year 2 and timely paid the section 2801 tax shown on that return, and although the foreign trust's election had not yet been terminated and converted into an imperfect election during Year 2, the foreign trust nevertheless did not have a valid election for Year 2 because the trust did not timely pay the section 2801 tax on all covered gifts and covered bequests received in prior years as required in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, specifically, the tax on the additional $300,000 of value of the Year 1 transfer. However, under paragraph (d)(6)(iii)(D) of this section, because the foreign trust timely filed the Form 708 and paid the section 2801 tax on the Year 2 covered gift of $200,000, the $200,000 amount is no longer considered a covered gift for purposes of computing the section 2801 ratio after that contribution.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (6) 
                                    <E T="03">Example 6: Subsequent election after termination of election.</E>
                                     The facts are the same as in paragraph (e)(5) of this section (
                                    <E T="03">Example 5</E>
                                    ). In Year 3, the foreign trust does not receive a covered gift or covered bequest. However, the trustee decides that making another election to be treated as a domestic trust would be in the best interests of the trust's beneficiaries. Accordingly, by the due date for the Form 708 for Year 3, the trustee timely files the return and pays the section 2801 tax on the portion of the trust attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests. See paragraph (d)(5)(iii) of this section. The trustee calculates the portion of the trust attributable to covered gifts and covered bequests received by the trust in prior calendar years by multiplying the fair market value of the trust on December 31, Year 2, by the section 2801 ratio in effect on that date. See paragraph 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3408"/>
                                    (d)(3)(iii) of this section. The foreign trust is an electing foreign trust in Year 3.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (f) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies to covered gifts or covered bequests received on or after January 1, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.2801-6 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Special rules and cross-references.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Determination of basis.</E>
                                     For purposes of determining the U.S. recipient's basis in property received as a covered gift or covered bequest, see sections 1015 and 1014 of the Code, respectively. However, the basis adjustment provided in section 1015(d) does not apply to increase the basis in a covered gift to reflect the tax paid under this section.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Generation-skipping transfer tax.</E>
                                     Transfers made by a nonresident not a citizen of the United States (NRNC transferor) are subject to generation-skipping transfer (GST) tax only to the extent those transfers are subject to Federal estate or gift tax as described in § 26.2652-1(a)(2) of this chapter. In applying this rule, taxable distributions and taxable terminations are subject to the GST tax only to the extent the NRNC transferor's contributions to the trust, as defined in § 26.2652-1(b)(1) of this chapter, were subject to Federal estate or gift tax as described in § 26.2652-1(a)(2) of this chapter. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     § 26.2663-2 of this chapter. A transfer is subject to Federal estate or gift tax, regardless of whether a Federal estate or gift tax return reporting the transfer is timely filed and regardless of whether chapter 15 of the Code applies because of a covered expatriate's failure to timely file an estate or gift tax return.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Information returns</E>
                                    —(1) 
                                    <E T="03">Gifts and bequests.</E>
                                     Pursuant to section 6039F of the Code and any corresponding regulations and Form 3520, Part IV, each U.S. person who treats an amount received from a foreign person (other than through a foreign trust) as a gift or bequest (whether or not a covered gift or covered bequest) must report such gift or bequest on Part IV of Form 3520 if the value of the total of such gifts and bequests exceeds a certain threshold. For purposes of this provision, a U.S. person is as defined in section 7701(a)(30) of the Code and includes a U.S. resident within the meaning of section 7701(b)(1)(A) of the Code.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Foreign trust distributions.</E>
                                     Pursuant to section 6048(c) of the Code and the corresponding regulations, and to the extent provided in Notice 97-34 and Part III of Form 3520 and its Instructions, a U.S. person must report each distribution received during the taxable year from a foreign trust on Part III of Form 3520. Under section 6677(a) of the Code, a penalty of the greater of $10,000 or 35 percent of the gross value of the distribution may be imposed on a U.S. person who fails to timely report the distribution. For purposes of this provision, the term 
                                    <E T="03">U.S. person</E>
                                     is as defined in section 7701(a)(30) and includes both U.S. citizens and U.S. residents within the meaning of section 7701(b)(1)(A).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) 
                                    <E T="03">Penalties and use of information.</E>
                                     The filing of Form 706, Form 706-NA, Form 706-QDT, Form 708, Form 709, or Form 709-NA, or any successor form, does not relieve a U.S. citizen or resident who is required to file Form 3520 from any penalties imposed under section 6677(a) for failure to comply with section 6048(c), or from any penalties imposed under section 6039F(c) of the Code for failure to comply with section 6039F(a). Pursuant to section 6039F(c)(1)(A), the Secretary of the Treasury or her delegate may determine the tax consequences of the receipt of a purported foreign gift or bequest.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Application of penalties</E>
                                    —(1) 
                                    <E T="03">Accuracy-related penalties on underpayments.</E>
                                     The section 6662 accuracy-related penalty may be imposed upon any underpayment of tax attributable to—
                                </P>
                                <P>(i) A substantial valuation understatement under section 6662(g) of a covered gift or covered bequest; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) A gross valuation misstatement under section 6662(h) of a covered gift or covered bequest.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Penalty for substantial and gross valuation misstatements attributable to incorrect appraisals.</E>
                                     The section 6695A penalty for substantial and gross valuation misstatements attributable to incorrect appraisals may be imposed upon any person who prepares an appraisal of the value of a covered gift or covered bequest.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) 
                                    <E T="03">Penalty for failure to file a return and to pay tax.</E>
                                     See section 6651 for the application of a penalty for the failure to file Form 708, or the failure to pay the section 2801 tax.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (e) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies on and after January 14, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.2801-7</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Determining responsibility under section 2801.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Responsibility of U.S. citizens or residents receiving gifts or bequests from expatriates.</E>
                                     It is the responsibility of the taxpayer (in this case, the U.S. citizen or resident receiving a gift or bequest from an expatriate or a distribution from a foreign trust funded at least in part by an expatriate) to ascertain the taxpayer's obligations under section 2801 of the Code, which includes making the determination of whether the transferor is a covered expatriate and whether the transfer is a covered gift or covered bequest.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Disclosure of return and return information</E>
                                    —(1) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     In certain circumstances, the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) may be permitted, upon request of a U.S. citizen or resident in receipt of a gift or bequest from an expatriate, to disclose to the U.S. citizen or resident return or return information of the donor or decedent expatriate that may assist the U.S. citizen or resident in determining whether the donor or decedent was a covered expatriate and whether the transfer was a covered gift or covered bequest. 
                                    <E T="03">See</E>
                                     section 6103 of the Code. The U.S. citizen or resident may not rely upon this information, however, if the U.S. citizen or resident knows, or has reason to know, that the information received from the IRS is incorrect or incomplete. The circumstances under which such information may be disclosed to a U.S. citizen or resident, the process for authorizing disclosures, and the procedures for requesting such information from the IRS, will be as provided by publication in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (see § 601.601(d)(2)(ii)(
                                    <E T="03">b</E>
                                    ) of this chapter).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Rebuttable presumption.</E>
                                     Unless a living donor expatriate authorizes the disclosure of the donor expatriate's relevant return or return information to the U.S. citizen or resident receiving the gift, there is a rebuttable presumption that the donor is a covered expatriate and that the gift is a covered gift.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Protective return.</E>
                                     A taxpayer who reasonably concludes that a gift or bequest is not subject to section 2801 may file a protective Form 708 to start the period of limitations for the assessment of any section 2801 tax. See § 28.6011-1(b) that provides safe harbor procedures for filing a protective Form 708.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies on and after January 14, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.6001-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Records required to be kept.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     Every U.S. recipient (as defined in § 28.2801-2(e)) subject to taxation under chapter 15 of subtitle B must keep, for the purpose of determining the total amount of covered gifts and covered bequests, such permanent books of account or records as are necessary to establish the amount of that person's aggregate covered gifts and covered bequests, and the other information required to be shown on Form 708, 
                                    <E T="03">United States Return of Tax for Gifts and Bequests Received from Covered Expatriates,</E>
                                     or any successor form. All documents and vouchers used 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3409"/>
                                    in preparing Form 708 must be retained by the person required to file the return so as to be available for inspection so long as the contents thereof may become material in the administration of any internal revenue law.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Supplemental information.</E>
                                     The U.S. recipient, as defined in § 28.2801-2(e), must furnish such supplemental information as may be deemed necessary by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) to allow the IRS to determine the correct amount of tax. Therefore, the U.S. recipient must furnish, upon request, copies of all documents relating to the covered gift or covered bequest, appraisals of any items included in the aggregate amount of covered gifts and covered bequests, copies of balance sheets and other financial statements obtainable by that person relating to the value of stock or other property constituting the covered gift or covered bequest, and any other information obtainable by that person that may be necessary in the determination of the tax. See section 2801 of the Code and the corresponding regulations. For every policy of life insurance listed on the return, the U.S. recipient must procure a statement from the insurance company on Form 712, 
                                    <E T="03">Life Insurance Statement,</E>
                                     or any successor form, and file it with the IRS office where the return is filed. If specifically requested by the IRS, the insurance company must file this statement directly with the IRS.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies on and after January 14, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.6011-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Returns.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Return required.</E>
                                     The return of any section 2801 tax imposed by chapter 15 of subtitle B of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) must be made on Form 708, 
                                    <E T="03">United States Return of Tax for Gifts and Bequests Received from Covered Expatriates,</E>
                                     in accordance with the instructions applicable to the form (or on such other form as may be provided in future guidance or instructions). With respect to each covered gift and covered bequest received during the calendar year, the U.S. recipient as defined in § 28.2801-2(e) must include on Form 708 the information set forth in § 25.6019-4 of this chapter. The U.S. recipient must file Form 708 for each calendar year in which the U.S. recipient receives a covered gift or covered bequest. The U.S. recipient who receives the covered gift or covered bequest during the calendar year is the person required to file the return. A U.S. recipient is not required to file such form, however, for a calendar year in which the total fair market value of all covered gifts and covered bequests received by that person during that calendar year is less than or equal to the section 2801(c) amount (as defined in § 28.2801-2(l)).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Protective return safe harbor.</E>
                                     A U.S. citizen or resident (as defined in § 28.2801-2(b)) who receives a gift or bequest from an expatriate and reasonably concludes that the gift or bequest is not a covered gift or a covered bequest from a covered expatriate may file a protective Form 708 to start the running of the period of limitations for assessment of tax. Under the safe harbor procedure of this paragraph (b), a Form 708 will start the running of the period of limitations for assessment of tax if the return includes all of the information otherwise required on Form 708, along with an affidavit, signed under penalties of perjury, setting forth the information on which the U.S. citizen or resident has relied in concluding that the donor or decedent, as the case may be, was not a covered expatriate, or that the transfer was not a covered gift or a covered bequest, as well as that person's efforts to obtain other information that might be relevant to these determinations. For purposes of this safe harbor, if the U.S. citizen or resident has obtained, and is permitted to rely on, information from the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) (as described in § 28.2801-7(b)(1)), the U.S. citizen or resident must attach a copy of such information to the protective return. For purposes of this safe harbor, the U.S. citizen or resident also must attach a copy of a completed Part III of Form 3520, 
                                    <E T="03">Annual Return to Report Transactions With Foreign Trusts and Receipt of Certain Foreign Gifts,</E>
                                     for all trust distributions, or Part IV of Form 3520 for all gifts and bequests, if applicable.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies on and after January 14, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.6060-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Reporting requirements for tax return preparers.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     A person that employs one or more signing tax return preparers to prepare a return or claim for refund of section 2801 tax, other than for that person, at any time during a return period, must satisfy the recordkeeping and inspection requirements in the manner stated in § 1.6060-1 of this chapter.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies with regard to returns and claims for refund filed on or after January 14, 2025
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.6071-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Time for filing returns.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">In general</E>
                                    —(1) 
                                    <E T="03">Due Date.</E>
                                     A U.S. recipient, as defined in § 28.2801-2(e), must file Form 708, 
                                    <E T="03">United State.s Return of Tax for Gifts and Bequests Received from Covered Expatriates,</E>
                                     or any substitute or successor form specified in guidance or instructions, on or before the fifteenth day of the eighteenth calendar month following the close of the calendar year in which the covered gift or covered bequest was received. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, the due date for a Form 708 reporting a covered bequest that is not received on the decedent's date of death under § 28.2801-4(d)(3) is the later of—
                                </P>
                                <P>(i) The fifteenth day of the eighteenth calendar month following the close of the calendar year in which the covered expatriate died; or</P>
                                <P>(ii) The fifteenth day of the sixth month of the calendar year following the close of the calendar year in which the covered bequest was received.</P>
                                <P>(2) If a U.S. recipient receives multiple covered gifts and covered bequests during the same calendar year, the rule in paragraph (a)(1) of this section may result in different due dates and the filing of multiple returns reporting the different transfers received during the same calendar year.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Migrated foreign trust.</E>
                                     The due date for a Form 708 for the year in which a foreign trust becomes a domestic trust is the fifteenth day of the sixth month of the calendar year following the close of the calendar year in which the foreign trust becomes a domestic trust.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Certain returns by foreign trusts with election under § 28.2801-5(d) for calendar year in which no covered gift or covered bequest received.</E>
                                     A foreign trust making an election to be treated as a domestic trust for purposes of section 2801 under § 28.2801-5(d) (electing foreign trust) for a calendar year in which the foreign trust received no covered gifts or covered bequests must file a Form 708 on or before the fifteenth day of the sixth month of the calendar year following the close of the calendar year for which the election is made.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies to covered gifts or covered bequests received on or after January 1, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.6081-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Extension of time for filing returns reporting gifts and bequests from covered expatriates.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     A U.S. recipient as defined in § 28.2801-2(e) may request an extension of time to file a Form 708, 
                                    <E T="03">United States Return of Tax for Gifts and Bequests Received from Covered Expatriates,</E>
                                     by filing an appropriate form for extension as specified by guidance or instructions. A U.S. recipient must include on the form for extension an estimate of the amount of 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3410"/>
                                    section 2801 tax liability and must file the form for extension with the Internal Revenue Service in the manner designated in the instructions issued with respect to such form.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Automatic extension.</E>
                                     A U.S. recipient as defined in § 28.2801-2(e) will be allowed an automatic six-month extension of time beyond the date prescribed in § 28.6071-1 to file Form 708 if the form for extension is filed on or before the due date for filing Form 708 in accordance with the procedures under paragraph (a) of this section.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">No extension of time for the payment of tax.</E>
                                     An automatic extension of time for filing a return granted under paragraph (b) of this section will not extend the time for payment of any tax due with such return.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Penalties.</E>
                                     See section 6651 of the Code regarding penalties for failure to file the required tax return or failure to pay the amount shown as tax on the return.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (e) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies on and after January 14, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.6091-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Place for filing returns.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     A U.S. recipient, as defined in § 28.2801-2(e), must file Form 708, 
                                    <E T="03">United States Return of Tax for Gifts and Bequests Received from Covered Expatriates,</E>
                                     with the Internal Revenue Service in the manner prescribed by the instructions issued with respect to that form.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies on and after January 14, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.6101-1 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Period covered by returns.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>See § 28.6011-1 for the rules relating to the period covered by the return.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.6107-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Tax return preparer must furnish copy of return or claim for refund to taxpayer and must retain a copy or record.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     A person who is a signing tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of any section 2801 tax must furnish a completed copy of the return or claim for refund to the taxpayer and retain a completed copy or record in the manner stated in § 1.6107-1 of this chapter.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies to returns and claims for refund filed on or after January 14, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.6109-1 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Tax return preparers furnishing identifying numbers for returns or claims for refund.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     Each tax return or claim for refund of the section 2801 tax prepared by one or more signing tax return preparers must include the identifying number of the preparer required by § 1.6695-1(b) of this chapter to sign the return or claim for refund in the manner stated in § 1.6109-2 of this chapter.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies to returns and claims for refund filed on or after January 14, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.6151-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Time and place for paying tax shown on returns.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     The section 2801 tax shown on the return must be paid at the time prescribed in § 28.6071-1 for filing the return, and in the manner prescribed in § 28.6091-1 for filing the return.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies to covered gifts or covered bequests received on or after January 1, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.6694-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Section 6694 penalties applicable to return preparer.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     For general rules regarding penalties under section 6694 of the Code applicable to preparers of returns or claims for refund of the section 2801 tax, see § 1.6694-1 of this chapter.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies with regard to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, on or after January 14, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.6694-2 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Penalties for understatement due to an unreasonable position.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     A person who is a tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of any section 2801 tax is subject to penalties under section 6694(a) of the Code in the manner stated in § 1.6694-2 of this chapter.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, on or after January 14, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.6694-3</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Penalty for understatement due to willful, reckless, or intentional conduct.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     A person who is a tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of any section 2801 tax is subject to penalties under section 6694(b) of the Code in the manner stated in § 1.6694-3 of this chapter.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, on or after January 14, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.6694-4</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Extension of period of collection when tax return preparer pays 15 percent of a penalty for understatement of taxpayer's liability and certain other procedural matters.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     For rules relating to the extension of the period of collection when a tax return preparer who prepared a return or claim for refund of the section 2801 tax pays 15 percent of a penalty for understatement of taxpayer's liability, and for procedural matters relating to the investigation, assessment, and collection of the penalties under section 6694(a) and (b) of the Code, the rules under § 1.6694-4 of this chapter apply.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, on or after January 14, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.6695-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Other assessable penalties with respect to the preparation of tax returns for other persons.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     A person who is a tax return preparer of any return or claim for refund of any section 2801 tax is subject to penalties for failure to furnish a copy to the taxpayer under section 6695(a) of the Code, failure to sign the return under section 6695(b), failure to furnish an identification number under section 6695(c), failure to retain a copy or list under section 6695(d), failure to file a correct information return under section 6695(e), and negotiation of a check under section 6695(f), in the manner stated in § 1.6695-1 of this chapter.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies to returns and claims for refund filed on or after January 14, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.6696-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Claims for credit or refund by tax return preparers and appraisers.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     With respect to claims for credit or refund by a tax return preparer who prepared a return or clai for refund for any section 2801 tax, or by an appraiser that prepared an appraisal in connection with such a return or claim for refund under section 6695A of the Code, the rules under § 1.6696-1 of this chapter will apply.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies to returns and claims for refund filed, appraisals, and advice provided, on or after January 14, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 28.7701-1</SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT> Tax return preparer.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                     For the definition of the term 
                                    <E T="03">tax return preparer,</E>
                                     see § 301.7701-15 of this chapter.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                                     This section applies to returns and claims for refund filed, and advice provided, on or after January 14, 2025.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </PART>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <SIG>
                        <NAME>Douglas W. O'Donnell,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Deputy Commissioner.</TITLE>
                        <DATED>Approved: December 23, 2024.</DATED>
                        <NAME>Aviva R. Aron-Dine,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Treasury (Tax Policy).</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00284 Filed 1-10-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4830-01-P</BILCOD>
            </RULE>
        </RULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>8</NO>
    <DATE>Tuesday, January 14, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="3411"/>
            <PARTNO>Part IV</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P"> Department of the Interior</AGENCY>
            <SUBAGY> Fish and Wildlife Service</SUBAGY>
            <HRULE/>
            <CFR>50 CFR Part 17</CFR>
            <TITLE>Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Designation of Critical Habitat for Four Distinct Population Segments of the Foothill Yellow-Legged Frog; Proposed Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <PRORULES>
            <PRORULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3412"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE INTERIOR</AGENCY>
                    <SUBAGY>Fish and Wildlife Service</SUBAGY>
                    <CFR>50 CFR Part 17</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[Docket No. FWS-R8-ES-2023-0157; FXES1111090FEDR-256-FF09E21000]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 1018-BH11</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Endangered and Threatened Wildlife and Plants; Designation of Critical Habitat for Four Distinct Population Segments of the Foothill Yellow-Legged Frog</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Fish and Wildlife Service, Interior.</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Proposed rule.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>
                            We, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (Service), propose to designate critical habitat for four distinct population segments (DPSs) of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) under the Endangered Species Act of 1973, as amended (Act). In total, approximately 760,071 acres (307,590 hectares) in California fall within the boundaries of the proposed critical habitat designation. We also announce the availability of an economic analysis of the proposed designation of critical habitat for four DPSs.
                        </P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>
                            We will accept comments received or postmarked on or before March 17, 2025. Comments submitted electronically using the Federal eRulemaking Portal (see 
                            <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                            , below) must be received by 11:59 p.m. eastern time on the closing date. We must receive requests for a public hearing, in writing, at the address shown in 
                            <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                             by February 28, 2025.
                        </P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <ADD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                        <P>You may submit comments by one of the following methods:</P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Electronically:</E>
                             Go to the Federal eRulemaking Portal: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                             In the Search box, enter FWS-R8-ES-2023-0157, which is the docket number for this rulemaking. Then, click on the Search button. On the resulting page, in the panel on the left side of the screen, under the Document Type heading, check the Proposed Rule box to locate this document. You may submit a comment by clicking on “Comment.”
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">By hard copy:</E>
                             Submit by U.S. mail to: Public Comments Processing, Attn: FWS-R8-ES-2023-0157, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, MS: PRB/3W, 5275 Leesburg Pike, Falls Church, VA 22041-3803.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            We request that you send comments only by the methods described above. We will post all comments on 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                             This generally means that we will post any personal information you provide us (see Information Requested, below, for more information).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Availability of supporting materials:</E>
                             Supporting materials, such as the species status assessment report, are available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                             at Docket No. FWS-R8-ES-2023-0157. If we finalize the critical habitat designation, we will make the coordinates or plot points or both from which the maps are generated available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                             at Docket No. FWS-R8-ES-2023-0157.
                        </P>
                    </ADD>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>
                            Michael Fris, Field Supervisor, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, Sacramento Fish and Wildlife Office, 2800 Cottage Way, Sacramento, CA 95825; telephone 916-414-6700. Individuals in the United States who are deaf, deafblind, hard of hearing, or have a speech disability may dial 711 (TTY, TDD, or TeleBraille) to access telecommunications relay services. Individuals outside the United States should use the relay services offered within their country to make international calls to the point-of-contact in the United States. Please see Docket No. FWS-R8-ES-2023-0157 on 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                             for a document that summarizes this proposed rule.
                        </P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <P/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Executive Summary</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Why we need to publish a rule.</E>
                         Under the Act, any species that is determined to be an endangered or threatened species requires critical habitat to be designated, to the maximum extent prudent and determinable. Designations and revisions of critical habitat can be completed only by issuing a rule through the Administrative Procedure Act rulemaking process (5 U.S.C. 551 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">What this document does.</E>
                         We propose the designation of critical habitat for four DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog, which are listed as endangered or threatened (see 88 FR 59698; August 29, 2023).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">The basis for our action.</E>
                         Section 4(a)(3) of the Act requires the Secretary of the Interior (Secretary), to the maximum extent prudent and determinable, to designate critical habitat concurrent with listing. Section 3(5)(A) of the Act defines critical habitat as (i) the specific areas within the geographical area occupied by the species, at the time it is listed, on which are found those physical or biological features (I) essential to the conservation of the species and (II) which may require special management considerations or protections; and (ii) specific areas outside the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it is listed, upon a determination by the Secretary that such areas are essential for the conservation of the species. Section 4(b)(2) of the Act states that the Secretary must make the designation on the basis of the best scientific data available and after taking into consideration the economic impact, the impact on national security, and any other relevant impacts of specifying any particular area as critical habitat.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Information Requested</HD>
                    <P>We intend that any final action resulting from this proposed rule will be based on the best scientific and commercial data available and be as accurate and as effective as possible. Therefore, we request comments or information from other governmental agencies, Native American Tribes, the scientific community, industry, or any other interested parties concerning this proposed rule. We particularly seek comments concerning:</P>
                    <P>(1) Specific information on:</P>
                    <P>(a) Biological or ecological requirements of the species, including habitat requirements for life-history functions including but not limited to feeding, breeding, and sheltering;</P>
                    <P>(b) The amount and distribution of the four DPSs' habitat;</P>
                    <P>(c) Any additional areas occurring within the range of the four DPSs in California that should be included in the designation because they (i) are occupied at the time of listing and contain the physical or biological features that are essential to the conservation of the four DPSs and that may require special management considerations or protection, or (ii) are unoccupied at the time of listing and are essential for the conservation of the four DPSs;</P>
                    <P>(d) Special management considerations or protection that may be needed in critical habitat areas we are proposing, including managing for the potential effects of climate change; and</P>
                    <P>
                        (e) Whether occupied areas are adequate for the conservation of the four DPSs, as this will help us evaluate the potential to include areas not occupied at the time of listing. Additionally, please provide specific information regarding whether or not unoccupied areas would, with reasonable certainty, contribute to the conservation of the four DPSs and contain at least one physical or biological feature essential to the conservation of the DPSs. We also seek comments or information regarding whether areas not occupied at the time 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3413"/>
                        of listing qualify as habitat for the four DPSs.
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) Land use designations and current or planned activities in the subject areas and their possible impacts on proposed critical habitat.</P>
                    <P>(3) Any probable economic, national security, or other relevant impacts of designating any area that may be included in the final designation, and the related benefits of including or excluding specific areas.</P>
                    <P>(4) Information on the extent to which the description of probable economic impacts in the draft economic analysis is a reasonable estimate of the likely economic impacts and any additional information regarding probable economic impacts that we should consider.</P>
                    <P>(5) Ongoing conservation measures being implemented by landowners or land managers to conserve the four DPSs' habitat.</P>
                    <P>
                        (6) Whether any specific areas we are proposing for critical habitat designation should be considered for exclusion under section 4(b)(2) of the Act, and whether the benefits of potentially excluding any specific area outweigh the benefits of including that area under section 4(b)(2) of the Act, in particular for those areas associated with the joint Federal and State permitted Santa Clara Valley Habitat Conservation Plan/Natural Communities Conservation Plan (HCP/NCCP) that can be obtained from the Sacramento Fish and Wildlife Office (see 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         above). If you think we should exclude any additional areas, please provide information supporting a benefit of exclusion.
                    </P>
                    <P>(7) Whether we could improve or modify our approach to designating critical habitat in any way to provide for greater public participation and understanding, or to better accommodate public concerns and comments.</P>
                    <P>Please include sufficient information with your submission (such as scientific journal articles or other publications) to allow us to verify any scientific or commercial information you include.</P>
                    <P>Please note that submissions merely stating support for, or opposition to, the action under consideration without providing supporting information, although noted, do not provide substantial information necessary to support a determination. Section 4(b)(2) of the Act directs that the Secretary shall designate critical habitat on the basis of the best scientific data available.</P>
                    <P>
                        You may submit your comments and materials concerning this proposed rule by one of the methods listed in 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                        . We request that you send comments only by the methods described in 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        If you submit information via 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov,</E>
                         your entire submission—including any personal identifying information—will be posted on the website. If your submission is made via a hardcopy that includes personal identifying information, you may request at the top of your document that we withhold this information from public review. However, we cannot guarantee that we will be able to do so. We will post all hardcopy submissions on 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Comments and materials we receive, as well as supporting documentation we used in preparing this proposed rule, will be available for public inspection on 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <P>Our final determination may differ from this proposal because we will consider all comments we receive during the comment period as well as any information that may become available after this proposal. Based on the new information we receive (and, if relevant, any comments on that new information), our final designation may not include all areas proposed, may include some additional areas that meet the definition of critical habitat, or may exclude some areas if we find the benefits of exclusion outweigh the benefits of inclusion and exclusion will not result in the extinction of the species. In our final rule, we will clearly explain our rationale and the basis for our final decision, including why we made changes, if any, that differ from this proposal.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Public Hearing</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 4(b)(5) of the Act provides for a public hearing on this proposal, if requested. Requests must be received by the date specified in 
                        <E T="02">DATES</E>
                        . Such requests must be sent to the address shown in 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                        . We will schedule a public hearing on this proposal, if requested, and announce the date, time, and place of the hearing, as well as how to obtain reasonable accommodations, in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         and local newspapers at least 15 days before the hearing. We may hold the public hearing in person or virtually via webinar. We will announce any public hearing on our website, in addition to the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . The use of virtual public hearings is consistent with our regulations at 50 CFR 424.16(c)(3).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Previous Federal Actions</HD>
                    <P>
                        On July 11, 2012, we received a petition from the Center for Biological Diversity to list 53 species of reptiles and amphibians, including the foothill yellow-legged frog, as endangered or threatened under the Act. On July 1, 2015, we published our 90-day finding in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         (80 FR 37568) that found that listing the foothill yellow-legged frog may be warranted. On December 28, 2021, we published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         (86 FR 73914) a combined 12-month finding and proposed rule to list the North Feather and Central Coast DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog as threatened and the South Sierra and South Coast DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog as endangered under the Act. On August 29, 2023, we published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         (88 FR 59698) the final rule to list the North Feather and Central Coast DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog as threatened and the South Sierra and South Coast DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog as endangered under the Act. The proposed and final rules listing the North Feather and Central Coast DPSs included a rule issued under section 4(d) of the Act (“a 4(d) rule”) for each of these two DPSs.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Peer Review</HD>
                    <P>A species status assessment (SSA) team prepared an SSA report for the foothill yellow-legged frog (Service 2023b, entire). The SSA team was composed of Service biologists, in consultation with other species experts. The SSA report represents a compilation of the best scientific and commercial data available concerning the status of the species, including the impacts of past, present, and future factors (both negative and beneficial) affecting the species. The SSA report also contains a compilation of the most current habitat needs and requirements for the species and forms the basis for our determination of critical habitat for the four DPSs.</P>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with our joint policy on peer review published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on July 1, 1994 (59 FR 34270), and our August 22, 2016, memorandum updating and clarifying the role of peer review in listing actions under the Act, we solicited independent scientific review of the information contained in the foothill yellow-legged frog's SSA report. We received peer review from three appropriate specialists regarding the SSA report. Results of this structured peer review process can be found at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         at Docket No. FWS-R8-ES-2023-0157. In preparing this proposed critical habitat rule, we incorporated the results of these reviews, as appropriate, into the SSA report, which is the foundation for this proposed rule.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3414"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Peer Reviewer Comments</HD>
                    <P>As discussed in Peer Review above, we received comments from three peer reviewers on the draft SSA report. We reviewed all comments we received from the peer reviewers for substantive issues and new information regarding the contents of the SSA report. The peer reviewers generally concurred with our information, methods, and conclusions, and they provided additional information, clarifications, and suggestions to improve the SSA report, including information related to the habitat needs of the foothill yellow-legged frog.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Critical Habitat</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Framework</HD>
                    <P>Section 4 of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1533) and the implementing regulations in title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations set forth the procedures for determining whether a species is an endangered species or a threatened species, issuing protective regulations for threatened species, and designating critical habitat for endangered and threatened species.</P>
                    <P>Section 4(a)(3) of the Act requires that, to the maximum extent prudent and determinable, we designate a species' critical habitat concurrently with listing the species. Critical habitat is defined in section 3(5)(A) of the Act as:</P>
                    <P>(1) The specific areas within the geographical area occupied by the species, at the time it is listed in accordance with the Act, on which are found those physical or biological features</P>
                    <P>(a) Essential to the conservation of the species, and</P>
                    <P>(b) Which may require special management considerations or protection; and</P>
                    <P>(2) Specific areas outside the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it is listed, upon a determination that such areas are essential for the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <P>
                        Our regulations at 50 CFR 424.02 define the geographical area occupied by the species as an area that may generally be delineated around species' occurrences, as determined by the Secretary (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         range). Such areas may include those areas used throughout all or part of the species' life cycle, even if not used on a regular basis (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         migratory corridors, seasonal habitats, and habitats used periodically, but not solely, by vagrant individuals).
                    </P>
                    <P>Conservation, as defined under section 3 of the Act, means to use and the use of all methods and procedures that are necessary to bring an endangered or threatened species to the point at which the measures provided pursuant to the Act are no longer necessary. Such methods and procedures include, but are not limited to, all activities associated with scientific resources management such as research, census, law enforcement, habitat acquisition and maintenance, propagation, live trapping, and transplantation, and, in the extraordinary case where population pressures within a given ecosystem cannot be otherwise relieved, may include regulated taking.</P>
                    <P>Critical habitat receives protection under section 7 of the Act through the requirement that each Federal action agency ensures, in consultation with the Service, that any action they authorize, fund, or carry out is not likely to result in the destruction or adverse modification of designated critical habitat. The designation of critical habitat does not affect land ownership or establish a refuge, wilderness, reserve, preserve, or other conservation area. Such designation also does not allow the government or public to access private lands. Such designation does not require implementation of restoration, recovery, or enhancement measures by non-Federal landowners. Rather, designation requires that, where a landowner requests Federal agency funding or authorization for an action that may affect an area designated as critical habitat, the Federal agency consult with the Service under section 7(a)(2) of the Act. If the action may affect the listed species itself (such as for occupied critical habitat), the Federal agency would have already been required to consult with the Service even absent the designation because of the requirement to ensure that the action is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of the species. Even if the Service were to conclude after consultation that the proposed activity is likely to result in destruction or adverse modification of the critical habitat, the Federal action agency and the landowner are not required to abandon the proposed activity, or to restore or recover the species; instead, they must implement “reasonable and prudent alternatives” to avoid destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat.</P>
                    <P>Under the first prong of the Act's definition of critical habitat, areas within the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it was listed are included in a critical habitat designation if they contain physical or biological features (1) which are essential to the conservation of the species and (2) which may require special management considerations or protection. For these areas, critical habitat designations identify, to the extent known using the best scientific data available, those physical or biological features that are essential to the conservation of the species (such as space, food, cover, and protected habitat).</P>
                    <P>Under the second prong of the Act's definition of critical habitat, we can designate critical habitat in areas outside the geographical area occupied by the species at the time it is listed, upon a determination that such areas are essential for the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 4 of the Act requires that we designate critical habitat on the basis of the best scientific data available. Further, our Policy on Information Standards Under the Endangered Species Act (published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on July 1, 1994 (59 FR 34271)), the Information Quality Act (section 515 of the Treasury and General Government Appropriations Act for Fiscal Year 2001 (Pub. L. 106-554; H.R. 5658)), and our associated Information Quality Guidelines provide criteria, establish procedures, and provide guidance to ensure that our decisions are based on the best scientific data available. They require our biologists, to the extent consistent with the Act and with the use of the best scientific data available, to use primary and original sources of information as the basis for recommendations to designate critical habitat.
                    </P>
                    <P>When we are determining which areas should be designated as critical habitat, our primary source of information is generally the information from the SSA report and information developed during the listing process for the species. Additional information sources may include any generalized conservation strategy, criteria, or outline that may have been developed for the species; the recovery plan for the species; articles in peer-reviewed journals; conservation plans developed by States and counties; scientific status surveys and studies; biological assessments; other unpublished materials; or experts' opinions or personal knowledge.</P>
                    <P>
                        Habitat is dynamic, and species may move from one area to another over time. We recognize that critical habitat designated at a particular point in time may not include all of the habitat areas that we may later determine are necessary for the recovery of the species. For these reasons, a critical habitat designation does not signal that 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3415"/>
                        habitat outside the designated area is unimportant or may not be needed for recovery of the species. Areas that are important to the conservation of the species, both inside and outside the critical habitat designation, will continue to be subject to: (1) Conservation actions implemented under section 7(a)(1) of the Act; (2) regulatory protections afforded by the requirement in section 7(a)(2) of the Act for Federal agencies to ensure their actions are not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered or threatened species; and (3) the prohibitions found in section 9 of the Act for endangered species or the 4(d) rule for threatened species. Federally funded or permitted projects affecting listed species outside their designated critical habitat areas may still result in jeopardy findings in some cases. These protections and conservation tools will continue to contribute to recovery of the species. Similarly, critical habitat designations made on the basis of the best available information at the time of designation will not control the direction and substance of future recovery plans, habitat conservation plans (HCPs), or other species conservation planning efforts if new information available at the time of those planning efforts calls for a different outcome.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Physical or Biological Features Essential to the Conservation of the Species</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with section 3(5)(A)(i) of the Act and regulations at 50 CFR 424.12(b), in determining which areas we will designate as critical habitat from within the geographical area occupied by the species at the time of listing, we consider the physical or biological features that are essential to the conservation of the species, and which may require special management considerations or protection. The regulations at 50 CFR 424.02 define “physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species” as the features that occur in specific areas and that are essential to support the life-history needs of the species, including, but not limited to, water characteristics, soil type, geological features, sites, prey, vegetation, symbiotic species, or other features. A feature may be a single habitat characteristic or a more complex combination of habitat characteristics. Features may include habitat characteristics that support ephemeral or dynamic habitat conditions.</P>
                    <P>Features may also be expressed in terms relating to principles of conservation biology, such as patch size, distribution distances, and connectivity. For example, physical features essential to the conservation of the species might include gravel of a particular size required for spawning, alkaline soil for seed germination, protective cover for migration, or susceptibility to flooding or fire that maintains necessary early-successional habitat characteristics. Biological features might include prey species, forage grasses, specific kinds or ages of trees for roosting or nesting, symbiotic fungi, or absence of a particular level of nonnative species consistent with conservation needs of the listed species. The features may also be combinations of habitat characteristics and may encompass the relationship between characteristics or the necessary amount of a characteristic essential to support the life history of the species.</P>
                    <P>In considering whether features are essential to the conservation of the species, we may consider an appropriate quality, quantity, and spatial and temporal arrangement of habitat characteristics in the context of the life-history needs, condition, and status of the species. These characteristics include, but are not limited to, space for individual and population growth and for normal behavior; food, water, air, light, minerals, or other nutritional or physiological requirements; cover or shelter; sites for breeding, reproduction, or rearing (or development) of offspring; and habitats that are protected from disturbance.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Foothill Yellow-Legged Frog Description, Distribution, and Habitat Requirements</HD>
                    <P>Below is a summary of the distribution and habitat requirements of the foothill yellow-legged frog. For a more thorough discussion of this information as well as information on the ecology and life history of the species, please see the SSA report (Service 2023b, chapter 2, pp. 15-34, and chapter 4, pp. 52-66).</P>
                    <P>The foothill yellow-legged frog is a small- to medium-sized stream-dwelling frog approximately 1.5 to 3.2 inches (in.) (37 to 82 millimeters (mm)) in length. Colorization is highly variable but is usually light and dark mottled gray, olive, or brown, with variable amounts of brick red. The undersurfaces of the lower abdomen and inside surfaces of the rear legs are varying shades of yellow. The range of the four DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog is entirely in California and includes areas within the North Feather River watershed (North Feather DPS), areas in the Sierra Nevada Mountains south of Placer County to Kern County (South Sierra DPS), areas in the California Coast Range from Contra Costa to western Fresno County (Central Coast DPS), and areas of western Monterey County to northern Los Angeles County (South Coast DPS) (see figure below).</P>
                    <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="448">
                        <PRTPAGE P="3416"/>
                        <GID>EP14JA25.003</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <P>
                        Foothill yellow-legged frogs are obligate stream-dwelling frogs (Wheeler and Welsh 2008, p. 128) that use aquatic habitat for feeding, reproduction, and development and terrestrial habitat near streams for foraging, overwintering, and dispersal. The species occurs in lower elevation streams from sea level to approximately 5,000 feet (ft) (1,524 meters (m)) but have been documented at higher elevations. The species uses small tributaries to larger mainstem streams (first- through eighth-order streams as identified by the Strahler method (Strahler 1957, p. 914)) that are either primarily rain-fed (coastal DPSs) to primarily snow-influenced (most Sierra Nevada DPSs) (Olson and Davis 2009, p. 12; Wheeler et al. 2015, pp. 1276-1277; California Department of Fish and Wildlife (CDFW) 2019, p. 16). The streams and surrounding terrestrial habitat of the foothill yellow-legged frog occurs in a wide variety of vegetation types including valley-foothill hardwood, valley-foothill hardwood-conifer, valley-foothill riparian, ponderosa pine, mixed conifer, mixed chaparral, and wet meadows (Hayes et al. 2016, p. 5). While habitat conditions can be vastly different among the stream habitat and across the species' geographic range, only a narrow range of abiotic conditions are tolerated by early life stages (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         eggs, tadpoles, and metamorphs) (Kupferberg 1996, pp. 1336-1342; Bondi et al. 2013, p. 101; Lind et al. 2016, p. 263; Catenazzi and Kupferberg 2018, pp. 1044-1045). The abiotic conditions that directly influence the success of early life stages are those associated with stream velocity, water depth, water temperature, and streambed substrate. Because foothill yellow-legged frogs are a wide-ranging species and habitat conditions are also highly variable depending on factors such as surrounding vegetation cover, stream depth, stream geomorphology, slope, and substrate composition, the exact conditions for stream velocity, depth, and temperature needed by the species for early life stages across its range for successful reproduction are also variable. Because each population is limited to its present ecological conditions, it is difficult to determine specific thresholds for these parameters across the range of the species.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In general, foothill yellow-legged frog breeding takes place between late March and early July (Zweifel 1955, p. 228; 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3417"/>
                        Yarnell et al. 2013, pp. 64, 67, table 14). Most foothill yellow-legged frogs breed along mainstem water channels and overwinter along smaller tributaries near the mainstem channel (Kupferberg 1996, p. 1339; GANDA 2008, p. 20). Foothill yellow-legged frogs that overwinter along tributaries often congregate at the same breeding locations along the mainstem each year (Kupferberg 1996, p. 1334; Wheeler and Welsh 2008, p. 128).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Stream morphology is a strong predictor of breeding habitat because it creates the microhabitat conditions required for successful oviposition (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         egg-laying), hatching, growth, and metamorphosis. Stream velocity, water depth, water temperature, and streambed substrate are most suitable for foothill yellow-legged frog oviposition and rearing in streams that exemplify the natural hydrological pattern that is characterized by strong winter flows in mainstem channels, followed by gradually decreasing flows during the spring into the summer (Kupferberg et al. 2009, p. 3; Power et al. 2016, pp. 714, 716, 719, figure 33.2). Increased or strong winter flows can maintain or increase foothill yellow-legged frog habitat by widening and diversifying channel morphology, improving rocky substrate conditions (by removing sediments), and increasing sunlight (by removing encroaching vegetation) (Lind et al. 1996, pp. 64-65; Lind et al. 2016, p. 269; Power et al. 2016, p. 719). The transition from the wet season to the dry season is characterized by a gradually decreasing stream flow called the spring recession flow, decreasing water velocity, and increasing water temperature (Kupferberg et al. 2012, p. 520; Power et al. 2016, pp. 714, 716, figure 33.2). Foothill yellow-legged frogs require a hydroperiod (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         period of time during which an area is saturated with or full of water) that is sufficient for successful breeding and survival through dry periods. The timeframe and duration of the hydroperiod required varies by year and by region because of regional differences in timing of hydrological breeding cues (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         water flows, temperature, spring recession flows), intrinsic tadpole growth rates (Catenazzi and Kupferberg 2017, pp. 1261-1262, figure 4), and ambient conditions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         temperature) that influence early life stage development. Foothill yellow-legged frogs are most likely cued in to these gradually reducing flows and increases in stream temperatures for reproduction (Kupferberg 1996, p. 1332; Wheeler and Welsh 2008, p. 134; Gonsolin 2010, p. 32; Van Hattem et al. 2021, pp. 206-207).
                    </P>
                    <P>The foothill yellow-legged frog spends much of the year outside of breeding areas, so it is extremely important that nonbreeding habitat meet their feeding, sheltering, and thermoregulatory needs by providing sources of invertebrate prey and intermittent canopy, thermally stable microsites, and moist, interstitial spaces (van Wagner 1996, p. 101; Rombough 2006, p. 159). During the nonbreeding season, the smaller tributaries, some of which may flow only during the wet winter season, provide refuge while the larger breeding channels may experience overbank flooding and high flows (Kupferberg 1996, p. 1339). Habitat elements outside the mainstem streams that provide both refuge from winter peak flows and adequate moisture for foothill yellow-legged frogs include pools, springs, seeps, submerged root wads, undercut banks, and large boulders or debris at or above high-water lines (van Wagner 1996, pp. 74-75, 111; Rombough 2006, p. 159).</P>
                    <P>
                        Food resources are variable by life stage with tadpoles consuming algae, diatoms, and detritus that are scraped from submerged rocks and vegetation (Ashton et al. 1997, p. 7; Fellers 2005, p. 535). Metamorphs, juveniles, and adults feed upon a wide range of aquatic and terrestrial invertebrates including snails, moths, flies, water striders, beetles, grasshoppers, hornets, arthropods, and ants, as well as vertebrates such as small fish and small frogs (Zweifel 1955, p. 223; Nussbaum et al. 1983, p. 165). Food resources have been found to be primarily terrestrial (88 percent) as opposed to aquatic (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         captured on or under water) (van Wagner 1996, pp. 88-89, 94, figure 38).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Summary of Essential Physical or Biological Features</HD>
                    <P>We derive the specific physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the foothill yellow-legged frog from studies of the species' habitat, ecology, and life history as described above. Additional information can be found in the SSA report (Service 2023b, pp. 23-34, 52-66). We have determined that the following physical or biological features are essential to the conservation of the four DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog:</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Aquatic Stream Habitat</HD>
                    <P>(a) Stream reaches with a hydrological pattern (including appropriate stream velocity, water depth, water temperature, streambed substrate, and geomorphic heterogeneity) capable of supporting foothill yellow-legged frog breeding and rearing. Suitable stream reaches typically contain a wide and shallow channel morphology, an intermittent canopy, and rocky substrate that is cobble-sized or larger. These features provide habitat for breeding, feeding, and reproduction and in some cases general aquatic or overwintering habitat for the foothill yellow-legged frog.</P>
                    <P>(b) Tributary (nonbreeding) habitat adjacent to and accessible from breeding and rearing habitat. Suitable tributary habitats typically contain sources of invertebrate prey, intermittent canopy, thermally stable microsites, and moist overwintering refugia protected from scouring winter flows. These refugia may include springs, seeps, pools, woody debris, root wads, undercut banks, clumps of sedges, and rocks.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Terrestrial and Dispersal Habitat</HD>
                    <P>(a) Upland habitat adjacent to and accessible from breeding, rearing, and tributary habitat as identified in 1(a) and (b) above. Suitable upland habitats typically contain sources of invertebrate prey, intermittent canopy, thermally stable microsites, and moist overwintering refugia. These refugia may include nonstream pools, woody debris, root wads, clumps of sedges, and large boulders or debris.</P>
                    <P>
                        (b) Dispersal habitat comprising permanent or ephemeral water channels and adjacent uplands that connect breeding and overwintering habitat sites. Suitable dispersal habitat does not need to hold moisture for extended periods. Suitable dispersal habitat typically connects areas containing intermittent canopy, interstitial spaces for sheltering, and sources of invertebrate prey. Additionally, suitable dispersal habitat is free from large physical barriers, hydrological barriers (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         dams, reservoirs, and rivers with highly altered flow regimes), and areas with high exposure to predators.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Management Considerations or Protection</HD>
                    <P>
                        When designating critical habitat, we assess whether the specific areas within the geographical area occupied by the species at the time of listing contain features that are essential to the conservation of the species and which may require special management considerations or protection. The features essential to the conservation of the four DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog that may require special management considerations or protection to reduce the following direct or indirect threats to habitat are: (1) altered hydrology and stream flow; (2) nonnative species predation and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3418"/>
                        competition; (3) disease; (4) wildfire (upland habitat disturbance and sedimentation); (5) effects of climate change (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         increased temperatures); and (6) anthropogenic activities (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         agriculture (land conversion), urbanization, road construction, and recreation).
                    </P>
                    <P>Special management considerations or protection that may be required within critical habitat areas to address these threats include (but are not limited to) the following: implement best management practices (BMPs) for protecting, maintaining, and enhancing stream flows or managing stream flows to mimic natural hydrologic conditions; maintaining adequate habitat connectivity between occupied areas or upland and aquatic habitat; avoiding alteration of stream features and associated upland habitats; protecting and restoring riparian vegetation along streams; implementing practices to reduce sedimentation, erosion, and streambank degradation; reducing other watershed, riparian, and floodplain disturbances that release sediments, pollutants, or nutrients into the water; and improving industrial and municipal water treatment facilities and sewage systems to reduce nutrient and pathogen pollution.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Criteria Used To Identify Critical Habitat</HD>
                    <P>As required by section 4(b)(2) of the Act, we use the best scientific data available to designate critical habitat. In accordance with the Act and our implementing regulations at 50 CFR 424.12(b), we review available information pertaining to the habitat requirements of the species and identify specific areas within the geographical area occupied by the species at the time of listing and any specific areas outside the geographical area occupied by the species to be considered for designation as critical habitat. We are not currently proposing to designate any areas outside the geographical area occupied by the species because we have not identified any unoccupied areas that meet the definition of critical habitat.</P>
                    <P>In identifying areas of critical habitat for each of the four DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog, we developed a conservation strategy to assist in delineating the specific areas on which are found those physical or biological features essential for the conservation of the foothill yellow-legged frog. In our analysis for determining areas as critical habitat, we focused on those areas that have well-established populations throughout each of the four DPS's ranges. These areas would provide individuals for other local populations and assist in maintaining the redundancy, representation, and resiliency of the foothill yellow-legged frog throughout the range of each DPS. Additional aspects of our conservation strategy include: (1) conserving and maintaining a sufficient amount of high-quality breeding and rearing habitat with appropriate physical and hydrological characteristics to provide for recruitment over the long term; (2) conserving and maintaining sufficient high-quality upland and tributary habitat to provide for juvenile and adult overwintering survival to allow for maintenance of breeding populations over the long term; and (3) retaining or providing areas for connectivity between high-quality breeding and rearing habitat for genetic exchange and recolonization within metapopulations. Without appropriate well-established areas for breeding, rearing, and upland use, the foothill yellow-legged frog within each of the four DPSs would not be able to sustain populations in the wild.</P>
                    <P>To implement the above strategy and identify the areas within the geographical area occupied by the species at the time of listing, we delineated critical habitat unit boundaries using the following criteria and processes: (1) we determined local populations by using breeding occurrence information from recent occurrence and modeling data; (2) we identified the upland and dispersal extent within 2 km (1.2 mi) of high-quality breeding and rearing habitat that had well-established breeding populations; and (3) we evaluated boundaries of units and included areas with appropriate in-stream and upland habitat characteristics and removed nonhabitat features as allowed by the available data.</P>
                    <P>Our identification of these areas using this rule set will allow for opportunities to monitor occupancy and abundance of existing populations and survey areas within and around each DPS's historical range to determine where potential population enhancement, reintroductions, threat management, or other actions may be necessary.</P>
                    <P>In our analysis of identifying areas as critical habitat, we determined the extent and distribution of areas being considered are sufficient to conserve each of the four DPSs. Although smaller populations, populations in less desirable habitat, and unoccupied areas occur within each of the four DPS's ranges, these areas have limited conservation value to each DPS overall and do not meet our rule set for consideration as critical habitat. As a result, we have not included these less desirable occupied or unoccupied areas in our proposed designation.</P>
                    <P>When determining proposed critical habitat boundaries, we made every effort to avoid including developed areas such as lands covered by buildings, pavement, and other structures because such lands lack physical or biological features necessary for the four DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog. The scale of the maps we prepared under the parameters for publication within the Code of Federal Regulations may not reflect the exclusion of such developed lands. Any such lands inadvertently left inside critical habitat boundaries shown on the maps of this proposed rule have been excluded by text in the proposed rule and are not proposed for designation as critical habitat. Therefore, if the critical habitat is finalized as proposed, a Federal action involving these lands (and not affecting the designated critical habitat) would not trigger section 7 consultation with respect to critical habitat and the requirement of no adverse modification unless the specific action would affect the physical or biological features in the adjacent critical habitat.</P>
                    <P>
                        We propose to designate as critical habitat lands that we have determined are occupied at the time of listing (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         currently occupied) and that contain one or more of the physical or biological features that are essential to support life-history processes of the four DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog.
                    </P>
                    <P>We have identified 4 units for the North Feather DPS; 14 units with 4 subunits for the South Sierra DPS; 8 units with 7 subunits for the Central Coast DPS; and 1 unit for the South Coast DPS as proposed critical habitat based on one or more of the physical or biological features being present to support each of the four DPS's life-history processes. Some units contain all of the identified physical or biological features and support multiple life-history processes. Some units contain only some of the physical or biological features necessary to support each respective DPS's particular use of that habitat.</P>
                    <P>The proposed critical habitat designation is defined by the map or maps, as modified by any accompanying regulatory text, presented at the end of this document under Proposed Regulation Promulgation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Critical Habitat Designation</HD>
                    <P>
                        We are proposing a total of 27 units as critical habitat for the foothill yellow-legged frog within the range of the four DPSs totaling approximately 760,071 ac (307,590 ha). The critical habitat areas 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3419"/>
                        we describe below constitute our current best assessment of areas that meet the definition of critical habitat for the foothill yellow-legged frog. The areas we propose as critical habitat are identified below. All units and subunits are currently occupied by each respective DPS. Table 1 shows the total area of proposed critical habitat by general land ownership for each of the four specific DPSs.
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,16,r50,12">
                        <TTITLE>Table 1—Critical Habitat Units for the Four DPSs of the Foothill Yellow-Legged Frog</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[Area estimates reflect all land within critical habitat unit boundaries]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Unit No./name</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Area in acres
                                <LI>(hectares)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Land ownership</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                * Impacts to physical or
                                <LI>biological</LI>
                                <LI>features</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">North Feather DPS</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Unit NF-1. North Fork Feather River</ENT>
                            <ENT>30,116 (12,188)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>383 (155)</ENT>
                            <ENT>State</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>68,934 (27,897)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit NF-2. Middle Fork Feather River</ENT>
                            <ENT>69,251 (28,025)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>447 (181)</ENT>
                            <ENT>State</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>7,446 (3,013)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit NF-3. South Fork Feather River</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,645 (1,880)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>6,541 (2,647)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit NF-4. Clear Creek</ENT>
                            <ENT>32 (13)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>4,480 (1,813)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>192,275 (77,811)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">South Sierra DPS</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Unit SS-1. Rock Creek</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,630 (1,064)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>1,718 (695)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit SS-2. Chili Bar Reservoir</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,245 (504)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>3,732 (1,510)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit SS-3. South Fork American River-Camp Creek</ENT>
                            <ENT>30,894 (12,502)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>11,214 (4,538)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit SS-4. North Fork Mokelumne River</ENT>
                            <ENT>16,174 (6,546)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>18,577 (7,518)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit SS-5. Else Creek</ENT>
                            <ENT>324 (131)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>219 (89)</ENT>
                            <ENT>State</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>4,114 (1,665)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit SS-6. Jesus Maria Creek</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,606 (650)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>2,476 (1,002)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit SS-7 Subunit a. Stanislaus Confluence</ENT>
                            <ENT>37,548 (15,195)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>2,720 (1,101)</ENT>
                            <ENT>State</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>15,564 (6,299)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit SS-7 Subunit b. Moaning Cave</ENT>
                            <ENT>587 (238)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>3,037 (1,229)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit SS-8. North Fork and Middle Tuolumne River</ENT>
                            <ENT>64,360 (26,046)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>13,791 (5,581)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit SS-9. Moccasin Creek</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,509 (1,825)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>3,770 (1,526)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit SS-10 Subunit a. North Fork Merced River</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,467 (4,236)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>5,024 (2,033)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit SS-10 Subunit b. Bull Creek</ENT>
                            <ENT>11,087 (4,487)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>992 (402)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit SS-11. Merced River and Sherlock Creek</ENT>
                            <ENT>13,267 (5,369)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>3,451 (1,397)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit SS-12. Jose Creek</ENT>
                            <ENT>9,204 (3,725)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>30 (12)</ENT>
                            <ENT>State</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>948 (384)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit SS-13. North Fork Tule River</ENT>
                            <ENT>217 (88)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>4,932 (1,996)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit SS-14. Kern River</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,327 (2,965)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>17 (7)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>307,772 (124,485)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Central Coast DPS</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Unit CC-1 Subunit a. Corral Hollow Creek</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,483 (1,814)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 3, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit CC-1 Subunit b. Lower Arroyo Mocho</ENT>
                            <ENT>6 (3)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Local</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 3, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>7,564 (3,061)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit CC-1 Subunit c. Upper Arroyo Mocho</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,541 (1,838)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 3, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit CC-1 Subunit d. Colorado Creek</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,698 (1,901)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 3, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit CC-1 Subunit e. Del Puerto Creek</ENT>
                            <ENT>414 (168)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 3, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <PRTPAGE P="3420"/>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>11,981 (4,849)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit CC-2. Robison Creek</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,139 (2,080)</ENT>
                            <ENT>State</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 3, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>1,839 (744)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit CC-3. Orestimba Creek</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,541 (1,838)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 3, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit CC-4. Alameda Creek, Arroyo Hondo, and Upper Penitencia Creek</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,828 (1,144)</ENT>
                            <ENT>State</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 3, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>1,871 (757)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Local</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>59,208 (23,961)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit CC-5. Coyote Creek</ENT>
                            <ENT>643 (260)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 3, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>16,251 (6,576)</ENT>
                            <ENT>State</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>255 (103)</ENT>
                            <ENT>County</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>23,222 (9,398)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit CC-6 Subunit a. Guadalupe and Rincon Creeks</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,100 (445)</ENT>
                            <ENT>County</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 3, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>6,672 (2,700)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit CC-6 Subunit b. Llagas Creek</ENT>
                            <ENT>9,459 (3,828)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 3, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit CC-7. Soquel and Bridge Creeks</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,689 (2,302)</ENT>
                            <ENT>State</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 3, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>13,800 (5,585)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Unit CC-8. Goat Mountain</ENT>
                            <ENT>38,953 (15,764)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 3, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>1,804 (730)</ENT>
                            <ENT>State</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>22,981 (9,300)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>249,942 (101,148)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="03" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">South Coast DPS</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Unit SC-1. San Carpoforo Creek</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,683 (1,086)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Federal</ENT>
                            <ENT>1, 2, 3, 4, 5</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>7,394 (2,992)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Private</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>10,077 (4,078)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="05">Grand Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>760,071 (307,590)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             Area sizes may not sum due to rounding.
                        </TNOTE>
                        <TNOTE>* See table 2 for codes identifying those activities that may impact the physical or biological features.</TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s25,r100,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 2—Activity Codes</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Code</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Activity that may impact the physical or biological features</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Physical or biological feature impacted</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1</ENT>
                            <ENT>Activities associated with altered hydrology and stream flows from dams or other water diversion or conveyance infrastructure</ENT>
                            <ENT>1(a), 1(b), and 2(b).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2</ENT>
                            <ENT>Activities to control or remove nonnative aquatic predators or invasive aquatic plants that cause impacts to habitat or water quality</ENT>
                            <ENT>1(a), 1(b), 2(a), 2(b).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3</ENT>
                            <ENT>Activities associated with the introduction and potential spread of disease</ENT>
                            <ENT>1(a) and 1(b).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                            <ENT>Activities associated with wildfire suppression and prevention that result in nonpoint- and point-source pollution or discharge of sediment into aquatic habitat, causing water quality impacts</ENT>
                            <ENT>1(a), 1(b), and 2(b).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                            <ENT>Activities associated with human use and development (e.g., agriculture (land conversion), urbanization, road construction, and recreation</ENT>
                            <ENT>1(a), 1(b), 2(a), 2(b).</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>We present brief descriptions of all units, and reasons why they meet the definition of critical habitat for the four DPSs, below.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">North Feather DPS</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit NF-1: North Fork Feather River</HD>
                    <P>The North Fork Feather River Unit is in Butte and Plumas Counties along the North Fork Feather River within the Sacramento River watershed east of the City of Chico and State Route 32 to the west, north, and east of the town of Paradise. The unit encompasses 99,433 acres (ac) (40,239 hectares (ha)) and contains Bureau of Land Management (BLM; 4,362 ac (1,765 ha)), U.S. Forest Service (USFS; 25,754 ac (10,422 ha)), State Park (383 ac (155 ha)), and private (68,934 ac (27,897 ha)) lands. General land uses in this unit are primarily agriculture, recreation, and residential development. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, effects of climate change, road construction and use, predation by nonnative species, encroachment by development, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The unit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species. The unit is the northernmost proposed critical habitat unit.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit NF-2: Middle Fork Feather River</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Middle Fork Feather River Unit is in Butte and Plumas Counties within the Sacramento River watershed northeast of Lake Oroville and south of State Route 70. The unit encompasses 77,145 ac (31,219 ha) and contains USFS (69,251 ac (28,025 ha)), State (447 ac (181 ha)), and private (7,446 ac (3,013 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3421"/>
                        ha)) lands. General land uses in this unit are primarily agriculture, mining, recreational activities, and a small amount of residential development. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, road construction and use, predation by nonnative species, encroachment by development, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The unit is occupied and contains all physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species. This unit contains areas near the documented altitudinal limit of the species (ca. 6,500 ft (1,981 m)) where the species occasionally interbreeds with its endangered congener, the Sierra Nevada yellow-legged frog (
                        <E T="03">Rana sierrae</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit NF-3: South Fork Feather River</HD>
                    <P>The South Fork Feather River Unit is in Butte and Plumas Counties along the South Fork Feather River within the Sacramento River watershed east of Lake Oroville and north of New Bullards Bar Reservoir. The unit encompasses 11,186 ac (4,527 ha) and contains USFS (4,645 ac (1,880 ha)) and private (6,541 ac (2,647 ha)) lands. General land uses in this unit are primarily mining and recreational activities. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The unit is occupied and contains all physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit NF-4: Clear Creek</HD>
                    <P>The Clear Creek Unit is in Butte County along Clear Creek within the Sacramento River watershed west of the Town of Butte. The unit encompasses 4,512 ac (1,826 ha) and contains BLM (32 ac (13 ha)) and private (4,480 ac (1,813 ha)) lands. General land uses in this unit are primarily agriculture, mining, and recreational activities. A small portion of the unit is developed as the Butte College campus and residential development. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, encroachment from development, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The unit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">South Sierra DPS</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit SS-1: Rock Creek</HD>
                    <P>The Rock Creek Unit is in El Dorado County along Rock Creek within the South Fork of the American River watershed east of the Town of Georgetown. The unit encompasses 4,348 ac (1,760 ha) and contains USFS (2,630 ac (1,064 ha)) and private (1,718 ac (695 ha)) lands. General land use in this unit is primarily recreation, and there is a small amount of residential development. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, encroachment from development, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The unit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit SS-2: Chili Bar Reservoir</HD>
                    <P>The Chili Bar Reservoir Unit is in El Dorado County upstream (east) of Chili Bar Reservoir within the South Fork of the American River watershed. The unit encompasses 4,976 ac (2,014 ha) and contains BLM (1,012 ac (410 ha)), USFS (232 ac (94 ha)), and private (3,732 ac (1,510 ha)) lands. General land use in this unit is primarily recreation and small portions of agriculture. The unit is urbanized at its southern extent near the town of Placerville. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, encroachment from development, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The unit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit SS-3: South Fork American River—Camp Creek</HD>
                    <P>The South Fork American River-Camp Creek Unit is in El Dorado County along the South Fork American River within the South Fork American River watershed and Camp Creek within the San Joaquin River watershed east of the Town of Pollock Pines. The unit encompasses 42,108 ac (17,040 ha) and contains USFS (30,894 ac (12,502 ha)) and private (11,214 ac (4,538 ha)) lands. General land use in this unit is primarily recreation. The unit is densely urbanized near the town of Pollock Pines. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, encroachment from development, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. Notably, Camp Creek drains into the San Joaquin River watershed rather than into the South Fork American River. However, these drainages are in close proximity to each other and likely maintain population connectivity through dispersal. The location of this unit spanning two separate drainages likely magnifies the importance of this unit for maintaining species connectivity throughout the entire South Sierra DPS. This unit is occupied and contains all physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit SS-4: North Fork Mokelumne River</HD>
                    <P>The North Fork Mokelumne River Unit is in Amador County along the North Fork Mokelumne River within the San Joaquin River watershed downstream of Salt Springs Reservoir and east of the Town of Pioneer. The unit encompasses 34,751 ac (14,063 ha) and contains USFS (15,227 ac (6,162 ha)), BLM (948 ac (384 ha)), and private (18,577 ac (7,518 ha)) lands. General land use in this unit is primarily recreation. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. This unit is occupied and contains one or more of the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit SS-5: Else Creek</HD>
                    <P>The Else Creek Unit is in Amador County along Else Creek within the San Joaquin River watershed near the Town of Pine Grove. The unit encompasses 4,658 ac (1,885 ha) and contains BLM (324 ac (131 ha)), State (219 ac (89 ha)), and private (4,114 ac (1,665 ha)) lands. General land use in this unit is primarily agriculture and recreation. The unit is urbanized near the town of Pine Grove. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, encroachment by development, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. This unit is occupied and contains one or more of the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit SS-6: Jesus Maria Creek</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Jesus Maria Creek Unit is in Calaveras County northeast of the Town of San Andreas along Jesus Maria Creek within the San Joaquin River watershed. The unit encompasses 4,082 ac (1,652 ha) and contains BLM (1,606 ac (650 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3422"/>
                        ha)) and private (2,476 ac (1,002 ha)) lands. General land use in this unit is primarily recreation. The unit is sparsely developed at its southern extent. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. This unit is occupied and contains one or more of the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit SS-7: Stanislaus River</HD>
                    <P>The Stanislaus River Unit is located in Calaveras and Tuolumne Counties along the Stanislaus River within the San Joaquin River watershed north and west of the City of Columbia. The unit encompasses 59,457 ac (24,062 ha) and contains BLM (4,554 ac (1,843 ha)), Bureau of Reclamation (718 ac, 291 ha)), USFS (32,864 ac (13,300 ha)), State (2,720 ac (1,101 ha)), and private (18,601 ac (7,528 ha)) lands. General land use in this unit is primarily agriculture, mining, and recreation. The unit is sparsely developed along its periphery. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. This unit is composed of two occupied subunits that are in close proximity to each other in the Stanislaus River watershed that contain all physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit SS-7, Subunit a: Stanislaus Confluence</HD>
                    <P>The Stanislaus Confluence Subunit is located in Calaveras County upstream of the confluence of the Main Steam and South Fork of the Stanislaus River within the San Joaquin River watershed north of the City of Columbia. The subunit encompasses 55,833 ac (22,595 ha) and contains BLM (4,141 ac (1,676 ha)), Bureau of Reclamation (543 ac, 220 ha)), USFS (32,864 ac (13,300 ha)), State (2,720 ac (1,101 ha)), and private (15,564 ac (6,299 ha)) lands. General land use in this subunit is primarily agriculture, mining, and recreation. The subunit is sparsely developed along its northern and southern periphery. Threats present in this subunit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. This subunit is occupied and contains all physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit SS-7, Subunit b: Moaning Cave</HD>
                    <P>The Moaning Cave Subunit is located in Calaveras County along Coyote Creek within the San Joaquin River watershed southeast of the Town of Angels Camp. The subunit encompasses 3,625 ac (1,467 ha) and contains BLM (413 ac (167 ha)), Bureau of Reclamation (175 ac (71 ha)), and private (3,037 ac (1,229 ha)) lands. General land use in this subunit is primarily agriculture and recreation. The subunit is sparsely developed at its northeastern extent along Moaning Cave Road. Threats present in this subunit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. This subunit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit SS-8: North Fork and Middle Tuolumne River</HD>
                    <P>The North Fork and Middle Tuolumne River Unit is located in Tuolumne and Mariposa Counties along the North Fork and Middle Tuolumne River within the San Joaquin River watershed generally south of State Route 108 and north of State Route 120 to the west of Yosemite National Park. The unit encompasses 78,151 ac (31,627 ha) and contains BLM (3,565 ac (1,443 ha)), USFS (60,795 ac (24,603 ha)), and private (13,791 ac (5,581 ha)) lands. General land use in this unit is primarily agriculture and recreation. The unit is sparsely developed along Highway 120 and near the towns of Buchanan and Confidence. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. This unit is occupied and contains all physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit SS-9: Moccasin Creek</HD>
                    <P>The Moccasin Creek Unit is located in Tuolumne and Mariposa Counties along Moccasin Creek within the San Joaquin River watershed south (upstream) of Moccasin Reservoir. The unit encompasses 8,280 ac (3,351 ha) and contains BLM (4,509 ac (1,825 ha)) and private (3,770 ac (1,526 ha)) lands. General land use in this unit is primarily agriculture, water management, and recreation. The unit is sparsely developed along Highway 49 and near the Moccasin Reservoir. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. This unit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit SS-10: North Fork Merced River, Bull Creek</HD>
                    <P>The North Fork Merced River, Bull Creek Unit is located in Mariposa County located along North Fork Merced River and Bull Creek within the San Joaquin River watershed east of State Route 49 and north of State Route 140. The unit encompasses 27,571 ac (11,157 ha) and contains BLM (28 ac (11 ha)), USFS (21,525 ac (8,711 ha)), and private (6,017 ac (2,435 ha)) lands. General land use in this unit is primarily agriculture and recreation. The unit is sparsely developed near the town of Greeley Hill. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. This unit is composed of two occupied subunits that are in close proximity to each other in the Merced River watershed that contain all physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit SS-10, Subunit a: North Fork Merced River</HD>
                    <P>The North Fork Merced River Subunit is located in Mariposa County along the North Fork Merced River east of the Town of Greeley Hill. The subunit encompasses 15,491 ac (6,269 ha) and contains BLM (28 ac (11 ha)), USFS (10,439 ac (4,224 ha)), and private (5,024 ac (2,033 ha)) lands. General land use in this subunit is primarily agriculture and recreation. The subunit is sparsely developed near the town of Greeley Hill. Threats present in this subunit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. This subunit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit SS-10, Subunit b: Bull Creek</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Bull Creek Subunit is located in Mariposa County along Bull Creek west of the Town of Foresta. The subunit encompasses 12,079 ac (4,888 ha) and contains USFS (11,087 ac (4,487 ha)) 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3423"/>
                        and private (992 ac (402 ha)) lands. General land use in this subunit is primarily recreation. Threats present in this subunit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. This subunit is occupied and contains all physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit SS-11: Merced River and Sherlock Creek</HD>
                    <P>The Merced River and Sherlock Creek Unit is located in Mariposa County along the Merced River and Sherlock Creek within the San Joaquin River watershed north of the Town of Mariposa. The unit encompasses 16,719 ac (6,766 ha) and contains BLM (13,267 ac (5,369 ha)) and private (3,451 ac (1,397 ha)) lands. General land use in this unit is primarily agriculture and recreation. The unit is sparsely developed at its southeastern extent. Threats present in this subunit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. This unit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit SS-12: Jose Creek</HD>
                    <P>The Jose Creek Unit is located in Madera and Fresno Counties along Jose Creek within the San Joaquin River watershed west of Shaver Lake. The unit encompasses 10,182 ac (4,121 ha) and contains USFS (9,204 ac (3,725 ha)), State (30 ac (12 ha)), and private (948 ac (384 ha)) lands. General land use in this unit is primarily agriculture and recreation. The unit is sparsely developed near the confluence of Jose Creek with the San Joaquin River. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. This unit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit SS-13: North Fork Tule River</HD>
                    <P>The North Fork Tule River Unit is located in Tulare County along the North Fork Tule River within the Tulare/Buena Vista Lake watershed east of the Town of Porterville. The unit encompasses 5,149 ac (2,084 ha) and contains USFS (217 ac (88 ha)) and private (4,932 ac (1,996 ha)). General land use in this unit is primarily for agriculture and recreation. The unit is sparsely developed along the North Fork Tule River and near the town of Springville. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. This unit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species. This unit contains one of the few remaining occupied areas within the Tulare/Buena Vista Lake watershed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit SS-14: Kern River</HD>
                    <P>The Kern River Unit is located in Tulare County along Jywood and Ash Creeks (two adjacent tributaries to the Kern River) within the Tulare/Buena Vista Lake watershed northeast of the Town of Johnsondale. The unit encompasses 7,344 ac (2,972 ha) and contains USFS (7,327 ac (2,965 ha)) and private (17 ac (7 ha)) lands. General land use in this unit is primarily recreation. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. This unit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species. This unit contains one of the few remaining occupied areas within the Tulare/Buena Vista Lake watershed and is the southernmost locality remaining in the South Sierra DPS.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Central Coast DPS</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit CC-1: Northeastern Coastal Range</HD>
                    <P>The Northeastern Coastal Range Unit in Alameda, Santa Clara, and Stanislaus Counties contains subunits located along drainages within the San Francisco Bay and San Joaquin River watersheds near the eastern ridge of the Coastal Range Mountains southeast of the City of Livermore. The unit encompasses 33,687 ac (13,633 ha). The unit contains BLM (414 ac (168 ha)), local government (6 ac (3 ha)) and private (33,266 ac (13,462 ha)) lands. The unit is sparsely developed along Lower Arroyo Mocho. General land use in this unit is primarily agriculture and recreation. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, disease, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The unit is composed of five occupied subunits that are in close proximity to each other or in the same drainages that contain one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species. The unit spans both the San Francisco Bay and San Joaquin River drainages and is also likely important for maintaining species connectivity within the Central Coast DPS.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit CC-1, Subunit a: Corral Hollow Creek</HD>
                    <P>The Corral Hollow Creek subunit is located in Alameda County along Corral Hollow Creek within the San Joaquin River watershed 8 kilometers northeast of Lake Del Valle. The unit encompasses approximately 4,483 ac (1,814 ha) of entirely private land. General land use within the subunit is agriculture and recreation. The subunit is sparsely developed near its northern extent. Threats present in this subunit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The subunit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit CC-1, Subunit b: Lower Arroyo Mocho</HD>
                    <P>The Lower Arroyo Mocho Subunit is located in Alameda County along Lower Arroyo Mocho within the San Francisco Bay watershed 2 kilometers northeast and east of Lake Del Valle. The subunit encompasses 7,571 ac (3,064 ha)) of local government (6 ac (3 ha)) and private land (7,564 ac, 3,061 ha)). General land use within the subunit is agriculture and recreation. The subunit is sparsely developed along Arroyo Mocho. Threats present in this subunit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The subunit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit CC-1, Subunit c: Upper Arroyo Mocho</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Upper Arroyo Mocho Subunit is located in Alameda County along Upper Arroyo Mocho in the San Francisco Bay watershed 9 kilometers southeast of Lake Del Valle. The subunit encompasses 4,541 ac (1,838 ha) of private land. General land use within the subunit is agriculture and recreation. The subunit is sparsely developed along Arroyo Mocho. Threats present in this subunit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3424"/>
                        nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The subunit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit CC-1, Subunit d: Colorado Creek</HD>
                    <P>The Colorado Creek Subunit is located in Santa Clara County along Colorado Creek within the San Francisco Bay watershed approximately 10 kilometers north of the Town of Ashrama. The subunit encompasses approximately 4,698 ac (1,901 ha) of entirely private land. General land use within the subunit is mining and recreation. Threats present in this subunit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The subunit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species. The subunit is located in close proximity to the Del Puerto Creek Subunit (Unit CC-1, Subunit e) described below and is likely important for maintaining connectivity between the San Francisco Bay and San Joaquin River watersheds.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit CC-1, Subunit e: Del Puerto Creek</HD>
                    <P>The Del Puerto Creek Subunit is located in Stanislaus County along Del Puerto Creek within the San Joaquin River watershed approximately 8 kilometers northeast of the Town of Ashrama. The subunit encompasses approximately 12,395 ac (5,016 ha) of BLM (414 ac (168 ha)) and private lands (11,981 ac (4,849 ha)). General land use within the subunit is agriculture and recreation. The subunit is sparsely developed along Del Puerto Creek. Threats present in this subunit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The subunit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species. The subunit is located in close proximity to the Colorado Creek Subunit (Unit CC-1, Subunit d) described above and is likely important for maintaining connectivity between the San Francisco Bay and San Joaquin River watersheds.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit CC-2: Robison Creek</HD>
                    <P>The Robison Creek Unit is located in Stanislaus County along Robison Creek within the San Joaquin River watershed at the northeastern extent of Henry W. Coe State Wilderness Area. The unit encompasses 6,977 ac (2,824 ha) and contains State Park (5,139 ac (2,080 ha)) and private (1,838 ac (744 ha)) lands. General land use within the unit is recreation. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The unit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit CC-3: Orestimba Creek</HD>
                    <P>The Orestimba Creek Unit is located in Stanislaus County along Orestimba Creek within the San Joaquin River watershed approximately 7 kilometers west of Interstate Highway 5. The unit encompasses 4,541 ac (1,838 ha) of private lands. General land use within the unit is recreation. The unit is sparsely developed along Orestimba Creek. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The unit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit CC-4: Alameda Creek, Arroyo Hondo, and Upper Penitencia Creek</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Alameda Creek, Arroyo Hondo, and Upper Penitencia Creek Unit is located in Alameda and Santa Clara Counties along Indian Creek, Alameda Creek, Arroyo Hondo, Isabel Creek, Bonita Creek, San Antonio Creek, Smith Creek, and Sulphur Creek within the San Francisco Bay watershed as well as Upper Penitencia Creek within the Coyote Creek watershed near the eastern extent of the City of San Jose. The unit encompasses a total of 63,907 ac (25,862 ha) including State (2,828 ac (1,144 ha)), local government (1,871 ac (757 ha)), and private lands (59,208 ac (23,961 ha)). General land use within the unit is agriculture and recreation. The unit is sparsely developed along its western periphery. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, encroachment by development, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The unit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species. Notably the unit spans both the Coyote Creek and San Francisco Bay watersheds and is likely important for maintaining species connectivity within the Central Coast DPS. We have identified a portion of this unit for potential exclusion as a result of the Santa Clara Valley HCP/NCCP (see 
                        <E T="03">Consideration of Impacts under Section 4(b)(2) of the Act</E>
                         below).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit CC-5: Coyote Creek</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Coyote Creek Unit is located in Santa Clara County along Coyote Creek within the Coyote Creek watershed east of the City of Morgan Hill. The unit encompasses 40,370 ac (16,337 ha) and contains BLM (643 ac (260 ha)), State (16,251 ac (6,576 ha)), County (255 ac (103 ha)), and private (23,222 ac (9,398 ha)) lands. A large portion of the unit is within Henry Coe State Park. General land use within the unit is recreation. The unit is sparsely developed at its southern extent. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, encroachment by development, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The unit is occupied and contains one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species. We have identified a portion of this unit for potential exclusion as a result of the Santa Clara Valley HCP/NCCP (see 
                        <E T="03">Consideration of Impacts under Section 4(b)(2) of the Act</E>
                         below).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit CC-6: Interior Santa Cruz Mountains</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Interior Santa Cruz Mountains Unit is located in Santa Clara County along the interior portion of the Santa Cruz Mountains southeast of the City of Los Gatos and northwest of the City of Morgan Hill. The unit encompasses 17,231 ac (6,973 ha) and contains subunits that drain into the Coyote Creek and Pajaro Slough watersheds. The unit contains county park (1,100 ac (445 ha)) and private (16,131 ac (6,528 ha)) lands. General land use in this unit is primarily agriculture and recreation. The unit is heavily developed at its northwestern extent near the City of Los Gatos and sparsely developed at its northeastern extent near Chesbro Reservoir. The unit is sparsely developed at its southern extent. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, encroachment by development, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The unit is composed of two occupied subunits that are in close proximity to each other in the Coyote Creek and Pajaro Slough drainages that contain one or more physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3425"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit CC-6, Subunit a: Guadalupe and Rincon Creeks</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Guadalupe and Rincon Creeks Subunit (Central Coast DPS Unit 6, Subunit a) of proposed critical habitat for the Central Coast DPS is located along Guadalupe and Rincon Creeks within the Coyote Creek watershed in Santa Clara County, California. The subunit encompasses 7,772 ac (3,145 ha) and contains county park (1,100 ac (445 ha)) and private (6,672 ac (2,700 ha)) lands. A large portion of the subunit lies within the Sierra Azul Open Space Regional Park. General land use within the subunit is agriculture and recreation. The subunit is heavily developed at its northern extent near the City of Los Gatos. Threats present in this subunit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, encroachment by development, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The subunit is occupied and contains one or more of the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species. The subunit is in close proximity to the Llagas Creek Subunit (Unit CC-6, Subunit b) described below and thus likely promotes genetic connectivity between the Coyote Creek and Pajaro Slough watersheds. We have identified a portion of this subunit for potential exclusion as a result of the Santa Clara Valley HCP/NCCP (see 
                        <E T="03">Consideration of Impacts under Section 4(b)(2) of the Act</E>
                         below).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit CC-6, Subunit b: Llagas Creek</HD>
                    <P>The Llagas Creek Subunit is located in Santa Clara County along Llagas Creek within the Pajaro Slough watershed west of the City of Morgan Hill. The subunit encompasses 9,459 ac (3,828 ha) and contains entirely private lands. A large portion of the subunit lies within the Rancho Canada del Oro Open Space Regional Park. General land use within the subunit is agriculture and recreation. The subunit is sparsely developed along its eastern extent near the Chesbro Reservoir. Threats present in this subunit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The subunit is occupied and contains one or more of the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species. The subunit is in close proximity to the Guadalupe and Rincon Creeks Subunit (Unit CC-6, Subunit a) and thus likely promotes genetic connectivity between the Coyote Creek and Pajaro Slough watersheds. We have identified a portion of this subunit for potential exclusion as a result of the Santa Clara Valley HCP/NCCP (see Consideration of Impacts under Section 4(b)(2) of the Act below).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit CC-7: Soquel and Bridge Creeks</HD>
                    <P>The Soquel and Bridge Creeks Unit is located in Santa Cruz County along Soquel and Bridge Creeks within the Monterey Bay watershed northeast of the City of Santa Cruz. The unit encompasses 19,490 ac (7,887 ha) and contains State (5,689 ac (2,302 ha)) and private (13,800 ac (5,585 ha)) lands. A large portion of the unit is within the State's Soquel Demonstration Forest and Forest of Nisene Marks State Park. General land use within the unit is agriculture and recreation. The southern extent of the unit is heavily developed along Soquel Creek near the City of Santa Cruz. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, encroachment by development, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. The unit is occupied and contains one or more of the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit CC-8: Goat Mountain</HD>
                    <P>The Goat Mountain Unit is located in San Benito and Fresno Counties along creeks within the Diablo Range Mountains northeast of King City. Creeks within the unit drain into the Pajaro Slough, San Joaquin River, and Tulare-Buena Vista Lakes watersheds. The unit encompasses 63,739 ac (25,794 ha) and contains BLM (38,953 ac (15,764 ha)), State (1,804 ac (730 ha)), and private (22,981 ac (9,300 ha)) lands. General land use in this unit is primarily agriculture and recreation. The unit is sparsely developed near the town of Idria. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. This unit is occupied and contains all of the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species. The unit is likely important for maintaining species connectivity across watersheds within the Central Coast DPS.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">South Coast DPS</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unit SC-1: San Carpoforo Creek</HD>
                    <P>The San Carpoforo Creek Unit is located in Monterey and San Luis Obispo Counties along San Carpoforo Creek within the Big Creek watershed. The unit encompasses approximately 10,077 ac (4,078 ha), including USFS (2,683 ac (1,086 ha)) and private land owned by Hearst Ranch (7,394 ac (2,992 ha)). The primary use of lands within the unit is recreation. Threats present in this unit that may require special management include altered hydrology, climate change, disease, predation by nonnative species, wildfire, and trampling by vehicles or recreational activity. This unit is occupied and contains one or more of the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species. As noted by the SSA report (Service 2023b, p. 48), creeks used by the species in the South Coast DPS have flashier flows, more ephemeral channels, and a higher degree of intermittency because of the region's more variable and lower amount of precipitation, and have the warmest average temperatures in comparison to other portions of the species' range. Thus, the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species within the unit may be especially vulnerable to threats from the effects of climate change or altered hydrology that may also increase the likelihood of disease outbreaks (Adams et al. 2017, p. 10228; Service 2023b, p. 48). At present it is likely that the population within this unit is isolated from other populations of the species, including the nearby Los Burros Creek population located on Fort Hunter Liggett.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Effects of Critical Habitat Designation</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Section 7 Consultation</HD>
                    <P>Section 7(a)(2) of the Act requires Federal agencies, including the Service, to ensure that any action they authorize, fund, or carry out is not likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any endangered species or threatened species or result in the destruction or adverse modification of designated critical habitat of such species. In addition, section 7(a)(4) of the Act requires Federal agencies to confer with the Service on any agency action which is likely to jeopardize the continued existence of any species proposed to be listed under the Act or result in the destruction or adverse modification of proposed critical habitat.</P>
                    <P>
                        We published a final rule revising the definition of destruction or adverse modification on August 27, 2019 (84 FR 44976). Destruction or adverse modification means a direct or indirect alteration that appreciably diminishes the value of critical habitat as a whole for the conservation of a listed species.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3426"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>Compliance with the requirements of section 7(a)(2) of the Act is documented through our issuance of:</P>
                    <P>(1) A concurrence letter for Federal actions that may affect, but are not likely to adversely affect, listed species or critical habitat; or</P>
                    <P>(2) A biological opinion for Federal actions that may affect, and are likely to adversely affect, listed species or critical habitat.</P>
                    <P>When we issue a biological opinion concluding that a project is likely to jeopardize the continued existence of a listed species and/or destroy or adversely modify critical habitat, we provide reasonable and prudent alternatives to the project, if any are identifiable, that would avoid the likelihood of jeopardy and/or destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat. We define “reasonable and prudent alternatives” (at 50 CFR 402.02) as alternative actions identified during formal consultation that:</P>
                    <P>(1) Can be implemented in a manner consistent with the intended purpose of the action,</P>
                    <P>(2) Can be implemented consistent with the scope of the Federal agency's legal authority and jurisdiction,</P>
                    <P>(3) Are economically and technologically feasible, and</P>
                    <P>(4) Would, in the Service Director's opinion, avoid the likelihood of jeopardizing the continued existence of the listed species or avoid the likelihood of destroying or adversely modifying critical habitat.</P>
                    <P>Reasonable and prudent alternatives can vary from slight project modifications to extensive redesign or relocation of the project. Costs associated with implementing a reasonable and prudent alternative are similarly variable.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regulations at 50 CFR 402.16 set forth requirements for Federal agencies to reinitiate consultation if any of the following four conditions occur: (1) the amount or extent of taking specified in the incidental take statement is exceeded; (2) new information reveals effects of the action that may affect listed species or critical habitat in a manner or to an extent not previously considered; (3) the identified action is subsequently modified in a manner that causes an effect to the listed species or critical habitat that was not considered in the biological opinion or written concurrence; or (4) a new species is listed or critical habitat designated that may be affected by the identified action. The reinitiation requirement applies only to actions that remain subject to some discretionary Federal involvement or control. As provided in 50 CFR 402.16, the requirement to reinitiate consultations for new species listings or critical habitat designation does not apply to certain agency actions (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         land management plans issued by the Bureau of Land Management in certain circumstances).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Destruction or Adverse Modification of Critical Habitat</HD>
                    <P>The key factor related to the destruction or adverse modification determination is whether implementation of the proposed Federal action directly or indirectly alters the designated critical habitat in a way that appreciably diminishes the value of the critical habitat for the conservation of the listed species. As discussed above, the role of critical habitat is to support the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of a listed species and provide for the conservation of the species.</P>
                    <P>Section 4(b)(8) of the Act requires us to briefly evaluate and describe, in any proposed or final regulation that designates critical habitat, activities involving a Federal action that may violate section 7(a)(2) of the Act by destroying or adversely modifying such habitat, or that may be affected by such designation.</P>
                    <P>Activities that we may, during a consultation under section 7(a)(2) of the Act, consider likely to destroy or adversely modify critical habitat include, but are not limited to:</P>
                    <P>(1) Actions that would alter stream flow magnitude (either increasing or decreasing flows), flow timing, or temperature. Such activities could include, but are not limited to, water management on streams with dams or other water delivery and conveyance infrastructures such as pipelines, or water diversions. These activities could change appropriate water conditions (temperature, flow periods), disrupt breeding, disturb egg masses, change stream substrate requirements, or increase shading due to lack of flows.</P>
                    <P>(2) Actions that would increase sedimentation. Such activities could include road construction, wildland fire, urbanization and development, unauthorized off-highway-vehicle use, or riparian habitat alteration or destruction. These activities may increase deposit of sediments into stream habitat and reduce appropriate cobbled structure and interstitial spaces needed for cover.</P>
                    <P>(3) Actions that would eliminate or reduce the upland habitat necessary for overwintering and dispersal. Such activities could include urbanization, timber harvest, or natural land use conversion from agriculture. These activities would limit upland overwintering ability and potentially reduce localized populations. Limiting dispersal would subject populations to inbreeding and make them more vulnerable to catastrophic events.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Exemptions</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Application of Section 4(a)(3) of the Act</HD>
                    <P>The Sikes Act Improvement Act of 1997 (Sikes Act) (16 U.S.C. 670a) required each military installation that includes land and water suitable for the conservation and management of natural resources to complete an integrated natural resources management plan (INRMP) by November 17, 2001. An INRMP integrates implementation of the military mission of the installation with stewardship of the natural resources found on the base. Each INRMP includes:</P>
                    <P>(1) An assessment of the ecological needs on the installation, including the need to provide for the conservation of listed species;</P>
                    <P>(2) A statement of goals and priorities;</P>
                    <P>(3) A detailed description of management actions to be implemented to provide for these ecological needs; and</P>
                    <P>(4) A monitoring and adaptive management plan.</P>
                    <P>Among other things, each INRMP must, to the extent appropriate and applicable, provide for fish and wildlife management; fish and wildlife habitat enhancement or modification; wetland protection, enhancement, and restoration where necessary to support fish and wildlife; and enforcement of applicable natural resource laws.</P>
                    <P>The National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2004 (Pub. L. 108-136) amended the Act to limit areas eligible for designation as critical habitat. Specifically, section 4(a)(3)(B)(i) of the Act (16 U.S.C. 1533(a)(3)(B)(i)) provides that the Secretary shall not designate as critical habitat any lands or other geographical areas owned or controlled by the Department of Defense, or designated for its use, that are subject to an integrated natural resources management plan prepared under section 101 of the Sikes Act (16 U.S.C. 670a), if the Secretary determines in writing that such plan provides a benefit to the species for which critical habitat is proposed for designation.</P>
                    <P>
                        We consult with the military on the development and implementation of INRMPs for installations with listed species. We analyzed INRMPs developed by military installations located within the range of the proposed critical habitat designation for the foothill yellow-legged frog to determine 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3427"/>
                        if they meet the criteria for exemption from critical habitat under section 4(a)(3) of the Act. The following areas are Department of Defense (DoD) lands with completed, Service-approved INRMPs within the proposed critical habitat designation.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Approved INRMPs</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">U.S. Army Fort Hunter Liggett Military Reservation, Monterey County, California</HD>
                    <P>U.S. Army Fort Hunter Liggett occupies approximately 163,000 ac (66,000 ha) of varied habitats within the Santa Lucia Mountains in southern Monterey County. The current INRMP for Fort Hunter Liggett was completed in December 2022 (Desert Research Institute 2022, entire) and became effective in May 2023. The Service and CDFW are signatory agencies on the Fort Hunter Liggett INRMP. We have identified 5,557 ac (2,249 ha) of occupied habitat for the South Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog on the facility. As stated above, to be exempt under section 4(a)(3) of the Act, an INRMP must include the four criteria identified above as well as meet the criteria under our regulations at 50 CFR 424.12(h) that includes information regarding: (a) the extent of the area and features present; (b) the type and frequency of use of the area by the species; (c) the relevant elements of the INRMP in terms of management objectives, activities covered, and best management practices, and the certainty that the relevant elements will be implemented; and (d) the degree to which the relevant elements of the INRMP will protect the habitat from the types of effects that would be addressed through a destruction-or-adverse-modification analysis. The Fort Hunter Liggett INRMP meets all of these requirements.</P>
                    <P>
                        The South Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog occurs on the facility in less than 4.5 km (2.8 mi) of Los Burros and North Fork creeks. The endangered arroyo toad (
                        <E T="03">Anaxyrus californicus</E>
                        ) and threatened California red-legged frog (
                        <E T="03">Rana draytonii</E>
                        ) occur on the facility and use similar habitat as the South Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog. Measures being implemented for these species will provide benefits to the South Coast DPS by protecting water quality, reducing nonnative predators, and contributing to other habitat protection. Measures being implemented specifically for the foothill yellow-legged frog include enhancing habitat conditions and continuing annual surveys to determine stability of the breeding population. Fort Hunter Liggett has implemented its INRMP and established several Sensitive Resource Management Areas (SRMAs) including a 4,059-ac (1,643-ha) area for the listed species on the facility. The INRMP includes Endangered Species Management Components (ESMCs) for listed species; both development and implementation of such components are required by U.S. Army regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Army through implementation of the INRMP has established several guiding principles in their management of habitat for sensitive species and their habitat including:</P>
                    <P>(1) Identify installation activities that compromise the function and composition of ecosystems and develop remedies through adaptive management;</P>
                    <P>(2) Sustain and enhance healthy terrestrial and aquatic habitats on the facility that provide services and values in an ecosystem;</P>
                    <P>(3) Protect, restore, and enhance wetlands to maintain no net loss of wetland acreage and quality;</P>
                    <P>(4) Assess, sustain, and enhance the health and habitats of fish and wildlife populations in a manner consistent with the military mission and security constraints;</P>
                    <P>(5) Minimize pest-related habitat damage and health risks to natural resources and people;</P>
                    <P>(6) Provide sustainable natural resources-related outdoor recreation opportunities given security constraints;</P>
                    <P>(7) Increase awareness of natural resources issues, programs, and responsibilities among Fort Hunter Liggett employees, residents, tenants, and visitors;</P>
                    <P>(8) Integrate the natural resources programs as identified in the INRMP with local, State, and regional environmental programs and initiatives; and</P>
                    <P>(9) Use a geographical information system (GIS) database to monitor and enhance natural resources management on the facility.</P>
                    <P>Based on the above considerations, and in accordance with section 4(a)(3)(B)(i) of the Act, we have determined that the identified lands are subject to the Fort Hunter Liggett INRMP and that conservation efforts identified in the INRMP will provide a benefit to the South Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog. Therefore, lands within this installation are exempt from critical habitat designation under section 4(a)(3) of the Act. We are not including approximately 5,557 ac (2,249 ha) of habitat in this proposed critical habitat designation because of this exemption.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Consideration of Impacts Under Section 4(b)(2) of the Act</HD>
                    <P>Section 4(b)(2) of the Act states that the Secretary shall designate and make revisions to critical habitat on the basis of the best available scientific data after taking into consideration the economic impact, national security impact, and any other relevant impact of specifying any particular area as critical habitat. The Secretary may exclude an area from designated critical habitat based on economic impacts, impacts on national security, or any other relevant impacts. Exclusion decisions are governed by the regulations at 50 CFR 424.19 and the Policy Regarding Implementation of Section 4(b)(2) of the Endangered Species Act (hereafter, the “2016 Policy”; 81 FR 7226, February 11, 2016), both of which were developed jointly with the National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS). We also refer to a 2008 Department of the Interior Solicitor's opinion entitled “The Secretary's Authority to Exclude Areas from a Critical Habitat Designation under Section 4(b)(2) of the Endangered Species Act” (M-37016).</P>
                    <P>In considering whether to exclude a particular area from the designation, we identify the benefits of including the area in the designation, identify the benefits of excluding the area from the designation, and evaluate whether the benefits of exclusion outweigh the benefits of inclusion. If the analysis indicates that the benefits of exclusion outweigh the benefits of inclusion, the Secretary may exercise discretion to exclude the area only if such exclusion would not result in the extinction of the species. In making the determination to exclude a particular area, the statute on its face, as well as the legislative history, are clear that the Secretary has broad discretion regarding which factor(s) to use and how much weight to give to any factor. In our final rules, we explain any decision to exclude areas, as well as decisions not to exclude, to make clear the rational basis for our decision. We describe below the process that we use for taking into consideration each category of impacts and any initial analyses of the relevant impacts.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Consideration of Economic Impacts</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 4(b)(2) of the Act and its implementing regulations require that we consider the economic impact that may result from a designation of critical habitat. To assess the probable economic impacts of a designation, we must first evaluate specific land uses or activities and projects that may occur in the area of the critical habitat. We then must evaluate the impacts that a specific 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3428"/>
                        critical habitat designation may have on restricting or modifying specific land uses or activities for the benefit of the species and its habitat within the areas proposed. We then identify which conservation efforts may be the result of the species being listed under the Act versus those attributed solely to the designation of critical habitat for this particular species. The probable economic impact of a proposed critical habitat designation is analyzed by comparing scenarios both “with critical habitat” and “without critical habitat.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The “without critical habitat” scenario represents the baseline for the analysis, which includes the existing regulatory and socio-economic burden imposed on landowners, managers, or other resource users potentially affected by the designation of critical habitat (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         under the Federal listing as well as other Federal, State, and local regulations). Therefore, the baseline represents the costs of all efforts attributable to the listing of the species under the Act (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         conservation of the species and its habitat incurred regardless of whether critical habitat is designated). The “with critical habitat” scenario describes the incremental impacts associated specifically with the designation of critical habitat for the species. The incremental conservation efforts and associated impacts would not be expected without the designation of critical habitat for the species. In other words, the incremental costs are those attributable solely to the designation of critical habitat, above and beyond the baseline costs. These are the costs we use when evaluating the benefits of inclusion and exclusion of particular areas from the final designation of critical habitat should we choose to conduct a discretionary 4(b)(2) exclusion analysis.
                    </P>
                    <P>Executive Order (E.O.) 12866 and E.O. 13563 and direct Federal agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives in quantitative (to the extent feasible) and qualitative terms. Consistent with these E.O. regulatory analysis requirements, our effects analysis under the Act may take into consideration impacts to both directly and indirectly affected entities, where practicable and reasonable. If sufficient data are available, we assess to the extent practicable the probable impacts to both directly and indirectly affected entities. To determine whether the designation of critical habitat may have an economic effect of $200 million or more in any given year (which would trigger section 3(f)(1) of E.O. 12866, as amended by E.O. 14094), we used a screening analysis to assess whether a designation of critical habitat for the foothill yellow-legged frog is likely to exceed this threshold.</P>
                    <P>For this particular designation, we developed an incremental effects memorandum (IEM) considering the probable incremental economic impacts that may result from this proposed designation of critical habitat (Service 2023a, entire). The information contained in our IEM was then used to develop a screening analysis of the probable effects of the designation of critical habitat for the four DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog (Industrial Economics, Inc. (IEc) 2023, entire). We began by conducting a screening analysis of the proposed designation of critical habitat in order to focus our analysis on the key factors that are likely to result in incremental economic impacts. The purpose of the screening analysis is to filter out particular geographical areas of critical habitat that are already subject to such protections and are, therefore, unlikely to incur incremental economic impacts.</P>
                    <P>
                        In particular, the screening analysis considers baseline costs (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         absent critical habitat designation) and includes any probable incremental economic impacts where land and water use may already be subject to conservation plans, land management plans, best management practices, or regulations that protect the habitat area as a result of the Federal listing status of the species. Ultimately, the screening analysis allows us to focus our analysis on evaluating the specific areas or sectors that may incur probable incremental economic impacts as a result of the designation. The presence of the listed species in occupied areas of critical habitat means that any destruction or adverse modification of those areas is also likely to jeopardize the continued existence of the species. Therefore, designating occupied areas as critical habitat typically causes little if any incremental impact above and beyond the impacts of listing the species. As a result, we generally focus the screening analysis on areas of unoccupied critical habitat (unoccupied units or unoccupied areas within occupied units). Overall, the screening analysis assesses whether designation of critical habitat is likely to result in any additional management or conservation efforts that may incur incremental economic impacts. This screening analysis combined with the information contained in our IEM constitute what we consider to be our economic analysis of the proposed critical habitat designation for the four DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog; our economic analysis is summarized in the narrative below.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As part of our screening analysis, we considered the types of economic activities that are likely to occur within the areas likely affected by the critical habitat designation. In our evaluation of the probable incremental economic impacts that may result from the proposed designation of critical habitat for the four DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog, first we identified, in the IEM dated May 2023, probable incremental economic impacts associated with the following categories of activities: (1) altered hydrology and stream flows; (2) nonnative species predation and competition; (3) introduction and spread of disease; (4) wildfire prevention and suppression; (5) effects of climate change; and (6) anthropogenic activities and their effects (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         agriculture, urbanization, and recreation). We considered each industry or category individually. Additionally, we considered whether their activities have any Federal involvement. Critical habitat designation generally will not affect activities that do not have any Federal involvement; under the Act, designation of critical habitat affects only activities conducted, funded, permitted, or authorized by Federal agencies. In areas where any of the four listed DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog is present, Federal agencies would be required to consult with the Service under section 7 of the Act on activities they authorize, fund, or carry out that may affect the species or its habitat. If we finalize this proposed critical habitat designation, Federal agencies would be required to consider the effects of their actions on the designated habitat, and if the Federal action may affect critical habitat, our consultations would include an evaluation of measures to avoid the destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In our IEM, we attempted to clarify the distinction between the effects that would result from the species being listed and those attributable to the critical habitat designation (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         difference between the jeopardy and adverse modification standards) for each of the four DPSs' critical habitat. Because the designation of critical habitat for the four DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog is being proposed after a relatively short time after their final listing, it has been our experience that it is more difficult to discern which conservation efforts are attributable to the species being listed and those which will result solely from the designation of critical habitat. However, the following specific circumstances in this case help to inform our evaluation: (1) The 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3429"/>
                        essential physical or biological features identified for critical habitat are the same features essential for the life requisites of the species, and (2) any actions that would likely adversely affect the essential physical or biological features of occupied critical habitat are also likely to adversely affect the species itself. The IEM outlines our rationale concerning this limited distinction between baseline conservation efforts and incremental impacts of the designation of critical habitat for this species. This evaluation of the incremental effects has been used as the basis to evaluate the probable incremental economic impacts of this proposed designation of critical habitat.
                    </P>
                    <P>The proposed critical habitat designation for the four DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog includes 27 occupied units, totaling approximately 760,071 ac (307,590 ha). The lands being considered are Federal (47 percent), State (5 percent), local government (0.4 percent), and private (49 percent) making up the remainder of land ownership. In these areas, any actions that may affect the species or its habitat would also affect the proposed critical habitat, and it is unlikely that any additional conservation efforts would be recommended to address the adverse modification standard over and above those recommended as necessary to avoid jeopardizing the continued existence of any of the four DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog. The entities most likely to incur incremental costs are parties to section 7 consultations, including Federal action agencies (such as the U.S. Forest Service, Bureau of Land Management, Bureau of Reclamation, Federal Energy Regulatory Commission, Army Corps of Engineers, and Federal Highway Administration) and, in some cases, third parties, most frequently State (transportation agencies) and private land owners and developers. While this additional analysis will require time and resources by both the Federal action agency and the Service, in most circumstances, these costs would predominantly be administrative in nature and would not be significant.</P>
                    <P>The incremental costs for each technical assistance, informal, formal, and programmatic section 7 consultation conducted is estimated to total $430, $2,700, $5,500, and $10,000, respectively, across all Federal and third party participants. These estimates assume that consultations would occur even in the absence of critical habitat due to the presence of the listed DPS and the amount of administrative effort to address critical habitat during this process is relatively minor.</P>
                    <P>Applying these incremental costs to the estimated future consultations forecast, we estimate the incremental administrative costs of consultations pursuant to the proposed critical habitat for the four DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog is likely on the order of $346,500 per year (2023 dollars), including approximately $220,000 for formal consultations, $116,100 for informal consultations, and $10,400 for technical assistances.</P>
                    <P>We are soliciting data and comments from the public on the economic analysis discussed above. During the development of a final designation, we will consider the information presented in the economic analysis and any additional information on economic impacts we receive during the public comment period to determine whether any specific areas should be excluded from the final critical habitat designation under authority of section 4(b)(2) of the Act, our implementing regulations at 50 CFR 424.19, and the 2016 Policy. We may exclude an area from critical habitat if we determine that the benefits of excluding the area outweigh the benefits of including the area, provided the exclusion will not result in the extinction of this species.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Consideration of National Security Impacts</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 4(a)(3)(B)(i) of the Act may not cover all DoD lands or areas that pose potential national-security concerns (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a DoD installation that is in the process of revising its INRMP for a newly listed species or a species previously not covered). If a particular area is not covered under section 4(a)(3)(B)(i), then national-security or homeland-security concerns are not a factor in the process of determining what areas meet the definition of “critical habitat.” However, the Service must still consider impacts on national security, including homeland security, on those lands or areas not covered by section 4(a)(3)(B)(i) because section 4(b)(2) requires the Service to consider those impacts whenever it designates critical habitat. Accordingly, if DoD, the Department of Homeland Security (DHS), or another Federal agency has requested exclusion based on an assertion of national-security or homeland-security concerns, or we have otherwise identified national-security or homeland-security impacts from designating particular areas as critical habitat, we generally have reason to consider excluding those areas.
                    </P>
                    <P>However, we cannot automatically exclude requested areas. When DoD, DHS, or another Federal agency requests exclusion from critical habitat on the basis of national-security or homeland-security impacts, we must conduct an exclusion analysis if the Federal requester provides information, including a reasonably specific justification of an incremental impact on national security that would result from the designation of that specific area as critical habitat. That justification could include demonstration of probable impacts, such as impacts to ongoing border-security patrols and surveillance activities, or a delay in training or facility construction, as a result of compliance with section 7(a)(2) of the Act. If the agency requesting the exclusion does not provide us with a reasonably specific justification, we will contact the agency to recommend that it provide a specific justification or clarification of its concerns relative to the probable incremental impact that could result from the designation. If we conduct an exclusion analysis because the agency provides a reasonably specific justification or because we decide to exercise the discretion to conduct an exclusion analysis, we will defer to the expert judgment of DoD, DHS, or another Federal agency as to: (1) Whether activities on its lands or waters, or its activities on other lands or waters, have national-security or homeland-security implications; (2) the importance of those implications; and (3) the degree to which the cited implications would be adversely affected in the absence of an exclusion. In that circumstance, in conducting a discretionary section 4(b)(2) exclusion analysis, we will give great weight to national-security and homeland-security concerns in analyzing the benefits of exclusion.</P>
                    <P>Under section 4(b)(2) of the Act, we also consider whether a national security or homeland security impact might exist on lands owned or managed by DoD or DHS. In preparing this proposal, we have determined that, other than the land exempted under section 4(a)(3)(B)(i) of the Act based upon the existence of an approved INRMP (see Exemptions, above), the lands within the proposed designation of critical habitat for any of the four DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog are not owned or managed by DoD or DHS. Therefore, we anticipate no impact on national security or homeland security.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Consideration of Other Relevant Impacts</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under section 4(b)(2) of the Act, we consider any other relevant impacts, in addition to economic impacts and impacts on national security discussed above. To identify other relevant 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3430"/>
                        impacts that may affect the exclusion analysis, we consider a number of factors, including whether there are approved and permitted conservation agreements or plans covering the species in the area—such as safe harbor agreements (SHAs), candidate conservation agreements with assurances (CCAAs) or “conservation benefit agreements” or “conservation agreements” (CBAs) (CBAs are a new type of agreement replacing SHAs and CCAAs in use after April 2024 (89 FR 26070; April 12, 2024)) or HCPs—or whether there are non-permitted conservation agreements and partnerships that may be impaired by designation of, or exclusion from, critical habitat. In addition, we look at whether Tribal conservation plans or partnerships, Tribal resources, or government-to-government relationships of the United States with Tribal entities may be affected by the designation. We also consider any State, local, social, or other impacts that might occur because of the designation.
                    </P>
                    <P>When analyzing other relevant impacts of including a particular area in a designation of critical habitat, we weigh those impacts relative to the conservation value of the particular area. To determine the conservation value of designating a particular area, we consider a number of factors, including, but not limited to, the additional regulatory benefits that the area would receive due to the protection from destruction or adverse modification as a result of actions with a Federal nexus, the educational benefits of mapping essential habitat for recovery of the listed species, and any benefits that may result from a designation due to State or Federal laws that may apply to critical habitat.</P>
                    <P>In the case of the four DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog, the benefits of critical habitat include public awareness of the presence of foothill yellow-legged frog and the importance of habitat protection, and, where a Federal nexus exists, increased habitat protection for the foothill yellow-legged frog due to protection from destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat. Continued implementation of an ongoing management plan that provides conservation equal to or more than the protections that result from a critical habitat designation would reduce those benefits of including that specific area in the critical habitat designation.</P>
                    <P>After identifying the benefits of inclusion and the benefits of exclusion, we carefully weigh the two sides to evaluate whether the benefits of exclusion outweigh those of inclusion. If our analysis indicates that the benefits of exclusion outweigh the benefits of inclusion, we then determine whether exclusion would result in extinction of the species. If exclusion of an area from critical habitat will result in extinction, we will not exclude it from the designation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Private or Other Non-Federal Conservation Plans Related to Permits Under Section 10 of the Act</HD>
                    <P>As mentioned above, as part of our 4(b)(2) analysis, we consider whether there are approved and permitted conservation agreements or plans covering the species in the area such SHAs, CCAAs, CBAs or HCPs. Under sections 10(a)(1)(A) and 10(a)(1)(B) of the Act, non-federal entities may develop these agreements or plans when they seek authorization for take that may otherwise be prohibited under section 9 through an enhancement of survival (EOS) or incidental take permit (ITP), respectively.</P>
                    <P>
                        Property owners seeking an EOS permit collaborate with the Service to develop a CBA to support the application. The EOS permit authorizes take associated with implementing the agreement and ongoing land management activities that provide a net conservation benefit to the covered species. The CBA replaces two previous types of voluntary agreements (SHAs and CCAAs) going forward for new agreements after May 2024. However, permitted SHAs and CCAAs or those noticed in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         prior to May 2024 remain in effect.
                    </P>
                    <P>For incidental take permits issued under section 10(a)(1)(B) of the Act, applicants are required to develop a conservation plan, more commonly known as an HCP to support their application. ITPs authorize take that is incidental to, but not the purpose of, carrying out otherwise lawful activities provided that the impact of the taking is minimized and mitigated to the maximum extent practicable.</P>
                    <P>For both section 10(a)(1)(A) and 10(a)(1)(B) permits, we provide permittees with assurances. In the case of 10(a)(1)(A) permits, we may not require additional or different conservation measures to be undertaken by a permittee without the consent of the permittee. In the case of section 10(a)(1)(B), we will not impose further land-, water-, or resource-use restrictions, or require additional commitments of land, water, or finances, beyond those agreed to in the HCP.</P>
                    <P>We place great value on the partnerships that are developed during the preparation and implementation of conservation plans and agreements. In some cases, permittees agree to do more for the conservation of the species and their habitats on private lands than designation of critical habitat would provide alone.</P>
                    <P>When we undertake a discretionary section 4(b)(2) exclusion analysis based on conservation plans or agreements, we anticipate consistently excluding such areas if incidental take caused by the activities in those areas is covered by the permit under section 10 of the Act and the plan meets all of the following three factors (See the 2016 Policy for additional details. Because combining types of agreements such as SHAs and CCAAs into the term “CBAs” is a recent development (see 89 FR 26070; April 12, 2024), the 2016 Policy did not expressly reference CBAs. However, because CBAs replace CCAAs and SHAs, moving forward we treat CBAs similarly to how we treat CCAAs/SHAs/HCPs described below):</P>
                    <P>a. The permittee is properly implementing the CBA/HCP and is expected to continue to do so for the term of the agreement. A CBA/HCP is properly implemented if the permittee is and has been fully implementing the commitments and provisions in the CBA/HCP, implementing agreement, and permit.</P>
                    <P>b. The species for which critical habitat is being designated is a covered species in the CBA/HCP, or very similar in its habitat requirements to a covered species. The recognition that the Service extends to such an agreement depends on the degree to which the conservation measures undertaken in the CBA/HCP would also protect the habitat features of the similar species.</P>
                    <P>c. The CBA/HCP specifically addresses that species' habitat and meets the conservation needs of the species in the planning area.</P>
                    <P>The proposed critical habitat designation includes areas that are covered by a joint Federal and State habitat conservation plan (HCP) and California State natural community conservation plan (NCCP) (Santa Clara Valley HCP/NCCP) that has been approved and implemented for the Central Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog as a covered species and assists in local population and habitat conservation and restoration (ICF International 2012, entire).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Santa Clara Valley Habitat Conservation Plan/Natural Community Conservation Plan</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Santa Clara Valley Habitat Plan (Plan) was permitted in 2012 and provides a framework for promoting the protection and recovery of natural 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3431"/>
                        resources, including endangered species, while streamlining the permitting process for planned development, infrastructure, and maintenance activities (ICF International 2012, entire). The foothill yellow-legged frog is a covered species under the joint Federal and State plan. The plan covers a 519,506-ac (210,237-ha) area in Santa Clara County in the Central California Coast Range and includes measures for species management and habitat protection. Covered activities in the plan fall into seven general categories and include urban development, in-stream capital projects, in-stream operations and maintenance, rural capital projects, rural operations and maintenance, rural development, and conservation strategy implementation (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         activities within the lands managed, enhanced, restored, and monitored to conserve the natural resources targeted by the plan). Measures identified for conservation of the foothill yellow-legged frog provided in the plan and being implemented include land acquisition and protection; habitat management; survey and monitoring; stream flow management; and habitat enhancement, restoration, and creation.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Santa Clara Valley HCP/NCCP has gone through the appropriate approval processes from the Service and CDFW as well as through necessary public participation; the conservation actions identified in the plan have been implemented and protect, conserve, and enhance the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the Central Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog; and the HCP/NCCP contains an adaptive management, monitoring, and reporting program to ensure the conservation measures are effective and can be modified in the future in response to new information. After considering the factors described above, we have reason to consider excluding the approximately 57,910 ac (23,435 ha) of critical habitat within the Central Coast DPS that occurs in the Santa Clara Valley HCP/NCCP planning area from the final designation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Exclusions Considered Under 4(b)(2) of the Act</HD>
                    <P>We have reason to consider excluding the following areas under section 4(b)(2) of the Act from the final critical habitat designation for the Central Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog. Table 3 below provides approximate areas (ac, ha) of lands that meet the definition of critical habitat but for which we are considering possible exclusion under section 4(b)(2) of the Act from the final critical habitat rule. In total, we have identified approximately 57,910 ac (23,435 ha) of proposed critical habitat to consider for exclusion under section 4(b)(2) of the Act.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,16,16,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 3—Areas Considered for Exclusion for the Central Coast DPS of the Foothill Yellow-Legged Frog by Proposed Critical Habitat Unit</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Unit</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Areas meeting the definition of critical habitat, in acres
                                <LI>(hectares)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Areas considered for possible
                                <LI>exclusion, in acres</LI>
                                <LI>(hectares)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Reasons for considering exclusion</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">4</ENT>
                            <ENT>63,907 (25,862)</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,604 (2,673)</ENT>
                            <ENT>Santa Clara Valley HCP/NCCP.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">5</ENT>
                            <ENT>40,371 (16,337)</ENT>
                            <ENT>40,386 (16,344)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">6 subunit a</ENT>
                            <ENT>7,772 (3,145)</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,474 (597)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s,s,n">
                            <ENT I="01">6 subunit b</ENT>
                            <ENT>9,459 (3,828)</ENT>
                            <ENT>9,446 (3,823)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>57,910 (23,435)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>In conclusion, for this proposed rule, we have reason to consider excluding the areas identified above from the final designation based on other relevant impacts. We specifically solicit comments on the inclusion or exclusion of such areas. We also solicit comments on whether there are potential economic, national security, or other relevant impacts from designating any other particular areas as critical habitat. As part of developing the final designation of critical habitat, we will evaluate the information we receive regarding potential impacts from designating the areas described above or any other particular areas, and we may conduct a discretionary exclusion analysis to determine whether to exclude those areas under authority of section 4(b)(2) and our implementing regulations at 50 CFR 424.19. If we receive a request for exclusion of a particular area and after evaluation of supporting information we do not exclude, we will fully describe our decision in the final rule for this action.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Required Determinations</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Clarity of the Rule</HD>
                    <P>We are required by E.O.s 12866 and 12988 and by the Presidential Memorandum of June 1, 1998, to write all rules in plain language. This means that each rule we publish must:</P>
                    <P>(1) Be logically organized;</P>
                    <P>(2) Use the active voice to address readers directly;</P>
                    <P>(3) Use clear language rather than jargon;</P>
                    <P>(4) Be divided into short sections and sentences; and</P>
                    <P>(5) Use lists and tables wherever possible.</P>
                    <P>
                        If you feel that we have not met these requirements, send us comments by one of the methods listed in 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                        . To better help us revise the rule, your comments should be as specific as possible. For example, you should tell us the numbers of the sections or paragraphs that are unclearly written, which sections or sentences are too long, the sections where you feel lists or tables would be useful, etc.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Planning and Review (Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 14094)</HD>
                    <P>Executive Order (E.O.) 14094 reaffirms the principles of E.O. 12866 and E.O. 13563 and states that regulatory analysis should facilitate agency efforts to develop regulations that serve the public interest, advance statutory objectives, and are consistent with E.O.s 12866, 13563, and 14094. Regulatory analysis, as practicable and appropriate, shall recognize distributive impacts and equity, to the extent permitted by law. Executive Order 13563 emphasizes further that regulations must be based on the best available science and that the rulemaking process must allow for public participation and an open exchange of ideas. We have developed this proposed rule in a manner consistent with these requirements.</P>
                    <P>
                        Executive Order 12866, as reaffirmed by E.O. 13563 and amended by E.O. 14094, provides that the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3432"/>
                        (OIRA) in the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) will review all significant rules. OIRA has determined that this rulemaking action is not significant.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 et seq.)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA; 5 U.S.C. 601 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ), as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (SBREFA; title II of Pub. L. 104-121, March 29, 1996), whenever an agency is required to publish a notice of rulemaking for any proposed or final rule, it must prepare and make available for public comment a regulatory flexibility analysis that describes the effects of the rule on small entities (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         small businesses, small organizations, and small government jurisdictions). However, no regulatory flexibility analysis is required if the head of the agency certifies the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The SBREFA amended the RFA to require Federal agencies to provide a certification statement of the factual basis for certifying that the rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.
                    </P>
                    <P>According to the Small Business Administration, small entities include small organizations such as independent nonprofit organizations; small governmental jurisdictions, including school boards and city and town governments that serve fewer than 50,000 residents; and small businesses (13 CFR 121.201). Small businesses include manufacturing and mining concerns with fewer than 500 employees, wholesale trade entities with fewer than 100 employees, retail and service businesses with less than $5 million in annual sales, general and heavy construction businesses with less than $27.5 million in annual business, special trade contractors doing less than $11.5 million in annual business, and agricultural businesses with annual sales less than $750,000. To determine whether potential economic impacts to these small entities are significant, we considered the types of activities that might trigger regulatory impacts under this designation as well as types of project modifications that may result. In general, the term “significant economic impact” is meant to apply to a typical small business firm's business operations.</P>
                    <P>Under the RFA, as amended, and as understood in light of recent court decisions, Federal agencies are required to evaluate the potential incremental impacts of rulemaking on those entities directly regulated by the rulemaking itself; in other words, the RFA does not require agencies to evaluate the potential impacts to indirectly regulated entities. The regulatory mechanism through which critical habitat protections are realized is section 7 of the Act, which requires Federal agencies, in consultation with the Service, to ensure that any action authorized, funded, or carried out by the agency is not likely to destroy or adversely modify critical habitat. Therefore, under section 7, only Federal action agencies are directly subject to the specific regulatory requirement (avoiding destruction and adverse modification) imposed by critical habitat designation. Consequently, only Federal action agencies would be directly regulated if we adopt the proposed critical habitat designation. The RFA does not require evaluation of the potential impacts to entities not directly regulated. Moreover, Federal agencies are not small entities. Therefore, because no small entities would be directly regulated by this rulemaking, the Service certifies that, if made final as proposed, the proposed critical habitat designation will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.</P>
                    <P>In summary, we have considered whether the proposed designation would result in a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. For the above reasons and based on currently available information, we certify that, if made final, the proposed critical habitat designation would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small business entities. Therefore, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis is not required.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use—Executive Order 13211</HD>
                    <P>Executive Order 13211 (Actions Concerning Regulations That Significantly Affect Energy Supply, Distribution, or Use) requires agencies to prepare statements of energy effects when “to the extent permitted by law” when undertaking actions identified as significant energy actions (66 FR 28355; May 22, 2001). Executive Order 13211 defines a “significant energy action” as, among other things, an action that (i) meets the definition of a “significant regulatory action” under E.O. 12866, as amended by E.O. 14094; and (ii) is likely to have a significant adverse effect on the supply, distribution, or use of energy. This rule is not a significant regulatory action under E.O. 12866 as amended by E.O. 14094 (88 FR 21879; April 11, 2023). Therefore, this action is not a significant energy action, and there is no requirement to prepare a statement of energy effects for this action.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (2 U.S.C. 1501 et seq.)</HD>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (2 U.S.C. 1501 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ), we make the following finding:
                    </P>
                    <P>(1) This proposed rule would not produce a Federal mandate. In general, a Federal mandate is a provision in legislation, statute, or regulation that would impose an enforceable duty upon State, local, or Tribal governments, or the private sector, and includes both “Federal intergovernmental mandates” and “Federal private sector mandates.” These terms are defined in 2 U.S.C. 658(5)-(7). “Federal intergovernmental mandate” includes a regulation that “would impose an enforceable duty upon State, local, or Tribal governments” with two exceptions. It excludes “a condition of Federal assistance.” It also excludes “a duty arising from participation in a voluntary Federal program,” unless the regulation “relates to a then-existing Federal program under which $500,000,000 or more is provided annually to State, local, and Tribal governments under entitlement authority,” if the provision would “increase the stringency of conditions of assistance” or “place caps upon, or otherwise decrease, the Federal Government's responsibility to provide funding,” and the State, local, or Tribal governments “lack authority” to adjust accordingly. At the time of enactment, these entitlement programs were: Medicaid; Aid to Families with Dependent Children work programs; Child Nutrition; Food Stamps; Social Services Block Grants; Vocational Rehabilitation State Grants; Foster Care, Adoption Assistance, and Independent Living; Family Support Welfare Services; and Child Support Enforcement. “Federal private sector mandate” includes a regulation that “would impose an enforceable duty upon the private sector, except (i) a condition of Federal assistance or (ii) a duty arising from participation in a voluntary Federal program.”</P>
                    <P>
                        The designation of critical habitat does not impose a legally binding duty on non-Federal Government entities or private parties. Under the Act, the only regulatory effect is that Federal agencies must ensure that their actions are not likely to destroy or adversely modify critical habitat under section 7. While non-Federal entities that receive Federal funding, assistance, or permits, or that otherwise require approval or authorization from a Federal agency for an action, may be indirectly impacted 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3433"/>
                        by the designation of critical habitat, the legally binding duty to avoid destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat rests squarely on the Federal agency. Furthermore, to the extent that non-Federal entities are indirectly impacted because they receive Federal assistance or participate in a voluntary Federal aid program, the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act would not apply, nor would critical habitat shift the costs of the large entitlement programs listed above onto State governments.
                    </P>
                    <P>(2) We do not believe that this rule would significantly or uniquely affect small governments because the government lands being proposed for critical habitat are owned by Santa Clara County, the State of California, the Bureau of Land Management, and the U.S. Forest Service, and none of these government entities fits the definition of “small governmental jurisdiction.” In addition, the designation will not produce a Federal mandate of $100 million or greater in any year, and, therefore, it is not a “significant regulatory action” under the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act. The designation of critical habitat imposes no obligations on State or local governments and, as such, a small government agency plan is not required.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Takings—Executive Order 12630</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with E.O. 12630 (Government Actions and Interference with Constitutionally Protected Private Property Rights), we have analyzed the potential takings implications of designating critical habitat for the four DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog in a takings implications assessment. The Act does not authorize the Service to regulate private actions on private lands or confiscate private property as a result of critical habitat designation. Designation of critical habitat does not affect land ownership, or establish any closures, or restrictions on use of or access to the designated areas. Furthermore, the designation of critical habitat does not affect landowner actions that do not require Federal funding or permits, nor does it preclude development of habitat conservation programs or issuance of incidental take permits to permit actions that do require Federal funding or permits to go forward. However, Federal agencies are prohibited from carrying out, funding, or authorizing actions that would destroy or adversely modify critical habitat. A takings implications assessment has been completed for the proposed designation of critical habitat for the foothill yellow-legged frog, and it concludes that, if adopted, this designation of critical habitat does not pose significant takings implications for lands within or affected by the designation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Federalism—Executive Order 13132</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with E.O. 13132 (Federalism), this proposed rule does not have significant federalism effects. A federalism summary impact statement is not required. In keeping with Department of the Interior and Department of Commerce policy, we requested information from, and coordinated development of this proposed critical habitat designation with, appropriate State resource agencies. From a federalism perspective, the designation of critical habitat directly affects only the responsibilities of Federal agencies. The Act imposes no other duties with respect to critical habitat, either for States and local governments, or for anyone else. As a result, the proposed rule does not have substantial direct effects either on the States, or on the relationship between the Federal Government and the States, or on the distribution of powers and responsibilities among the various levels of government. The proposed designation may have some benefit to these governments because the areas that contain the features essential to the conservation of the species are more clearly defined, and the physical or biological features of the habitat necessary for the conservation of the species are specifically identified. This information does not alter where and what federally sponsored activities may occur. However, it may assist State and local governments in long-range planning because they no longer have to wait for case-by-case section 7 consultations to occur.</P>
                    <P>Where State and local governments require approval or authorization from a Federal agency for actions that may affect critical habitat, consultation under section 7(a)(2) of the Act would be required. While non-Federal entities that receive Federal funding, assistance, or permits, or that otherwise require approval or authorization from a Federal agency for an action, may be indirectly impacted by the designation of critical habitat, the legally binding duty to avoid destruction or adverse modification of critical habitat rests squarely on the Federal agency.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Civil Justice Reform—Executive Order 12988</HD>
                    <P>In accordance with E.O. 12988 (Civil Justice Reform), the Office of the Solicitor has determined that the rule would not unduly burden the judicial system and that it meets the requirements of sections 3(a) and 3(b)(2) of the Order. We have proposed designating critical habitat in accordance with the provisions of the Act. To assist the public in understanding the habitat needs of the species, this proposed rule identifies the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of the species. The proposed areas of critical habitat are presented on maps, and the proposed rule provides several options for the interested public to obtain more detailed location information, if desired.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">
                        Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        )
                    </HD>
                    <P>
                        This rule does not contain information collection requirements, and a submission to the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) is not required. We may not conduct or sponsor and you are not required to respond to a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">National Environmental Policy Act (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq.)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Regulations adopted pursuant to section 4(a) of the Act are exempt from the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA; 42 U.S.C. 4321 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) and do not require an environmental analysis under NEPA. We published a notice outlining our reasons for this determination in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         on October 25, 1983 (48 FR 49244). This includes listing, delisting, and reclassification rules, as well as critical habitat designations and species-specific protective regulations promulgated concurrently with a decision to list or reclassify a species as threatened. The courts have upheld this position (
                        <E T="03">e.g., Douglas County</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Babbitt,</E>
                         48 F.3d 1495 (9th Cir. 1995) (critical habitat); 
                        <E T="03">Center for Biological Diversity</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service,</E>
                         2005 WL 2000928 (N.D. Cal. Aug. 19, 2005) (concurrent 4(d) rule)).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Government-to-Government Relationship With Tribes</HD>
                    <P>
                        In accordance with the President's memorandum of April 29, 1994 (Government-to-Government Relations with Native American Tribal Governments; 59 FR 22951), E.O. 13175 (Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments), and the Department of the Interior's manual at 512 DM 2, we readily acknowledge our responsibility to communicate meaningfully with federally recognized Tribes on a government-to-government basis. In accordance with Secretary's 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3434"/>
                        Order 3206 of June 5, 1997 (American Indian Tribal Rights, Federal-Tribal Trust Responsibilities, and the Endangered Species Act), we readily acknowledge our responsibilities to work directly with Tribes in developing programs for healthy ecosystems, to acknowledge that Tribal lands are not subject to the same controls as Federal public lands, to remain sensitive to Indian culture, and to make information available to Tribes. During the development of the SSA report for the foothill yellow-legged frog, we asked for information and concerns from all the federally recognized Tribes in the range of the species in Oregon and California. We did not receive any information regarding the foothill yellow-legged frog from any Tribe. We will continue to work with Tribal entities during the development of a final rule for the designation of critical habitat for the four DPSs of the foothill yellow-legged frog.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">References Cited</HD>
                    <P>
                        A complete list of references cited in this rulemaking is available on the internet at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         and upon request from the Sacramento Fish and Wildlife Office (see 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                        ).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authors</HD>
                    <P>The primary authors of this proposed rule are the staff members of the Fish and Wildlife Service's Species Assessment Team and staff from the Sacramento and Ventura Fish and Wildlife Offices.</P>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 50 CFR Part 17</HD>
                        <P>Endangered and threatened species, Exports, Imports, Plants, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Transportation, Wildlife.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Regulation Promulgation</HD>
                    <P>Accordingly, we propose to amend part 17, subchapter B of chapter I, title 50 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as set forth below:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 17—ENDANGERED AND THREATENED WILDLIFE AND PLANTS</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 17 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                        <P>16 U.S.C. 1361-1407; 1531-1544; and 4201-4245, unless otherwise noted.</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <AMDPAR>2. In § 17.11, amend paragraph (h) in the List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife under Amphibians by revising the entries for “Frog, foothill yellow-legged [Central Coast DPS]”, “Frog, foothill yellow-legged [North Feather DPS]”, “Frog, foothill yellow-legged [South Coast DPS]”, and “Frog, foothill yellow-legged [South Sierra DPS]” to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 17.11</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Endangered and threatened wildlife.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(h) * * *</P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L1,nj,tp0,i1" CDEF="s75,r60,r50,xls30,r100">
                            <TTITLE> </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Common name</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Scientific name</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Where listed</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Status</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">Listing citations and applicable rules</CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="21">
                                    <E T="04">Amphibians</E>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Frog, foothill yellow-legged [Central Coast DPS]</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>California (All foothill yellow-legged frogs in the Central Coast Range south of San Francisco Bay to San Benito and Fresno Counties)</ENT>
                                <ENT>T</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    88 FR 59698, 8/29/2023; 50 CFR 17.43(g);
                                    <SU>4d</SU>
                                     50 CFR 17.95(d).
                                    <SU>CH</SU>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Frog, foothill yellow-legged [North Feather DPS]</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>California (All foothill yellow-legged frogs in the North Feather River watershed largely in Plumas and Butte Counties)</ENT>
                                <ENT>T</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    88 FR 59698, 8/29/2023; 50 CFR 17.43(g);
                                    <SU>4d</SU>
                                     50 CFR 17.95(d).
                                    <SU>CH</SU>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Frog, foothill yellow-legged [South Coast DPS]</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>California (All foothill yellow-legged frogs in the Coast Range from Coastal Monterey County south to Los Angeles County)</ENT>
                                <ENT>E</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    88 FR 59698, 8/29/2023; 50 CFR 17.95(d).
                                    <SU>CH</SU>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Frog, foothill yellow-legged [South Sierra DPS]</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                                </ENT>
                                <ENT>California (All foothill yellow-legged frogs in the Sierra Nevada Mountains south of the American River sub-basin south to the Transverse Range in Kern County)</ENT>
                                <ENT>E</ENT>
                                <ENT>
                                    88 FR 59698, 8/29/2023; 50 CFR 17.95(d).
                                    <SU>CH</SU>
                                </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="22"> </ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="28">*         *         *         *         *         *         *</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>3. Amend § 17.95 in paragraph (d) by adding:</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>
                        a. An entry for “Foothill Yellow-Legged Frog (
                        <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                        ), Central Coast DPS” after the entry for “Dusky Gopher Frog (
                        <E T="03">Rana sevosa</E>
                        )”;
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>
                        b. An entry for “Foothill Yellow-Legged Frog (
                        <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                        ), North Feather DPS” after the new entry for “Foothill Yellow-Legged Frog (
                        <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                        ), Central Coast DPS”;
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>
                        c. An entry for “Foothill Yellow-Legged Frog (
                        <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                        ), South Coast DPS” after the new entry for “Foothill 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3435"/>
                        Yellow-Legged Frog (
                        <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                        ), North Feather DPS”; and
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>
                        d. An entry for “Foothill Yellow-Legged Frog (
                        <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                        ), South Sierra DPS” after the new entry for “Foothill Yellow-Legged Frog (
                        <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                        ), South Coast DPS”.
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <P>The additions read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 17.95</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Critical habitat—fish and wildlife.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Amphibians.</E>
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                            Foothill Yellow-Legged Frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ), Central Coast DPS
                        </HD>
                        <P>(1) Critical habitat units are depicted for Alameda, Fresno, San Benito, Santa Clara, Santa Cruz, and Stanislaus Counties, California, on the maps in this entry.</P>
                        <P>(2) Within these areas, the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of foothill yellow-legged frog consist of the following components:</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Aquatic stream habitat.</E>
                             (A) Stream reaches with a hydrological pattern (including appropriate stream velocity, water depth, water temperature, streambed substrate, and geomorphic heterogeneity) capable of supporting foothill yellow-legged frog breeding and rearing. Suitable stream reaches typically contain a wide and shallow channel morphology, an intermittent canopy, and rocky substrate that is cobble-sized or larger. These features provide habitat for breeding, feeding, and reproduction and in some cases general aquatic or overwintering habitat for the foothill yellow-legged frog.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Tributary (nonbreeding) habitat adjacent to and accessible from breeding and rearing habitat. Suitable tributary habitats typically contain sources of invertebrate prey, intermittent canopy, thermally stable microsites, and moist overwintering refugia protected from scouring winter flows. These refugia may include springs, seeps, pools, woody debris, root wads, undercut banks, clumps of sedges, and rocks.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Terrestrial and dispersal habitat.</E>
                             (A) Upland habitat adjacent to and accessible from breeding, rearing, and tributary habitat as identified in paragraphs (2)(i)(A) and (B) of this entry. Suitable upland habitats typically contain sources of invertebrate prey, intermittent canopy, thermally stable microsites, and moist overwintering refugia. These refugia may include nonstream pools, woody debris, root wads, clumps of sedges, and large boulders or debris.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) Dispersal habitat comprising permanent or ephemeral water channels and adjacent uplands that connect breeding and overwintering habitat sites. Suitable dispersal habitat does not need to hold moisture for extended periods. Suitable dispersal habitat typically connects areas containing intermittent canopy, interstitial spaces for sheltering, and sources of invertebrate prey. Additionally, suitable dispersal habitat is free from large physical barriers, hydrological barriers (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             dams, reservoirs, and rivers with highly altered flow regimes), and areas with high exposure to predators.
                        </P>
                        <P>(3) Critical habitat does not include manmade structures (such as buildings, aqueducts, runways, roads, and other paved areas) and the land on which they are located existing within the legal boundaries on the effective date of the final rule.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) Data layers defining map units were created using the National Hydrography Dataset and California Natural Diversity Database occurrence records and other survey information. The critical habitat units were then mapped using Universal Transverse Mercator Zone 10N and 11N coordinates. The maps in this entry, as modified by any accompanying regulatory text, establish the boundaries of the critical habitat designation. The coordinates or plot points or both on which each map is based are available to the public at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                             at Docket No. FWS-R8-ES-2023-0157, and at the field office responsible for this designation. You may obtain field office location information by contacting one of the Service regional offices, the addresses of which are listed at 50 CFR 2.2.
                        </P>
                        <P>(5) Unit CC-1a: Central Coast DPS—Corral Hollow Creek, Alameda County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit CC-1a consists of 4,483 ac (1,814 ha) in Alameda County and is composed entirely of private ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit CC-1a follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 1 to Central Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (5)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-P</BILCOD>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3436"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.004</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(6) Unit CC-1b: Central Coast DPS—Lower Arroyo Mocho, Alameda County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit CC-1b consists of 7,571 ac (3,064 ha) in Alameda County and is composed of local government (6 ac (3 ha)) and private (7,564 ac (3,061 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit CC-1b follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 2 to Central Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (6)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3437"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.005</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(7) Unit CC-1c: Central Coast DPS—Upper Arroyo Mocho, Alameda County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit CC-1c consists of 4,541 ac (1,838 ha) in Alameda County and is composed entirely of private ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit CC-1c follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 3 to Central Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (7)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="465">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3438"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.006</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(8) Unit CC-1d: Central Coast DPS—Colorado Creek, Santa Clara and Stanislaus Counties, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit CC-1d consists of 4,698 ac (1,901 ha) in Santa Clara and Stanislaus Counties and is composed entirely of private ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit CC-1d follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 4 to Central Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (8)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3439"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.007</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(9) Unit CC-1e: Central Coast DPS—Del Puerto Creek, Stanislaus County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit CC-1e consists of 12,395 ac (5,016 ha) in Stanislaus County and is composed of Federal 414 ac (168 ha)) and private (11,981 ac (4,849 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit CC-1e follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 5 to Central Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (9)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="463">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3440"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.008</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(10) Unit CC-2: Central Coast DPS—Robison Creek, Stanislaus County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit CC-2 consists of 6,977 ac (2,824 ha) in Stanislaus County and is composed of Federal (5,139 ac (2,080 ha)) and private (1,838 ac (744 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit CC-2 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 6 to Central Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (10)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="463">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3441"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.009</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(11) Unit CC-3: Central Coast DPS—Orestimba Creek, Stanislaus County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit CC-3 consists of 4,541 ac (1,838 ha) in Stanislaus County and is composed entirely of private ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit CC-3 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 7 to Central Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (11)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3442"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.010</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(12) Unit CC-4: Central Coast DPS—Alameda Creek, Arroyo Hondo, and Upper Penitencia, Alameda and Santa Clara Counties, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit CC-4 consists of 63,907 ac (25,862 ha) in Alameda and Santa Clara Counties and is composed of State (2,828 ac (1,144 ha)), local government (1,871 ac (757 ha)), and private (59,208 ac (23,961 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit CC-4 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 8 to Central Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (12)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3443"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.011</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(13) Unit CC-5: Central Coast DPS—Coyote Creek, Santa Clara County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit CC-5 consists of 40,370 ac (16,337 ha) in Santa Clara County and is composed of Federal (643 ac (260 ha)), State (16,251 ac (6,576 ha)), local government (255 ac (103 ha)), and private (23,222 ac (9,398 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit CC-5 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 9 to Central Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (13)(ii)  
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="465">
                              
                            <PRTPAGE P="3444"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.012</GID>
                        </GPH>
                          
                        <P>(14) Unit CC-6a: Central Coast DPS—Guadalupe and Rincon Creeks, Santa Clara County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit CC-6a consists of 7,772 ac (3,145 ha) in Santa Clara County and is composed of local government (1,100 ac (445 ha)) and private (6,672 ac (2,700 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit CC-6a follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 10 to Central Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (14)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3445"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.013</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(15) Unit CC-6b: Central Coast DPS—Llagas Creek, Santa Clara County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit CC-6b consists of 9,459 ac (3,828 ha) in Santa Clara County and is composed entirely of private ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit CC-6b follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 11 to Central Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (15)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3446"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.014</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(16) Unit CC-7: Central Coast DPS—Soquel and Bridge Creeks, Santa Cruz and Santa Clara Counties, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit CC-7 consists of 19,490 ac (7,887 ha) in Santa Cruz and Santa Clara Counties and is composed of State (5,689 ac (2,302 ha)) and private (13,800 ac (5,585 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit CC-7 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 12 to Central Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (16)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3447"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.015</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(17) Unit CC-8: Central Coast DPS—Goat Mountain, Fresno and San Benito Counties, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit CC-8 consists of 63,739 ac (25,794 ha) in Fresno and San Benito Counties and is composed of Federal (38,953 ac (15,764 ha)), State (1,804 (730 ha)), and private (22,981 ac (9,300 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit CC-8 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 13 to Central Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (17)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3448"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.016</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-C</BILCOD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                            Foothill Yellow-Legged Frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ), North Feather DPS
                        </HD>
                        <P>(1) Critical habitat units are depicted for Butte and Plumas Counties, California, on the maps in this entry.</P>
                        <P>(2) Within these areas, the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of foothill yellow-legged frog consist of the following components:</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Aquatic stream habitat.</E>
                             (A) Stream reaches with a hydrological pattern (including appropriate stream velocity, water depth, water temperature, streambed substrate, and geomorphic heterogeneity) capable of supporting foothill yellow-legged frog breeding and rearing. Suitable stream reaches typically contain a wide and shallow channel morphology, an intermittent canopy, and rocky substrate that is cobble-sized or larger. These features provide habitat for breeding, feeding, and reproduction and in some cases general aquatic or overwintering habitat for the foothill yellow-legged frog.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Tributary (nonbreeding) habitat adjacent to and accessible from breeding and rearing habitat. Suitable tributary habitats typically contain sources of invertebrate prey, intermittent canopy, thermally stable microsites, and moist overwintering refugia protected from scouring winter flows. These refugia may include springs, seeps, pools, woody debris, root wads, undercut banks, clumps of sedges, and rocks.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Terrestrial and dispersal habitat.</E>
                             (A) Upland habitat adjacent to and accessible from breeding, rearing, and tributary habitat as identified in paragraphs (2)(i)(A) and (B) of this entry. Suitable upland habitats typically contain sources of invertebrate prey, intermittent canopy, thermally stable microsites, and moist overwintering refugia. These refugia may include nonstream pools, woody debris, root wads, clumps of sedges, and large boulders or debris.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) Dispersal habitat comprising permanent or ephemeral water channels and adjacent uplands that connect breeding and overwintering habitat sites. Suitable dispersal habitat does not need to hold moisture for extended periods. Suitable dispersal habitat 
                            <PRTPAGE P="3449"/>
                            typically connects areas containing intermittent canopy, interstitial spaces for sheltering, and sources of invertebrate prey. Additionally, suitable dispersal habitat is free from large physical barriers, hydrological barriers (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             dams, reservoirs, and rivers with highly altered flow regimes), and areas with high exposure to predators.
                        </P>
                        <P>(3) Critical habitat does not include manmade structures (such as buildings, aqueducts, runways, roads, and other paved areas) and the land on which they are located existing within the legal boundaries on the effective date of the final rule.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) Data layers defining map units were created using the National Hydrography Dataset and California Natural Diversity Database occurrence records and other survey information. The critical habitat units were then mapped using Universal Transverse Mercator Zone 10N and 11N coordinates. The maps in this entry, as modified by any accompanying regulatory text, establish the boundaries of the critical habitat designation. The coordinates or plot points or both on which each map is based are available to the public at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                             at Docket No. FWS-R8-ES-2023-0157, and at the field office responsible for this designation. You may obtain field office location information by contacting one of the Service regional offices, the addresses of which are listed at 50 CFR 2.2.
                        </P>
                        <P>(5) Unit NF-1: North Feather DPS—North Fork Feather River and Butte Creek, Butte and Plumas Counties, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit NF-1 consists of 99,433 ac (40,239 ha) in Butte and Plumas Counties and is composed of Federal (30,116 ac (12,188 ha)), State (383 ac (155 ha)) and private (68,934 ac (27,897 ha)) land ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit NF-1 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 1 to North Feather DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (5)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-P</BILCOD>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <GID>EP14JA25.017</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <PRTPAGE P="3450"/>
                        <P>(6) Unit NF-2: North Feather DPS—Middle Fork Feather River, Plumas and Butte Counties, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit NF-2 consists of 77,145 ac (31,219 ha) in Plumas and Butte Counties and is composed of Federal (69,251 ac (28,025 ha)), State (447 ac (181 ha)), and private (7,446 ac (3,013 ha)) land ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit NF-2 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 2 to North Feather DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (6)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="466">
                            <GID>EP14JA25.018</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(7) Unit NF-3: North Feather DPS—South Fork Feather River, Plumas and Butte Counties, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit NF-3 consists of 11,186 ac (4,527 ac) in Plumas and Butte Counties and is composed of Federal (4,645 ac (1,880 ha)) and private (6,541 ac (2,647 ha)) land ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit NF-3 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 3 to North Feather DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (7)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3451"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.019</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(8) Unit NF-4: North Feather DPS—Clear Creek, Butte County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit NF-4 consists of 4,512 ac (1,826 ha) in Butte County and is composed of Federal (32 ac (13 ha)) and private (4,480 ac (1,813 ha)) land ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit NF-4 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 4 to North Feather DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (8)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3452"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.020</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-C</BILCOD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                            Foothill Yellow-Legged Frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ), South Coast DPS
                        </HD>
                        <P>(1) A critical habitat unit is depicted for Monterey and San Luis Obispo Counties, California, on the map in this entry.</P>
                        <P>(2) Within these areas, the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of foothill yellow-legged frog consist of the following components:</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Aquatic stream habitat.</E>
                             (A) Stream reaches with a hydrological pattern (including appropriate stream velocity, water depth, water temperature, streambed substrate, and geomorphic heterogeneity) capable of supporting foothill yellow-legged frog breeding and rearing. Suitable stream reaches typically contain a wide and shallow channel morphology, an intermittent canopy, and rocky substrate that is cobble-sized or larger. These features provide habitat for breeding, feeding, and reproduction and in some cases general aquatic or overwintering habitat for the foothill yellow-legged frog.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Tributary (nonbreeding) habitat adjacent to and accessible from breeding and rearing habitat. Suitable tributary habitats typically contain sources of invertebrate prey, intermittent canopy, thermally stable microsites, and moist overwintering refugia protected from scouring winter flows. These refugia may include springs, seeps, pools, woody debris, root wads, undercut banks, clumps of sedges, and rocks.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Terrestrial and dispersal habitat.</E>
                             (A) Upland habitat adjacent to and accessible from breeding, rearing, and tributary habitat as identified in paragraphs (2)(i)(A) and (B) of this entry. Suitable upland habitats typically contain sources of invertebrate prey, intermittent canopy, thermally stable microsites, and moist overwintering refugia. These refugia may include nonstream pools, woody debris, root wads, clumps of sedges, and large boulders or debris.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) Dispersal habitat comprising permanent or ephemeral water channels and adjacent uplands that connect breeding and overwintering habitat sites. Suitable dispersal habitat does not need to hold moisture for extended periods. Suitable dispersal habitat 
                            <PRTPAGE P="3453"/>
                            typically connects areas containing intermittent canopy, interstitial spaces for sheltering, and sources of invertebrate prey. Additionally, suitable dispersal habitat is free from large physical barriers, hydrological barriers (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             dams, reservoirs, and rivers with highly altered flow regimes), and areas with high exposure to predators.
                        </P>
                        <P>(3) Critical habitat does not include manmade structures (such as buildings, aqueducts, runways, roads, and other paved areas) and the land on which they are located existing within the legal boundaries on the effective date of the final rule.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) Data layers defining map units were created using the National Hydrography Dataset and California Natural Diversity Database occurrence records and other survey information. The critical habitat units were then mapped using Universal Transverse Mercator Zone 10N and 11N coordinates. The maps in this entry, as modified by any accompanying regulatory text, establish the boundaries of the critical habitat designation. The coordinates or plot points or both on which each map is based are available to the public at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                             at Docket No. FWS-R8-ES-2023-0157, and at the field office responsible for this designation. You may obtain field office location information by contacting one of the Service regional offices, the addresses of which are listed at 50 CFR 2.2.
                        </P>
                        <P>(5) Unit SC-1: South Coast DPS—San Carpoforo, Monterey and San Luis Obispo Counties, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit SC-1 consists of 10,077 ac (4,078 ha) in Monterey and San Luis Obispo Counties and is composed of Federal (2,683 ac (1,086 ha)) and private (7,394 ac (2,992 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit SC-1 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure to South Coast DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (5)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-P</BILCOD>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <GID>EP14JA25.021</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <PRTPAGE P="3454"/>
                        <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-C</BILCOD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD3">
                            Foothill Yellow-Legged Frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ), South Sierra DPS
                        </HD>
                        <P>(1) Critical habitat units are depicted for Amador, Calaveras, Eldorado, Fresno, Madera, Mariposa, Tulare, and Tuolumne Counties, California, on the maps in this entry.</P>
                        <P>(2) Within these areas, the physical or biological features essential to the conservation of foothill yellow-legged frog consist of the following components:</P>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Aquatic stream habitat.</E>
                             (A) Stream reaches with a hydrological pattern (including appropriate stream velocity, water depth, water temperature, streambed substrate, and geomorphic heterogeneity) capable of supporting foothill yellow-legged frog breeding and rearing. Suitable stream reaches typically contain a wide and shallow channel morphology, an intermittent canopy, and rocky substrate that is cobble-sized or larger. These features provide habitat for breeding, feeding, and reproduction and in some cases general aquatic or overwintering habitat for the foothill yellow-legged frog.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) Tributary (nonbreeding) habitat adjacent to and accessible from breeding and rearing habitat. Suitable tributary habitats typically contain sources of invertebrate prey, intermittent canopy, thermally stable microsites, and moist overwintering refugia protected from scouring winter flows. These refugia may include springs, seeps, pools, woody debris, root wads, undercut banks, clumps of sedges, and rocks.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Terrestrial and dispersal habitat.</E>
                             (A) Upland habitat adjacent to and accessible from breeding, rearing, and tributary habitat as identified in paragraphs (2)(i)(A) and (B) of this entry. Suitable upland habitats typically contain sources of invertebrate prey, intermittent canopy, thermally stable microsites, and moist overwintering refugia. These refugia may include nonstream pools, woody debris, root wads, clumps of sedges, and large boulders or debris.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) Dispersal habitat comprising permanent or ephemeral water channels and adjacent uplands that connect breeding and overwintering habitat sites. Suitable dispersal habitat does not need to hold moisture for extended periods. Suitable dispersal habitat typically connects areas containing intermittent canopy, interstitial spaces for sheltering, and sources of invertebrate prey. Additionally, suitable dispersal habitat is free from large physical barriers, hydrological barriers (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             dams, reservoirs, and rivers with highly altered flow regimes), and areas with high exposure to predators.
                        </P>
                        <P>(3) Critical habitat does not include manmade structures (such as buildings, aqueducts, runways, roads, and other paved areas) and the land on which they are located existing within the legal boundaries on the effective date of the final rule.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) Data layers defining map units were created using the National Hydrography Dataset and California Natural Diversity Database occurrence records and other survey information. The critical habitat units were then mapped using Universal Transverse Mercator Zone 10N and 11N coordinates. The maps in this entry, as modified by any accompanying regulatory text, establish the boundaries of the critical habitat designation. The coordinates or plot points or both on which each map is based are available to the public at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                             at Docket No. FWS-R8-ES-2023-0157, and at the field office responsible for this designation. You may obtain field office location information by contacting one of the Service regional offices, the addresses of which are listed at 50 CFR 2.2.
                        </P>
                        <P>(5) Unit SS-1: South Sierra DPS—Rock Creek, Eldorado County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit SS-1 consists of 4,348 ac (1,760 ha) in Eldorado County and is composed of Federal (2,630 ac (1,064 ha)) and private (1,718 ac (695 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit SS-1 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 1 to South Sierra DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (5)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-P</BILCOD>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="463">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3455"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.022</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(6) Unit SS-2: South Sierra DPS—Chili Bar Reservoir, Eldorado County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit SS-2 consists of 4,976 ac (2,014 ha) in Eldorado County and is composed of Federal (1,245 ac (504 ha)) and private (3,732 ac (1,510 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit SS-2 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 2 to South Sierra DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (6)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3456"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.023</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(7) Unit SS-3: South Sierra DSP—South Fork American River-Camp Creek, El Dorado County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit SS-3 consists of 42,108 ac (17,040 ha) in El Dorado County and is composed of Federal (30,894 ac (12,502 ha)) and private (11,214 ac (4,538 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit SS-3 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 3 to South Sierra DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (7)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="466">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3457"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.024</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(8) Unit SS-4: South Sierra DPS—North Fork Mokelumne River, Amador County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit SS-4 consists of 34,751 ac (14,063 ha) in Amador County and is composed of Federal (16,174 ac (6,546 ha)) and private (18,577 ac (7,518 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit SS-4 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 4 to South Sierra DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (8)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3458"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.025</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(9) Unit SS-5: South Sierra DPS—Else Creek, Amador County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit SS-5 consists of 4,658 ac (1,885 ha) in Amador County and is composed of Federal (324 ac (131 ha)), State (219 ac (89 ha)), and private (4,114 ac (1,665 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit SS-5 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 5 to South Sierra DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (9)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3459"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.026</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(10) Unit SS-6: South Sierra DPS—Jesus Maria Creek, Calaveras County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit SS-6 consists of 4,082 ac (1,652 ha) in Calaveras County and is composed of Federal (1,606 ac (650 ha)) and private (2,476 ac (1,002 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit SS-6 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 6 to South Sierra DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (10)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3460"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.027</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(11) Unit SS-7a: South Sierra DPS—Stanislaus Confluence, Calaveras and Tuolumne Counties, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit SS-7a consists of 55,832 ac (22,595 ha) in Calaveras and Tuolumne Counties and is composed of Federal (37,548 ac (15,195 ha)), State (2,720 ac (1,101 ha)), and private (15,564 ac (6,299 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit SS-7a follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 7 to South Sierra DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (11)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3461"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.028</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(12) Unit SS-7b: South Sierra DPS—Moaning Cave, Calaveras County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit SS-7b consists of 3,625 ac (1,467 ha) in Calaveras County and is composed of Federal (587 ac (238 ha)) and private (3,037 ac (1,229 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit SS-7b follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 8 to South Sierra DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (12)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="465">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3462"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.029</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(13) Unit SS-8: South Sierra DPS—North Fork and Middle Fork Tuolomne River, Tuolomne and Mariposa Counties, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit SS-8 consists of 78,151 ac (31,627 ha) in Tuolomne and Mariposa Counties and is composed of Federal (64,360 ac (26,046 ha)) and private (13,791 ac (5,581 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit SS-8 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 9 to South Sierra DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (13)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="463">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3463"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.030</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(14) Unit SS-9: South Sierra DPS—Moccasin Creek, Tuolomne and Mariposa Counties, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit SS-9 consists of 8,280 ac (3,351 ha) in Tuolomne and Mariposa Counties and is composed of Federal (4,509 ac (1,825 ha)) and private (3,770 ac (1,526 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit SS-9 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 10 to South Sierra DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (14)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="463">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3464"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.031</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(15) Unit SS-10a: South Sierra DPS—North Fork Merced River, Mariposa County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit SS-10a consists of 15,492 ac (6,269 ha) in Mariposa County and is composed of Federal (10,467 ac (4,236 ha)) and private (5,024 ac (2,033 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit SS-10a follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 11 to South Sierra DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (15)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="463">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3465"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.032</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(16) Unit SS-10b: South Sierra DPS—Bull Creek, Mariposa County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit SS-10b consists of 12,079 ac (4,888 ha) in Mariposa County and is composed of Federal (11,087 ac (4,487 ha)) and private (992 ac (402 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit SS-10b follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 12 to South Sierra DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (16)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="463">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3466"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.033</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(17) Unit SS-11: South Sierra DPS—Merced River and Sherlock Creek, Mariposa County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit SS-11 consists of 16,719 ac (6,766 ha) in Mariposa County and is composed of Federal (13,267 ac (5,369 ha)) and private (3,451 ac (1,397 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit SS-11 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 13 to South Sierra DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (17)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3467"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.034</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(18) Unit SS-12: South Sierra DPS—Jose Creek, Madera and Fresno Counties, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit SS-12 consists of 10,182 ac (4,121 ha) in Madera and Fresno Counties and is composed of Federal (9,204 ac (3,725 ha)), State (30 ac (12 ha)), and private (948 ac (384 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit SS-12 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 14 to South Sierra DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (18)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3468"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.035</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(19) Unit SS-13: South Sierra DPS—North Fork Tule River, Tulare County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit SS-13 consists of 5,149 ac (2,084 ha) in Tulare County and is composed of Federal (217 ac (88 ha)) and private (4,932 ac (1,996 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit SS-13 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 15 to South Sierra DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (19)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3469"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.036</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <P>(20) Unit SS-14: South Sierra DPS—Kern River, Tulare County, California.</P>
                        <P>(i) Unit SS-14 consists of 7,344 ac (2,972 ha) in Tulare County and is composed of Federal (7,327 ac (2,965 ha)) and private (17 ac (7 ha)) ownership.</P>
                        <P>(ii) Map of Unit SS-14 follows:</P>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">
                            Figure 16 to South Sierra DPS of the foothill yellow-legged frog (
                            <E T="03">Rana boylii</E>
                            ) paragraph (20)(ii)
                        </FP>
                        <GPH SPAN="3" DEEP="464">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3470"/>
                            <GID>EP14JA25.037</GID>
                        </GPH>
                        <STARS/>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SIG>
                        <NAME>Stephen Guertin,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Acting Director, U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2024-31757 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4333-15-C</BILCOD>
            </PRORULE>
        </PRORULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>8</NO>
    <DATE>Tuesday, January 14, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="3471"/>
            <PARTNO>Part V</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Department of Homeland Security</AGENCY>
            <SUBAGY>Transportation Security Administration</SUBAGY>
            <HRULE/>
            <CFR>6 CFR Part 37</CFR>
            <TITLE>Minimum Standards for Driver's Licenses and Identification Cards Acceptable by Federal Agencies for Official Purposes; Phased Approach for Card-Based Enforcement; Final Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <RULES>
            <RULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3472"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND SECURITY</AGENCY>
                    <SUBAGY>Transportation Security Administration</SUBAGY>
                    <CFR>6 CFR Part 37</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[Docket No. TSA-2023-0003]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 1652-AA77</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Minimum Standards for Driver's Licenses and Identification Cards Acceptable by Federal Agencies for Official Purposes; Phased Approach for Card-Based Enforcement</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Transportation Security Administration (TSA), Department of Homeland Security (DHS).</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Final rule.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>This rule ensures that Federal agencies have appropriate flexibility to implement the card-based enforcement provisions of the REAL ID regulations after the May 7, 2025, enforcement deadline by explicitly permitting agencies to implement these provisions in phases. Under this rule, agencies may implement the card-based enforcement provisions through a phased enforcement plan if they determine it is appropriate upon consideration of relevant factors including security, operational feasibility, and public impact. The rule also requires agencies to coordinate their plans with DHS, make the plans publicly available, and achieve full enforcement by May 5, 2027.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>Effective January 14, 2025.</P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>
                            George Petersen, REAL ID Program, Enrollment Services and Vetting Programs, Transportation Security Administration, 6595 Springfield Center Drive, Springfield, VA 20598; telephone: (571) 227-2215; email: 
                            <E T="03">george.petersen@tsa.dhs.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability of Rulemaking Document</HD>
                    <P>
                        You can find an electronic copy of this rulemaking using the internet by accessing the Government Publishing Office's web page at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.govinfo.gov/app/collection/FR/</E>
                         to view the daily published 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         edition or accessing the Office of the Federal Register's web page at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.federalregister.gov.</E>
                         Copies are also available by contacting the individual identified for “General” in the 
                        <E T="02">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT</E>
                         section. Make sure to identify the docket number of this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Abbreviations and Terms Used in This Document</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">APA—Administrative Procedure Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DHS—Department of Homeland Security</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DL/IDs—Driver's Licenses and Identification Cards</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">DMV—Departments of Motor Vehicles</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">EDL—Enhanced Driver's Licenses</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NPRM—Notice of Proposed Rulemaking</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">TSA—Transportation Security Administration</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Table of Contents</HD>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">I. Executive Summary</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Purpose of the Regulatory Action</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Summary of the Major Provisions of the Regulatory Action</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Costs and Benefits</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">II. Background</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Statutory and Regulatory History</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Phased Enforcement Rulemaking</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Broad DHS Approach</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">III. General Discussion of the Rulemaking</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Rulemaking Objectives</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Summary of Regulatory Provisions</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Maintaining the May 7, 2025, Card-Based Enforcement Deadline</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Phased Enforcement Guidance</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">IV. Discussion of Comments</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. General Opposition to REAL ID</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Legal Authority</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. General Support for the Rulemaking</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Immediate Transition to Full Enforcement</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Extension of the Card-Based Enforcement Deadline</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Confusion Associated With Phased Enforcement Generally</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Public Availability of Agencies' Phased Enforcement Plans</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">H. Length of Phased Enforcement Period</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">I. Relevant Factors and Resources for Development and Approval of Phased Enforcement Determinations by Federal Agencies</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">J. Phased Enforcement Implementation Concerns</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">K. Alternative Approaches to Phased Enforcement</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">L. Costs of the Rule</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">V. Statutory and Regulatory Analyses</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">A. Administrative Procedure Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">B. Paperwork Reduction Act</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">C. Economic Impact Analysis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">D. Executive Order 13132 (Federalism)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">E. Executive Order 13175 (Tribal Consultation)</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">F. Environmental Analysis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">G. Energy Impact Analysis</FP>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP1-2">H. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Congressional Review Act)</FP>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Executive Summary</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Purpose of the Regulatory Action</HD>
                    <P>
                        Secure driver's licenses and identification documents are a vital component of our national security framework. The REAL ID Act,
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         passed by Congress in 2005, enacted the 9/11 Commission's recommendation that the Federal Government “set standards for the issuance of . . . sources of identification, such as drivers licenses.” 
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The REAL ID Act and its implementing regulations set minimum security standards for State-issued driver's licenses and identification cards (DL/IDs), which are designed to improve the security and reliability of those documents. These requirements allow Federal agencies that accept State-issued DL/IDs for official purposes to determine with greater accuracy whether individuals presenting a DL/ID are who they say they are.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             Public Law 109-13, 119 Stat. 231, 302 (May 11, 2005) (codified at 49 U.S.C. 30301 note).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             The 9/11 Commission Report, Final Report of the National Commission on Terrorist Attacks upon the United States (July 2004) (9/11 Commission Report), p. 390, 
                            <E T="03">available at https://www.govinfo.gov/app/details/GPO-911REPORT</E>
                             (last visited April 16, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Pursuant to the REAL ID regulations, REAL ID card-based enforcement begins on May 7, 2025. Card-based enforcement means that Federal agencies may only accept DL/IDs for official purposes, defined in the REAL ID Act and regulation, if the DL/IDs are issued in accordance with REAL ID requirements.
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In order to fully realize the enhanced security provided by the REAL ID requirements, DHS is committed to beginning card-based enforcement on May 7, 2025. However, as of January 2024, only approximately 56 percent of DL/IDs in circulation nationally are REAL ID-compliant.
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In 34 States,
                        <SU>5</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         less than 60 percent of DL/IDs in circulation are REAL ID-compliant, and, of those, in 22 States less than 40 percent are REAL ID-compliant.
                        <SU>6</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Further, because of a history of REAL ID deadlines being extended, DHS believes that the public may continue to expect that additional extensions are likely and not feel urgency to obtain a REAL ID-compliant card. DHS believes this lack of urgency is likely to delay increased adoption in many States despite best efforts to inform the public, potentially leading to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3473"/>
                        last-minute surges in demand for REAL ID-compliant IDs leading up to the deadline.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             6 CFR 37.5(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             Based on REAL ID issuance data, as of January 2024, voluntarily submitted monthly to DHS by the compliant states. While REAL ID issuance data through October 2024 is available, based on the most recent data, DHS expects the percentage of REAL IDs by the card-based enforcement date to be on par with the forecasts presented in the NPRM. As a result, the regulatory analyses (section 
                            <E T="03">V(b)(2)(d) Adoption of REAL ID-Compliant DL/IDs</E>
                            ) maintains the values used in the NPRM which DHS published in September 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             DHS uses “states” and “licensing jurisdictions” interchangeably throughout this document to refer collectively to the 56 different U.S. jurisdictions that issue DL/IDs that are governed by the REAL ID regulations. These jurisdictions are the 50 states, the District of Columbia, and the territories of Puerto Rico, U.S. Virgin Islands, Guam, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, and American Samoa. 6 CFR 37.3.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See supra</E>
                             note 4.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS believes this surge could overwhelm some States with low levels of adoption and result in backlogs and delays in REAL ID issuance. In light of this, DHS anticipates that a significant number of individuals seeking to use their DL/ID for a REAL ID official purpose on and after May 7, 2025, may not have a compliant DL/ID. DHS recognizes that this could result in a situation where individuals are unable to present a compliant DL/ID to access a Federal facility, board a federally regulated commercial aircraft, or enter a nuclear power plant on a large scale. For some agencies, this scenario may raise serious concerns related to security, agency operations, and potential impact to the public. While these concerns are especially acute in an airport security environment, DHS anticipates that other Federal agencies that operate facilities visited frequently by the general public 
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         may also face similar concerns. This rule recognizes these concerns and provides flexibility by permitting agencies to, for a period of up to 2 years, implement REAL ID card-based enforcement using a phased approach tailored to their specific operations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             The requirements of the REAL ID Act and regulation apply only in contexts where individuals are required to present an identification document to Federal agencies for official purposes. Accessing a Federal facility that is normally open to the public and does not require visitors to establish their identity to enter is generally not an official purpose under the REAL ID Act and regulation. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             REAL ID Act of 2005 Implementation: An Interagency Security Committee Guide (2019), p. 4-7, available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cisa.gov/resources-tools/resources/isc-guide-real-id-act-2005-implementation</E>
                             (last visited October 3, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS believes that this approach will be more effective at achieving full enforcement than further extensions of the enforcement deadline. This rule demonstrates that the Government is preparing for and planning to begin enforcement on May 7, 2025, and provides an opportunity for States and the public to prepare for full enforcement. After May 7, 2025, when agencies begin full enforcement or implement a phased enforcement plan, as appropriate, the public will be further incentivized to obtain a REAL ID as they realize and anticipate consequences for presenting a non-compliant DL/ID. At the same time, the rule is intended to allow a transition to full enforcement that mitigates the potential negative impact to agencies and the public if every agency was required to begin full enforcement immediately on the card-based enforcement date. Given the current percentage of REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs that have been issued (as a percentage of all DL/IDs), the challenges many States are experiencing as they seek to increase adoption of compliant DL/IDs, and the resulting concerns Federal agencies may have, the rule provides important flexibility to agencies to ensure a smooth transition to card-based enforcement. The rule balances the increased security benefits of beginning card-based enforcement with an understanding of the significant risks that some Federal agencies may experience as a result of an immediate transition to full enforcement.
                        <SU>8</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             “Full enforcement” or “full card-based enforcement” means that an agency will not accept noncompliant DL/IDs for REAL ID official purposes.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Summary of the Major Provisions of the Regulatory Action</HD>
                    <P>Under the REAL ID regulations, Federal agencies may not accept non-compliant DL/IDs for REAL ID official purposes on and after the card-based enforcement of May 7, 2025. Under this rule, Federal agencies are still required to commence REAL ID card-based enforcement on May 7, 2025. However, this rule provides agencies, for a period of up to 2 years, the flexibility to implement a phased approach to card-based enforcement, after considering relevant factors including security, operational feasibility, and impact to the public. The rule provides an enforcement approach that allows agencies to maximize security gains in contexts where a swift transition to full enforcement poses little risk, while minimizing the risks in contexts where large numbers of individuals seeking to use noncompliant DL/IDs raises serious concerns.</P>
                    <P>To ensure that agencies' phased enforcement plans consistently and appropriately advance the objectives of the REAL ID regulations, this rule requires agencies to coordinate their phased enforcement plans with DHS and begin full enforcement no later than May 5, 2027. To ensure transparency and public visibility, the rule requires agencies that use a phased enforcement plan to make their plan publicly available on their web page and require DHS to make publicly available a list of agencies that have coordinated phased enforcement plans with DHS. Finally, the rule's preamble provides guidance to Federal agencies on types of phased enforcement plans that agencies may consider.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Costs and Benefits</HD>
                    <P>As described in the notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) (89 FR 74137, September 12, 2024) and discussed below, DHS estimates the cost of the rule, over 2 years, is $1.73 million undiscounted and $1.70 million discounted at 2 percent. DHS, as the agency administering the REAL ID program, and other Federal agencies will largely bear the cost of the rule related to facilitating phased enforcement while benefits include flexibility to Federal agencies that may reduce operational disruptions as well as to States and individuals associated with additional time to obtain and process REAL IDs.</P>
                    <P>Specifically, DHS will incur costs to coordinate with Federal agencies on their phased enforcement plans and provide guidance on phased enforcement. DHS estimates the 2-year cost to DHS is $0.033 million undiscounted and $0.031 million discounted at 2 percent. Federal agencies will incur costs to familiarize themselves with the rule, assess whether to implement a phased enforcement plan, and if so, develop a plan. DHS estimates the 2-year cost to Federal agencies is $1.70 million undiscounted and $1.67 million discounted at 2 percent.</P>
                    <P>DHS also identifies other non-quantified costs that affected parties may incur. A portion of the benefits associated with the REAL ID rule will be delayed as a result of agencies implementing a phased approach, with the full security benefit not realized until full enforcement occurs. Federal agencies will also incur costs related to phased enforcement plan implementation which may include training personnel on the policies of the plan and efforts to inform the public of the new identity verification policies related to plans. Individuals may also incur costs to become aware of phased enforcement plans and respond accordingly.</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS identifies various non-quantified benefits associated with the final rule. Federal agencies will have flexibility to enforce the REAL ID card-based regulations in a phased manner that may reduce security vulnerabilities, operational disruption and public impact but will not unnecessarily delay REAL ID enforcement for those Federal agencies ready to fully implement on the card-based enforcement deadline. A phased approach will also allow individuals more time to obtain a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID, reduce potential queuing and associated delays at access points, and may help mitigate potential application backlogs at State licensing agencies.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3474"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Statutory and Regulatory History</HD>
                    <P>
                        The REAL ID Act sets minimum security requirements for the issuance and production of DL/IDs issued by the States, territories, and the District of Columbia in order for Federal agencies to accept these documents for official purposes.
                        <SU>9</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Official purposes include: (1) accessing Federal facilities, (2) boarding federally regulated commercial aircraft, (3) entering nuclear power plants, and (4) any other purposes that the Secretary of Homeland Security shall determine.
                        <SU>10</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             Emergency Supplemental Appropriations Act for Defense, the Global War on Terror, and Tsunami Relief, 2005, Public Law 109-13, Div. B. title II, sections 201 to 207, May 11, 2005, as amended (codified at 49 U.S.C. 30301 note).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>10</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at section 201.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        On January 29, 2008, DHS published a final rule implementing the REAL ID Act's requirements (2008 Final Rule).
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The regulations include both a deadline for State compliance with the REAL ID requirements and a separate deadline after which individuals must present a REAL ID-compliant license or identification card in order for Federal agencies to accept the document for official purposes.
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS refers to these deadlines as “state-based” and “card-based” enforcement, respectively. Under the REAL ID regulations, card-based enforcement begins on May 7, 2025.
                        <SU>13</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         On and after this date, Federal agencies may not accept for official purposes a DL/ID issued by a State unless that DL/ID was issued in accordance with the REAL ID standards by a REAL ID-compliant jurisdiction.
                        <SU>14</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             73 FR 5272 (Jan. 29, 2008) (codified as amended at 6 CFR part 37).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             6 CFR 37.51(a) and 37.5.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             6 CFR 37.5(b); 88 FR 14473 (Mar. 9, 2023) (extending the REAL card-based enforcement deadline from May 3, 2023, to May 7, 2025). Additional background related to extensions of card-based deadline as a result of the COVID-19 pandemic is provided in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking. 89 FR 74137.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>14</SU>
                             Under the REAL ID Act and regulations, States may also issue noncompliant licenses and identification cards, which will not be acceptable by Federal agencies for official purposes after the card-based deadline. 6 CFR 37.71; REAL ID Act sec. 202(d)(11). The REAL ID regulations authorize, but do not require, Federal agencies to accept these noncompliant cards until card-based enforcement begins. 6 CFR 37.5(c).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Phased Enforcement Rulemaking</HD>
                    <P>
                        Based on REAL ID data compiled by compliant licensing jurisdictions, as of January 2024, DHS estimates that compliant States, territories, and the District of Columbia have issued approximately 162 million REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs, which represents approximately 56 percent of the population possessing a State-issued DL/ID.
                        <SU>15</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Data from the States also indicates that the States have approximately 110 million noncompliant marked DL/IDs and approximately 14 million legacy licenses without any markings (issued before a State's REAL ID compliance determination) still in circulation.
                        <SU>16</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Further, the national adoption rate as of January 2024, stands at approximately 0.56 percent per month. As detailed in the regulatory analyses (section 
                        <E T="03">IV(b)(2)(e) Adoption of REAL ID-Compliant DL/IDs</E>
                        ) DHS estimates that only about 61.2 percent of DL/IDs in circulation will be REAL ID-compliant by the card-based enforcement deadline of May 7, 2025.
                        <SU>17</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>15</SU>
                             DHS began to collect data voluntarily submitted by licensing jurisdictions including the total number of DL/IDs, number of REAL IDs, number of non-compliant cards, and number of “legacy” cards in July 2019. Beginning in October 2019, DHS began to receive the data on a monthly basis. While REAL ID issuance data through October 2024 is available, based on the most recent data, DHS expects the percentage of REAL IDs by the card-based enforcement date to be on par with the forecasts presented in the NPRM. As a result, the regulatory analyses (section 
                            <E T="03">V(b)(2)(d) Adoption of REAL ID-Compliant DL/IDs</E>
                            ) maintains the values used in the NPRM which DHS published in September 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>16</SU>
                             Additional background regarding DHS' efforts to support implementation of the REAL ID Act and factors impacting the pace of REAL ID adoption, including the effect of the COVID-19 pandemic, is provided in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking. 89 FR 74137.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>17</SU>
                             Over the twelve months between January 2023 and January 2024, the national compounded monthly growth rate for the adoption of REAL IDs was 0.56 percent. DHS applied the 0.56 compounded growth rate over the 16 months between January 2024 and May 2025 to forecast the percentage of REAL IDs in circulation by May 2025, relative to all DL/IDs in circulation.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Even taking these estimates into account, DHS believes that beginning card-based enforcement on May 7, 2025, is the most effective path to achieve full implementation of the REAL ID Act and regulations. The requirements of the REAL ID Act and regulations provide significant security benefits by improving the accuracy of identity verification processes.
                        <SU>18</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Beginning card-based enforcement will mark an important step towards full realization of these increased security standards. However, DHS recognizes that for some agencies, an immediate transition to full enforcement may not be appropriate. On September 12, 2024, DHS published an NPRM that proposed explicitly permitting agencies to implement card-based enforcement in phases if an agency determines that a phased approach is appropriate after considering relevant factors.
                        <SU>19</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>18</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             73 FR 5325-5326, and accompanying Regulatory Evaluation, Department of Homeland Security, January 17, 2008, Regulatory Evaluation, Docket Number DHS-2006-0030; 9 H.R. Rep. No. 109-72, 176-185 (2005) available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.congress.gov/109/crpt/hrpt72/CRPT-109hrpt72.pdf</E>
                             (last visited June 17, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>19</SU>
                             89 FR 74137.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Broad DHS Approach</HD>
                    <P>
                        This rulemaking represents one aspect of DHS' broad approach towards transitioning to enforcement of the REAL ID requirements on May 7, 2025. Although this rule is critical to providing agencies with the necessary flexibility to ensure a smooth transition to full card-based enforcement, DHS is also engaged in a number of efforts to improve adoption rates. This layered approach includes heavy engagement with States that have low REAL ID adoption rates, a public advertising campaign raising awareness of upcoming REAL ID enforcement and the benefits of obtaining a REAL ID,
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and communication with the travel industry. This rule, in combination with these other efforts, lays the necessary foundation for transitioning the nation to enforcement of REAL ID requirements on May 7, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             DHS Launches “Be Your REAL ID Self ” Public Awareness Campaign, January 15, 2021, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.dhs.gov/real-id/news/2021/01/15/dhs-launches-be-your-real-id-self-public-awareness-campaign.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. General Discussion of the Rulemaking</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Rulemaking Objectives</HD>
                    <P>DHS is issuing this rule in recognition that without a significant increase in the adoption rate leading up to the May 7, 2025, deadline, millions of noncompliant cards will still be in circulation on that date. Even assuming a substantial increase in the adoption rate, it is difficult to predict the number of people who will seek to use noncompliant DL/IDs for Federal official purposes when enforcement begins on May 7, 2025. Further, the population-wide adoption rate likely will differ from the adoption rate of specific populations who will need to present a REAL ID for official purposes including boarding federally regulated commercial aircraft or entering a Federal facility. The adoption rate also is likely to differ across geographic areas with certain regions having relatively higher or lower concentrations of individuals without a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID.</P>
                    <P>
                        This rulemaking acknowledges the possible risks to Federal agencies and potential public impact should a significant number of individuals seek to use non-REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs for REAL ID official purposes when enforcement begins on May 7, 2025. In 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3475"/>
                        some cases, a sudden transition to full enforcement may impact how agencies provide certain services or conduct business with the public. If many individuals seek to use noncompliant DL/IDs at the same location, this could result in significant backlogs at access points to Federal facilities and TSA security checkpoints. In the example of TSA, if large numbers of individuals arrived at an airport security checkpoint with noncompliant DL/IDs,
                        <SU>21</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         they will not be able use that DL/ID to proceed through screening, potentially resulting in missed flights. Additionally, long lines, confusion, and frustrated travelers at the checkpoint may greatly increase security risks both to passengers and TSA personnel by drawing the resources and attention of TSA personnel away from other passengers, including those known to pose an elevated risk. DHS anticipates that other Federal agencies may also experience a negative impact if they begin full enforcement on May 7, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                             Although a segment of the population may not possess a REAL ID, they may have other forms of identification acceptable for official purposes (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             a U.S. passport, U.S. passport card, or military identification). TSA's acceptable ID list is available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.tsa.gov/travel/security-screening/identification.</E>
                             Other Federal agencies may also accept identification in addition to REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs. Individuals who need to visit a Federal facility should check in advance whether the agency requires identification for access purposes and, if they do, review the agency's access control policies.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Given that approximately 56 percent of DL/IDs in circulation are REAL ID-compliant as of January 2024, the low current adoption rates, and DHS' estimate that 61.2 percent of REAL IDs, relative to all DL/IDs in circulation, will be REAL ID-compliant by May 7, 2025, there is a real possibility of disruptions like those described above could occur if all agencies begin full enforcement on the deadline.
                        <SU>22</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, even if population-wide adoption rates are significantly higher than they are currently, these outcomes may nonetheless unfold if adoption rates remain low in specific States or amongst specific groups of individuals. Operational disruptions could still occur at locations in areas that have a high concentration of individuals without REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs or during times of the year when large numbers of people who do not fly frequently, and who may not possess a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID seek to travel. DHS anticipates that other agencies that operate facilities nationwide or experience substantial shifts in the number of individuals presenting identification for official purposes throughout the year may have similar concerns about the possibility of disruption based on the current trend in REAL ID adoption rates.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>22</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Supra</E>
                             note 15.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Recognizing these challenges and the uncertainty in the number of individuals Federal agencies may encounter who do not have a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID on May 7, 2025, this rule provides Federal agencies added flexibility to implement enforcement of the REAL ID regulations in a manner that takes into account relevant factors including security, operational feasibility, and public impact. The ability to implement the card-based requirements under a phased approach, for a 2-year period, allows Federal agencies to start card-based enforcement in a manner that limits potential disruption to operations, reduces negative public impact, and supports a smooth transition to full card-based enforcement and the increased security benefits of REAL ID. For example, agencies will have the ability to begin enforcement by issuing warning notices or through progressive consequences if they determine that those measures would most effectively mitigate the risks of an immediate transition to full enforcement. Without this flexibility, and especially if the adoption rate remains low leading up to May 7, 2025, DHS believes Federal agencies could face a serious risk of operational disruption, negative public impact, and potential security vulnerabilities.</P>
                    <P>
                        Further, implementation of card-based enforcement through a phased approach is consistent with DHS' approach to State-based enforcement.
                        <SU>23</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS' approach to State-based enforcement demonstrated that phased enforcement can be effective in achieving compliance with REAL ID requirements. This rule provides Federal agencies the flexibility to determine whether a phased plan to implement the REAL ID card-based enforcement requirements beginning on May 7, 2025, is appropriate in particular circumstances. This flexibility allows agencies to begin card-based enforcement as part of a measured, responsible, and achievable plan leading to full enforcement of the REAL ID regulations.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>23</SU>
                             Beginning in January 2013, DHS incrementally enforced the State-based regulatory deadline prohibiting agencies from accepting licenses and cards issued by States that were not compliant with the REAL ID standards. State-based enforcement concluded with the final phase, boarding federally regulated commercial aircraft, going into effect in 2018. DHS Releases Phased Enforcement Schedule for REAL ID (Dec. 20, 2013), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.dhs.gov/news/2013/12/20/dhs-releases-phased-enforcement-schedule-real-id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Providing agencies the flexibility to begin enforcement using a phased approach may also facilitate increased adoption of REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs. DHS anticipates that agencies announcing concrete plans for beginning enforcement on May 7, 2025, will demonstrate that the deadline is not being extended and will likely incentivize individuals to obtain a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID. An agency's specific enforcement phase may also encourage increased adoption. For example, agencies may choose to issue a written or verbal warning the first time an individual attempts to use their non-compliant DL/ID after the May 7, 2025, enforcement deadline, letting that individual know they will be denied entry if they attempt to use their non-compliant card at that location another time. Individualized warnings like this may be more effective at encouraging compliance than broad public messaging.</P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, increased demand leading up to and after the deadline may outpace the ability of licensing jurisdictions to meet that demand. During DHS' engagement with States in preparation for the beginning of card-based enforcement, some States have expressed concern with ability to meet potential demand.
                        <SU>24</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Allowing agencies to use a phased approach may also provide licensing jurisdictions the opportunity to make adjustments to alleviate potential backlogs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>24</SU>
                             For example, Oregon has recently approved an increase in DMV staff dedicated to issuing REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs in anticipation of the May 7, 2025, deadline. Oregon Department of Transportation (ODOT), ODOT Operational Report to the Oregon Transportation Commission (March 5, 2024), 
                            <E T="03">available at https://www.oregon.gov/odot/Get-Involved/OTCSupportMaterials/Agenda_F_Operational_Report_PACKET.pdf</E>
                             (last visited April 17, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Summary of Regulatory Provisions</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Agency Determination in Consideration of Relevant Factors</HD>
                    <P>
                        This rule permits agencies to make a determination that phased enforcement is appropriate, in consideration of relevant factors including security, operational feasibility, and public impact. The rule recognizes that individual Federal agencies are in the best position to determine how to ensure successful implementation of the REAL ID requirements within their own unique operational contexts. It allows individual agencies to use their own expertise to structure enforcement plans in such a manner that will lead to successful enforcement of the REAL ID regulations while mitigating potential 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3476"/>
                        risks of immediately transitioning to full enforcement on May 7, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>In making a determination of whether phased enforcement instead of an immediate transition to full enforcement is appropriate, agencies must, at a minimum, consider three relevant factors that will inform their decision. DHS identified the three factors it believes are most likely to impact efficient and successful implementation of card-based enforcement: security, operational feasibility, and public impact. In addition to these factors, agencies may consider other factors they deem relevant and necessary to make their determination.</P>
                    <P>
                        In considering security, agencies should weigh both the security benefits that card-based enforcement provides as well as potential security vulnerabilities that an immediate transition to full enforcement might create. For many agencies, DHS anticipates that the increased security provided by card-based enforcement weighs in favor of an immediate transition to full enforcement. However, in certain contexts, an immediate transition to full enforcement may result in security vulnerabilities. For example, no longer accepting noncompliant DL/IDs may lead to long lines and crowding at access points to Federal facilities or airport security checkpoints 
                        <SU>25</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         creating soft targets for terrorists or violent extremists.
                        <SU>26</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Additionally, an atmosphere of confusion and frustrated individuals who are denied access risks distracting security personnel from correctly executing their procedures. Agencies should take a holistic approach in evaluating the security implications of transitioning to full enforcement.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>25</SU>
                             The requirements of the REAL ID Act and regulations specifically apply to Federal agencies accepting DL/IDs for official purposes. As such, the official purpose of boarding a federally regulated commercial aircraft is primarily operationalized at the TSA security checkpoint rather than at an airport departure gate where passengers physically board commercial aircraft.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>26</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             U.S. Department of Homeland Security Soft Targets and Crowded Places Security Plan Overview, 5-6 (May 2018), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cisa.gov/sites/default/files/publications/DHS-Soft-Target-Crowded-Place-Security-Plan-Overview-052018-508_0.pdf</E>
                             (last visited October 9, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Regarding operational feasibility, agencies should consider any implications that transitioning to full enforcement may have on their ability to continue effectively carrying out operations in support of their mission. DHS anticipates that in many cases, immediately transitioning to full enforcement would have little to no impact on agencies' ability to execute their missions and would enhance security. Agencies may have limited interactions with the general public that necessitate individuals seeking to access Federal facilities to present proof of identity for entry. In other circumstances, agencies may be able to easily adjust the manner in which they interact with the public or provide a service to alleviate the need for individuals to use their DL/ID for a REAL ID official purpose. For example, agencies may be able to hold meetings in facilities that do not require the presentation of identification documents or hold virtual meetings. For certain agencies whose missions include operations requiring frequent use of identification documents for a REAL ID official purpose, an immediate transition to full enforcement may challenge an agency's ability to effectively carry out its mission if a large number of individuals seek to use noncompliant DL/IDs after the May 7, 2025, deadline. For these agencies, implementing card-based enforcement through a phased approach would allow for the opportunity to observe changes in the number of noncompliant cards they encounter after the deadline and transition to full enforcement in a manner that ensures continuity of operations.</P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, agencies should assess whether an immediate transition to full enforcement would negatively impact the public and the provision of services. The requirements of the REAL ID Act and regulation apply only in contexts where individuals must present an identification document to Federal agencies for REAL ID official purposes.
                        <SU>27</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Card-based enforcement does not impact access to Federal facilities that do not require identification (for example, public areas of the Smithsonian museums). Card-based enforcement also does not impact public services that require identification for purposes other than an official purpose as defined by the Act and regulation (for example, applying for or receiving Federal benefits is not a REAL ID official purpose). However, in cases where a government function impacting the public does involve a REAL ID official purpose (for example, boarding a federally regulated commercial aircraft or providing a public service that necessitates members of the public accessing a Federal facility that requires proof of identity for entry), agencies should consider the extent to which an immediate transition to full enforcement would impact their ability to carry out that function.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>27</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             REAL ID Act of 2005 Implementation: An Interagency Security Committee Guide (2019), p. 4-7, available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cisa.gov/resources-tools/resources/isc-guide-real-id-act-2005-implementation</E>
                             (last visited October 9, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>DHS anticipates that agencies' consideration of all relevant factors will be informed by changes in the adoption rate leading up to the card-based enforcement deadline. Certain factors may be given more or less weight depending on the number of noncompliant DL/IDs agencies are likely to encounter on and after the deadline. For agencies that determine that beginning full card-based enforcement on May 7, 2025, would not pose significant risks after considering security, operational feasibility, public impact, and other relevant factors, this rule maintains the current regulatory default of an immediate transition to full enforcement. Agencies that determine that commencing full card-based enforcement on May 7, 2025, is not appropriate after considering the relevant factors, may utilize a phased approach. A phased approach would allow them to facilitate continued secure and orderly operations and minimize impacts to the public while implementing enforcement phases that lead to full enforcement. This flexibility allows these agencies to maintain operational efficiency; reduce security risks born from long lines, incidents, and distractions caused by additional identity verification procedures or turning away individuals who do not have acceptable identification; decrease potential public backlash to security personnel enforcing REAL ID; and limit potential negative impacts to the public.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Coordination of Phased Enforcement Plans With DHS</HD>
                    <P>
                        Should an agency determine that phased enforcement is appropriate, DHS also recognizes that the individual agency is best positioned to structure its enforcement plan to account for its particular operational setting. The rule therefore allows agencies to develop individual phased enforcement plans best suited for specific contexts. Although this rule does not prescribe the form that phased enforcement plans must take in incrementally implementing enforcement of the requirements, DHS does provide some options that agencies may consider.
                        <SU>28</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For example, agencies' plans may include an initial phase during which warning notices are issued and/or a phase involving progressive enforcement measures—such as a “three-strikes” system or other methods—that enable agencies to begin 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3477"/>
                        enforcement without immediately denying access to individuals with noncompliant identification on the card-based enforcement deadline.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>28</SU>
                             More detailed discussion of these options is provided in section D. below.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In order to ensure that agencies' enforcement plans appropriately advance the objectives of the REAL ID regulations and maintain consistent progress towards full enforcement, the plans must be coordinated with DHS. The REAL ID Act grants DHS authority to implement the Act's requirements.
                        <SU>29</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Requiring agencies that make a determination to implement the REAL ID regulations through a phased enforcement plan to coordinate their plan with DHS ensures consistency, as appropriate. It also maintains DHS oversight of successful implementation of the Act and regulatory requirements. Agencies seeking to use a phased enforcement plan are required to coordinate with DHS through the TSA REAL ID Program Office.
                        <SU>30</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>29</SU>
                             49 U.S.C. 30301 note; 73 FR 5271.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>30</SU>
                             On December 29, 2022, the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2023 (Pub. L. 117-328), was signed into law, authorizing the transfer of the REAL ID Program from the DHS Office of Strategy, Policy, and Plans to TSA. On May 22, 2023, the Secretary of Homeland Security approved a delegation formally vesting in TSA the authority to manage, administer, and coordinate DHS actions necessary for implementation of the REAL ID Act.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS strongly encourages agencies to make a determination of whether a phased enforcement plan is appropriate and, where appropriate, develop their plan in advance of the May 7, 2025, deadline. However, DHS recognizes that while agencies may seek to begin full enforcement on the deadline, they may encounter unanticipated challenges. Similarly, agencies that developed a phased enforcement plan may encounter or have unforeseen issues in implementing the plan they developed. In such cases, agencies may coordinate a new or modified phased enforcement plan with DHS after the enforcement deadline. Additional information regarding how agencies should coordinate with DHS will be provided on the DHS REAL ID web page.
                        <SU>31</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>31</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.dhs.gov/real-id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Public Notice</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS acknowledges the potential for some confusion resulting from the possibility of agencies implementing phased enforcement plans that vary across agencies. The rule seeks to mitigate that potential confusion by (1) requiring agencies using a phased approach to make their plan publicly available on their web page, and (2) requiring DHS to post a list of agencies that have coordinated phased enforcement plans with DHS on the DHS REAL ID web page 
                        <SU>32</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         to provide public notice of the agencies implementing phased approaches. Agencies should also clearly provide their policies for access control, including other acceptable forms of identification.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>32</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Two-Year Phased Enforcement Period</HD>
                    <P>Under the rule, any agency that chooses to implement card-based enforcement under a phased approach must fully enforce the card-based requirements no later than May 5, 2027. On and after that date, agencies may not accept noncompliant marked DL/IDs or legacy DL/IDs for official purposes. As mentioned above, DHS anticipates that shortly before, and as REAL ID card-based enforcement begins on May 7, 2025, individuals' urgency to obtain a compliant DL/ID will likely increase as they realize that they will need a compliant DL/ID when they seek to use their DL/ID for REAL ID official purposes. In States with low adoption rates, large numbers of individuals may rapidly seek to obtain REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs. This potential increase in demand may challenge the capacity of licensing jurisdictions and may create backlogs in issuance of REAL ID-compliant cards. The 2-year window during which agencies may implement enforcement in phases is designed, in part, to provide States additional time to meet increases in demand for REAL ID-compliant cards. Agencies that decide to use a phased enforcement plan may choose to implement plans that reach full enforcement in less than 2 years, but all phased plans must conclude, reaching full card-based enforcement, no later than May 5, 2027.</P>
                    <P>DHS also considered setting the maximum phased enforcement period for other durations between at 1 and 5 years. DHS chose 2 years as the maximum period during which agencies may implement phased enforcement plans to balance delay in fully realizing the security benefits of REAL ID with allowing sufficient time for Federal agencies' phased enforcement plans to incentivize greater adoption rates, limit negative enforcement impacts (where appropriate), and provide States time to meet increased demand.</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS believes that a 1-year timeframe may not provide agencies sufficient flexibility to develop a phased enforcement plan with a long enough duration time to leverage the anticipated effects of phased enforcement, reflected in increased adoption rates. Many individuals may only seek to use their DL/ID for official purposes once or twice a year (for example, boarding a commercial flight to travel for a holiday or vacation). If agencies were limited to a 1-year phased enforcement period, they would not be able to design a plan that would account for individuals who learn of the need to obtain a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID towards the end of that 1-year period—possibly through a warning notice as part of an agency's phased enforcement plan—and who may not have sufficient time to obtain a compliant DL/ID before full enforcement begins. Additionally, if increased demand for compliant DL/IDs leading up to and right after the deadline results in backlogs at State Departments of Motor Vehicles (DMVs),
                        <SU>33</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         1 year may not be sufficient time for States to make any necessary adjustments to process potential backlogs. Although a 1-year phased enforcement period would provide a shorter delay in obtaining the full security benefits of REAL ID,
                        <SU>34</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS believes it may not provide a long enough period for agencies to leverage the effects of phased enforcement as individuals and States both apprehend the need for action as a result of card-based enforcement and take the necessary actions.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>33</SU>
                             Throughout this rule DHS uses “DMV” to generally refer to licensing jurisdictions' motor vehicle licensing agencies.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>34</SU>
                             The regulatory evaluation for the Minimum Standards for Driver's Licenses and Identification Cards Acceptable by Federal Agencies for Official Purposes Final Rule identifies the primary benefit of REAL ID as improving security and lessening the vulnerability of Federal buildings, nuclear facilities, and aircraft to terrorist attacks. Department of Homeland Security, January 17, 2008, Regulatory Evaluation, Docket Number DHS-2006-0030. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/document/DHS-2006-0030-10704.</E>
                             pgs. 129-130.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS did not select 3, 4, or 5 years because DHS believes a maximum time period longer than 2 years would unduly delay the security benefits of REAL ID and is unlikely to provide the same incentive for individuals to prioritize obtaining a complaint DL/ID. DHS believes that 2 years after the card-based enforcement deadline strikes the appropriate balance and provides a sufficient amount of time for individuals to obtain and States to provide REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs to any eligible individual who seeks to obtain one. DHS believes that allowing more time for phased enforcement beyond 2 years is unlikely to offer a meaningful additional opportunity for individuals and States to take necessary action and could further delay the security benefits of REAL ID. Additionally, allowing for phased enforcement for more than 2 years may 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3478"/>
                        discourage individuals and States from prioritizing necessary action.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Acceptance of Noncompliant Marked DL/IDs</HD>
                    <P>
                        Finally, to avoid any confusion about the ability of Federal agencies to continue to accept noncompliant marked DL/IDs issued under § 37.71, the rule clarifies that Federal agencies may continue to accept these licenses past May 7, 2025, if they are doing so pursuant to an enforcement plan coordinated with DHS. Although some agencies may accept noncompliant marked DL/IDs for official purposes as part of a phased enforcement plan, other agencies may choose not to accept noncompliant marked DL/IDs as part of their phased enforcement plan; may determine that phased enforcement is not appropriate; or currently do not accept noncompliant marked DL/IDs for official purposes.
                        <SU>35</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Individuals who need to visit a Federal facility should check in advance whether the agency requires identification for access purposes and, if they do, review the agency's access control policies.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>35</SU>
                             For example, the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) recently finalized an update to its DoD-Wide installation security policy and is in the process of no longer accepting noncompliant marked cards across all of its facilities and installations.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Maintaining the May 7, 2025, Card-Based Enforcement Deadline</HD>
                    <P>During the development of this rule, DHS also considered further extending the REAL ID card-based enforcement deadline to allow for more time for the adoption rate to increase. However, based on DHS' observation of public behavior following prior extensions, DHS has concluded that many individuals will continue to delay obtaining a REAL ID in part due to a perceived lack of need. DHS believes that maintaining the deadline of May 7, 2025, while providing agencies the flexibility to implement the requirements through a phased enforcement plan where appropriate, will allow for a faster and smoother transition to full card-based enforcement than another extension of the deadline.</P>
                    <P>DHS prefers this rule's approach rather than an extension for several reasons. By maintaining the current deadline, agencies that do not determine that phased enforcement is appropriate will immediately transition to full card-based enforcement on May 7, 2025. This allows the security benefits of REAL ID to be fully realized in contexts where full enforcement is unlikely to create other security risks, interfere with operational feasibility, or disrupt public services. If DHS had extended the deadline, agencies that could have immediately transitioned to full enforcement on May 7, 2025, would likely have waited until the new deadline, delaying security benefits that were otherwise available. DHS expects that a significant number of agencies will begin full enforcement on the deadline because doing so is appropriate within their operational context.</P>
                    <P>
                        Further, DHS believes that this rulemaking's approach is likely to have a positive impact on the REAL ID adoption rate, while an extension would not have incentivized an increase in demand for REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs. Since the most recent extension in March 2023, DHS has observed the rate of growth in adoption of compliant DL/IDs remains very low (0.56 percent).
                        <SU>36</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Because of the history of extensions related to REAL ID enforcement, DHS expects that there is some confusion, lack of awareness, and apathy associated with the May 7, 2025, deadline. Given this prior history, DHS believes that the public may continue to expect that additional extensions are likely and not feel urgency to obtain a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID. As a result, DHS believes that an extension of the card-based enforcement date would not have been an effective means of incentivizing changed behavior.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>36</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Supra</E>
                             note 17.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Conversely, DHS expects that allowing agencies to enforce the May 7, 2025, deadline through a phased approach will incentivize increased demand for REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs in at least two ways. First, it will incentivize increased adoption rates as the deadline approaches. In part due to concerns related to low adoption rates, DHS has previously extended the card-based deadline several months before the enforcement date, limiting the effect of urgency to obtain a compliant DL/ID related to the deadline. As the May 7, 2025, deadline approaches, and DHS does not issue an extension, DHS expects individuals that were otherwise relying on another extension will obtain a compliant DL/ID. This rule demonstrates that DHS is planning for enforcement to begin on May 7, 2025, and not extending the deadline. DHS expects that as this becomes apparent to the public, more individuals will prioritize obtaining a REAL ID.</P>
                    <P>Second, DHS expects individuals who may not be aware of the deadline to be incentivized to obtain a compliant DL/ID when they experience the consequences of enforcement. During the phased enforcement period, individuals will experience varying levels of consequences including warning notices and progressive enforcement (as part of a phased enforcement plan), or full enforcement (where agencies transition to full enforcement on the deadline). These consequences will incentivize individuals who experience them to obtain a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID. Further, because the individuals who most frequently use their DL/ID for REAL ID purposes will be the most likely to experience consequences, DHS expects that phased enforcement will especially incentivize increased adoption amongst this population. A phased approach will in turn lessen the likelihood of disruption when agencies transition to full enforcement because the individuals who most often use DL/IDs for REAL ID official purposes will have been motivated to obtain a REAL ID during the phased enforcement period. Additionally, individuals may share their experience with personal contacts, potentially incentivizing others to obtain a compliant DL/ID. DHS expects that as awareness that REAL ID is being enforced becomes widespread, individuals who intend to use their DL/ID for official purposes will be motivated to obtain a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Phased Enforcement Guidance</HD>
                    <P>Under this rule, agencies have broad discretion to determine the structure of their phased enforcement plan so long as they comply with the requirements in the rule to:</P>
                    <P>(1) Make a determination that a phased enforcement plan is appropriate in consideration of relevant factors including security, operational feasibility, and public impact;</P>
                    <P>(2) Coordinate the phased enforcement plan with DHS;</P>
                    <P>(3) Make the phased enforcement plan publicly available on the agency's web page; and</P>
                    <P>(4) Achieve full enforcement of the card-based REAL ID requirements no later than May 5, 2027.</P>
                    <P>
                        The required coordination with DHS will provide DHS with visibility on Government-wide implementation of REAL ID. It will also allow DHS to serve in a liaison role between agencies where there may be overlapping equities. During the coordination process, DHS will seek to provide agencies guidance on how best to use their phased plan to transition to full enforcement. DHS may offer feedback or suggestions related to an agency's plan during this process. However, as long as agencies comply with the requirements in this rule, they 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3479"/>
                        have broad discretion as to how they structure their plans.
                    </P>
                    <P>As guidance to Federal agencies and to promote consistency, DHS provides the below examples of enforcement models as options agencies may consider if they determine that a phased approach to REAL ID card-based enforcement on May 7, 2025, is appropriate. DHS anticipates that informed compliance would be the enforcement model best suited to most agencies that decide to implement through a phased enforcement plan. Federal agencies that do not make a determination that phased enforcement is appropriate and do not coordinate a phased enforcement plan with DHS must begin full card-based enforcement on May 7, 2025. Under full card-based enforcement, Federal agencies may only accept a State-issued DL/ID for official purposes if that DL/ID is issued in accordance with REAL ID requirements by a REAL ID-compliant State.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Informed Compliance Model.</E>
                         Under an informed compliance model, agencies would provide written and verbal notice to any individual that seeks to use a noncompliant DL/ID for an official purpose on or after the card-based enforcement date of May 7, 2025. Individuals would then be permitted to continue the process for accessing a Federal facility or boarding a commercial aircraft. The written notice agencies provide should inform the individual that their DL/ID is noncompliant with REAL ID requirements, that they should contact their DMV for further information regarding obtaining a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID, and what to expect if the individual presents a noncompliant DL/ID and no other acceptable form of identification in the future. An accompanying verbal notice should briefly summarize the written notification and, at a minimum, inform the individual they are not in compliance with REAL ID requirements and direct the individual to reference the written notice. Under this model, agencies would not maintain a record of individuals who have presented a noncompliant DL/ID and have been issued a notice. Individuals who present an alternate acceptable form of identification (for example, a passport at the TSA checkpoint) would not receive a noncompliance notification. Under this model, agencies would continue to employ existing security and identity verification processes to confirm the authenticity and validity of the noncompliant DL/ID presented.
                        <SU>37</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>37</SU>
                             As an example, the NPRM discussed DHS' use of an Informed Compliance model to enforce the Safe, Accountable, Flexible, Efficient Transportation Equity Act: A Legacy for Users. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             89 FR 74145.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Informed Compliance with Limits.</E>
                         Under an Informed Compliance with Limits model, agencies would limit the number of times an individual may present a noncompliant DL/ID for an official purpose. Once an individual exceeds the prescribed number of allowable attempts, they would be denied the ability to use their noncompliant DL/ID for the REAL ID official purpose (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         use the noncompliant DL/ID for purposes of accessing a Federal facility) if they have no other acceptable form of identification. Employing this model would likely create significant requirements and obligations for the agency. Specifically:
                    </P>
                    <P>1. The agency would collect personally identifiable information (PII), including name, DL/ID State, and DL/ID number, as well as other information necessary to reliably identify the individual. This PII would need to be collected, maintained, and used in accordance with all applicable Federal guidelines and policy requirements related to collection of PII. This would likely require agencies to obtain an Office of Management and Budget (OMB)-approved Paperwork Reduction Act (PRA) information collection and prepare a Privacy Threshold Analysis, Privacy Impact Assessment, System of Records Notice, and other documentation for collection, storage, and use of PII.</P>
                    <P>2. The individual would attest that the PII provided is theirs and accurate.</P>
                    <P>
                        3. The agency would need to be able to demonstrate that they delivered a notification of noncompliance to the individual (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         record of transmittal).
                    </P>
                    <P>4. The agency may wish to obtain the individual's acknowledgement of receipt of the noncompliance notification at the time the individual presents the noncompliant DL/ID.</P>
                    <P>5. The agency would need to develop a system to track the number of instances the individual presented a noncompliant DL/ID and no other acceptable ID.</P>
                    <P>6. The agency would need to determine a limit on the number of times an individual may be authorized access after presenting a noncompliant DL/ID and no other acceptable form of identification.</P>
                    <P>7. The agency would need to define an appropriate period of time (in days/weeks) during which the individual may continue to use a noncompliant DL/ID for purposes of accessing the agency, after which the applicant would be given another notification of noncompliance if they again presented a noncompliant DL/ID (in other words, how long individuals may continue to use their noncompliant DL/ID on the same “strike” or “warning” before incurring a subsequent “strike” or “warning”).</P>
                    <P>
                        Agencies would need to choose an appropriate time period during which individuals would continue to use their noncompliant DL/ID without it being treated as an additional instance of noncompliance (“strike” or “warning”). Agencies should choose a time period appropriate to their operations. For agencies where the identity verification for official purposes is rare or isolated, it may be appropriate to treat each time an individual presents a noncompliant DL/ID as an instance of noncompliance. However, DHS believes that in certain cases individuals may need to use their DL/ID for a REAL ID official purpose for multiple instances within a short period of time (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         boarding a return flight from a destination or returning to a Federal facility to follow-up on the purpose of the initial visit). Individuals may not be able to obtain a REAL ID in between such related instances, so in these cases agencies may choose a time period that allows for multiple uses of a noncompliant DL/ID as part of the same instance of noncompliance. After the allotted time period expires, the presentation of a noncompliant DL/ID would be treated as another instance of noncompliance.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Agencies employing an Informed Compliance with Limitations model should provide individuals who present a noncompliant DL/ID with specific notice whenever an instance is being counted towards that individual's limit. The notice should reference the agency's overall policy and how the particular instance would affect the individual in the future. Agencies may choose to adopt different nomenclature for initial and subsequent instances of an individual presenting a noncompliant DL/ID. This may include language or consequences of subsequent notifications under this that progress in seriousness. For example, an agency may choose to permit access on the first two instances of noncompliance and deny access on the third (and any subsequent instance). Upon the third instance, the individual would be issued a “final” notification that their State-issued DL/ID is noncompliant and can no longer be accepted by that agency for the REAL ID official purpose. The Federal agency would not accept the individuals noncompliant DL/ID at that time and on all future instances unless the individual obtains a REAL ID 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3480"/>
                        or presents an alternative, acceptable form of identification.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS acknowledges that an Informed Compliance with Limitations enforcement plan would likely demand significant agency resources. DHS expects many agencies to begin full enforcement on the May 7, 2025, deadline. Of the agencies that do determine a phased approach is appropriate, DHS expects most will use a simple plan that provides a time-limited warning period (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         “Informed Compliance”). Given the resources required, including the need for secure systems, DHS expects very few agencies to choose an enforcement plan that tracks individual instances of noncompliance.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Additional considerations.</E>
                         Agencies may determine to implement a phased approach that employs only one of these models followed by full enforcement. For example, an agency may choose to begin enforcement with an Informed Compliance Phase or Informed Compliance with Limits Phase for a set period of time (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         3 months, 6 months, 1 year) followed by a transition to full enforcement at the end of that period. Alternatively, agencies may develop a plan that combines both models before transitioning to full enforcement. For example, an agency may begin enforcement with an initial Informed Compliance Phase for a set period of time, followed by an Informed Compliance with Limits Phase for an additional period of time, before beginning full enforcement. Agencies have the flexibility to determine the model(s) and timing that best suit their operational environment.
                    </P>
                    <P>Although DHS believes the models discussed above are likely to be the most common and effective, they are not exclusive. Agencies may develop plans based on other models. However, all phased enforcement plans, whether based on the above models or a different model must be coordinated with DHS and must conclude, and agencies must fully enforce REAL ID card-based requirements, no later than May 5, 2027. For agencies that make a determination that phased enforcement is appropriate, the same factors that they considered to make that determination should inform their determination of how to structure their plan.</P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, although REAL ID adoption rates should inform agencies when developing their enforcement plans, agencies' plans should be consistent across all States and territories. In other words, agencies should have a consistent national policy and individuals should not be subject to different consequences based on the adoption rate of a particular jurisdiction. To reduce the potential for confusion, ensure fair and equitable treatment of residents of all States, and ensure operational consistency, agencies that have operations or facilities spanning multiple States and territories should have one plan for all their facilities. Agencies' plans may make distinctions based on the types of facilities they operate (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         agencies may wish to begin full enforcement at certain types of facilities but use a phased approach at another type of facility) as long as the same policies apply to the same types of facilities nationwide and treat all DL/ID holders similarly. For example, agencies may choose to begin full enforcement at their headquarters facility while implementing a phased approach at field offices where the public more frequently seeks to use DL/IDs for official purposes, but (in this example) the same phased enforcement policy should apply to all field offices no matter where they are located. Agencies should provide information regarding their plans on their website and take other appropriate measures to inform the public and provide notice regarding their plan.
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS acknowledges that some agencies may maintain offices in or conduct operations out of leased facilities or multi-tenant facilities where the agency does not have direct control over the access control policies of the facility. Agencies leasing space in their facilities to other agencies and lead tenants as part of facility security committees determining physical security polices for multi-tenant facilities should develop plans that take into account the operations of tenant agencies and potential public impact associated with those operations when developing phased enforcement plans. As previously discussed, agencies may make distinctions based on the types of facilities they operate. Depending on the context, it may be appropriate for an agency developing a phased enforcement plan to draw a distinction between facilities that are shared by with agencies and facilities that are used solely by the agency developing the plan.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Discussion of Comments</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS published the NPRM on September 12, 2024,
                        <SU>38</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and the deadline for public comments was October 15, 2024.
                        <SU>39</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         During the 30-day comment period, DHS received over 11,000 comments on the NPRM. DHS carefully considered every comment received as part of the official record. DHS also received 103 comments submitted after the comment period closed. Although DHS did not consider comments submitted after the comment period closed, DHS determined that these comments were substantively similar to other comments received within the comment period and are addressed by DHS' response to those comments.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>38</SU>
                             89 FR 74137.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>39</SU>
                             The NPRM provided for a comment period of 30 days. The 
                            <E T="03">Regulations.gov</E>
                             system was unavailable on October 12th and 13th due to a planned outage, so the comment period closed on October 15th to provide the public with the full 30 days to comment.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>DHS received several comments suggesting that the 30 days provided for comment was not long enough. DHS considered these comments and determined not to extend the comment period for the NPRM. As discussed above, under the REAL ID regulations, Federal agencies may only accept compliant State-issued DL/IDs for official purposes beginning on May 7, 2025, which at the time of publication, is less than 6 months away. Given the importance of providing clarity for Federal agencies and to the public on agencies' authority to implement card-based enforcement through a phased approach, extending the comment period beyond 30 days would delay issuance of this final rule, thereby depriving Federal agencies certainty and valuable time as they plan to begin card-based enforcement. Further, suggestions that a longer comment period would be appropriate did not articulate any particular reason why the 30-day comment period was insufficient, and instead provided generalized statements that additional time would allow for greater public awareness. Moreover, the regulatory changes made by this rule are not overly complex, and DHS believes that 30 days provided sufficient time for the public to provide meaningful comments.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. General Opposition to REAL ID</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                         Many commenters expressed general opposition to the requirements of the REAL ID Act and implementing regulations. Several commenters asserted that the REAL ID Act and implementing regulations are generally unconstitutional, including under the 1st (individual freedoms), 4th (search and seizure), 5th (criminal procedures), 6th (criminal procedures), 7th (jury trial), 9th (rights not enumerated), 10th (rights reserved to states or people), and 14th (due process and equal protection) amendments to the U.S. Constitution. In making these claims, commenters asserted that the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3481"/>
                        REAL ID Act and regulations violate privacy or put personal information at risk, including by establishing a national ID or social credit reporting system; mandating a digital ID, collecting biometrics unlawfully; intruding on citizens privacy and facilitating government surveillance; creating a vast collection of sensitive personal data that makes citizens more vulnerable to identity theft; or allowing for sharing of individuals' information with foreign governments and international organizations. Other comments asserted that the REAL ID Act and regulations interfere with a constitutionally protected right to interstate travel. Some commenters asserted that the REAL ID Act and implementing regulations are unauthorized, including claims that they exceed the Federal government's statutory jurisdiction; create a system whereby the Secretary of DHS has unilateral authority to add new official purposes and curtail constitutional rights; waste taxpayer money; or constitute Government overreach. Regarding the impact on States, commenters asserted that the REAL ID Act and regulations are inconsistent with State authority, including by encroaching on state sovereignty; undermining principles of federalism; imposing significant costs on States, which would require increased Federal funding and technical support; and imposing these costs as an unfunded mandate on states.
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters also state that the REAL ID Act and regulations negatively affect individuals by burdening certain populations unjustly, including non-citizens, who may not have sufficient documentation to obtain a REAL ID, which would thereby limit their access to essential services and travel; by constituting a significant financial burden to obtain a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID; or by imposing an undue burden on individuals that have changed their name (for example, in relation to marriage or divorce). Additionally, commenters suggested that indefinite phased enforcement be used to nullify the REAL ID act and regulations, or that the phased enforcement rule be revised to instead provide an individual opt-out mechanism from the REAL ID requirements. Finally, commenters assert that the REAL ID Act and implementing regulations are outdated, do not actually provide increased security benefits, and will not make the nation safer. On a related issue, several commenters raised concerns that DHS takes for granted that DHS has certified all 56 licensing jurisdictions when, in the commenter's view, all DHS certifications erroneously determine the states to comply; and that the rulemaking will result in inconsistent DL/ID issuance procedures across the states.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">DHS response:</E>
                         DHS appreciates the many comments received regarding the REAL ID Act and regulations. Although these concerns are sometimes represented as directed at the current rulemaking, DHS did not propose substantive amendments to the REAL ID requirements, and comments expressing opposition to those underlying requirements or their implementation by current State implemented REAL ID issuance processes are outside of the scope of this rulemaking. Congress passed the REAL ID Act in 2005, enacting the 9/11 Commission's recommendation that the Federal government set minimum standards for the issuance of sources of identification, such as drivers' licenses, and charged DHS with implementing the statutory requirements.
                        <SU>40</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS went through notice and comment rulemaking and published a final rule on January 29, 2008, implementing the REAL ID Act's requirements. In 2020, Congress reaffirmed its commitment to REAL ID by passing the REAL ID Modernization Act, which updated certain provisions of the original statutory language.
                        <SU>41</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Phased Enforcement NPRM did not propose changes to the existing regulatory requirements that provide the substantive standards for REAL ID issuance. Under the REAL ID regulations card-based enforcement begins on May 7, 2025. This rule only modifies provisions related to the enforcement deadline to provide Federal agencies with the flexibility to implement card-based enforcement through a phased enforcement plan where appropriate. This final rule does not alter any of the substantive requirements of the REAL ID regulations and only amends the provisions related to the deadline for card-based enforcement. As DHS did not propose substantive amendments to REAL ID requirements, comments expressing opposition to those underlying requirements are outside the scope of this rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>40</SU>
                             49 U.S.C. 30301 note.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>41</SU>
                             Title X of Division U of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021, Public Law 116-260, 134 Stat. 2304.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Legal Authority</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                         Some commenters stated that the REAL ID Act does not provide authority for this rulemaking. Another commenter expressed the view that the flexibility provided by this rule constitutes an improper delegation of authority to DHS components and other agencies and exceeds DHS' authority under the REAL ID Act. The commenter suggests that, through this rule, DHS is redelegating its regulatory authority to other agencies. The commenter noted that instead of setting standards for the acceptance of IDs, this rule allows agencies to make decentralized and nonstandard determinations regarding the acceptance or rejection of noncompliant DL/IDs. Additionally, the commenter stated that agencies' phased enforcement plans, themselves, would constitute Federal regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">DHS response:</E>
                         DHS disagrees that the REAL ID Act does not provide authority for this rulemaking, as the statute explicitly authorizes DHS to promulgate regulations to implement the Act's requirements. Section 205 of the REAL ID Act provides that “[a]ll authority to issue regulations . . . shall be carried out by the Secretary.” 
                        <SU>42</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In issuing this rule, DHS is exercising its rulemaking authority to implement the REAL ID requirements in consideration of Federal agencies' authority to make agency-specific decisions about enforcement actions affecting individuals presenting DL/IDs which are not compliant with the READ ID Act and regulations.
                        <SU>43</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Under the REAL ID Act and regulations, all agencies are still required to begin card-based enforcement on May 7, 2025, but the rule provides a formal structure under which agencies may flexibly exercise their existing enforcement authority. The rule clarifies and reinforces that the general principles underpinning agencies' enforcement authority apply to the prohibition on Federal agency “acceptance” of noncompliant DL/IDs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>42</SU>
                             Sec. 205(a) of the REAL ID Act.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>43</SU>
                             49 U.S.C. 30301 note, section 202(a)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS further disagrees with the position that this rule inappropriately delegates rulemaking authority to other agencies. This rule does not provide agencies with any authority or discretion to modify the substantive requirements of the REAL ID regulations. Agencies' phased enforcement plans cannot alter the standards that govern whether a DL/ID is REAL ID-compliant. DHS also disagrees with the notion that REAL ID authority was provided solely to DHS, and that agencies' phased enforcement plans constitute regulations. Although the REAL ID Act generally granted DHS authority to implement the Act's provisions, Congress vested the authority to enforce acceptance of REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs with each 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3482"/>
                        individual agency.
                        <SU>44</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This rule acknowledges the statutory authority of other agencies to enforce acceptance of REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs in matters under their purview. The rule enhances agencies' existing enforcement authority by explicitly providing temporary, limited flexibility for agencies to begin card-based enforcement in a manner that takes into account relevant factors, allowing agencies to more smoothly transition to full card-based enforcement. The rule also provides DHS oversight of phased enforcement plans by requiring agencies to coordinate such plans with DHS, which mitigates the commenter's concern by allowing DHS to ensure that plans advance the objectives of the REAL ID regulations and maintain consistent progress towards full enforcement and to ensure consistency, as appropriate.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>44</SU>
                             49 U.S.C. 30301 note, section 202(a)(1), “Beginning 3 years after the date of the enactment of this division, 
                            <E T="03">a Federal agency may not accept,</E>
                             for any official purpose, a driver's license or identification card issued by a State to any person unless the State is meeting the requirements of this section” (emphasis added).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                         One commenter stated that this rule purports to impose a new ID requirement for airline passengers because it implies that passengers who do not present a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID or acceptable alternative would not be able to board federally regulated commercial aircraft.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">DHS response:</E>
                         This rule only relates to Federal agency, including TSA, acceptance of State-issued DL/IDs for defined REAL ID official purposes. Boarding federally regulated commercial aircraft is an official purpose under the REAL ID Act and regulations. Upon full card-based enforcement, TSA may not accept noncompliant State-issued DL/IDs at security screening checkpoints for the purpose of boarding federally regulated commercial aircraft.
                        <SU>45</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This rule does not otherwise effect TSA's policies related to acceptable forms of identification and identity verification.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>45</SU>
                             6 CFR 37.5(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. General Support for the Rulemaking</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                         Several commenters expressed general support for the proposed rule. Commenters wrote that they agreed that a phased roll out was a necessary step to begin enforcement and that this approach is a blend of practicality and foresight that benefits everyone. One commenter noted that the rule balances the purpose of the REAL ID Act and regulations with practical considerations. The commenter stated that by allowing agencies to gradually implement enforcement, the rule may alleviate potential disruptions at airports and Federal facilities. Other commenters noted that allowing agencies to use a phased enforcement plan is a practical and thoughtful approach that will ensure security while giving agencies the opportunity to address challenges associated with enforcement. Another commenter shared that this approach allows some agencies to quickly transition to full enforcement where they do not anticipate challenges while allowing other agencies flexibility to make necessary plans to enforce the requirements efficiently.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">DHS response:</E>
                         DHS agrees with these comments and believes that this rule provides appropriate flexibility that will enable Federal agencies to help ease the transition to full implementation of the card-based enforcement provisions of the REAL ID regulations. DHS believes this rule appropriately balances the security benefits that card-based enforcement provides with the negative effects that some Federal agencies may experience if they were to immediately transition to full enforcement on May 7, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Immediate Transition to Full Enforcement</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                         Several commenters expressed opposition to agencies using a phased approach and any delay to full card-based enforcement. Commenters pointed to a number of reasons supporting the position that full enforcement should begin on May 7, 2025, including: that the public has had ample time to obtain REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs; that agencies have had twenty years to determine how to enforce REAL ID; and that allowing phased enforcement will serve as a disincentive to adoption if the public delays obtaining a REAL ID because they either (1) expect agencies to use a phased approach and not enforce immediately or (2) simply perceive this as an extension of the deadline; and that many individuals can provide alternative, acceptable identification, such as passports to reduce operational impacts. Commenters also noted that REAL ID requirements help protect the aviation transportation system and that phased enforcement would delay the security benefits of card-based enforcement. One commenter stated DHS' estimate that only 4 percent of agencies may determine that a phased enforcement plan is appropriate implies that the rule is unnecessary. Yet another commenter suggested that in lieu of a regulation allowing phased enforcement, DHS should conduct a public awareness campaign to inform the public about the card-based enforcement deadline and to understand to what degree individuals are aware of REAL ID.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">DHS response:</E>
                         DHS considered not issuing this rule and allowing card-based enforcement to begin across all Federal agencies as an alternative and agrees with the comments about the important security benefits that REAL ID provides. However, DHS believes that providing agencies flexibility to consider relevant factors and make a determination to, in some cases, begin implementation through phased enforcement will facilitate a smoother transition to full card-based enforcement and mitigate potential risks associated with an immediate transition across all agencies.
                    </P>
                    <P>Given the current number of DL/IDs that are non-compliant, DHS anticipates that a significant number of individuals seeking to use their DL/ID for a REAL ID official purpose on and after May 7, 2025, may not have a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID. DHS delayed implementation of the REAL ID deadline for a number of years to allow for more individuals to obtain REAL-ID compliant DL/ID. Despite the Federal government's years of preparation for REAL ID, the adoption rate remains low and instances of individuals seeking to use a noncompliant DL/ID for a defined official purpose may occur on a large scale, raising concerns related to security, agency operations, and potential impact to the public. In contexts where agency operations involve large numbers of individuals presenting DL/IDs for REAL ID official purposes or where agencies have limited capacity to conduct identity verification processes where REAL ID is required, this may result in longer lines, general delays, confusion, and frustration. Disruptions to agency operations caused by large numbers of individuals attempting to use noncompliant DL/IDs are also likely to have broader effects and impact individuals who bring a valid form of identification. Such disruptions pose potential security risks at access points to TSA security checkpoints or other Federal facilities. DHS believes that the potential risks an immediate transition to full enforcement would cause for some agencies will be mitigated by the flexibility provided by phased enforcement.</P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, some commenters may have misunderstood this rule as an extension of the card-based deadline until May 5, 2027. As explained above,
                        <SU>46</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         this rule is not an extension of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3483"/>
                        the deadline. The rule maintains an immediate transition to full enforcement on May 7, 2025, for those agencies that do not determine that a phased approach to enforcement is appropriate. Recognizing the security benefits provided by REAL ID, this rule provides an enforcement approach that allows agencies to realize security gains in contexts where a swift transition to full enforcement poses little risk, while reducing the risks in contexts where large numbers of individuals seeking to use noncompliant DL/IDs raises serious concerns. Under this rule, agencies must specifically consider security when determining whether a phased enforcement plan is appropriate. DHS anticipates that for many agencies, phased enforcement will not be appropriate where the benefits of beginning full card-based enforcement on May 7, 2025, outweigh the other factors and benefits of phased enforcement. A phased approach will be more likely for those agencies where potential risks related to security, operational feasibility, and public impact strongly weigh in favor of and support implementing a phased enforcement plan. In this way, the rule appropriately balances obtaining the security benefits of REAL ID with the need to mitigate potential risks.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>46</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Supra</E>
                             III.C.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>DHS also does not agree that allowing agencies to enforce through a phased approach will disincentivize the public in obtaining a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID. Rather, implementation of this rule and enforcing the regulatory deadline beginning May 7, 2025, will incentivize the public to obtain compliant DL/IDs while considering the need of some agencies to enforce through a phased approach to address security and public interest concerns. Beginning May 7, 2025, DHS anticipates that many agencies will begin full enforcement, and not accept non-compliant DL/ID. Those agencies that choose to implement the regulatory deadline using a phased approach will decide the timeline and conditions appropriate for their agency to implement within the 2-year period. DHS expects the public to see the tangible results of attempting to use a non-compliant ID/ID for official purposes, either directly, through media coverage, or via DHS and agency public messaging, and decide to obtain a compliant DL/ID.</P>
                    <P>DHS' estimate that only 4 percent of agencies may ultimately determine that a phased enforcement plan is appropriate does not indicate that the rule is unnecessary. The frequency and volume of Federal agencies' interactions with the public that may require presentation of a DL/ID for a REAL ID official purpose varies significantly. Based on its stakeholder engagements with Federal agencies, DHS believes that the vast majority of agencies do not handle a significant volume of individuals presenting DL/IDs for an official purpose under the REAL ID Act and regulation. However, other agencies (for example, TSA) encounter a much larger volume of individuals on a daily basis that must present an identification document for a REAL ID official purpose. Although DHS estimates that only 4 percent of agencies will make a determination to use a phased enforcement plan, this rule acknowledges that each individual agency is in the best position to consider the relevant factors and make a determination based on the agency's own mission and operational context. DHS believes it is important for all agencies to have the flexibility provided by this rule as they prepare to begin card-based enforcement on May 7, 2025.</P>
                    <P>Finally, DHS also appreciates the value of increasing public awareness of REAL ID requirements. TSA has undertaken efforts to conduct surveys on the public's awareness of REAL ID and is engaged in public awareness campaigns through multiple media outlets. Given the modest changes to the REAL ID adoption rate over the past year notwithstanding DHS' significant public outreach, DHS does not believe a public awareness campaign on its own would sufficiently increase the adoption rate of compliant DL/IDs by May 7, 2025, to effectively mitigate the risks some agencies may face if they immediately transitioned to full enforcement.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Extension of the Card-Based Enforcement Deadline</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                         Some commenters suggested that rather than beginning card-based enforcement on May 7, 2025, DHS should issue an extension of the card-based enforcement deadline. Commenters wrote that the deadline should be extended because of low rates of adoption of REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs, the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on States' ability to issue REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs, and a lack of public awareness. One commenter wrote that an extension of 2 or 3 years would be appropriate. Other commenters suggested that REAL ID enforcement should be extended for 5 years, 7 years, 10 years or more. Some commenters stated that individuals had encountered challenges in obtaining a REAL ID due to complexity in meeting eligibility requirements or unequal access to DMVs due to physical distance from DMV locations, work schedules, and lack of transportation. Another commenter stated that REAL ID enforcement should not begin until the Federal government or State governments provide funding such that the cost of obtaining a REAL ID-complaint DL/ID is not passed on to individuals.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">DHS response:</E>
                         DHS considered an extension to the card-based enforcement deadline but chose the approach provided by this rule for several reasons. As discussed above,
                        <SU>47</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS believes that maintaining the deadline of May 7, 2025, will continue to encourage REAL ID adoption whereas an extension of the deadline would reduce adoption incentives. Maintaining the deadline while providing agencies the flexibility of phased enforcement where appropriate will allow for a faster and smoother transition to full card-based enforcement than another extension of the deadline.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>47</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Supra</E>
                             III.C.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>This approach maintains the current deadline, facilitating an immediate transition to full enforcement for agencies that do not determine phased enforcement is appropriate. In this way, the security benefits of REAL ID can be fully realized in contexts where full enforcement poses little risk of creating other security risks, interfering with operational feasibility, or disrupting public services. Further, DHS believes that this approach will encourage REAL ID adoption by maintaining the urgency to obtain a compliant DL/ID prior to the deadline and after the deadline, when individuals experience the consequences of card-based enforcement. As individuals learn that their noncompliant DL/ID can no longer be used for defined official purposes, they will be incentivized to obtain a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID.</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS appreciates concerns raised that an extension is necessary due to the current REAL ID adoption rate and the impact of COVID-19 to State's ability to issue REAL ID-compliant IDs. DHS has previously issued a number of extensions to account for slow growth in the REAL ID adoption rate, as well as COVID-19 impact, however, even given these prior extensions the rate of REAL ID issuance remains low. To increase adoption and realize the benefits of the REAL ID Act, the REAL ID deadline must be enforced. DHS believes that maintaining the enforcement date along with measures encouraging adoption as part of phase enforcement plans will help increase adoption rates thereby providing the security benefits of REAL ID while also addressing concerns about low adoption rates and State's ability to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3484"/>
                        issue REAL ID-compliant IDs. Specifically, DHS recognizes that many individuals still do not have a compliant DL/ID, and beginning full enforcement on May 7, 2025, may not be practical for all Federal agencies. As such, the rule allows for agencies to determine, after considering relevant factors including security, operational feasibility, and public impact that they should implement the deadline through a phase approach.
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS does not agree that the date should be extended due to the lack of public awareness. DHS, in close coordination with States, airlines, airports, and other industry partners, has messaged the importance of obtaining a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID for a number of years. DHS believes that continued messaging alone will not result in a substantial increase in adoption rates. DHS believes that beginning enforcement, with the flexibility phased enforcement provides, will increase public awareness and increase REAL ID adoption rates more quickly than an extension of the deadline.</P>
                    <P>DHS recognizes some individuals have encountered challenges in obtaining a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID due to an inability to meet eligibility requirements. DHS recommends that individuals contact their State licensing agency directly to determine if they are able to meet issuance requirements. In addition, many agencies allow for individuals to provide other acceptable forms of identification or allow individuals to proceed using alternative access control procedures. DHS recommends that individuals without a REAL ID-compliant ID contact the Federal agency in question to determine that agency's unique access control requirements.</P>
                    <P>DHS also does not agree that the deadline should be extended because of challenges that individuals may face in obtaining a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID due to unequal access to DMVs. DHS recognizes that some individuals may have a more difficult time traveling to a DMV to obtain a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID than others. However, to realize the security benefits of REAL ID, DHS believes that beginning card-based enforcement on May 7, 2025, is appropriate and that individuals will have had sufficient time to obtain a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID before that date. To the extent agencies implement card-based enforcement through phased enforcement plans, this rule may provide additional time after the deadline for individuals to obtain REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs.</P>
                    <P>Finally, DHS disagrees with the comment that DHS should delay card-based enforcement until Federal or State funding reduces the costs of obtaining a REAL ID compliant-DL/ID. Congress passed the REAL ID Act in 2005 and DHS issued a final rule implementing the Act's requirements in 2008. The Act and regulations provide for the statutory and regulatory framework for REAL ID. Under this framework, neither Congress nor DHS set parameters on the cost to individuals to obtain a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID. Therefore, DHS believes enforcement of REAL ID requirements should not be tied to the cost of obtaining a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter suggested extending the deadline because Washington state does not issue REAL ID DL/IDs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">DHS response:</E>
                         The State of Washington issues Enhanced Driver's Licenses (EDLs), which are designated as acceptable border-crossing documents by DHS under the Western Hemisphere Travel Initiative and are an acceptable form of identification for REAL ID official Federal purposes such as accessing a Federal facility or boarding a commercial aircraft. Michigan, Minnesota, New York, Vermont, and Washington are the only States that currently issue EDLs. For more information on EDLs, please visit the DHS website.
                        <SU>48</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>48</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">https://www.dhs.gov/enhanced-drivers-licenses-what-are-they.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Confusion Associated With Phased Enforcement Generally</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                         Multiple commenters stated that the REAL ID requirements, delays, and shifting deadlines were already confusing, and that a phased approach will only add more confusion and complexity. Some commenters noted that the proposed rule could cause confusion through inconsistent enforcement timelines across Federal agencies. Another commenter noted that DHS did not prescribe the form that agencies' plans must take, claiming it would cause unspecified harm, which DHS assumes refers to confusion related to inconsistent enforcement plans across agencies. Other commenters also expressed concerns over public awareness of the proposed rule. These commenters suggested that a lack of public awareness could impede the effectiveness of the rule in encouraging REAL ID adoption, and result in demand surges at DMVs at the end of the phased enforcement period.
                    </P>
                    <P>There were also comments about public awareness of the REAL ID requirements and enforcement plans. Specifically, some commenters expressed concerns that people who do not fly often may not see postings by TSA and may not be aware of REAL ID requirements. Others who supported the rule emphasized the importance of an expansive public campaign.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">DHS response:</E>
                         DHS appreciates that some commenters are concerned that REAL ID messaging, to date, has been confusing, and that the phased implementation plans allowed through this rule could add to that confusion. To mitigate potential confusion regarding the REAL ID dates changes in the regulation, DHS has worked closely with States, industry and media partners to ensure the public was aware of the REAL ID extensions. DHS will continue its current messaging that the REAL ID deadline will not be extended past May 7, 2025, and that individuals should obtain a REAL ID-compliant ID, or other acceptable form of identification, as soon as possible. To ensure public visibility and reduce confusion regarding individual enforcement plans, agencies that implement card-based enforcement using a phased approach must make their plan publicly available on their web page. DHS must also make publicly available a list of agencies that have implemented a phased enforcement plan. Additionally, to prepare the public for REAL ID enforcement, DHS is conducting public awareness campaigns through internet, currently, and television and radio campaigns starting in 2025, which will continue through the card-based enforcement date.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        TSA's REAL ID Program is also working closely with States and the travel industry to support efforts to raise awareness among their citizens and customers. This includes a media campaign “toolkit,” which provides stakeholders with digital, print, social media, and audio/video materials, that can be used by stakeholders in their own media campaigns.
                        <SU>49</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS has also collaborated with States and other stakeholders on media events designed to increase public awareness of the REAL ID deadline. DHS believes these public awareness efforts will help mitigate, but not eliminate, the risk of demand surges towards the end of the phased enforcement period. DHS believes that despite public awareness campaigns, many individuals will choose to wait until the last minute to obtain a REAL ID compliant-DL/ID, so it may not be possible to eliminate all risk 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3485"/>
                        of a demand surge. However, by targeting messaging at individuals more likely to need a compliant DL/ID (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         domestic commercial air travelers) media campaigns will likely encourage some individuals to obtain a compliant DL/ID, mitigating a potential surge approaching the deadline.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>49</SU>
                             “Be Your REAL ID Self ” Campaign Toolkits, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.dhs.gov/real-id/campaign-toolkits</E>
                             (last visited November 20, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS acknowledges that this rule could potentially create confusion due to the possibility of inconsistent enforcement timelines, with some agencies implementing full enforcement and other agencies implementing varying phased enforcement plans. The rule's requirement that agencies post their plans publicly on their web page is intended to provide transparency and mitigate potential confusion. To the extent variation in enforcement across Federal agencies still results in some confusion, DHS believes that the approach offered by this rule will be more effective than other alternatives that may offer more straightforward messaging. Although immediately beginning full card-based enforcement across all agencies or extending the deadline for card-based compliance might present a simpler message to communicate to the public, as explained above in DHS' response to other comments,
                        <SU>50</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS believes the approach provided in this rule will better enable a smooth transition to full card-based enforcement. DHS believes that the benefit of allowing enforcement to begin with the flexibility for phased enforcement, where appropriate, outweighs the risk of potential confusion, particularly with the mitigation through public communication.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>50</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Supra</E>
                             IV.D., IV.E.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Finally, DHS acknowledges that a successful implementation of REAL ID enforcement relies on public awareness of the REAL ID requirements, upcoming deadline, and phased enforcement plans. For years, DHS has made significant efforts to raise public awareness of REAL ID enforcement, to include providing information at the TSA security checkpoint about the upcoming REAL ID deadline, and will continue to do so through May 7, 2025. To continue DHS's commitment to transparency and public awareness regarding REAL ID requirements, as discussed below, this final rule requires agencies to post their phased enforcement plans, if they choose to use them, on their agency website.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Public Availability of Agencies' Phased Enforcement Plans</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter expressed concern that online publication of agency phased enforcement plans may not provide sufficient public awareness or adequately prepare the public for what to expect when seeking to use a noncompliant DL/ID for a defined official purpose. The commenter suggested that agencies should also be required to maintain information regarding their phased enforcement plans on site at locations where individuals may need to use a DL/ID for a defined official purpose.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">DHS response:</E>
                         DHS appreciates this comment highlighting the importance of ensuring that information regarding agencies' phased enforcement plans is available to the public. Given the scope of potential phased enforcement plans, which range from full enforcement to non-enforcement through the 2-year period, DHS does not believe it is appropriate to prescribe specific means by which the individual agency must inform members of the public about their plan, beyond the general requirement to make it publicly available on an agency website. One of DHS' goals in requiring agencies to make their plans available on their websites is to allow individuals to prepare in advance of arriving at an agency location and seeking to use to a noncompliant DL/ID for a REAL ID official purpose. This requirement does not prevent agencies from also providing their plan, or information about their plan, “on-site” for individuals who arrive and seek to use a noncompliant DL/ID.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As a component of the individual agency plan, that agency may choose to engage in a variety of outreach and engagement activities relevant to their specific goals; but imposition of general requirements in this rule cannot effectively account for the specific needs of the plan, variation in agency location and operations, and relevant audience. For example, in the informed compliance phased enforcement model described above,
                        <SU>51</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         agencies could provide a notice to individuals presenting a noncompliant DL/ID. The notice could inform the individual that their DL/ID is noncompliant with REAL ID requirements and that they should contact their DMV for further information regarding obtaining a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID. The notice could also tell the individual what to expect if the individual presents a noncompliant DL/ID and no other acceptable form of identification in the future.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>51</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Supra</E>
                             III.D.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As noted above, DHS is engaged in a layered approach to improve adoption, including heavy engagement with States that have low REAL ID adoption rates, a public advertising campaign raising awareness of upcoming REAL ID enforcement and the benefits of obtaining a REAL ID,
                        <SU>52</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and communication with the travel industry.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>52</SU>
                             DHS Launches “Be Your REAL ID Self ” Public Awareness Campaign, January 15, 2021, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.dhs.gov/real-id/news/2021/01/15/dhs-launches-be-your-real-id-self-public-awareness-campaign.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Length of Phased Enforcement Period</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                         Multiple commenters expressed support for a phased approach but highlighted concerns over the timeframe for the phased enforcement period. Some commenters believe a phased enforcement period of 2 to 3 years is appropriate. Other commenters expressed that DHS did not provide sufficient data or evidence to support a 2-year phased enforcement period. One commenter states a 2-year period is not long enough based on adoption rates to date and the current proportion of DL/ID holders that have a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID. The commenter notes that 2 years might not allow for a significant increase in the proportion of REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs and that Federal agencies may experience the same operational risks at the end of the 2-year enforcement period in the presence of significant REAL ID noncompliance. Another commenter noted that many individuals have obtained noncompliant marked DL/ID with validity periods of up to 8 years, depending on the state, and that these individuals would need to visit a DMV in advance of the expiration of their current DL/ID in order to obtain a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID. This commenter suggested that DHS should, at a minimum, extend the phased enforcement period to 4 years, which would align with shortest validity period amongst most populous states. Still other commenters proposed that Federal agencies should be permitted to specify their own dates for achieving full enforcement, that the phased enforcement period should be indefinite, or that DHS consider future rulemaking to modify the phased enforcement period if necessary.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">DHS response:</E>
                         DHS appreciates the thoughtful comments it received regarding the appropriate length of the phased enforcement period. In determining the length of the phased enforcement period, DHS balanced factors supporting a shorter period of phased enforcement with those possibly warranting a longer period. In support of providing a shorter phased enforcement period, DHS seeks to reduce the delay in realizing the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3486"/>
                        security benefits associated with REAL ID, and additionally seeks to ensure that imminent enforcement provides a compelling rationale for members of the public to obtain a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID. In support of a longer phased enforcement period, DHS seeks to provide sufficient time for phased enforcement plans to exert an effect on public perception, to limit negative enforcement impacts on agency operations and the public, and to provide sufficient time for States to meet increased demand. DHS has balanced these factors to arrive at an up to 2-year period available for phased enforcement. The 2-year period allows agencies to develop plans that adjust for operational impacts and provides individuals and States time to take necessary action. This period allows States to adjust or reallocate resources to meet increased demand over annual budgeting cycles, while still maintaining a level of urgency necessary to prioritize such action. Allowing for more than 2 years for phased enforcement would potentially further delay the security benefits of REAL ID and would likely not provide members of the public a compelling reason to prioritize obtaining a REAL ID compliant DL/ID.
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS also does not believe that it would be appropriate to allow each Federal agency to specify the duration of their own phased enforcement period beyond the 2 years permitted by this rule. Doing so would permit agencies to use a phased approach indefinitely, avoiding the implementation of the legal requirements associated with the REAL ID act and regulations. Allowing a more lengthy phased enforcement period than 2 years would also unnecessarily delay realization of the security benefits of REAL ID. Finally, a common defined available period for phased enforcement ensures consistent, accountable, and transparent national action, while still allowing agencies to balance operational needs, security benefits, and public impact to determine the individualized timeframe of their own enforcement, within those bounds.</P>
                    <P>As described above, one comment suggested that DHS should base the phased enforcement period on the minimum length of the validity period for DL/IDs in some states, rather than balancing various factors to determine the enforcement. The commenter recommended 4 years because this is the shortest validity period amongst more populous States. Since there is not a single common validity period among all states, the choice of a 4-year period rather than the many longer periods in other States implicitly acknowledges the interests DHS has described above compelling shorter phased enforcement periods. The diversity in length of validity periods across States also suggests that there is highly limited benefit to tying the phased enforcement period to one particular validity period, as it would not be common to most members of the public. In addition, the length of validity of DL/IDs has limited utility in light of states ability to continue issuance of non-REAL ID compliant DL/IDs. While DHS acknowledges that some individuals who have recently obtained noncompliant DL/IDs may need to obtain a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID before their noncompliant DL/ID expires, the avoidance of this circumstance in some limited instances (namely, the class of persons who have a DL/ID which would specifically expire between 2 and 4 years from the REAL ID enforcement date) is not compelling when compared to the broader interests DHS has considered in providing a shorter period of phased enforcement, as described above.</P>
                    <P>Individuals may also continue to choose to obtain a noncompliant DL/ID, even after the enforcement date, because they do not anticipate needing an acceptable form of identification to verify their identity for a defined official purpose or because they had another identity document, such as a passport, that is widely accepted. DHS does not believe it is appropriate to further delay the security benefits of REAL ID based on individual's decisions to obtain noncompliant-marked cards. For any individual holding a noncompliant DL/ID, who realizes that they need to obtain a compliant DL/ID, a 2-year phased enforcement period provides sufficient time for them to do so.</P>
                    <P>
                        Additionally, some commenters discussing the appropriate maximum phased enforcement period appear to assume that 100 percent of state-issued DL/IDs in circulation must be REAL ID-compliant before the Federal Government begins full card-based enforcement. This is incorrect. In the 2008 final rule DHS assumed, in response to public comments, that only 75 percent of DL/ID holders may ever obtain a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID.
                        <SU>53</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Individuals may choose not to obtain a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID for a number of reasons, including that they do not anticipate needing identification for a REAL ID official purpose or that they have another form of acceptable identification (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a passport). Although the balance point that the actual percentage of REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs will eventually reach is uncertain (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         it could be more or less than 75 percent), DHS anticipates that the number of individuals presenting noncompliant DL/IDs for REAL ID official purposes at the time agencies transition from phased enforcement to full enforcement will have fallen and thereby reduce potential security risks, operational disruption, or significant public impact.
                        <SU>54</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>53</SU>
                             73 FR 5272, 5322.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>54</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See infra</E>
                             table 5. DHS forecasts that the number of DL/IDs that are REAL ID-compliant may rise to 83 percent by May 2027.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Finally, DHS appreciates the recommendation that DHS consider future rulemaking to modify the phased enforcement period if necessary. As with this rulemaking, DHS will leverage its rulemaking authority as necessary to ensure successful implementation of the REAL ID requirements.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Relevant Factors and Resources for Development and Approval of Phased Enforcement Determinations by Federal Agencies</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                         Some commenters expressed that the relevant factors DHS identified and that the rule requires agencies to consider when determining whether a phased approach is appropriate are overly broad and allow Federal agencies too much discretion in determining whether to implement a phased enforcement plan and what form the plan would take, resulting in widely varying policies that may hinder compliance and enforcement by individuals and agencies, respectively. These commenters also expressed concern that with this discretion, agencies may transition to full enforcement prior to the end of the 2-year maximum phased enforcement period, arguing instead that REAL ID should be repealed or extended outright for 2 years, citing general concerns regarding the REAL ID Act unrelated to this rulemaking. One commenter expressed concern about the adequacy of the TSA REAL ID Program's resources to support the required DHS coordination of agencies' phased enforcement plans. The commenter suggested that DHS should work to achieve a common understanding of the REAL ID regulations across all Federal agencies.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">DHS response:</E>
                         Under this rule, DHS intentionally provides Federal agencies significant discretion and flexibility to implement the REAL ID requirements using an approach that is best suited to their operations and contexts. Given the large number of Federal agencies, their variety of missions and operational settings, and significant variation in the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3487"/>
                        frequency and volume of interactions with the public in the context of a defined REAL ID official purpose, DHS believes that attempting to develop a uniform phased enforcement approach or more specific list of factors is not feasible. Further, DHS believes that each individual agency is in a better position than DHS to weigh factors and make judgments regarding whether phased enforcement is appropriate and, if so, what form an agency's phased enforcement plan should take. The rule requires that agency plans be coordinated with DHS, which will allow DHS to ensure a level of consistency, as appropriate, and oversight of successful implementation of the REAL ID requirements.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed above,
                        <SU>55</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         this rule maintains the card-based enforcement deadline and a regulatory default of full enforcement on May 7, 2025, absent an affirmative determination by an agency to use a phased enforcement plan. The rule is structured in this way to facilitate each agency's transition to full implementation of REAL ID requirements as soon as practicable. DHS anticipates that many agencies will determine that a phased approach is not necessary or appropriate and will transition to full enforcement immediately on May 7, 2025. For agencies that do determinate that phased enforcement is appropriate, DHS does not expect that all phased enforcement plans will take the entire 2-year period. In some cases, agencies' phased enforcement plans may provide for reaching full enforcement well in advance of May 5, 2027.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>55</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Supra</E>
                             III.C.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Finally, DHS notes that the TSA REAL ID Program is well-prepared to support DHS coordination of agencies' phased enforcement plans. Since Fall 2023, the TSA REAL ID Program Office has been hosting monthly stakeholder engagement sessions with Federal agencies. During these sessions, DHS has briefed Federal agencies on the REAL ID regulations' card-based enforcement requirements and this rulemaking to allow agencies the flexibility to implement card-based enforcement through a phased approach, if appropriate. Through interagency discussion during these sessions, DHS has built an understanding of which agencies may consider phased enforcement plans and what form those plans may take. Although the rule provides agencies broad discretion to structure their phased enforcement plans in a manner best suited to their operations, the rule requires agencies to coordinate their plans with DHS to ensure that plans advance the objectives of the REAL ID regulations and maintain consistent progress towards full enforcement. Through this coordination, DHS will maintain oversight of successful implementation of the REAL ID Act and ensure consistency, as appropriate.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">J. Phased Enforcement Implementation Concerns</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                         DHS received some comments related specifically to the official purpose of boarding a federally regulated commercial aircraft and card-based enforcement at TSA security screening checkpoints. These commenters expressed concerns that beginning card-based enforcement at TSA security checkpoints may increase passenger wait times and congestion in the public areas of airports, potentially increasing the burden on law enforcement officers who respond to issues arising at airports. One commenter suggested that TSA should develop a plan that clearly provides criteria for incidents that rise to level requiring notification to law enforcement. Another commenter suggested that, as part of phased enforcement, TSA should require individuals enrolled in TSA Precheck® to present a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID to use the TSA Precheck® lane. Multiple commenters recommended that TSA develop a “contingency” plan to address travelers who may be unable to use their noncompliant DL/ID to proceed through the screening checkpoint.
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS also received comments asserting that the proposed phased approach would exacerbate costs to individuals and to the Federal Government, for example, because individuals may need to update their identification multiple times to comply with evolving standards. Other commenters asked that DHS provide more detail about the consequences of the rule; and concerns that phased enforcement will be “increasingly painful” on the public and is thus not in their best interests.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">DHS response:</E>
                         DHS appreciates the thoughtful comments received regarding TSA's implementation of card-based enforcement. This rule allows TSA to make a determination, after considering relevant factors, that a phased approach to card-based enforcement may be appropriate. Consistent with this rule, TSA is planning for a number of scenarios, including considering a phased approach to enforcement. In making its determination, TSA will take into account the relevant factors of security, operational feasibility, and public impact, including TSA checkpoint operations that involve interaction with law enforcement and potential impact to travelers and transportation stakeholders.
                    </P>
                    <P>Concerns regarding costs associated with compliance with requirements of the REAL ID Act and regulation were addressed in the 2008 final rule and are outside the scope of this rulemaking. Regarding the concern that a phased approach will add additional costs to implementation because of a need to update identification multiple times, DHS notes that the REAL ID card-based requirements, issued through the 2008 final rule, were not amended by this rulemaking. Further, nothing in this rule will impact the requirements for issuance. The rule instead provides individuals potentially more time to obtain a REAL ID compliant license if they plan to present their DL/ID to an agency that is implementing the May 7, 2025, enforcement deadline through a phased approach.</P>
                    <P>Regarding commenters' questions about the consequences of the rule, if an individual attempts to provide a non-compliant DL/ID after May 7, 2025, and the agency does not have a phased enforcement plan in place, the Federal agency may not accept that non-compliant DL/ID. Each individual agency is responsible for determining access control procedures at their facilities, and what alternatives may be available, such as other acceptable forms of identification. If the agency does have a phased enforcement plan in place, that plan must be posted on the agency website. For example, an agency may only accept a non-compliant DL/ID from an individual twice before it is rejected. In that instance, the individual will be subject to the agency's published plan.</P>
                    <P>DHS understands that some commenters are concerned that the phased enforcement plans may be “increasingly painful” on the public. However, without the flexibility for a phased approach, no Federal agencies may accept non-compliant DL/IDs for REAL ID official purposes on and after May 7, 2025. This rule provides flexibility to agencies, allowing them to implement phased enforcement plans that provide more time for individuals to obtain a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID.</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                         Some commenters expressed concern that agencies' phased enforcement plans may involve the collection of personal information and privacy issues, particularly if agencies implement a phased enforcement plan using the informed compliance with limits model. One commenter expressed 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3488"/>
                        the need for transparency and clear policies to protect PII.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">DHS response:</E>
                         DHS appreciates these comments and acknowledges the importance of privacy protections and safeguarding of personally identifiable information. This rule only provides agencies with the flexibility to implement the card-based enforcement deadline through a phased approach and, as noted above.
                        <SU>56</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Any PII collected as part of an agency's phased enforcement plan must be collected, maintained, and used in accordance with all applicable Federal guidelines and requirements related to collection of PII. Depending on the type and manner of information collected, this will likely require agencies to obtain an OMB-approved PRA information collection, or to prepare a Privacy Threshold Analysis, Privacy Impact Assessment, System of Records Notice, and other documentation to ensure adequate protections are in place regarding the collection, storage, and use of PII.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>56</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Supra</E>
                             III.D.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                         One commenter expressed concern that Federal agencies' implementation of phased enforcement plans may result in a burden on States because individuals will seek information from State DMVs regarding Federal card-based enforcement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">DHS response:</E>
                         DHS appreciates concerns related to increasing the burden on States. Overall, DHS believes this rule lessens the burden on States by allowing agencies to implement card-based enforcement using a phased approach. In the event of backlogs at State DMVs due to increased demand leading up to and after the deadline, this rule may provide States additional time to make adjustments to meet increases in demand for REAL ID-compliant cards. DHS acknowledges that States, including DMV personnel, may receive inquiries regarding Federal agencies' phased enforcement plans. To mitigate potential confusion associated with phased enforcement, this rule requires agencies using a phased approach to make their plans available on their website. It also requires DHS to make available on the DHS REAL ID web page a list of agencies that have coordinated phased enforcement plans. DHS welcomes States to direct individuals with questions regarding Federal card-based enforcement to the DHS REAL ID web page.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">K. Alternative Approaches to Phased Enforcement</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comments:</E>
                         One commenter suggested an alternative approach to phased enforcement based on the issuance date of the identification document. In the suggested alternative, Federal agencies could choose to accept, for a period up to 2 years after the card-based enforcement deadline, noncompliant DL/IDs with issuance dates before May 7, 2025. After the phased enforcement period, Federal agencies would only accept REAL ID-compliant identification for official purposes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">DHS response:</E>
                         DHS appreciates this comment suggesting an alternative to the phased enforcement approach taken by this rule. DHS believes that if an agency determines that phased enforcement is appropriate, the agency is in the best position to structure a phased enforcement plan that meets the needs of its operational context. While the rule requires agencies to coordinate phased enforcement plans with DHS, the rule provides agencies broad discretion to design a plan that will achieve a smooth transition to full enforcement within their context. DHS provides some phased enforcement models that agencies may consider,
                        <SU>57</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         but agencies have discretion to develop their own models.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>57</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Supra</E>
                             III.D.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>A phased enforcement plan based on DL/ID issuance date would be compatible with the broad scope of discretion given to individual agencies under this rule. That is, individual agencies could adopt such a model of enforcement if they choose to do so based on their specific circumstances. It is, however, not appropriate to adopt universally, because DHS believes that each individual agency is in the best position a phased enforcement plan that meets their own particular circumstances. In light of agencies' varying operational contexts and interaction with REAL ID requirements, DHS believes that providing agencies broad discretion is preferable to universally mandating a specific phased enforcement plan for every agency.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">L. Costs of the Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Comment:</E>
                         One commenter expressed opposition to the rule, citing the financial implications and estimated costs of the REAL ID Act. The commenter stated an additional delay in card-based enforcement will only exacerbate costs and demand further financial backing for the eventual enforcement in a decades old policy, without citing specific amounts in additional costs.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">DHS response:</E>
                         The rule results in an estimated $1.73 million in quantifiable costs over 2 years to Federal agencies and DHS, which are separate, and a fraction of the estimated costs related to the REAL ID Act. In addition, the rule will help individuals without REAL ID-compliant identification, or an acceptable alternative, avoid costs that they may face when attempting to use a DL/ID for an official purpose during the phased enforcement period.
                    </P>
                    <P>DHS does not possess data on State expenditures, but as all States have met the state-based deadline for compliance, many of the costs associated with implementation of the REAL ID Act have already been incurred and will not be impacted by this rule. States and individuals would continue to incur costs related to obtaining REAL IDs; with or without this rule, which may be impacted by the rate at which they occur. As stated in the rule, DHS anticipates providing the opportunity for a phased approach may actually reduce and/or spread overall costs (rather than processing a higher number of REAL ID requests in a shorter period of time and consequences of a large portion of the population not having acceptable ID).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Statutory and Regulatory Analyses</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Administrative Procedure Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Administrative Procedure Act (APA), 5 U.S.C. 553(d) requires publication of an amendment in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         at least 30 days before the effective date of the final rule, unless good cause, as prescribed in the APA, is found. Here, DHS has concluded there is good cause to make this rule effective immediately. In determining whether the good cause exception of section 553(d) may be invoked to allow an immediate publication date, an agency is required to balance the necessity for immediate implementation against principles of fundamental fairness which require that all affected persons be afforded reasonable time to prepare for the effective date of the rule.
                        <SU>58</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Agencies may also dispense with the delayed effective date requirement for rules that “recognize an exemption or relieve[ ] a restriction.” 
                        <SU>59</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>58</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">United States</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Gavrilovic,</E>
                             551 F.2d 1099 (8th Cir. 1977) (noting that the “legislative history of the APA” indicates that the waiting period “was not intended to unduly hamper agencies from making a rule effective immediately,” but intended “to `afford persons affected a reasonable time to prepare for the effective date of a rule . . . or to take other action which the issuance may prompt' ” (citing S. Rep. No. 752, 79th Cong., 1st Sess. 15 (1946); H.R. Rep. No. 1980, 79th Cong., 2d Sess. 25 (1946))).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>59</SU>
                             5 U.S.C. 553(d)(1). 
                            <E T="03">See Independent U.S. Tanker Owners Commission</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Skinner,</E>
                             884 F.2d 587, 591 (D.C. Cir. 1989).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Here, finalizing the provisions of this rule immediately may serve to lessen a burden on the public by providing agencies more time before the May 7, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3489"/>
                        2025, enforcement date to determine whether to implement phased enforcement plans and, if using a phased enforcement plan, to develop and communicate that plan to the public. If agencies choose to implement card-based enforcement using phased enforcement plans, the public may be provided with additional time beyond the enforcement date to obtain a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID, reducing potential negative impacts on May 7, 2025. Further an immediate effective date would not result in unfairness because the REAL ID requirements of the 2008 final rule are already in effect and this rule does not alter any of the substantive REAL ID requirements or the enforcement date. Therefore, there are no new requirements that States or the public need to prepare to meet because of this final rule. The purpose of the waiting period is “to give affected parties time to adjust their behavior before the final rule takes effect.” 
                        <SU>60</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As this rule does not alter the substantive REAL ID requirements or enforcement date, a waiting period is not necessary because this rule does not change the date by which the public must adjust their behavior. Allowing this rule to become immediately effective does not alter the May 7, 2025, date on which agencies will begin card-based enforcement, so finalizing the provisions in this rule does not require anyone to change their conduct or to take any particular steps in advance of the effective date.
                        <SU>61</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>60</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Riverbend Farms, Inc.</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Madigan,</E>
                             958 F.2d 1479, 1485 (9th Cir. 1992).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>61</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See United States</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Gavrilovic</E>
                             551 F.2d 1099 (8th Cir. 1977).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA) (44 U.S.C. 3501 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) requires that DHS consider the impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens imposed on the public and, under the provisions of 44 U.S.C. 3507(d), obtain approval from the OMB for each collection of information it conducts, sponsors, or requires through regulations. This final rule itself does not directly call for new collection of information under the PRA as the rulemaking relates to Federal agency submission of phased enforcement plans which are not covered under the PRA. However, agencies that utilize a phased enforcement plan, depending on the requirements associated with their respective plan, will likely need to submit or modify an OMB information collection request.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Economic Impact Analyses</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Regulatory Impact Analysis Summary</HD>
                    <P>
                        Changes to Federal regulations must undergo several economic analyses. First, Executive Order (E.O.) 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review),
                        <SU>62</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         as affirmed by E.O. 13563 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review),
                        <SU>63</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and as amended by E.O. 14094 (Modernizing Regulatory Review) 
                        <SU>64</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         directs each Federal agency to propose or adopt a regulation only upon a reasoned determination that the benefits of the intended regulation justify its costs. Second, the Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (RFA) requires agencies to consider the economic impact of regulatory changes on small entities.
                        <SU>65</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Third, the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) requires agencies to prepare a written assessment of the costs, benefits, and other effects of proposed or final rules that include a Federal mandate likely to result in the expenditure by State, local, or Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million ($183 million in 2023 dollars) or more annually (adjusted for inflation).
                        <SU>66</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>62</SU>
                             58 FR 51735 (Oct. 4, 1993).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>63</SU>
                             76 FR 3821 (Jan. 21, 2011).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>64</SU>
                             88 FR 21879 (Apr. 11, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>65</SU>
                             Public Law 96-354, 94 Stat. 1164 (Sept. 19, 1980) (codified at 5 U.S.C. 601 
                            <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                             as amended by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (SBREFA)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>66</SU>
                             Public Law 104-4, 109 Stat. 66 (Mar. 22, 1995) (codified at 2 U.S.C. 1181-1538).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 14094 Assessment</HD>
                    <P>Executive Order 12866 (Regulatory Planning and Review), as affirmed by Executive Order 13563 (Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review) and amended by Executive Order 14094 (Modernizing Regulatory Review), directs agencies to assess the costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, if regulation is necessary, select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety effects, distributive impacts, and equity). Executive Order 13563 emphasizes the importance of quantifying costs and benefits, reducing costs, harmonizing rules, and promoting flexibility.</P>
                    <P>DHS summarizes the findings:</P>
                    <P>• In accordance with E.O. 12866, the OMB has designated this rulemaking a “significant regulatory action” as defined under section 3(f)(1) of E.O. 12866, as amended by E.O. 14094. Accordingly, the rule has been reviewed by OMB.</P>
                    <P>• The Secretary, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 605(b), certifies that the final rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The final rule is only applicable to Federal Government agencies, who under the RFA are not considered small entities.</P>
                    <P>• This final rule is not likely to result in the expenditure by State, local, or Tribal governments, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million ($183 million in 2023 dollars) or more annually (adjusted for inflation) such that a written statement is not required under UMRA.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. OMB A-4 Statement</HD>
                    <P>The OMB A-4 Accounting Statement presents the annualized costs and benefits, as well as the qualitative benefits of the final rule.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="8" OPTS="L2,nj,p7,7/8,i1" CDEF="s45,8,8,8,8,9,9,xs60">
                        <TTITLE>Table 1—OMB Circular A-4 Accounting Statement </TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[$ Millions]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Category</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Estimates</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Primary</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Low</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">High</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Units</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Year
                                <LI>dollar</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">Discount rate</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Time
                                <LI>horizon</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Notes</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Benefits</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Annualized Monetized</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>2%</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>Not Quantified.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Annualized Quantified, But Non-Monetized</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>2%</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>Not Quantified.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <PRTPAGE P="3490"/>
                            <ENT I="01">Unquantified</ENT>
                            <ENT A="L05">The final rule will provide Federal agencies the flexibility to decide whether to enforce the REAL ID card-based regulations in a phased manner that may reduce security vulnerabilities, operational disruption and public impact related to official Federal purposes. A phased approach will not unnecessarily delay REAL ID enforcement for those Federal agencies ready to fully implement on the card-based enforcement deadline. A phased approach will also allow individuals more time to obtain a REAL ID and may help mitigate potential application backlogs at State licensing agencies. Furthermore, a phased approach may reduce potential queuing and associated delays at access points.</ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Costs</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">Annualized Monetized</ENT>
                            <ENT>$0.87</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>2023</ENT>
                            <ENT>2%</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 Years</ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">Annualized Quantified, But Non-Monetized</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>2%</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>Not Quantified.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Unquantified</ENT>
                            <ENT A="L05">Full security benefits associated with REAL ID rule will not be realized, as a result of agencies implementing a phased approach, until full enforcement occurs. Federal agencies will also incur costs related to plan implementation, including, but not limited to training personnel on the policies of the plan, and efforts to inform individuals of the new identity verification policies related to plans. Individuals may also incur costs to become aware of phased enforcement plans and respond accordingly.</ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Transfers</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Annualized Monetized Federal Budgetary Transfers</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>2%</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>Not Quantified.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">From/To</ENT>
                            <ENT A="L02">From:</ENT>
                            <ENT A="L03">To:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Other Annualized Monetized Transfers</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>2%</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>Not Quantified.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">From/To</ENT>
                            <ENT A="L02">From:</ENT>
                            <ENT A="L03">To:</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Net Benefits</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="01">Annualized Monetized Net Benefits</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>2%</ENT>
                            <ENT>N/A</ENT>
                            <ENT>Not Quantified.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="07" RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="21">
                                <E T="02">Effects</E>
                            </ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW EXPSTB="00">
                            <ENT I="01">State, Local, and/or Tribal Government</ENT>
                            <ENT A="L05">None.</ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Small Business</ENT>
                            <ENT A="L05">None.</ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Wages</ENT>
                            <ENT A="L05">None.</ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Growth</ENT>
                            <ENT A="L05">Not measured.</ENT>
                            <ENT O="xl"/>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Need for regulation</HD>
                    <P>
                        In January 2008, DHS published the Minimum Standards for Driver's Licenses and Identification Cards Acceptable by Federal Agencies for Official Purposes Final Rule to implement the requirements of the Act. Since the publication of the original Final Rule, DHS extended the original compliance date multiple times in response to challenges in REAL ID adoption, including but not limited to, the COVID-19 pandemic. In accordance with the Final Rule published in March 2023, Federal agencies are required to commence card-based enforcement on May 7, 2025, at which point Federal agencies may not accept for official purposes a license or identification card issued by a State unless that license or card was issued in accordance with the REAL ID standards by a REAL ID-compliant jurisdiction.
                        <SU>67</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>67</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             88 FR 14473 (Mar. 9, 2023), codified at 6 CFR 37.5.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>DHS does not intend to extend the card-based enforcement deadline further and intends to commence enforcement of the REAL ID card-based requirements on May 7, 2025. However, based on current adoption rates of REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs and the projected number of compliant DL/IDs in circulation by the card-based enforcement date (discussed in the succeeding section), DHS believes this rulemaking is necessary to provide flexibility to mitigate potential risks related to security, operational feasibility, and public impact.</P>
                    <P>
                        Without the flexibility the final rule permits, agencies may be faced with serious concerns that immediate implementation of full enforcement may create including security vulnerabilities, operational challenges, and disruption of Government services. For instance, there could be cases where an agency needs to conduct work with a subject-matter expert or specialist that does not have REAL ID-compliant identification and is therefore unable to access the Federal facility. Barring a phased enforcement plan, the agency may need to come up with alternate accommodations, which could include holding meetings or presentations offsite or standing up a virtual option. These options may result in additional costs that would otherwise not be incurred if the agency was operating under a phased enforcement plan. Additionally, absent a phased enforcement plan, individuals without a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID or acceptable alternative will not have an acceptable form of identification to board federally regulated aircraft upon card-based enforcement. This represents a large use 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3491"/>
                        case for REAL ID. These individuals will not have an acceptable form of identification to access the security checkpoint which could result in backlogs and other negative outcomes on travel (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         delayed or missed flights). This may also have a potential impact on the customer experience and air travel. Long lines, confusion, and frustrated travelers at the checkpoint may also increase security risks.
                        <SU>68</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Given the current level of REAL ID adoption across various States, the start of card-based enforcement may also create an increased demand on States to issue REAL IDs, which could result in strained resources and a potential delay of application processing time or backlog. Additional disruptive impacts to those who currently rely upon non-REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs for official Federal purposes may also occur.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>68</SU>
                             The requirements of the REAL ID Act and regulations specifically apply to Federal agencies accepting DL/IDs for official purposes. To the extent air carriers also require individuals to present a compliant DL/ID for check-in or to drop off luggage, lines and crowding may also occur at ticket counters and baggage drop-off locations at airports. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             U.S. Department of Homeland Security. “Soft Targets and Crowded Places Security Plan Overview” (May 2018). Available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.cisa.gov/sites/default/files/publications/DHS-Soft-Target-Crowded-Place-Security-Plan-Overview-052018-508_0.pdf.</E>
                             Accessed on Apr. 17, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Federal agencies that determine an immediate transition to full enforcement would raise concerns related to security, operational feasibility, or negatively impact the public, will benefit from phased enforcement, and will be able to implement a phased enforcement plan, coordinated with DHS, to provide a smoother transition to full card-based enforcement.
                        <SU>69</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This final rule will also enable these agencies to minimize negative impact to individuals who do not have REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs and provide States time to issue and individuals time to obtain REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs during initial phases of enforcement.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>69</SU>
                             Card-based enforcement should not impact access to Federal facilities that do not require identification (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             public areas of the Smithsonian). Card-based enforcement also should not impact public services that require identification for purposes other than an official purpose as defined by the Act and regulation (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             applying for or receiving Federal benefits is not a REAL ID official purpose). However, in cases where provision of a public service does involve a REAL ID official purpose, agencies should consider the extent to which an immediate transition to full enforcement will impact their ability to provide that service.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">c. Baseline Summary</HD>
                    <P>
                        The baseline represents DHS' best assessment of what the world will be like absent this regulatory action.
                        <SU>70</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>70</SU>
                             Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs. Circular No. A-4. November 9, 2023. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/CircularA-4.pdf.</E>
                             Accessed February 12, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Absent this regulatory action, beginning on May 7, 2025 (card-based enforcement date), all Federal agencies will be prohibited from accepting non-REAL ID-compliant State-issued DL/IDs for REAL ID official purposes.
                        <SU>71</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         If an individual does not have a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID, the individual may use another acceptable form of identification as determined by individual agencies' identity verification and access policies.
                        <SU>72</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In accordance with the 2008 Final Rule, enforcement on the card-based enforcement date will be applied unilaterally, across all respective agency locations in the United States and its territories including, accessing Federal facilities, boarding federally regulated commercial aircrafts (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         TSA airport security checkpoints), and entering nuclear power plants.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>71</SU>
                             The Act does not require individuals to present identification where it is not currently required to access a Federal facility (such as to enter the public areas of the Smithsonian).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>72</SU>
                             Alternate acceptable forms of identification may include, and are not limited to, U.S. passports, and passport cards.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS estimates that by the card-based enforcement date, approximately between 61 and 66 percent of all State-issued DL/IDs will be REAL ID-compliant based on adoption data provided by States, to DHS, through January 2024. The lower-end values represent a monthly adoption rate similar to current rates through card-based enforcement.
                        <SU>73</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, DHS expects that the adoption rate may also increase ahead of the card-based enforcement date as a result of both natural adoption prior to enforcement and efforts by DHS to drive awareness and action. Ahead of the card-based enforcement deadline, DHS plans to launch additional phases of its public service campaign “Be Your REAL ID Self ”, which in part, provides toolkits for Government and industry partners. To account for this increased rate of adoption, DHS uses a Compounded Monthly Growth Rate of 1.03 percent (compared to a current 0.56 percent CMGR) for its higher-end value of 66 percent of REAL ID compliant DL/IDs by the card-based enforcement date.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>73</SU>
                             In section IV(B)(2)(d)(4), Forecast of REAL ID Compliance Under Phased Enforcement, DHS estimates 61.2 percent of REAL ID Compliant DL/IDs by applying a 0.56 percent compounded monthly growth rate which represents the adoption of REAL IDs between January 2023 and January 2024. This represents a lower-end forecast where DHS assumes the monthly adoption rate of REAL IDs remains unchanged leading up to the card-based enforcement date of May 7, 2025. DHS also presents a high-end forecast of 66.0 percent of REAL ID compliant DL/IDs that uses a compounded monthly growth rate of 1.03 percent and represents the adoption of REAL IDs between January 2020 and January 2024 which captures periods of high and low adoption of REAL IDs.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As a result, approximately between 34 percent and 39 percent of DL/IDs in circulation will be non-compliant (either legacy or non-compliant marked DL/IDs). Individuals with non-REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs will not be permitted to use those DL/IDs to access Federal facilities nationwide, including the security checkpoint at airports, unless they are able to present an approved alternate form of identification such as a passport.
                        <SU>74</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>74</SU>
                             In 2008, DHS issued the Minimum Standards for Driver's Licenses and Identification Cards Acceptable by Federal Agencies for Official Purposes Final Rule. In the Regulatory Evaluation for the Final Rule, DHS noted that 25 percent of the population already held a valid passport and that in a few years' time the Department of State anticipated that the figure would increase to approximately 33 percent. As of 2023, the Department of State reports that 160,668,889 valid passports (including passport books) are in circulation (
                            <E T="03">https://travel.state.gov/content/travel/en/about-us/reports-and-statistics.html</E>
                            ). Over the 10-year period of 2014 to 2023, approximately 13.24 percent of passports issued were passports cards. The Department of State notes that one customer may also have both a passport book and card which counts as two valid passports. To prevent double counting for individuals that hold both a passport book and a passport card, DHS multiplies 160,668,889 by 1 minus 13.24 percent to estimate 139,396,328 passports. Using the Census Bureau's projected population for 2023, DHS estimates that approximately 41 percent of the population has a passport. DHS acknowledges that some percentage of individuals with REAL-ID compliant DL/IDs may also hold a passport and thus there is uncertainty with how many individuals with non-compliant IDs will be able to use a passport as an alternate form of identification.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">d. Adoption of REAL ID-Compliant DL/IDs</HD>
                    <P>
                        Prior to the onset of the COVID-19 pandemic in the United States in October 2019, DHS estimated that approximately 33 percent, or 90.9 million of the 274.8 million DL/IDs in circulation, were REAL ID-compliant.
                        <SU>75</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In April 2020, DHS issued an amended final rule to further delay the card-based enforcement date from October 1, 2020, to October 1, 2021. DHS noted that the COVID-19 pandemic had caused significant disruption citing that State and local government offices, including the DMV, have restricted all but the most essential services, and that in some cases, had been temporarily closed to the public. In October 2020, national REAL ID compliance was approximately 41 percent.
                        <SU>76</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Three years later, in 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3492"/>
                        October 2023, the national REAL ID compliance rate increased to approximately 56 percent.
                        <SU>77</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Despite a modest increase in the number of compliant REAL IDs between October 2023 and January 2024, the percentage of REAL ID DL/ID remains unchanged at 56 percent over this time period, with the remaining 44 percent of State-issued DL/IDs being noncompliant.
                        <SU>78</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>75</SU>
                             DHS began to collect data from the states including, total number of DL/IDs, number of REAL IDs, number of non-compliant cards, and number of “legacy” cards in July 2019. Monthly reporting subsequently began in October 2019.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>76</SU>
                             41.08 Percent of REAL ID-compliant IDs in October 2020 = 112,807,718 REAL IDs ÷ 274,611,013 Total IDs in Circulation.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>77</SU>
                             56.11 Percent of REAL ID-compliant IDs in October 2023 = 160,039,272 REAL IDs ÷ 285,246,641 Total IDs in Circulation.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>78</SU>
                             56.42 Percent of REAL ID-compliant IDs in January 2024 = 162,111,658 REAL IDs ÷ 287,321,596 Total IDs in Circulation.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>However, individual State compliance includes a wider range of rates. Table 2 presents REAL ID compliance over time based on the 56 licensing jurisdictions percentage of REAL IDs issued relative to the total number of IDs in circulation for each jurisdiction. As shown in the table, State compliance rates have generally increased over time. For instance, the number of licensing jurisdictions where the percentage of REAL IDs, relative to all DL/IDs in circulation, is greater than 75 percent has increased from eight jurisdictions in October 2019 to 17 in January 2024. Similarly, the number of licensing jurisdictions where the percentage of REAL IDs, relative to all DL/IDs in circulation, is less than 25 percent has decreased from 31 in October 2019 to 9 in January 2024.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,10,10,10,10">
                        <TTITLE>Table 2—REAL ID Compliance Over Time</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Range
                                <LI>(REAL IDs as a percentage of total IDs in circulation by jurisdiction)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Number of licensing jurisdictions</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                October 
                                <LI>2019</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                October 
                                <LI>2020</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                October 
                                <LI>2023</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                January 
                                <LI>2024</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">0%-24%</ENT>
                            <ENT>31</ENT>
                            <ENT>22</ENT>
                            <ENT>12</ENT>
                            <ENT>9</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">25%-49%</ENT>
                            <ENT>11</ENT>
                            <ENT>15</ENT>
                            <ENT>16</ENT>
                            <ENT>18</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">50%-74%</ENT>
                            <ENT>6</ENT>
                            <ENT>9</ENT>
                            <ENT>12</ENT>
                            <ENT>12</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">75%-100%</ENT>
                            <ENT>8</ENT>
                            <ENT>10</ENT>
                            <ENT>16</ENT>
                            <ENT>17</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Compounded Monthly Growth Rates (CMGR)</HD>
                    <P>DHS began receiving monthly data on the number of REAL IDs for each of the 56 licensing jurisdictions in October 2019 (and has monthly data through early 2024). Using this data, DHS calculates the growth, or increase, in number of REAL IDs month over month, relative to the total number of DL/IDs in circulation. Using the historic adoption data, DHS calculates CMGRs which represents growth over various intervals of time. In subsequent sections, DHS uses CMGRs to forecast REAL ID compliance.</P>
                    <P>
                        In the first 6 months that DHS began to receive monthly data, between October 2019 and March 2020, the CMGR of REAL IDs was approximately 2.5 percent. Between April and May of 2020, the CMGR of REAL IDs had decreased to 0.5 percent. The CMGR later increased to approximately 2.0 percent between June 2020 and October 2020. Over the 3 years following October 2020, the CMGR of REAL IDs was 1.3 percent between October 2020 and September 2021, 0.9 percent between October 2021 and September 2022, and 0.8 percent between October 2022 and September 2023. Over the 12-month period, between January 2023 and January 2024, the national CMGR for the adoption of REAL IDs was 0.56 percent.
                        <SU>79</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>79</SU>
                             0.56 percent CMGR (January 2023 through January 2024) = ((162,111,658 REAL IDs in January 2024 ÷ 151,652,714 REAL IDs in January 2023) ^ (1 ÷ 12) − 1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Projection of Total Number of DL/IDs</HD>
                    <P>DHS leverages monthly data received from the 56 licensing jurisdictions to estimate the total number of DL/IDs in future months. The report provides DHS with the total number of DL/IDs in circulation, including the proportions of REAL-ID compliant, “legacy” cards, and non-compliant cards. Based on the January 2024 data from the licensing jurisdictions, there were 287,321,596 DL/IDs in circulation.</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS uses this value as a starting overall DL/ID population. Next, DHS leverages the U.S. Census Bureau's Monthly Population Estimates for the United States to estimate the total U.S. population and proportion with a DL/ID. DHS first estimates the total population using Census Bureau annual population data to calculate a compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of 0.60 percent in the U.S. population from 2012 to 2022.
                        <SU>80</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS divides the CAGR of 0.60 percent by 12 to calculate a simple compound monthly growth rate (CMGR) of 0.05 percent. DHS then uses Census Bureau monthly population estimates through December 2023, and applies the simple CMGR of 0.05 percent to forecast the population for each month through October 2027.
                        <SU>81</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS estimates a total population of 355,966,451 in January 2024.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>80</SU>
                             U.S. Census Bureau (December 2019). Annual Estimates of the Resident Population for the United States: April 1, 2010, to July 1, 2019 (NST-EST2019-01). Retrieved from 
                            <E T="03">https://www.census.gov/data/tables/time-series/demo/popest/2010s-national-total.html.</E>
                             Accessed on May 12, 2023.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>81</SU>
                             U.S. Census Bureau (December 2023). Monthly Population Estimates for the United States: April 1, 2020, to December 1, 2024 (NA-EST2023-POP). Retrieved from 
                            <E T="03">https://www.census.gov/data/tables/time-series/demo/popest/2020s-national-total.html.</E>
                             Accessed on January 4, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Last, DHS divides the total number of DL/IDs by the total population. As of January 2024, 85.5 percent of the population held a driver's license or identification card.
                        <SU>82</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS assumes this proportion of the population holds true through October 2027 (some portion of the adult population may not need a DL/ID, along with most of the population under the legal driving age). DHS multiplies the 85.5 percent proportion by the projected population each month to estimate the total number of DL/IDs in circulation.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>82</SU>
                             85.5 percent of the population as DL/ID holders in January 2024 = 287,321,596 (DL/IDs in circulation as of January 2024) ÷ 355,966,451 (total population in January 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Forecast of REAL ID Compliance Under Status Quo</HD>
                    <P>If full card-based enforcement, absent phased enforcement, were to take place on May 7, 2025, DHS assumes that the adoption of REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs will spike leading up to, and continuing for a period of time past, the card-based enforcement date as individuals, who may otherwise have held off on acquiring a REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs, will take steps to ensure they will not be turned away from Federal facilities where a REAL ID will be required for official purposes.</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS assumes such a spike will be similar to a 23 percent increase that the Department of State experienced in 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3493"/>
                        passport applications after implementation of the first phase of the Western Hemisphere Travel Initiative (WHTI).
                        <SU>83</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Specifically, in fiscal year 2007, the Department of State experienced an influx of passport applications prior to, and after, the implementation of its first phase of the WHTI, which established new document requirements for travelers entering the United States from within the Western Hemisphere. At the time, the Department of State forecasted it would receive approximately 15 million passport applications in the 2007 fiscal year, however, it ended up receiving approximately 18.6 million passport applications, an approximate 23 percent increase over the original estimate.
                        <SU>84</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>83</SU>
                             The populations affected by WHTI and REAL ID, while not exact, are similar in the sense that both initiatives affect identity documentation required by the traveling public and are not intended to represent the population of those who are obtaining government services. DHS believes WHTI represents a situation similar enough to REAL ID to serve as a proxy absent better information. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             71 FR 68412 (November 24, 2006).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>84</SU>
                             Government Accountability Office (GAO) (July 2008). State Department: Comprehensive Strategy Needed to Improve Passport Operations. GAO-08-891, page 16. Retrieved from 
                            <E T="03">https://www.gao.gov/assets/gao-08-891.pdf.</E>
                             Accessed on March 15, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As aforementioned, in January 2024, 56.42 percent or 162.1 million of the 287.3 total IDs in circulation are REAL ID-compliant. Based on the data range of January 2023 through January 2024, DHS expects that through April 2024, the 0.56 percent CMGR for the adoption of REAL IDs to remain unchanged,
                        <SU>85</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         bringing the percentage of REAL IDs relative to all IDs in circulation to 57.3 percent. In the year leading up to the card-based enforcement deadline, DHS considers a similar situation as the influx of passports leading up to, and through, the implementation of WHTI, and applies a 23 percent increase in the adoption of REAL IDs (equivalent to a CMGR of 1.61 percent).
                        <SU>86</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Using this methodology,
                        <SU>87</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         by May 2025, approximately 70 percent or 202.7 million of the total 289.6 million IDs in circulation would be REAL-ID compliant.
                        <SU>88</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>85</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             footnote 63.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>86</SU>
                             Based upon the WHTI scenario, DHS assumes a 23 percent increase to the total number of REAL IDs in April 2024 (164,837,213 REAL IDs), approximately one-year prior to card-based enforcement. TSA assumes the 23 percent increase will be spread across the 13 months leading up to card-based enforcement on May 7, 2025. 202,749,772 REAL IDs in May 2025 = 164,837,213 REAL IDs in April 2024 × (1 + 23 Percent). Since the 23 percent increase is spread out over the year leading up to the card-based enforcement date, DHS uses the resulting number of REAL IDs in May 2025 to calculate a 1.61 Percent CMGR. 1.61 Percent CMGR = (202,749,772 REAL IDs in May 2025 ÷ 164,837,213 REAL IDs in April 2024) ^ (1 ÷ 13)−1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>87</SU>
                             Under the status quo, which would result in full, and immediate, card-based enforcement on May 7, 2025, DHS estimates a 23 percent increase in the adoption of REAL IDs in the year leading up to card-based enforcement, adopted based on the implementation of WHTI. Absent this influx, and under Phased Enforcement beginning May 7, 2025, DHS evaluates two scenarios in section IV(B)(2)(d)(4), Forecast of REAL ID Compliance Under Phased Enforcement. First, a lower estimate which assumes no changes to the 0.56 percent CMGR which results in 61.2 percent of all DL/IDs in May 2025 being REAL ID compliant. Second, a higher estimate which uses a 1.03 percent CMGR resulting in 66 percent of all DL/IDs being REAL ID compliant in May 2025.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>88</SU>
                             70.00 Percent of REAL IDs in May 2025 = 202,749,772 REAL IDs in May 2025 ÷ 289,641,636 IDs in Circulation in May 2025.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Following the card-based enforcement date, DHS expects the spike to remain in place for approximately 4 to 5 months as individuals work to secure appointments with their local DMV.
                        <SU>89</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS applies the 1.61 percent CMGR to estimate the percentage of REAL IDs in October 2025. DHS estimates approximately 75 percent of DL/IDs in circulation would be REAL ID-compliant.
                        <SU>90</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>89</SU>
                             The WHTI was implemented in two phases with the second impacting land and seaports beginning at the end of January 2008 (2008 fiscal year). As such, following the initial spike in passport applications within fiscal year 2007, the Department of State also issued a higher than historical number of passports in fiscal year 2008 despite the total number of passports issued being lower than the preceding year. (Department of State. Reports and Statistics. U.S. Passports Issued Per Fiscal Year (1996-2023). Retrieved from 
                            <E T="03">https://travel.state.gov/content/travel/en/about-us/reports-and-statistics.html</E>
                            . Accessed on March 15, 2024.) Absent the final rule, following the card-based enforcement date, full enforcement would begin so there would be no similar resurgence as seen with WHTI implementation. However, a similar spike may be seen with the implementation of the phased enforcement rule. Under which, following the initial spike, there will likely be a decrease in adoption rates, before a second spike leading up to the May 2027 full compliance date.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>90</SU>
                             75.09 Percent of REAL IDs Compliant in October 2025 = 218,052,964 REAL IDs in October 2025 ÷ 290,370,483 IDs in Circulation in October 2025.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        To forecast beyond October 2025, under the status quo of full enforcement beginning May 2025, DHS assumes a 50-percent decrease of the initial spike in the adoption of REAL IDs between October 2025 and October 2026.
                        <SU>91</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS estimates that by October 2026, one and a half years after the card-based enforcement deadline, approximately 83 percent of DL/IDs in circulation would be REAL ID-compliant.
                        <SU>92</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Subsequently, to estimate the percentage of REAL IDs relative to all DL/IDs in circulation, 2 years after the card-based enforcement date, DHS assumes an additional 50-percent decrease in the adoption of REAL IDs between October 2026 and October 2027.
                        <SU>93</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Under this assumption, DHS estimates that approximately 87 percent of DL/IDs would be REAL ID-compliant by October 2027.
                        <SU>94</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>91</SU>
                             11.5 Percent Increase in REAL IDs (One Year After Card-Based Enforcement) = (23 Percent Initial Surge ÷ 2) × 100. Equivalent to a 0.91 Percent CMGR. 0.91 Percent CMGR = ((243,121,919 REAL IDs in October 2026 ÷ 218,052,964 REAL IDs in October 2025) ^ (1 ÷ 12)−1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>92</SU>
                             In the Regulatory Evaluation for the 2008 Final Rule, DHS assumed 75 percent of the population that hold DL/IDs would seek to obtain a REAL ID. DHS describes this assumption further in the subsequent section, however, the 83 percent compliance rate by October 2026, roughly over one-and-a-half-years post card-based enforcement exceeds the 75 percent assumption. DHS notes that the adoption rate for REAL ID may decrease when REAL ID reaches a natural adoption threshold.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>93</SU>
                             5.75 Percent Increase in REAL IDs = (11.5 Percent Initial Surge ÷ 2) × 100. Equivalent to a 0.47 Percent CMGR. 0.47 Percent CMGR = ((257,101,923 REAL IDs in October 2027 ÷ 243,121,919 REAL IDs in October 2026) ^ (1 ÷ 12)−1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>94</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Supra</E>
                             note 76.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS assumes that once the percentage of REAL IDs, relative to all DL/IDs in circulation reach a natural adoption threshold or equilibrium 
                        <SU>95</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         (with all those who want/need a REAL ID largely have them or an alternate form of identification), which DHS currently assumes as 75 percent, the increase in the proportional value over subsequent months and years would be minimal.
                        <SU>96</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In 2008, DHS issued the Minimum Standards for Driver's Licenses and Identification Cards Acceptable by Federal Agencies for Official Purposes Final Rule. The NPRM which preceded the 2008 Final Rule included DHS's assumption that 100 percent of the population that hold DL/IDs would seek to obtain a REAL ID. However, in the 2008 Final Rule, the assumption was revised to 75 percent.
                        <SU>97</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS noted that the 100 percent assumption was unrealistic if States do not require all applicants to obtain REAL IDs. DHS further cited, that if States offer a choice of either compliant or non-compliant licenses to applicants, that some portion of the population will choose to receive non-compliant licenses because they may not need a REAL ID for Federal 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3494"/>
                        official purposes or they may already possess a compliant alternate form of identification.
                        <SU>98</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         While DHS maintains the 75 percent assumption from the 2008 Final Rule, DHS acknowledges the uncertainty and that the natural threshold for REAL ID compliance may be above or below 75 percent.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>95</SU>
                             The natural adoption threshold or equilibrium is the estimated proportion at which TSA assumes most people who want a REAL ID largely have them, and it is unlikely to change much in the absence of any changes in conditions. This accounts for some portion of the population that chooses not to obtain a REAL ID (as States continue to offer non-compliant DL/IDs).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>96</SU>
                             DHS anticipates future renewal surges associated with existing REAL-ID holders, and additional initial adoptions associated with population growth.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>97</SU>
                             In 2008, DHS noted that approximately 25 percent of the population held a valid passport. Furthermore, DHS noted that 20 percent of the population has never flown on a commercial plane, and 47 percent flies rarely or never. Combining the two groups, at least 40 percent of the population would not need to obtain a REAL ID. However, DHS assumed some proportion of the combined grouping would obtain a REAL ID regardless, reducing the estimate to 25 percent. Subtracting this 25 percent estimate from the initial 100 percent assumption results in 75 percent that would obtain a REAL ID.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>98</SU>
                             Department of Homeland Security. April 28, 2008. Regulatory Evaluation for REAL ID Program. Docket DHS-2006-0030. 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/document/DHS-2006-0030-10704</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In subsequent sections, DHS refers to the 75 percent assumption as the 75 percent threshold. The threshold represents an assumed natural point where REAL ID adoption will slow and essentially not grow in proportion as all those willing to get a REAL ID have done so. While DHS assumed this value to be approximately 75 percent, the actual rate could be higher or lower.
                        <SU>99</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>99</SU>
                             DHS believes there is a greater likelihood of the actual REAL ID threshold being greater than 75 percent rather than lower than 75 percent.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Forecast of REAL ID Compliance Under Phased Enforcement</HD>
                    <P>
                        To estimate the percentage of REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs by the card-based enforcement date, May 7, 2025, DHS uses the 0.56 percent CMGR estimated from January 2023 to January 2024.
                        <SU>100</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Next, DHS applies the 0.56 CMGR over the 16 months between January 2024 and May 2025 to forecast the percentage of REAL IDs in circulation by May 2025, relative to all IDs in circulation. Using this methodology, DHS estimates that approximately 61 percent of all IDs in circulation would be REAL ID-compliant by the card-based enforcement date.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>100</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Supra</E>
                             note 76.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The aforementioned methodology assumes that the 16 months between January 2024 and May 2025 will be similar to the trends seen between January 2023 and January 2024.
                        <SU>101</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Accordingly, DHS provides an alternate forecast on the percentage of REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs in May 2025 using the 1.03 percent CMGR for the adoption of REAL ID over last 4-years.
                        <SU>102</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS applies the 1.03 percent CMGR over the 16 months between January 2024 and May 2025 to forecast that approximately 66 percent of IDs in circulation by May 2025 would be REAL ID-compliant by the card-based enforcement date.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>101</SU>
                             DHS acknowledges that there is a level of uncertainty with compliance rates. For instance, closer to the card-based enforcement date, the adoption rate may increase. Furthermore, the final rule, and by extent, subsequent phased enforcement plans adopted by some agencies may provide individuals additional time to become compliant and thus result in lower or stagnant adoption rates.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>102</SU>
                             1.03 percent CMGR (January 2020 through January 2024) = ((162,111,658 REAL IDs in January 2024 ÷ 99,076,573 REAL IDs in January 2020) ^ (1 ÷ 48)−1). DHS uses the last 4 years of data reported by all licensing jurisdictions to represent a more comprehensive timeframe, capturing periods of high and low adoption of REAL IDs.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Using the aforementioned CMGRs, 0.56 percent and 1.03 percent, DHS estimates that approximately 61 percent (lower-end of forecast) and 66 (upper-end of forecast) of all DL/IDs in circulation by May 2025 would be REAL ID-compliant, respectively. Table 3 reflects the forecasted number of REAL IDs using the two CMGR described in this section.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,20,20">
                        <TTITLE>Table 3—Forecasted Number, and Percentage of, REAL IDs in May 2025</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Last 12 month trend 
                                <LI>(0.56 percent CMGR)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Last 4 year trend 
                                <LI>(1.03 percent CMGR)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">Approx. IDs in Circulation</ENT>
                            <ENT A="01">289,641,636</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Forecasted Number of REAL IDs</ENT>
                            <ENT>177,187,465</ENT>
                            <ENT>191,027,256</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">REAL IDs as a Percentage of All IDs</ENT>
                            <ENT>61.2%</ENT>
                            <ENT>66.0%</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>As shown in table 3, under both the 0.56 percent CMGR and the 1.03 percent CMGR, the forecasted percentage of REAL IDs relative to all DL/IDs in circulation for May 2025, 61.2 percent and 66.0 percent, respectively, falls below the 2008 assumption that 75 percent of all holders would seek to obtain a REAL ID. In table 4, DHS illustrates the breakdown of how many DL/IDs would need to be REAL ID-compliant by the card-based enforcement date to meet the 75 percent threshold. Applying the 75 percent assumption from the 2008 Rule results in approximately 217.2 million of the 289.6 million IDs in circulation, in May 2025, would be REAL ID-compliant. As shown, in addition to the 25 percent of DL/IDs in circulation that DHS assumes would be non-compliant, an additional 40.0 million and 26.2 million DL/IDs that would have been assumed to be REAL ID-compliant, respectively, would not be able to be used for official purposes beginning May 7, 2025.</P>
                    <P>
                        Next, DHS estimates the CMGR needed to reach the 75 percent of REAL ID-compliant licenses and identification cards by the card-based enforcement date using the January 2024 national compliance rate for REAL ID of 56 percent. In the sixteen months between January 2024 and May 2025, the average monthly CMGR for the adoption of REAL ID would need to increase to 1.85 percent.
                        <SU>103</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>103</SU>
                             1.85 percent CMGR = ((217,231,227 REAL IDs to Achieve 75 Percent Threshold in May 2025 ÷ 162,111,658 REAL IDs in January 2024) ^ (1 ÷ 16)−1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,r50,r50,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 4—Number of REAL IDs in May 2025 to Achieve 75 Percent Threshold</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1"> </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Last 12 month trend 
                                <LI>(0.56 percent CMGR)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Last 4 year trend 
                                <LI>(1.03 percent CMGR)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                75% assumption 
                                <LI>(1.85 percent CMGR)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">Approx. IDs in Circulation</ENT>
                            <ENT A="02">289,641,636</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">Number of REAL IDs Needed to Achieve 75% Threshold</ENT>
                            <ENT A="02">217,231,227 (75.0%)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">DHS Forecasted REAL IDs</ENT>
                            <ENT>177,187,465 (61.2%)</ENT>
                            <ENT>191,027,256 (66.0%)</ENT>
                            <ENT>217,231,227</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Difference Between Threshold and Forecasted</ENT>
                            <ENT>40,043,762 (13.8%)</ENT>
                            <ENT>26,203,971 (9.0%)</ENT>
                            <ENT>0 (0.0%)</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3495"/>
                    <P>
                        Next, DHS uses two scenarios to forecast the national compliance rate following the card-based enforcement date. First, DHS assumes the 61.2 percent and 66.0 percent REAL ID adoption trends presented in table 3 remain unchanged after the start of card-based enforcement. Under this scenario, 2 years after card-based enforcement, in May 2027, which is when phased approach plans would need to commence full enforcement by, the national REAL ID rate would be 69.1 percent and 83.4 percent.
                        <SU>104</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>104</SU>
                             The 83.4 percent compliance rate by May 2027, 2 years after the card-based enforcement deadline, exceeds the 75 percent assumption from the 2008 Regulatory Evaluation. DHS notes that the adoption rate for REAL ID may dampen as it approaches or starts to exceed 75 percent of the population.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Following the card-based enforcement date, DHS expects a change in the rate of adoption. Phased enforcement plans could result in REAL ID compliance being spread over time compared to continued increases in compliance if full card-based enforcement went into effect across all agencies. Phased enforcement may also incentivize some portion of the public to obtain a REAL ID as DHS begins card-based enforcement in May 2025 without further extensions and as non-compliant DL/ID holders attempt to use non-compliant identification for official purposes during the period of phased enforcement. For this second scenario, DHS uses the midpoint of the two CMGRs (0.56 percent and 1.03 percent) used to estimate the national REAL ID rate in May 2025 to estimate the national REAL ID rate after the card-based enforcement date. Using this methodology, DHS calculates a 0.79 percent CMGR which would likely capture a balance between potential high and low adoption rates for REAL IDs.
                        <SU>105</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Next, DHS applies the 0.79 percent CMGR to the 61.2 percent and 66.0 percent estimates for May 2025. Two years after the commencement of card-based enforcement, by May 2027, DHS estimates approximately 73.1 percent and 78.8 percent of DL/IDs issued would be REAL ID-compliant, respectively.
                        <SU>106</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Depending on the scenario, the 75 percent threshold may be reached as early as July 2026. However, under a lower CMGR, in which the CMGR stays at 0.56 percent, the 75 percent threshold may not be reached until October 2028.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>105</SU>
                             0.79 Percent CMGR = (0.557 Percent CMGR (Last Twelve Months) + 1.031 Percent CMGR (Last 48 Months)) ÷ 2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>106</SU>
                             In the Regulatory Evaluation for the 2008 Final Rule, DHS assumed 75 percent of the population that hold DL/IDs would seek to obtain a REAL ID. However, the 78.8 percent compliance rate by May 2027, roughly 2 years post card-based enforcement exceeds the 75 percent assumption. DHS notes that the adoption rate for REAL ID may decrease when REAL ID reaches a natural adoption threshold.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Summary of REAL ID Compliance</HD>
                    <P>Table 5 describes the proportion of all DL/IDs that are REAL ID-compliant under the baseline scenario and phased enforcement at 6-month intervals leading up to, and after, the card-based enforcement date. In the baseline scenario, as discussed in section IV.B.2.d.3, DHS assumes a spike in REAL ID compliance in the year leading up to the card-based enforcement date (1.61 percent CMGR). DHS then assumes a reduction in the CMGR to 0.91 percent from October 2025 to October 2026 and to 0.47 percent after October 2026. This accounts for anticipated increases leading up to and through enforcement including natural adoption prior to a deadline, additional informational campaigns, and increased incentives for those without REAL ID compliant DL/IDs that would be denied when using non-compliant DL/IDs for official purposes.</P>
                    <P>DHS also presents two phased enforcement scenarios that each include a lower and upper bound range, as discussed in section IV.B.2.d.4. Under the first phased enforcement scenario, DHS assumes trend growth rates remain the same before and after the card-based enforcement date (0.56 percent CMGR for the lower bound estimate, 1.03 percent CMGR for the upper bound estimate). This scenario assumes no change in identified trends leading up or after enforcement where the lower value represents current adoption rates (unchanged) and the higher value accounts for enforcement and phased enforcement impacts on adoption rates. Under the second phased enforcement scenario, DHS assumes the 0.56 percent CMGR for the lower bound estimate and 1.03 percent CMGR for the upper bound estimate up to the card-based enforcement date. After the card-based enforcement date, DHS assumes a change in the CMGR to 0.79 percent, the midpoint of the lower bound and upper bound trend rates to represent possible changes in behavior post enforcement date. Specifically, that in the lower end, more individuals will get REAL DL/IDs and on the higher end, less will seek REAL DL/IDs. However, DHS acknowledges there is a level of uncertainty with such adoption rates.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,12,12,12,14,14">
                        <TTITLE>Table 5—REAL ID Compliance by Scenario</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Month</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Baseline 
                                <LI>(%)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Phased enforcement scenario 1
                                <LI>(constant rates)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Lower bound
                                <LI>(%)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Upper bound
                                <LI>(%)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Phased enforcement scenario 2
                                <LI>(post enforcement change)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Lower bound
                                <LI>(%)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">
                                Upper bound
                                <LI>(%)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">May 24</ENT>
                            <ENT>58.2</ENT>
                            <ENT>57.6</ENT>
                            <ENT>58.7</ENT>
                            <ENT>57.6</ENT>
                            <ENT>58.7</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Nov 24</ENT>
                            <ENT>63.8</ENT>
                            <ENT>59.3</ENT>
                            <ENT>62.2</ENT>
                            <ENT>59.3</ENT>
                            <ENT>62.2</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">May 25</ENT>
                            <ENT>70.0</ENT>
                            <ENT>61.2</ENT>
                            <ENT>66.0</ENT>
                            <ENT>61.2</ENT>
                            <ENT>66.0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Nov 25</ENT>
                            <ENT>75.7</ENT>
                            <ENT>63.1</ENT>
                            <ENT>69.9</ENT>
                            <ENT>64.0</ENT>
                            <ENT>69.0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">May 26</ENT>
                            <ENT>79.7</ENT>
                            <ENT>65.0</ENT>
                            <ENT>74.1</ENT>
                            <ENT>66.9</ENT>
                            <ENT>72.1</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Nov 26</ENT>
                            <ENT>83.6</ENT>
                            <ENT>67.0</ENT>
                            <ENT>78.6</ENT>
                            <ENT>69.9</ENT>
                            <ENT>75.4</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">May 27</ENT>
                            <ENT>85.7</ENT>
                            <ENT>69.1</ENT>
                            <ENT>83.4</ENT>
                            <ENT>73.1</ENT>
                            <ENT>78.8</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        The baseline and phased enforcement scenarios present different trade-offs. Under the baseline scenario, the REAL ID compliance rate grows and increases more quickly as a result of more rapid surges in adoption. Such a surge in application for REAL IDs, may lead to potential backlogs at State DMVs and provide individuals reduced options after the enforcement date (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         denied DL/ID use for official purpose). This may serve as a strong motivator but may also have negative consequences (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         not allowed to board a commercial flight for a critical matter).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Under a phased approach, DHS forecasts a slower adoption of REAL ID, as compared to the baseline, with 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3496"/>
                        compliance increases being spread over the 2-year phased enforcement period. This approach provides individuals more time to obtain a REAL compliant DL/ID and allows individuals who possess non-compliant DL/IDs to use such DL/IDs for official purposes while also creating opportunities for enforcement mechanisms (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         warnings) that may serve to incentivize the public to obtain a REAL ID without, or reduced, negative consequences.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        DHS notes that differences in compliance rates between the baseline and scenarios could have large impacts. For example, TSA screens approximately 2.5 million passengers a day.
                        <SU>107</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         If one percent of those passengers were to present a noncompliant DL/ID at a checkpoint, it would result in 25,000 passengers being unable to use the noncompliant DL/ID at the checkpoint in just a single day. If this was extrapolated out a week the number increases to 175,000, then 750,000 in a month and 2,250,000 in three months all of which may result in operational and security concerns. DHS recognizes TSA is a large use case, but also recognizes that impacts on a smaller scale could apply to other Federal agencies. If TSA chooses to employ phased enforcement at security screening checkpoints, the impacts associated with travelers presenting non-compliant DL/IDs would be reduced and spread out over the course of the phased enforcement plan, rather than absorbed in the initial days of enforcement. TSA may also employ other actions to limit or address concerns and mitigate any impediments on the traveling public associated with enforcement, but any such actions and associated impacts are separate from this rule. Regardless, DHS believes a phased enforcement approach will help reduce challenges that large numbers of non-compliant DL/ID holders could present compared to full and immediate enforcement under the baseline.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>107</SU>
                             Transportation Security Administration. TSA checkpoint travel numbers (current year versus prior year/same weekday). Passenger Volumes. Retrieved from: 
                            <E T="03">https://www.tsa.gov/travel/passenger-volumes</E>
                            . Accessed on August 1, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Phased Enforcement Population</HD>
                    <P>Under the REAL ID Act and regulations, on and after the card-based enforcement date, Federal agencies are prohibited from accepting non-REAL ID-compliant DL/IDs for official purposes. The rulemaking will allow Federal agencies to implement the card-based enforcement requirement of the REAL ID Act and regulations under a phased approach if the agency determines a significant security or operational risk, or if public services offered by the agency will be impacted with full enforcement. Federal agencies that opt to do so must coordinate a plan with DHS. After coordination of a plan with DHS, a Federal agency may continue to accept non-REAL ID-compliant licenses and IDs on and after May 7, 2025, as part of a phased enforcement plan. To ensure that agencies' enforcement plans appropriately advance the objectives of the REAL ID regulations, this rule requires agencies' plans to include measures for full card-based enforcement by May 5, 2027.</P>
                    <P>
                        Based on agency information in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        , DHS estimates there are 434 Federal agencies, including cabinet-level departments, who may require REAL IDs for official Federal purposes.
                        <SU>108</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To estimate the number of Federal agencies that will submit a phased enforcement plan under this rulemaking, DHS considered three factors; (1) agencies that are on track to not accept noncompliant marked cards on, or before, the card-based enforcement date; (2) agencies that do not 
                        <E T="03">typically</E>
                         require forms of identification for official purposes (
                        <E T="03">e.g.</E>
                         to be presented for entry); and (3) DHS' monthly engagements with Federal stakeholders.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>108</SU>
                             
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                            . Retrieved from 
                            <E T="03">https://www.federalregister.gov/agencies</E>
                            . Accessed on May 10, 2023.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agencies on track to not accept noncompliant marked cards on or before the card-based enforcement date.</E>
                         First, each Federal agency has the authority to set its own minimum security access requirements and, if desired, can decide not to accept noncompliant marked cards before the card-based enforcement date. For example, the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) finalized an update to its DoD-wide installation security policy and is in the process of no longer accepting noncompliant marked cards across all of its facilities and installations.
                        <SU>109</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS assumes Federal agencies on track to implement enforcement by the effective date, are more likely to not pursue a phased enforcement plan.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>109</SU>
                             DoD will continue to accept state-issued noncompliant unmarked “legacy” cards until the May 7, 2025, deadline. Department of Homeland Security. REAL ID Frequently Asked Questions. Retrieved from 
                            <E T="03">https://www.dhs.gov/real-id/real-id-faqs</E>
                            . Accessed on August 2, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Agencies that do not, or do not typically, require forms of identification to be displayed for entry.</E>
                         Each facility makes a risk-based decision to determine if a form of identification is needed for entry, and if so, which forms will be accepted. For instance, an agency may require identification as part of their overall security strategy including, but not limited to, checking the individual against a checklist, or to verify that the individual is on an invitation or approved visitors list. If an agency only requires an individual to present a form of identification solely to record the individual's presence as opposed to for screening and access purposes, the requirements under the REAL ID Act of 2005 would not apply.
                    </P>
                    <P>There are agencies that do not typically require forms of identification for official purposes or only experience of low volume of such interactions. A key factor in an agency's consideration may be the number of individuals that enter, or pass through, the Federal facility in a given day. For some Federal agencies, access to certain areas of the facility is presently granted without the need for an individual to present a form of identification for entry. For instance, the public areas of the Smithsonian and the National Park Service (NPS). While the Smithsonian and NPS will still be required to enforce REAL ID requirements on the card-based enforcement date, the enforcement will be limited to the individuals attempting to access the non-public areas. Presumably, as the number of individuals to this restricted entry area are significantly fewer than the daily number of visitors to Smithsonian facilities and National Parks, agencies like the Smithsonian and NPS may not need to submit phased enforcement plans due to limited security or operational risks.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">DHS' Monthly Engagements With Federal Stakeholders</HD>
                    <P>
                        In Fall 2023 and the first quarter of 2024, DHS began hosting monthly stakeholder engagement sessions with Federal agencies.
                        <SU>110</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         During these sessions, DHS briefed agencies regarding the card-based enforcement date and this rulemaking to allow agencies the option for a phased approach if they determine such a plan is appropriate. Through hosting the sessions, DHS was able to establish a greater understanding, across the Government, on which agencies may consider a phased approach based on security, operational, or public impact risks associated with full enforcement. For instance, some agencies noted that they will follow guidance put forth by their cabinet-level department. Of the sample of agencies invited, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3497"/>
                        approximately 63 percent attended one or more stakeholder meetings. Based on feedback from agencies and recurring attendance over months, DHS assumes that 50 percent of agencies that attended one or more meetings will pursue a phased enforcement plan.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>110</SU>
                             While engagements with Federal stakeholders have continued since the publication of the NPRM, there have not been significant updates that would impact the supporting analysis. As such, DHS retains its initial assumptions for the Final Rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Based on these three factors, DHS assumes that of the 434 Federal agencies, 96 percent will not submit a phased enforcement plan. As such, these agencies will join the Department of Defense and begin full card-based enforcement on May 7, 2025. While individuals will need to present a REAL-ID compliant identification or an approved alternate identification for official purposes from that date forth; based on engagements with DHS subject matter experts (SMEs) and Federal agencies, the vast majority of agencies do not handle a significant volume, on a daily basis, of individuals required to present REAL ID for official Federal purposes.
                        <SU>111</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>111</SU>
                             DHS notes that most Federal employees and contractors have existing access to their respective facilities via employee identification/access cards and will not require separate submission of a REAL ID for access.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS assumes that the remaining 4 percent of Federal agencies will develop and coordinate phased enforcement plans with DHS. The majority of such plans are anticipated to represent a low-to-medium use case (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         visitor access to a facility) with TSA representing a high-use case given the volume of individuals boarding federally regulated commercial aircraft per day.
                        <SU>112</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>112</SU>
                             TSA presents a unique and the largest use case for REAL ID enforcement. Each day, the agency screens over two million passengers at airport security checkpoints across the United States and its territories. 
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            TSA Checkpoint Travel Numbers (Current Year Versus Prior Year(s)/Same Weekday). 
                            <E T="03">https://www.tsa.gov/travel/passenger-volumes</E>
                            . Accessed August 18, 2023.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Cost of the Final Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        The following summarizes the estimated costs of the final rule over a 2-year period of analysis. Specifically, impacts are evaluated between 2024 and 2025 to align with agency efforts to develop a phased enforcement plan prior to the current card-based enforcement date.
                        <SU>113</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>113</SU>
                             DHS retains the evaluation of cost for the rule over a 2-year period, as presented in the NPRM. Based on engagements with stakeholders, DHS believes that federal agencies have already incurred some costs in 2024 as they have discussed the necessity, and the possibility of, implementing a phased enforcement plan. DHS also acknowledges there are minimal impacts to cost in terms of discounting.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Federal agencies will incur costs to familiarize themselves with the rule, assess whether to implement a phased enforcement plan, and if so, develop a plan. DHS, as the agency administering the REAL ID program, will incur costs to coordinate with Federal agencies that voluntarily implement a phased enforcement plan.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Compensation Rates</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS estimates the labor-related costs for DHS and other Federal agencies. First, DHS uses the GS, step 3 wage scale for the Washington DC metro area to represent the annual wage for each GS level.
                        <SU>114</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For Senior Executive Service (SES) employees, DHS uses the midpoint of the range of basic pay as the estimate for the SES annual wage.
                        <SU>115</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>114</SU>
                             Salary Table No. 2023-DCB, Pay &amp; Leave: Salaries &amp; Wages, Office of Personnel Management, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.opm.gov/policy-data-oversight/pay-leave/salaries-wages/salary-tables/23Tables/html/DCB.aspx</E>
                            . DHS typically uses the DHS Modular Cost Model (not publicly available) which leverages DC-area locality, Step 3, for budgeting to assist with calculating benefits, and other forms of compensation for Federal employees. DHS uses Step 3 for wages to align with DHS Modular Cost Model.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>115</SU>
                             The basic pay for SES employees in 2023 ranged from $141,022 to $212,200 with a midpoint of $176,561. Salary Table No. 2023-ES, Pay &amp; Leave: Salaries &amp; Wages, Office of Personnel Management, 
                            <E T="03">www.opm.gov/policy-data-oversight/pay-leave/salaries-wages/salary-tables/23Tables/exec/html/ES.aspx</E>
                            .
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>DHS then multiplies annual wages for each GS level and SES by a compensation factor that represents fully loaded compensation rates. The compensation factor is the sum of all annual compensation which includes wages and internal DHS data on awards, bonuses, personnel benefits, and transit benefits, divided by the annual wage.</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS calculates a compensation rate per hour by dividing the annual fully loaded compensation rates by 2,087, which represents the number of annual work hours.
                        <SU>116</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Table 6 summarizes the compensation rates per hour for the relevant labor categories DHS uses in the analysis.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>116</SU>
                             OPM changed the 2,080 work hours to 2,087 by amending 5 U.S.C. 5504(b), the latter is assumed to capture year-to-year fluctuations in work hours. Source: Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985 (Pub. L. 99-272, April 7, 1986).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2(,0,),i1" CDEF="s50,16,16,16,16">
                        <TTITLE>Table 6—Compensation Rates per Hour</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Labor category</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Annual wage</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Compensation
                                <LI>
                                    factor 
                                    <SU>117</SU>
                                </LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Annual
                                <LI>compensation rate</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Compensation
                                <LI>rate per hour</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW RUL="s">
                            <ENT I="25"> </ENT>
                            <ENT>a</ENT>
                            <ENT>b</ENT>
                            <ENT>c = a × b</ENT>
                            <ENT>d = c ÷ 2,087</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">GS-13</ENT>
                            <ENT>$119,482</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.353</ENT>
                            <ENT>$161,673</ENT>
                            <ENT>$77.47</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">GS-14</ENT>
                            <ENT>141,192</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.349</ENT>
                            <ENT>190,482</ENT>
                            <ENT>91.27</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">GS-15</ENT>
                            <ENT>166,079</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.346</ENT>
                            <ENT>223,507</ENT>
                            <ENT>107.09</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">SES</ENT>
                            <ENT>176,561</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.345</ENT>
                            <ENT>237,416</ENT>
                            <ENT>113.76</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             Calculation may not be exact due to rounding.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">DHS Costs</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS will
                        <FTREF/>
                         incur costs related to coordinating with Federal agencies on their phased enforcement plans to address any potential concerns ahead of the REAL ID card-based enforcement date. This includes the cost to develop guidance for agencies on phased enforcement and time to review and coordinate with agencies on their plans. Furthermore, DHS will publish the list of agencies that have coordinated phased enforcement plans.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>117</SU>
                             Compensation factors for the different GS levels and SES vary because DHS calculates some benefits as a percentage of wages and other benefits are static amounts that are equal for all GS levels and SES.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS will develop guidance to inform Federal agencies that they may implement REAL ID card-based enforcement using a phased approach, how to do so, and the level of coordination necessary with DHS. DHS consulted with internal SMEs who estimate a range to develop guidance between 60 to 100 hours. DHS uses the midpoint of this range, 80 hours, to calculate the cost to develop guidance. DHS assumes this time will be split between GS-13, GS-14, and GS-15 employees, with a respective burden of 45 percent, 45 percent, and 10 percent. DHS calculates a weighted average guidance development compensation rate of $86.64 per hour by summing the product of the compensation rates and the proportion of burdens for the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3498"/>
                        respective groups of employees contributing to the efforts.
                        <SU>118</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS estimates a $6,931 guidance development cost by multiplying the 80-hour burden and the weighted average guidance development compensation rate of $86.64 per hour.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>118</SU>
                             $86.64 guidance development compensation per hour = (45 percent GS-13 burden × $77.47 GS-13 compensation per hour) + (45 percent GS-14 burden × $91.27 GS-14 compensation per hour) + (10 percent GS-15 burden × $107.09 GS-15 compensation per hour).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS coordination will also include reviewing phased enforcement plans to ensure compliance with the REAL ID Act and regulations (but will not include approval of plans). DHS consulted with internal SMEs who estimate a range to coordinate and review plans between 8 and 24 hours per plan.
                        <SU>119</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS uses the midpoint of the range, 16 hours per plan, to calculate DHS coordination costs. DHS assumes this time will be split between GS-13 and GS-14 employees, with a respective burden of 50 percent and 50 percent. DHS estimates a weighted average coordination compensation of $84.37 per hour by summing the product of the compensation rates and the proportion of burdens for the respective groups of employees contributing to the efforts.
                        <SU>120</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS estimates the coordination cost by multiplying the 18 agencies that will develop plans, the 16-hour time burden, and weighted average coordination compensation rate of $84.37 per hour for a total coordination cost of $24,298.
                        <SU>121</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>119</SU>
                             Phased Enforcement Plan coordination and review time estimate is less than it would take for a formal approval.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>120</SU>
                             $84.37 coordination compensation per hour = (50 percent GS-13 burden × $77.47 GS-13 compensation per hour) + (50 percent GS-14 burden × $91.27 GS-14 compensation per hour).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>121</SU>
                             DHS assumes 4 percent of the 434 Federal agencies will submit phased enforcement plans, or about 18 agencies (see Phased Enforcement Population). DHS coordination cost = 18 agencies × 16 hours × $84.37 = $24,298.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        DHS will also incur costs to make publicly available a list of agencies that have coordinated phased enforcement plans with DHS. DHS will publish the list of agencies on a web page on DHS's REAL ID website prior to the card-based enforcement date. DHS SMEs estimate it will take 16 hours to create, review, approve, and publish content on its existing REAL ID website. DHS assumes this time would be split between GS-13 and GS-14 employees, with a respective burden of 50 percent and 50 percent. DHS estimates a weighted average publishing compensation of $84.37 per hour by summing the product of the compensation rates and the proportion of burdens for the respective groups of employees contributing to the efforts.
                        <SU>122</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS calculates a publishing cost of $1,350 by multiplying the 16-hour burden and weighted average publishing compensation rate of $84.37 per hour. DHS assumes the incremental maintenance costs for this one web page will be minimal because DHS already maintains the DHS REAL ID website. Furthermore, DHS will not need to update the website content frequently because all Federal agencies that voluntarily implement a phased enforcement plan will need to do so by May 7, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>122</SU>
                             $84.37 weighted average publishing compensation per hour = (50 percent GS-13 burden × $77.47 GS-13 compensation per hour) + (50 percent GS-14 burden × $91.27 GS-14 compensation per hour).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>DHS estimates the 2-year total cost for phased enforcement coordination to be $0.033 million undiscounted and $0.031 million discounted at 2 percent. Table 7 describes the total costs of the final rule to DHS.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,16,16,16,16,16">
                        <TTITLE>Table 7—Total Cost to DHS</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[$Actual dollars, 2023 dollars]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Cost to
                                <LI>develop guidance</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">a</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Cost to
                                <LI>coordinate</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">b</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Cost to
                                <LI>publish list</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">c</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Total cost</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">d = a + b + c</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">Undiscounted</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">Discounted at 2%</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2024: 1</ENT>
                            <ENT>$6,931</ENT>
                            <ENT>$0</ENT>
                            <ENT>$0</ENT>
                            <ENT>$6,931</ENT>
                            <ENT>$6,795</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">2025: 2</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>24,298</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,350</ENT>
                            <ENT>25,648</ENT>
                            <ENT>24,652</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,931</ENT>
                            <ENT>24,298</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,350</ENT>
                            <ENT>32,579</ENT>
                            <ENT>31,447</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             Totals may not add due to rounding.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Federal Agency Costs</HD>
                    <P>
                        All Federal agencies will need to familiarize themselves with the final rule and phased enforcement concept and determine if a phased enforcement plan is necessary. DHS assumes at least one attorney and one manager at the GS-14 and GS-15 levels within each agency will review the rule. DHS estimates that each person reviewing the rulemaking will spend an average of 1.1 hours.
                        <SU>123</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS calculates a weighted average familiarization compensation rate of $99.18 per hour by summing the product of the compensation rates and the proportion of burdens for the respective groups of employees contributing to the efforts.
                        <SU>124</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS estimates the cost for all Federal agencies to familiarize themselves with phased enforcement by multiplying the 434 Federal agencies, the two employees per agency reviewing the rulemaking, the 1.1 hours familiarization burden and the weighted average familiarization compensation rate of $99.18 per hour for an initial familiarization cost of $94,145.
                        <SU>125</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>123</SU>
                             DHS estimates a familiarization cost and time burden based on the time required to read all of the words in the final rule. DHS also assumes that individuals responsible for reviewing the final rule read at a rate of 238 words per minute. 1.09 familiarization time burden = 15,616 words in final rule ÷ 238 words per minute ÷ 60 minutes. Brysbaert, Marc, “How many words do we read per minute? A review and meta-analysis of reading rate.” 
                            <E T="03">Journal of Memory and Language</E>
                             (Aug. 2019).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>124</SU>
                             DHS estimates one GS-14 and one GS-15 employee will spend an equal amount of time to review the final rule (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             a 50 percent burden for the GS-14 level and 50 percent burden for the GS-15 level). $99.18 weighted average familiarization compensation per hour = (50 percent GS-14 burden × $91.27 GS-14 compensation per hour) + (50 percent GS-15 burden × $107.09 GS-15 compensation per hour).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>125</SU>
                             Note: Calculation may not be exact due to rounding.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In addition to familiarization, all Federal agencies will need to determine if based on their specific environment, developing and coordinating a phased enforcement plan is necessary. DHS SMEs estimate Federal agencies will spend, on average, between 10 to 40 hours to make a determination. DHS uses the midpoint of the range, 25 hours, to calculate the cost to make a determination. DHS assumes this time will be split between a GS-15 and SES, with a respective burden of 50 percent and 50 percent. DHS calculates a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3499"/>
                        weighted average plan determination compensation of $110.43 per hour by summing the product of the compensation rates and the proportion of burdens for the respective groups of employees contributing to the efforts.
                        <SU>126</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS estimates the cost for all Federal agencies to determine a need for a phased enforcement plan by multiplying the 434 Federal agencies, the 25-hour burden, and the plan determination compensation rate of $110.43 per hour. This plan determination cost is $1.20 million.
                        <SU>127</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>126</SU>
                             DHS assumes the burden to make a plan determination is split with 50 percent of the effort by GS-15 employees and 50 percent by SES employees because the determination will be made by senior level employees. $110.43 weighted average plan determination compensation per hour = (50 percent GS-15 burden × $107.09 GS-15 compensation per hour) + (50 percent SES burden × $113.76 SES compensation per hour).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>127</SU>
                             Note: Calculation may not be exact due to rounding.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Federal agencies that develop phased enforcement plans will also incur costs to develop and coordinate their respective plans with DHS. DHS assumes plan development and coordination will include preparing briefing materials for the public and updating the agency's website to inform the public of the phased enforcement plan and policies. DHS SMEs estimate Federal agencies will spend, on average, between 150 and 300 hours to develop plans. DHS uses the midpoint of the range, 225 hours, to calculate the cost to develop plans. DHS assumes this time will be split between GS-14, GS-15, and SES employees, with a respective burden of 45 percent, 45 percent, and 10 percent. DHS estimates a weighted average plan development compensation of $100.64 per hour by summing the product of the compensation rates and the proportion of burdens for the respective groups of employees contributing to the efforts.
                        <SU>128</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         DHS multiplies the 18 agencies that develop plans,
                        <SU>129</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         the 225-hour development time burden, and the plan development compensation rate of $100.64 per hour to calculate a plan development cost of $407,594.
                        <SU>130</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>128</SU>
                             $100.64 weighted average plan development compensation per hour = (45 percent GS-14 burden × $91.27 GS-14 compensation per hour) + (45 percent GS-15 burden × $107.09 GS-15 compensation per hour) + (10 percent SES burden × $113.76 SES compensation per hour).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>129</SU>
                             DHS assumes 4 percent of the 434 Federal agencies will submit phased enforcement plans, or about 18 agencies (see Phased Enforcement Population).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>130</SU>
                             Note: Calculation may not be exact due to rounding.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Table 8 presents the total Federal cost estimates over the 2-year period of analysis which equates to $1.70 million undiscounted and $1.67 million discounted at 2 percent.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="6" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,16,16,16,16,16">
                        <TTITLE>Table 8—Total Quantified Cost to Federal Agencies</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[$ Actual dollars, 2023 dollars]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Familiarization
                                <LI>cost</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">a</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Plan
                                <LI>determination cost</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">b</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Plan
                                <LI>development cost</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">c</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Total cost to Federal agencies</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">d = a + b + c</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">Undiscounted</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">Discounted at 2%</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2024: 1</ENT>
                            <ENT>$94,145</ENT>
                            <ENT>$1,198,136</ENT>
                            <ENT>$407,594</ENT>
                            <ENT>$1,699,874</ENT>
                            <ENT>$1,666,543</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">2025: 2</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>94,145</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,198,136</ENT>
                            <ENT>407,594</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,699,874</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,666,543</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             Totals may not add due to rounding.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Unquantified Costs</HD>
                    <P>
                        The final rule will also include non-quantified impacts and costs to affected entities. Such impacts are difficult to quantify largely due to a high degree of uncertainty. One such impact is the delay of benefits from the original rule by implementing the card-based enforcement requirement of the REAL ID rule in a phased manner. Full security benefits associated with the REAL ID rule will not be realized, as a result of agencies implementing a phased approach, until full enforcement occurs. As the benefits associated with the 2008 rule are difficult to quantify, so too is the quantification of their delay.
                        <SU>131</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Nonetheless, this final rule will have less unrealized or delayed security benefits compared to an extension of the full compliance date.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>131</SU>
                             In GAO Report 12-893 (Driver's License Security), GAO highlights the steps taken by States to detect counterfeit documents and identity thefts, many of the same requirements of the REAL ID Act. For instance, the verification of Social Security as well as the use of SAVE have helped reduced the number of fraudulent licenses issued. Retrieved from 
                            <E T="03">https://www.gao.gov/assets/gao-12-893.pdf.</E>
                             Accessed on August 28, 2024.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Federal agencies that voluntarily implement card-based enforcement in a phased approach will incur costs related to plan implementation. However, DHS assumes there will be a high degree of variability among such plans, and agencies will have discretion to determine what aspects to include in a phased enforcement plan. Nonetheless, Federal agencies will likely incur costs related to training necessary personnel on the processes and procedures of phased enforcement plans. Federal agencies will also likely incur costs to inform the public or appropriate stakeholders impacted about the new identity verification procedures related to the agencies' phased enforcement plans (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         awareness campaign through media, signage at access points, and/or providing notices for individuals with non-compliant identification). Such costs may extend through agencies' phased enforcement plans, beyond years one and two of this analysis. Individuals may also incur costs to become aware of phased enforcement plans and respond accordingly.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Total Cost of Phased Enforcement Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        Table 9 presents the 2-year total cost of the phased enforcement final rule. DHS estimates the total cost of the final rule to be $1.73 million undiscounted and $1.70 million discounted at 2 percent.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3500"/>
                    </P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s50,16,16,16,16">
                        <TTITLE>Table 9—Total Cost of Phased Enforcement Rule</TTITLE>
                        <TDESC>[Actual dollars, 2023 dollars]</TDESC>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Year</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Cost to
                                <LI>DHS</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">a</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Cost to
                                <LI>Federal agencies</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">b</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Total cost</CHED>
                            <CHED H="2">c = a + b</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">Undiscounted</CHED>
                            <CHED H="3">Discounted at 2%</CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2024: 1</ENT>
                            <ENT>$6,931</ENT>
                            <ENT>$1,699,874</ENT>
                            <ENT>$1,706,805</ENT>
                            <ENT>$1,673,339</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">2025: 2</ENT>
                            <ENT>25,648</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                            <ENT>25,648</ENT>
                            <ENT>24,652</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>32,579</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,699,874</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,732,453</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,697,991</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Annualized</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>874,549</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <TNOTE>
                            <E T="02">Note:</E>
                             Totals may not add due to rounding.
                        </TNOTE>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">a. Benefits of the Final Rule</HD>
                    <P>Phased enforcement provides Federal agencies the flexibility on how to start enforcing REAL ID card-based enforcement requirements in a manner that may reduce operational disruption, security risk, and public impact. This is especially relevant for Federal agencies that process large numbers of individuals and require identification for access purposes. Phased enforcement provides Federal agencies more time to implement strategies to engage stakeholders and encourage REAL ID adoption. It can also provide time for agencies to develop alternative means to ensure continued operations for services or activities that require use of REAL ID for official purposes. Allowance of a phased approach will not unnecessarily delay REAL ID enforcement for those Federal agencies ready to fully implement while also allowing more time for those Federal agencies who they themselves, or their stakeholders, will benefit from more time to implement.</P>
                    <P>
                        Phased enforcement of the card-based requirement will provide the public more time to obtain REAL-ID compliant DL/IDs. This may mitigate a potential backlog of applications for States with lower compliance rates.
                        <SU>132</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The percentage of DL/IDs that are REAL ID-compliant lags well behind the national average in some States and those States may otherwise experience a surge in REAL ID applications in the absence of phased enforcement. States may thus be able to avoid an increase in processing times and costs related to measures to alleviate backlogs in applications, such as longer operating hours, increasing staff, and overtime pay. States and their DMVs may also be able to smooth out their operational needs, as the phased enforcement approach may mitigate a surge in REAL ID applications prior to full enforcement.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>132</SU>
                             DHS forecasts the rate of REAL IDs under the baseline scenario would reach 85.7 percent by May 2027 whereas, DHS forecasts the rate under phased enforcement would be between 69.1 to 83.4 percent by May 2027. This 2.3 to 16.6 difference helps spread the processing of REAL ID requests for states as well as reducing additional negative impacts associated with rapid enforcement.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        A higher proportion of individuals with compliant identification also reduces potential queuing and associated delays. For example, if an individual presents valid, non-REAL ID-compliant identification at an access point, security or screening workforce may require additional time to confirm the individual's identity, and/or explain the requirements of REAL ID and thus delay the individual, or not provide the individual access.
                        <SU>133</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Such delays may also have downstream impacts and cause longer delays for other individuals waiting in line at the access point, including for those who may possess a REAL ID-compliant document. However, under a phased enforcement plan, after verifying the individual's identity, the individual may be able to use the valid, non-compliant identification to access Federal facilities (for a temporary period of time).
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>133</SU>
                             Delays may be short and straight forward or lengthy and more complex. For example, simply explaining the REAL ID requirements and providing an alternative form of identification may only take a few minutes whereas individuals unable to use a noncompliant DL/ID may escalate the situation, refusing to leave the access point, request to speak with supervisors, or even assaulting security or screening workforce which represent longer customer interactions and consume more resources (
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             additional workforce and/or law enforcement) to resolve each interaction.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Finally, any benefits to individuals or States associated with procuring a noncompliant card will be extended to those impacted through the phase-in period of card-based enforcement to the extent the agencies such individuals interact with for official purposes determine to implement card-based enforcement through a phased approach, in place of full and immediate enforcement on May 7, 2025; however, the security benefits associated with full enforcement will also be delayed.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">b. Alternatives Considered</HD>
                    <P>DHS considered two alternatives under the proposed rule, the no action baseline scenario which would commence full card-based enforcement in May 2025 and an extension of the card-based enforcement deadline.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Alternative 1: Baseline Scenario</HD>
                    <P>In the no action baseline scenario (Alternative 1), full card-based enforcement would begin in May 2025 without further extensions of the enforcement date or a phased approach to enforcement.</P>
                    <P>
                        In the baseline scenario, absent phased enforcement, DHS forecasts that by May 2025, approximately 70 percent of all State-issued DL/IDs would be REAL ID-compliant. Full card-based enforcement when a significant percentage of the population could present non-compliant identification may increase operational risks to Federal agencies; especially agencies that process a large number of individuals per day.
                        <SU>134</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Federal agencies would be unable to accept noncompliant DL/IDs and may have to turn away individuals unable to present REAL ID-compliant identification, or another form of acceptable identification. Federal agencies would also spend additional time adjudicating such transactions where individuals present non-compliant identification, including handling additional questions and waiting for individuals to present compliant identification. Individuals without compliant identification and those waiting in long queues could become frustrated and cause incidents, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3501"/>
                        such as a backlash to security personnel enforcing REAL ID.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>134</SU>
                             For example, if an agency processes 2.5 million visitors a day and 30 percent of visitors have non-compliant DL/IDs, it could potentially result in 750,000 visitors being unable to use their DL/IDs to gain access per day. Such large numbers of individuals with non-compliant identification could result in operational and security concerns as well as negative public impacts.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The additional time required to adjudicate transactions involving the presentation of non-compliant identification could lead to delays including accessing Federal facilities and federally regulated commercial aircraft, which could impact both individuals with non-compliant identification and individuals waiting in queues, increasing their time burden and associated opportunity costs. These delays could have a significant effect on the travel industry, with individuals unable to present compliant identification at TSA checkpoints being denied access, or individuals caught in long queues, that may result in canceling, postponing, or adjusting travel plans and incurring associated costs. This may include making alternative travel arrangements whose substitution may include less efficient modes of transportation (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         travelers deciding to drive rather than fly).
                    </P>
                    <P>While nationwide, approximately 56.4 percent of all DL/IDs are REAL ID-compliant as of January 2024, there is a wide distribution of compliance across States with some lagging well behind the national average. Implementation of full card-based enforcement in May 2025 may lead to a surge in REAL ID applications and visits to the Department of Motor Vehicles, especially in those States with lower levels of REAL ID adoption. As a result, States may incur additional costs to resolve such potential surges in applications, including, but not limited to, operating longer hours, hiring more workers, and providing overtime pay for employees. Surges in applications could also lead to additional costs for individuals, including increased processing times to obtain a REAL ID and increased waiting times at the Department of Motor Vehicles.</P>
                    <P>
                        For example, in 2007, DHS and the Department of State implemented the WHTI rule.
                        <SU>135</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The WHTI rule imposed new documentation requirements for U.S. citizens and nonimmigrant aliens from certain countries entering the United States from countries within the Western Hemisphere. The WHTI rule led to a larger than anticipated increase in passport applications in 2007, longer passport processing times from 5 weeks to 10 to 12 weeks, and longer lines and crowded waiting rooms at Department of State facilities. The Department of State incurred $42.8 million in costs (in 2007 dollars) to alleviate the surge in applications through additional staff, overtime pay, travel for temporary staff, telephone services for its call centers, equipment, and furniture.
                        <SU>136</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>135</SU>
                             71 FR 68412 (November 24, 2006).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>136</SU>
                             State Department: Comprehensive Strategy Needed to Improve Passport Operations, United States Government Accountability Office (Jul. 28, 2008), available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.gao.gov/assets/gao-08-891.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Implementing full card-based REAL ID enforcement would allow for the full realization of the benefits of the REAL ID rule without further delay. Specifically, DHS believes the primary benefit of REAL ID enforcement, as discussed in the 2008 rule, would be a potential increase to U.S. national security by reducing the vulnerability to criminal or terrorist activity of Federal buildings, nuclear power plants, and aircraft. An additional possible benefit of the 2008 rule includes reducing fraud, by increasing the difficulty of fraudulently obtaining a valid license and increasing the cost to create false licenses.</P>
                    <P>
                        DHS rejects Alternative 1 as it limits the flexibility Federal agencies can use to implement REAL ID card-based enforcement. The potential for large numbers of individuals presenting non-REAL ID-compliant identification as a means to verify identity to access Federal facilities could cause operational risks to Federal agencies; especially those that process large numbers of individuals (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         the airport security environment). Surges in REAL ID applications may also cause negative impacts to States in issuing REAL IDs, and individuals in obtaining them. The preferred alternative allows Federal agencies to take such factors into account and make determinations about how to address potential full card-based enforcement risks associated with the card-based enforcement date.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Alternative 2: Extension of Card-Based Enforcement Deadline</HD>
                    <P>In this alternative, DHS would issue a rule to extend the card-based enforcement date from May 7, 2025, to some date between 1 and 2 years later (Alternative 2). Alternative 2 is distinct from the preferred alternative because it extends the card-based enforcement date for all Federal agencies and does not specifically include an option to implement card-based enforcement through a phased approach. Under Alternative 2, Federal agencies would be prohibited from accepting noncompliant cards by a new date.</P>
                    <P>While Alternative 2 would afford the public more time to obtain REAL ID-compliant identification, implementing Alternative 2 would potentially allow those without REAL ID-compliant DL/ID to prolong obtaining such document. REAL ID adoption rates may continue to decrease further then they have over the last 12 months. Issuing another extension may send a signal to individuals and industry that full implementation of REAL ID is delayed indefinitely and that additional extensions continue to be real possibilities thereby not providing sufficient encouragement or incentive for the public to obtain REAL IDs.</P>
                    <P>This alternative would also delay the security benefits associated with the REAL ID rule across all Federal agencies until the extended card-based enforcement date.</P>
                    <P>Under the Alternative 2, DHS and Federal agencies would be able to avoid the quantifiable and unquantifiable costs related to the preferred alternative. For Federal agencies, this includes phased enforcement plan development and implementation. Alternative 2 also shares some of the same benefits as the proposed rule. For example, extending the card-based enforcement date would provide the public more time to obtain a REAL ID and may mitigate a potential backlog of applications for States with lower compliance rates (or may simply further put off the issue without a real solution). States may be able to avoid costs related to measures to alleviate backlogs in applications for a period of time. The alternative would help Federal agencies that process large numbers of individuals avoid operational disruption in May 2025 because agencies would be able to continue to accept valid and unexpired non-REAL ID-compliant identification.</P>
                    <P>DHS does not prefer Alternative 2. Since 2020, DHS has extended the card-based enforcement date on three occasions and by nearly 5 years. DHS believes the vast majority of Federal agencies will be ready to fully enforce the card-based deadline on May 7, 2025. Another extension may give the public and industry the impression that REAL ID will continue to be delayed and not enforced in the near future. Thus, the preferred alternative maintains the effective date for those Federal agencies able to implement yet also provides flexibilities for those who will benefit from additional time.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Regulatory Flexibility Assessment</HD>
                    <P>
                        The RFA of 1980 (5 U.S.C. 601, 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) requires Federal agencies to consider the potential impact of regulations on small businesses, small government jurisdictions, and small organizations during the development of their rules.
                        <SU>137</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Secretary, pursuant 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3502"/>
                        to 5 U.S.C. 605(b), certifies that this rule will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The final rule is only applicable to Federal agencies who under the RFA are not considered small entities. Accordingly, DHS is not required to prepare a regulatory flexibility analysis.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>137</SU>
                             Public Law 96-354, 94 Stat. 1164 (Sept. 19, 1980), codified at 5 U.S.C. 601 
                            <E T="03">et seq.,</E>
                             as amended 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            by the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (SBREFA).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act Assessment</HD>
                    <P>Title II of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA), Public Law 104-4, establishes requirements for Federal agencies to assess the effects of their regulatory actions on State, local, and Tribal governments and the private sector. Under section 202 of the UMRA, DHS generally must prepare a written Statement, including a cost-benefit analysis, for proposed and final rules with “federal mandates” that may result in expenditures by State, local, and Tribal governments in the aggregate or by the private sector of $100 million or more (adjusted for inflation) in any one year.</P>
                    <P>Before DHS promulgates a rule for which a written statement is required, section 205 of the UMRA generally requires TSA to identify and consider a reasonable number of regulatory alternatives and adopt the least costly, most cost-effective, or least burdensome alternative that achieves the objectives of the rulemaking. The provisions of section 205 do not apply when they are inconsistent with applicable law. Moreover, section 205 allows DHS to adopt an alternative other than the least costly, most cost-effective, or least burdensome alternative if the proposed or final rule provides an explanation why that alternative was not adopted.</P>
                    <P>Before DHS establishes any regulatory requirements that may significantly or uniquely affect small governments, including Tribal governments, it must develop under section 203 of the UMRA a small government agency plan. The plan must provide for notifying potentially affected small governments, enabling officials of affected small governments to have meaningful and timely input in the development of DHS regulatory proposals with significant Federal intergovernmental mandates, and informing, educating, and advising small governments on compliance with the regulatory requirements.</P>
                    <P>When adjusted for inflation, the threshold for expenditures becomes $183 million in 2023 dollars. DHS has determined that this rule does not contain a Federal mandate that may result in expenditures that exceed that amount either for State, local, and Tribal governments in the aggregate in any one year thus a written statement is not required under UMRA.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Executive Order 13132 (Federalism)</HD>
                    <P>
                        A rule has federalism implications under E.O. 13132, “Federalism” (64 FR 43255, Aug. 10, 1999), if it has a substantial direct effect on State governments, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government. DHS has analyzed this final rule under E.O. 13132 and has determined that although this rulemaking may indirectly affect the States, it does not impose substantial direct compliance costs or preempt State law. The direct compliance costs to States for implementation of REAL ID requirements were already accounted for in DHS 2008 final rule.
                        <SU>138</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In fact, the final rule is responsive to concerns expressed by State agencies regarding the upcoming deadline and will potentially provide States' residents more time to obtain a REAL ID-compliant DL/ID if agencies determine to implement card-based enforcement through a phased approach. The key impact of the rulemaking is to allow Federal agencies the authority to provide a phased enforcement approach.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>138</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             73 FR 5272 (Jan. 29, 2008).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Executive Order 13175 (Tribal Consultation)</HD>
                    <P>This final rule does not have Tribal implications under E.O. 13175, “Consultation and Coordination with Indian Tribal Governments,” because it does not have a substantial direct effect on one or more Indian Tribes, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian Tribes. The REAL ID Act applies solely to issuance and Federal acceptance of state issued DL/ID. Section 202(a)(1) specifically provides, “a Federal agency may not accept, for any official purpose, a driver's license or identification card issued by a state to any person unless the state is meeting the requirements of this section.” Section 201(5) defines the term “state” to mean “a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the U.S. Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.” Because Tribal governments do not fall within the statutory definition of “state,” identification cards issued by Tribal governments are not subject to REAL ID requirements.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Environmental Analysis</HD>
                    <P>
                        DHS and its components review actions to determine whether National Environmental Policy Act 
                        <SU>139</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         (NEPA) applies to them and, if so, what degree of analysis is required. DHS Directive 023-01 Rev. 01 (Directive) and Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01,
                        <SU>140</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Rev. 01 (Instruction Manual) establishes the procedures that DHS and its components use to comply with NEPA and the Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ) regulations 
                        <SU>141</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         for implementing NEPA.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>139</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Public Law 91-190, 42 U.S.C. 4321-4347.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>140</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             DHS, Implementing the National Environmental Policy Act, 
                            <E T="03">DHS Directive 023-01, Rev 01</E>
                             (Oct. 31, 2014), and 
                            <E T="03">DHS Instruction Manual 023-01-001-01, Rev. 01</E>
                             (Nov. 6, 2014), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.dhs.gov/publication/directive-023-01-rev-01-and-instruction-manual-023-01-001-01-rev-01-and-catex</E>
                             (last visited July 17, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>141</SU>
                             40 CFR parts 1500 through 1508.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CEQ regulations allow Federal agencies to establish in their NEPA implementing procedures categories of actions (“categorical exclusions”) which experience has shown normally do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment and, therefore, do not require an environmental assessment or environmental impact statement.
                        <SU>142</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>142</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             40 CFR 1501.4(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Under DHS NEPA implementing procedures, for an action to be categorically excluded, it must satisfy each of the following three conditions: (1) the entire action clearly fits within one or more of the categorical exclusions; (2) the action is not a piece of a larger action; and (3) no extraordinary circumstances exist that create the potential for a significant environmental effect.
                        <SU>143</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>143</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Instruction Manual, section V.B.2 (a-c).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The clarification and notice provided by this final rule fits within categorical exclusion A3(d) “Promulgation of rules . . . that interpret or amend an existing regulation without changing its environmental effect.” Instruction Manual, appendix A, table 1. Furthermore, the final rule is not part of a larger action and presents no extraordinary circumstances creating the potential for significant environmental impacts. Therefore, the final rule is categorically excluded from further NEPA review.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Energy Impact Analysis</HD>
                    <P>
                        The energy impact of this rulemaking has been assessed in accordance with the Energy Policy and Conservation Act (EPCA), Public Law 94-163, as amended 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3503"/>
                        (42 U.S.C. 6362). DHS has determined that this rulemaking will not be a major regulatory action under the provisions of the EPCA.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">H. Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (Congressional Review Act)</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the Congressional Review Act (CRA), enacted as part of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996, Public Law 104-121, the Administrator of the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has determined that this final rule meets the criteria in 5 U.S.C. 804(2). The CRA generally provides a 60-day delayed effective date for such rules 
                        <SU>144</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         but an agency can bypass that requirement “for good cause.” 
                        <SU>145</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Because this rule provides flexibility for agencies to implement phased enforcement plans none of which will have any impact on the public until the REAL ID effective date on May 7, 2025, DHS has for good cause found that the 60-day delay typically required under 5 U.S.C. 801(a)(3)(A) is unnecessary. Therefore, consistent with 5 U.S.C. 808(2), this rule will become effective January 14, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>144</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             5 U.S.C. 801(a)(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>145</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             5 U.S.C. 808(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 6 CFR Part 37</HD>
                        <P>Document security, Driver's licenses, Identification cards, Motor vehicle administrations, Physical security.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Regulatory Amendments</HD>
                    <P>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the Department of Homeland Security amends 6 CFR part 37 as follows:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 37—REAL ID DRIVER'S LICENSES AND IDENTIFICATION CARDS</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="6" PART="37">
                        <AMDPAR>1. The authority citation for part 37 continues to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P>49 U.S.C. 30301 note; 6 U.S.C. 111, 112.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="6" PART="37">
                        <AMDPAR>2. Amend § 37.5 by revising paragraphs (b) and (c) and adding paragraphs (d) and (e) to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 37.5</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Validity periods and deadlines for REAL ID driver's licenses and identification cards.</SUBJECT>
                            <STARS/>
                            <P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, on or after May 7, 2025, Federal agencies shall not accept a driver's license or identification card for official purposes from any individual unless such license or card is a REAL ID-compliant driver's license or identification card issued by a State that has been determined by DHS to be in full compliance as defined under this subpart.</P>
                            <P>(c) Through the end of May 6, 2025, Federal agencies may accept for official purposes a driver's license or identification card issued under § 37.71. Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, on or after May 7, 2025, Federal agencies shall not accept for official purposes a driver's license or identification card issued under § 37.71.</P>
                            <P>(d) Federal agencies may implement the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section through a phased enforcement plan if the agency determines phased implementation is appropriate. Federal agencies that implement phased enforcement plans authorized by this paragraph (d) must:</P>
                            <P>(1) Make a determination that a phased enforcement plan is appropriate in consideration of relevant factors including security, operational feasibility, and public impact;</P>
                            <P>(2) Coordinate the phased enforcement plan with DHS;</P>
                            <P>(3) Make the phased enforcement plan publicly available on the agency's web page; and</P>
                            <P>(4) Achieve full enforcement of the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section no later than May 5, 2027.</P>
                            <P>(e) DHS will make publicly available on the DHS REAL ID web page a list of agencies that have coordinated phased enforcement plans with DHS pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.</P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <SIG>
                        <DATED>Dated: January 7, 2025.</DATED>
                        <NAME>David P. Pekoske,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Administrator.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00484 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 9110-05-P</BILCOD>
            </RULE>
        </RULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>8</NO>
    <DATE>Tuesday, January 14, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="3505"/>
            <PARTNO>Part VI</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P"> Department of the Treasury</AGENCY>
            <SUBAGY> Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
            <HRULE/>
            <CFR>26 CFR Part 1</CFR>
            <TITLE>Section 45W Credit for Qualified Commercial Clean Vehicles; Proposed Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <PRORULES>
            <PRORULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3506"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="F">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                    <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
                    <CFR>26 CFR Part 1</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[REG-123525-23]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 1545-BR06</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Section 45W Credit for Qualified Commercial Clean Vehicles</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Notice of proposed rulemaking and notice of public hearing.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>This document contains proposed regulations that would provide guidance on the qualified commercial clean vehicle credit enacted by the Inflation Reduction Act of 2022. These proposed regulations would affect eligible taxpayers that place a qualified commercial clean vehicle in service during a taxable year. These proposed regulations would also affect manufacturers of qualified commercial clean vehicles.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>Written or electronic comments must be received by March 17, 2025.</P>
                        <P>The public hearing on these proposed regulations is scheduled for April 28, 2025, at 10 a.m. eastern standard time (EST). Requests to speak and outlines of topics to be discussed at the public hearing must be received by March 17, 2025. If no outlines are received by March 17, 2025, the public hearing will be cancelled.</P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <ADD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                        <P>
                            Commenters are strongly encouraged to submit public comments electronically via the Federal eRulemaking Portal at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                             (indicate IRS and REG-123525-23) by following the online instructions for submitting comments. Once submitted to the Federal eRulemaking Portal, comments cannot be edited or withdrawn. The Department of the Treasury (Treasury Department) and the IRS will publish for public availability any comments submitted to the IRS's public docket. Send paper submissions to: CC:PA:01:PR (REG-123525-23), Room 5203, Internal Revenue Service, P.O. Box 7604, Ben Franklin Station, Washington, DC 20044.
                        </P>
                    </ADD>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>
                            Concerning the proposed regulations, David Villagrana or Rika Valdman at (202) 317-6853 (not a toll-free number); concerning submissions of comments or the public hearing, Publications and Regulations Section at (202) 317-6901 (not a toll-free number) or by email at 
                            <E T="03">publichearings@irs.gov</E>
                             (preferred).
                        </P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority</HD>
                    <P>This document contains proposed amendments to the Income Tax Regulations (26 CFR part 1) regarding sections 25E, 30D, 45W, and 6417 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) as they relate to the credit for qualified commercial clean vehicles (proposed regulations). The proposed regulations are issued by the Secretary of the Treasury or her delegate (Secretary) under the authority granted by sections 25E(e), 30D(d)(3) and (f)(5), 45W(c)(1), (d)(1), and (f), 6417(h), and 7805(a) of the Code.</P>
                    <P>Section 45W(f) provides an express delegation authorizing the Secretary to issue “such regulations or other guidance as the Secretary determines necessary to carry out the purposes of this section, including regulations or other guidance relating to determination of the incremental cost of any qualified commercial clean vehicle.”</P>
                    <P>Section 45W(c)(1), in part, incorporates in the definition of the term “qualified commercial clean vehicle” that the vehicle “meets the requirements of section 30D(d)(1)(C).” Section 30D(d)(1)(C) requires that such vehicle be made by a “qualified manufacturer,” as defined in section 30D(d)(3). Section 30D(d)(3) provides that a qualified manufacturer must enter “into a written agreement with the Secretary under which such manufacturer agrees to make periodic written reports to the Secretary (at such times and in such manner as the Secretary may provide) providing vehicle identification numbers and such other information related to each vehicle manufactured by such manufacturer as the Secretary may require.”</P>
                    <P>Section 45W(d)(1), which provides that rules similar to the rules under section 30D(f) (without regard to section 30D(f)(10) or (11)) apply for purposes of section 45W, incorporates section 30D(f)(5), which provides an express delegation of authority stating, “[t]he Secretary shall, by regulations, provide for recapturing the benefit of any credit allowable under subsection (a) with respect to any property which ceases to be property eligible for such credit.”</P>
                    <P>Section 6417(h) authorizes the Secretary to issue such regulations or other guidance as may be necessary to carry out the purposes of section 6417.</P>
                    <P>Finally, section 7805(a) authorizes the Secretary “to prescribe all needful rules and regulations for the enforcement of [the Code], including all rules and regulations as may be necessary by reason of any alteration of law in relation to internal revenue.”</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Overview</HD>
                    <P>Section 13403(a) of Public Law 117-169, 136 Stat. 1818 (August 16, 2022), commonly known as the Inflation Reduction Act of 2022 (IRA), added section 45W to the Code. Section 13403(b)(1) of the IRA added section 45W to the list of general business credits in section 38 of the Code. Section 45W provides a credit against the tax imposed by chapter 1 of the Code (chapter 1) with respect to each qualified commercial clean vehicle placed in service by the taxpayer during the taxable year (section 45W credit). The section 45W credit is effective for vehicles placed in service after December 31, 2022. The section 45W credit is one of three related clean vehicle credits enacted under or revised by the IRA. Section 25E provides a credit for previously-owned clean vehicles. Section 30D provides a credit for new clean vehicles.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">II. Section 45W</HD>
                    <P>Section 45W(a) provides that, for purposes of section 38, the qualified commercial clean vehicle credit for any taxable year is an amount equal to the sum of the credit amounts determined under section 45W(b) with respect to each qualified commercial clean vehicle placed in service by the taxpayer during the taxable year. The amount of the section 45W credit is treated as a general business credit. Section 38(b)(37) lists as a current year business credit the qualified commercial clean vehicle credit determined under section 45W.</P>
                    <P>Section 45W(b)(1) provides that, subject to the limitation in section 45W(b)(4), the amount of the section 45W credit is the lesser of: (A) 15 percent of the taxpayer's basis in the vehicle (30 percent in the case of a vehicle not powered by a gasoline or diesel internal combustion engine (ICE)), or (B) the incremental cost of the vehicle.</P>
                    <P>Section 45W(b)(2) provides that the incremental cost of any qualified commercial clean vehicle is an amount equal to the excess of the purchase price for such vehicle over the purchase price of a comparable vehicle. Section 45W(b)(3) defines “comparable vehicle” to mean, with respect to any qualified commercial clean vehicle, any vehicle that is powered solely by a gasoline or diesel ICE and is comparable in size and use to such vehicle.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 45W(b)(4) provides that the section 45W credit amount determined under section 45W(b) with respect to any qualified commercial clean vehicle 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3507"/>
                        cannot exceed: (A) in the case of a vehicle that has a gross vehicle weight rating of less than 14,000 pounds, $7,500; and (B) in the case of a vehicle not described in section 45W(b)(4)(A), $40,000.
                    </P>
                    <P>Section 45W(c) defines “qualified commercial clean vehicle” for purposes of the section 45W credit as any vehicle which: (1) meets the requirements of section 30D(d)(1)(C) of the Code, and is acquired for use or lease by the taxpayer and not for resale; (2) either meets the requirements of section 30D(d)(1)(D), and is manufactured primarily for use on public streets, roads, and highways (not including a vehicle operated exclusively on a rail or rails), or is mobile machinery, as defined in section 4053(8) of the Code (including vehicles that are not designed to perform a function of transporting a load over the public highways); (3) either is propelled to a significant extent by an electric motor which draws electricity from a battery that has a capacity of not less than 15 kilowatt hours (or, in the case of a vehicle that has a gross vehicle weight rating of less than 14,000 pounds, 7 kilowatt hours) and is capable of being recharged from an external source of electricity, or is a motor vehicle that satisfies the requirements under section 30B(b)(3)(A) and (B) of the Code; and (4) is of a character subject to the allowance for depreciation.</P>
                    <P>Section 45W(d) establishes special rules for purposes of the section 45W credit. Section 45W(d)(1) provides that rules similar to the rules of section 30D(f)(1) through (9) apply to section 45W. Section 45W(d)(2) provides that section 45W(c)(4) does not apply to any vehicle that is not subject to a lease and which is placed in service by a tax-exempt entity described in section 168(h)(2)(A)(i), (ii), or (iv) of the Code. Section 45W(d)(3) provides that no section 45W credit is allowed with respect to any vehicle for which a credit was allowed under section 30D.</P>
                    <P>Section 45W(e) provides that no section 45W credit is allowed with respect to any vehicle unless the taxpayer includes the vehicle identification number of such vehicle on the return of tax for the taxable year.</P>
                    <P>Section 45W(f) grants the Secretary authority to issue regulations or other guidance to carry out the purposes of section 45W, including regulations or other guidance relating to the determination of the incremental cost of any qualified commercial clean vehicle.</P>
                    <P>Section 45W(g) provides that no section 45W credit is allowed with respect to a vehicle acquired after December 31, 2032.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">III. Section 25E</HD>
                    <P>Section 13402 of the IRA added section 25E to the Code. The credit under section 25E (section 25E credit) is a personal credit allowable under subpart A of the Code that relates to previously-owned clean vehicles.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">IV. Section 30D</HD>
                    <P>Section 30D was originally enacted by section 205(a) of the Energy Improvement and Extension Act of 2008, Division B of Public Law 110-343, 122 Stat. 3765, 3835 (October 3, 2008), to provide a credit for the purchase and placing in service of new qualified plug-in electric drive motor vehicles (section 30D credit). Section 30D was amended several times since its enactment, most recently by section 13401 of the IRA. Section 30D, as amended by the IRA, relates to new clean vehicles.</P>
                    <P>The section 30D credit may be treated as either a personal credit or a general business credit, depending on whether the vehicle is used for personal use or is of a character subject to the allowance for depreciation.</P>
                    <P>Section 30D(d)(1) defines “new clean vehicle” as a motor vehicle that satisfies eight requirements set forth in section 30D(d)(1)(A) through (H). As relevant to section 45W and these proposed regulations, section 30D(d)(1)(C) provides that the vehicle must be made by a qualified manufacturer, and section 30D(d)(1)(D) provides that the vehicle must be treated as a motor vehicle for purposes of title II of the Clean Air Act (CAA).</P>
                    <P>Section 30D(d)(3) defines “qualified manufacturer” as any manufacturer (within the meaning of the regulations prescribed by the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for purposes of the administration of title II of the CAA (42 U.S.C. 7521-7590)) that enters into a written agreement with the Secretary under which such manufacturer agrees to make periodic written reports to the Secretary (at such times and in such manner as the Secretary may provide) providing vehicle identification numbers and such other information related to each vehicle manufactured by such manufacturer as the Secretary may require.</P>
                    <P>Section 30D(f)(1)-(9) provides special rules for purposes of section 30D that are relevant to section 45W by virtue of the cross-reference in section 45W(d)(1). Section 30D(f)(1) provides that the basis of any property for which a credit is allowable under section 30D(a) is reduced by the amount of such credit so allowed (determined without regard to section 30D(c)).</P>
                    <P>Section 30D(f)(2) provides that the amount of any deduction or other credit allowable under chapter 1 for a vehicle for which a credit is allowable under section 30D(a) is reduced by the amount of credit allowed under section 30D(a) for such vehicle (determined without regard to section 30D(c)).</P>
                    <P>Section 30D(f)(3) provides that in the case of a vehicle the use of which is described in section 50(b)(3) or (4) of the Code (generally, use by tax-exempt organizations, the United States, a government entity, or foreign person or entities) and that is not subject to a lease, the person who sold such vehicle to the person or entity using such vehicle is treated as the taxpayer that placed such vehicle in service, but only if such person clearly discloses to such person or entity in a document the amount of any credit allowable under section 30D(a) with respect to such vehicle (determined without regard to section 30D(c)). Section 30D(f)(3) was repealed for vehicles placed in service after December 31, 2023.</P>
                    <P>Section 30D(f)(4) provides that no section 30D credit is allowable with respect to any property referred to in section 50(b)(1) (generally, property used predominantly outside of the United States).</P>
                    <P>Section 30D(f)(5) authorizes the Secretary to promulgate regulations providing for the recapture of the benefit of any section 30D credit allowable with respect to any property which ceases to be property eligible for such credit.</P>
                    <P>Section 30D(f)(6) provides that no section 30D credit is allowed for any vehicle if the taxpayer elects to not have section 30D apply to such vehicle.</P>
                    <P>Section 30D(f)(7) provides that a vehicle is not considered eligible for a section 30D credit unless such vehicle is in compliance with: (A) the applicable provisions of the CAA for the applicable make and model year of the vehicle (or applicable air quality provisions of State law in the case of a State which has adopted such provisions under a waiver under section 209(b) of the CAA), and (B) the motor vehicle safety provisions of 49 U.S.C. 30101 through 30169.</P>
                    <P>Section 30D(f)(8) provides that in the case of any vehicle, the credit described in section 30D(a) is only allowed once with respect to such vehicle, as determined based upon the vehicle identification number of such vehicle, including any vehicle with respect to which the taxpayer elects the application of section 30D(g).</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 30D(f)(9) provides that no section 30D credit is allowed with respect to any vehicle unless the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3508"/>
                        taxpayer includes the vehicle identification number of such vehicle on the return of tax for the taxable year.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">V. Section 6417</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 6417 of the Code allows an applicable entity (as defined in section 6417(d)(1)(A)) to make an election with respect to an applicable credit (as defined in section 6417(b)) to be treated as making a payment against the tax imposed by subtitle A of the Code (related to income taxes) for the taxable year equal to the amount of such credit. Under section 6417(b)(6), in the case of a tax-exempt entity described in section 168(h)(2)(A)(i), (ii), or (iv), the term “applicable credit” includes the section 45W credit determined under section 45W by reason of section 45W(d)(2).
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             The reference in section 6417(b)(6) to section 45W(d)(3) was intended to be a reference to section 45W(d)(2). See General Explanation of Tax Legislation Enacted in the 117th Congress, JCS-1-23 (December 21, 2023) at 282. Thus, the proposed regulations refer to section 45W(d)(2). See also TD 9988, 89 FR 17546, at 17546 n.1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">VI. Prior Guidance</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Notice 2022-56</HD>
                    <P>On November 3, 2022, the Treasury Department and the IRS published Notice 2022-56, 2022-47 I.R.B. 480, seeking comments regarding sections 45W and 30C of the Code. The notice requested general comments on issues arising under section 45W, as well as specific comments concerning: (1) factors to determine “comparable in size and use” for purposes of the comparable vehicle definition in section 45W(b)(3) used to determine incremental cost; (2) the definition of mobile machinery; (3) the application of “rules similar to the rules under section 30D(f)” to section 45W; (4) the “no double benefit” rule in section 45W(d)(3); (5) compliance considerations for qualified manufacturers; (6) the definition of “significant extent” for purposes of section 45W(c)(3)(A); (7) the term “property of a character subject to an allowance for depreciation” for purposes of section 45W(c)(4); and (8) other terms in section 45W that require definition or additional guidance.</P>
                    <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS received over 130 comments on Notice 2022-56. These comments were carefully considered in the preparation of these proposed regulations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Revenue Procedures</HD>
                    <P>On December 27, 2022, the Treasury Department and the IRS published Revenue Procedure 2022-42, 2022-52 I.R.B. 565. Among other things, Rev. Proc. 2022-42 provided guidance for qualified manufacturers to enter into written agreements with the IRS, as required in sections 30D, 25E, and 45W, and to report certain information regarding vehicles produced by such manufacturers that may be eligible for credits under these sections.</P>
                    <P>On October 23, 2023, the Treasury Department and the IRS published Revenue Procedure 2023-33, 2023-43 I.R.B. 1135. Among other things, Rev. Proc. 2023-33 superseded certain provisions of Rev. Proc. 2022-42, and provided updated information on the submission of written agreements by manufacturers to the IRS in order to be considered qualified manufacturers, as well as updated information on the method of submission of monthly reports by qualified manufacturers.</P>
                    <P>On December 18, 2023, the Treasury Department and the IRS published Revenue Procedure 2023-38, 2023-51 I.R.B. 1544. Among other things, Rev. Proc. 2023-38 updated and consolidated the procedural rules for qualified manufacturers with respect to the section 25E credit, the section 30D credit, and the section 45W credit, and superseded certain provisions of Rev. Proc. 2022-42 and Rev. Proc. 2023-33.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Safe Harbor Notices</HD>
                    <P>On January 17, 2023, the Treasury Department and the IRS published Notice 2023-9, 2023-3 I.R.B. 402, which provides a safe harbor for purposes of the section 45W credit regarding the incremental cost of certain qualified commercial clean vehicles placed in service in calendar year 2023, based on a December 2022 incremental cost analysis by the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) across classes of street vehicles (DOE analysis).</P>
                    <P>On January 8, 2024, the Treasury Department and the IRS published Notice 2024-5, 2024-2 I.R.B. 347, which provides a safe harbor for the purposes of the section 45W credit regarding the incremental cost of certain qualified commercial clean vehicles placed in service in calendar year 2024. The safe harbor for 2024 is based on the DOE analysis, as amended by the DOE in December 2023 to incorporate minor modifications that did not alter the incremental cost results. Notice 2024-5 also requested comments regarding additional types or classes of vehicles that should be included in the safe harbor in the future. The Treasury Department and the IRS received comments in response to the Notice. These comments were carefully considered in the preparation of these proposed regulations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">D. Final Regulations Under Sections 25E, 30D, and 6213</HD>
                    <P>
                        On May 6, 2024, the Treasury Department and the IRS published final regulations (TD 9995) in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         (89 FR 37706) providing rules and definitions for the section 25E credit and the section 30D credit. In addition, the final regulations provide guidance under section 6213(g)(2)(T) through (V) of the Code on the meaning of “mathematical or clerical error” with regard to certain assessments of tax without a notice of deficiency in connection with the section 25E credit, the section 30D credit, and the section 45W credit.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Explanation of Provisions</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Overview</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-1 would provide definitions applicable to section 45W and the section 45W regulations. Proposed § 1.45W-2 would provide rules for determining the amount of the section 45W credit, including the determination of incremental cost for qualified commercial clean vehicles. Proposed § 1.45W-3 would provide rules related to a vehicle's qualification as a qualified commercial clean vehicle. Proposed § 1.45W-4 would provide special rules relating to the credit eligibility of a vehicle involved in certain transactions and uses, the interaction of the section 45W credit with other credits, and recapture of the section 45W credit. Proposed § 1.45W-5 would provide reporting requirements for purposes of the section 45W credit.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">II. Credit for Qualified Commercial Clean Vehicles; Definitions</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-1 would provide definitions applicable to section 45W and the section 45W regulations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Battery</HD>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1.45W-1(b)(1) would define the term “battery” to mean a collection of one or more battery modules, each of which has two or more battery cells, electrically configured in series or parallel, to create voltage or current. The term “battery” does not include items such as thermal management systems or other parts of a battery cell or module that do not directly contribute to the electrochemical storage of energy within the battery, such as battery cell cases, cans, or pouches. This definition is consistent with section 45W(c)(3)(A) because battery modules and cells are the sources from which an electric motor draws electricity. The definition is also consistent with the definition of battery in § 1.30D-2(b)(5).
                        <PRTPAGE P="3509"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Battery Electric Vehicle</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-1(b)(2) would define the term “battery electric vehicle” (BEV) as a vehicle propelled solely by an electric motor that draws electricity from batteries capable of being recharged from an external source of electricity. This definition is consistent with section 45W(c)(3)(A), which requires, in part, that a qualified commercial clean vehicle be propelled to a significant extent by an electric motor that draws electricity from a battery.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-1(b)(3) would define “fuel cell electric vehicle” (FCEV) as a vehicle (i) that is propelled by power derived from one or more cells that convert chemical energy directly into electricity by combining oxygen with hydrogen fuel which is stored on board the vehicle in any form and may or may not require reformation prior to use, and (ii) that, in the case of a light duty vehicle (that is, a passenger automobile or light truck), has received on or after August 8, 2005 (the date of the enactment of section 30B), a certificate that such vehicle meets or exceeds the Bin 5 Tier II emission level established in regulations prescribed by the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) under section 202(i) of the CAA for that make and model year vehicle. This definition repeats the substance of section 30B(b)(3)(A) and (B) and adds the enactment date of section 30B (August 8, 2005) to implement section 45W(c)(3)(B), which incorporates the requirements of section 30B(b)(3)(A) and (B).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">D. Gross Vehicle Weight Rating</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-1(b)(4) would define “gross vehicle weight rating” (GVWR) as having the meaning provided in 49 CFR 571.3(b) and 40 CFR 86.082-2. The Department of Transportation (DOT) definition of GVWR in 49 CFR 571.3(b) (providing definitions related to Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards) is substantially identical to the EPA definition of GVWR in 40 CFR 86.082-2 (related to the control of emissions from highway vehicles and engines). Because “gross vehicle weight rating” is a term of art embedded in the regulatory regimes of two other Federal agencies, proposed § 1.45W-1(b)(4) would provide a definition consistent with existing DOT and EPA regulations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">E. Manufacturer</HD>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1.45W-1(b)(5)(i) would define “manufacturer” as any manufacturer within the meaning of the regulations prescribed by the Administrator of the EPA for purposes of the administration of title II of the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7521 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) and as defined in 42 U.S.C. 7550(1). This definition would repeat the substance of the definition of “manufacturer” within section 30D(d)(3)'s definition of “qualified manufacturer,” which is incorporated by section 45W(c)(1). Consistent with the definition of “manufacturer” provided in § 1.30D-2(b)(28), proposed § 1.45W-1(b)(5)(i) would provide that, if multiple manufacturers are involved in the production of a vehicle, the requirements of section 30D(d)(3) must be met by the manufacturer that satisfies the reporting requirements of the greenhouse gas emissions standards set by the EPA under the Clean Air Act (42 U.S.C. 7521 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) for the subject vehicle.
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition, the proposed rules would move the existing rule regarding the modification of a new motor vehicle that has not yet been placed in service from § 1.30D-2(b)(28)(ii)(B) to § 1.45W-1(b)(5)(ii) so that all rules related to the section 45W credit would be included in the section 45W regulations. This rule allows a manufacturer that modifies a new motor vehicle (as defined in 42 U.S.C. 7550(3)) that does not satisfy the requirements of section 45W(c)(3) so that the vehicle, after modification, does satisfy such requirements to enter into an agreement under section 30D(d)(3) if such modification occurs prior to the new motor vehicle being placed in service.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">F. Placed in Service</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under proposed § 1.45W-1(b)(6), a qualified commercial clean vehicle would be considered “placed in service” on the date the taxpayer takes possession of the vehicle. This proposed definition is consistent with the definition provided in § 1.30D-2(b)(36) and § 1.25E-1(b)(10), which gives effect, in the specific context of vehicles, to the general concept of “placed in service” from other Code provisions addressing credits and depreciation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         § 1.46-3(d)(1)(ii) and (d)(4)(i) (for qualified investments, property is considered placed in service in the earlier of the period for depreciation with respect to such property begins or when placed in a condition or state of readiness and availability for a specifically assigned function); § 1.167(a)-11(e)(1)(i) (for purposes of depreciation, property is first placed in service when first placed in a condition or state of readiness and availability for a specifically assigned function); and § 1.179-4(e) (property is considered placed in service when placed in a condition or state of readiness and availability for a specifically assigned function); 
                        <E T="03">see also Consumers Power Co.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Comm'r,</E>
                         89 T.C. 710 (1987) (citing §§ 1.46-3(d)(1)(ii) and 1.167(a)-11(e)(1)(i), hydroelectric plant placed in service for purposes of depreciation and investment credit when all phases of preoperational testing were completed, thereby demonstrating that the plant was available for service on a regular basis); 
                        <E T="03">Noell</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Comm'r,</E>
                         66 T.C. 718, 728-729 (1976) (citing § 1.46-3(d)(1)(ii), landing strip placed in service for purposes of investment credit when strip was paved and therefore available for full service). The proposed definition is also consistent with regulations issued under Code sections addressing the excise tax on heavy trucks and trailers, 26 CFR 145.4051-1(c)(2) of the Temporary Excise Tax Regulations under the Highway Revenue Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-424) (“a vehicle shall be considered placed in service on the date on which the owner of the vehicle took actual possession of the vehicle”).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">G. Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicle</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-1(b)(7) would define “plug-in hybrid electric vehicle” (PHEV) as a vehicle that uses batteries that can be recharged from an external source of electricity to power an electric motor that propels the vehicle to a significant extent, and another fuel, such as gasoline or diesel, to power an ICE or other propulsion source. This definition is consistent with section 45W(c)(3)(A), which requires, in part, a vehicle propelled by an electric motor that draws electricity from a battery, and with section 45W(b)(1)(A), which contemplates differing basis percentages for purposes of calculating the amount of the section 45W credit depending on whether a vehicle is powered in part by a gasoline or diesel ICE.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">H. Plug-in Hybrid Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle</HD>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1.45W-1(b)(8) would define “plug-in hybrid fuel cell electric vehicle” (PHFCEV) as a vehicle that uses batteries that can be recharged from an external source of electricity to power an electric motor that propels the vehicle to a significant extent and a hydrogen fuel source that powers an electric motor through the fuel cell system. This definition is consistent with section 45W(c)(3)(A), which requires, in part, a vehicle propelled by an electric motor that draws electricity from a battery.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3510"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">I. Qualified Commercial Clean Vehicle</HD>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1.45W-1(b)(9) would define “qualified commercial clean vehicle” to mean a vehicle that meets the requirements of section 45W(c) and § 1.45W-3(b) through (d). Because section 30D(d)(1)(C), incorporated by section 45W(c)(1), requires a qualified commercial clean vehicle to be made by a qualified manufacturer, proposed § 1.45W-1(b)(9)(i), (ii), and (iii) would add that a vehicle does not meet the requirements of section 45W(c) if the qualified manufacturer fails to provide a periodic written report for such vehicle prior to the vehicle being placed in service by the taxpayer claiming the credit reporting the vehicle identification number of such vehicle, and certifying compliance with the requirements of section 45W(c); if the qualified manufacturer provides incorrect information with respect to the vehicle on such report; or if the qualified manufacturer fails to update its report in the event of a material change with respect to the vehicle. These proposed rules are consistent with those that apply to qualified manufacturers in the context of other clean vehicle credits. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         § 1.30D-2(b)(32).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">J. Qualified Manufacturer</HD>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1.45W-1(b)(10) would define “qualified manufacturer,” consistent with § 1.30D-2(b)(42), to mean a manufacturer that meets the requirements described in section 30D(d)(3) at the time the manufacturer submits a periodic written report to the IRS under a written agreement described in section 30D(d)(3). The term “qualified manufacturer” would not, under the proposed rule, include any manufacturer whose qualified manufacturer status has been terminated by the IRS. Proposed § 1.45W-1(b)(10) would further provide that the IRS may terminate qualified manufacturer status for fraud, intentional disregard, or gross negligence with respect to any requirements of sections 25E, 30D, 45W, regulations or any guidance thereunder, including with respect to the periodic written reports described in section 30D(d)(3). 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         § 601.601 of the Statement of Procedural Rules (26 CFR part 1).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">K. Secretary</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-1(b)(11) would provide that the term “Secretary” has the meaning provided in section 7701(a)(11)(B) of the Code.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">L. Section 45W Regulations</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-1(b)(12) would define the term “section 45W regulations” to mean §§ 1.45W-1 through 1.45W-5.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">III. Amount of Section 45W Credit; Incremental Cost</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-2 would provide rules for determining the amount of the section 45W credit, including the determination of incremental cost for qualified commercial clean vehicles.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Per-Vehicle Credit Amount</HD>
                    <P>Section 45W(b)(1) provides that, subject to section 45W(b)(4), the amount of the section 45W credit for a qualified commercial clean vehicle placed in service during the taxable year is equal to the lesser of: (1) 15 percent of the basis in such vehicle, or 30 percent in the case of a vehicle not powered by a gasoline or diesel ICE; or (2) the incremental cost of such vehicle (as that phrase is defined in section 45W(b)(2)). Section 45W(b)(4) limits the amount of the section 45W credit with respect to any qualified commercial clean vehicle to $7,500 in the case of a vehicle that has a GVWR of less than 14,000 pounds, and $40,000 in the case of any other vehicle.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-2(a) would therefore provide that, subject to the limitation in section 45W(b)(4), the per-vehicle credit amount under section 45W(b)(1) with respect to any qualified commercial clean vehicle is the lesser of 15 percent of the basis of such vehicle (or 30 percent in the case of a vehicle not powered by a gasoline or diesel ICE), or the incremental cost of such vehicle.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Incremental Cost of a Qualified Commercial Clean Vehicle</HD>
                    <P>Section 45W(b)(2) provides that the incremental cost of any qualified commercial clean vehicle is an amount equal to the excess of the purchase price for such vehicle over such price of a comparable vehicle. Section 45W(b)(3) defines a comparable vehicle, with respect to any qualified commercial clean vehicle, as a vehicle powered solely by a gasoline or diesel ICE that is comparable in size and use to such vehicle.</P>
                    <P>Section 45W incentivizes taxpayers to purchase vehicles with certain clean propulsion technologies instead of vehicles powered solely by a gasoline or diesel ICE. Any cost comparison between such vehicles and their ICE alternatives, no matter how precisely defined, would inevitably reflect cost differences beyond those associated with the propulsion technologies (for example, a custom body would likely create a cost difference between two otherwise similar vehicles). If such cost differences were reflected in the amount of the credit, the credit could incentivize adoption of vehicle features unrelated to the purposes of section 45W.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-2(b) would therefore provide that incremental cost is determined by multiplying the manufacturer's cost of the components necessary for the powertrain of the qualified commercial clean vehicle by the retail price equivalent (RPE) of that vehicle, and then subtracting from that amount the product of the manufacturer's cost of the powertrain of the comparable vehicle and the RPE of that vehicle. Expressed formulaically, the rule is as follows:</P>
                    <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Incremental cost = (cost of qualified commercial clean vehicle powertrain × RPE of qualified commercial clean vehicle)−(cost of comparable vehicle powertrain × RPE of comparable vehicle)</FP>
                    <P>
                        This approach attempts to eliminate, to the extent possible, any cost differences unrelated to the propulsion technologies of the vehicles (
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         also the discussion of “comparable vehicle” in section III.D of this Explanation of Provisions). Application of an RPE (
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         section III.C of this Explanation of Provisions) adjusts the manufacturer's cost of a powertrain to reflect the taxpayer's cost with respect to that powertrain. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section III of this Explanation of Provisions for a discussion of the ways in which a taxpayer might ascertain manufacturer's costs.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS, in consultation with the DOE, are proposing an incremental cost equation based on the incremental cost of the powertrain because the powertrain is a large fraction of the incremental cost between a clean vehicle and a comparable vehicle and because there is robust data available to verify the difference in costs between vehicles. This incremental cost equation is consistent with current modeling done by the DOE regarding the costs of clean vehicles compared to ICE vehicles. As modeling techniques, data capabilities, and vehicle design evolve, the Treasury Department and the IRS will continue to study this approach.</P>
                    <P>
                        To implement this approach in the context of the range of propulsion technologies and configurations contemplated by the statute (that is, BEVs, FCEVs, PHEVs, and PHFCEVs), the Treasury Department and the IRS, in consultation with the DOE, developed specific equations and associated definitions for BEVs, FCEVs, PHEVs, and PHFCEVs that would be provided 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3511"/>
                        in proposed § 1.45W-2(c)(2) through (5) and (d). These equations would be powertrain-specific versions of the general equation described in proposed § 1.45W-2(b) and would specify the cost of the components that, with respect to each type of powertrain, comprise the powertrain cost. For example, the cost of a BEV powertrain would, under the rule provided in § 1.45W-2(c)(2), be equal to the sum of the costs of the electric traction drive system, the battery, and the electrical accessories, each a term defined in § 1.45W-2(d)(1) through (3). These equations and rules provided in proposed § 1.45W-2(c)(2) through (5), which address the cost of BEV, PHEV, FCEV, and PHFCEV powertrains and the cost of ICE powertrains of comparable vehicles, are consistent with the incremental cost provisions of section 45W(b)(2) and (3). The Treasury Department and the IRS welcome comments on these proposed incremental cost equations and rules. In particular, comments are requested on whether other vehicle equipment or aspects of a vehicle's design should be included in the incremental cost equations. Any recommended additions, however, must be supportable by robust, verifiable quantitative data.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Retail Price Equivalent and Safe Harbor</HD>
                    <P>Because section 45W(b)(2) defines incremental cost in terms of purchase price rather than manufacturer's cost, an RPE is necessary to adjust a manufacturer's cost of a qualified commercial clean vehicle powertrain and an ICE powertrain to reflect a taxpayer's purchase price of such powertrains. RPEs vary from vehicle to vehicle, manufacturer to manufacturer, and across different segments of the market (that is, a reasonable RPE for a lightweight vehicle may differ from a reasonable RPE for medium or a heavy-duty vehicle). Consistent with this understanding, proposed § 1.45W-2(b)(1) would allow taxpayers to calculate the incremental cost of a qualified commercial clean vehicle using the RPE applicable to such vehicle.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-2(b)(3)(i) would provide that a qualified commercial clean vehicle's RPE is determined by calculating the ratio of the manufacturer's suggested retail price (MSRP) of such vehicle to the manufacturer's cost to manufacture such vehicle. Proposed § 1.45W-2(b)(3)(i) through (iii) would further provide that the MSRP represents the sum of the retail price and the retail delivered price suggested by the manufacturer for each accessory or item of optional equipment which is not included within the retail price as reported on the label that is affixed to the windshield or side window of the vehicle, as described in 15 U.S.C. 1232. Because RPE represents the ratio of the MSRP of the vehicle to the manufacturer's cost, it is understood, for purposes of the incremental cost determination required by section 45W and proposed § 1.45W-2(b)(3), to represent that ratio with respect to every component of the vehicle, including those that comprise the vehicle's powertrain.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Treasury Department and the IRS understand that providing the precise RPE for a vehicle may involve the effective disclosure of proprietary information. For this reason, the Treasury Department and the IRS, in consultation with the DOE, intend to provide RPE safe harbors for different segments of the vehicle market in the near term. Taxpayers are advised to check 
                        <E T="03">www.irs.gov</E>
                         for updates. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section VI.C of the Background section of this preamble.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">D. Comparable Vehicle</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 45W(b)(3) provides that, for purposes of determining incremental cost, the term “comparable vehicle” means, with respect to any qualified commercial clean vehicle, any vehicle that is powered solely by a gasoline or diesel ICE and that is comparable in size and use to such vehicle. To clarify the meaning of “size and use,” proposed § 1.45W-2(b)(4) would provide that a vehicle powered solely by a gasoline or diesel ICE is comparable in size and use to a qualified commercial clean vehicle if the vehicles have substantially similar GVWRs, number of doors, towing capacity, passenger capacity, cargo capacity, mounted equipment, drivetrain type, overall width, height and ground clearance, trim level, and so on. The Treasury Department and the IRS intend this list to be representative of the types of criteria under which the comparability of two vehicles would be assessed. This list also distinguishes such criteria from the mere performance characteristics of powertrains (which, if used as a sole basis for comparison, could result in a negative incremental cost and therefore a section 45W credit of $0). In other words, a solely gasoline- or diesel-powered ICE vehicle is not necessarily comparable to a qualified commercial clean vehicle simply because the performance characteristics of the powertrains are identical. Rather, a comparable vehicle must be in the same class and share other characteristics, as appropriate to the vehicle, such as number of doors, cargo capacity, drivetrain type, and trim level. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         the example provided in § 1.45W-2(b)(4)(iv).
                    </P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-2(b)(4)(ii) would provide that, in the specific circumstance where the qualified manufacturer of a qualified commercial clean vehicle manufactures a solely gasoline- or diesel-powered ICE version (excluding prototype or other non-production versions) of such qualified commercial clean vehicle, meaning a vehicle of the same model and model year, and with features substantially similar to those of the qualified commercial clean vehicle (such as those noted in the prior paragraph), such vehicle is the only comparable vehicle for purposes of the incremental cost determination under section 45W(b)(1)(B) and (2). In circumstances in which a qualified manufacturer of a qualified commercial clean vehicle does not manufacture a solely gasoline- or diesel-powered ICE version of such qualified commercial clean vehicle that is of the same model and model year, and with features substantially similar to those of the qualified commercial clean vehicle, the comparable vehicle for purposes of the incremental cost determination under section 45W(b)(1)(B) and (2) would be determined by the taxpayer (or manufacturer) based on the criteria identified in the prior paragraph.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">E. Negative Incremental Cost Treated as Zero</HD>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1.45W-2(c)(8) would treat an incremental cost calculation that results in a negative figure (meaning the qualified manufacturer's cost of the qualified commercial clean vehicle's powertrain is less than the manufacturer's cost of the ICE powertrain of a comparable vehicle) as zero. Because zero would in every case be the lesser of the allowable basis percentage, as provided in section 45W(b)(1), no credit would be allowed with respect to such vehicle. This rule is consistent with the “lesser of” comparison required by section 45W(b)(1) and the general purpose of section 45W to incentivize the purchase of vehicles with certain clean propulsion technologies instead of ICE alternatives. The fact that a taxpayer's calculation of incremental cost under the general rule is zero for a particular qualified commercial clean vehicle would not preclude that taxpayer from using a safe harbor described in proposed § 1.45W-2(c)(11) to determine incremental cost in order to claim the section 45W credit with respect to that vehicle.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3512"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">F. Incremental Cost if No Comparable Vehicle Exists</HD>
                    <P>If the particular characteristics of a qualified commercial clean vehicle lead a taxpayer to conclude that no comparable vehicle exists and, as a result, no incremental cost is calculable for that vehicle, proposed § 1.45W-2(c)(9) would provide that the incremental cost of such vehicle is zero. However, consistent with the proposed rule described in the preceding paragraph, the fact that the incremental cost under the general rule is zero for a particular qualified commercial clean vehicle does not preclude that taxpayer from using a safe harbor described in proposed § 1.45W-2(c)(11) to determine incremental cost in order to claim the section 45W credit with respect to that vehicle. This proposed rule would apply only to situations in which no ICE vehicle alternative is produced by any manufacturer, for example, because the intended operating environment precludes the use of ICE vehicles. At this time, the Treasury Department and the IRS, in consultation with the DOE, have not identified any qualified commercial clean vehicles for which no comparable vehicle exists. For these reasons, proposed § 1.45W-2(c)(9) is expected to be relevant only in rare instances. The Treasury Department and the IRS note that proposed § 1.45W-2(c)(9) aligns with one purpose of section 45W—to incentivize the adoption of electric, hybrid, and fuel cell vehicles instead of ICE alternatives.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">G. Power Takeoffs</HD>
                    <P>Some vehicles eligible for the section 45W credit may use power takeoffs to transmit power to drive machinery or equipment other than the vehicle itself.</P>
                    <P>In the case of a BEV or hybrid vehicle, the use of power takeoffs might necessitate additional batteries; in the case of an FCEV, the use of power takeoffs might necessitate additional fuel cells or additional hydrogen storage. This situation, however, appears indistinguishable from a situation in which a BEV or hybrid vehicle might be equipped with additional batteries for other reasons (for example, extended range), or a situation in which an FCEV might be equipped with additional fuel cells for other reasons. Even if this were not the case, determining, at the time the taxpayer claims the credit, the relative extent to which the batteries in any given qualified commercial clean vehicle might be employed to power the vehicle and the ancillary machinery would present significant challenges. As a result, proposed § 1.45W-2(c)(7) would provide that the incremental cost calculation for a qualified commercial clean vehicle with a power takeoff would be carried out in the same manner as the incremental cost calculation for a qualified commercial clean vehicle without a power takeoff. Specifically, an appropriate comparable vehicle would be selected (likely a vehicle with the same type of takeoff-powered machinery or equipment or machinery) and the manufacturer's cost of the ICE powertrain would be subtracted from the qualified manufacturer's cost of the BEV, FCEV, PHEV, or PHFCEV powertrain (inclusive of any additional batteries, fuel cells, or hydrogen storage).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">H. Auxiliary Power Units</HD>
                    <P>
                        Some vehicles eligible for the section 45W credit may use auxiliary power units (APUs) to drive machinery or equipment that is mounted or installed on the vehicle; such APUs are not necessarily electric, hybrid, or fuel cell based. Proposed § 1.45W-2(c)(6) would clarify that the incremental cost of qualified commercial clean vehicles outfitted with APUs is calculated exclusive of the installed APUs. For example, the comparable vehicle for a BEV outfitted with an APU to drive an aerial lift may be an ICE truck outfitted with an APU to drive an aerial lift (
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         discussion of comparable vehicles in section III.D of this Explanation of Provisions), but the manufacturer's cost of the APU is disregarded in the incremental cost equation for both the BEV and the ICE vehicles. Similarly, to calculate the incremental cost of a FCEV with an installed APU that powers the refrigeration unit, the appropriate comparable vehicle may be an ICE refrigerator truck, but the manufacturer's cost of the APU is disregarded for both vehicles.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">I. Reliance on Qualified Manufacturer's Incremental Cost Calculation and Safe Harbor</HD>
                    <P>
                        Information regarding a qualified manufacturer's cost for the components of a qualified commercial clean vehicle powertrain may not be readily available to taxpayers. If a qualified manufacturer discloses this information to a taxpayer to facilitate the taxpayer's calculation of incremental cost, or if the qualified manufacturer discloses its incremental cost calculation for a qualified commercial clean vehicle it manufactures as provided in section 45W and these regulations, proposed § 1.45W-2(c)(10) would permit taxpayers to rely on such disclosure. Taxpayers would, however, be required to retain the disclosure documentation in their records as long as the period of limitations for the taxable period in which the credit was claimed remains open. A qualified manufacturer that discloses its incremental cost calculation for a qualified commercial clean vehicle it manufactures must base such incremental cost calculation on actual cost data for both the qualified commercial clean vehicle and the comparable vehicle. Similarly, a taxpayer that calculates incremental cost by using cost data for the qualified commercial clean vehicle provided by the qualified manufacturer must use actual cost data for the comparable vehicle for such calculation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         the definition of “qualified manufacturer” provided in proposed § 1.45W-1(b)(10) and discussed in section II.J of this Explanation of Provisions for the potential consequences of qualified manufacturer fraud, intentional disregard, and gross negligence with respect to the requirements of section 45W, the section 45W regulations, and any guidance issued under section 45W.
                    </P>
                    <P>Alternatively, taxpayers may rely on the incremental cost safe harbors published in Notice 2023-9 and Notice 2024-5, and any succeeding guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin, as applicable, for the taxable year in which a credit is claimed. These incremental cost safe harbors are based on the incremental cost analysis conducted by the DOE, as described in periodic reports published by the DOE.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">J. Powertrain Subcomponents</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Treasury Department and the IRS, in consultation with the DOE, developed proposed § 1.45W-2(d)(1) through (9) to provide definitions and clarify the typical subcomponents of a BEV, FCEV, PHEV, PHFCEV, and ICE powertrain for purposes of determining a qualified commercial clean vehicle's incremental cost under section 45W(b)(2) and (3) and § 1.45W-2(c). Recognizing that different vehicles may implement different technologies, system configurations, and design decisions, the subcomponents listed in the definitions in § 1.45W-2(d)(1) through (9) are not intended to prescribe required subcomponents or to be an exhaustive list of those that may be appropriate to consider for purposes of determining the incremental cost of a given vehicle. For example, the qualified manufacturer's cost of a BEV powertrain must reflect the qualified manufacturer's cost of the electric traction drive system, battery, transmission, and electrical accessories, but each of those components are comprised of subcomponents that may vary among vehicles.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3513"/>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">K. Incremental Cost of Qualified Commercial Clean Vehicle Previously Placed in Service by Another Person</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-2(f)(1) would provide that the incremental cost of a qualified commercial clean vehicle previously placed in service by another person is calculated by multiplying the incremental cost of such vehicle when new by a residual value factor determined by the age of the vehicle. Proposed § 1.45W-2(f)(2) would provide that the age of such a vehicle is determined by subtracting the model year of the vehicle from the calendar year in which the taxpayer places the vehicle in service as a qualified commercial clean vehicle. Because model years are, in some cases, released ahead of calendar years, and because it is possible for a single vehicle to be sold more than once within a twelve-month period, an age of zero (or a negative number in the case of a vehicle placed in service twice before the calendar year corresponding to its model year) does not result in an incremental cost of a used qualified commercial clean vehicle equal to that of the vehicle when new.</P>
                    <P>
                        The residual value factor table in proposed § 1.45W-2(f)(3) reflects an analysis conducted by the DOE with respect to the decline in the value of vehicles with ICE powertrains over time. The analysis for light-duty vehicles (Class 1-3 Passenger Car and Light Truck) utilized MSRP and “True Market Value” estimates from Edmunds to calculate residual values across specific makes and models, powertrains, vehicle age, and size classes for vehicles with model years from 2010 to 2021. For medium to heavy duty vehicles (Class 4-8), residual values were calculated from used vehicle listing data from Commercial Truck Trader and 
                        <E T="03">TruckPaper.com,</E>
                         validated against data from Price Digests for vehicles with model years from 2000 to 2020. As a mature propulsion technology, ICE vehicles exhibit a relatively stable pattern of declining value compared to their clean vehicle counterparts, meaning, in part, that ICE vehicles tend to retain more value over time than clean vehicles. Analysis of the declining value patterns of ICE vehicles compared to their clean counterparts, however, suggests that the residual values of clean vehicles are coming into alignment with those of ICE vehicles. As a result, the ICE vehicle depreciation pattern represents a good approximation of the likely depreciation pattern for clean vehicles as clean vehicle technologies continue to mature. The residual value factor is applied to the incremental cost of the qualified commercial clean vehicle when new, regardless of whether that incremental cost is determined by the taxpayer, supplied to the taxpayer by the qualified manufacturer, or provided by safe harbor guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin for the tax year in which such vehicle is originally placed in service.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">IV. Qualified Commercial Clean Vehicle</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-3 would provide rules related to a vehicle's qualification as a qualified commercial clean vehicle.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Vehicles Acquired for Use or Lease and Not for Resale</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 45W(c)(1) provides, in part, that a qualified commercial clean vehicle must be acquired for use or lease by the taxpayer and not for resale. Proposed § 1.45W-3(b)(1), would provide that, except in cases involving tax-exempt entities identified in section 45W(d)(2), a taxpayer acquires a vehicle for use or lease if the taxpayer acquires it for use or lease in a trade or business of the taxpayer. Thus, for example, if a taxpayer that is engaged in the business of leasing vehicles to customers acquires a commercial clean vehicle for the purpose of leasing the vehicle to customers as part of that business, this requirement would be satisfied.
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For further consideration of vehicles purchased by a vehicle leasing business qualifying for a section 45W credit, see the recapture rules explained in V.E of this Explanation of Provisions.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             Whether an activity is treated as a trade or business depends on the facts and circumstances of the activity. Courts have considered factors such as the profit motive of the taxpayer and the regularity and continuity of the activity. 
                            <E T="03">Commissioner</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Groetzinger,</E>
                             480 U.S. 23 (1987).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-3(b)(1) is consistent with the requirement under section 45W(c)(4) that the vehicle be of a character subject to the allowance for depreciation, which, under section 167(a), extends only to property used in a trade or business or held for the production of income. The proposed rule is also consistent with the trade or business purposes expressed in section 45W(c)(1), the statutory identification of the section 45W credit as being for “commercial” clean vehicles, and the allowance of the credit as a section 38 general business credit.</P>
                    <P>If the lease of a qualified commercial clean vehicle would not be respected as a lease for Federal income tax purposes, proposed § 1.45W-3(b)(2) would treat the lessor as having acquired the vehicle for resale and disallow the credit to such lessor with respect to the purportedly leased vehicle. Whether the lessee may claim the section 45W credit with respect to the vehicle would depend on whether the requirements of section 45W and the section 45W regulations are met with respect to the vehicle. This rule, which recognizes that a sale may, in some cases, be mischaracterized as a lease for Federal income tax purposes, aligns with section 45W(c)(1) to limit “use and lease” to the scenarios in which the section 45W credit is allowable to a taxpayer.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. On-Road Vehicles</HD>
                    <P>Section 45W(c)(2)(A) provides that a qualified commercial clean vehicle may be a vehicle “that meets the requirements of subparagraph (D) of section 30D(d)(1) and is manufactured primarily for use on public streets, roads, and highways (not including a vehicle operated exclusively on a rail or rails).” Regarding the former requirement, section 30D(d)(1)(D) states that the vehicle must be “treated as a motor vehicle for purposes of title II of the [CAA],” a determination that implicitly incorporates the EPA's application of the relevant CAA provisions, as well as any applicable regulations or guidance thereunder. The latter requirement, “manufactured primarily for use on public streets, roads, and highways,” occurs with sufficient frequency in the Internal Revenue Code, the U.S. Code more broadly, and various regulations and guidance issued thereunder to warrant deference to existing understandings of the phrase across Federal statutes.</P>
                    <P>Section 45W(c)(2)(B) provides, in the alternative, that a qualified commercial clean vehicle may be a vehicle “that is mobile machinery, as defined in section 4053(8) (including vehicles that are not designed to perform a function of transporting a load over the public highways).” The definition of mobile machinery provided in section 4053(8) presents significant challenges for taxpayers and the IRS in the context of section 45W. For a discussion of the complexities of section 4053(8) in the context of section 45W generally, and the implications of those complexities for the credit-eligibility of off-road vehicles in particular, see section VII of this Explanation of Provisions.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 4053(8) is an exemption to certain Federal excise taxes imposed on highway vehicles (
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         sections 4051(a), 4071(a), and 4481(a)), a concept defined in § 48.4061(a)-1(d) of the Manufacturers and Retailers Excise Tax Regulations as “any self-propelled vehicle, or any trailer or semitrailer, designed to perform a function of transporting a load over public highways, whether or not also designed 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3514"/>
                        to perform other functions.” In other words, mobile machinery as defined in 4053(8), in the context of existing Federal excise taxes, is meaningful only as a subset of highway vehicles. As a result, most, if not all, vehicles traditionally considered “mobile machinery” (including those exempt from the aforementioned Federal excise taxes) would be eligible for the section 45W credit under section 45W(c)(2)(A).
                    </P>
                    <P>A vehicle may satisfy the requirements of both section 45W(c)(2)(A) and (B). For example, a digger derrick truck exempt from the tax imposed by section 4051 by reason of section 4053(8) would qualify for the credit under section 45W(c)(2)(B). Furthermore, because it is a “highway vehicle” under § 48.4061(a)-1(d), the digger derrick would almost certainly also qualify under section 45W(c)(2)(A), meaning that it would be treated as a motor vehicle for purposes of title II of the CAA and be considered manufactured primarily for use on the public streets, roads, and highways. In such instances, the taxpayer may choose the prong of section 45W(c)(2) under which the vehicle will qualify, which may be relevant for recordkeeping and other purposes.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Electric Motor and Battery Requirements</HD>
                    <P>Section 45W(c)(3)(A) provides requirements with respect to the electric motor and battery of certain qualified commercial clean vehicles. In part, section 45W(c)(3)(A) requires that a qualified commercial clean vehicle be propelled to a significant extent by an electric motor that draws electricity from a battery that meets certain specifications depending on the GVWR of the vehicle. Proposed § 1.45W-3(d)(1) would repeat the substance of section 45W(c)(3)(A). Proposed § 1.45W-3(d)(2) would clarify that a battery is capable of being recharged from an external source of electricity if such source of electricity is not an integral part of the vehicle. Proposed § 1.45W-3(d)(2) would also provide the example of a regenerative braking system as an integral part of the vehicle and, thus, not an external source of electricity. This rule would render certain hybrid vehicles ineligible for the section 45W credit, a result consistent with the requirement that the vehicle be propelled to a significant extent by an electric motor which draws electricity from a battery and the requirement for an external source of electricity.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">V. Special Rules</HD>
                    <P>Section 45W(d) provides three special rules. First, section 45W(d)(1) provides, by cross reference to section 30D(f), that rules similar to the rules under section 30D(f)(1) through (9) apply for purposes of the section 45W credit. Second, section 45W(d)(2) provides that a qualified commercial clean vehicle placed in service by a tax-exempt entity described in section 168(h)(2)(A)(i), (ii), or (iv) is not required to be of a character subject to the allowance for depreciation if it is not subject to a lease. Third, section 45W(d)(3) provides that any vehicle for which a credit was allowed under section 30D is not allowed a section 45W credit.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-4 would provide special rules relating to the credit eligibility of a vehicle resulting from certain transactions and uses, the interaction of the section 45W credit with other credits, and recapture of the section 45W credit. These rules are described in Part V.A. through E. of this Explanation of Provisions.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. No Double Benefit Rule</HD>
                    <P>Section 30D(f)(8), as incorporated by section 45W(d)(1), provides that a section 45W credit is allowed only once with respect to a vehicle, as determined based upon the vehicle identification number of such vehicle. Section 45W(d)(3) provides that no credit is allowed under section 45W with respect to any vehicle for which a credit was allowed under section 30D. To consolidate these two rules, proposed § 1.45W-4(a)(1) would provide that no credit will be allowed under section 45W(a) with respect to any vehicle for which a section 45W credit or a section 30D credit was previously allowed for such vehicle.</P>
                    <P>Section 45W(d)(1), which incorporates section 30D(f)(2), provides a general no double benefit rule with respect to any deduction or other credit allowable under chapter 1 for a vehicle for which a credit was allowed under section 45W. Proposed § 1.45W-4(a)(2) would repeat the substance of section 30D(f)(2). This proposed rule is consistent with the no double benefit rule provided in § 1.25E-2(b)(1).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Vehicles Previously Placed in Service</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 45W does not explicitly prohibit vehicles previously placed in service from being eligible for a section 45W credit.
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Vehicles previously placed in service present challenges with regard to the statutory no double benefit rules in that taxpayers seeking to claim the section 45W credit for such vehicles may not have access to information about whether a deduction or credit was previously allowed, or to what extent, and the IRS would be prohibited from providing such information because disclosure of information related to another taxpayer's claim for a tax credit for a particular vehicle is confidential return information and is protected from disclosure under section 6103 of the Code. Nonetheless, the normal rules requiring taxpayers to establish their entitlement to a credit or other tax benefit apply. Accordingly, a taxpayer claiming a 45W credit for a vehicle previously placed in service must maintain evidence in their books and records sufficient to establish that no credit under section 30D or section 45W has been allowed previously with respect to the vehicle, and in the case of any prior credit allowed under section 25E, the amount of such prior credit, and must provide such information to the IRS upon request. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         § 1.6001-1; 
                        <E T="03">Roberts</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Comm'r,</E>
                         62 T.C. 834, 836 (T.C. 1974); 
                        <E T="03">Isaacs</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Comm'r,</E>
                         109 T.C.M. (CCH) 1624 (T.C. 2015). Such evidence may include signed attestations from all previous owners that a credit was not claimed with respect to such vehicle.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             In the Description of Energy Tax Changes Made by Public Law 117-169, the Joint Committee on Taxation describes section 45W as “creat[ing] a credit for qualified commercial clean vehicles originally placed in service by a taxpayer,” and in footnote 111 adds: “A technical correction may be necessary to reflect this intent.” JCT, Description of Energy Tax Changes Made by Public Law 117-169, p. 58 (Apr. 19, 2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The proposed regulations would also amend § 1.25E-2 by adding a new paragraph (b)(3), which would clarify that a vehicle for which a credit was allowed under section 45W may qualify for a section 25E credit in a subsequent year with no reduction in the amount of allowable section 25E credit. This rule would be consistent with § 1.25E-2(b)(2), which provides a similar rule regarding the interaction between the section 25E credit and the section 30D credit.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Credit Ineligibility Resulting From Certain Transactions and Uses</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-4(b)(2) would provide that if a sale of a qualified commercial clean vehicle is cancelled before the taxpayer places the vehicle in service, then (i) the taxpayer may not claim the section 45W credit with respect to such vehicle; (ii) the vehicle may still be eligible for the section 45W credit; and (iii) a subsequent buyer will not be required to apply the residual value rules of § 1.45W-2(f)(3) to determine the incremental cost of the vehicle.</P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1.45W-4(b)(3) would provide that if a taxpayer returns a qualified commercial clean vehicle to the seller within 30 days of placing such vehicle in service, then (i) the taxpayer may not claim the section 45W credit 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3515"/>
                        with respect to such vehicle; (ii) the vehicle may still be eligible for the section 45W credit; and (iii) a subsequent buyer must apply the residual value rules of § 1.45W-2(f)(3) to determine the incremental cost of the vehicle.
                    </P>
                    <P>In the case of a resale of a qualified commercial clean vehicle, proposed § 1.45W-4(b)(4) would provide that if a taxpayer resells such vehicle within 30 days of placing the vehicle in service, then (i) the taxpayer is treated as having acquired such vehicle with the intent to resell; (ii) the taxpayer may not claim the section 45W credit with respect to the vehicle; (iii) the vehicle may still be eligible for the section 45W credit; and (iv) a subsequent buyer must apply the residual value rules of § 1.45W-2(f)(3) to determine the incremental cost of the vehicle.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">D. Business Use of Qualified Commercial Clean Vehicle Required</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 45W(c)(4) requires a qualified commercial clean vehicle to be of a character subject to the allowance for depreciation. Nothing in section 45W indicates that a partial section 45W credit is allowable with respect to a vehicle that is used only partially for business use and is therefore only partially depreciable. Section 30D, a related clean vehicle credit that was amended by the IRA, explicitly includes an allocation rule to treat such credit as either a business or personal credit based upon business or personal use. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 30D(c)(1). Section 30C, also enacted as part of the IRA, has a similar allocation rule. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 30C(d)(1). The absence of such an allocation rule in section 45W, which was enacted as part of the same legislation, suggests that Congress did not intend for the section 45W credit to reflect less than 100 percent business use.
                    </P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-4(b)(5) would provide that if a taxpayer's trade or business use of a qualified commercial clean vehicle is less than 100 percent of the taxpayer's total use of that vehicle (with the exception of incidental personal use, such as a stop for lunch on the way between two job sites) for the taxable year such vehicle is placed in service, including because the vehicle is sold or otherwise disposed of, then the vehicle is ineligible for the section 45W credit. This rule would also apply to a qualified commercial clean vehicle placed in service by a tax-exempt entity, except that 100 percent trade or business use means the tax-exempt entity's use that is related to an exempt purpose or an unrelated trade or business purpose.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">E. Recapture</HD>
                    <P>Section 30D(f)(5), which is incorporated in section 45W(d)(1), authorizes the Secretary to provide for recapturing the benefit of any section 45W credit allowable with respect to any property which ceases to be property eligible for such credit. Proposed § 1.45W-4(c)(2)(i) would provide that if a taxpayer ceases to use the vehicle for 100 percent trade or business use during the 18-month period beginning on the date the vehicle is placed in service, including because the vehicle is sold or otherwise disposed of, then (i) the taxpayer may not claim the section 45W credit with respect to the vehicle, and if the taxpayer has already claimed the credit, the credit is recaptured; (ii) the vehicle may still be eligible for the section 45W credit; and (iii) a subsequent buyer must apply the residual value rules of § 1.45W-2(f)(3) to determine the incremental cost of the vehicle. In determining the 18-month period as the appropriate length of time for which the vehicle must be used in a trade or business for purposes of recapturing the benefit of any section 45W credit allowable, the Treasury Department and the IRS took into consideration commercial vehicle leasing practices and sought to accommodate such practices.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-4(c)(2)(ii) would provide that, for a vehicle placed in service by a tax-exempt entity, the 100 percent trade or business use rule (excepting incidental personal use) in § 1.45W-4(b)(5) applies, which means use for an exempt purpose or unrelated trade or business purpose.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">F. Elective Payment Election</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Section 6417</HD>
                    <P>Section 6417, enacted by the IRA, provides a benefit to applicable entities (defined in section 6417(d)(1)(A) and § 1.6417-1(c)), which include certain tax-exempt and government entities that are described in section 50(b)(3) or (4). Section 6417 allows an applicable entity to make an election to be treated as making a payment of tax in the amount of certain applicable credits, including the section 45W credit, which results in a refund equal to the amount of the applicable credits if such entity has no other tax liability. Section 6417(d)(2)(A) requires an entity making an election to determine an applicable credit without regard to section 50(b)(3) or (4)(A)(i), effectively turning those sections off for purposes of calculating an applicable credit.</P>
                    <P>
                        These proposed regulations would make a clarification to proposed § 1.6417-6(b)(1) 
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         to align with these proposed section 45W regulations. Proposed § 1.6417-6(b)(1) in these proposed regulations would add a reference to section 45W(d)(1) (which incorporates the rules of section 30D(f)(1) related to basis reduction and section 30D(f)(5) and the related proposed § 1.45W-4(c) pertaining to recapture) to the list of examples of provisions of the Code that apply. Accordingly, proposed § 1.6417-6(b)(1) would state that if “another provision of the Code contains a rule that operates without reference to section 50 to reduce the basis of property with respect to which an applicable credit is determined and/or recapture any amount of an applicable credit (such as sections 30C, 45Q(f)(4), 45W(d)(1), and 48(a)(10)), then the rules of that provision of the Code and the regulations issued under that provision of the Code apply, except that any applicable credit continues to be determined without regard to section 50(b)(3) and (4)(A)(i) and by treating any property with respect to which such applicable credit is determined as used in a trade or business of the applicable entity, consistent with section 6417(d)(2) and § 1.6417-2(c).”
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             Revisions to § 1.6417-6(b)(1) were previously proposed in the notice of proposed rulemaking (REG-118269-23), published in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                             (89 FR 76759, September 19, 2024), which sets forth rules regarding the Section 30C Alternative Fuel Vehicle Refueling Property Credit. These proposed regulations include identical proposed language to § 1.6417-6(b)(1) other than the addition of a reference to section 45W(d)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Leases</HD>
                    <P>Section 45W(d)(2) provides that the section 45W(c)(4) rule regarding depreciation does not apply to any vehicle that is not subject to a lease and that is placed in service by a tax-exempt entity described in section 168(h)(2)(A)(i), (ii), or (iv).</P>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1.45W-4(d)(3) would provide that for purposes of section 45W(d)(2), a vehicle is “subject to a lease” if it is leased within 30 days of being placed in service by a tax-exempt entity. For example, a school district purchases and places in service a fleet of electric school buses that otherwise qualify for the section 45W credit. The school district then leases the fleet to a school transportation contractor 31 days after the school district placed the fleet in service. The fleet of electric school buses is not subject to a lease within the meaning of section 45W(d)(2) and proposed § 1.45W-4(d)(3) because the buses were leased more than 30 days after being placed in service by the school district. As a result, the fleet of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3516"/>
                        electric school buses may be eligible for the section 45W credit.
                    </P>
                    <P>This definition of “subject to a lease” aligns with the statutory language that tax-exempt entities may be eligible for the section 45W credit if the qualified commercial clean vehicle at issue meets the relevant criteria near the time of being placed in service, which is when vehicle eligibility is measured.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">VI. Reporting Requirements</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-5 would provide reporting requirements for purposes of the section 45W credit.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Requirement To File Return</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 45W(e) provides that no section 45W credit can be determined with respect to any vehicle unless the taxpayer includes the vehicle identification number of such vehicle on the return of tax for the taxable year. Proposed § 1.45W-5(a) would provide that no section 45W credit is allowed unless the taxpayer claiming such credit files a Federal income tax return or information return, as appropriate, for the taxable year in which the qualified commercial clean vehicle is placed in service. The taxpayer must attach to such return a completed Form 8936, 
                        <E T="03">Clean Vehicle Credits,</E>
                         or successor form, that includes all information required by the form and instructions. The taxpayer must also attach a completed Schedule A (Form 8936), 
                        <E T="03">Clean Vehicle Credit Amount,</E>
                         or successor form or schedule, that includes all information required by the schedule and instructions, such as the vehicle identification number of the qualified commercial clean vehicle.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Credit May Generally Be Claimed on Only One Tax Return</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-5(b)(1) would provide a general rule, subject to the exceptions discussed later in this Explanation of Provisions, that the amount of the section 45W credit attributable to a qualified commercial clean vehicle may be claimed on only one Federal income tax return, including on a joint return in which one of the spouses or the spouse's wholly-owned business entity is listed on the title as the sole owner of the vehicle. In the event a qualified commercial clean vehicle is placed in service by multiple taxpayers that do not file a joint tax return (for example, in the case of married individuals filing separate returns), no allocation or proration of the section 45W credit will be available, and only one of the taxpayers placing the qualified commercial clean vehicle in service will be eligible for the entirety of the allowable section 45W credit.</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-5(b)(2) would provide a rule for grantor trusts. Specifically, proposed § 1.45W-5(b)(2) would provide that for qualified commercial clean vehicles placed in service by a trust, to the extent the grantor or another person is treated as owning all or part of a trust under sections 671 through 679 of the Code, the section 45W credit will be allocated to such grantor or other person in accordance with § 1.671-3(a)(1).</P>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-5(b)(3) would provide an exception for qualified commercial clean vehicles placed in service by certain passthrough entities, namely a partnership or S corporation. In such cases, the section 45W credit will be allocated among the partners of the partnership under § 1.704-1(b)(4)(ii) or among the shareholders of the S corporation under sections 1366(a) and 1377(a) of the Code and claimed on the tax returns of the ultimate partners or of the S corporation shareholders.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Taxpayer Reliance on Manufacturer Certifications and Periodic Written Reports to IRS</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1.45W-5(c) would allow taxpayers to rely on certain certifications and information provided by a manufacturer. Under this proposed rule, a taxpayer that acquires a qualified commercial clean vehicle and places it in service would be able to rely on the information and certifications contained in the qualified manufacturer's written reports to the IRS. The procedures for such periodic written reports are established in guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin. To the extent a taxpayer relies on certifications or attestations from the qualified manufacturer, the qualified commercial clean vehicle the taxpayer acquires will be deemed to meet the requirements of sections 30D(d)(1)(C) and 45W(c)(1).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">VII. Off-Road Mobile Machinery</HD>
                    <P>Section 45W(c)(2) provides, in part, that the term “qualified commercial clean vehicle” includes “mobile machinery, as defined in section 4053(8) (including vehicles that are not designed to perform a function of transporting a load over the public highways).” Section 4053(8), in turn, defines mobile machinery as any vehicle which consists of a chassis (A) to which there has been permanently mounted (by welding, bolting, riveting, or other means) machinery or equipment to perform a construction, manufacturing, processing, farming, mining, drilling, timbering, or similar operation if the operation of the machinery or equipment is unrelated to transportation on or off the public highways, (B) which has been specially designed to serve only as a mobile carriage and mount (and a power source, if applicable) for the particular machinery or equipment involved, whether or not such machinery or equipment is in operation, and (C) which, by reason of such special design, could not, without substantial structural modification, be used as a component of a vehicle designed to perform a function of transporting any load other than that particular machinery or equipment or similar machinery or equipment requiring such a specially designed chassis.</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 4053(8) is an exemption from the tax imposed by section 4051(a) and has been employed as an exemption from the taxes imposed by sections 4071(a) and 4481(a), all of which contribute to the Highway Trust Fund. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         section 9503(b) of the Code. In that context, the section 4053(8) definition is relevant only to highway vehicles, defined in § 48.4061(a)-1(d) 
                        <SU>5</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         as “any self-propelled vehicle, or any trailer or semitrailer, designed to perform a function of transporting a load over public highways, whether or not also designed to perform other functions.” The parenthetical in section 45W(c)(2)(B)—“including vehicles that are not designed to perform a function of transporting a load over the public highways”—contradicts that definition and, therefore, arguably expands the traditional category of “mobile machinery” to include off-road vehicles. Such an expanded category might, for purposes of section 45W, include certain agricultural vehicles, construction vehicles, forestry vehicles, utility vehicles designed for airport operations, and other types of off-road vehicles.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             The section 4061 manufacturers excise tax on certain highway vehicles was repealed and replaced with the section 4051 retail excise tax on similar vehicles. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Highway Revenue Act of 1982 (Public Law 97-424), effective April 1, 1983. The § 48.4061(a)-1(d) definition of “highway vehicle” is incorporated into the current section 4051 regime by § 145.4051-1(a)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        However, section 4053(8) and several provisions of section 45W present significant challenges with respect to the administrability of a section 45W credit that encompasses such off-road vehicles. Recognizing that, whenever possible, every word and every provision of a statute should be given effect, 
                        <E T="03">Washington Market Co.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Hoffman,</E>
                         101 U.S. 112, 115-6 (1879), the Treasury Department and the IRS continue to study, and request any relevant comments on, the considerations described in section 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3517"/>
                        VII.A through G of this Explanation of Provisions.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Section 4053(8) as Applied to Off-Road Vehicles</HD>
                    <P>
                        The definition of “mobile machinery” provided in section 4053(8) is vehicle specific and fact intensive. Vehicles with chassis that include a pintle hook or that have been modified to accommodate a water tank do not qualify as mobile machinery because such vehicles are not specially designed to serve only (solely) as the mobile carriage or mount for the mounted equipment or machinery. 
                        <E T="03">Florida Power &amp; Light Co.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">U.S.,</E>
                         375 F.3d 1119 (Fed. Cir. 2004). For the same reason, peanut drying trailers and boat trailers are not mobile machinery. 
                        <E T="03">Rockwater, Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">U.S.,</E>
                         No. 4:21-CV-00125-CDL, 2023 WL 2473452 (M.D. Ga. Jan. 3, 2023), aff'd in part, reversed in part and remanded in part, 2024 WL 4799277, (11th Cir. Nov. 16, 2024); 
                        <E T="03">Hostar Marine Transp. Systems, Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">U.S.,</E>
                         No. 06-10834-DPW, 2008 WL 4615464 (D. Mass. Oct. 16, 2008), aff'd, 592 F.3d 202 (1st Cir. 2010). In addition, highway tractors fitted with winches, compressors, or blowers are not mobile machinery because such equipment, used to load or unload cargo, is not “unrelated to transportation on or off the public highways.” 
                        <E T="03">Schlumberger Technology Corp. and Subsidiaries</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">U.S.,</E>
                         55 Fed. Cl. 203 (2003).
                    </P>
                    <P>When applied to off-road vehicles, a category to which section 4053(8) was not traditionally relevant, the text of section 4053(8) presents significant challenges for taxpayers and the IRS. Particular vehicles would, on a vehicle-by-vehicle basis, be rendered ineligible for the section 45W credit for reasons irrelevant to the purpose of the credit, such as the presence of a pintle hook or the fact that the vehicle can carry a load other than its mounted machinery or equipment. Consideration of these types of vehicle features, although critical to ensuring the correct taxation of highway vehicles for purposes of the Highway Trust Fund, would lead to arbitrary results in the context of a credit intended to incentivize the use of clean vehicle propulsion technologies—for example, the eligibility of one vehicle for the section 45W credit and the ineligibility of an identical vehicle, except for the addition of a pintle hook.</P>
                    <P>To mitigate these challenges, the Treasury Department and the IRS are considering an approach that would deem off-road vehicles (that is, “vehicles not designed to perform a function of carrying a load over the public highways”) to satisfy the requirements of section 4053(8)(B) and (C). Such an approach would acknowledge that section 4053(8)(B) and (C) assess a vehicle's potential to cause wear and tear on the public highways. While this is critical in determining whether a vehicle qualifies for an exemption from taxes that fund the Highway Trust Fund, it has no relevance to off-road vehicles. Therefore, this approach would apply the core definition of “mobile machinery” provided in section 4053(8)(A) and, consistent with the cross reference provided in section 45W(c)(2)(B), do so in precisely the same way as section 4053(8)(A) is applied in the context of Federal excise taxes.</P>
                    <P>
                        While this approach would render vehicle-by-vehicle analysis unnecessary in many cases and might eliminate certain types of inconsistent results with respect to vehicle eligibility for the section 45W credit, categorical bars on eligibility for certain types of vehicles would remain. For example, off-road dump trucks would be ineligible for the credit because their permanently mounted machinery or equipment, that is, the hydraulics that lift the dump body, is not “unrelated to transportation” (the dump structure itself is a vehicle body rather than machinery or equipment; 
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         Notice 2017-5, 2017-6 IRB 779). Agricultural tractors would be ineligible to the extent they lack permanently mounted machinery or equipment. Forklifts could be ineligible because their permanently mounted equipment, which can be used to load and unload goods and transport goods from one location to another, is related to transportation. And mowers would be ineligible because their permanently mounted machinery or equipment does not perform an operation similar to those enumerated in section 4053(8)(A). The Treasury Department and the IRS request comments on other approaches that might be adopted in applying section 4053(8) to off-road vehicles in a manner consistent with both the purpose and text of section 45W and the statutory requirements of section 4053(8), including established case law interpreting section 4053(8).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Off-Road Vehicles Lack NHTSA-Required VINs</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. In General</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 45W(e) provides that no credit can be determined under section 45W(a) with respect to any vehicle unless the taxpayer includes the vehicle identification number of such vehicle on the return of tax for the taxable year. 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         section 45W(d)(1), which requires, among other things, the application of rules similar to those provided in section 30D(f)(8) (“In the case of any vehicle, the credit described in [section 30D](a) shall only be allowed once with respect to such vehicle, as determined based upon the vehicle identification number of such vehicle [. . . .]”); section 30D(f)(9) (“No credit shall be allowed under this section with respect to any vehicle unless the taxpayer includes the vehicle identification number of such vehicle on the return of tax for the taxable year.”); and, the definition of “qualified manufacturer” provided by section 30D(d)(3), incorporated by section 45W(c)(1) by cross-reference to “the requirements of section 30D(1)(C),” which, by definition, requires a qualified manufacturer to enter into a written agreement with the Secretary under which such manufacturer agrees to make periodic written reports to the Secretary providing, among other things, vehicle identification numbers “related to each vehicle manufactured by such manufacturer as the Secretary may require.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Neither section 45W nor any other section of the Code provides a definition of “vehicle identification number” or “VIN.” 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         sections 25E, 30D, 45W, 170(f)(12), and 6213(g)(2)(T) through (V). A “vehicle identification number,” as a term of art and in common speech, refers specifically to the series of Arabic numbers and Roman letters (defined in 49 CFR 565.13(a)) that the manufacturer assigns to every motor vehicle in the United States, including imported vehicles, subject to the authority of the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA), an operating administration that is part of the DOT. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         49 CFR 565.10 through 565.14. For this purpose, motor vehicles are vehicles “driven or drawn by mechanical power and manufactured primarily for use on public streets, roads, and highways.” 49 U.S.C. 30101-30102. As a result, manufacturers of off-road vehicles are not required by NHTSA to assign VINs to such vehicles.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        To give effect to the parenthetical in section 45W(c)(2)(B) that includes off-road vehicles, therefore, requires a more general understanding of the term “vehicle identification number” as used in section 45W. Such an understanding might encompass other numbering systems, provided that those systems would, if integrated with the NHTSA-required VIN system, allow qualified manufacturers and the IRS to uniquely identify each credit-eligible vehicle for purposes of the qualified manufacturer requirements of section 30D(d)(3) and the one-credit-per-vehicle provision of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3518"/>
                        section 30D(f)(8)—for example, product identification numbers (PINs) administered by the Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) or the Association of Equipment Manufacturers (AEM). Compliance with section 30D(d)(3) and (f)(8)—and, thus, the eligibility of any off-road vehicle for the section 45W credit—would depend on the integration of the various “vehicle identification number” systems in question, which would determine eligibility based on either a NHTSA-required VIN or a unique identifier system for vehicles that do not have a NHTSA-required VIN. The IRS must be able to identify each section 45W credit-eligible vehicle based solely on the “vehicle identification number” assigned to the vehicle, and the “vehicle identification number” must be unique across all numbering systems accepted by the IRS for the purpose of administering section 45W. To integrate the unique identifier system with the NHTSA-required VIN, the unique identifier system should be a 17-digit alpha-numeric identifier.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Potential Integrated System for Vehicle Identification Numbers</HD>
                    <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS are studying various potential options for an integrated system of vehicle identification numbers for purposes of section 45W. Until guidance is published detailing any such future system, vehicles without a NHTSA-required VIN are unable to satisfy the statutory VIN requirement in section 45W(e) and are therefore ineligible for the section 45W credit.</P>
                    <P>The various potential options under consideration by the Treasury Department and the IRS include the following structural elements:</P>
                    <P>i. If a qualified commercial clean vehicle has a NHTSA-required VIN, the qualified manufacturer of such vehicle would need to report the NHTSA-required VIN to the IRS for such vehicle to be eligible for the section 45W credit. The taxpayer claiming a section 45W credit for the qualified commercial clean vehicle in such a case would need to report the NHTSA-required VIN on their tax return for the taxable year in which the section 45W credit is claimed for such claim to be valid.</P>
                    <P>ii. If a qualified manufacturer assigns a PIN to a qualified commercial clean vehicle and that PIN is also a unique 17-digit identifier consisting of a three-digit World Manufacturer Code (WMC) and 14 alpha-numeric characters that follow, the qualified manufacturer would need to provide the PIN to the taxpayer no later than 15 days from the time the identity of the taxpayer purchasing the vehicle is known, or 15 days from when the taxpayer requests a PIN from the qualified manufacturer, whichever is later. The qualified manufacturer could choose to satisfy this requirement by labeling the PIN on the vehicle, including adding the PIN to the item of specified property by affixing a label to the vehicle or by etching the PIN on the vehicle. Alternatively, a qualified manufacturer could choose to affix a label containing the PIN to the vehicle's documentation or purchase records. The qualified manufacturer would need to report the PIN and the identity of the taxpayer purchasing the vehicle to the IRS no later than 15 days from the time that the identity of the taxpayer purchasing the vehicle is known for the vehicle to be considered eligible. A taxpayer claiming a section 45W credit in such a case would need to report the PIN on their tax return or information return for the taxable year in which the section 45W credit is claimed for such claim to be valid.</P>
                    <P>iii. If a qualified commercial clean vehicle does not have a VIN or a PIN issued by a qualified manufacturer, the qualified manufacturer could apply to receive a valid three-digit unique qualified manufacturer identifier (QMID). Upon the issuance of a QMID, the qualified manufacturer would assign unique 17-digit PINs to the qualified commercial clean vehicles it manufactures. Each 17-digit PIN would begin with the QMID followed by 14 alpha-numeric digits that the qualified manufacturer assigns to each vehicle. The qualified manufacturer would need to provide the PIN to the taxpayer no later than 15 days from the time the identity of the taxpayer purchasing the vehicle is known, or 15 days from when the taxpayer requests a PIN from the qualified manufacturer, whichever is later. The qualified manufacturer could choose to satisfy this requirement by labeling the PIN on the vehicles, including adding the PIN to the item of specified property by affixing a label to the vehicle or by etching the PIN on the vehicle. Alternatively, a qualified manufacturer could choose to affix a label containing the PIN to the vehicle's documentation or purchase records. The qualified manufacturer would need to report the PIN and the identity of the taxpayer purchasing the vehicle to the IRS no later than 15 days from the time that the identity of the taxpayer purchasing the vehicle is known for the vehicle to be considered eligible. A taxpayer claiming a section 45W credit in such a case would need to report the PIN on the taxpayer's tax return or information return for the taxable year in which the section 45W credit is claimed for such claim to be valid.</P>
                    <P>iv. A qualified manufacturer would not be able to set prerequisites for a taxpayer receiving a PIN that are not required to verify the purchase of the qualified commercial clean vehicle, such as requiring taxpayers to sign up for promotional emails, texts, or other communications from the qualified manufacturer, its related entities, or partners. However, qualified manufacturers could choose to provide PINs to taxpayers through the mail, online, email, or other means of electronic delivery. Qualified manufacturers could choose to provide PINs in conjunction with a formal registration for a warranty, provided that the taxpayer could easily obtain the PIN without completing the formal warranty registration.</P>
                    <P>v. For qualified commercial clean vehicles previously placed in service by another person or entity, a subsequent taxpayer could be required to contact the qualified manufacturer to obtain a PIN.</P>
                    <P>vi. Qualified manufacturers that manufacture vehicles without a NHTSA-required VIN would need to enter into new qualified manufacturer agreements.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Vehicles Without a NHTSA-Required VIN Are Not Currently Eligible for the Credit</HD>
                    <P>Eligibility of any off-road vehicle for the section 45W credit is dependent on the issuance of final regulations establishing an integrated vehicle identification number system that accommodates off-road mobile machinery or other vehicles without a NHTSA-required VIN that is sufficient to satisfy the statutory vehicle identification number requirement. This means that off-road mobile machinery without a NHTSA-required VIN is not eligible for the section 45W credit.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. Request for Comments</HD>
                    <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS request comments on the potential integrated vehicle identification number system described in section VII.B2 of this Explanation of Provisions. Specifically, the Treasury Department and the IRS request comments on the following questions:</P>
                    <P>
                        i. What challenges, if any, would manufacturers have in implementing and complying with the integrated vehicle identification number system described in section VII.B2 of this Explanation of Provisions? What would be the costs and timeline for manufacturers to implement and comply with the proposed system? Are 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3519"/>
                        there cases in which manufacturers or other stakeholders, such as retailers, would decline to employ the system because compliance would be overly burdensome? Commenters are encouraged to specifically identify types and amounts of costs that manufacturers would incur in implementing and complying with the proposed system, as well as specific aspects of the proposal that would require set amounts of time to develop and implement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        ii. Should the Treasury Department and the IRS leverage existing systems, 
                        <E T="03">e.g.</E>
                         SAE or AEM, that assign WMCs that could be used as the first three digits of the PIN? Are there perceived problems with these systems? Do these systems ensure there is no overlap with any VINs assigned under NHTSA's rules? Are there other PIN tracking systems in place that the IRS could leverage?
                    </P>
                    <P>iii. If the Treasury Department and the IRS were to implement the integrated vehicle identification number system described in section VII.B2 of this Explanation of Provisions, what changes or exceptions, if any, should be made?</P>
                    <P>iv. What modifications, if any, could be made to the integrated vehicle identification number system described in section VII.2 of this Explanation of Provisions to accommodate limitations while still adhering to the unique identifier requirement?</P>
                    <P>
                        v. How would qualified manufacturers furnish PINs to taxpayers (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         with the vehicle, through an online website, etc.) in a manner that ensures the taxpayer has easy access to the PIN when filing their tax return or information return? How would off-road vehicle manufacturers obtain and provide information on the identity of those purchasing qualified commercial clean vehicles to assist the IRS in ensuring compliance? What labelling requirements should apply in assigning PINs?
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Manufacturers That Exclusively Manufacture Off-Road Clean Vehicles Are Not Qualified Manufacturers</HD>
                    <P>Section 45W(c)(1) provides, in part, that a qualified commercial clean vehicle must meet the requirements of section 30D(d)(1)(C). Section 30D(d)(1)(C), in turn, provides that a vehicle must be made by a qualified manufacturer. Section 30D(d)(3), incorporated by section 45W(c)(1)'s cross reference to section 30D(d)(1)(C), defines “qualified manufacturer,” in part, as any manufacturer within the meaning of the regulations prescribed by the Administrator of the EPA for purposes of the administration of title II of the CAA (42 U.S.C. 7521-7590).</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 216(1) of the CAA, generally referenced in regulations under title II of the CAA (
                        <E T="03">see,</E>
                         for example, 40 CFR 86.082-2(b), 85.1902(f), and 1037.801), defines “manufacturer”, in relevant part, as “any person engaged in the manufacturing or assembling of new motor vehicles, new motor vehicle engines, new nonroad vehicles or new nonroad engines, or importing such vehicles or engines for resale . . . .” Section 216(2) of the CAA defines “motor vehicle” as any self-propelled vehicle designed for transporting persons or property on a street or highway. Section 216(11) of the CAA defines “nonroad vehicle” as a vehicle that is powered by a nonroad engine and that is not a motor vehicle or a vehicle used solely for competition. Section 216(10) of the CAA in turn defines “nonroad engine” as an ICE (including the fuel system) that is not used in a motor vehicle or a vehicle used solely for competition.
                    </P>
                    <P>Under these definitions, “manufacturer” includes a maker of an off-road vehicle with a “conventional” ICE, a maker of an off-road vehicle with a hybrid engine (to the extent that such vehicle includes an ICE), or a maker of motor vehicles. It does not include a maker of only off-road vehicles with an exclusively electric motor or fuel cell system. Consequently, makers of such off-road vehicles that do not also make any motor vehicles or off-road vehicles with ICEs or hybrid engines cannot be “qualified manufacturers” for purposes of section 45W, and their vehicles are, consequently, ineligible for the credit. This result, which might allow a section 45W credit for an off-road vehicle equipped with a hybrid powertrain but in some cases disallow a credit for a functionally identical vehicle equipped with an electric powertrain, may disadvantage manufacturers who make only products that appear well aligned with the purposes of the credit.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">D. Some Off-Road Vehicles May Not Display Their Gross Vehicle Weight Ratings</HD>
                    <P>Section 45W(b)(4) provides a limitation for the credit based on the vehicle's GVWR, such that the amount of the section 45W credit does not exceed $7,500 in the case of a vehicle that has a GVWR of less than 14,000 pounds, and $40,000 for other vehicles. Similarly, section 45W(c)(3)(A) bases battery capacity requirements applicable to certain vehicles by reference to GVWR: a battery that has a capacity of not less than 15 kilowatt hours (or, in the case of a vehicle that has a GVWR of less than 14,000 pounds, 7 kilowatt hours).</P>
                    <P>
                        GVWR is not defined in the Internal Revenue Code or any regulations thereunder. However, the DOT and the EPA have defined the term for purposes of regulating motor vehicle safety and emissions. DOT regulations define the term “gross vehicle weight rating” as the value specified by the manufacturer as the loaded weight of a single vehicle. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         49 CFR 383.5 and 571.3(b). Similarly, EPA regulations define the term “gross vehicle weight rating” as the value specified by the manufacturer as the maximum design loaded weight of a single vehicle. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         40 CFR 86.082-2.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Motor vehicles are required by DOT regulations to be affixed with labels including the GVWR of the vehicle (
                        <E T="03">see</E>
                         49 CFR parts 567 and 568). The only vehicles to which those standards apply are motor vehicles, which are defined in 49 U.S.C. 30102 as “vehicle[s] driven or drawn by mechanical power and manufactured primarily for use on public streets, roads, and highways [. . . .]” Off-road vehicles may not have a GVWR affixed. It may, therefore, be difficult for taxpayers to determine and substantiate the appropriate credit limitation under section 45W(b)(4).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">E. Off-Road Vehicles Employing Fuel Cells May Be Ineligible</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 45W(c)(3)(B) provides that a qualified commercial clean vehicle includes “a motor vehicle which satisfies the requirements under subparagraphs (A) and (B) of section 30B(b)(3) if the vehicle satisfies the other requirements of section 45W(c).” Section 30B(b)(3) defines a “new qualified fuel cell motor vehicle” for purposes of section 30B as a motor vehicle, and provides among other requirements that it be a motor vehicle (A) that is propelled by power derived from 1 or more cells that convert chemical energy directly into electricity by combining oxygen with hydrogen fuel that is stored on board the vehicle in any form and may or may not require reformation prior to use, and (B) that, in the case of a passenger automobile or light truck, has received on or after the date of the enactment of this section a certificate that such vehicle meets or exceeds the Bin 5 Tier II emission level established in regulations prescribed by the Administrator of the EPA under section 202(i) of the CAA for that make and model year vehicle. Section 30B(b)(3)(A) and (B) apply, in the context of section 30B, only to “motor vehicles,” a term defined in section 30B(h)(1) to mean “any vehicle which is manufactured primarily for use on public streets, roads, and highways (not including a vehicle operated exclusively 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3520"/>
                        on a rail or rails) and which has at least 4 wheels.” If this definition of “motor vehicle” applies to section 45W(c)(3)(B)—a meaning suggested by that subparagraph's use of the term “motor vehicle” (which appears nowhere else in section 45W)—then off-road vehicles powered by otherwise eligible fuel-cell technology would be ineligible for the section 45W credit.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">F. DOT Vehicle Safety Provisions</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 45W(d)(1) requires, among other things, the application of a rule similar to section 30D(f)(7). Section 30D(f)(7) provides, in part, that a vehicle is not considered eligible for a credit unless such vehicle is in compliance with the motor vehicle safety provisions of 49 U.S.C. 30101 through 30169. As described in section VII.B of this Explanation of Provisions, the grant of authority under those provisions of law do not extend to off-road vehicles. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         49 U.S.C. 30101 through 30102. It is unlikely that any off-road vehicle might be, as a factual matter, compliant with safety provisions that, legally, do not apply to it.
                    </P>
                    <P>However, given the broad scope of vehicles that potentially fall under the category of off-road vehicles for purposes of section 45W, and the scope of the safety provisions provided in 49 U.S.C. 30101 through 30169, identifying similar safety provisions and the criteria by which such similarity might be judged appear to present significant challenges.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">G. Math Error Authority</HD>
                    <P>Section 6213(g)(2)(V) provides that the term “mathematical or clerical error” means an omission of a correct vehicle identification number required to be included on a return under section 45W(e). As noted in section VII.B of this Explanation of Provisions, treating off-road mobile machinery (as described in the parenthetical in section 45W(c)(2)(B)) as eligible for the 45W credit would require a broad interpretation of the term “vehicle identification number” as that term is used in section 45W(e) and the provisions of section 30D that are incorporated into section 45W through section 45W(d)(1). If the Treasury Department and the IRS were to develop an integrated vehicle identification number system that could accommodate a broad, general definition of the term “vehicle identification number” to encompass off-road mobile machinery in the section 45W context, the Treasury Department and the IRS would propose a conforming amendment to § 301.6213-2. Such an amendment would provide clarity to taxpayers by providing a cross-reference to this broad, general definition of the term “vehicle identification number.”</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">H. Other Considerations</HD>
                    <P>The proposed regulations may introduce challenges to allowing section 45W credits for off-road vehicles beyond those flowing from the statutory language, particularly in the calculation of incremental cost of off-road vehicles. Determining the residual value of off-road vehicles that have been previously placed in service by another person or entity, the appropriate considerations for identifying a comparable vehicle, and the appropriate RPE or RPEs for purposes of a safe harbor, all present considerable difficulties given the range of vehicles that may fall into the off-road vehicle category.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">I. Request for Comments</HD>
                    <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS are, in consultation with the DOE, continuing to study these and related questions. The Treasury Department and the IRS request comments on each of the considerations described in section VII.A through H of this Explanation of Provisions related to the eligibility of off-road mobile machinery for the section 45W credit.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Applicability Dates</HD>
                    <P>
                        Proposed §§ 1.45W-1 through 1.45W-5 are proposed to apply to taxable years ending after [date of publication of the final regulations in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        ]. Proposed § 1.25E-2(b)(3) is proposed to apply to taxable years ending after [date of publication of the final regulations in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        ]. Proposed § 1.30D-2(b)(28)(ii) is proposed to apply to taxable years ending after [date of publication of the final regulations in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        ]. The second and third sentences of proposed § 1.6417-6(b)(1) are proposed to apply to property placed in service in taxable years ending after [date of publication of the final regulations in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        ].
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Analyses</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Regulatory Planning and Review</HD>
                    <P>Pursuant to the Memorandum of Agreement, Review of Treasury Regulations under Executive Order 12866 (June 9, 2023), tax regulatory actions issued by the IRS are not subject to the requirements of section 6 of Executive Order 12866, as amended. Therefore, a regulatory impact assessment is not required.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">II. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                    <P>The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) (PRA) generally requires that a Federal agency obtain the approval of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) before collecting information from the public, whether such collection of information is mandatory, voluntary, or required to obtain or retain a benefit. An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a valid control number assigned by the Office of Management and Budget.</P>
                    <P>OMB Control Number 1545-2137 covers Form 8936 and Form 8936-A regarding clean vehicle credits, including the requirement to include on the taxpayer's return for the taxable year the vehicle identification number of the vehicle for which the section 45W credit is claimed. Rev. Proc. 2022-42 and Rev. Proc. 2023-38 describe the procedural requirements for qualified manufacturers to make periodic written reports to the IRS to provide information related to each vehicle manufactured by such manufacturer that is eligible for the section 45W credit as required in section 30D(d)(3). The collections of information contained in Rev. Proc. 2022-42 and Rev. Proc. 2023-38 are described in those documents and were submitted to the Office of Management and Budget in accordance with the PRA under control number 1545-2137. The notice of proposed rulemaking is not changing or creating these already approved collection requirements.</P>
                    <P>In accordance with § 1.6001-1, a taxpayer claiming a credit under section 45W must keep permanent books of account or records sufficient to establish the amount of any such credit required to be shown by such taxpayer in any return of tax or information. For PRA purposes, general tax records are already approved by OMB under 1545-0074 for individuals, 1545-0123 for business entities, and under 1545-0092 for trust and estate filers. The notice of proposed rulemaking is not changing or creating these already approved collection requirements.</P>
                    <P>The collections of information in the proposed regulations creates reporting, third-party disclosure and recordkeeping requirements that are necessary to ensure that specified property meets the requirements for the qualified commercial clean vehicle credit under section 45W. These collections of information generally would be used by the IRS for tax compliance purposes and by taxpayers to ensure the vehicle qualifies for the credit.</P>
                    <P>
                        The reporting requirements include a provision requiring manufacturers to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3521"/>
                        register with the IRS to become qualified manufacturers, as detailed in § 1.45W-5(c). The third-party disclosure requirement includes the requirement that manufacturers provide taxpayers with a PIN number that identifies the specified property as qualified under section 45W. The likely respondents are businesses and other for-profit entities. The burden for these requirements is as follows:
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated number of respondents:</E>
                         4,500.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated frequency of responses:</E>
                         1.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated average annual burden per response:</E>
                         0.25 hours.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated total reporting burden:</E>
                         1,125 hours.
                    </P>
                    <P>The proposed regulations include a third-party disclosure and associated recordkeeping requirements for qualified manufacturers to provide taxpayers with the incremental cost value, which may include detailed cost information for the powertrains, and for taxpayers to keep records of these disclosures, as detailed in § 1.45W-2(c)(10).</P>
                    <P>The likely respondents are businesses and other for-profit and tax-exempt entities. The burden for these requirements is as follows:</P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated number of respondents:</E>
                         500.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated frequency of responses:</E>
                         1.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated average annual burden per response:</E>
                         1.0 hours.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Estimated total reporting burden:</E>
                         500 hours.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The collections of information contained in this notice of proposed rulemaking have been submitted to the Office of Management and Budget for review in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act under OMB Control Number 1545-2137. Commenters are strongly encouraged to submit public comments electronically. Written comments and recommendations for the proposed information collection should be sent to 
                        <E T="03">https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/PRAMain,</E>
                         with copies to the IRS. Find this particular information collection by selecting “Currently under Review—Open for Public Comments,” and then by using the search function. Submit electronic submissions for the proposed information collection to the IRS via email at 
                        <E T="03">pra.comments@irs.gov</E>
                         (indicate REG-123525-23 on the Subject line). Comments on the collection of information must be received by March 17, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">III. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) (RFA) imposes certain requirements with respect to Federal rules that are subject to the notice and comment requirements of section 553(b) of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ) and that are likely to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. Unless an agency determines that a proposal will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, section 603 of the RFA requires the agency to present an initial regulatory flexibility analysis (IRFA) of the proposed rule. The Treasury Department and the IRS have not determined whether the proposed rule, when finalized, will have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. This determination requires further study. However, because there is a possibility of a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities, these proposed regulations include an IRFA. The Treasury Department and the IRS invite comments on both the number of entities affected by these proposed regulations and the economic impact of these proposed regulations on small entities.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Small business entities that claim the section 45W credit must satisfy reporting requirements. They will continue to file Form 8936, 
                        <E T="03">Clean Vehicle Credits</E>
                         (or successor form as the Secretary prescribes), as was the case for the section 45W credit prior to the publication of these proposed regulations. The estimated burden for business taxpayers filing Form 8936 is approved under OMB control number 1545-2137 and 1545-0123.
                    </P>
                    <P>Although the Treasury Department and IRS estimate that small business entities will claim the credit under section 45W in a given year, the proposed regulations will not have a significant economic impact on such entities because the proposed regulations do not impose any additional burden on taxpayers outside of what is provided by the statute. For example, section 30D(f)(5), which is incorporated into the section 45W regime by section 45W(d)(1), requires the Secretary to prescribe regulations that provide for the recapture of the credit with respect to any property which ceases to be property eligible for such credit. These proposed rules merely provide the framework for the statutorily required recapture.</P>
                    <P>The Treasury Department and IRS have determined that the continued requirement to file a Form 8936 (or successor form as the Secretary prescribes) is unlikely to involve significant administrative costs beyond what was previously required.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Need for and Objectives of the Rule</HD>
                    <P>The proposed regulations would provide the eligibility rules and key definitions applicable to the section 45W credit to allow taxpayers to know whether the clean vehicle they intend to purchase is eligible for the section 45W credit. In addition, the proposed regulations would provide rules regarding the recapture authority under section 45W(d)(1), so that taxpayers and the IRS would have clear rules regarding when a clean vehicle may cease to be eligible property for purposes of the section 45W credit. Further, the proposed regulations would provide rules for determining the amount of the section 45W credit, including the determination of incremental cost for qualified commercial clean vehicles.</P>
                    <P>The proposed rules are expected to encourage taxpayers to purchase and place in service qualified commercial clean vehicles, thereby increasing the number of clean vehicles on the roads. Thus, the Treasury Department and the IRS intend and expect that the proposed rules will deliver benefits across the economy and environment that will beneficially impact various industries, including clean vehicle manufacturers and dealers.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Affected Small Entities</HD>
                    <P>The Small Business Administration estimates in its 2023 Small Business Profile that 99.9 percent of United States businesses meet its definition of a small business. The applicability of these proposed regulations does not depend on the size of the business, as defined by the Small Business Administration. As described more fully in the preamble to this proposed regulation and in this IRFA, these rules may affect a variety of different businesses across several different industries, but will primarily affect commercial purchasers of qualified commercial clean vehicles and qualified manufacturers of qualified commercial clean vehicles. The Treasury Department and the IRS currently estimate the number of manufacturers of on-road qualified commercial clean vehicles to be approximately 77, and the number of manufacturers of off-road mobile machinery to be approximately 4,500.</P>
                    <P>
                        For off-road mobile machinery manufacturer estimates, the Treasury Department and IRS reviewed tax return filings for relevant industry codes for prior taxable years and made assumptions regarding the likelihood of such taxpayers manufacturing electric or hydrogen-powered off-road mobile machinery. For taxpayers that are not likely to meet the definition of small 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3522"/>
                        business entity, the Treasury Department and the IRS assumed that 100 percent would manufacture off-road mobile machinery that may qualify for the credit under section 45W. For taxpayers likely to meet the definition of small business entity, the Treasury Department and the IRS assumed that varying percentages of such taxpayers, based on the size of their operations, would manufacture off-road mobile machinery that may qualify for the credit under section 45W.
                    </P>
                    <P>Of the estimated 77 manufacturers of on-road qualified commercial clean vehicles, the Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that none of them are small businesses entities. Of the estimated 4,500 manufacturers of off-road mobile machinery, the Treasury Department and the IRS estimate that more than half would likely be considered a small business entity.</P>
                    <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS expect to receive more information on the impact on small businesses through comments on this proposed rule and again if the integrated system for vehicle identification numbers for purposes of section 45W is established.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Impact of the Rules</HD>
                    <P>The recordkeeping and reporting requirements would increase for qualified manufacturers of off-road mobile machinery seeking to become qualified manufacturers in the event of the establishment of an integrated system for vehicle identification numbers. Although the Treasury Department and the IRS do not have sufficient data to precisely determine the likely extent of the increased costs of compliance, the estimated burden of complying with the recordkeeping and reporting requirements are described in the PRA section of the preamble. Based on the total number of estimated manufacturers of off-road mobile machinery (4500) and an estimated registration time of 0.25 hours per registration, the Treasury Department and IRS estimate that off-road mobile machinery manufacturers will spend a total of 1,125 hours registering as qualified manufacturers.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Alternatives Considered</HD>
                    <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS considered various alternatives in promulgating these proposed regulations. Significant alternatives and issues considered include: (1) the application of NHTSA rules toward administering vehicle identification numbers; (2) the appropriate length of time for which a vehicle must be used in a trade or business as it relates to the recapture rules provided in proposed § 1.45W-4(c); and (3) how best to implement the no double benefit rules and incremental cost calculation to the eligibility of used vehicles for the section 45W credit.</P>
                    <P>
                        Regarding the application of NHTSA's rules administering vehicle identification numbers compared to an integrated vehicle identification system, the Treasury Department and the IRS considered the appropriate scope of the definition of “vehicle identification number” and how that definition should be consistent with or diverge from the inclusion of and reference to off-road mobile machinery in the statutory text of section 45W(c)(2)(B). The Treasury Department and the IRS considered interpreting the “VIN number” requirement in section 45W(e) to mean a NHTSA-required VIN, consistent with the established definition of “vehicle identification number” in DOT regulations. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         49 CFR 565.10 through 565.14. However, the only vehicles regulated by NHTSA are motor vehicles, which are vehicles manufactured primarily for use on public streets, roads, and highways. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         49 U.S.C. 30102(7). Thus, off-road vehicles do not have NHTSA-required VINs. Therefore, this interpretation would effectively exclude all off-road mobile machinery, which Congress may have intended to include, as reflected in the parenthetical of section 45W(c)(2)(B).
                    </P>
                    <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS considered alternatives to the recapture rules provided in proposed § 1.45W-4(c). Given that some taxpayers may consider using vehicles for partial business and partial personal use, the Treasury Department and the IRS determined it was necessary to provide rules regarding when the value of the section 45W credit can be recaptured when the vehicle is used less than 100 percent for trade or business use, other than incidental personal use. The Treasury Department and the IRS also considered the appropriate length of time for which the vehicle must be used in a trade or business. Longer and shorter periods of time were considered. Based on knowledge of commercial vehicle leasing practices (fleet leasing), the Treasury Department and the IRS determined that it was appropriate to require a qualified commercial clean vehicle to be used for 100 percent trade or business use for 18 months after it is placed in service.</P>
                    <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS considered issues raised by the applicability of the section 45W credit to used vehicles, since the statute does not contain an original use requirement. In particular, the Treasury Department and the IRS considered how best to implement the statutory no double benefit rules. Section 45W(d)(3) provides that no credit is allowed with respect to any vehicle for which a credit was allowed under section 30D. Section 45W(d)(1), in turn, incorporates section 30D(f)(8), which provides in relevant part that in the case of any vehicle, the credit shall only be allowed once with respect to such vehicle, as determined based upon the vehicle identification number of such vehicle. Section 45W(d)(1) also incorporates the no double benefit rule in section 30D(f)(2). Subsequent buyers of qualified commercial clean vehicles generally would not know if a prior tax credit for clean vehicles had been claimed with respect to a particular used vehicle. In addition, the IRS generally is legally prohibited from disclosing such confidential tax information. Given these constraints and to ensure compliance with the no double benefit rules, a taxpayer claiming such credit must establish that they are entitled to the credit by keeping evidence in their books and records, which may be provided to the IRS upon request, sufficient to establish that no deduction or other credit was previously allowed on such vehicle.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Duplicative, Overlapping, or Conflicting Federal Rules</HD>
                    <P>The proposed regulations would not duplicate, overlap, or conflict with any relevant Federal rules. As discussed in the Explanation of Provisions, the proposed regulations would merely provide requirements, procedures, and definitions related to the section 45W credit. The Treasury Department and the IRS invite input from interested members of the public about identifying and avoiding overlapping, duplicative, or conflicting requirements.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Section 7805(f)</HD>
                    <P>Pursuant to section 7805(f), this notice of proposed rulemaking has been submitted to the Chief Counsel for the Office of Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on their impact on small business.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">IV. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits and take certain other actions before issuing a final rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in expenditures in any one year by a State, local, or Tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million (updated annually for inflation). These proposed regulations 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3523"/>
                        do not include any Federal mandate that may result in expenditures by State, local, or Tribal governments, or by the private sector in excess of that threshold.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">V. Executive Order 13132: Federalism</HD>
                    <P>Executive Order 13132 (Federalism) prohibits an agency from publishing any rule that has federalism implications if the rule either imposes substantial, direct compliance costs on State and local governments, and is not required by statute, or preempts State law, unless the agency meets the consultation and funding requirements of section 6 of the Executive order. This proposed rule does not have federalism implications and does not impose substantial direct compliance costs on State and local governments or preempt State law within the meaning of the Executive order.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Comments and Public Hearing</HD>
                    <P>
                        Before these proposed amendments to the regulations are adopted as final regulations, consideration will be given to comments regarding the notice of proposed rulemaking that are submitted timely to the IRS as prescribed in the preamble under the 
                        <E T="02">ADDRESSES</E>
                         section. The Treasury Department and the IRS request comments on all aspects of the proposed regulations. All comments will be made available at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                         Once submitted to the Federal eRulemaking Portal, comments cannot be edited or withdrawn.
                    </P>
                    <P>A public hearing with respect to this notice of proposed rulemaking has been scheduled for April 28, 2025, beginning at 10 a.m. EST in the Auditorium at the Internal Revenue Building, 1111 Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC. Due to building security procedures, visitors must enter at the Constitution Avenue entrance. In addition, all visitors must present photo identification to enter the building. Because of access restrictions, visitors will not be admitted beyond the immediate entrance area more than 30 minutes before the hearing starts. Participants may alternatively attend the public hearing by telephone.</P>
                    <P>
                        The rules of 26 CFR 601.601(a)(3) apply to the public hearing. Persons who wish to present oral comments at the public hearing must submit an outline of the topics to be discussed and the time to be devoted to each topic by March 17, 2025. A period of 10 minutes will be allotted to each person for making comments. An agenda showing the scheduling of the speakers will be prepared after the deadline for receiving outlines has passed. Copies of the agenda will be available free of charge at the public hearing. If no outline of the topics to be discussed at the public hearing is received by March 17, 2025, the public hearing will be cancelled. If the public hearing is cancelled, a notice of cancellation of the public hearing will be published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Individuals who want to testify in person at the public hearing must send an email to 
                        <E T="03">publichearings@irs.gov</E>
                         to have your name added to the building access list. The subject line of the email must contain the regulation number REG-123525-23 and the language TESTIFY In Person. For example, the subject line may say: Request to TESTIFY In Person at Hearing for REG-123525-23.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Individuals who want to testify by telephone at the public hearing must send an email to 
                        <E T="03">publichearings@irs.gov</E>
                         to receive the telephone number and access code for the public hearing. The subject line of the email must contain the regulation number REG-123525-23 and the language TESTIFY Telephonically. For example, the subject line may say: Request to TESTIFY Telephonically at Hearing for REG-123525-23.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Individuals who want to attend the public hearing in person without testifying must also send an email to 
                        <E T="03">publichearings@irs.gov</E>
                         to have your name added to the building access list. The subject line of the email must contain the regulation number REG-123525-23 and the language ATTEND In Person. For example, the subject line may say: Request to ATTEND Hearing In Person for REG-123525-23. Requests to attend the public hearing must be received by 5 p.m. EST on April 24, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Individuals who want to attend the public hearing by telephone without testifying must also send an email to 
                        <E T="03">publichearings@irs.gov</E>
                         to receive the telephone number and access code for the public hearing. The subject line of the email must contain the regulation number REG-123525-23 and the language ATTEND Hearing Telephonically. For example, the subject line may say: Request to ATTEND Hearing Telephonically for REG-123525-23. Requests to attend the public hearing must be received by 5 p.m. EST on April 24, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Public hearings will be made accessible to people with disabilities. To request special assistance during a public hearing please contact the Publications and Regulations Section of the Office of Associate Chief Counsel (Procedure and Administration) by sending an email to 
                        <E T="03">publichearings@irs.gov</E>
                         (preferred) or by telephone at (202) 317-6901 (not a toll-free number) and must be received by at least April 23, 2025.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Statement of Availability of IRS Documents</HD>
                    <P>
                        Revenue procedures, revenue rulings, notices, and other guidance cited in this preamble is published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin and is available from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Publishing Office, Washington, DC 20402, or by visiting the IRS website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.irs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Drafting Information</HD>
                    <P>The principal authors of these proposed regulations are James Williford, Iris Chung, David Villagrana, and Rika Valdman of the Office of the Associate Chief Counsel (Passthroughs and Special Industries). However, other personnel from the Treasury Department, the DOE, and the IRS participated in their development.</P>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 26 CFR Part 1</HD>
                        <P>Income taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Proposed Amendments to the Regulations</HD>
                    <P>Accordingly, the Treasury Department and the IRS propose to amend 26 CFR part 1 as follows:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1—INCOME TAXES</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Paragraph 1.</E>
                         The authority citation for part 1 is amended by adding entries in numerical order for §§ 1.45W-1 through 1.45W-5 to read in part as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AUTH>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                        <P> 26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *</P>
                    </AUTH>
                    <STARS/>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>Section 1.45W-1 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 45W(f) and 30D(d)(3).</P>
                        <P>Section 1.45W-2 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 45W(f).</P>
                        <P>Section 1.45W-3 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 45W(f).</P>
                        <P>Section 1.45W-4 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 45W(f) and 30D(f)(5).</P>
                        <P>Section 1.45W-5 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 45W(f).</P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <STARS/>
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 2.</E>
                         Section 1.25E-2 is amended by:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>1. Adding paragraph (b)(3); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>2. Revising paragraph (i).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The addition and revision read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.25E-2</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Special rules.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(b) * * *</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Interaction between section 25E and section 45W credits.</E>
                             A credit that has been allowed under section 45W of 
                            <PRTPAGE P="3524"/>
                            the Code with respect to a vehicle in a taxable year before the taxable year in which a section 25E credit is allowable for that vehicle does not reduce the amount allowable under section 25E.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability dates</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             Except as provided in paragraph (i)(2) of this section, this section applies to previously-owned clean vehicles placed in service after December 31, 2022, in taxable years ending after October 10, 2023.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Paragraph (b)(3) of this section.</E>
                             Paragraph (b)(3) of this section applies to taxable years ending after [date of publication of the final regulations in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                            ].
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 3.</E>
                         Section 1.30D-2 is amended by revising paragraphs (b)(28)(ii) and (d) to read as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.30D-2</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Definitions for purposes of section 30D.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(b) * * *</P>
                        <P>(28) * * *</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Modification of a new motor vehicle.</E>
                             If a manufacturer modifies a new motor vehicle (as defined in 42 U.S.C. 7550(3)) that does not satisfy the requirements of section 30D(d)(1)(F) or (6) so that the new motor vehicle, after modification, does satisfy such requirements, then such manufacturer may satisfy the requirements of section 30D(d)(3) if the modification occurred prior to the new motor vehicle being placed in service.
                        </P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability dates</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, this section applies to taxable years ending after December 4, 2023.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Paragraph (b)(28)(ii) of this section.</E>
                             Paragraph (b)(28)(ii) of this section applies to taxable years ending after [date of publication of the final regulations in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                            ].
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 4.</E>
                         Sections 1.45W-0 through 1.45W-5 are added to read as follows:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <CONTENTS>
                        <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                        <STARS/>
                        <SECTNO>1.45W-0</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Table of contents.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1.45W-1</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Credit for qualified commercial clean vehicles; definitions.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1.45W-2</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Amount of section 45W credit; incremental cost.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1.45W-3</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Qualified commercial clean vehicle.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1.45W-4</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Special rules.</SUBJECT>
                        <SECTNO>1.45W-5</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Reporting requirements.</SUBJECT>
                    </CONTENTS>
                    <STARS/>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.45W-0</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Table of contents.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>This section lists the captions contained in §§ 1.45W-1 through 1.45W-5.</P>
                        <EXTRACT>
                            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                <E T="03">§ 1.45W-1</E>
                                 
                                <E T="03">Credit for qualified commercial clean vehicles; definitions.</E>
                            </FP>
                            <P>(a) In general.</P>
                            <P>(b) Definitions.</P>
                            <P>(1) Battery.</P>
                            <P>(2) Battery electric vehicle or BEV.</P>
                            <P>(3) Fuel cell electric vehicle of FCEV.</P>
                            <P>(4) Gross Vehicle Weight Rating or GVWR.</P>
                            <P>(5) Manufacturer.</P>
                            <P>(6) Placed in service.</P>
                            <P>(7) Plug-in hybrid electric vehicle or PHEV.</P>
                            <P>(8) Plug-in hybrid fuel cell electric vehicle or PHFCEV.</P>
                            <P>(9) Qualified commercial clean vehicle.</P>
                            <P>(10) Qualified manufacturer.</P>
                            <P>(11) Secretary.</P>
                            <P>(12) Section 45W regulations.</P>
                            <P>(13) Statutory references.</P>
                            <P>(i) Chapter 1.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Code.</P>
                            <P>(iii) Subtitle A.</P>
                            <P>(c) Applicability date.</P>
                            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                <E T="03">§ 1.45W-2</E>
                                 
                                <E T="03">Amount of section 45W credit; incremental cost.</E>
                            </FP>
                            <P>(a) Per vehicle amount.</P>
                            <P>(b) Incremental cost.</P>
                            <P>(1) In general.</P>
                            <P>(2) Manufacturer's cost.</P>
                            <P>(3) Retail price equivalent.</P>
                            <P>(i) In general.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Retail price.</P>
                            <P>(iii) Retail delivered price.</P>
                            <P>(iv) Safe harbor.</P>
                            <P>(4) Comparable vehicle.</P>
                            <P>(i) In general.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Gasoline- or diesel-powered vehicle by same manufacturer.</P>
                            <P>(iii) Vehicle comparable in size and use.</P>
                            <P>(iv) Example.</P>
                            <P>(A) Facts.</P>
                            <P>(B) Analysis.</P>
                            <P>(c) Incremental cost equations and calculations.</P>
                            <P>(1) ICE powertrain cost.</P>
                            <P>(2) Battery electric vehicles.</P>
                            <P>(3) Plug-in hybrid electric vehicles.</P>
                            <P>(4) Fuel cell electric vehicles.</P>
                            <P>(5) Plug-in hybrid fuel cell electric vehicles.</P>
                            <P>(6) Incremental cost determined exclusive of auxiliary power units.</P>
                            <P>(7) Incremental cost determine inclusive of additional batteries, fuel cells, or hydrogen storage.</P>
                            <P>(8) Negative incremental cost treated as zero.</P>
                            <P>(9) Incremental cost if no comparable vehicle exists.</P>
                            <P>(10) Taxpayer reliance on qualified manufacturer's incremental cost determination.</P>
                            <P>(11) Safe harbor.</P>
                            <P>(d) Definitions.</P>
                            <P>(1) Battery.</P>
                            <P>(2) Electric traction drive system and components.</P>
                            <P>(3) Electrical accessories.</P>
                            <P>(4) Engine and engine components.</P>
                            <P>(5) Fuel cell.</P>
                            <P>(6) Hydrogen storage.</P>
                            <P>(7) Hydrogen storage cost.</P>
                            <P>(8) Mechanical accessories.</P>
                            <P>(9) Transmission.</P>
                            <P>(e) Examples.</P>
                            <P>(1) Example 1.</P>
                            <P>(i) Facts.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Analysis.</P>
                            <P>(2) Example 2.</P>
                            <P>(i) Facts.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Analysis.</P>
                            <P>(3) Example 3.</P>
                            <P>(i) Facts.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Analysis.</P>
                            <P>(f) Incremental cost of qualified commercial clean vehicle previously placed in service by another person or entity.</P>
                            <P>(1) In general.</P>
                            <P>(2) Age of a qualified commercial clean vehicle previously placed in service by another person or entity.</P>
                            <P>(3) Residual value factor.</P>
                            <P>(4) Example.</P>
                            <P>(i) Facts.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Analysis.</P>
                            <P>(g) Applicability date.</P>
                            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                <E T="03">§ 1.45W-3</E>
                                 
                                <E T="03">Qualified commercial clean vehicle.</E>
                            </FP>
                            <P>(a) In general.</P>
                            <P>(b) Acquired for use or lease and not for resale by the taxpayer.</P>
                            <P>(1) In general.</P>
                            <P>(2) Recharacterization of lease.</P>
                            <P>(c) Type of vehicle.</P>
                            <P>(1) In general.</P>
                            <P>(2) On-road vehicle.</P>
                            <P>(3) Mobile machinery.</P>
                            <P>(d) Electric motor and battery requirements.</P>
                            <P>(1) In general.</P>
                            <P>(2) Battery capable of being recharged from an external source of electricity.</P>
                            <P>(e) Applicability date.</P>
                            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                <E T="03">§ 1.45W-4</E>
                                 
                                <E T="03">Special rules.</E>
                            </FP>
                            <P>(a) No double benefit.</P>
                            <P>(1) Previous allowance of section 45W or 30D credit.</P>
                            <P>(2) Allowance of other deduction or credit.</P>
                            <P>(b) Credit ineligibility resulting from certain transactions and uses.</P>
                            <P>(1) In general.</P>
                            <P>(2) Cancelled sale.</P>
                            <P>(3) Vehicle return.</P>
                            <P>(4) Resale.</P>
                            <P>(5) Less than 100 percent trade or business use in taxable year vehicle is placed in service.</P>
                            <P>(c) Recapture.</P>
                            <P>(1) In general.</P>
                            <P>(2) Recapture in the case of less than 10 percent trade or business use.</P>
                            <P>(i) In general.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Applicability to vehicles placed in service by a tax-exempt entity.</P>
                            <P>(d) Elective payment elections.</P>
                            <P>(e) Leases.</P>
                            <P>(f) Applicability date.</P>
                            <FP SOURCE="FP-2">
                                <E T="03">§ 1.45W-5</E>
                                 
                                <E T="03">Reporting requirements.</E>
                            </FP>
                            <P>(a) Requirement to file return.</P>
                            <P>(b) Credit may generally be claimed on only one tax return.</P>
                            <P>(1) In general.</P>
                            <P>(2) Grantor trusts.</P>
                            <P>(3) Partnerships and S corporations.</P>
                            <P>(c) Taxpayer reliance on manufacturer certifications and periodic written reports to the IRS.</P>
                            <P>(d) Applicability date.</P>
                        </EXTRACT>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <PRTPAGE P="3525"/>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.45W-1</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Credit for qualified commercial clean vehicles; definitions.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             The section 45W regulations (defined in paragraph (b)(12) of this section) apply for purposes of determining the availability and amount of any credit under section 45W of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) with respect to a qualified commercial clean vehicle placed in service by a taxpayer during such taxpayer's taxable year (section 45W credit). Paragraph (b) of this section provides definitions of terms for purposes of applying section 45W and the section 45W regulations. Section 1.45W-2 provides rules for determining the per-vehicle credit amount under section 45W(b). Section 1.45W-3 provides rules related to the definition of 
                            <E T="03">qualified commercial clean vehicle</E>
                             under section 45W(c). Section 1.45W-4 provides special rules related to section 45W(d). Section 1.45W-5 provides reporting requirements for purposes of section 45W.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             The following definitions apply for purposes of section 45W and the section 45W regulations. For definitions specific to incremental cost calculations, 
                            <E T="03">see</E>
                             § 1.45W-2(d).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Battery. Battery</E>
                             means a collection of one or more battery modules, each of which has two or more battery cells, electrically configured in series or parallel, to create voltage or current. The term 
                            <E T="03">battery</E>
                             does not include items such as thermal management systems or other parts of a battery cell or module that do not directly contribute to the electrochemical storage of energy within the battery, such as battery cell cases, cans, or pouches.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Battery electric vehicle or BEV. Battery electric vehicle</E>
                             or 
                            <E T="03">BEV</E>
                             means a vehicle propelled solely by an electric motor that draws electricity from batteries capable of being recharged from an external source of electricity.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Fuel cell electric vehicle or FCEV. Fuel cell electric vehicle</E>
                             or 
                            <E T="03">FCEV</E>
                             means a vehicle—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) That is propelled by power derived from one or more cells that convert chemical energy directly into electricity by combining oxygen with hydrogen fuel that is stored on board the vehicle in any form and may or may not require reformation prior to use; and</P>
                        <P>(ii) That, in the case of a light-duty vehicle (that is, a passenger automobile or light truck), has received on or after August 8, 2005 (the date of the enactment of section 30B of the Code), a certificate indicating that such vehicle meets or exceeds the Bin 5 Tier II emission level established in regulations in 40 CFR chapter I prescribed by the Administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) under section 202(i) of the Clean Air Act (CAA) (42 U.S.C. 7521(i)) for that make and model year vehicle.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Gross vehicle weight rating or GVWR. Gross vehicle weight rating</E>
                             or 
                            <E T="03">GVWR</E>
                             has the meaning provided in 40 CFR 86.082-2 and 49 CFR 571.3(b).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">Manufacturer—</E>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">In general. Manufacturer</E>
                             means any manufacturer within the meaning of the regulations in 40 CFR chapter I prescribed by the Administrator of the EPA for purposes of the administration of title II of the CAA (42 U.S.C. 7521 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                            ) and as defined in 42 U.S.C. 7550(1). If multiple manufacturers are involved in the production of a vehicle, the requirements of section 30D(d)(3) must be met by the manufacturer that satisfies the reporting requirements of the greenhouse gas emissions standards set by the EPA under the CAA (42 U.S.C. 7521 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                            ) for the subject vehicle.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Modification of a new motor vehicle.</E>
                             If a manufacturer modifies a new motor vehicle (as defined in 42 U.S.C. 7550(3)) that does not satisfy the requirements of section 45W(c)(3) so that the vehicle, after modification, does satisfy such requirements, then such manufacturer may satisfy the requirements of section 30D(d)(3) of the Code and § 1.30D-2(b)(28)(i) for purposes of paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section if the modification occurs prior to the vehicle being placed in service.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (6) 
                            <E T="03">Placed in service.</E>
                             A qualified commercial clean vehicle is considered to be placed in service on the date the taxpayer takes possession of the vehicle.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (7) 
                            <E T="03">Plug-in hybrid electric vehicle or PHEV. Plug-in hybrid electric vehicle</E>
                             or 
                            <E T="03">PHEV</E>
                             means a vehicle that uses batteries that can be recharged from an external source of electricity to power an electric motor that propels the vehicle to a significant extent, and another fuel, such as gasoline or diesel, to power an internal combustion engine or other propulsion source.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (8) 
                            <E T="03">Plug-in hybrid fuel cell electric vehicle or PHFCEV. Plug-in hybrid fuel cell electric vehicle</E>
                             or 
                            <E T="03">PHFCEV</E>
                             means a vehicle that uses batteries that can be recharged from an external source of electricity to power an electric motor that propels the vehicle to a significant extent and a hydrogen fuel source that powers an electric motor through the fuel cell system.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (9) 
                            <E T="03">Qualified commercial clean vehicle. Qualified commercial clean vehicle</E>
                             means a vehicle that meets the requirements of section 45W(c) and § 1.45W-3(b) through (d). Vehicles that may qualify as qualified commercial clean vehicles include BEVs, FCEVs, PHEVs, and PHFCEVs. A vehicle does not meet the requirements of section 45W(c) if—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The qualified manufacturer fails to provide a periodic written report for such vehicle prior to the vehicle being placed in service by the taxpayer claiming the credit that reports the vehicle identification number of such vehicle and certifies compliance with the requirements of section 45W(c);</P>
                        <P>(ii) The qualified manufacturer provides incorrect information with respect to the periodic written report for such vehicle; or</P>
                        <P>(iii) The qualified manufacturer fails to update its periodic written report in the event of a material change with respect to such vehicle.</P>
                        <P>
                            (10) 
                            <E T="03">Qualified manufacturer. Qualified manufacturer</E>
                             means a manufacturer that meets the requirements described in section 30D(d)(3) at the time the manufacturer submits a periodic written report to the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) under a written agreement described in section 30D(d)(3). The term 
                            <E T="03">qualified manufacturer</E>
                             does not include any manufacturer whose qualified manufacturer status has been terminated by the IRS. The IRS may terminate qualified manufacturer status for fraud, intentional disregard, or gross negligence with respect to any requirements of section 45W, the section 45W regulations, or any guidance under section 45W, including with respect to the periodic written reports described in section 30D(d)(3) and this paragraph (b)(10). The IRS may also terminate qualified manufacturer status for fraud, intentional disregard, or gross negligence with respect to any requirement of section 25E or 30D or any regulations in this chapter or guidance thereunder.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (11) 
                            <E T="03">Secretary. Secretary</E>
                             has the meaning provided in section 7701(a)(11)(B) of the Code.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (12) 
                            <E T="03">Section 45W regulations. Section 45W regulations</E>
                             means this section and §§ 1.45W-2 through 1.45W-5.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (13) 
                            <E T="03">Statutory references</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Chapter 1.</E>
                             C
                            <E T="03">hapter 1</E>
                             means chapter 1 of the Code.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Code. Code</E>
                             means the Internal Revenue Code.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Subtitle A.</E>
                             S
                            <E T="03">ubtitle A</E>
                             means subtitle A of the Code.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                             This section applies to qualified commercial clean vehicles placed in service in taxable years ending after [date of publication of the final regulations in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                            ].
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <PRTPAGE P="3526"/>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.45W-2</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Amount of section 45W credit; incremental cost.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Per-vehicle credit amount.</E>
                             Subject to the limitation in section 45W(b)(4) of the Code, the per-vehicle credit amount under section 45W(b)(1) with respect to any qualified commercial clean vehicle is the lesser of 15 percent of the basis of such vehicle (or 30 percent in the case of a vehicle not powered by a gasoline or diesel internal combustion engine (ICE)), or the incremental cost of such vehicle.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Incremental cost—</E>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             For purposes of section 45W(b)(2), the incremental cost of any qualified commercial clean vehicle is determined using the incremental cost calculations and equations in paragraph (c) of this section to determine the amount equal to the excess of—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The product of the qualified manufacturer's cost of components necessary for the BEV powertrain, FCEV powertrain, PHEV powertrain, or PHFCEV powertrain used in the vehicle and the retail price equivalent (RPE) of such vehicle; minus</P>
                        <P>(ii) The product of the manufacturer's cost of components necessary for the powertrain of a comparable vehicle powered solely by a gasoline or diesel ICE and the RPE of such comparable vehicle.</P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Manufacturer's cost.</E>
                             For purposes of this section, a manufacturer's cost includes only its direct manufacturing costs, which may include, but are not limited to, the costs of materials and labor.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Retail price equivalent</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             The 
                            <E T="03">RPE</E>
                             is the ratio of the manufacturer's suggested retail price (MSRP) of a vehicle to the manufacturer's cost to manufacture such vehicle. The MSRP is the sum of the retail price and the retail delivered price.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Retail price.</E>
                             For purposes of paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, 
                            <E T="03">retail price</E>
                             is the retail price of the vehicle suggested by the manufacturer as described in 15 U.S.C. 1232(f)(1).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Retail delivered price. Retail delivered price,</E>
                             for purposes of paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, is the retail delivered price suggested by the manufacturer for each accessory or item of optional equipment physically attached to such vehicle at the time of its delivery to the dealer that is not included within the price of such vehicle as stated pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 1232(f)(1), as described in 15 U.S.C. 1232(f)(2).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iv) 
                            <E T="03">Safe harbor.</E>
                             The Secretary may publish guidance in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (see § 601.601 of this chapter) no more frequently than annually that will provide RPE safe harbors for different segments of the vehicle market. Any taxpayer that uses an RPE provided in safe harbor guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (see § 601.601 of this chapter) to determine the cost of a BEV, PHEV, FCEV, PHFCEV, or ICE powertrain will be deemed to have satisfied the requirements of this paragraph (b)(3), provided all requirements specified in the applicable RPE safe harbor guidance have been met. No formal election is required for a taxpayer to use a safe harbor RPE.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Comparable vehicle</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             A comparable vehicle is any vehicle that is powered solely by a gasoline or diesel ICE and is comparable in size and use to the qualified commercial clean vehicle. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, the manufacturer of the comparable vehicle need not be the manufacturer of the qualified commercial clean vehicle.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Gasoline- or diesel-powered vehicle by same manufacturer.</E>
                             If the qualified manufacturer of a qualified commercial clean vehicle also manufactures a solely gasoline- or diesel-powered ICE version of such vehicle, meaning a vehicle of the same model, produced in the same model year, and with features substantially similar to those of the qualified commercial clean vehicle, such solely gasoline- or diesel-powered vehicle is the only comparable vehicle with respect to such qualified commercial clean vehicle.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Vehicle comparable in size and use.</E>
                             A vehicle is comparable to a qualified commercial clean vehicle in size and use if, as relevant to the particular qualified commercial clean vehicle, it has substantially similar features, such as GVWR, number of doors, towing capacity, passenger capacity, cargo capacity, mounted equipment, drivetrain type, overall width, height and ground clearance, and trim level.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iv) 
                            <E T="03">Example: Comparable vehicle</E>
                            —(A) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             A passenger car with a BEV powertrain (BEV X) that is a qualified commercial clean vehicle has a GVWR of 4,800 pounds, four doors, five-passenger seating capacity, a mid-range trim level, and a 250-horsepower powertrain. A passenger car with an ICE powertrain (ICE Car 1) has a GVWR of 4,500 pounds, four doors, five-passenger seating capacity, a mid-range trim level, and a 200-horsepower powertrain. A second passenger car with an ICE powertrain (ICE Car 2) has a GVWR of 4,500 pounds, two doors, two-passenger seating capacity, a high-end trim level, and a 250-horsepower powertrain.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             ICE Car 1 is comparable to BEV X because ICE Car 1 and BEV X have substantially similar GVWRs (4,800 pounds compared to 4,500 pounds), numbers of doors (4), passenger capacity (5), and trim levels (mid-range). The fact that ICE Car 1 and BEV X have dissimilar horsepower is not determinative because whether two vehicles are comparable vehicles under the rules of paragraph (b)(4) of this section is not entirely dependent on the performance characteristics of the powertrains. ICE Car 2 and BEV X, which have different numbers of doors (4 compared to 2), passenger capacities (5 compared to 2), and trim levels (mid-range compared to high-end), are not comparable. Therefore, ICE Car 1 is a comparable vehicle for purposes of calculating the incremental cost of BEV X, but ICE Car 2 is not.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Incremental cost equations and calculations.</E>
                             The incremental cost equations and calculations set forth in this paragraph (c) apply to determine the incremental cost of a qualified commercial clean vehicle for purposes of section 45W(b)(2) and this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">ICE powertrain cost.</E>
                             For purposes of the equations and calculations in this paragraph (c), the ICE powertrain cost is the sum of the cost of the engine, the ICE transmission, and the mechanical accessories.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Battery electric vehicles.</E>
                             In the case of a BEV, the incremental cost of the BEV is the product of the manufacturer's cost of the BEV powertrain and the RPE of such vehicle, less the product of the manufacturer's cost of the comparable vehicle ICE powertrain and the RPE of such vehicle. The BEV powertrain cost is the sum of the cost of the electric traction drive system (which, for purposes of equation 1 to this paragraph (c)(2), includes the BEV transmission), the battery, and the electrical accessories. Expressed formulaically, the rule is as follows:
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Equation 1 to Paragraph (c)(2)</HD>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Incremental cost of BEV = (BEV powertrain cost × RPE)−(ICE powertrain cost × RPE)</FP>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Plug-in hybrid electric vehicles.</E>
                             In the case of a PHEV, the incremental cost of the PHEV is the product of the manufacturer's cost of the PHEV powertrain and the RPE of such vehicle, less the product of the manufacturer's cost of the comparable vehicle ICE powertrain and the RPE of such vehicle. The PHEV powertrain cost is the sum of the cost of the engine, the electric traction drive system (which, for 
                            <PRTPAGE P="3527"/>
                            purposes of equation 2 to this paragraph (c)(3), includes the PHEV transmission), the battery, and the electrical accessories. Expressed formulaically, the rule is as follows:
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Equation 2 to Paragraph (c)(3)</HD>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Incremental cost of PHEV = (PHEV powertrain cost × RPE)−(ICE powertrain cost × RPE)</FP>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Fuel cell electric vehicles.</E>
                             In the case of a FCEV, the incremental cost of the FCEV is the product of the manufacturer's cost of the FCEV powertrain and the RPE of such vehicle, less the product of the manufacturer's cost of the comparable vehicle ICE powertrain and the RPE of such vehicle. The FCEV powertrain cost is the sum of the cost of the fuel cell system, the hydrogen storage, the electric traction drive system (which, for purposes of equation 3 to this paragraph (c)(4), includes the FCEV transmission), the battery, and the electrical accessories. Expressed formulaically, the rule is as follows:
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Equation 3 to Paragraph (c)(4)</HD>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Incremental cost of FCEV = (FCEV powertrain cost × RPE)−(ICE powertrain cost × RPE)</FP>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">Plug-in hybrid fuel cell electric vehicles.</E>
                             In the case of a PHFCEV, the incremental cost of the PHFCEV is the product of the manufacturer's cost of the PHFCEV powertrain and the RPE of such vehicle, less the product of the manufacturer's cost of the comparable vehicle ICE powertrain and the RPE of such vehicle. The PHFCEV powertrain cost is the sum of the cost of the fuel cell system, the hydrogen storage, the electric traction drive system (which, for purposes of equation 4 to this paragraph (c)(5), includes the PHFCEV transmission), the battery, and the electrical accessories. Expressed formulaically, the rule is as follows:
                        </P>
                        <HD SOURCE="HD3">Equation 4 to Paragraph (c)(5)</HD>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-2">Incremental cost of PHFCEV = (PHFCEV powertrain cost × RPE)−(ICE powertrain cost × RPE)</FP>
                        <P>
                            (6) 
                            <E T="03">Incremental cost determined exclusive of auxiliary power units.</E>
                             The incremental cost of a qualified commercial clean vehicle is determined without regard to any auxiliary power unit installed on such vehicle or on a comparable vehicle.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (7) 
                            <E T="03">Incremental cost determined inclusive of additional batteries, fuel cells, or hydrogen storage.</E>
                             The incremental cost of a qualified commercial clean vehicle is determined by adding to the cost of the BEV, FCEV, PHEV, or PHFCEV powertrain the cost of additional batteries installed on such vehicle, regardless of whether such additional batteries are required by a power takeoff, as well as additional fuel cells or additional hydrogen storage installed on such vehicle, regardless of whether such additional fuel cells are required by a power takeoff.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (8) 
                            <E T="03">Negative incremental cost treated as zero.</E>
                             If the incremental cost calculation results in a negative number, meaning that the cost of the BEV, FCEV, PHEV, or PHFCEV powertrain used in the qualified commercial clean vehicle is less than the cost of the ICE powertrain of a comparable vehicle, then the incremental cost of the qualified commercial vehicle is zero. This paragraph (c)(8) does not affect the availability of the safe harbor described in paragraph (c)(11) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (9) 
                            <E T="03">Incremental cost if no comparable vehicle exists.</E>
                             If a taxpayer or manufacturer cannot identify a comparable vehicle with respect to a particular qualified commercial clean vehicle, then the incremental cost of such qualified commercial clean vehicle is zero. This paragraph (c)(9) does not affect the availability of the safe harbor described in paragraph (c)(11) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (10) 
                            <E T="03">Taxpayer reliance on qualified manufacturer's incremental cost determination.</E>
                             If a qualified manufacturer provides a taxpayer with written documentation of the incremental cost of a qualified commercial clean vehicle that identifies the comparable vehicle such manufacturer used for the incremental cost calculation and the taxpayer keeps such incremental cost documentation in the taxpayer's records for as long as the period of limitations for the taxable period in which the credit was claimed is open, the taxpayer may rely on such incremental cost for purposes of calculating the amount of the section 45W credit (defined in § 1.45W-1(a)) with respect to such vehicle. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             § 1.45W-1(b)(9) for consequences of qualified manufacturer fraud, intentional disregard, or gross negligence with respect to any requirements of section 45W, the section 45W regulations (defined in § 1.45W-1(b)(12)), or any guidance issued by the Secretary under section 45W.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (11) 
                            <E T="03">Safe harbor.</E>
                             The Secretary may publish guidance in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (see § 601.601 of this chapter) no more frequently than annually that will provide incremental cost safe harbors for different types and classes of qualified commercial clean vehicles placed in service during a specified period. Any taxpayer that uses an incremental cost safe harbor provided in guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (see § 601.601 of this chapter) will be deemed to have satisfied the requirements of section 45W(b)(1)(B) and (2) and paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, provided all requirements specified in the applicable safe harbor guidance have been met. No formal election is required for a taxpayer to use an incremental cost safe harbor.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                             This paragraph (d) provides definitions related to the incremental cost rules in section 45W(b)(1)(B) and paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Battery. Battery</E>
                             has the meaning provided in § 1.45W-1(b)(1).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Electric traction drive system and components</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Electric traction drive system. Electric traction drive system</E>
                             means a system used to provide vehicle propulsion in BEVs, FCEVs, PHEVs, and PHFCEVs by delivering torque to the wheels and axle of the vehicle, and includes, but is not limited to, an electric motor, an inverter, and a transmission.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Electric motor. Electric motor</E>
                             means the component that includes the stator, rotor, shaft, housing, bearings, and lubrication elements. Multiple electric motors may be used in a vehicle.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Inverter. Inverter</E>
                             means a component that converts direct current (DC) from the battery into alternating current (AC) to power the electric motor, providing precise control over motor operations.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iv) 
                            <E T="03">BEV, FCEV, PHEV, and PHFCEV transmission.</E>
                             For the definition of 
                            <E T="03">transmission</E>
                             for BEVs, FCEVs, PHEVs, and PHFCEVs, see paragraph (d)(9)(i) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Electrical accessories</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">In general. Electrical accessories</E>
                             means accessories that support, but do not independently facilitate, the function of essential vehicle systems, and include, but are not limited to, battery enclosures, a compressor, an electric steering pump, high voltage cables and connections, thermal management systems, and a vacuum pump.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Battery enclosures. Battery enclosures</E>
                             means components that consist of battery cases, cans or pouches, or casings or packaging used to enclose and protect battery cells and modules into a pack.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Compressor. Compressor</E>
                             means a component that powers the air conditioning system, ensuring effective climate control within the vehicle.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iv) 
                            <E T="03">Electric steering pump. Electric steering pump</E>
                             means a component that provides hydraulic assistance for the 
                            <PRTPAGE P="3528"/>
                            steering mechanism, enhancing ease of steering and vehicle maneuverability.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (v) 
                            <E T="03">High voltage cables and connections. High voltage cables and connections</E>
                             means components that include all high voltage cables, connections to electric drive units, cables from the onboard charger, DC-DC converter, air compressors, and the charging cable from the charging port to the onboard charger.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (vi) 
                            <E T="03">Thermal management systems. Thermal management systems</E>
                             means components that manage heating and cooling loads to ensure the efficient operation of the battery and electric traction drive system.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (vii) 
                            <E T="03">Vacuum pump. Vacuum pump</E>
                             means a component that is essential for various vehicle systems that require vacuum assistance, contributing to overall system functionality.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Engine and engine components</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Engin</E>
                            e. The 
                            <E T="03">engine</E>
                             generates power by burning fuel with air inside the engine. The engine includes, but is not limited to, air intake and cooling systems, assembly accessories, core engine components, engine management sensors and electronics, exhaust gas regulator and breather systems, fuel systems, induction air charging and fuel induction systems, power distribution and sensing for after-treatment, primary exhaust and after-treatment modules, and a valve train.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Air intake and cooling systems. Air intake and cooling systems</E>
                             means components that ensure adequate airflow for combustion and regulate engine temperature through the use of pumps, pipes, and cooling fans.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Assembly accessories. Assembly accessories</E>
                             means auxiliary components that are necessary for the assembly and integration of the powertrain system.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iv) 
                            <E T="03">Core engine components. Core engine components</E>
                             means components that include the engine cylinder head, crankshaft, and cylinder block, which form the fundamental structure of the engine, facilitating combustion and power generation.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (v) 
                            <E T="03">Engine management sensors and electronics. Engine management sensors and electronics</E>
                             means control units and sensors that monitor and adjust engine parameters to maximize engine performance and minimize emissions.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (vi) 
                            <E T="03">Exhaust gas regulator and breather systems. Exhaust gas regulator and breather systems</E>
                             means components that control the release of exhaust gases and maintain proper ventilation of the engine crankcase.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (vii) 
                            <E T="03">Fuel system. Fuel system</E>
                             means components that encompass fuel storage, distribution, and evaporative control components, ensuring proper fuel delivery and reducing emissions.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (viii) 
                            <E T="03">Induction air charging and fuel induction systems. Induction air charging and fuel induction systems</E>
                             means components that regulate the intake of air and fuel into the combustion chambers, ensuring efficient mixing and combustion.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ix) 
                            <E T="03">Power distribution and sensing for after-treatment. Power distribution and sensing for after-treatment</E>
                             means sensors and distribution mechanisms that manage the after-treatment process, ensuring effective emission control.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (x) 
                            <E T="03">Primary exhaust and after-treatment modules. Primary exhaust and after-treatment modules</E>
                             means components that handle the initial expulsion of exhaust gases and subsequent treatment to meet emission standards.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (xi) 
                            <E T="03">Valve train. Valve train</E>
                             means a component that manages the timing and operation of the engine's intake and exhaust valves, optimizing airflow and exhaust processes.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">Fuel cell. Fuel cell</E>
                             means one or more cells in a stack that convert chemical energy directly into electricity by combining oxygen with hydrogen fuel that is stored on board the vehicle in any form and may or may not require reformation prior to use. The fuel cell system includes the stack as well as auxiliary components that include but are not limited to pumps, sensors, heat exchangers, gaskets, compressors, recirculation blowers, or humidifiers.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (6) 
                            <E T="03">Hydrogen storage. Hydrogen storage</E>
                             means storage of hydrogen on board the vehicle in high-pressure tanks as a gas or liquid.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (7) 
                            <E T="03">Hydrogen storage cost. Hydrogen storage cost</E>
                             includes the cost of the tank and the components that manage the flow of hydrogen from the tank to the fuel cell system (that is, hydrogen supply and regulation).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (8) 
                            <E T="03">Mechanical accessories</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">In general. Mechanical accessories</E>
                             are accessories that support, but do not independently facilitate, the function of essential vehicle systems, and include, but are not limited to, a compressor, a mechanical steering pump, and a water pump.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Compressor. Compressor</E>
                             means a component that powers the air conditioning system, ensuring effective climate control within the vehicle.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iii) 
                            <E T="03">Mechanical steering pump. Mechanical steering pump</E>
                             means a component that provides hydraulic assistance to the steering mechanism, reducing the effort required by the driver to turn the steering wheel.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (iv) 
                            <E T="03">Water pump. Water pump</E>
                             means a component that circulates coolant throughout the engine to maintain optimal operating temperatures and prevent overheating.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (9) 
                            <E T="03">Transmission</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">BEVs, FCEVs, PHEVs and PHFCEVs.</E>
                             For BEVs, FCEVs, PHEVs, and PHFCEVs, 
                            <E T="03">transmission</E>
                             means a mechanical device that uses a gear set—two or more gears working together—to change the speed or direction of rotation in a machine. For BEVs and FCEVs (electric vehicles), 
                            <E T="03">transmission</E>
                             means a component that consists of a single- or multi-speed, single- or multi-reduction gearbox that transfers power from the electric machine to the wheels. For PHEVs and PHFCEVs (plug-in hybrid vehicles), transmission components will depend on the vehicle driveline and orientation of the hybrid system (
                            <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                             parallel or series) and may include, but are not limited to:
                        </P>
                        <P>(A) Two transmissions (one ICE transmission and one electric vehicle transmission);</P>
                        <P>(B) One transmission with some components of both ICE and EV transmissions; and</P>
                        <P>(C) One electric vehicle transmission only.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">ICE vehicles</E>
                            —(A) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             For ICE vehicles, 
                            <E T="03">transmission</E>
                             means a mechanical device that uses a gear set (that is, two or more gears working together) to change the speed or direction of rotation in a machine. For ICE vehicles, a transmission may include, but is not limited to, a case, a drivetrain and geartrain, an internal clutch and torque converter, a lubrication system, a mechanical controls and electronic distribution system, a park-brake mechanism, and a transmission cooling system.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) 
                            <E T="03">Case, drivetrain, and geartrain. Case, drivetrain, and geartrain</E>
                             means the mechanical components within the transmission that transfer power from the engine to the wheels, including gears and shafts.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (C) 
                            <E T="03">Internal clutch and torque converter. Internal clutch and torque converter</E>
                             means components that facilitate smooth power transfer and gear changes, enhancing drivability.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (D) 
                            <E T="03">Lubrication system. Lubrication system</E>
                             means components that ensure all moving parts within the transmission are adequately lubricated, reducing friction and wear.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (E) 
                            <E T="03">Mechanical controls and electronic distribution system. Mechanical controls and electronic distribution system</E>
                             means components that manage the operation of the transmission, including gear selection and shifting through both mechanical and electronic means.
                            <PRTPAGE P="3529"/>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (F) 
                            <E T="03">Park-brake mechanism. Park-brake mechanism</E>
                             means a component that ensures the vehicle remains stationary when parked.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (G) 
                            <E T="03">Transmission cooling system. Transmission cooling system</E>
                             means components that prevent overheating of the transmission components, ensuring reliable performance under various operating conditions.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Examples—</E>
                            (1) 
                            <E T="03">Example 1: Incremental cost calculation for a qualified commercial clean vehicle—</E>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Manufacturer is the qualified manufacturer of a model year 2024 battery electric sport utility vehicle (BEV SUV). The BEV SUV is a qualified commercial clean vehicle with a GVWR of 4,600 pounds. Manufacturer is also the manufacturer of a gasoline-powered ICE SUV (ICE SUV) that, except for the powertrain, is identical to the BEV SUV. Manufacturer's costs of the BEV SUV powertrain components are: electric traction drive system ($1,881.00), battery ($12,060.00), and electrical accessories ($1,437.00). The RPE of the BEV SUV is 1.49. Manufacturer's costs of the ICE SUV powertrain components are: engine ($5,757.00), transmission ($1,744.00), and mechanical accessories ($415.00). The RPE of the ICE SUV is 1.52. In 2025, Taxpayer purchases the BEV SUV for $50,000 and places the vehicle in service. At the time of Taxpayer's purchase, Manufacturer provides Taxpayer with a written disclosure of Manufacturer's incremental cost calculation, which Manufacturer calculated as described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis</E>
                            —(A) 
                            <E T="03">Calculation of incremental cost.</E>
                             Under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the incremental cost of the BEV SUV is the product of Manufacturer's cost of the BEV SUV powertrain and the RPE of such vehicle, less the product of Manufacturer's cost of the comparable vehicle ICE powertrain and the RPE of such vehicle.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) 
                            <E T="03">Step 1.</E>
                             Under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the BEV SUV powertrain cost is the sum of the cost of the electric traction drive system ($1,881.00), the battery ($12,060.00), and the electrical accessories ($1,437.00), multiplied by the RPE of the vehicle (1.49), or $22,913.22.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ) 
                            <E T="03">Step 2.</E>
                             Under paragraph (b)(4) of this section, the ICE SUV is the comparable vehicle with respect to the BEV SUV. Under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the ICE SUV powertrain cost is the sum of the cost of the engine ($5,757.00), the ICE transmission ($1,744.00), and the mechanical accessories ($415.00), multiplied by the RPE of the vehicle (1.52), or $12,032.32.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">3</E>
                            ) 
                            <E T="03">Step 3.</E>
                             Under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the incremental cost of the BEV SUV is determined by subtracting the cost of the ICE SUV powertrain in step 2 ($12,032.32) from the cost of the BEV SUV powertrain in step 1 ($22,913.22), or $10,880.90 ($22,913.22−$12,032.32 = $10,880.90).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) 
                            <E T="03">Determination of credit amount.</E>
                             Under paragraph (c)(10) of this section, Taxpayer may rely on Manufacturer's incremental cost calculation, which is described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, for purposes of determining the amount of the section 45W credit allowable for the BEV SUV. Subject to the limitation in section 45W(b)(4), the credit amount is the lesser of 30 percent of Taxpayer's basis in the BEV SUV ($50,000.00 × 30% = $15,000.00) or the incremental cost of the BEV SUV ($10,880.90). Under section 45W(b)(4), the taxpayer's credit is limited to a maximum of $7,500.00 because the vehicle has a GVWR of less than 14,000 pounds. Therefore, the allowable section 45W credit with respect to the BEV SUV is $7,500.00.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Example 2: Section 45W credit equal to 30 percent of Taxpayer's basis in a qualified commercial clean vehicle</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             The facts are the same as in paragraph (e)(1) of this section (
                            <E T="03">Example 1</E>
                            ), except that Taxpayer purchases the BEV SUV for $21,600.00 and the incremental cost calculated by Manufacturer and provided in writing to Taxpayer is $7,000.00.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             Under paragraph (c)(10) of this section, Taxpayer may rely on Manufacturer's incremental cost calculation, which is described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, for purposes of determining the amount of the section 45W credit allowable for the BEV SUV. Subject to the limitation in section 45W(b)(4), the credit amount equals the lesser of 30 percent of Taxpayer's basis in the BEV SUV ($21,600.00 × 30% = $6,480.00) or the incremental cost of the BEV SUV ($7,000.00). Because $6,480.00 is below the $7,500 limitation in section 45W(b)(4), the allowable section 45W credit with respect to the BEV SUV is $6,840.00.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Example 3: Incremental cost limit for a BEV with a GVWR over 14,000 pounds—</E>
                            (i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             Manufacturer is the qualified manufacturer of a model year 2025 battery electric bus (BEV Bus). The BEV Bus has a GVWR of 14,500 pounds and is a qualified commercial clean vehicle. Manufacturer is also the manufacturer of an ICE Bus that, except for the powertrain, is substantially similar to the BEV Bus. Manufacturer's costs of the BEV Bus powertrain components are: electric traction drive system ($4,586.00), battery ($18,535.00), and electrical accessories ($2,150.00). The RPE of the BEV Bus is 1.49. Manufacturer's costs of the ICE Bus powertrain components are: engine ($7,350.00), ICE transmission ($4,730.00), and mechanical accessories ($780.00). The RPE of the ICE Bus is 1.52. In 2025, Taxpayer purchases the BEV Bus for $105,500.00, takes possession of the vehicle, and places it in service that same year. At the time Taxpayer purchases the BEV Bus, Manufacturer provides Taxpayer with a written disclosure of Manufacturer's incremental cost calculation, which Manufacturer calculated in the manner described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis</E>
                            —(A) 
                            <E T="03">Calculation of incremental cost.</E>
                             Under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the incremental cost of the BEV Bus is the product of Manufacturer's cost of the BEV Bus powertrain and the RPE of such vehicle, less the product of Manufacturer's cost of the comparable vehicle ICE powertrain and the RPE of such vehicle.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">1</E>
                            ) 
                            <E T="03">Step 1.</E>
                             Under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the BEV Bus powertrain cost is the sum of the cost of the electric traction drive system ($4,586.00), the battery ($18,535.00), and the electrical accessories ($2,150.00) multiplied by the RPE of the vehicle (1.49), or $37,653.79.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">2</E>
                            ) 
                            <E T="03">Step 2.</E>
                             Under paragraph (b)(4) of this section, the ICE Bus is the comparable vehicle with respect to the BEV Bus. Under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the ICE Bus powertrain cost is the sum of the cost of the engine ($7,350.00), the ICE transmission ($4,730.00), and the mechanical accessories ($780.00) multiplied by the RPE of the vehicle (1.52), or $19,547.20.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (
                            <E T="03">3</E>
                            ) 
                            <E T="03">Step 3.</E>
                             Under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the incremental cost of the BEV Bus is determined by subtracting the cost of the ICE Bus powertrain ($19,547.20) from the cost of the BEV Bus powertrain ($37,653.79), or $18,106.59 ($37,653.79 − $19,547.20 = $18,106.59).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (B) 
                            <E T="03">Determination of credit amount.</E>
                             Under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, Taxpayer may rely on Manufacturer's incremental cost calculation, which is described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. Subject to the limitation in section 45W(b)(4), the credit amount is the lesser of 30 percent of Taxpayer's basis in the BEV Bus ($105,500 × 30% = $31,650.00) or the incremental cost of the BEV Bus ($18,106.59). Under section 45W(b)(4), the section 45W credit is limited to $40,000 for the BEV Bus because it has a GVWR of more than 14,000 pounds. Because $18,106.59 is 
                            <PRTPAGE P="3530"/>
                            below the $40,000.00 limitation in section 45W(b)(4), the allowable section 45W credit with respect to the BEV Bus is $18,106.59.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Incremental cost of qualified commercial clean vehicle previously placed in service by another person or entity</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             The incremental cost of a qualified commercial clean vehicle previously placed in service by another person or entity is the product of the incremental cost of the qualified commercial clean vehicle as calculated under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section (that is, the incremental cost of such vehicle when new) and the residual value factor that corresponds to the age of the qualified commercial clean vehicle as determined under paragraph (f)(2) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Age of a qualified commercial clean vehicle previously placed in service by another person or entity.</E>
                             The age of a qualified commercial clean vehicle previously placed in service by another person or entity is determined by subtracting the model year of the vehicle from the calendar year in which the taxpayer places the vehicle in service. For purposes of this paragraph (f)(2) and paragraph (f)(3) of this section, a negative age (for example, a case in which a model year vehicle is sold twice prior to the calendar year that corresponds to that model year) is treated as zero.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Residual value factor.</E>
                             The residual value factor described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section applicable to relevant vehicle classes, based on GVWR, is as provided in the following tables:
                        </P>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="2" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s200,15">
                            <TTITLE>
                                Table 1 to Paragraph (
                                <E T="01">f</E>
                                )(3)
                            </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Vehicle class and description</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    GVWR
                                    <LI>(lbs.)</LI>
                                </CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Class 1 Passenger car</ENT>
                                <ENT>&lt;14,000</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Class 1 or 2-3 Light Truck (Van, Sport Utility Vehicle, Pickup Truck)</ENT>
                                <ENT>&lt;14,000</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Class 4-5</ENT>
                                <ENT>14,000-19,500</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Class 6</ENT>
                                <ENT>19,500-26,000</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Class 7-8 Box/Other</ENT>
                                <ENT>26,000-60,000</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">Class 8 Day Cab/Sleeper</ENT>
                                <ENT>&gt;33,000</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                        <GPOTABLE COLS="7" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,10,10,10,10,10,10">
                            <TTITLE>
                                Table 2 to Paragraph (
                                <E T="01">f</E>
                                )(3)
                            </TTITLE>
                            <BOXHD>
                                <CHED H="1">Vehicle class/vehicle age</CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Class 1 passenger car
                                    <LI>(%)</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Class 1 or 2-3 light truck
                                    <LI>(%)</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Class 4-5
                                    <LI>(%)</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Class 6 box
                                    <LI>(%)</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Class 7-8 box/other
                                    <LI>(%)</LI>
                                </CHED>
                                <CHED H="1">
                                    Class 8 day cab/sleeper
                                    <LI>(%)</LI>
                                </CHED>
                            </BOXHD>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">0 years</ENT>
                                <ENT>70</ENT>
                                <ENT>75</ENT>
                                <ENT>95</ENT>
                                <ENT>90</ENT>
                                <ENT>95</ENT>
                                <ENT>85</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">1 year</ENT>
                                <ENT>60</ENT>
                                <ENT>70</ENT>
                                <ENT>85</ENT>
                                <ENT>80</ENT>
                                <ENT>85</ENT>
                                <ENT>75</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">2 years</ENT>
                                <ENT>55</ENT>
                                <ENT>60</ENT>
                                <ENT>80</ENT>
                                <ENT>70</ENT>
                                <ENT>80</ENT>
                                <ENT>60</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">3 years</ENT>
                                <ENT>50</ENT>
                                <ENT>55</ENT>
                                <ENT>75</ENT>
                                <ENT>60</ENT>
                                <ENT>70</ENT>
                                <ENT>55</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">4 years</ENT>
                                <ENT>40</ENT>
                                <ENT>45</ENT>
                                <ENT>70</ENT>
                                <ENT>55</ENT>
                                <ENT>65</ENT>
                                <ENT>45</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">5 years</ENT>
                                <ENT>40</ENT>
                                <ENT>40</ENT>
                                <ENT>65</ENT>
                                <ENT>45</ENT>
                                <ENT>60</ENT>
                                <ENT>40</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">6 years</ENT>
                                <ENT>35</ENT>
                                <ENT>35</ENT>
                                <ENT>60</ENT>
                                <ENT>40</ENT>
                                <ENT>55</ENT>
                                <ENT>35</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">7 years</ENT>
                                <ENT>30</ENT>
                                <ENT>35</ENT>
                                <ENT>55</ENT>
                                <ENT>35</ENT>
                                <ENT>50</ENT>
                                <ENT>30</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">8 years</ENT>
                                <ENT>25</ENT>
                                <ENT>30</ENT>
                                <ENT>50</ENT>
                                <ENT>35</ENT>
                                <ENT>45</ENT>
                                <ENT>25</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">9 years</ENT>
                                <ENT>25</ENT>
                                <ENT>25</ENT>
                                <ENT>45</ENT>
                                <ENT>30</ENT>
                                <ENT>45</ENT>
                                <ENT>25</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">10 years</ENT>
                                <ENT>20</ENT>
                                <ENT>25</ENT>
                                <ENT>45</ENT>
                                <ENT>25</ENT>
                                <ENT>40</ENT>
                                <ENT>20</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">11 years</ENT>
                                <ENT>20</ENT>
                                <ENT>20</ENT>
                                <ENT>40</ENT>
                                <ENT>25</ENT>
                                <ENT>35</ENT>
                                <ENT>20</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">12 years</ENT>
                                <ENT>15</ENT>
                                <ENT>20</ENT>
                                <ENT>40</ENT>
                                <ENT>20</ENT>
                                <ENT>35</ENT>
                                <ENT>15</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">13 years</ENT>
                                <ENT>15</ENT>
                                <ENT>15</ENT>
                                <ENT>35</ENT>
                                <ENT>20</ENT>
                                <ENT>30</ENT>
                                <ENT>15</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                            <ROW>
                                <ENT I="01">14 or more years</ENT>
                                <ENT>10</ENT>
                                <ENT>15</ENT>
                                <ENT>35</ENT>
                                <ENT>15</ENT>
                                <ENT>30</ENT>
                                <ENT>15</ENT>
                            </ROW>
                        </GPOTABLE>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Example</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">Facts.</E>
                             In December 2024, X purchases and places in service a model year 2025 battery electric car (BEV car). The BEV car is a qualified commercial clean vehicle and has a GVWR of 3,900 pounds and an incremental cost of $15,000. X did not claim a section 45W credit with respect to the BEV car. X sells the BEV car to Y in December 2025 for $40,000. Y is a fiscal year taxpayer whose taxable year begins on October 1.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Analysis.</E>
                             Under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the BEV car is 0 years old because the model year of the BEV car (2025) subtracted from the calendar year Y placed the BEV car in service (2025) equals 0. Neither the calendar year in which X places the BEV car in service nor Y's fiscal year is relevant to determining the age of the BEV car for purposes of paragraph (f)(2) of this section. The applicable residual value factor under paragraph (f)(3) of this section is therefore 70%. The incremental cost of the BEV car is $10,500 ($15,000 × 70%). Because the incremental cost of the BEV car ($10,500) is less than 30% of Y's basis in the vehicle ($40,000 × 30% = $12,000), $10,500 is the amount determined under section 45W(b)(1). Under section 45W(b)(4), the allowable section 45W credit for the BEV car is limited to $7,500 because the BEV car has a GVWR of less than 14,000 pounds. Therefore, Y's allowable section 45W credit with respect to the BEV car is $7,500.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (g) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                             This section applies to qualified commercial clean vehicles placed in service in taxable years ending after [date of publication of the final regulations in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                            ].
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.45W-3</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Qualified commercial clean vehicle.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             To qualify as a qualified commercial clean vehicle for purposes of section 45W of the Code, a vehicle must meet the requirements of section 45W(c) and paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Acquired for use or lease and not for resale by the taxpayer</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             Under section 45W(c)(1), a qualified commercial clean vehicle must be acquired for use or lease and not for 
                            <PRTPAGE P="3531"/>
                            resale by the taxpayer. For purposes of section 45W(c)(1), a taxpayer that is not a tax-exempt entity described in section 168(h)(2)(A)(i), (ii), or (iv) of the Code acquires a vehicle for use or lease if the taxpayer acquires the vehicle for use or lease in a trade or business of the taxpayer.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Recharacterization of lease.</E>
                             If a lease of a qualified commercial clean vehicle would be treated as a sale rather than a lease for purposes of subtitle A, such lease will not be respected for purposes of section 45W(c)(1). In such case, the lessor will be treated as having acquired the vehicle for resale, and no credit will be allowed to such lessor under section 45W with respect to the vehicle. To the extent the lessor has claimed a section 45W credit (defined in § 1.45W-1(a)) with respect to such vehicle, the recapture rules in § 1.45W-4(c) apply.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Type of vehicle</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             Under section 45W(c)(2), a qualified commercial clean vehicle must be either an on-road vehicle, as described in section 45W(c)(2)(A) and paragraph (c)(2) of this section, or mobile machinery, as described in section 45W(c)(2)(B) and paragraph (c)(3) of this section. Some vehicles, such as a digger derrick truck, may qualify as both an on-road vehicle and mobile machinery.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">On-road vehicle.</E>
                             An 
                            <E T="03">on-road vehicle</E>
                             is a vehicle that meets the requirements of section 30D(d)(1)(D) of the Code (that is, the vehicle is treated as a motor vehicle for purposes of title II of the Clean Air Act), is manufactured primarily for use on public streets, roads, and highways (not including a vehicle operated exclusively on a rail or rails).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Mobile machinery. Mobile machinery</E>
                             has the meaning provided in section 4053(8) of the Code.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Electric motor and battery requirements</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             Under section 45W(c)(3), a qualified commercial clean vehicle must be propelled to a significant extent by an electric motor that draws electricity from a battery that has a capacity of not less than 15 kilowatt hours (or, in the case of a vehicle that has a gross vehicle weight rating of less than 14,000 pounds, 7 kilowatt hours) and is capable of being recharged from an external source of electricity, or is a motor vehicle that satisfies the requirements under section 30B(b)(3)(A) and (B).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Battery capable of being recharged from an external source of electricity.</E>
                             For purposes of section 45W(c)(3)(A), a battery is capable of being recharged from an external source of electricity if such source of electricity is not an integral part of the vehicle. For example, a regenerative braking system, in which the kinetic energy generated by the motion of the vehicle is used to recharge a battery, is not an external source of electricity for purposes of section 45W(c)(3)(A) and this paragraph (d)(2).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                             This section applies to taxable years ending after [date of publication of the final regulations in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                            ].
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.45W-4</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Special rules.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">No double benefit</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">Previous allowance of section 45W or 30D credit.</E>
                             No credit is allowed under section 45W(a) of the Code (section 45W credit) with respect to any vehicle for which a section 45W credit or a section 30D credit was previously allowed for such vehicle.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Allowance of other deduction or credit.</E>
                             Under sections 45W(d)(1) and 30D(f)(2) of the Code, the amount of any deduction or other credit allowable under chapter 1 of the Code (chapter 1) for a vehicle for which a section 45W credit is allowable must be reduced by the amount of the section 45W credit allowed for such vehicle. 
                            <E T="03">See also</E>
                             § 1.25E-2(b)(1).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Recordkeeping for the qualified commercial clean vehicle credit.</E>
                             In accordance with § 1.6001-1, a taxpayer claiming a credit under section 45W must keep permanent books of account or records sufficient to establish the amount of any such credit required to be shown by such taxpayer in any return of tax or information return. Such records must be sufficient to establish, for example, that the section 45W credit claimed is not disallowed by paragraph (a)(1) of this section, subject to reduction under § 1.25E-2(b)(1), or, if any such reduction is required, the amount of such reduction.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Credit ineligibility resulting from certain transactions and uses</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             This paragraph (b) provides rules that apply to certain transactions involving qualified commercial clean vehicles and certain uses of such vehicles, including cancelled sales, vehicle returns, resales, or less than 100 percent use in a trade or business.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Cancelled sale.</E>
                             If a sale of a qualified commercial clean vehicle is cancelled before the taxpayer places the vehicle in service, then—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The taxpayer may not claim the section 45W credit with respect to the vehicle;</P>
                        <P>(ii) The vehicle may still be eligible for the section 45W credit; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) A subsequent buyer of the vehicle will not be required to apply the residual value rules of § 1.45W-2(f) to determine the incremental cost of the vehicle.</P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Vehicle return.</E>
                             If a taxpayer returns a qualified commercial clean vehicle to the seller within 30 days of placing such vehicle in service, then—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The taxpayer may not claim the section 45W credit with respect to the vehicle;</P>
                        <P>(ii) The vehicle may still be eligible for the section 45W credit; and</P>
                        <P>(iii) A subsequent buyer of the vehicle must apply the residual value rules of § 1.45W-2(f) to determine the incremental cost of the vehicle.</P>
                        <P>
                            (4) 
                            <E T="03">Resale.</E>
                             If a taxpayer resells a qualified commercial clean vehicle within 30 days of placing the vehicle in service, then—
                        </P>
                        <P>(i) The taxpayer is treated as having acquired such vehicle with the intent to resell;</P>
                        <P>(ii) The taxpayer may not claim the section 45W credit with respect to the vehicle;</P>
                        <P>(iii) The vehicle may still be eligible for the section 45W credit; and</P>
                        <P>(iv) A subsequent buyer of the vehicle must apply the residual value rules of § 1.45W-2(f) to determine the incremental cost of the vehicle.</P>
                        <P>
                            (5) 
                            <E T="03">Less than 100 percent trade or business use in taxable year vehicle is placed in service.</E>
                             If a taxpayer's trade or business use of a qualified commercial clean vehicle for the taxable year such vehicle is placed in service by the taxpayer is less than 100 percent of the taxpayer's total use of that vehicle for that taxable year (other than incidental personal use, such as a stop for lunch on the way between two job sites), including because the vehicle is sold or otherwise disposed of, the vehicle is ineligible for the section 45W credit. This rule also applies to a qualified commercial clean vehicle placed in service by a tax-exempt entity, except that 100 percent trade or business use means the tax-exempt entity's use that is related to an exempt purpose or an unrelated trade or business purpose.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Recapture</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             This paragraph (c) provides rules regarding the recapture of the section 45W credit pursuant to sections 45W(d)(1) and 30D(f)(5).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Recapture in the case of less than 100 percent trade or business use</E>
                            —(i) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, if a taxpayer ceases to use a qualified commercial clean vehicle for 100 percent trade or business use (other than incidental personal use) during the 18-month period beginning on the date the vehicle is placed in service, including because the vehicle is sold or otherwise disposed of, then—
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (A) The taxpayer may not claim the section 45W credit with respect to the 
                            <PRTPAGE P="3532"/>
                            vehicle. If the taxpayer has already claimed the section 45W credit, the credit is recaptured as a tax under chapter 1.
                        </P>
                        <P>(B) The vehicle may still be eligible for the section 45W credit; and</P>
                        <P>(C) A subsequent buyer must apply the residual value rules of § 1.45W-2(f)(3) to determine the incremental cost of the vehicle.</P>
                        <P>
                            (ii) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability to vehicles placed in service by a tax-exempt entity.</E>
                             For a qualified commercial clean vehicle placed in service by a tax-exempt entity, the 100 percent trade or business use rule in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section applies, except that, as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, 100 percent trade or business use means the tax-exempt entity's use that is related to an exempt purpose or an unrelated trade or business purpose.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Elective payment elections.</E>
                             In the case of an applicable entity, as described in section 6417(d)(1) of the Code and § 1.6417-1(c) with respect to which an applicable credit listed in section 6417(b) is determined for a taxable year, section 6417(a) allows the applicable entity to make an election to treat the applicable entity as making a payment against the tax imposed by subtitle A of the Code equal to the amount of the applicable credit. Section 6417(b)(6) and § 1.6417-1(d)(6) include the section 45W credit as an applicable credit, but only with respect to a section 45W credit determined by reason of section 45W(d)(2) by a tax-exempt entity described in section 168(h)(2)(A)(i), (ii), or (iv) that is also an applicable entity listed in section 6417(d)(1) and § 1.6417-1(c).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Leases.</E>
                             For purposes of section 45W(d)(2), a vehicle is subject to a lease if it is leased within 30 days of being placed in service by a tax-exempt entity.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (f) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                             This section applies to taxable years ending after [date of publication of the final regulations in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                            ].
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.45W-5</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Reporting requirements.</SUBJECT>
                        <P>
                            (a) 
                            <E T="03">Requirement to file return.</E>
                             No section 45W credit (defined in § 1.45W-1(a)) can be determined unless the taxpayer claiming such credit files a Federal income tax return or information return, as appropriate, for the taxable year in which the qualified commercial clean vehicle is placed in service. The taxpayer must attach to such return a completed Form 8936, 
                            <E T="03">Clean Vehicle Credits,</E>
                             or successor form, that includes all information required by the form and instructions. The taxpayer must also attach a completed Schedule A (Form 8936), 
                            <E T="03">Clean Vehicle Credit Amount,</E>
                             or successor form or schedule, that includes all information required by the schedule and instructions, including the vehicle identification number of the qualified commercial clean vehicle.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (b) 
                            <E T="03">Credit may generally be claimed on only one tax return</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, the amount of the section 45W credit attributable to a qualified commercial clean vehicle may be claimed on only one Federal income tax return, including on a joint return in which one of the spouses or the spouse's wholly-owned business entity is listed on the title as the sole owner of the vehicle. In the event a qualified commercial clean vehicle is placed in service by multiple taxpayers that do not file a joint tax return (for example, in the case of married individuals filing separate returns), no allocation or proration of the section 45W credit is available.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Grantor trusts.</E>
                             In the case of a qualified commercial clean vehicle placed in service by a trust, to the extent the grantor or another person is treated as owning all or part of the trust under sections 671 through 679 of the Code, the section 45W credit is allocated to such grantor or other person in accordance with § 1.671-3(a)(1).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (3) 
                            <E T="03">Partnerships and S corporations.</E>
                             In the case of a qualified commercial clean vehicle placed in service by a partnership or S corporation, the section 45W credit is allocated among the partners of the partnership under § 1.704-1(b)(4)(ii) or among the shareholders of the S corporation under sections 1366(a) and 1377(a) of the Code and claimed on the tax returns of the ultimate partners or of the S corporation shareholder(s).
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (c) 
                            <E T="03">Taxpayer reliance on manufacturer certifications and periodic written reports to the IRS.</E>
                             A taxpayer that acquires a qualified commercial clean vehicle and places it in service may rely on the information and certifications contained in the qualified manufacturer's written reports to the IRS. The procedures for such periodic written reports are established in guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin (
                            <E T="03">see</E>
                             § 601.601 of this chapter). To the extent a taxpayer relies on certifications or attestations from the qualified manufacturer, the qualified commercial clean vehicle the taxpayer acquires will be deemed to meet the requirements of sections 30D(d)(1)(C) and 45W(c)(1) of the Code.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (d) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability date.</E>
                             This section applies to taxable years ending after [date of publication of the final regulations in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                            ].
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <AMDPAR>
                        <E T="04">Par. 5.</E>
                         Section 1.6417-6 is amended by:
                    </AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>1. Adding two sentences to the end of paragraph (b)(1); and</AMDPAR>
                    <AMDPAR>2. Revising paragraph (e).</AMDPAR>
                    <P>The addition and revision read as follows:</P>
                    <SECTION>
                        <SECTNO>§ 1.6417-6</SECTNO>
                        <SUBJECT>Special rules.</SUBJECT>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>(b) * * *</P>
                        <P>(1)  * * * For purposes of this paragraph (b)(1), if an applicable credit is subject to section 50, then section 50 applies without regard to section 50(b)(3) and (b)(4)(A)(i). If another provision of the Code contains a basis reduction and/or recapture provision outside of section 50 that impacts the available credit (such as sections 30C(e), 45Q(f)(4), 45W(d)(1), and 48(a)(10)), then the rules of that provision of the Code and the regulations in this chapter issued under that provision of the Code apply, except that any applicable credit continues to be determined without regard to section 50(b)(3) and (b)(4)(A)(i) and by treating any property with respect to which such credit is determined as used in a trade or business of the applicable entity, consistent with section 6417(d)(2) and § 1.6417-2(c).</P>
                        <STARS/>
                        <P>
                            (e) 
                            <E T="03">Applicability dates</E>
                            —(1) 
                            <E T="03">In general.</E>
                             Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, this section applies to taxable years ending on or after March 11, 2024. For taxable years ending before March 11, 2024, taxpayers, however, may choose to apply the rules of §§ 1.6417-1 through 1.6417-4 and this section, provided the taxpayers apply the rules in their entirety and in a consistent manner.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            (2) 
                            <E T="03">Paragraph (b)(1) of this section.</E>
                             The second and third sentences of paragraph (b)(1) of this section apply to property placed in service in taxable years ending after [date of publication of the final regulations in the 
                            <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                            ].
                        </P>
                    </SECTION>
                    <SIG>
                        <NAME>Douglas W. O'Donnell,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Deputy Commissioner.</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00256 Filed 1-10-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4830-01-P</BILCOD>
            </PRORULE>
        </PRORULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>8</NO>
    <DATE>Tuesday, January 14, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Rules and Regulations</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="3533"/>
            <PARTNO>Part VII</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P">Department of the Treasury</AGENCY>
            <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
            <HRULE/>
            <CFR>26 CFR Part 1</CFR>
            <TITLE>Micro-Captive Listed Transactions and Micro-Captive Transactions of Interest; Final Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <RULES>
            <RULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3534"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</AGENCY>
                    <SUBAGY>Internal Revenue Service</SUBAGY>
                    <CFR>26 CFR Part 1</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[TD 10029]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 1545-BQ44</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Micro-Captive Listed Transactions and Micro-Captive Transactions of Interest</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Treasury.</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Final rule.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>This document contains final regulations that identify transactions that are the same as, or substantially similar to, certain micro-captive transactions as listed transactions, a type of reportable transaction, and certain other micro-captive transactions as transactions of interest, another type of reportable transaction. Material advisors and certain participants in these listed transactions and transactions of interest are required to file disclosures with the IRS and are subject to penalties for failure to disclose. The final regulations affect participants in these transactions as well as material advisors.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P/>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Effective date:</E>
                             These regulations are effective on January 14, 2025.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Applicability date:</E>
                             For dates of applicability, 
                            <E T="03">see</E>
                             §§ 1.6011-10(h) and 1.6011-11(h).
                        </P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>Allan H. Sakaue, (202) 317-6995 (not a toll-free number).</P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority</HD>
                    <P>This document amends the Income Tax Regulations (26 CFR part 1) by adding final regulations under section 6011 of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) to identify certain micro-captive transactions and substantially similar transactions as listed transactions and certain other micro-captive transactions as transactions of interest, each a type of reportable transaction (final regulations). These regulations are issued pursuant to the authority conferred on the Secretary of the Treasury or her delegate (Secretary) under the following provisions of the Code:</P>
                    <P>Section 6001, which requires every taxpayer to keep the records, render the statements, make the returns, and comply with the rules and regulations that the Secretary deems necessary to demonstrate tax liability and prescribes, either by notice served or by regulations;</P>
                    <P>Section 6011, which requires every taxpayer to “make a return or statement according to the forms and regulations prescribed by the Secretary” and “include therein the information required by such forms or regulations”;</P>
                    <P>Section 6707A(c)(1), which states that “[t]he term `reportable transaction' means any transaction with respect to which information is required to be included with a return or statement because, as determined under regulations prescribed under section 6011, such transaction is of a type which the Secretary determines as having a potential for tax avoidance or evasion”; and</P>
                    <P>Section 6707A(c)(2), which states that, “[t]he term `listed transaction' means a reportable transaction which is the same as, or substantially similar to, a transaction specifically identified by the Secretary as a tax avoidance transaction for purposes of section 6011.”</P>
                    <P>
                        Reportable transactions are described in § 1.6011-4 and include listed transactions, confidential transactions, transactions with contractual protection, loss transactions, and transactions of interest. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         § 1.6011-4(b)(2) through (6). Section 1.6011-4(b)(2) defines a “listed transaction” as a transaction that is the same as or substantially similar to one of the types of transactions that the IRS has determined to be a tax avoidance transaction and identified by notice, regulation, or other form of published guidance as a listed transaction. Section 1.6011-4(b)(6) defines a “transaction of interest” as a transaction that is the same as or substantially similar to one of the types of transactions that the IRS has identified by notice, regulation, or other form of published guidance as a transaction of interest.
                    </P>
                    <P>The final regulations are also issued under the express delegation of authority under section 7805(a) of the Code.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Background</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Section 831(b)</HD>
                    <P>As enacted by section 1024 of the Tax Reform Act of 1986, Public Law 99-514, 100 Stat. 2085, 2405 (October 22, 1986), section 831(a) of the Code generally imposes tax on the taxable income (determined under the special rules for calculating taxable income of insurance companies in part II of subchapter L of chapter 1 of the Code) of every insurance company other than a life insurance company (nonlife insurance company), for each taxable year computed as provided in section 11 of the Code. However, certain small nonlife insurance companies may elect to be subject to the alternative tax imposed by section 831(b).</P>
                    <P>Upon election by an eligible nonlife insurance company (eligible electing company) to be taxed under section 831(b), in lieu of the tax otherwise imposed by section 831(a), section 831(b) imposes tax on the company's income computed by multiplying the taxable investment income of the eligible electing company (determined under section 834 of the Code) for the taxable year by the rates provided in section 11(b) of the Code. Thus, an eligible electing company pays no tax on its underwriting income, including amounts paid as premiums, for taxable years for which its election is in effect.</P>
                    <P>Congress enacted section 333 of the Protecting Americans from Tax Hikes Act of 2015 (PATH Act), div. Q. of Public Law 114-113, 129 Stat. 2242, 3040 (December 18, 2015), to both tighten and expand the requirements for qualifying under section 831(b), effective for taxable years beginning after December 31, 2016. As amended by the PATH Act, section 831(b) requires an eligible electing company to be an insurance company (within the meaning of section 816(a) of the Code) having net written premiums or, if greater, direct written premiums, for the taxable year not exceeding $2.2 million as adjusted for inflation (net written premium limitation) and to meet the diversification requirements of section 831(b)(2)(B). The last sentence of section 831(b)(2)(A) provides that an election under section 831(b) applies to the taxable year for which it is made and all subsequent taxable years for which the net written premium limitation and the diversification requirements are met and may be revoked only with the Secretary's consent. In addition, section 831(d) requires every eligible electing company that has a section 831(b) election in effect to furnish to the Secretary “at such time and in such manner as the Secretary shall prescribe such information for such taxable year as the Secretary shall require with respect to” the diversification requirements of section 831(b)(2)(B).</P>
                    <P>
                        To qualify as an insurance company pursuant to section 816(a), a requirement to elect section 831(b) taxation, more than half of the business of the entity during the taxable year must be the issuing of insurance or annuity contracts or the reinsuring of risks underwritten by insurance companies. An insurance contract must meet all four prongs of the test for insurance set forth by the courts: risk shifting, risk distribution, insurable risks, and insurance in the commonly 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3535"/>
                        accepted sense. 
                        <E T="03">See Helvering</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Le Gierse,</E>
                         312 U.S. 531, 539 (1941) (both risk shifting and risk distribution must be present); 
                        <E T="03">Allied Fidelity Corp.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         572 F.2d 1190, 1193 (7th Cir. 1978) (the risk transferred must be risk of economic loss); 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Treganowan,</E>
                         183 F.2d 288, 290-91 (2d Cir. 1950) (the risk must contemplate the fortuitous occurrence of a stated contingency); 
                        <E T="03">Rent-A-Center, Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         142 T.C. 1, 13 (2014) (the arrangement must constitute insurance in the commonly accepted sense); 
                        <E T="03">see also</E>
                         Rev. Rul. 2007-47, 2007-2 C.B. 127 (the risk must not be merely an investment or a business risk). To determine whether an arrangement is insurance in the commonly accepted sense, courts consider several non-exclusive factors including (1) whether the company was organized, operated, and regulated as an insurance company; (2) whether the company was adequately capitalized; (3) whether the policies were valid and binding; (4) whether premiums were reasonable and the result of arm's length transactions; (5) whether claims were paid; (6) whether the policies cover typical insurance risks; and (7) whether there was a legitimate business reason for acquiring insurance from the captive. 
                        <E T="03">Avrahami</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         149 T.C. 144, 191 (2017).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">II. Notice 2016-66 and Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (“NPRM”)</HD>
                    <P>On November 21, 2016, the Treasury Department and the IRS published Notice 2016-66, 2016-47 I.R.B. 745, which identified certain micro-captive transactions as transactions of interest. On January 17, 2017, the Treasury Department and the IRS published Notice 2017-08, 2017-3 I.R.B. 423, which modified Notice 2016-66 by providing for an extension of time for participants and material advisors to file their disclosures.</P>
                    <P>Notice 2016-66 alerted taxpayers and their representatives pursuant to § 1.6011-4(b)(6) and for purposes of § 1.6011-4(b)(6) and sections 6111 and 6112, that the Treasury Department and the IRS identified as transactions of interest certain micro-captive transactions in which a taxpayer attempts to reduce the aggregate taxable income of the taxpayer, related persons, or both, using contracts that the parties treat as insurance contracts and a related company that the parties treat as an insurance company. Notice 2016-66 also alerted persons involved with the identified transactions that certain responsibilities may arise from their involvement.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Treasury Department and the IRS issued proposed regulations under section 6011 (REG-109309-22) in an NPRM published in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                         (88 FR 21547) on April 11, 2023 (proposed regulations). That NPRM obsoleted Notice 2016-66. The Treasury Department and the IRS considered comments received in response to Notice 2016-66 in developing the proposed regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>The proposed regulations would identify taxpayers who file returns reflecting the tax benefits of a transaction described at § 1.6011-10(a) as participants in a listed transaction (“Micro-captive Listed Transaction”). The proposed regulations would identify taxpayers who file returns reflecting the tax benefits of a transaction described at § 1.6011-11(a) as participants in a transaction of interest (“Micro-captive Transaction of Interest”). Generally, a Micro-captive Listed Transaction is a transaction in which an Owner (as defined in proposed § 1.6011-10(b)(6)) of an Insured (as defined in proposed § 1.6011-10(b)(4)) holds the necessary interest described in proposed § 1.6011-10(b)(1)(iii) (the “20 Percent Relationship Test”) in Captive (as defined in proposed § 1.6011-10(b)(1)), Captive meets the definition provided in proposed § 1.6011-10(b)(1), and Captive provides financing as described in proposed § 1.6011-10(c)(1) (the “Financing Factor”), determined over the Financing Computation Period defined in proposed § 1.6011-10(b)(2)(i), or has less than a 65 percent loss ratio (the “Loss Ratio Factor”) as described in proposed § 1.6011-10(c)(2), determined over the Loss Ratio Computation Period defined in proposed § 1.6011-10(b)(2)(ii).</P>
                    <P>A Micro-captive Transaction of Interest is a transaction in which an Owner (as defined in proposed § 1.6011-11(b)(6)) of an Insured (as defined in proposed § 1.6011-11(b)(4)) holds the necessary interest in Captive (as defined in proposed § 1.6011-11(b)(1)), Captive meets the definition provided in proposed § 1.6011-11(b)(1), and Captive has less than a 65 percent loss ratio, as described in proposed § 1.6011-11(c), determined over the Transaction of Interest Computation Period defined in proposed § 1.6011-11(b)(2).</P>
                    <P>Participants in a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest, and material advisors with respect to Micro-captive Listed Transactions and Micro-captive Transactions of Interest, would be required file disclosure statements as set forth in proposed §§ 1.6011-10(f) and 1.6011-11(f). The Treasury Department and the IRS developed these objective factors to ensure administrability and clarity for taxpayers whose transactions are identified in the regulations, so taxpayers can clearly determine whether they are participants or material advisors, and thus be on clear notice of their obligations.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Treasury Department and the IRS received 110 public comments in response to the proposed regulations and notice of public hearing that are the subject of this final rulemaking. The comments are available for public inspection at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov</E>
                         or upon request. A public hearing on the proposed regulations was held by teleconference on July 19, 2023, at 10 a.m. Eastern Time, at which six speakers provided testimony.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions of these final regulations summarizes the proposed regulations, which are described in greater detail in the preamble to the proposed regulations. After full consideration of all the comments received and the testimony provided, these final regulations adopt the proposed regulations with the modifications described in this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions</HD>
                    <P>This Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions summarizes all significant comments addressing the proposed regulations, and describes and responds to comments concerning: (1) the authority to issue the proposed and final regulations generally; (2) the Loss Ratio Factor described in proposed §§ 1.6011-10(c)(2) and 1.6011-11(c); (3) the Financing Factor described in proposed § 1.6011-10(c)(1); (4) the exception for certain consumer coverage arrangements described in proposed §§ 1.6011-10(d)(2) and 1.6011-11(d)(2); (5) requests for safe harbors from either identification as a reportable transaction or from the reporting requirements upon identification as a reportable transaction; and (6) other matters including clarifications and changes not specifically related to the identified factors already addressed. This Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions also explains revisions adopted by the final regulations in response to those comments. Comments outside the scope of this rulemaking are generally not addressed.</P>
                    <P>
                        As an initial matter, the final regulations incorporate non-substantive changes to the description of the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3536"/>
                        election under section 831(b) at proposed § 1.6011-10(b)(1)(i) (defining in part the term Captive) to better reflect the text of the statute. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         § 1.6011-10(b)(1)(i) of the final regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>Furthermore, §§ 1.6011-10(e) and 1.6011-11(e) are added to the final regulations, to provide more clarity on when a transaction is considered substantially similar as defined in § 1.6011-4(c)(4) to the identified transactions. The term “Substantially Similar” has also been defined in the final regulations by cross-reference to § 1.6011-4(c)(4).</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Comments on Authority To Issue the Proposed Regulations</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. The McCarran-Ferguson Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters argued that the proposed regulations implicate “the business of insurance” under the McCarran-Ferguson Act, 15 U.S.C. 1011 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                         (“McCarran-Ferguson”). In addition, commenters argued that sections 6011, 6111, and 6112 do not explicitly reference insurance, and thus McCarran-Ferguson prohibits the application of the proposed regulations thereunder. Commenters also asserted that the inclusion of a Loss Ratio Factor and a Financing Factor in the proposed regulations will invalidate, impair, or supersede State law governing insurance companies. For example, commenters contended that because State regulators must approve related-party financing transactions entered into by insurance companies, State law to that effect will preempt identification of a captive insurance transaction involving related-party financing as a reportable transaction. Similarly, commenters contended that because State regulators establish solvency requirements for insurers licensed in their domicile, State laws regarding premium pricing will preempt identification of a captive insurance transaction as a reportable transaction based on the Loss Ratio Factor. Commenters also asserted that the Loss Ratio Factor, by encouraging payment of policyholder dividends, impacts the insurer and policyholder relationship and therefore implicates McCarran-Ferguson.
                    </P>
                    <P>Contrary to the commenters' arguments, and as discussed in more detail in the following paragraphs, McCarran-Ferguson does not apply to these regulations for two primary reasons: first, because the regulations do not invalidate, impair, or supersede State law, and second, because the regulations do not implicate the business of insurance.</P>
                    <P>
                        First, the proposed regulations do not “invalidate, impair, or supersede” any State law. As relevant here, McCarran-Ferguson provides that “[n]o Act of Congress shall be construed to invalidate, impair, or supersede any law enacted by any State for the purpose of regulating the business of insurance, or which imposes a fee or tax upon such business, unless such Act specifically relates to the business of insurance.” 15 U.S.C. 1012(b). In other words, McCarran-Ferguson prohibits application of Federal law not specifically relating to the business of insurance if it would invalidate, impair, or supersede State laws enacted for the purpose of regulating the business of insurance. 
                        <E T="03">Humana Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Forsyth,</E>
                         525 U.S. 299, 307 (1999). Courts have uniformly upheld Tax Code provisions pertaining to the taxation of insurance companies in the face of a McCarran-Ferguson challenge. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Modern Life &amp; Acc. Ins. Co.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         420 F.2d 36, 37 (7th Cir. 1969) (
                        <E T="03">holding</E>
                         that taxpayer did not show that Commissioner's determination of taxpayer's status under the Internal Revenue Code “will interfere with the choice made by [State].”); 
                        <E T="03">Indust. Life Ins. Co.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">United States,</E>
                         344 F. Supp. 870, 875 (D.S.C. 1972), 
                        <E T="03">aff'd,</E>
                         481 F.2d 609 (4th Cir. 1973) (
                        <E T="03">holding</E>
                         that Congress did not give up the right to tax by passing McCarran-Ferguson); 
                        <E T="03">Hanover Ins. Co.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         65 T.C. 715, 722 (1976) (“Congress did not, under the McCarran-Ferguson Act, surrender to the States the power of the Federal Government to tax insurance companies and to issue regulations implementing the taxing statute.”).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Moreover, McCarran-Ferguson was enacted to prevent inadvertent Federal intrusion on the State's rights to regulate insurance. 
                        <E T="03">See Barnett Bank of Marion Cty.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Nelson,</E>
                         517 U.S. 25, 39. McCarran-Ferguson does not prevent the Federal Government from issuing insurance regulations. 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         The Supreme Court has stated that McCarran-Ferguson does not “cede the field of insurance regulation to the States, saving only instances in which Congress expressly orders otherwise.” 
                        <E T="03">Humana,</E>
                         525 U.S. at 308; 
                        <E T="03">see also SEC</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Nat'l Sec., Inc.,</E>
                         393 U.S. 453, 459-60 (1969) (“The [McCarran-Ferguson Act] did not purport to make the States supreme in regulating all the activities of insurance companies.”); 
                        <E T="03">Modern Life &amp; Acc. Ins. Co.,</E>
                         420 F.2d at 37-38; 
                        <E T="03">Indust. Life Ins. Co.,</E>
                         344 F. Supp. at 875; 
                        <E T="03">Hanover Ins. Co.,</E>
                         66 T.C. at 721-22. The Supreme Court also stated that “[t]he term `invalidate' ordinarily means `to render ineffective, generally without providing a replacement rule or law . . . [a]nd the term `supersede' ordinarily means `to displace (and thus render ineffective) while providing a substitute rule.” 
                        <E T="03">Humana,</E>
                         525 U.S. at 307 (citations omitted). The Supreme Court relied on the dictionary definition of “impair,” which is “[t]o weaken, to make worse, to lessen in power, diminish, or relax, or otherwise affect in an injurious manner.” 
                        <E T="03">Humana,</E>
                         525 U.S. at 309-10 (
                        <E T="03">citing</E>
                         Black's Law Dictionary 752 (6th ed. 1990)). Thus, “[w]hen federal law does not directly conflict with state regulation, and when the application of federal law would not frustrate any declared state policy or interfere with a State's administrative regime, the McCarran-Ferguson Act does not preclude its application.” 
                        <E T="03">Humana,</E>
                         525 U.S. at 310.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The proposed regulations do not render ineffective any State law, nor do they displace or diminish any State regulator's ability to regulate the insurers within their jurisdiction. Rather, the proposed regulations run parallel to the State laws. Identification of a transaction as a listed transaction or a transaction of interest, solely for Federal tax purposes, does not in any way invalidate, impair, supersede, or affect State insurance laws. As in 
                        <E T="03">United States</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Redcorn,</E>
                         “state insurance regulations remain fully in force.” 528 F.3d 727, 736 (10th Cir. 2008) (
                        <E T="03">holding</E>
                         that prosecution under 18 U.S.C. 669 (“Theft or embezzlement in connection with health care”) did not conflict in any way with state insurance law for purposes of McCarran-Ferguson); 
                        <E T="03">see also United States</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Del. Dep't of Ins.,</E>
                         66 F.4th 114, 132 (3d Cir. 2023) (
                        <E T="03">holding</E>
                         that Delaware State law prohibiting the Delaware Department of Insurance from disclosing certain information about captive insurance companies to anyone, including the Federal Government, did not, under McCarran-Ferguson, override the IRS's statutory authority to issue summonses to the Department and have them enforced).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Commenters cite to 
                        <E T="03">United States Dep't of Treasury</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Fabe,</E>
                         508 U.S. 491 (1993), to support their argument that the proposed regulations violate the McCarran-Ferguson Act, but the proposed regulations can be readily distinguished from the Federal statute at issue in 
                        <E T="03">Fabe.</E>
                         In 
                        <E T="03">Fabe,</E>
                         a State preference for distributions to policyholders for claims and expenses incurred in the administration of insolvency proceedings was found to be the “business of insurance.” The Supreme Court found that the Ohio statute at issue in 
                        <E T="03">Fabe</E>
                         was “aimed at protecting or regulating, directly or indirectly, the relationship between the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3537"/>
                        insurance company and its policyholders.” 
                        <E T="03">Fabe,</E>
                         508 U.S. at 491-92 (
                        <E T="03">citing SEC</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Nat'l Sec., Inc.,</E>
                         393 U.S. at 460). Considering the relationship between the insurer and the insured, the Supreme Court held that, to the extent (1) the State law at issue in 
                        <E T="03">Fabe</E>
                         protected policyholders and (2) the Federal priority statute under 31 U.S.C. 3713(a)(1)(A)(iii) would impair that relationship, Federal law did not preempt State law. The Court in 
                        <E T="03">Fabe</E>
                         had to choose between Federal and State statutes because they were in direct conflict. Conversely, the proposed regulations are not in conflict with any State regulations; the relationship between insurer and insured is in no way impacted. Taxpayers remain free to enter into captive insurance transactions in any State and to structure such transactions within the confines of State regulations, and States remain free to regulate such transactions. However, if such structure is described in § 1.6011-10 or § 1.6011-11, participants must disclose information about the arrangement to the IRS. In other words, the proposed regulations attach specific tax obligations (in the form of disclosure) to specific acts (in the form of participating in a transaction described in § 1.6011-10 or § 1.6011-11), but the proposed regulations do not change how those acts are done.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Second, the act of disclosing a transaction to the tax authorities is not the “business of insurance.” The threshold question under 15 U.S.C. 1012(a), in determining whether the anti-preemption mandate of 15 U.S.C. 1012(b) applies, is whether the challenged conduct broadly constitutes the “business of insurance” in the first place. If the contested activities are wholly unrelated to the insurance business, then McCarran-Ferguson has no place in analyzing Federal regulation because only when “[insurance companies] are engaged in the `business of insurance' does the act apply.” 
                        <E T="03">Sabo</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Metropolitan Life Ins. Co.,</E>
                         137 F.3d 185, 190 (3d Cir. 1998) (
                        <E T="03">citing SEC</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Nat'l Sec., Inc.,</E>
                         393 U.S. at 459-60); 
                        <E T="03">see also United States</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Del. Dep't of Ins.,</E>
                         66 F.4th at 125 (reaffirming the threshold inquiry precedent set in 
                        <E T="03">Sabo</E>
                        ). The “core of `the business of insurance” is “[t]he relationship between insurer and insured, the type of policy which could be issued, its reliability, interpretation and enforcement.” 
                        <E T="03">United States</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Del. Dep't of Ins.,</E>
                         66 F.4th at 130 (
                        <E T="03">citing SEC</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Nat'l Sec., Inc.,</E>
                         393 U.S. at 460). The “business of insurance” is also understood to be “[an]other activity of insurance companies [that] relate[s] so closely to [their] status as reliable insurers that [it] must be placed in the same class.” 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         The conduct at issue in the proposed regulations is the filing of disclosure statements upon identification as participants in or material advisors of a transaction that, for Federal tax purposes, either is a listed transaction or a transaction of interest. Like the information gathering conduct via the summonses at issue in the 
                        <E T="03">United States</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Del. Dep't of Ins.,</E>
                         the disclosure requirements in the proposed regulations are not “the business of insurance.” The final regulations do not adopt any changes based on these comments.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Federalism Implications</HD>
                    <P>Commenters also argued that the proposed regulations have federalism implications and fail to satisfy Executive Order 13132 (Federalism). Executive Order 13132 generally provides that an agency is prohibited from publishing any rule that has federalism implications if the rule imposes substantial, direct compliance costs on State and local governments, and is not required by statute, or if the rule preempts State law, unless the agency satisfies, among other things, the consultation and federalism summary impact statement requirements of section 6 of the Executive order.</P>
                    <P>The proposed regulations do not have federalism implications, and the requirements in section 6 of Executive Order 13132 to consult with State and local officials and issue a federalism impact statement do not apply. As described in this preamble, the proposed regulations do not preempt State law, nor do they impose substantial, direct compliance costs on State and local governments, as there is no obligation created by the regulations with which any State or local agency may need to comply. The final regulations do not adopt any changes based on these comments.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Constitutionality, Fairness, and Retroactivity</HD>
                    <P>Commenters contended that the proposed regulations are unconstitutional for a number of reasons. First, commenters argued that requiring participants to disclose transactions they participated in, even if such taxpayers were examined for one or more years for which reporting would be required and for which the IRS did not make any adjustments to the taxpayers' returns, is unconstitutional and retroactive in nature. Second, commenters argued that the proposed regulations are intended to shut down the captive insurance industry and may constitute a “taking” under the Fifth Amendment of the U.S. Constitution, by restricting the rights of taxpayers to engage in captive insurance transactions.</P>
                    <P>With respect to the first argument, commenters did not specify what provision of the Constitution is allegedly violated by the potential need to disclose participation in a transaction after an examination resulted in no change to the examined returns, and we are not aware of any Constitutional provision that would be violated. In addition, any such disclosure requirement in these regulations is not retroactive in nature; the final regulations will be effective January 14, 2025. To the extent the final regulations result in a disclosure obligation with respect to transactions occurring in prior taxable years for which the statute of limitations on assessment has not expired, such obligation is a current reporting obligation that arises after January 14, 2025.</P>
                    <P>
                        With respect to the comment about reporting requirements for taxpayers whose returns have been examined, the reporting rules are outside the scope of these final regulations, which merely identify a listed transaction and a transaction of interest, respectively. The reporting rules for listed transactions and transactions of interest are found in § 1.6011-4, which was issued pursuant to notice and comment and finalized most recently on August 3, 2007, in TD 9350 (72 FR 43146), and which is not amended by these regulations. However, there are tax administration reasons to maintain these reporting requirements. Most importantly, initial disclosures of reportable transactions are filed with the Office of Tax Shelter Analysis (OTSA) to ensure that all information is collected in one place. The OTSA's mission is, among other things, to ensure that the IRS has the information necessary to detect abusive tax shelters and identify issues of significant compliance risk to tax administration. The OTSA collects and analyzes information about abusive tax shelters and reportable transactions to identify trends and disseminates the results to those in a position to take appropriate action. In order to identify participants and promoters of tax avoidance transactions, the OTSA needs to receive and review Forms 8886 in a timely and efficient manner. Limiting disclosure to a subset of transaction participants (such as taxpayers whose examinations have been closed) would provide an incomplete picture of the transaction and hinder the OTSA's efforts. Accordingly, the final regulations do not 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3538"/>
                        adopt any changes based on these comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>The commenters' second Constitutional argument, under the Fifth Amendment, is also without merit. As relevant here, the Fifth Amendment provides, in addition to the other limitations on government power, that “private property [shall not] be taken for public use, without just compensation.” The proposed regulations identify a transaction as a listed transaction or a transaction of interest for Federal tax purposes and require the filing of disclosures with the IRS and the OTSA. Requiring disclosure of participation in these transactions does not implicate the Fifth Amendment; no property interest is taken for public use by the government under the proposed regulations necessitating compensation.</P>
                    <P>Taxpayers remain free to engage in any captive insurance transaction, regardless of whether such transaction is identified in § 1.6011-10 or § 1.6011-11, respectively; however, there may be Federal tax consequences if the transaction is not a valid captive insurance transaction. As there is no limitation on participation in any transaction by operation of the proposed regulations, there is no “taking” for Fifth Amendment purposes.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">D. The Administrative Procedure Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        Commenters argued that the proposed regulations lack legal foundation and assert that the regulations will be challenged and set aside just as Notice 2016-66 was set aside in 
                        <E T="03">CIC Services, LLC</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">IRS,</E>
                         592 F.Supp.3d 677 (E.D. Tenn. 2022). In 
                        <E T="03">CIC Services,</E>
                         the district court followed the analysis in 
                        <E T="03">Mann Construction, Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">United States,</E>
                         27 F.4th 1138 (6th Cir. 2022), 
                        <E T="03">rev'g</E>
                         539 F.Supp.3d 745 (E.D. Mich. 2021), which held that the identification of a listed transaction must follow the notice-and-comment procedures of the Administrative Procedure Act (“APA”). The district court in 
                        <E T="03">CIC Services</E>
                         held that Notice 2016-66 should be vacated because the IRS did not follow the APA's notice-and-comment procedures. The district court held in the alternative that the IRS acted arbitrarily and capriciously based on the administrative record. 
                        <E T="03">CIC Services,</E>
                         592 F.Supp.3d at 687.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In light of the decision by the district court in 
                        <E T="03">CIC Services</E>
                         and other judicial decisions, the Treasury Department and the IRS published the proposed regulations and obsoleted Notice 2016-66. The NPRM provided for a comment period from April 11, 2023, through June 12, 2023, and more than 100 comment letters were received. The Treasury Department and the IRS conducted a public hearing on July 19, 2023, providing further opportunity for taxpayers to comment on the proposed regulations. The APA notice-and-comment procedures have been followed.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Some commenters suggested that the IRS's purpose for publishing the proposed regulations is to harass otherwise valid businesses, but the purpose is simply to require disclosures with respect to transactions described in §§ 1.6011-10 and 1.6011-11, in the interest of tax administration. Examinations of taxpayers and promoters have helped to clarify the Treasury Department's and the IRS's understanding of micro-captive transactions, including the scope of participation. The factors used to identify the Micro-captive Listed Transaction and the Micro-captive Transaction of Interest are neither arbitrary nor capricious. They reflect the IRS's long-standing positions with respect to abusive micro-captives as made public in annual Dirty Dozen tax schemes publications and case law. The factors are objective and reasonably determined, based on relevant factors in existing statutory provisions, on available industry data, and on a careful review of case law and examination information. The objectivity and reasonableness of each factor is discussed more fully throughout this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, notably in part II. (Loss Ratio Factor); part III. (Financing Factor); and part VI.B. (20 Percent Relationship Test). The existing case law with respect to micro-captives demonstrates the commonalities in the fact patterns in these transactions, which is relevant to the development of the transaction fact patterns identified in these regulations. The Tax Court has consistently determined in its section 831(b) decisions issued to date that taxpayers in the relevant micro-captive transactions remitted amounts treated as premiums for something other than insurance. 
                        <E T="03">See Avrahami,</E>
                         149 T.C. at 197-98; 
                        <E T="03">Syzygy</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2019-34, at *45; 
                        <E T="03">Caylor Land &amp; Dev., Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2021-30, at *48-49; 
                        <E T="03">Keating</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-2, at *64; 
                        <E T="03">Swift</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-13, at *44-45; 
                        <E T="03">Patel</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-34, at *51-52, and 
                        <E T="03">Royalty Mgmt. Ins. Co., Ltd.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-87, at *49-50. Current examinations and litigation also are relevant, as they demonstrate consistency with the transaction fact patterns identified in these regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Section 6707A(c) delegates to the IRS the authority to promulgate regulations pursuant to section 6011 identifying reportable transactions. Specifically, section 6707A(c)(1) states that “[t]he term `reportable transaction' means any transaction with respect to which information is required to be included with a return or statement because, as determined under regulations prescribed under section 6011, such transaction is of a type which the Secretary determines as having a potential for tax avoidance or evasion.” Section 6707A(c)(2) defines the term “listed transaction” as “a reportable transaction which is the same as, or substantially similar to, a transaction specifically identified by the Secretary as a tax avoidance transaction for purposes of section 6011.” Section 6707A(a) provides that “[a]ny person who fails to include on any return or statement any information with respect to a reportable transaction which is required 
                        <E T="03">under section 6011</E>
                         to be included with such return or statement shall pay a penalty in the amount determined under subsection (b)” (
                        <E T="03">emphasis</E>
                         added). Under section 6011(a), returns and statements, including disclosures, should be filed “according to the forms and regulations prescribed by the Secretary.” The proposed regulations do not create any law that is contrary to any statute; rather, the proposed regulations identify transactions that must be disclosed per the existing rules under the Code with respect to reportable transactions, as sections 6707A(c) and 6011 prescribe.
                    </P>
                    <P>In addition, the Secretary has general regulatory authority under section 7805(a) to “prescribe all needful rules and regulations for the enforcement of” the Code. The Treasury Department and the IRS have clear authority to issue the proposed regulations and have followed the procedural requirements of the APA. As explained more fully throughout this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, these final regulations are based on consideration of comments in response to the proposed regulations, case law, and the IRS's years of experience with abusive micro-captives.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">E. Definition of Insurance for Federal Tax Purposes</HD>
                    <P>
                        Commenters also argued that by identifying a micro-captive transaction as a listed transaction or a transaction of interest on the basis of a Loss Ratio Factor, a Financing Factor, or both, the proposed regulations define insurance for Federal tax purposes in a manner inconsistent with case law. Commenters cited a number of cases, including 
                        <E T="03">Reserve Mech. Corp.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                          
                        <PRTPAGE P="3539"/>
                        34 F.4th 881 (10th Cir. 2022), 
                        <E T="03">aff'g,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2018-86; 
                        <E T="03">United Parcel Service of America, Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         254 F.3d 1014 (11th Cir. 2001); 
                        <E T="03">Harper Grp.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         979 F.2d 1341 (9th Cir. 1992), 
                        <E T="03">aff'g,</E>
                         96 T.C. 45 (1991); 
                        <E T="03">Sears Roebuck &amp; Co.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         972 F.2d 858 (7th Cir. 1992); 
                        <E T="03">AMERCO</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         96 T.C. 18 (1991); 
                        <E T="03">Humana, Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         881 F.2d 247 (6th Cir. 1989); 
                        <E T="03">Caylor,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2021-30; 
                        <E T="03">Syzygy,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2019-34; 
                        <E T="03">Avrahami,</E>
                         149 T.C. 144 (2017); 
                        <E T="03">R.V.I. Guar. Co.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         145 T.C. 209 (2015); 
                        <E T="03">Rent-A-Center,</E>
                         142 T.C. 1 (2014); and 
                        <E T="03">Securitas Holdings, Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2014-225. Additionally, several commenters pointed to the IRS's concession in 
                        <E T="03">Puglisi</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         2021 WL 7162530 (T.C. Oct. 29, 2021), as proof that the IRS has accepted facts similar to those described in the proposed regulations as insurance for Federal tax purposes, and therefore, the apparent attempt by the proposed regulations to redefine insurance for Federal tax purposes is contrary to established precedent.
                    </P>
                    <P>The proposed regulations do not redefine insurance for Federal tax purposes by identifying the specific fact patterns set forth in §§ 1.6011-10 and 1.6011-11 as listed transactions or transactions of interest, respectively. The proposed regulations identify fact patterns that are consistently present in the micro-captive cases tried on their merits and the examined cases with respect to which the IRS has determined that the transaction at issue lacked the necessary characteristics, based on the specific facts in each case, to qualify as insurance for Federal tax purposes under existing caselaw. (Although section 6103 prohibits the IRS from disclosing specific taxpayer information, it does not preclude the IRS from identifying consistent fact patterns based on specific taxpayer information.)</P>
                    <P>For specific cases with respect to which the IRS received comments, section 6103 of the Code prohibits the IRS from discussing taxpayer return information. However, section 6103(b)(2) clarifies that the IRS is not prohibited from disclosing information to the extent it is “in a form which cannot be associated with, or otherwise identify, directly or indirectly, a particular taxpayer,” such as, for example, fact patterns based on specific taxpayer return information. In general, there are a variety of reasons why certain examined cases may have conceded an otherwise valid challenge to the taxpayer's position, either by the IRS Independent Office of Appeals (Appeals) or in litigation.</P>
                    <P>Several commenters incorrectly assumed that the proposed regulations declare all entities electing the alternative tax under section 831(b) as tax avoidant or potentially tax avoidant, contrary to Congressional intent to encourage the use of small captives by enacting section 831(b) and subsequent amendments thereof, including section 333 of the PATH Act. This assumption is incorrect for several reasons. First, the proposed regulations identify a specific fact pattern involving related parties, including a Captive, at least 20 percent of the voting power or the value of the outstanding stock or equity interest of which is owned, directly or indirectly, by an Insured, an Owner, or persons Related to Insured or an Owner (as such terms are defined in § 1.6011-10(b)). The definition of Captive includes the section 831(b) election, but there are several other factors that must be met before the transaction is described as a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest. The closely held nature of the arrangement coupled with the section 831(b) election and the use of premiums for personal investments or for related-party financing and not to pay losses are what renders these transactions appropriate subjects of disclosure as tax avoidance transactions or transactions of interest.</P>
                    <P>
                        Second, Congress enacted section 831(b) in the interest of simplifying the Code, not to encourage the use of small captive insurance companies. H.R. Rep. No. 99-426, at 678 (1985) (“The present law applicable to small and certain ordinary mutual companies is inordinately complex and should be simplified.”). Congress amended section 831(b) to provide that the election may be revoked only with the consent of the Secretary, with the clear intent “that the election not be used as a means of eliminating tax liability (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         by making the election only for years when the taxpayer does not have net operating losses), but rather as a simplification for small companies.” H.R. Rep. No. 100-795, at 121 (1988); S. Rep. 100-445, at 127 (1988). Nothing in the statutory language or the legislative history of section 831(b) suggests that Congress intended to provide the benefits of section 831(b) to companies that do not qualify as insurance companies for Federal tax purposes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Third, the Code does not permit a current deduction for amounts set aside for self-funding of future losses. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Harper Grp,</E>
                         96 T.C. at 46 n.2 (1991) (“Losses incurred by the self-insured taxpayer are deductible (if at all) only in the year paid out from the reserve fund.”), 
                        <E T="03">aff'd,</E>
                         979 F.2d 1341 (9th Cir. 1992); 
                        <E T="03">Stearns-Roger Corp.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">United States,</E>
                         774 F.2d 414, 415 (10th Cir. 1985) (“Payments [for self-insurance] are not deductible as insurance premiums”). The transactions described in § 1.6011-11 have many of the characteristics of self-insurance, and as such, taxpayers who deduct amounts paid to captives in such transactions may be engaged, as a matter of substance, in self-insurance, but more information is needed to determine if that is the case.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">F. Small and Mid-Sized Businesses and the Captive Industry</HD>
                    <P>A number of commenters suggested that the proposed regulations discriminate against small and mid-sized businesses by designating certain micro-captive transactions as listed transactions, and certain other micro-captive transactions as transactions of interest. Commenters also stated that the proposed regulations will impermissibly chill the captive insurance industry. Although it may be the case that many small and mid-sized businesses utilize captive insurance entities that make an election under section 831(b), the proposed regulations do not discriminate against such businesses on the basis of their size by identifying their captive as a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest. Regarding Insureds, there is no specific size of company at issue; large and small businesses alike may engage in a captive insurance transaction, but if such transaction meets the description of a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest, the participants in and material advisors thereof must file disclosure statements. The Treasury Department and the IRS do not intend to discourage the use of section 831(b) by entities that qualify for the election, nor should these regulations be construed as intending to discourage the use of section 831(b) by such entities. These regulations do not hinder the formation of valid captive insurance companies, as discussed more fully at parts VI.C. and H. of the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">II. Comments and Changes Relating to the Loss Ratio Factors as Described in Proposed §§ 1.6011-10(c)(2) and 1.6011-11(c)</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Overview of Comments Relating to the Loss Ratio Factors</HD>
                    <P>
                        Commenters expressed a number of concerns about the Loss Ratio Factors 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3540"/>
                        and Computation Periods. In response to these concerns, the final regulations significantly narrow the scope of the Micro-captive Listed Transaction description by providing that transactions are identified as listed transactions under the final regulations only if both the Financing Factor and the Loss Ratio Factor tests are met. The final regulations also lower the Loss Ratio Factors for both Micro-captive Listed Transactions and Micro-captive Transactions of Interest in response to comments. With respect to the proposed Loss Ratio Computation Period set forth at proposed § 1.6011-10(b)(2)(ii) and the proposed Transaction of Interest Computation Period set forth at proposed § 1.6011-11(b)(2) (collectively, the “Computation Periods”), as further discussed in this part II. of the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, the final regulations make no substantive changes to the Loss Ratio Computation Period but do extend the Transaction of Interest Computation Period to a period of up to ten years.
                    </P>
                    <P>Many of the comments related to the Loss Ratio Factors in the proposed regulations raised multiple concerns that were not clearly delineated from other comments or recommendations. For clarity, comments received with respect to the Loss Ratio Factors are addressed categorically in the remaining subparts of this part II. of the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Tax Avoidance or Potential for Tax Avoidance Identified by Loss Ratio Factors</HD>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters suggested that the Loss Ratio Factors as set forth at proposed §§ 1.6011-10(c)(2) and 1.6011-11(c) are inappropriate metrics for the captive insurance industry and should not be determinative of whether a transaction is a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest. Some cited 
                        <E T="03">Puglisi,</E>
                         2021 WL 7162530, for support, suggesting that the IRS conceded the case because the captive at issue, which had a loss ratio below 65 percent, was not participating in a tax avoidance transaction. Commenters also argued that the IRS is treating similarly situated taxpayers differently, by predicating whether a micro-captive transaction involving an entity electing the alternative tax under section 831(b) is a reportable transaction using the Loss Ratio Factors but not doing the same for entities that do not make the section 831(b) election. Other commenters asserted that the Loss Ratio Factors were inappropriate because captives may recover funds through reinsurance, which would have the effect of lowering loss ratios.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In the context of closely held section 831(b) entities, the Loss Ratio Factors generally identify transactions involving circumstances inconsistent with insurance for Federal tax purposes, including excessive pricing of premiums and artificially low or nonexistent claims activity. The Loss Ratio Factor measures whether the amount of liabilities incurred for insured losses and claims administration expenses is significantly less than the amount of premiums earned, adjusted for policyholder dividends. The primary purpose of premium pricing is to ensure funds are available should a claim arise. The pricing of premiums should naturally reflect the economic reality of insurance operations, to ensure that policies are “price[d] in such a way that the premiums brought in cover losses and the insurer's business expenses with enough profit left over to keep investors happy.” 
                        <E T="03">Avrahami,</E>
                         149 T.C. at 152. Typically, actuaries establish a policy rating scheme and classify risks “`to allow credible statistical inferences regarding expected outcomes.'” 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         (
                        <E T="03">quoting</E>
                         Actuarial Standard of Practice No. 12: Risk Classification (for All Practice Areas), sec. 3.3 (Actuarial Standards Bd. 2005). The work should be reproducible and permit “another actuary qualified in the same practice area [to] make an objective appraisal of the reasonableness of the actuary's work.” Actuarial Standard of Practice No. 41: Actuarial Communications, sec. 3.2 (Actuarial Standards Bd. 2010), 
                        <E T="03">https://www.actuarialstandardsboard.org/standards-of-practice/</E>
                         (last visited Jan. 6, 2025). Pricing premiums far in excess of what is reasonably needed to fund insurance operations results in a lower loss ratio and remains a strong indicator of tax avoidance. Further, while amounts paid for insurance may be deductible business expenses, amounts set aside in a loss reserve as a form of self-insurance are not. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Harper Grp.,</E>
                         96 T.C. at 46 n.2; 
                        <E T="03">Stearns-Roger Corp.,</E>
                         774 F.2d at 415.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        With respect to comments suggesting that the outcome of specific examined cases (such as 
                        <E T="03">Puglisi,</E>
                         2021 WL 7162530) demonstrates the impropriety of using Loss Ratio Factors generally, or that determinations in such cases demonstrate that the Service is treating similarly situated taxpayers differently, section 6103 prohibits the IRS from disclosing specific taxpayer information. However, as discussed in part I.E. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, section 6103 does not preclude the IRS from identifying consistent fact patterns based on specific taxpayer information. The IRS's decision to concede or settle a given case in no way alters these findings and conclusions, nor are these findings and conclusions altered by the examination of entities that do not fit the identified fact pattern.
                    </P>
                    <P>Further, commenters suggested that the inclusion of a section 831(b) election as an identifying factor in the proposed regulations but not doing the same for entities that do not make a section 831(b) election means similarly situated taxpayers are being treated differently. However, an entity that does not make a section 831(b) election is not similarly situated. An insurance company taxed under section 831(a) has a corresponding income recognition for amounts paid as insurance premiums, lessening the potential of ongoing tax deferral present in the transactions identified by these regulations.</P>
                    <P>In response to the commenters who asserted that reinsurance would have the effect of lowering loss ratios, the Treasury Department and the IRS respectfully disagree. Any reinsurance obtained by the Captive for risks attributable to direct written coverage would tend to reduce the premiums earned by the Captive (as most if not all amounts attributable to the reinsurance would typically be ceded to the reinsurer and deducted from premiums earned), thereby increasing the Captive's Loss Ratio Factor percentage and making it less likely that such transaction would be described in the regulations. The final regulations do not eliminate the Loss Ratio Factors based on these and similar comments.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Potential To Capture Transactions That Are Not Tax Avoidance Transactions as Listed Transactions</HD>
                    <P>
                        Commenters asserted that micro-captive transactions that are not tax avoidance transactions may have loss ratios that fall below the threshold established by the Loss Ratio Factors. Commenters opined that a loss ratio factor of 65 percent leaves determination of whether a transaction is a listed transaction up to “random chance,” because future loss experience cannot be known when premiums are set, which makes the Loss Ratio Factors inappropriate for identifying tax avoidance transactions or transactions of interest. Commenters stated that premiums are intentionally set at high rates for long periods of time to ensure that there are adequate reserves to pay claims in case of catastrophic loss. Some suggested that transactions meeting the proposed 65 percent Loss Ratio Factor 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3541"/>
                        using a ten-year Loss Ratio Computation Period be identified as Micro-captive Transactions of Interest instead of Micro-captive Listed Transactions. Commenters expressed concern that transactions that are not tax avoidance transactions would be captured if the Loss Ratio Factors are retained, arguing that limited loss history does not mean that risks are not present, or that premiums are overpriced. Commenters pointed to a governmental program that provides reimbursement coverage for certain losses attributable to acts of terrorism set forth in the Terrorism Risk Insurance Act of 2002 (“TRIA”) as an example for why a loss ratio well below the proposed 65 percent is not inherently indicative of tax avoidance. Several commenters pointed to the Tax Court's holdings in 
                        <E T="03">R.V.I. Guar. Co., Ltd. &amp; Subs.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         145 T.C. 209 (2015), as support for why the proposed 65 percent for a loss ratio is too high.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        With respect to concerns that transactions that are not tax avoidance transactions could be identified as Micro-captive Listed Transactions based on a ten-year Loss Ratio Computation Period and proposed 65 percent Loss Ratio Factor, the IRS recognizes that low loss ratios may be the result of coverage of low-frequency, high-severity risks. Inherent in insurance underwriting is the concept that by assuming numerous independent risks that will occur randomly, losses will become more predictable over time, and pricing should reflect those anticipated losses. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Clougherty Packing Co., Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         811 F.2d 1297, 1306 (9th Cir. 1987) (“The likelihood that a loss will occur is of uncertain but predictable magnitude; the size of the loss is similarly uncertain but predictable.”). This concept is notably absent from the micro-captive cases tried to date, as premiums were consistently priced to meet the target threshold under section 831(b) without regard to reasonable estimates for loss experience. 
                        <E T="03">See Avrahami,</E>
                         149 T.C. at 194-198; 
                        <E T="03">Syzygy,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2019-34, at *33-34; 
                        <E T="03">Caylor,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2021-30, at *45-47; 
                        <E T="03">Keating,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-2, at *59-61; 
                        <E T="03">Swift,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-13, at *40-42; 
                        <E T="03">Patel,</E>
                         T.C Memo. 2024-34, at *48-50; and 
                        <E T="03">Royalty Mgmt.,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-87, at *23, 46-48; 
                        <E T="03">see also Reserve Mech.,</E>
                         34 F.4th at 891-94. The Loss Ratio Factor percentage is not intended to act as a proxy for the actuarial basis of premium pricing, as such a basis would be too fact specific to establish an administrable test that would adequately put all relevant taxpayers on notice of their obligations under the Code in accordance with every taxpayer's right to be informed. 
                        <E T="03">See Taxpayer Bill of Rights, https://www.irs.gov/taxpayer-bill-of-rights</E>
                         (last visited Jan. 6, 2025).
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters identifying loss ratios at issue in specific Tax Court cases did not specify what the loss ratios would be in those cases if computed as set forth in the proposed regulations over the proposed ten-year Loss Ratio Computation Period, nor did they specify an administrable metric that would enable better identification of tax avoidance transactions. The inclusion of a ten-year Loss Ratio Computation Period is intended to allow a Captive significant time to develop a reasonable loss history that supports the use of a micro-captive for legitimate insurance purposes. The final regulations retain the ten-year Loss Ratio Computation Period in the proposed listed transaction regulations, but in response to concerns that the proposed Loss Ratio Factors are nevertheless set too high and will capture transactions that are not tax avoidance transactions, the final regulations lower the Loss Ratio Factor for purposes of designating a listed transaction under § 1.6011-10 to 30 percent.</P>
                    <P>
                        The percentage was selected in response to comments indicating that the Tax Court's holding in 
                        <E T="03">R.V.I.</E>
                         supports a lower loss ratio. 
                        <E T="03">R.V.I.</E>
                         is the one case cited by commenters that analyzed loss ratios for time periods corresponding to the Loss Ratio Computation Period for the Micro-captive Listed Transaction. In 
                        <E T="03">R.V.I.,</E>
                         the Tax Court listed the captive's loss ratios from 2000 through 2013. 
                        <E T="03">R.V.I.,</E>
                         145 T.C. at 216. The listed loss ratios ranged from a low of 0.2 percent (2012) to a high of 97.9 percent (2008). 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         As the Tax Court found, when considered in their totality, these ratios reflect “significant claims and . . . . significant insurance losses.” 
                        <E T="03">Id.</E>
                         at 215. The average loss ratio in 
                        <E T="03">R.V.I.</E>
                         for the five ten-year periods analyzed by the Tax Court (2000 through 2009; 2001 through 2010; 2002 through 2011; 2003 through 2012; and 2004 through 2013) themselves ranged from a low of 28 percent (2000 through 2009) to a high of 35 percent (2004 through 2013). Taking the average of those five ten-year periods, the average ten-year loss ratio in the 
                        <E T="03">R.V.I.</E>
                         case was 32 percent. This amount is rounded down to 30 percent in the final regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>Further, to better target those transactions that are properly identified as listed transactions rather than as transactions of interest, the final regulations require that the transaction meet both the Loss Ratio Factor and the Financing Factor (a conjunctive test) to be designated as a listed transaction, as explained more fully in part III. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions. This change to a conjunctive test, coupled with the lower Loss Ratio Factor percentage for Micro-captive Listed Transactions, significantly narrows the scope of the Micro-captive Listed Transaction in the final regulations and should provide adequate relief for taxpayers who suggested comparisons to specific business line loss ratios, as well as for taxpayers who expressed concerns about the breadth of the Micro-captive Listed Transaction under the proposed regulations or who requested that transactions that would have met the proposed 65 percent Loss Ratio Factor be identified as transactions of interest instead. Although the example of the TRIA's loss experience is not strictly relevant (that is, because the TRIA is a governmental relief program, not an insurance company) the significantly narrowed scope of the Micro-captive Listed Transaction is intended to respond to concerns that lower losses do not necessarily mean risks were not present or that premiums were overpriced.</P>
                    <P>For clarity, the proposed Loss Ratio Computation Period is retitled as the “Listed Transaction Loss Ratio Computation Period” and the proposed Transaction of Interest Computation Period is retitled as the “Transaction of Interest Loss Ratio Computation Period”. The final regulations generally retain the substance of the proposed Computation Periods except the Transaction of Interest Loss Ratio Computation Period is increased in the final regulations from a Captive's nine most recent taxable years to its ten most recent taxable years (or all taxable years of the Captive's existence if it has been in existence for less than ten taxable years) as discussed more fully in part II.D. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions. If an established transaction that is otherwise described in the final regulations has not had adequate time to develop a ten-year loss history, the transaction may only be designated as a transaction of interest rather than a listed transaction. In addition, the Loss Ratio Factor for identification as a transaction of interest is also lowered from 65 percent to 60 percent in the final regulations, as described in part II.D. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">D. Comparison to National Averages</HD>
                    <P>
                        The proposed Loss Ratio Factors were generally formulated by using the medical loss ratio in section 833 of the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3542"/>
                        Code, to inform the original loss ratio factor in Notice 2016-66, and by using national data for commercial property and casualty insurers, to inform the proposed regulations. A number of commenters contended that these metrics are inappropriate because section 831(b) captive insurers are materially different from commercial insurers due to the different types of coverage offered by commercial and captive insurers. For example, several commenters asserted that the inclusion in national averages of certain lines of coverage (identified by one commenter as private passenger auto liability, commercial auto liability, and accident and health coverage lines) that captives do not typically write, or may not be permitted to write, may tend to skew industry-wide loss ratios higher. Another commenter relatedly suggested that the Loss Ratio Factor's reliance on data from the National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) as a benchmark was inappropriate because the data does not include the experience of the vast majority of captive insurance companies, including those which have elected to be taxed under section 831(b). One commenter asserted that the national industry average relied upon in the proposed regulations lacks an actuarial basis, and another commenter stated that aggregated data of the U.S. property-casualty insurance industry would reflect more risk diversification and geographic diversity than would be present in a typical micro-captive arrangement.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        As noted in the preamble to the proposed regulations, the Loss Ratio Factors are modified loss ratios spread out over the course of many years, unlike the single-year NAIC averages, and are also lower than the NAIC industry averages. The NAIC industry averages ranged between 67.2 and 76.2 percent per year from 2012 to 2021. 
                        <E T="03">See Insurance Industry Snapshots and Analysis Reports, https://naic.soutronglobal.net/Portal/Public/en-US/RecordView/Index/26555</E>
                         (last visited Jan. 6, 2025). In the latest published NAIC industry report, national averages ranged between 69.0 and 76.4 percent per year from 2014 to 2023. 
                        <E T="03">See 2023 Annual Property &amp; Casualty Insurance and Title Insurance Industries Analysis Report, https://naic.soutronglobal.net/Portal/Public/en-US/RecordView/Index/26555</E>
                         (last visited Jan. 6, 2025). Accordingly, even a Captive electing the alternative tax under section 831(b) that has a loss ratio below the industry-wide average for property and casualty companies in a given year will not necessarily have a loss ratio that causes it to be a participant to a transaction identified by the regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>With respect to concerns that the use of NAIC data as a benchmark for the Loss Ratio Factor is inappropriate because the NAIC does not capture micro-captive data, the commenter did not identify any alternative published data set that would capture the experience of “the vast majority of captive insurance companies, including micro-captive insurance companies,” nor is the IRS aware of one. The commenter included a table illustrating the distribution of AM Best Company's average loss and loss administration expenses ratios for small insurance companies, described as insurers grouped by capital and surplus up to $10 million, but this data set is inappropriate. As the commenter noted, the AM Best Company's data set includes “vastly different claims characteristics than micro-captives” covering risks that micro-captives are not generally permitted to cover, such as personal automobile liability and homeowner's liability. The NAIC data, conversely, represents industry averages generally applicable to all nonlife insurers, and, accordingly, was relied upon in the proposed regulations as a starting point, which was modified by the inclusion of policyholder dividends in the computation and by the application of an extended Computation Period. Further, as previously discussed in part II.C. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, the threshold for the Loss Ratio Factor for identification of a Micro-captive Listed Transaction has been lowered significantly in the final regulations.</P>
                    <P>The comments regarding the lines of coverage included in the NAIC averages provide support for a reduction to the proposed Loss Ratio Factor for identification as a transaction of interest. The specific business lines identified by the commenters would, based on the NAIC Profitability Study provided by one of the commenters, result in an average nine-year loss ratio of approximately 59 percent. However, there are other high frequency, low severity coverages and other business lines that captives are unlikely to cover in the data provided by the commenter that the commenter failed to mention: private passenger auto physical damage, homeowners' multiple peril, and mortgage guaranty lines. Removing these lines from the data set provided by the commenter would reduce the average nine-year loss ratio percentage from 65 percent identified in the proposed regulations to slightly over 60 percent.</P>
                    <P>
                        However, this relies on the national average computation of loss ratios, which as commenters pointed out, is not the modified computation set forth in the proposed regulations. The modified computation ratio in the final regulations would potentially be lower, in part because policyholder dividend payments reduce the ratio. To determine what the average loss ratio would be using the modified loss ratio computation set forth in the proposed regulations, the IRS considered the annual NAIC Report on Profitability by Line by State for each year from 2013 through 2022 to understand a typical property and casualty company loss ratio. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., 2013 Report on Profitability by Line by State,</E>
                         Center for Insurance Policy &amp; Research, 
                        <E T="03">https://naic.soutronglobal.net/Portal/Public/en-US/RecordView/Index/7008</E>
                         (last visited Jan. 6, 2025). By removing the high frequency, low severity coverages that captives are unlikely to cover for each year from 2013 through 2022 from the annual data and computing the comparison of liabilities incurred for insured losses and claim administration expenses to premiums earned less policyholder dividends as set forth in the regulations, the average nine-year modified loss ratio is approximately 66 percent, which is slightly higher than the proposed 65 percent established in the proposed regulations. The average ten-year modified loss ratio is also slightly higher, at approximately 67 percent.
                    </P>
                    <P>In light of commenters' concerns that the proposed 65 percent modified loss ratio is still too high, the Loss Ratio Factor percentage for identification of a transaction of interest in these regulations is lowered to 60 percent. This amount represents a discount from the lowest loss ratio supported by available data. The Loss Ratio Factor percentage for identification as a listed transaction has been reduced much more substantially to 30 percent, for other reasons, as described in part II.C. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions. In the interest of ensuring all taxpayers can easily determine their status under the regulations, the Loss Ratio Factor remains based on the aggregated NAIC average as modified in the final regulations; although commenters were critical of the aggregated data provided by the NAIC, commenters did not point to, and the IRS is not aware of, an alternative publicly-available data set that would be more appropriate.</P>
                    <P>
                        Further, the Treasury Department and the IRS considered alternative 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3543"/>
                        Computation Periods and determined that a difference of one year in the Computation Periods between the Micro-captive Listed Transaction and the Micro-captive Transaction of Interest when the loss ratio thresholds are different adds unnecessary complexity and burden to affected taxpayers. The Transaction of Interest Loss Ratio Computation Period is accordingly increased to a period of up to ten years, or if the Captive has not been existence for ten full years, all years of the Captive's existence. This change will afford affected taxpayers more time to develop a loss history and will enable the computation of one ratio when affected taxpayers are considering if they need to report under § 1.6011-10 or § 1.6011-11.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">E. Proposed Alternatives to the Loss Ratio Factors</HD>
                    <P>Commenters suggested alternatives to the Loss Ratio Factors including: (1) evaluating the methodology used to price premiums to ensure the premiums either are priced commensurate with commercial insurance market premiums, or are priced at arm's length, given that several Code sections (such as section 482) and the regulations thereunder place strict limitations on what may be considered arm's length in a given industry; (2) applying the definition of a qualified insurance company (QIC) set forth in the passive foreign investment company rules; (3) comparing micro-captives to commercial carriers and special markets, such as commercial excess and surplus lines (“E&amp;S”) carriers; (4) comparing micro-captives to county mutual insurance companies, which commenters said have loss ratios of 40 percent and frequently make section 831(b) elections; or (5) establishing variations of the Loss Ratio Factors for specific regions or States. These recommendations are addressed in turn in this part II.E. of the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Premium Pricing Methodology</HD>
                    <P>Many commenters stated that they believe a better standard for assessing whether a micro-captive transaction should be identified as a listed transaction is to evaluate whether an independent, licensed actuary annually determines the premiums. Some commenters suggested that the IRS's real concern is whether premiums are priced fairly, and that if taxpayers can demonstrate that the premiums were priced by a credentialed actuary, employing actuarial techniques to establish premium rates that appropriately reflect the risk of loss and applicable costs, the transaction should be of no concern to the IRS.</P>
                    <P>
                        The determination of whether a transaction is insurance for Federal tax purposes is based on the totality of the circumstances, but these regulations are not defining insurance for either Federal or State law purposes. Rather, these regulations identify a set of recurring and consistent fact patterns indicating the lack of a non-tax business purpose in related-party transactions that purport to offer insurance for Federal tax purposes. In related party transactions, the lack of arm's length dealing is often a source of abuse. In the micro-captive cases tried to date, the participation of an actuary or other professional in the computation of the premiums (and the taxpayer's insistence that pricing was at arm's length) was not sufficient to make the premiums reasonable, as is necessary for a valid insurance transaction for Federal tax purposes. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Avrahami,</E>
                         149 T.C. at 196; 
                        <E T="03">Syzygy,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2019-34, at *34-36; 
                        <E T="03">Caylor,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2021-30, at *45-47; 
                        <E T="03">Keating,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-2, at *61-62; 
                        <E T="03">Swift,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-13, at *41-44; 
                        <E T="03">Patel,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-34, at *49-50; and 
                        <E T="03">Royalty Mgmt.,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-87, at *46-47; 
                        <E T="03">see also Reserve Mech.,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2018-86, at *55-56, 61; 
                        <E T="03">cf. Harper Grp.,</E>
                         96 T.C. at 59 (premiums were stipulated to be priced at arm's length); 
                        <E T="03">Securitas,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2014-225, at *12 n.4 (“Respondent does not challenge the reasonableness of premiums.”).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For example, in 
                        <E T="03">Avrahami,</E>
                         the premiums were priced by a credentialed actuary. The Tax Court was unpersuaded that the actuary's involvement resulted in reasonable premiums and found that the actuary's “calculations [were] aimed not at actuarially sound decision-making but at justifying total premiums as close as possible to $1.2 million—the target—without going over.” 149 T.C. at 196. The Tax Court expressed similar skepticism in subsequent micro-captive cases. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Syzygy,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2019-34, at *17-18, 34-36 (finding that premiums were not actuarially determined after concluding that there was no evidence demonstrating that actuarial methods were followed; that a feasibility study completed by an actuarial consulting firm and an actuarial review completed by the State of Delaware Department of Insurance were focused on solvency, not the reasonableness of premiums; and that the advice of a credentialed actuary was ignored regarding the allocation of premiums between layers in a layered reinsurance arrangement); 
                        <E T="03">Caylor,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2021-30, at *45-47 (finding that a captive manager's pricing methodology was not actuarially sound); 
                        <E T="03">Keating,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-2, at *30 n.30 (actuary's opinion that pricing methodology was reasonable did not address specific policies). Further, while section 482 and the regulations thereunder provide standards for when a transaction between related parties is considered arm's length, such determination is wholly fact specific to each arrangement and thus inappropriate as a metric for identifying reportable transactions.
                    </P>
                    <P>Accordingly, the final regulations do not adopt the commenters' recommendation to replace the Loss Ratio Factors with a metric evaluating pricing methodology. While commenters were critical of the Loss Ratio Factors and suggested that the IRS evaluate pricing methodology, they provided no specific pricing methodology or reliable commercial market source that would enable the IRS to better distinguish between transactions that are or may be tax avoidance transactions and those that are not. The final regulations do not adopt any changes based on this recommendation.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Qualified Insurance Company Rules</HD>
                    <P>Section 1297 of the Code sets forth the rules for determining whether a foreign corporation is a passive foreign investment company (PFIC), which can result in adverse Federal tax consequences to a U.S. shareholder of that corporation. Generally, pursuant to section 1297(a), a foreign corporation is a PFIC if: (1) 75 percent or more of its gross income for the taxable year is passive income or (2) the average percentage of assets held by such corporation during the taxable year which produce passive income or which are held for the production of passive income is at least 50 percent. However, section 1297(b)(2)(B) provides that passive income does not include income derived in the active conduct of an insurance business by a QIC. Generally, to be a QIC, the foreign insurer must: (1) be a corporation that would be subject to tax under Subpart L if it were a domestic corporation and (2) have “applicable insurance liabilities” (AILs) that exceed 25 percent of its total assets, as provided in section 1297(f)(1), which is referred to as the “AIL test” in this preamble.</P>
                    <P>
                        The commenter stated that QIC status creates a rebuttable presumption that the purported insurer is a bona fide insurance company and that applying the same QIC test to domestic insurers that have elected to be taxed under 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3544"/>
                        section 831(b) should create a similar rebuttable presumption in these regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>The Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that QIC status is not appropriate for determining whether a micro-captive transaction is a tax avoidance transaction or has the potential to be a tax avoidance transaction. Foremost, QIC status does not create a rebuttable presumption that the foreign company is a bona fide insurance company. Rather, QIC status depends on the foreign company being a bona fide insurance company, as that is a prerequisite to satisfying the first prong of the QIC test, that it would be subject to tax under subchapter L (that is, would be taxable as an insurance company for Federal tax purposes) if it were a domestic corporation. The commenter's proposed test is unworkable because it is circular. Further, the entities identified as Captives by the proposed and final regulations claim eligibility to be taxed under section 831(b) of subchapter L and therefore would presumably take the position that they are subject to tax under subchapter L. However, as discussed more fully in parts I.E. and VI.C. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, litigation and audit experience demonstrate that many micro-captive transactions do not meet the requirements for taxation as insurance under the Code.</P>
                    <P>Nor is the second prong of the QIC test, the AIL test, suitable for determining whether a company is a bona fide insurance company or for identifying micro-captive listed transactions or transactions of interest. The AIL test is based on the ratio of a foreign corporation's applicable insurance liabilities to its total assets as reported on the foreign insurance company's applicable financial statement for a taxable year, as those terms are defined in § 1.1297-4.</P>
                    <P>The AIL test is appropriate in the PFIC context because the objective of the PFIC provisions generally, that is, independent of insurance considerations, is identifying foreign companies with U.S. shareholders that are predominately passive investment vehicles focused on holding investment assets and earning investment income. The AIL test achieves this objective by identifying foreign insurance companies that, though they are engaged in the active conduct of an insurance business, are nevertheless predominantly passive investment vehicles because they have a very large amount of total assets compared to their insurance liabilities. By failing the AIL test, such foreign insurance companies do not constitute QICs and therefore do not qualify for the PFIC insurance exception under section 1297(b)(2)(B).</P>
                    <P>The AIL test is not part of the determination of whether a foreign corporation would be an insurance company taxable under subchapter L if it were a domestic company. Further, a foreign insurance company that fails the AIL test would still be a PFIC even if it is a bona fide insurance company and is engaged in the active conduct of an insurance business. It is thus inappropriate to use the AIL test in determining if a company is a bona fide insurance company or to identify micro-captive listed transactions or transactions of interest. Instead, the Loss Ratio Factors are appropriate for this purpose, in part because one indicium of tax avoidance in a micro-captive transaction is excessive premium payments (which taxpayers claim are deductible to the Insured and not taxable to the Captive pursuant to the section 831(b) election) when compared to liabilities incurred for insured losses and claim administration expenses.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Commercial and Special Markets Comparison</HD>
                    <P>Commenters compared micro-captives to commercial carriers and special markets, such as commercial E&amp;S (excess and surplus lines) carriers. Commenters pointed out that many commercial insurance business lines and geographical locations consistently have loss ratios of less than 65 percent, and some recommended the loss ratio percentage be based on each line of coverage written by the Captive or similar coverages written by commercial carriers. One commenter identified specific commercial lines of coverage, including Boiler &amp; Machinery, Burglary &amp; Theft, Earthquake, Fidelity, Surety, and Other Liability-Claims Made, as examples of lines of coverage that many micro-captives offer and stated that micro-captives therefore have similar loss and loss ratio distributions to these commercial lines.</P>
                    <P>
                        Generally, commercial E&amp;S carriers cover risks that are too uncommon, too large, or too unquantifiable to be insured by admitted carriers. In a commercial E&amp;S market, multiple financial backers, grouped in syndicates, come together to pool and spread diversified risks that are placed with the syndicates through authorized brokers. Certain Captives may share some similarities with a commercial E&amp;S carrier, but as a general matter, a typical micro-captive does not comport itself consistently with insurers operating in the commercial E&amp;S market. For example, the risks covered by a micro-captive are often those of relatively few insureds who are concentrated in a small geographic region. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Caylor,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2021-30, at *38 (risks were concentrated in a group operating in a specific geographic location); 
                        <E T="03">Swift,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-13, at *31 (risks were concentrated in a specific industry in a small geographical area). Commenters did not explain what aspect of a commercial E&amp;S carrier's loss ratio is substantially comparable to the average loss ratio for a typical micro-captive or how a more reliable metric to identify tax avoidant micro-captives can be derived from a commercial E&amp;S carrier's loss ratio. Thus, loss ratio comparisons between micro-captives and commercial E&amp;S carriers would not constitute an improvement over the current Loss Ratio Factors.
                    </P>
                    <P>With respect to comments suggesting alternatives based on comparable commercial lines, the Treasury Department and the IRS have determined sufficient relief is afforded by the reductions to the Loss Ratio Factors for both Micro-captive Listed Transactions and Micro-captive Transactions of Interest, as discussed further in parts II.C. and II.D. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions. With respect to comments suggesting comparison to certain business lines, the Treasury Department and the IRS are not persuaded that the few specific lines identified by the commenters better represent the variety of lines offered by micro-captives than the case law and national averages for property and casualty companies (excluding certain consumer and business lines), as discussed further in parts II.C. and II.D. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions. The final regulations do not adopt any changes based on these recommendations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">4. County Mutual Insurance Company Comparisons</HD>
                    <P>
                        A commenter suggested comparing micro-captives to county mutual insurance companies, which the commenter said have loss ratios of 40 percent and frequently make section 831(b) elections. Like commercial E&amp;S and special markets, county mutual insurance companies are similarly inappropriate for comparison. Although they may also cover risks concentrated in a small geographical area, county mutual insurance companies are subject to different incentives and constraints compared to micro-captive insurance companies because they are wholly owned by their many unrelated policyholders in a manner that does not 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3545"/>
                        resemble the closely held nature of micro-captive insurance companies. For example, if premiums collected by a county mutual insurance company are not used to pay claims, the unrelated policyholders would expect that the county mutual insurance company will reduce future premiums or return some portion of the excess funds to the owners as a dividend or return premiums. Micro-captive insurance companies, on the other hand, face no such expectation. The final regulations do not adopt any changes based on this recommendation. However, for the reasons described in part II.C. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, and consistent with the request by commenters regarding the loss ratios of county mutual insurance companies, the final regulations lower the Loss Ratio Factor for purposes of identification as a listed transaction under § 1.6011-10 to 30 percent.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">5. Variations for Regions or States</HD>
                    <P>Some commenters recommended establishing variations of the Loss Ratio Factors for specific regions or States. Accounting for disparities in loss experience from region to region would not be administrable, and, within a given region, different coverages would be subject to different disparities, which would further complicate the analysis. The final regulations do not adopt any changes based on this recommendation because the Treasury Department and the IRS have determined that sufficient relief is afforded by the changes to the Loss Ratio Factors described in parts II.C. and II.D. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">F. Inclusion of Policyholder Dividends in Loss Ratio Factor Computation</HD>
                    <P>
                        Commenters expressed concerns about the inclusion of policyholder dividends in the computation, indicating that issuance of policyholder dividends may require regulatory approval and is not a common practice of micro-captives, thereby situating a micro-captive to fail the test for insurance in the commonly accepted sense. The Loss Ratio Factors are modified loss ratios, determined for Federal tax purposes, and the inclusion of policyholder dividends in the computation is intended to afford taxpayers a means of correcting inappropriately accumulated premiums, thereby avoiding characterization of their micro-captive arrangements as “transactions of interest” or “listed transactions.” The Loss Ratio Factors have no other purpose or relevance and do not in any way affect or impede the functioning of a Captive. Further, removing policyholder dividends from the computation would unfairly disadvantage Captives that choose to use policyholder dividends to correct overpriced policies. The Treasury Department and the IRS are not persuaded that the issuance of policyholder dividends by itself would cause a transaction to fail the commonly accepted sense prong of the four-prong test for insurance for Federal tax purposes described in part I. of the Background of this Preamble. Courts consider many factors to determine whether an arrangement constitutes insurance in the commonly accepted sense, including whether policies are valid and binding, whether premiums were reasonable and the result of arm's length transactions, and whether claims were paid, and no one factor within the commonly accepted sense prong is dispositive. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Avrahami,</E>
                         149 T.C. at 191-97; 
                        <E T="03">Caylor,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2021-30, at *41-48; and 
                        <E T="03">Keating,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-2, at *53-64. The final regulations do not modify the Loss Ratio Factors in response to these comments.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">G. Solvency Concerns</HD>
                    <P>Some commenters protested that establishing a minimum loss threshold by application of the Loss Ratio Factors would negatively impact solvency for captives, by requiring artificially low premiums or imprudent issuance of policyholder dividends. This concern is misplaced. Captive insurers would avoid insolvency in the same way they always have; that is, by insuring risks that are selected and duly reserved for in accordance with sound business judgement and the regulatory requirements of their domicile. Nothing in these regulations requires, encourages, or allows micro-captives to make contractual promises that exceed risk-bearing capabilities. The final regulations do not modify the Loss Ratio Factors in response to these comments.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">H. Clarifications Regarding Computation of Loss Ratio Factors</HD>
                    <P>Commenters argued that it may not be possible to calculate a loss ratio applicable to a given taxable year because losses under a policy may not be resolved for years (for example, long-tail coverage), and sought some clarification in the computation of the Loss Ratio Factors. For example, commenters asked whether the “liabilities incurred for insured losses” amount used in the Loss Ratio Factors computations includes losses incurred through participation in pooling arrangements, reinsurance agreements, and retrocession agreements, how micro-captives should compute the applicable loss ratio for long-tail coverage, and whether the current taxable year is included in the number of years being counted for the Computation Periods.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Computation Periods of ten years for Micro-captive Listed Transactions and up to ten years for Micro-captive Transactions of Interest, respectively, are intended to accommodate the existence of potential long-tail coverage. These commenters appear to contemplate situations in which a Captive incurs losses but for which claims have not been reported (incurred but not reported, or IBNR) or are undergoing further development (incurred but not enough reported, or IBNER). To clarify, the Loss Ratio Factor is computed using the amount of liabilities incurred for insured losses as such term is applied under the relevant accounting method used by the participant taxpayer, as of the end of the relevant taxable year(s). 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         § 1.446-1(c)(1)(ii) (defining when a liability is considered incurred for accrual method taxpayers). The final regulations do not adopt any changes based on these comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>With respect to whether the Loss Ratio Factors include losses incurred through pooling arrangements, reinsurance agreements, and retrocession agreements, the final regulations place no limitation on the source of losses incurred by the Captive. The Computation Periods as set forth in §§ 1.6011-10(b)(2)(i) and (ii) and 1.6011-11(b)(2)(i) and (ii) include the most recent concluded taxable year in accordance with § 1.6011-4(e)(2), Rev. Proc. 2005-26, 2005-17 I.R.B. 965, and the Instructions to Form 8886.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">III. Comments and Changes Relating to the Financing Factor as Described in Proposed § 1.6011-10(c)(1)</HD>
                    <P>
                        A few commenters argued that the Financing Factor should be removed as a factor for identifying listed transactions and transactions of interest. As proposed, such commenters assert that the Financing Factor fails to consider the circumstances for the financing, suggesting that a better measure of a transaction's potential for tax avoidance is whether the financing reflects an overconcentration in illiquid assets. One commenter stated that nothing in the Code or existing precedent treats related-party financing that is arm's length as abusive. Commenters noted that State regulators generally must approve financing in related-party transactions, and if approved by the State, financing should not be of concern to the IRS.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3546"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        One of the key abuses seen in micro-captive transactions is the indefinite deferral of tax. Such abuses may be compounded by the use of tax-deferred income for the personal benefit of the related persons involved. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Avrahami,</E>
                         T.C. 149 at 169-71 (portions of premiums paid made available as loans to related real estate holding company); 
                        <E T="03">Swift,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-13, at *18-19 (portions of premiums paid made available to invest in real estate and limited liability companies for the direct or indirect benefit of petitioners); and 
                        <E T="03">Patel,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-34, at *11 (portions of premiums paid made available to invest in life insurance for the direct or indirect benefit of petitioners). In an abusive micro-captive transaction, an Insured entity deducts amounts paid directly or indirectly to the Captive that the parties treat as insurance premiums in an arrangement that does not constitute insurance for Federal tax purposes. Captives then exclude those amounts from taxable income under section 831(b). When a financing arrangement is involved, such Captives return some portion of those tax-deferred amounts directly or indirectly to the Insured or related parties via a loan, capital contributions to a special purpose vehicle, or other financing arrangement for which a current tax does not apply. Thus, in a financing arrangement involving an abusive micro-captive transaction, amounts paid as premiums have not only avoided ordinary taxation but have continued to avoid tax while back in the hands of the related parties who caused the premiums to be paid and deducted. This deliberate, continuing avoidance of income tax using benefits to which the participants are not entitled is abusive and identifying transactions with similar fact patterns as listed transactions is consistent with the IRS's pronouncements with respect to micro-captives since before the publication of Notice 2016-66. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         “Captive Insurance,” IR-2015-19 (Feb. 3, 2015), 
                        <E T="03">https://www.irs.gov/newsroom/abusive-tax-shelters-again-on-the-irs-dirty-dozen-list-of-tax-scams-for-the-2015-filing-season</E>
                         (last visited Jan. 6, 2025.)
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Several commenters noted that related-party financing such as the arrangements described by the Financing Factor can be subject to substantial scrutiny, to the extent that State insurance regulators will permit such financing only after an extensive approval process. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Avrahami,</E>
                         149 T.C. at 170 (“Insurance regulators often raise bureaucratic eyebrows at related-party dealings.”). Even so, the IRS has seen multiple transactions for which approval was required but not sought, or for which approval may have been granted but, nevertheless, the parties' treatment of the financing arrangement did not comport with industry standards. Based on its experience, the IRS maintains that, in transactions structured as described in the proposed regulations, financing arrangements that create a tax-deferred circular flow of funds are indicative of tax avoidance.
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter argued that inclusion of specific factors, such as the Loss Ratio Factor and the Financing Factor, improperly assumes insurance company status can be determined by reference to a single factor. However, the proposed regulations neither define insurance for Federal tax purposes nor identify transactions by a single factor. As discussed more fully in part I.E. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, these regulations do not presume to define insurance for Federal tax purposes; rather, the regulations identify fact patterns that are consistently associated with transactions that are or may be tax avoidance transactions. Regarding commenters' suggestions that the liquidity of a captive is a better measure than the Financing Factor, the commenters did not specify what potential measure of liquidity (such as the character of assets, amount of assets, or comparison of assets to Captive's liabilities) would better identify micro-captive transactions that are or may be tax avoidance transactions. Further, regardless of the specific measure of liquidity used, determinations thereof would be too fact-specific (and dependent upon individual policy terms and jurisdictional requirements) to be administrable. The use of amounts paid as premiums in a tax-preferred manner, and the return of such amounts directly or indirectly to the related parties who benefitted from the original tax deduction, is the tax avoidance addressed by the Financing Factor. While some participants may have obtained regulatory approval to issue the related-party financing, from a Federal tax perspective, the approval of a regulatory body does not answer the question of whether the transaction as a whole should be respected for Federal tax purposes. The final regulations therefore retain the Financing Factor.</P>
                    <P>
                        However, the Treasury Department and the IRS agree that the presence of related-party financing in a micro-captive transaction by itself may not rise to the level of tax avoidance, as it may be that such financing was determined at arm's length or otherwise treated as a bona fide financing arrangement between the related parties. 
                        <E T="03">See Avrahami,</E>
                         149 T.C. at 199-204 (finding that the economic reality of the related-party financing at issue, while a close question, could be treated as a bona fide debt obligation, notwithstanding the court's determination that the Avrahami's captive transaction was not insurance for Federal tax purposes). The concern with respect to financing arrangements is the continuing deferral of tax. Such deferral should not be considered tax avoidance unless coupled with the continued accumulation of tax-deferred amounts in a transaction involving circumstances inconsistent with insurance for Federal tax purposes, including the excessive pricing of premiums and artificially low or nonexistent claims activity. Accordingly, the final regulations have revised the factors identifying a listed transaction to reflect a conjunctive test: taxpayers who are engaged in a transaction described by the regulations that meets the Financing Factor as described in § 1.6011-10(c)(1), in conjunction with the Loss Ratio Factor as described in § 1.6011-10(c)(2), are identified as listed transactions in the final regulations. This change, to require both the Financing Factor and the Loss Ratio Factor in the identification of Micro-captive Listed Transactions, should provide substantial relief to taxpayers participating in transactions with loss ratios below 30 percent but for which the Financing Factor is not met.
                    </P>
                    <P>Because the potential for tax avoidance still exists when there is related-party financing, the final regulations include the Financing Factor in the identification of a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest. Taxpayers who are engaged in a transaction described by the regulations that meets the Financing Factor as described in § 1.6011-11(c)(1), the Loss Ratio Factor as described in § 1.6011-11(c)(2), or both, are identified as participating in a transaction of interest in the final regulations. The Financing Computation Period for Micro-captive Transactions of Interest is the same as the Financing Computation Period for Micro-captive Listed Transactions.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">IV. Comments and Changes Relating to the Consumer Coverage Exception as Described in § 1.6011-10(d)(2)</HD>
                    <P>
                        A “Consumer Coverage Arrangement” as described in the proposed regulations includes certain arrangements in which a service provider, automobile dealer, lender, or retailer (“Seller”) sells contracts that the parties treat as insurance contracts (“Contracts” as defined in proposed § 1.6011-10(b)(3)) either issued or reinsured by a Captive 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3547"/>
                        related to the Seller (“Seller's Captive”) to its Unrelated Customers (as defined in proposed § 1.6011-10(b)(11)) in connection with the products or services being sold. As noted in the preamble to the proposed regulations, as a general matter, participation in this type of reinsurance arrangement is neither a Micro-captive Listed Transaction nor a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest under the proposed regulations because the insured is not sufficiently related to the Seller's Captive. Generally, in a Consumer Coverage Arrangement, the Insureds under the Contracts that are issued or reinsured by the Seller's Captive are Unrelated Customers of Seller, and these Unrelated Customers, their owners, and persons related to the Unrelated Customers or their owners do not directly or indirectly own at least 20 percent of the voting power or value of the outstanding stock of any entity issuing or reinsuring the Contract.
                    </P>
                    <P>Nonetheless, the proposed regulations would provide relief from identification as either a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or as a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest under §§ 1.6011-10(d)(2) and 1.6011-11(d)(2) (“Consumer Coverage Exception”) for certain Consumer Coverage Arrangements that would otherwise be Micro-captive Listed Transactions or Micro-captive Transactions of Interest. The proposed exception would apply to arrangements in which the following criteria are met: (1) the arrangement involves a Seller's Captive (meaning a Captive related to Seller as defined in proposed § 1.6011-10(b)(10)); (2) Seller's Captive insures or reinsures some or all of the Contracts sold by Seller; (3) 100 percent of the business of the Seller's Captive is insuring or reinsuring Contracts in connection with products or services being sold by the Seller or persons related to Seller; and (4) commissions or remunerations paid for the sale of such Contracts, as a percentage of the premiums paid by the Seller's customers, is at least the greater of: (a) 50 percent; or (b) the unrelated commission percentage (meaning the highest commission for the sale of Contracts connected to Seller's products that are not issued or reinsured by Seller's Captive). Proposed § 1.6011-10(d)(2)(iv)(B) is referred to as the “Unrelated Commissions Test”; proposed § 1.6011-10(d)(2)(iv)(A) and (B) are collectively referred to as the “Commissions Test.”</P>
                    <P>As further discussed in this part IV. of the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, commenters expressed appreciation for the inclusion of the Consumer Coverage Exception but requested clarification of the Consumer Coverage Exception provisions and recommended changes to the exception, particularly with respect to the Commissions Test.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. The Commissions Test</HD>
                    <P>Several commenters recommended that the Commissions Test be eliminated from the Consumer Coverage Exception. One commenter recommended that if the Commissions Test is not eliminated from the Consumer Coverage Exception altogether, it should at least be eliminated for commercial insurers acting as Intermediaries (as such term is defined in proposed § 1.6011-10(b)(5)). Several commenters specifically requested the elimination of the Unrelated Commissions Test set forth at proposed § 1.6011-10(d)(2)(iv)(B), expressing concern about the ability of taxpayers to comply with the provision as written.</P>
                    <P>To explain why the Commissions Test should be eliminated, one commenter argued that commissions seemingly have no applicability to the validity of the insurance arrangement. Two commenters remarked on the lack of a basis for the 50 percent threshold in the Commissions Test, as set forth in proposed § 1.6011-10(d)(2)(iv)(A). The commenters suggested that use of this percentage to determine “abusiveness” of the transactions does not necessarily have any substantive connection to the economic realities of the transaction, which is negotiated at arm's length between customers and Sellers. Commenters noted that customers negotiate the purchase price of consumer coverage with Sellers without regard to the tax implications of Sellers' participation in the underwriting profit of the consumer coverage, and Sellers sometimes agree to lower prices and lower commissions, not for any tax-motivated reason, but because otherwise the customer will not buy the product. One of these commenters said that, as a result, the Commissions Test sets an “arbitrary” standard. The other commenter suggested that the proposed regulations would injure consumers by essentially requiring Sellers to caution their salespeople not to offer discounts, for fear of losing the Consumer Coverage Exception and triggering “transaction of interest” status. A third commenter noted that, for standard types of coverage written by commercial insurers, such as automobile service contracts, the market is strongly competitive, and the effect of the proposed regulations would be to reduce that competition by requiring consumers to pay a commission mark-up on consumer coverage of at least 100 percent of the net premium charged by the insurer.</P>
                    <P>One of the commenters remarked that the 50 percent threshold in the Commissions Test would only make sense if the IRS had reason to believe that the sale of products at a lower rate is an indication of a non-market driven effort to artificially transfer otherwise taxable revenue to the micro-captive. The commenter asserted that, in over 30 years, the commenter had never seen this issue raised in examination, read cases of this happening, or heard that the IRS has actual evidence that it in fact occurs. The commenter further asserted that Consumer Coverage Arrangements “have already been examined, and deemed not to justify listed transaction treatment,” as evidenced by the listing of certain consumer coverage transactions in Notice 2002-70, 2002-2 C.B. 765, and subsequent “de-listing” of those transactions in Notice 2004-65, 2004-2 C.B. 599. The commenter distinguished Consumer Coverage Arrangements from the micro-captive transactions determined by the Tax Court in recent cases not to be insurance for Federal tax purposes. To the extent the IRS has had successful Tax Court outcomes in the micro-captive area, the commenter asserted, those cases all concerned enterprise risk; none were concerned with unrelated third-party consumer risk arrangements.</P>
                    <P>
                        Another commenter called the Commissions Test “vague, unworkable, anti-consumer and anti-competitive,” asserting that the IRS should not be requiring, or even encouraging, payment of high commission rates as a condition of the exception. The commenter observed that the Commissions Test seems to be based upon section 482 of the Code transfer-pricing concerns rather than failure of risk transfer and risk distribution and lack of arm's-length dealing and sound business practices, the issues identified by the preamble to the proposed regulations as the focus of the proposed regulations. The commenter asserted that the real concern of the regulations should be to ensure that the net premiums paid to the Captive are not excessive. The commenter observed that commercial insurers writing consumer coverage for sale through dealers typically specify a schedule listing various products and the applicable net premium for each (that is, after the dealer's withheld commission) payable to the insurer for each, and that these net premiums are set by the commercial insurer based upon actuarial analysis of the risks to be covered. The commenter further 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3548"/>
                        observed that the gross amount paid by the customer (including the amount above the specified net premium that the dealer retains as a commission) is subject to negotiation by each customer, and the commercial insurer may not be informed of the commission or who earns it.
                    </P>
                    <P>To address this commercial insurer scenario, the commenter proposed a safe harbor from material advisor and participant status for commercial insurers acting as Intermediaries (as defined in proposed § 1.6011-10(b)(5)) in transactions that do not involve the payment of excessive premiums to the captive. However, because the proposed safe harbor would be for any commercial insurer acting as an Intermediary in a micro-captive transaction, unless the commercial insurer (or related company) retrocedes risks with respect to consumer products and pays a reinsurance premium in excess of an arm's length amount, the effect of this safe harbor would not be limited to Consumer Coverage Arrangements. Because the proposed safe harbor has implications beyond Consumer Coverage Arrangements, it is discussed in part V.B. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions.</P>
                    <P>Commenters also remarked that elimination of the Commissions Test would make application of the Consumer Coverage Exception more streamlined and efficient and less burdensome. One of the commenters expressed concern that not all Sellers capture information about sales and commissions in a way that will facilitate calculation of “the fee, commission, or other remuneration earned by any person or persons, in the aggregate, for the sale of the Contracts, described as a percentage of the premiums paid by the Seller's customers.” The commenter asserted that this additional cost and effort is not justified “to guard against a theoretical abuse in an industry where the Service has already found that insufficient evidence of abuse exists to justify listed transaction treatment.”</P>
                    <P>After careful consideration of the comments received generally requesting the elimination of the Commissions Test and specifically requesting the elimination of the Unrelated Commissions Test, the Treasury Department and the IRS are persuaded that elimination of the Commissions Test in the Consumer Coverage Exception is appropriate. The tax avoidance or potential for tax avoidance that the Commissions Test intended to identify is distinguishable from the closely held arrangements associated with the fact patterns identified in §§ 1.6011-10(a) and 1.6011-11(a); for example, the ultimate policyholders are commonly Unrelated Customers in Consumer Coverage Arrangements. Accordingly, the Commissions Test is eliminated from the Consumer Coverage Exception in the final regulations.</P>
                    <P>One commenter also sought clarification of certain aspects of the Commissions Test. However, because the Commissions Test is eliminated from the Consumer Coverage Exception in the final regulations, no further explanation is necessary.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Restricting Consumer Coverage Arrangements Identified as Reportable Transactions Through Clarification of Defined Terms</HD>
                    <P>The definition of “Insured” set forth in proposed § 1.6011-10(b)(4) and incorporated in proposed § 1.6011-11(b)(4) is “any person that conducts a trade or business, enters into a Contract with a Captive or enters into a Contract with an Intermediary that is directly or indirectly reinsured by a Captive, and treats amounts paid under the Contract as insurance premiums for Federal income tax purposes.” One commenter on the Consumer Coverage Exception recommended that the final regulations clarify that this definition is not intended to include someone who is only covered by the policy for a momentary period of time during which the underlying sales transaction is being finalized. The commenter noted that the preamble appears to indicate that guaranteed asset protection (GAP) products are an example of a “dealer obligor” arrangement in which a Seller could be considered the Insured for a short transitory time period occurring between the time the covered product is delivered to the Unrelated Customer of Seller and the financing to purchase the product is finalized for the Unrelated Customer. The commenter asserted that such situations should not trigger a reporting obligation since this is a temporary condition arising solely from an administrative need to allow third parties to process paperwork.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter asked that the final regulations clarify that a Seller that only directly or indirectly reinsures Contracts that ultimately benefit Unrelated Customers, such as GAP contracts, is not an Insured, even if the Seller is technically a transitory or residual obligor under the contract. The commenter suggested that if this recommendation is not adopted, the definition of “Captive” set forth in proposed § 1.6011-10(b)(1) and incorporated in proposed § 1.6011-11(b)(1), should be modified to exclude any entity that only issues Contracts to Insureds, where the ultimate beneficiaries of such contracts are Unrelated Customers, to the extent that the total percentage of issued and reinsured GAP and similar Contracts provided to Insureds of such entity do not exceed 25 percent of the total issued and reinsured Contracts for such entity. The commenter noted that this definition would remove burdensome compliance data collection from what is essentially a minority of the entity's contracts and would permit the IRS to focus on situations where there is greater potential for tax avoidance.</P>
                    <P>The final regulations make no change to the definitions of Insured and Captive in response to these comments. A Seller is an Insured only if it “enters into a Contract with a Captive or enters into a Contract with an Intermediary that is directly or indirectly reinsured by a Captive.” A Seller is not an Insured if it facilitates an Unrelated Customer entering into a Contract with Seller's Captive or an Intermediary but is not itself a party to the Contract. A Seller is an Insured only if it treats amounts paid under the Contract as insurance premiums for Federal tax purposes. To the extent a Seller receives and makes payments under a Contract as an agent of a party or parties to the Contract, the Seller would not treat amounts paid under a Contract as insurance premiums for Federal tax purposes. As a general matter, therefore, a Seller that only facilitates the direct or indirect insurance or reinsurance of Contracts that ultimately benefit Unrelated Customers, such as GAP contracts, and does not reflect the tax benefits of participating in a purported insurance transaction in its filed returns, will not be an Insured that is a participant under these regulations. A Seller that satisfies all the requirements of the definition of Insured is appropriately considered an Insured. However, in recognition of concerns expressed by commenters that such situations could potentially arise, the final regulations retain the Consumer Coverage Exception, which may prevent a Consumer Coverage Arrangement in which a Seller (or related person) is an Insured from being identified as a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or Micro-Captive Transaction of Interest.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Revising Definition of Seller To Permit De Minimis Sales to Related Persons</HD>
                    <P>
                        The definition of “Seller” set forth in proposed § 1.6011-10(b)(9) and incorporated in proposed § 1.6011-11(b)(8) is “a service provider, automobile dealer, lender, or retailer that sells products or services to 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3549"/>
                        Unrelated Customers who purchase insurance contracts in connection with those products or services.” A commenter recommended modification of this definition to prevent an occasional sale of an automobile and insurance contract to a related party from disqualifying a Seller's Captive from the Consumer Coverage Exception. The commenter also stated it is important to clarify that it is not a requirement for all purchasers of insurance contracts to be Unrelated Customers for the dealer to be a Seller. The commenter asserted that there is a low risk of tax avoidance if a majority of the Contracts being insured or reinsured by a Seller's Captive are either directly sold to an Unrelated Customer or are for the ultimate benefit of an Unrelated Customer. The commenter suggested a de minimis exception for related party sales by establishing a five percent threshold for such transactions.
                    </P>
                    <P>In response to these comments, § 1.6011-10(b)(9) of the final regulations clarify that a Seller is a service provider, dealer (including an automobile dealer), lender, wholesaler, or retailer that sells products or services to customers who purchase insurance contracts in connection with those products or services provided no more than five percent of all its sales of products or services to persons who purchase insurance contracts in connection with those products or services are to customers other than Unrelated Customers. Additionally, the Consumer Coverage Exception in §§ 1.6011-10(d)(2) and 1.6011-11(d)(2) of the final regulations is modified to require that no more than five percent of the Seller's Captive's business is issuing or reinsuring Contracts purchased by persons other than Unrelated Customers in connection with products or services sold by the Seller or persons Related (as defined in § 1.6011-10(b)(8) of the final regulations) to the Seller.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">D. Other Requests for Clarification</HD>
                    <P>A commenter asked for clarification of whether the Consumer Coverage Exception applies when the Seller's Captive neither assumes reinsurance from an unrelated fronting company, nor cedes reinsurance to an unrelated insurer. The Consumer Coverage Exception set forth in proposed § 1.6011-10(d)(2) and incorporated in proposed § 1.6011-11(d)(2) requires that “Seller's Captive issue or reinsure some or all of the Contracts sold to Unrelated Customers in connection with the products or services being sold by the Seller,” that “100 percent of the business of the Seller's Captive is insuring or reinsuring Contracts in connection with products or services being sold by the Seller or persons Related to the Seller,” and that the Commissions Test set forth in proposed § 1.6011-10(d)(2)(iv) is met with respect to “the Contracts issued or reinsured by the Seller's Captive.” The involvement of an unrelated fronting company or other unrelated insurer is not required.</P>
                    <P>The commenter also asked if the Consumer Coverage Exception is intended to apply if Seller's Captive directly insures an entity related to or affiliated with Seller for certain contracts described in the proposed regulations but without fronting or reinsurance attached. The Consumer Coverage Exception set forth in the proposed regulations would not apply in these circumstances because the Seller's Captive is insuring an entity related to or affiliated with Seller (rather than Unrelated Customers of Seller). This would be the case whether or not a fronting company or reinsurer were involved. However, as discussed in part IV.C. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, under §§ 1.6011-10(d)(2)(iv) and 1.6011-11(d)(2) of the final regulations, the Consumer Coverage Exception may apply when a Seller's Captive issues or reinsures Contracts purchased by persons other than Unrelated Customers in connection with products or services sold by the Seller or persons related to Seller, provided that no more than five percent of the Seller's Captive's business is issuing or reinsuring such Contracts. Accordingly, the Consumer Coverage Exception set forth in the final regulations would potentially apply in the circumstances described by the commenter.</P>
                    <P>A commenter suggested that “coverage for incurring diminished value” should be considered a type of consumer coverage. The preamble to the proposed regulations explains that a “Consumer Coverage contract generally provides coverage for repair or replacement costs if the product breaks down or is lost, stolen, or damaged; coverage for the customer's payment obligations if the customer dies or becomes disabled or unemployed; coverage for the difference between all or a portion of the value of the product and the amount owed on the product's financing, including a lease, if the product suffers a covered peril; or a combination of one or more of the foregoing types of coverage.” However, this is a non-exclusive list. The Consumer Coverage Exception may apply when a Seller's Captive issues or reinsures Contracts in connection with the products or services being sold by the Seller. Such Contracts could include those providing coverage for incurring diminished value.</P>
                    <P>Another commenter noted that warranty products are also widely sold and reinsured outside the automotive space and often in the business-to-business environment, suggesting that this should be taken into account when drafting terminology in the final regulations related to consumer products and seller captive concepts. The description of the Consumer Coverage Exception and related definitions use generic terms intended to encompass a broad range of products and services, not limited to automotive products and services. Nonetheless, in response to this commenter's apparent concern that the Consumer Coverage Exception as proposed may exclude arrangements “in the business to business environment,” the final regulations clarify that the term Seller includes a wholesaler that sells products or services to customers who purchase insurance contracts in connection with those products or services.</P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, one commenter asked that the final regulations apply prospectively to Seller's Captives, meaning reporting would be required with respect to Seller's Captives only for taxable years subsequent to the effective date of the final regulations, because otherwise a number of legitimate captives would be subjected to very burdensome information gathering, testing, and reporting for a very small amount of premium income per captive. The commenter suggested that changes such as a 50 percent commission threshold should be applied on a prospective basis only to provide notice to taxpayers. As discussed in the preamble to the proposed regulations, as a general matter, participation in Consumer Coverage Arrangements is neither a Micro-captive Listed Transaction nor a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest because the insured is not sufficiently related to the insurer or any reinsurer. The proposed regulations were not intended to change this, but nonetheless provide a potential exception for taxpayers considered to be participating in a reportable Consumer Coverage Arrangement. The clarifications and changes to the proposed regulations described in this part of the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions are only intended to provide further reassurance that Consumer Coverage Arrangements generally do not give rise to a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest. Further, if the Consumer Coverage Exception for Seller's Captives applied only to taxable 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3550"/>
                        years after the regulations are effective as suggested by the commenter, then the exception would not apply to otherwise open taxable years for which reporting would be required. This would disadvantage taxpayers who otherwise may have qualified for the Consumer Coverage Exception in open taxable years. Consequently, the final regulations do not adopt any changes in response to this comment.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">V. Comments and Changes Relating to Identification as Reportable Transactions and Reporting Requirements</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Comments Relating to Safe Harbors From Identification as Reportable Transactions</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">1. Proposed Safe Harbors for Amended Returns</HD>
                    <P>A commenter requested a change to the proposed regulations that would allow taxpayers who file amended returns that remove tax benefits previously recognized from participation in the micro-captive transaction to not be designated as participating in a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest. Taxpayers who file amended returns after the due date, including extensions, are considered participants in the transaction if their transaction otherwise meets the description of a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest because their original return reflects the tax benefits of participation. In order for the IRS to obtain a complete picture of participation in these transactions, such taxpayers must file disclosures. However, a taxpayer whose timely-filed amended return is treated as the original return for the taxable year (that is, a superseding return) is not considered to have filed a return reflecting the tax benefits of participation in the transaction and would not be required to file disclosures under the final regulations. Further, whether amended returns determine participation is outside the scope of these regulations and the final regulations do not adopt any changes based on this request.</P>
                    <P>Several commenters expressed concern that the proposed regulations would require taxpayers to amend returns for approximately three to four taxable years prior to the promulgation of these regulations as final regulations. The regulations do not require taxpayers to file an amended return or an Administrative Adjustment Request (AAR) for certain partnerships. The proposed regulations would require taxpayers whose transactions are described in either § 1.6011-10(c) or § 1.6011-11(c) to file a disclosure statement in the form and manner prescribed by § 1.6011-4. The preamble to the proposed regulations acknowledged that because the IRS will take or may take a position that taxpayers are not entitled to the purported tax benefits, taxpayers who have filed tax returns taking such positions should consider filing an amended return or AAR. The preamble to the proposed regulations provided a method for filing such amended returns or AARs, if so desired. The final regulations do not adopt any changes pursuant to these comments.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">2. Proposed Safe Harbors for Captives With Certain Features</HD>
                    <P>Commenters requested that the IRS clarify whether taxpayers who issue premium refunds or policyholder dividends to meet the Loss Ratio Factor will be designated as participating in a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest. As described more fully in part II. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, the Loss Ratio Factors compare the amount of liabilities incurred for insured losses and claim administration expenses to the premiums earned less policyholder dividends paid by the Captive, over the course of the defined Computation Periods. Thus, if a taxpayer issues premium refunds or policyholder dividends, either of which would reduce the amount to which liabilities for insured losses and claim administration expenses over the relevant Computation Period are compared, the relevant loss ratio for purposes of identification as a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or Micro-captive Transaction of Interest will be higher. Further, as described more fully in parts II.B. and III. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions and as clarified in the bright-line rules of § 1.6011-10(e) of the final regulations, only taxpayers participating in a transaction that (1) involves a Captive that elects under section 831(b) to include in taxable income only taxable investment income (defined in section 834) in lieu of the tax imposed under section 831(a) (that is, to exclude premiums from taxable income) and (2) meets both the Financing Factor and the Loss Ratio Factor, will be designated as participating in a Micro-captive Listed Transaction under the final regulations. That is, if Captive's loss ratio is 30 percent or more for the Listed Transaction Loss Ratio Computation Period, or if the Captive does not meet the Financing Factor, the transaction is not identified as a Micro-captive Listed Transaction. With respect to Micro-captive Transactions of Interest, if the taxpayer does not meet the Financing Factor, and has effectively lowered the percentage of premiums earned as compared to liabilities incurred for claims and administration by issuing policyholder dividends, the transaction is not identified as a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest under the final regulations. That is, if Captive's loss ratio is 60 percent or more for the Transaction of Interest Loss Ratio Computation Period as set forth in § 1.6011-11(b)(2) and Captive has not made Captive's capital available in a way that furthers the deferral of tax, the taxpayer is already not a participant in a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest. This is clarified in the final regulations setting forth the bright-line rules at § 1.6011-11(e).</P>
                    <P>One commenter recommended that a transaction should not be designated as a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or Micro-captive Transaction of Interest if the Captive has paid claims in any amount, there is an annual rate and reserve study conducted by a qualified actuary, and there is commercial coverage available for the risks covered by the Captive. The commenter indicated that all of these factors together should be sufficient to demonstrate that a micro-captive transaction was not entered into for tax avoidance purposes. Several other commenters asserted that taxpayers who can demonstrate that the premiums charged in their transaction were actuarially determined by a credentialed actuary should not be designated as participating in a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest. Additional commenters suggested that the existence of a feasibility study prepared by a credentialed actuary, or a third-party transfer pricing memorandum certifying the transaction, would provide better metrics for identification as a listed transaction or transaction of interest, and transactions for which such feasibility studies or third-party transfer pricing memoranda have been prepared should not be designated as participating in a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest.</P>
                    <P>
                        With respect to proposed safe harbors involving claims, the Treasury Department and the IRS are aware of promoters encouraging the filing of claims under contracts that the parties treat as insurance contracts to establish the appearance of a legitimate insurance arrangement, regardless of business need. Because these transactions 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3551"/>
                        involve closely held related entities, there is little to no barrier to the manufacture of claims in these arrangements. Further, in many of the micro-captive cases tried to date, the handling of claims was atypical of valid insurance arrangements, with claims paid despite lacking in substantiation and under the direction of the Insured or its Owners without regard to the validity of the claim. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Caylor,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2021-30, at *42-43; 
                        <E T="03">Keating,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-2, at *63-64. The existence of paid claims in any amount is therefore not a viable metric for distinguishing between transactions that are or may be tax avoidance transactions and those that are not.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        With respect to the involvement of an actuary or other professional in the transaction, as observed in 
                        <E T="03">Avrahami</E>
                         and discussed more fully at part II.E.1. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, such involvement does not establish that the arrangement is not, and does not have the potential to be, a tax avoidance transaction, and further is not dispositive of a valid transaction for Federal tax purposes.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Similarly, with respect to Captives covering risks for which commercial coverage is available, the presence of such risks is not dispositive of the validity of a transaction. Many abusive micro-captive transactions involve purported risks that would be a typical insurance risk for another company but would be inappropriate for the Insured to purchase given the nature of the Insured's business, such as construction coverage for an entity that “wasn't constructing anything.” 
                        <E T="03">Avrahami,</E>
                         149 T.C. at *196.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In all micro-captive cases tried to date, courts have found the arrangement at issue not to be insurance for Federal tax purposes even though the factors identified by the commenters as appropriate for safe harbors were present—claims were paid; an actuary or other professional prepared pricing reports, feasibility studies, or the like in the transaction; and the captive covered some typical insurance-type risks. 
                        <E T="03">See Avrahami,</E>
                         149 T.C. at *149-52, 167, 186-87, 195-97; 
                        <E T="03">Syzygy,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2019-34, at *15-17, 35, 44; 
                        <E T="03">Caylor,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2021-30, at *14, 19-23, 25-26, 48-49; 
                        <E T="03">Keating,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-2, at *14, 20-25, 30, 33, 35, 63-64; 
                        <E T="03">Swift,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-13, at *12, 15-17, 44; 
                        <E T="03">Patel,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-34, at *9, 14-22, 29-30, 50-51; 
                        <E T="03">Royalty Mgmt.,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-87, at *16-17, 21, 47; 
                        <E T="03">see also Reserve Mech.,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2018-86, at *9, 11-20, 47-48, 61. Accordingly, the final regulations provide no exclusion from identification as a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest in response to these comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter argued that if the following facts are present, the transaction should be excepted from identification as either a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest: (a) 90 percent of the coverage written is coverage that is commercially available, (b) Insureds purchase or have purchased such coverage from commercial carriers in a similar amount to what is now purchased from the Captive, (c) the commercial carrier has credible loss experience for the types of coverage in the Insured's location, and (d) commercial rates are used to extrapolate the Captive's premiums, taking into account the Captive's expenses and layers written.</P>
                    <P>
                        As discussed in this part V.A.2. of the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, the coverage of risks for which commercial coverage is available does not guarantee the validity of the transaction. The Tax Court has held multiple arrangements did not qualify as insurance arrangements for Federal tax purposes despite purporting to cover such risks. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Avrahami,</E>
                         149 T.C. at 150, 153-56, 159, 197 (administrative actions and employee fidelity); 
                        <E T="03">Keating,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-2, at *20-27, 64 (workers' compensation); 
                        <E T="03">Swift,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-13, at *7-8, 12, 14-15, 44 (medical malpractice and terrorism); 
                        <E T="03">Patel,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-34, at *15-20, 51 (business interruption and regulatory). Further, Insureds' purchase of such coverage from commercial carriers in a similar amount to what is now purchased from the Captive does not guarantee the validity of the transaction. The availability of commercial coverage may indicate a lack of a business need for captive coverage. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Keating,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-2, at *59-60 (petitioners provided no credible evidence of a business need for captive coverage in light of comprehensive commercial coverage). Additionally, the commenter did not clarify whether the purchase of coverage from commercial carriers in a similar amount to what is now purchased from the Captive would include duplicative coverage, coverage of different layers of risk, or both. The commenter did not specify what commercial markets or rates are relevant nor what constitutes a “similar amount” or a “credible loss experience” sufficient to exempt the participant's identification under these regulations. Nor did the commenter explain how the experience of a commercial insurer would be known to the participants in the micro-captive transaction. The suggested factors are too subjective and complex to be administrable, and sufficient relief is afforded by the changes to the Loss Ratio Factors described in parts II.B. and II.C. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions.
                    </P>
                    <P>One commenter recommended that transactions with Captives that have been rated highly by an independent third-party credit or rating agency specializing in insurance should not be designated as a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or Micro-captive Transaction of Interest. In general, such agencies rate the financial strength of Captives, that is, the ability to pay claims should they arise. Thus, their ratings are not informative regarding the nature of an entity or a transaction for Federal tax purposes. This recommendation is not adopted in the final regulations.</P>
                    <P>A commenter suggested that transactions with Captives that are licensed or domiciled in a jurisdiction that regulates many Captives should not be designated as a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or Micro-captive Transaction of Interest. The commenter also suggested that taxpayers whose Captive uses template insurance policies accepted by the State regulator, or whose Captive offers coverage that has been accepted as adequate proof of insurance by other State or Federal agencies, should not be designated as a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or Micro-captive Transaction of Interest. Another commenter recommended a broader exception for all State-licensed domestic captives.</P>
                    <P>
                        However, whether a captive is regulated in a given domicile does not determine whether a transaction is abusive or has the potential for abuse for Federal tax purposes. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g., Avrahami,</E>
                         149 T.C. at 192 (captive regulated in St. Kitts); 
                        <E T="03">Syzygy,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2019-34, at *38 (captive regulated in Delaware); 
                        <E T="03">Caylor,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2021-30, at *41 (captive regulated in Anguilla); 
                        <E T="03">Keating,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-2, at *53 (captive regulated in Anguilla); 
                        <E T="03">Swift,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-13, at *37 (captive regulated in St. Kitts); 
                        <E T="03">Patel,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-34, at *46 (captives regulated in St. Kitts and Tennessee, respectively); 
                        <E T="03">cf. Royalty Mgmt.,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-87, at *43-44 (no regulatory oversight in Tribal domicile). As each micro-captive case describes, whether a company is organized and regulated as an insurance company is not the end of the inquiry, as courts “must look beyond the formalities and consider the realities of the purported insurance transaction.” 
                        <E T="03">Hospital Corp. of Am.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                          
                        <PRTPAGE P="3552"/>
                        T.C. Memo. 1997-482, 1997 WL 663283, at *24 (
                        <E T="03">citing Malone &amp; Hyde, Inc.</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Commissioner,</E>
                         62 F.3d 835, 842-43 (6th Cir. 1995)). In the micro-captive transactions identified as transactions that are or may be tax avoidance transactions, the realities of the purported insurance transaction, including the closely held nature of the arrangement, the section 831(b) election, and the use of premiums primarily for investment or related-party financing (rather than to pay losses) indicate tax avoidance or the potential for tax avoidance. Further, a safe harbor identifying a specific domicile or specific domiciles would require the IRS to evaluate the manner in which the respective domicile regulates insurance, which would be administratively burdensome and inject uncertainty. Accordingly, the final regulations do not adopt these suggestions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter indicated that taxpayers whose Captive covers risks with a specified number of Insureds or risk units, or pools risk with a specified distribution of the risk of loss, should not be designated as participating in a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or Micro-captive Transaction of Interest. However, these aforementioned factors only relate to the degree to which a transaction distributes risk. Risk distribution is just one of the four prongs used by the courts in determining whether an arrangement qualifies as insurance for Federal tax purposes and does not alone establish that a transaction has no potential for tax avoidance. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         part I. of the Background section of this Preamble for further explanation of the four-prong test. The final regulations do not adopt these suggestions.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">3. Captives Providing Certain Types of Coverage or Serving Certain Industries</HD>
                    <P>Other commenters suggested that taxpayers who can demonstrate that the Captive directly or indirectly reinsures contracts issued by a commercial carrier should not be designated as participants in a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or Micro-captive Transaction of Interest. The final regulations do not adopt this suggestion. First, as discussed in part V.A.2. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, the involvement of commercially covered risks in the transaction does not guarantee the validity of the transaction. The commenter did not specify what commercial carriers are relevant nor what portion of reinsurance would be sufficiently significant to exempt the participants from identification under these regulations. Second, if the entirety of a captive's business is the reinsurance of a commercially rated program, it is less likely that the transaction would be described by these regulations, as the individuals or entities insured would not be sufficiently related to the captive to meet the 20 Percent Relationship Test. Accordingly, a safe harbor based on a Captive's direct or indirect reinsurance of contracts issued by a commercial carrier is not appropriate.</P>
                    <P>
                        A commenter recommended that taxpayers who operate as risk retention groups pursuant to the Federal Liability Risk Retention Act (FLRRA), 15 U.S.C. 3901, 
                        <E T="03">et. seq.,</E>
                         should not be designated as participating in a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or Micro-captive Transaction of Interest because the FLRRA establishes that a risk retention group licensed in one State can transact business as an insurance company in every State, and the IRS does not have the authority to repeal the FLRRA. A risk retention group is “a group-owned insurer organized for the purpose of assuming and spreading the liability risks to its members.” 
                        <E T="03">NAIC Glossary of Insurance Terms, https://content.naic.org/glossary-insurance-terms</E>
                         (last visited Jan. 6, 2025). Risk retention groups formed pursuant to the FLRRA are unlikely to be described by the proposed regulations as they would have too many member-owners to satisfy the 20 Percent Relationship Test. Further, the proposed regulations do not repeal the FLRRA. By identifying certain micro-captive transactions as reportable transactions, the proposed regulations impose disclosure requirements and provide notice that the tax treatment of the transactions will or may be challenged by the IRS. They do not in any way prevent any taxpayer from transacting business as an insurance company. The final regulations do not adopt this recommendation.
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters expressed concern that community banks in particular will be negatively impacted by the proposed regulations to the detriment of their communities. Commenters recommended that community banks as a whole be exempted from identification as a Micro-captive Listed Transaction. Regardless of the industry, taxpayers engaged in transactions identified as listed transactions or transactions of interest in the final regulations must disclose such participation. There is no one industry whose constituents should be categorically exempted from identification as a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or as a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest. Adverse impacts to individual taxpayers or specific industries consequent to implementation of these regulations are limited to disclosure and recordkeeping requirements and are outweighed by the public interest in sound tax administration. Accordingly, the final regulations do not adopt any changes in response to this concern.</P>
                    <P>A commenter argued for an exception for any micro-captive that “writes `deductible reimbursement' policies for the deductible or self-insured retention (`SIR') layer(s) underlying policies issued by Licensed Insurers and uses comparable rates taking into account the layer written and [the] micro-captive's expenses.” The commenter did not provide any additional explanation, including why such an exception was appropriate. To the extent a transaction involving a Captive writing such policies otherwise falls within the description of Micro-Captive Listed Transaction or Micro-Captive Transaction of Interest, the transaction remains one that is or may be a tax avoidance transaction. The final regulations do not adopt any changes based on this comment.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Comments Relating to Reporting Required Under Proposed §§ 1.6011-10(g) and 1.6011-11(g), Pursuant to § 1.6011-4(d) and (e)</HD>
                    <P>With respect to Micro-captive Listed Transactions, proposed § 1.6011-10(g) would provide that participants must disclose their participation in the transaction pursuant to § 1.6011-4(d) and (e). Similarly, with respect to Micro-captive Transactions of Interest, proposed § 1.6011-11(g) would provide that participants must disclose their participation in the transaction pursuant to § 1.6011-4(d) and (e).</P>
                    <P>
                        Section 1.6011-4(d) and (e) provides that the disclosure statement—Form 8886 (or successor form)—must be attached to the taxpayer's tax return for each taxable year for which a taxpayer participates in a reportable transaction. A copy of the disclosure statement must be sent to the OTSA at the same time that any disclosure statement is first filed by the taxpayer pertaining to a particular reportable transaction. Section 1.6011-4(e)(2)(i) provides that if a transaction becomes a listed transaction or a transaction of interest after the filing of a taxpayer's tax return reflecting the taxpayer's participation in the transaction and before the end of the period of limitations for assessment for any taxable year in which the taxpayer participated in the transaction, then a disclosure statement must be filed with the OTSA within 90 calendar days after the date on which the transaction becomes a listed transaction or transaction of interest. This requirement extends to an amended return and exists 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3553"/>
                        regardless of whether the taxpayer participated in the transaction in the year the transaction became a listed transaction or transaction of interest.
                    </P>
                    <P>Proposed §§ 1.6011-10(g)(2) and 1.6011-11(g)(2) would provide relief from disclosure for participants in Micro-captive Listed Transactions and Micro-captive Transactions of Interest, respectively, who have finalized settlement agreements with the IRS with respect to the transaction. Such taxpayers do not need to disclose their participation in the transaction for years covered by the settlement agreement. Proposed § 1.6011-11(g)(2) provides similar relief for participants in a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest who disclosed their participation in the transaction under Notice 2016-66 and file no more returns reflecting participation in the transaction after the final regulations are finalized.</P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter expressed concern that settlements in litigation are not covered by the disclosure relief for taxpayers who have finalized settlement agreements that would be provided in proposed §§ 1.6011-10(g)(2) and 1.6011-11(g)(2). This provision in the proposed regulations is intended to cover settlement agreements with respect to the transaction reached in litigation or during the course of examination. The final regulations clarify this provision by explicitly referencing litigation. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         §§ 1.6011-10(h)(2) and 1.6011-11(h)(2) of the final regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter argued that excusing taxpayers from filing disclosure statements if they have finalized a settlement agreement with the IRS is an illusory reporting exemption because the IRS effectively requires Captives to wind up and liquidate as part of certain private settlement agreements. However, if this provision was removed from the regulations, taxpayers who had conclusively settled taxable years under audit that would otherwise be subject to the reporting requirements in the regulations would be forced to disclose for those years. It may not be clear that such disclosure would be unnecessary and, accordingly, the final regulations retain the exception.</P>
                    <P>One commenter stated that reporting more than once is unjust to taxpayers and suggested that Form 8886 should only have to be filed with the IRS once with respect to each Micro-captive Listed Transaction or Micro-captive Transaction of Interest. Consistent with § 1.6011-4, participation in a listed transaction that involves a purported insurance arrangement means that the taxpayer is claiming tax benefits each year to which the taxpayer is not entitled. Similarly, participation in a transaction of interest that involves a purported insurance arrangement means that the taxpayer may be claiming tax benefits each year to which the taxpayer may not be entitled (that is, the IRS needs more information to determine whether the transaction is a tax avoidance transaction). As discussed in part I.C. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, the reporting rules for listed transactions and transactions of interest under § 1.6011-4 are outside the scope of these final regulations. The final regulations do not adopt any changes based on this comment; taxpayers must disclose their participation for each year in which such tax benefits are claimed unless otherwise relieved of the obligation in the regulations.</P>
                    <P>A commenter requested an expansion of the proposed safe harbors set forth at §§ 1.6011-10(e)(2) and 1.6011-11(e)(2) (“Disclosure Safe Harbor for Owners”), which provide that an Owner of an Insured is not required under § 1.6011-4 to file a disclosure statement with respect to a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or Micro-captive Transaction of Interest provided that person receives written or electronic acknowledgment that Insured has or will comply with its separate disclosure obligation under § 1.6011-4(a) with respect to the transaction. The preamble to the proposed regulations explained that the receipt of an acknowledgment that Insured has or will comply with its disclosure obligation does not relieve the Owners of Insured of their disclosure obligations if Insured fails to disclose the transaction in a timely manner. The commenter requested that an Owner that relies on an acknowledgement pursuant to this safe harbor should be allowed to rely solely on the acknowledgement and should not also need to confirm that the Insured actually timely disclosed the transaction. However, such a position could result in non-filing by both an Owner and the Insured. To ensure that Insureds file, or Owners file if the Insured fails to do so, the final regulations do not adopt this recommendation.</P>
                    <P>
                        Commenters also requested that the final regulations expand the Disclosure Safe Harbor for Owners to all Insured entities for transactions in which the Captive entity reported, or to all Captive entities for transactions in which the Insured reported. The final regulations do not adopt this request because unlike Owners, who must only disclose the information required by § 1.6011-10(g)(1), Captives and Insureds must also provide the information required by § 1.6011-10(g)(2) and (3), respectively. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         §§ 1.6011-10(g) and 1.6011-11(g) of the final regulations.
                    </P>
                    <P>Commenters suggested that transactions for which disclosure statements were filed under Notice 2016-66 should not be required to report under the proposed regulations. Proposed §§ 1.6011-10(g)(2) and 1.6011-11(g)(2) already limit the disclosure requirements to taxpayers who have filed a tax return (including an amended return) reflecting their participation in a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or Micro-Captive Transaction of Interest prior to January 14, 2025, and who have not finalized a settlement agreement with the IRS with respect to the transaction. Additionally, proposed § 1.6011-11(g)(2) already provides that taxpayers who have filed a disclosure statement regarding their participation in a transaction identified by the proposed regulations as a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest with the OTSA pursuant to Notice 2016-66, will be treated as having made the disclosure pursuant to the final regulations for the taxable years for which the taxpayer filed returns before the January 14, 2025. Similar relief should not be extended with respect to any transaction identified by the proposed regulations as a Micro-captive Listed Transaction because disclosure statements filed under Notice 2016-66 do not identify participation in a listed transaction. The final regulations do not adopt any changes based on this comment.</P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter stated that the requirement that taxpayers participating in transactions that become listed transactions under the proposed regulations must file again under the final regulations, even if they already filed Forms 8886 pursuant to Notice 2016-66, is duplicative and a waste of taxpayers' time because the IRS already has most of the necessary information about these transactions, and there is little marginal value to the IRS in obtaining another round of filings. The commenter suggested that there is no justification for this other than a transparent effort by the Treasury Department and the IRS to extend the applicable statute of limitations period under section 6501(c)(10) unilaterally for years where the limitations period has expired or is about to (such as 2021, for instance) and that requiring material advisors to file Forms 8918 with the OTSA, again irrespective of whether they previously filed under Notice 2016-66, is similarly unnecessary. The commenter asserts that both these duplicate filing requirements run contrary to the Paperwork Reduction 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3554"/>
                        Act (44 U.S.C. 3507(c)) and are themselves abusive.
                    </P>
                    <P>This additional disclosure for listed transactions is needed because Notice 2016-66 only identified transactions of interest, so disclosure pursuant to Notice 2016-66 does not disclose that a transaction meets the threshold for listed transactions under the proposed regulations. Further, for Micro-captive Transactions of Interest, there are differences between the proposed regulations and Notice 2016-66 in both the scope of transactions identified and the information required to be disclosed. The final regulations also significantly narrow the scope of transactions identified as Micro-captive Listed Transactions compared to the proposed regulations, as further discussed in part II. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions. Accordingly, disclosure under the final regulations will provide the IRS with new information, including identifying transactions that are now listed, and will not create unnecessary duplicative reporting requirements. The final regulations do not adopt any changes based on this comment.</P>
                    <P>Commenters asserted that the requirement in § 1.6011-4(e)(2)(i) (to report to the OTSA) is unfair because it will require some taxpayers who were already subject to audits that closed without adjustment (to Captive) to report under this provision. Similarly, other commenters suggested that taxpayers who are under examination should not have to disclose because the IRS will have access to detailed taxpayer records through the examination process and should not need Form 8886 disclosures to identify participation in the transaction. The Form 8886 disclosure statements to the OTSA and the IRS are necessary, even if a taxpayer is in examination for the reporting year or was examined in an earlier year. While the IRS endeavors to resolve all tax issues in a given examination, examination may be specific to a given issue or return that does not clearly address the tax benefits of participating in a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or a Micro-captive Transaction of interest. The final regulations do not adopt these suggested changes.</P>
                    <P>A commenter requested that taxpayers who are commercial insurers acting as Intermediaries (as defined in proposed § 1.6011-10(b)(5)) and material advisors to such commercial insurers be excepted from reporting because commercial insurers ceding risks to a reinsurer need to be certain that the reinsurer will satisfy its financial obligations to the ceding company, a need that is generally met by requiring that the reinsurer provide security. With security in place, the commenter states that there is no business reason for the ceding company to investigate the reinsurer's ownership, tax status, overall loss ratio (including any other business the reinsurer may write), or financing practices. The final regulations do not adopt this suggestion. Commercial insurers acting as Intermediaries should know as part of their due diligence the nature of the entity with which they have contracted. The material advisors to such commercial insurers, similarly, should know as part of their due diligence the nature of the transaction about which they are providing advice. Also, as a general matter, the most likely type of micro-captive transaction involving a commercial insurer is a Consumer Coverage Arrangement. The final regulations have significantly broadened the reporting exception set forth in the proposed regulations for Consumer Coverage Arrangements to eliminate their possible identification as a Micro-captive Listed Transaction, as discussed more fully at part IV. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, which should afford sufficient relief to commercial insurers acting as Intermediaries.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">VI. Other Comments and Requested Changes to the Proposed Regulations</HD>
                    <P>In addition to comments on the authority of the Treasury Department and the IRS to issue the proposed regulations, specific comments on the Loss Ratio Factor and the Financing Factor, comments on the Consumer Coverage Exception, and comments seeking safe harbors from identification as or disclosure of a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest, commenters expressed additional concerns, sought clarification, and recommended additional changes to the proposed regulations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">A. Request for Clarification Regarding Effect on Cannabis Businesses</HD>
                    <P>One commenter stated that because the sale of cannabis constitutes “trafficking in controlled substances” under section 280E, cannabis businesses may not claim deductions for amounts paid or incurred during the taxable year, including amounts paid for insurance premiums. The commenter asked for guidance on how the proposed regulations will impact the cannabis industry. A cannabis business that enters into a Contract with a Captive would be an Insured under the proposed regulations if it treats amounts paid under the Contract as insurance premiums for Federal income tax purposes, even if it cannot deduct such amounts. Accordingly, a transaction between a cannabis business and Captive may meet the definition of a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest under the proposed regulations. Any taxpayer engaged in such a transaction would be subject to the disclosure requirements set forth in the proposed regulations, except as otherwise provided therein, if their returns reflect the tax consequences of participation in the transaction. The tax return of an Insured that cannot deduct an amount paid or incurred for purported insurance payments by operation of section 280E is not likely to reflect the tax consequences of participation in a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or Micro-captive Transaction of Interest, and therefore, the Insured will likely not be a “participant” in the transaction under these regulations. However, others involved in the transaction, such as Captive, which generally will exclude amounts received as premiums from income based on the position that it is an insurance company, would therefore reflect the tax consequences of participation in their returns, and may nonetheless be considered “participants” subject to the disclosure requirements set forth in these regulations.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">B. Comments Regarding the 20 Percent Relationship Test</HD>
                    <P>
                        Some commenters suggested that the 20 Percent Relationship Test set forth in proposed § 1.6011-10(b)(1)(iii) and incorporated in proposed § 1.6011-11(b)(1) is inconsistent with the diversification requirements of section 831(b)(2)(B) as enacted pursuant to the PATH Act. One part of the PATH Act diversification requirements is based on the percentage of premiums from related insureds, requiring that no more than 20 percent of net written premiums (or if greater, direct written premiums) for a taxable year is attributable to any one policyholder. The other part is based on the relative concentration of ownership in an insurance company and its policyholders. An insurance company must meet one of the PATH Act diversification requirements to make a section 831(b) election. However, the PATH Act diversification requirements are not sufficient to eliminate the possibility that a transaction is or may be a tax avoidance transaction. The final regulations describe fact patterns that strongly indicate tax avoidance or the potential for tax avoidance by entities that make a section 831(b) election and share a concentration in ownership with 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3555"/>
                        any policyholder that exceeds the 20 Percent Relationship Test. The final regulations do not adopt any changes based on these comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>Another commenter requested clarification regarding what kinds of derivatives will cause a taxpayer to meet the 20 Percent Relationship Test. The commenter expressed concern that as risk management vehicles, derivatives are not comparable to ownership of an entity through stock. To be clear, any derivative that is derived from a direct or indirect interest in the assets held by the Captive or the Captive's stock is included in the definition of Owner for the Captive. Any derivative that is derived from a direct or indirect interest in the assets held by the Insured or the Insured's stock is included in the definition of Owner for the Insured. While the commenter asserted that derivatives are generally used for risk management, the Treasury Department and the IRS are aware of promoters of abusive micro-captive transactions using derivatives to replicate ownership interests, specifically in response to Notice 2016-66. For example, a taxpayer may enter into a derivative contract such as a tracking stock warrant with respect to a Captive's stock. Such a contract would lack the voting rights or equity interest considered ownership under Notice 2016-66, but the taxpayer is provided with the same or similar economic benefits as owning the Captive directly through its eligibility to exercise the warrant to obtain one or more shares in the Captive. The final regulations do not adopt any changes based on this comment.</P>
                    <P>
                        One commenter argued that the 20 Percent Relationship Test is contrary to the micro-captive concept, asserting that micro-captives are typically structured with a single owner, who has a single business, that is also the sole policyholder of the micro-captive. The commenter appeared to suggest that section 831(b) was intended specifically for the benefit of such micro-captives, but this is not consistent with the history of section 831(b). Section 831(b) arose out of tax laws specific to certain small and mutual insurers, which are traditionally held by their members in a given geographical location “solely for the protection of their own property and not for profit.” Revenue Act of 1914, Public Law 63-217, 38 Stat. 745, 762. These small insurers, including groups of farmers and fire associations, were exempt from ordinary income tax laws and were understood to collect funds only up to what was needed for losses and expenses. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         H.R. Rep. No. 69-1, at 9 (1925). Under the current Code, these and other types of small insurers use section 831(b) to exclude premiums from taxable income. Accordingly, while the Code does contemplate small insurers, such contemplation is not specific to a single captive covering a sole policyholder. The inclusion of the 20 Percent Relationship Test in the proposed regulations was intended to exclude entities such as the mutual insurers, which are more likely to have diversified ownership and thus have significantly reduced potential for tax avoidance. The final regulations do not adopt any changes based on this comment.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">C. Recommendations To Eliminate or Delay Some or All of the Proposed Regulations</HD>
                    <P>Commenters recommended that the proposed regulations identifying Micro-Captive Listed Transactions should not be finalized. Commenters noted that captive transactions can differ significantly from one transaction to the next and because the test for whether a transaction is insurance for Federal tax purposes is a totality of the circumstances inquiry, it is unreasonable to designate any category of transactions as transactions known to be abusive. The final regulations do not adopt this recommendation. However, the final regulations significantly narrow the scope of § 1.6011-10 to decrease the likelihood that transactions that are not tax avoidance transactions are identified as listed transactions. As commenters noted, the IRS has received information on micro-captive transactions, whether in response to Notice 2016-66 or as part of examinations or litigation, for many years. The IRS is confident from its review of examinations and case law that the fact pattern described in the final regulations is a fact pattern that consistently gives rise to tax avoidance.</P>
                    <P>
                        Commenters recommended that finalization of these regulations be postponed until a decision is reached in 
                        <E T="03">Loper Bright Enterprises</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Raimondo,</E>
                         Sup. Ct. Dkt. No. 22-451 (
                        <E T="03">certiorari</E>
                         granted on the question of “[w]hether the Court should overrule 
                        <E T="03">Chevron</E>
                         or at least clarify that statutory silence concerning controversial powers expressly but narrowly granted elsewhere in the statute does not constitute an ambiguity requiring deference to the agency”). The Supreme Court issued its decision in this case on June 28, 2024, and as such, this recommendation is moot. 
                        <E T="03">Loper Bright Enterprises</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Raimondo,</E>
                         144 S.Ct. 2244 (2024). Further, as described more fully in the Authority section of this preamble, sections 6011 and 7805(a) provide express delegations of authority to the Secretary to identify the form and manner of taxpayer filing requirements and make rules, respectively. Section 6707A provides an express delegation of authority to identify reportable transactions. The final regulations do not adopt any changes based on these comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Commenters recommended modification of Form 1120-PC, 
                        <E T="03">U.S. Property and Casualty Insurance Company Tax Return,</E>
                         to capture the information required to be reported by Captives in the proposed regulations, in lieu of finalizing the proposed regulations. This recommendation was not adopted for the reasons explained in the preamble to the proposed regulations. Changes to the Form 1120-PC would at a minimum impact all nonlife insurance companies that make section 831(b) elections, not only participants in the micro-captive transactions described in these regulations. Some of the requested information is not readily available from filed Forms 1120-PC, such as the descriptions of the types of coverages provided by a Captive and the name and contact information of any actuary or underwriter who assisted Captive in the determination of amounts treated as premiums. Additionally, limiting the collection of information to only those entities filing the Form 1120-PC would be insufficient to gather relevant information, including information regarding Insureds and promoters of the transactions. Reporting for the specific transactions identified in these regulations is best captured in the manner of all reportable transactions, by requiring disclosure on Form 8886, for consistency in enforcement of the reportable transaction regime.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Commenters expressed concern that the IRS should have sufficient information on micro-captives in the responses filed to Notice 2016-66 and thus the regulations are not needed. Commenters stated the IRS should not require any further reporting. As commenters also noted, the IRS has received information on micro-captive transactions for several years. The IRS is confident from its review of examinations and case law that the fact pattern described in the regulations is a fact pattern that consistently gives rise to tax avoidance or otherwise potentially gives rise to tax avoidance. However, promoters continue to promote participation in these transactions, and the IRS is aware of new entrants to these transactions. Thus, despite information collected to date, the IRS needs to continue collecting information to identify who the participants are and the nature of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3556"/>
                        their transactions. The final regulations do not adopt any changes based on these comments.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Commenters recommended that the proposed regulations be withdrawn in their entirety and that guidance be issued instead on what would make a micro-captive arrangement an insurance arrangement for Federal tax purposes in the IRS's estimation. As the Tax Court explained in 
                        <E T="03">Syzygy,</E>
                         “[a]n inherent requirement for a company to make a valid section 831(b) election is that it must transact in insurance.” T.C. Memo. 2019-34, at *28; 
                        <E T="03">see also Reserve Mech.,</E>
                         34 F.4th at 904. Like any insurance transaction, a valid micro-captive arrangement for Federal tax purposes is one that meets the four-prong test of insurance as detailed by the courts in a significant body of case law. 
                        <E T="03">See Le Gierse,</E>
                         312 U.S. at 539; 
                        <E T="03">see also Avrahami,</E>
                         149 T.C. at 181 (
                        <E T="03">citing Rent-A-Center,</E>
                         142 T.C. at 13-14) (additional citations omitted); 
                        <E T="03">Syzygy,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2019-34, at *29; 
                        <E T="03">Caylor,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2021-30, at *31-32; 
                        <E T="03">Keating,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-2, at *51-52; 
                        <E T="03">Swift,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-13, at *27; 
                        <E T="03">Patel,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-34, at *37-38; 
                        <E T="03">Royalty Mgmt.,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-87, at *35. The IRS has issued guidance regarding what makes a captive insurance arrangement an insurance arrangement for Federal tax purposes that is applicable to all insurance companies, including those making section 831(b) elections. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Rev. Rul. 2002-89, 2002-2 C.B. 984; Rev. Rul. 2002-90, 2002-2 C.B. 985; Rev. Rul. 2002-91, 2002-2 C.B. 991; Rev. Rul. 2005-40, 2005-2 C.B. 4; Rev. Rul. 2007-47, 2007-2 C.B. 127; Rev. Rul. 2008-8, 2008-1 C.B. 340; and Rev. Rul. 2009-26, 2009-38 I.R.B. 366. Nonetheless, in many micro-captive transactions, the manner in which the contracts are interpreted, administered, and applied is inconsistent with arm's length transactions, actuarial standards, and sound business practices. The captive typically does not behave as an insurance company commonly would, indicating that the captive is not issuing insurance contracts and the transaction does not constitute insurance for Federal tax purposes. The final regulations therefore do not adopt any changes based on these comments.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">D. Requests for Clarification Regarding Revoked or Inapplicable Section 831(b) Elections</HD>
                    <P>Commenters requested clarification whether reporting is still required for years in which a Captive's section 831(b) election has been revoked or is otherwise inapplicable for a given taxable year. Under section 831(b)(2)(A), a section 831(b) election, once made, may be revoked only with the consent of the Secretary. Once an election is made, the alternative tax under section 831(b) applies only if the net written premiums (or, if greater, the direct written premiums) for the taxable year do not exceed the threshold set forth in section 831(b)(2)(A)(i) (as adjusted for inflation) and if the electing entity meets the diversification requirements set forth in section 831(b)(2)(B), for that taxable year.</P>
                    <P>Under proposed §§ 1.6011-10(b)(1)(i) and 1.6011-11(b)(1), an entity would be a Captive only if it elects under section 831(b) to exclude premiums from taxable income. Under proposed §§ 1.6011-10(a) and 1.6011-11(a), a transaction would be a Micro-Captive Listed Transaction or Micro-captive Transaction of Interest only if it involves a Captive. Separately, pursuant to § 1.6011-4(a), the disclosure requirements for reportable transactions apply to a taxpayer that is a participant in a reportable transaction for taxable years in which the taxpayer's filed return reflects the tax consequences of participation in the transaction, as set forth in § 1.6011-4(c)(3)(i)(A).</P>
                    <P>
                        An entity that revokes its section 831(b) election would not be a Captive under the proposed regulations beginning in the year of revocation. Similarly, for taxable years after a Captive has filed its final return, it has effectively revoked its section 831(b) election. 
                        <E T="03">See</E>
                         § 1.6011-10(b)(1)(i); 
                        <E T="03">but see</E>
                         §§ 1.6011-10(b)(2)(iv) and 1.6011-11(b)(2)(iii) (regarding successor corporations). Accordingly, for taxable years in which a Captive's section 831(b) election has been revoked or the Captive has previously filed its final return, the arrangement generally is not a Micro-Captive Listed Transaction or Micro-Captive Transaction of Interest under the proposed regulations in that taxable year.
                    </P>
                    <P>However, if the alternative tax under section 831(b) is inapplicable (either because premiums exceed the threshold or the entity fails the diversification requirements set forth in section 831(b)(2)(B) for that year), because the section 831(b) election remains in effect, the entity may still be a Captive under the proposed regulations. Thus, in taxable years in which a Captive's section 831(b) election is inapplicable but has not been revoked, and the arrangement is otherwise described in the regulations, the arrangement would still be a Micro-Captive Listed Transaction or Micro-Captive Transaction of Interest under the proposed regulations. The potential of using of the section 831(b) election for tax avoidance is not eliminated until the election is revoked. Taxpayers must disclose the transaction in such years if their returns reflect the tax consequences of participation.</P>
                    <P>The effect of revocation or inapplicability of the section 831(b) election, as described with respect to the proposed regulations, is retained in the final regulations. However, in the interest of limiting the reporting required by these regulations, the final regulations provide transition relief for section 831(b) revocations. Specifically, if the Captive in a transaction identified as a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or Micro-captive Transaction of Interest in §§ 1.6011-10(a) and 1.6011-11(a) of the final regulations requests the Secretary's consent to revoke its section 831(b) election on or before the date by which the participants' disclosures must be filed with the OTSA, the transaction will not be identified as a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or Micro-captive Transaction of Interest for taxable years ending before January 1, 2026, pursuant to §§ 1.6011-10(h)(1) and 1.6011-11(h)(1).</P>
                    <P>Additionally, the final regulations provide certainty regarding the disclosure obligations of taxpayers who have participated in a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or Micro-captive Transaction of Interest involving a Captive that has subsequently revoked its section 831(b) election and therefore ceased to be a Captive. With respect to taxable years in which the section 831(b) revocation is effective, §§ 1.6011-10(f)(3) and 1.6011-11(f)(3) of the final regulations provide taxpayers involved in the transaction with a safe harbor from identification as participants in that transaction.</P>
                    <P>
                        Commenters also requested a streamlined method by which taxpayers could obtain the Secretary's consent to revoke section 831(b) elections. Currently, consent is obtained through the private letter ruling procedures, published annually. 
                        <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                         Rev. Proc. 2024-1, 2024-1 I.R.B. 1. The IRS intends to issue a Revenue Procedure that describes a simplified process for revocation of section 831(b) elections.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">E. Request for Clarification Regarding the Definition of Intermediary</HD>
                    <P>
                        A commenter requested clarification on whether the defined term “Intermediary,” as described in proposed §§ 1.6011-10(b)(5) and 1.6011-11(b)(5), includes fronting companies. Generally, “fronting” is “an arrangement in which a primary insurer acts as the insurer of record by issuing a policy, but then passes the entire risk to a reinsurer in exchange for a commission. Often, the fronting insurer 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3557"/>
                        is licensed to do business in a state or country where the risk is located, but the reinsurer is not.” 
                        <E T="03">NAIC Glossary of Insurance Terms, https://content.naic.org/glossary</E>
                        -insurance-terms (last visited Jan. 6, 2025). The term “Intermediary” as defined in the proposed regulations means an entity that issues Contracts to an Insured, which are then reinsured, directly or indirectly, by a Captive. A “fronting” company would fall within the definition of “Intermediary” if it issues Contracts to an Insured, which are then reinsured, directly or indirectly, by a Captive.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">F. Recommendation To Limit the Effective Period of Section 831(b) Elections for Companies That Do Not Meet Loss Ratio Threshold</HD>
                    <P>A commenter recommended that no loss ratio factor apply for the first five years of a section 831(b) election, after which any entity that elected the alternative tax under section 831(b) would automatically revert to an entity taxable under section 831(a) unless it meets a loss ratio threshold. The commenter did not specify what an appropriate loss ratio threshold would be, but implied that the loss ratio threshold should be lower than the Loss Ratio Factor percentages set forth in the proposed regulations.</P>
                    <P>An automatic conversion to a taxable insurance company under section 831(a) would be inconsistent with the statutory language of section 831(b). Valid insurers who rely on the section 831(b) election would be impermissibly harmed by this recommendation. To the extent the commenter intended to recommend a five-year grace period from formation of a Captive to identification as either a Micro-captive Listed Transaction or a Micro-captive Transaction of Interest, this could enable participants in micro-captive arrangements that are or may be tax avoidance transactions to permanently avoid reporting that would otherwise be required by, for instance, setting up a new Captive every five years. The final regulations do not adopt any changes based on this comment.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">G. Comments Regarding Constitutionality of Potential Adjustments if Transaction Examined</HD>
                    <P>
                        Commenters expressed concern that the potential adjustments applicable to abusive transactions, as described in the preamble to the proposed regulations, are unconstitutional as double tax. Specifically, the preamble to the proposed regulations noted that examinations may result in adjustments including full disallowance of claimed micro-captive insurance premium deductions and the inclusion in income of amounts received by the Captive. These adjustments are consistent with the adjustments sustained against taxpayers in the relevant micro-captive court cases. 
                        <E T="03">See Avrahami,</E>
                         149 T.C. at 199 (disallowed premium deductions), 
                        <E T="03">Syzygy,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2019-34, at *45-46 (disallowed premium deductions and required income inclusion by the Captive), 
                        <E T="03">Caylor,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2021-30, at *48-53 (disallowed premium deductions and penalties); 
                        <E T="03">Keating,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-2, at *65-66, 77 (disallowed premium deductions and penalties); 
                        <E T="03">Swift,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-13, at *44-50 (disallowed premium deductions and penalties); 
                        <E T="03">Patel,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-34, at *52 (disallowed premium deductions), and 
                        <E T="03">Royalty Mgmt.,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2024-87, at *49-50, 52-53 (disallowed premium deductions and required income inclusion by the Captive); 
                        <E T="03">see also Reserve Mech.,</E>
                         T.C. Memo. 2018-86, at *62-64 (income to a tax-exempt entity under section 501(c)(15)). Further, while the IRS may challenge the tax benefits claimed in these transactions, adjustments will be asserted only to the extent warranted by the facts, following examination by the IRS. The final regulations do not adopt any changes based on these comments.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">H. Comments Regarding Impact on the Captive Insurance Industry</HD>
                    <P>Commenters expressed concern that the proposed regulations will negatively impact the captive insurance industry and would eliminate many benefits to its participants. Commenters stated that the benefits of captives include the following: providing coverage that is either unavailable or prohibitively expensive commercially, providing entry to reinsurance markets that are otherwise unavailable to participants, allowing for competition with commercial insurers, and serving to manage catastrophic risks for many businesses, such as the risks arising under the Coronavirus Disease 2019 (COVID-19) pandemic. These benefits are available to all section 831(a) captives and to those section 831(b) captives that are not engaged in transactions that are tax avoidance transactions. These regulations do not hinder the formation of valid captives. Accordingly, the final regulations do not adopt any changes based on these comments.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">I. Comments Regarding Compliance Concerns</HD>
                    <P>Some commenters argued that the proposed regulations are retroactive in nature, that there would be no way for an existing micro-captive to “come into compliance with the proposed regulation,” and that there would be no way for a taxpayer to know whether they are entering into a reportable transaction. As previously stated in part I.C. of this Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions, the proposed regulations are not retroactive in nature; the final regulations will be effective as of January 14, 2025. Section 1.6011-4(e)(2)(i) is clear that reporting is required for transactions entered into and reflected on a tax return for a year prior to the publication of guidance identifying a transaction as a listed transaction or a transaction of interest, if the statute of limitations is still open on the effective date of the listing. While the disclosures mandated by § 1.6011-4 may be with respect to prior periods, if the period of limitations on assessment for such periods has not expired, the disclosure obligation is itself not retroactive—it is a current reporting obligation. The comments regarding an impermissible retroactive burden are without merit and outside the scope of these final regulations.</P>
                    <P>Moreover, existing participants in transactions identified under the final regulations as a Micro-Captive Listed Transaction or a Micro-Captive Transaction of Interest may successfully comply by fulfilling their reporting obligations as set forth in the final regulations at §§ 1.6011-10(g) and 1.6011-11(g). Lastly, taxpayers are encouraged to make informed decisions and seek independent tax advice before entering into any transaction. Taxpayers have been placed on notice of the IRS's concern with abuse of the section 831(b) election since at least 2015 when the IRS first identified micro-captive transactions on its annual Dirty Dozen list. The final regulations do not adopt any changes based on these comments.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">J. Comment Expressing Concerns About Access to Administrative Appeals</HD>
                    <P>
                        Finally, a commenter expressed concern that taxpayers whose micro-captive transactions are examined do not have access to good faith administrative appeals. Appeals is an independent office of the IRS. Section 7803(e)(3) of the Code provides that it is the function of Appeals to resolve Federal tax controversies without litigation on a basis which is fair and impartial to both the Government and the taxpayer, and promotes a consistent application and interpretation of, and voluntary compliance with, the Federal tax laws. The Appeals resolution process is generally available to all taxpayers. Appeals endeavors to be consistent in its approach with the goal 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3558"/>
                        of making a fair and reasoned determination on each case presented to it, considering the facts of the case and existing case law. Taxpayers concerned about their specific case and the handling thereof should raise the matter to the appropriate authorities within Appeals.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Special Analyses</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">I. Regulatory Planning and Review</HD>
                    <P>Pursuant to the Memorandum of Agreement, Review of Treasury Regulations under Executive Order 12866 (June 9, 2023), tax regulatory actions issued by the IRS are not subject to the requirements of section 6 of Executive Order 12866, as amended. Therefore, a regulatory impact assessment is not required.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">II. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                    <P>The collection of information contained in the final regulations is reflected in the collection of information for Forms 8886 and 8918 that have been reviewed and approved by OMB in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3507(c)) under control numbers 1545-1800 and 1545-0865. To the extent there is a change in burden as a result of these regulations, the change in burden will be reflected in the updated burden estimates for the Forms 8886 and 8918. The requirement to maintain records to substantiate information on Forms 8886 and 8918 is already contained in the burden associated with the control numbers for the forms and is unchanged.</P>
                    <P>An agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless the collection of information displays a valid control number assigned by OMB.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">III. Regulatory Flexibility Act</HD>
                    <P>The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) (5 U.S.C. part I, chapter 6) requires agencies to “prepare and make available for public comment an initial regulatory flexibility analysis,” which will “describe the impact of the rule on small entities.” 5 U.S.C. 603(a). Section 605(b) of the RFA allows an agency to certify a rule if the rulemaking is not expected to have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities.</P>
                    <P>The Secretary of the Treasury hereby certifies that the final regulations will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities pursuant to the RFA. The basis for these final regulations is Notice 2016-66, 2016-47 I.R.B. 745 (as modified by Notice 2017-08, 2017-3 I.R.B. 423). The following chart sets forth the gross receipts of respondents to Notice 2016-66, based on data for taxable year 2022:</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="3" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s25,8,8">
                        <TTITLE>Notice 2016-66—Respondents by Size</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Receipts</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Firms
                                <LI>(%)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Filings
                                <LI>(%)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Under 5M</ENT>
                            <ENT>74.45</ENT>
                            <ENT>70.87</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">5M to 10M</ENT>
                            <ENT>7.17</ENT>
                            <ENT>7.56</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">10M to 15M</ENT>
                            <ENT>4.36</ENT>
                            <ENT>4.76</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">15M to 20M</ENT>
                            <ENT>2.49</ENT>
                            <ENT>2.80</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">20M to 25M</ENT>
                            <ENT>1.87</ENT>
                            <ENT>2.24</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">Over 25M</ENT>
                            <ENT>9.66</ENT>
                            <ENT>11.76</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT>100</ENT>
                            <ENT>100</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>This chart shows that the majority of respondents to Notice 2016-66 reported gross receipts under $5 million. Even assuming that these respondents constitute a substantial number of small entities, the final regulations will not have a significant economic impact on these entities because the final regulations implement sections 6111 and 6112 and § 1.6011-4 by specifying the manner in which and time at which an identified Micro-captive Listed Transaction or Micro-captive Transaction of Interest must be reported. Accordingly, because the regulations are limited in scope to time and manner of information reporting and definitional information, the economic impact of the final regulations is expected to be minimal.</P>
                    <P>Further, the Treasury Department and the IRS expect the reporting burden to be low; the information sought is necessary for regular annual return preparation and ordinary recordkeeping. The estimated burden for any entity required to file Form 8886 (as revised Oct. 2022) is approximately 10 hours, 16 minutes for recordkeeping; 4 hours, 50 minutes for learning about the law or the form; and 6 hours, 25 minutes for preparing, copying, assembling, and sending the form to the IRS. The IRS's Research, Applied Analytics, and Statistics division estimates that the appropriate wage rate for this set of taxpayers is $73.48 (2022 dollars) per hour. Thus, it is estimated that a respondent will incur costs of approximately $1,581.05 per filing. Disclosures received to date by the Treasury Department and the IRS in response to the reporting requirements of Notice 2016-66 indicate that this small amount will not pose any significant economic impact for those taxpayers now required to disclose under the final regulations. The Treasury Department and the IRS have concluded that the cost of filing the disclosure statements required by these regulations will not pose any significant economic impact.</P>
                    <P>Some commenters expressed concern that the cost of filing disclosure statements is too onerous for taxpayers. Specifically, commenters stated that they incurred significant costs in responding to Notice 2016-66 and will again face those costs if new disclosures are required. In response to comments on Notice 2016-66 and the proposed regulations, the final regulations narrow the scope of transactions described in §§ 1.6011-10(h) and 1.6011-11(h). New disclosures are needed to identify participants in these transactions, but the final regulations provide in § 1.6011-11(h)(2) that taxpayers who have filed a disclosure statement regarding their participation in a transaction that is the same as, or substantially similar to, the transaction described in § 1.6011-11(a) with the OTSA pursuant to Notice 2016-66, will be treated as having made the disclosure pursuant to the final regulations for the taxable years for which the taxpayer filed returns before January 14, 2025.</P>
                    <P>One commenter asserted that the reporting obligations would be particularly onerous for arrangements using a pooled reinsurance structure with numerous participants and likened the cost of filling out a Form 8886 to effectively imposing a tax on the entire community of captive insurers electing the alternative tax under section 831(b). Taxpayer compliance burden is not equivalent to a tax, and the Instructions to Forms 8886 and 8918 make clear that the time needed to complete and file such forms will vary depending on individual circumstances.</P>
                    <P>Two commenters indicated that the $77.50 (2020 dollars) wage rate per hour used to approximate the total cost of preparing and filing a Form 8886, as referenced in the proposed regulations, is too low. One of these commenters implied that the applicable average wage rate per hour is closer to $268.50. Given the availability of more recent data, the hourly rate estimate is revised in the final regulations to $73.48 (2022 dollars). This updated figure does not address the substantial difference from the commenter's estimate. The difference is likely attributable to the different methodologies used. The commenter likely used the hourly rate that an independent professional would charge a retail customer to prepare a Form 8886.</P>
                    <P>
                        These commenters also expressed disagreement with the estimated average amounts of time required to complete Forms 8886 and 8918, as indicated in the instructions to each of those forms. One commenter described the estimate 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3559"/>
                        of 21.5 hours to comply as “significantly underestimated.” However, the commenter did not elaborate on the amount of time actually required for the commenter. Additionally, the Instructions to Forms 8886 and 8918 make clear that the time needed to complete and file such forms will vary depending on individual circumstances. One of the commenters stated that based on a survey of 2,397 respondents, the average amount of time spent by each respondent “for compliance” under Notice 2016-66 (using it as a proxy for these final regulations) was 50.97 hours, which the commenter noted is above the estimated average amounts of time for completion indicated in the instructions to each of those forms. However, based on the information provided by this commenter regarding the same survey, the total number of hours spent on “compliance” by all respondents was 121,755 hours, and the total number of Forms 8886 and 8918 completed by respondents for this “compliance” was 15,021. Consequently, the average amount of time spent per form by these respondents appears to be approximately 8.11 hours (that is, approximately 8 hours, 6 minutes). This amount falls below the estimated average time of 21 hours, 31 minutes for Form 8886 (as revised Oct. 2022) and 14 hours, 31 minutes for Form 8918 (as revised Nov. 2021) as provided in the instructions to those forms, respectively.
                    </P>
                    <P>For the reasons stated, a regulatory flexibility analysis under the RFA is not required. Pursuant to section 7805(f)(1), the notice of proposed rulemaking preceding the final regulations was submitted to the Chief Counsel for the Office of Advocacy of the Small Business Administration for comment on its impact on small business, and no comments were received.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">IV. Unfunded Mandates Reform Act</HD>
                    <P>Section 202 of the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act of 1995 (UMRA) requires that agencies assess anticipated costs and benefits and take certain other actions before issuing a final rule that includes any Federal mandate that may result in expenditures in any one year by a State, local, or Tribal government, in the aggregate, or by the private sector, of $100 million in 1995 dollars, updated annually for inflation. This final rule does not include any Federal mandate that may result in expenditures by State, local, or Tribal governments, or by the private sector in excess of that threshold.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">V. Executive Order 13132: Federalism</HD>
                    <P>
                        Executive Order 13132 (Federalism) prohibits an agency from publishing any rule that has federalism implications if the rule either imposes substantial, direct compliance costs on State and local governments, and is not required by statute, or preempts State law, unless the agency meets the consultation and funding requirements of section 6 of the Executive order. This final rule does not have federalism implications and does not impose substantial direct compliance costs on State and local governments or preempt State law within the meaning of the Executive order. 
                        <E T="03">See also</E>
                         part I.B. of the Summary of Comments and Explanation of Revisions.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">VI. Congressional Review Act</HD>
                    <P>
                        Pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801 
                        <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                        ), the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs has designated this rule as not a “major rule,” as defined by 5 U.S.C. 804(2).
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Drafting Information</HD>
                    <P>The principal author of these regulations is Allan H. Sakaue, Office of Associate Chief Counsel (Financial Institutions and Products), IRS. However, other personnel from the Treasury Department and the IRS participated in their development.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Availability of IRS Documents</HD>
                    <P>
                        The notices cited in this preamble are published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin and are available from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Publishing Office, Washington, DC 20402, or by visiting the IRS website at 
                        <E T="03">https://www.irs.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 26 CFR Part 1</HD>
                        <P>Income taxes, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Amendments to the Regulations</HD>
                    <P>Accordingly, the Treasury Department and the IRS amend 26 CFR part 1 as follows:</P>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1—INCOME TAXES</HD>
                    </PART>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="1">
                        <AMDPAR>
                            <E T="04">Paragraph 1.</E>
                             The authority citation for part 1 is amended by adding entries for §§ 1.6011-10 and 1.6011-11 in numerical order to read in part as follows:
                        </AMDPAR>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority:</HD>
                            <P> 26 U.S.C. 7805 * * *</P>
                        </AUTH>
                        <STARS/>
                        <EXTRACT>
                            <P>Section 1.6011-10 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6001 and 6011.</P>
                            <P>Section 1.6011-11 also issued under 26 U.S.C. 6001 and 6011.</P>
                        </EXTRACT>
                        <STARS/>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="1">
                        <AMDPAR>
                            <E T="04">Par. 2.</E>
                             Section 1.6011-10 is added to read as follows:
                        </AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 1.6011-10</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Micro-captive listed transaction.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Identification as listed transaction.</E>
                                 Transactions that are the same as, or Substantially Similar to, transactions described in paragraph (c) of this section are identified as listed transactions for purposes of § 1.6011-4(b)(2), except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                 The definitions in this paragraph (b) apply for purposes of this section:
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (1) 
                                <E T="03">Captive.</E>
                                 The term 
                                <E T="03">Captive</E>
                                 means any entity that is described in each of the paragraphs (b)(1)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) The entity elects under section 831(b) of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) to include in taxable income only taxable investment income (defined in section 834 of the Code) in lieu of the tax imposed under section 831(a).</P>
                            <P>(ii) The entity issues a Contract to an Insured, reinsures a Contract of an Insured issued by an Intermediary, or both.</P>
                            <P>(iii) At least 20 percent of the entity's assets or the voting power or value of its outstanding stock or equity interests is directly or indirectly owned, individually or collectively, by an Insured, an Owner, or persons Related to an Insured or an Owner. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(1)(iii), the rules of paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(A) or (B) of this section apply to the extent application of a rule (or rules) would increase such direct or indirect ownership.</P>
                            <P>(A) A person that holds a derivative is treated as indirectly owning the assets referenced by the derivative.</P>
                            <P>(B) The interest of each beneficiary of a trust or estate in the assets of such trust or estate must be determined by assuming the maximum exercise of discretion by the fiduciary in favor of such beneficiary and the maximum use of the trust's or estate's interest in the company to satisfy the interests of such beneficiary.</P>
                            <P>
                                (2) 
                                <E T="03">Computation periods—</E>
                                (i) 
                                <E T="03">Financing Computation Period.</E>
                                 The term 
                                <E T="03">Financing Computation Period</E>
                                 means the most recent five taxable years (including the most recent concluded taxable year) of a Captive (or all taxable years of a Captive if the Captive has been in existence for less than five taxable years).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (ii) 
                                <E T="03">Listed Transaction Loss Ratio Computation Period.</E>
                                 The term 
                                <E T="03">Listed Transaction Loss Ratio Computation Period</E>
                                 is the most recent ten taxable years (including the most recent concluded taxable year) of Captive. A Captive that does not have at least ten taxable years cannot have a Listed 
                                <PRTPAGE P="3560"/>
                                Transaction Loss Ratio Computation Period, and therefore is not described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (iii) 
                                <E T="03">Taxable years.</E>
                                 For purposes of paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section:
                            </P>
                            <P>(A) Each short taxable year is a separate taxable year.</P>
                            <P>(B) If the Captive is a successor to one or more other Captives, taxable years of each such other Captive are treated as taxable years of the Captive.</P>
                            <P>
                                (iv) 
                                <E T="03">Successors.</E>
                                 The term 
                                <E T="03">successor</E>
                                 means any entity described in paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(A), (B), or (C) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>(A) A successor corporation as defined in § 1.382-2(a)(5).</P>
                            <P>(B) An entity that, directly or indirectly, acquires (or is deemed to acquire) the assets of another entity and succeeds to and takes into account the other entity's earnings and profits or deficit in earnings and profits.</P>
                            <P>(C) An entity that receives (or is deemed to receive) any assets from another entity if such entity's basis in such assets is determined, directly or indirectly, in whole or in part, by reference to the other entity's basis in such assets.</P>
                            <P>
                                (3) 
                                <E T="03">Contract.</E>
                                 The term 
                                <E T="03">Contract</E>
                                 means any contract that is treated by a party to the contract as an insurance contract or reinsurance contract for Federal income tax purposes.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (4) 
                                <E T="03">Insured.</E>
                                 The term 
                                <E T="03">Insured</E>
                                 means any person that conducts a trade or business, enters into a Contract with a Captive or enters into a Contract with an Intermediary that is directly or indirectly reinsured by a Captive, and treats amounts paid under the Contract as insurance premiums for Federal income tax purposes.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (5) 
                                <E T="03">Intermediary.</E>
                                 The term 
                                <E T="03">Intermediary</E>
                                 means any entity that issues a Contract to an Insured or reinsures a Contract that is issued to an Insured, and such Contract is reinsured, directly or indirectly, by a Captive. A transaction may have more than one Intermediary.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (6) 
                                <E T="03">Owner.</E>
                                 The term 
                                <E T="03">Owner</E>
                                 means any person who, directly or indirectly, holds an ownership interest in an Insured or its assets. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(6), the rules of paragraph (b)(6)(i) or (ii) of this section apply to the extent application of a rule (or rules) would increase such direct or indirect ownership.
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) The interest of a person that holds a derivative must be determined as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(A) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(ii) The interest of each beneficiary of a trust or estate in the assets of such trust or estate must be determined as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(B) of this section.</P>
                            <P>
                                (7) 
                                <E T="03">Recipient.</E>
                                 The term 
                                <E T="03">Recipient</E>
                                 means any Owner, Insured, or person Related to an Owner or an Insured engaged in a transaction described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (8) 
                                <E T="03">Related.</E>
                                 The term 
                                <E T="03">Related</E>
                                 means having a relationship described in one or more of sections 267(b), 707(b), 2701(b)(2)(C), and 2704(c)(2) of the Code.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (9) 
                                <E T="03">Seller.</E>
                                 The term 
                                <E T="03">Seller</E>
                                 means a service provider, dealer (including an automobile dealer), lender, wholesaler, or retailer that sells products or services to customers who purchase insurance contracts in connection with those products or services and at least 95 percent of sales of products or services by Seller for the taxable year to persons who purchase such insurance contracts are sales to Unrelated Customers.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (10) 
                                <E T="03">Seller's Captive.</E>
                                 The term 
                                <E T="03">Seller's Captive</E>
                                 means a Captive Related to Seller, an owner of Seller, or individuals or entities Related to Seller or owners of Seller.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (11) 
                                <E T="03">Substantially Similar.</E>
                                 The term 
                                <E T="03">Substantially Similar</E>
                                 is defined in § 1.6011-4(c)(4).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (12) 
                                <E T="03">Unrelated Customers.</E>
                                 The term 
                                <E T="03">Unrelated Customers</E>
                                 means persons who do not own an interest in, and are not wholly or partially owned by, Seller, an owner of Seller, or individuals or entities Related to Seller or owners of Seller.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (c) 
                                <E T="03">Transaction description.</E>
                                 A transaction is described in this paragraph (c) if the transaction is described in both paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) The transaction involves a Captive that, at any time during the Captive's Financing Computation Period, directly or indirectly, engages in a transaction described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, taking into account paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) The Captive made available as financing or otherwise conveyed or agreed to make available or convey to a Recipient, in a transaction that did not result in taxable income or gain to the Recipient, in whole or in part, any portion of the amounts received under a Contract, such as through a guarantee, a loan, or other transfer of Captive's capital, or made such financings or conveyances prior to the Financing Computation Period that remain outstanding or in effect at any point in the taxable year for which disclosure is required.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Any amounts that a Captive made available as financing or otherwise conveyed or agreed to make available or convey to a Recipient are presumed to be portions of the amounts received under a Contract to the extent that such amounts, when made available or conveyed, are in excess of Captive's cumulative after-tax net investment earnings minus any outstanding financings or conveyances.</P>
                            <P>(2) The transaction involves a Captive for which the amount described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section is less than 30 percent of the amount described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) The amount of liabilities incurred for insured losses and claim administration expenses during the Listed Transaction Loss Ratio Computation Period.</P>
                            <P>(ii) The amount equal to premiums earned by the Captive during the Listed Transaction Loss Ratio Computation Period, less policyholder dividends paid by the Captive during the Listed Transaction Loss Ratio Computation Period.</P>
                            <P>
                                (d) 
                                <E T="03">Exceptions.</E>
                                 A transaction described in paragraph (c) of this section is not identified as a listed transaction for purposes of this section and § 1.6011-4(b)(2) if the transaction:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Provides insurance for employee compensation or benefits and is one for which the Employee Benefits Security Administration of the U.S. Department of Labor has issued a Prohibited Transaction Exemption under the procedures provided at 29 CFR 2570.30 through 2570.52; or</P>
                            <P>(2) Is an arrangement in which a Captive meets all of the requirements described in this paragraph (d)(2).</P>
                            <P>(i) The Captive is a Seller's Captive.</P>
                            <P>(ii) The Seller's Captive issues or reinsures some or all of the Contracts purchased by Unrelated Customers in connection with the products or services being sold by the Seller.</P>
                            <P>(iii) 100 percent of the business of the Seller's Captive is issuing or reinsuring Contracts in connection with products or services being sold by the Seller or persons Related to the Seller.</P>
                            <P>(iv) At least 95 percent of the Seller's Captive's business for the taxable year is issuing or reinsuring Contracts purchased by Unrelated Customers in connection with products or services sold by Seller or persons Related to Seller.</P>
                            <P>
                                (e) 
                                <E T="03">Bright-line rules.</E>
                                 A transaction is not considered Substantially Similar (as defined in paragraph (b)(11) of this section) to the listed transaction identified in this section if the transaction:
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (1) Does not involve an entity that has elected under section 831(b) to include in taxable income only taxable investment income (defined in section 
                                <PRTPAGE P="3561"/>
                                834) in lieu of the tax imposed under section 831(a); or
                            </P>
                            <P>(2) Involves a Captive for which the amount described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section is 30 percent or more of the amount described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>
                                (f) 
                                <E T="03">Special participation rules—</E>
                                (1) 
                                <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                 Whether a taxpayer has participated in the listed transaction identified in paragraph (a) of this section, including Substantially Similar transactions, will be determined under § 1.6011-4(c)(3)(i)(A). Participants include, but are not limited to, any Owner, Insured, Captive, or Intermediary with respect to the transaction whose tax return reflects tax consequences or a tax strategy identified in paragraph (a), except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (f)(2) and (3) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (2) 
                                <E T="03">Disclosure safe harbor for Owners.</E>
                                 An Owner who, solely by reason of the Owner's direct or indirect ownership interest in an Insured, has participated in the listed transaction described in this section will not be required to disclose participation in the transaction under section 6011(a) of the Code, notwithstanding § 1.6011-4(c)(3), if the Owner receives acknowledgement, in writing or electronically, from the Insured that the Insured has or will comply with the Insured's separate disclosure obligation under § 1.6011-4 with respect to the transaction and the Insured discloses the transaction in a timely manner. The acknowledgment can be a copy of the Form 8886, 
                                <E T="03">Reportable Transaction Disclosure Statement</E>
                                 (or successor form), filed (or to be filed) by the Insured and must be received by the Owner prior to the time set forth in § 1.6011-4(e) in which the Owner would otherwise be required to provide disclosure. Owners who meet the requirements of the safe harbor in this paragraph (f)(2) will not be treated as having participated in an undisclosed listed transaction for purposes of § 1.6664-2(c)(3)(ii) or as having failed to include information on any return or statement with respect to a listed transaction for purposes of section 6501(c)(10) of the Code.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (3) 
                                <E T="03">Disclosure safe harbor for taxpayers in transactions with revoked section 831(b) elections.</E>
                                 If the Captive has revoked its section 831(b) election, taxpayers who participated in the listed transaction with respect to that Captive, including any Insureds, Owners, and Intermediaries, will not be considered participants in the transaction under section 6011(a), notwithstanding § 1.6011-4(c)(3), for any taxable year in which the section 831(b) revocation is effective, provided that a successor Captive has not been established as described in paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section. In addition, if the Captive has revoked its section 831(b) election, taxpayers who meet the requirements of this safe harbor, for any taxable year in which the section 831(b) revocation is effective, will not be treated as having participated in an undisclosed listed transaction for purposes of § 1.6664-2(c)(3)(ii) or as having failed to include information on any return or statement with respect to a listed transaction for purposes of section 6501(c)(10).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (g) 
                                <E T="03">Disclosure requirements—</E>
                                (1) 
                                <E T="03">Information required of all participants.</E>
                                 Participants must provide the information required under § 1.6011-4(d) and the Instructions to Form 8886 (or successor form). For all participants, describing the transaction in sufficient detail includes, but is not limited to, describing on Form 8886 (or successor form) when, how, and from whom the participant became aware of the transaction, and how the participant participated in the transaction (for example, as an Insured, a Captive, or other participant). Paragraphs (g)(2) and (3) of this section describe additional information required of a Captive and an Insured, respectively.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (2) 
                                <E T="03">Additional information required of a Captive.</E>
                                 For a Captive, describing the transaction in sufficient detail includes, but is not limited to, describing on Form 8886 (or successor form) the items described in each of the paragraphs (g)(2)(i) through (v) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>(i) All the type(s) of policies issued or reinsured by the Captive during the year of participation or each year of participation (if disclosure pertains to multiple years).</P>
                            <P>(ii) The amounts treated by the Captive as premiums written for coverage provided by Captive during the year of participation or each year of participation (if disclosure pertains to multiple years).</P>
                            <P>(iii) The name and contact information of each and every actuary or underwriter who assisted in the determination of the amounts treated as premiums for coverage provided by the Captive during the year or each year of participation (if disclosure pertains to multiple years).</P>
                            <P>(iv) The total amounts of claims paid by the Captive during the year of participation or each year of participation (if disclosure pertains to multiple years).</P>
                            <P>(v) The name and percentage of interest directly or indirectly held by each person whose interest in the Captive meets the 20 percent threshold or is taken into account in meeting the 20 percent threshold under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>
                                (3) 
                                <E T="03">Additional information required of Insured.</E>
                                 For Insured, describing the transaction in sufficient detail includes, but is not limited to, describing on Form 8886 (or successor form) the amounts treated by Insured as premiums paid for coverage provided to Insured, directly or indirectly, by the Captive or by each Captive (if disclosure pertains to multiple Captives) during the year or each year of participation (if disclosure pertains to multiple years), as well as the identity of all persons identified as Owners to whom the Insured provided an acknowledgment described in paragraph (f)(2) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (h) 
                                <E T="03">Applicability date—</E>
                                (1) 
                                <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                 This section identifies transactions that are the same as, or Substantially Similar to, the transactions identified in paragraph (a) of this section as listed transactions for purposes of § 1.6011-4(b)(2), effective January 14, 2025, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (h)(1). If, on or before the date prescribed for filing disclosure statements with the Office of Tax Shelter Analysis under § 1.6011-4(e), the Captive involved in the transaction has requested the consent of the Secretary to revoke its section 831(b) election, the transaction is not identified as a listed transaction for purposes of this section and § 1.6011-4(b)(2) for taxable years ending before January 1, 2026.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (2) 
                                <E T="03">Obligations of participants with respect to prior periods.</E>
                                 Pursuant to § 1.6011-4(d) and (e), taxpayers who have filed a tax return (including an amended return) reflecting their participation in transactions described in paragraph (a) of this section prior to January 14, 2025, must disclose the transactions as required by § 1.6011-4(d) and (e) provided that the period of limitations for assessment of tax (as determined under section 6501, including section 6501(c)) for any taxable year in which the taxpayer participated has not ended on or before January 14, 2025, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (h)(2). Taxpayers who have finalized a settlement agreement with the Internal Revenue Service with respect to the transaction, in examination or litigation, will be treated as having made the disclosure for years subject to that agreement.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (3) 
                                <E T="03">Obligations of material advisors with respect to prior periods.</E>
                                 Material advisors defined in § 301.6111-3(b) of this chapter who have previously made a tax statement with respect to a transaction described in paragraph (a) of this section have disclosure and list 
                                <PRTPAGE P="3562"/>
                                maintenance obligations as described in §§ 301.6111-3 and 301.6112-1 of this chapter, respectively. Notwithstanding § 301.6111-3(b)(4)(i) and (iii) of this chapter, material advisors are required to disclose only if they have made a tax statement on or after the date that is six years before January 14, 2025. Material advisors that are uncertain whether the transaction they are required to disclose should be reported under this section or § 1.6011-11 should disclose under this section and will not be required to disclose a second time if it is later determined that the transaction should have been disclosed under § 1.6011-11.
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <REGTEXT TITLE="26" PART="1">
                        <AMDPAR>
                            <E T="04">Par. 3.</E>
                             Section 1.6011-11 is added to read as follows:
                        </AMDPAR>
                        <SECTION>
                            <SECTNO>§ 1.6011-11</SECTNO>
                            <SUBJECT>Micro-captive transaction of interest.</SUBJECT>
                            <P>
                                (a) 
                                <E T="03">Identification as transaction of interest.</E>
                                 Transactions that are the same as, or Substantially Similar to, transactions described in paragraph (c) of this section are identified as transactions of interest for purposes of § 1.6011-4(b)(6), except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (b) 
                                <E T="03">Definitions.</E>
                                 The definitions in this paragraph (b) apply for purposes of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (1) 
                                <E T="03">Captive. Captive</E>
                                 has the same meaning as provided in § 1.6011-10(b)(1).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (2) 
                                <E T="03">Computation periods—</E>
                                (i) 
                                <E T="03">Financing Computation Period. Financing Computation Period</E>
                                 has the same meaning as provided in § 1.6011-10(b)(2)(i).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (ii) 
                                <E T="03">Transaction of Interest Loss Ratio Computation Period.</E>
                                 The term 
                                <E T="03">Transaction of Interest Loss Ratio Computation Period</E>
                                 means—
                            </P>
                            <P>(A) The most recent ten taxable years of a Captive; or</P>
                            <P>(B) In the case of a Captive that has been in existence for less than ten taxable years, all taxable year(s) of the Captive.</P>
                            <P>
                                (iii) 
                                <E T="03">Rules for computation periods.</E>
                                 The rules provided in § 1.6011-10(b)(2)(iii) and (iv) for computation periods apply for purposes of this paragraph (b)(2).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (3) 
                                <E T="03">Contract. Contract</E>
                                 has the same meaning as provided in § 1.6011-10(b)(3).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (4) 
                                <E T="03">Insured. Insured</E>
                                 has the same meaning as provided in § 1.6011-10(b)(4).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (5) 
                                <E T="03">Intermediary. Intermediary</E>
                                 has the same meaning as provided in § 1.6011-10(b)(5).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (6) 
                                <E T="03">Owner. Owner</E>
                                 has the same meaning as provided in § 1.6011-10(b)(6).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (7) 
                                <E T="03">Recipient. Recipient</E>
                                 has the same meaning as provided in § 1.6011-10(b)(7).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (8) 
                                <E T="03">Related. Related</E>
                                 has the same meaning as provided in § 1.6011-10(b)(8).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (9) 
                                <E T="03">Seller. Seller</E>
                                 has the same meaning as provided in § 1.6011-10(b)(9).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (10) 
                                <E T="03">Seller's Captive. Seller's Captive</E>
                                 has the same meaning as provided in § 1.6011-10(b)(10).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (11) 
                                <E T="03">Substantially Similar. Substantially Similar</E>
                                 has the same meaning as provided in § 1.6011-10(b)(11).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (12) 
                                <E T="03">Unrelated Customers. Unrelated Customers</E>
                                 has the same meaning as provided in § 1.6011-10(b)(12).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (c) 
                                <E T="03">Transaction description.</E>
                                 A transaction is described in this paragraph (c) if the transaction is described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, paragraph (c)(2) of this section, or both.
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) The transaction involves a Captive that, at any time during the Captive's Financing Computation Period, directly or indirectly, engages in a transaction described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, taking into account paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) The Captive made available as financing or otherwise conveyed or agreed to make available or convey to a Recipient, in a transaction that did not result in taxable income or gain to the Recipient, in whole or in part, any portion of the amounts received under a Contract, such as through a guarantee, a loan, or other transfer of Captive's capital, or made such financings or conveyances prior to the Financing Computation Period that remain outstanding or in effect at any point in the taxable year for which disclosure is required.</P>
                            <P>(ii) Any amounts that a Captive made available as financing or otherwise conveyed or agreed to make available or convey to a Recipient are presumed to be portions of the amounts received under a Contract to the extent such amounts, when made available or conveyed are in excess of a Captive's cumulative after-tax net investment earnings minus any outstanding financings or conveyances.</P>
                            <P>(2) The transaction involves a Captive for which the amount described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section is less than 60 percent of the amount described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>(i) The amount of liabilities incurred for insured losses and claim administration expenses during the Transaction of Interest Loss Ratio Computation Period.</P>
                            <P>(ii) The amount equal to premiums earned by the Captive during the Transaction of Interest Loss Ratio Computation Period, less policyholder dividends paid by the Captive during the Transaction of Interest Loss Ratio Computation Period.</P>
                            <P>
                                (d) 
                                <E T="03">Exceptions.</E>
                                 A transaction described in paragraph (c) of this section is not identified as a transaction of interest for purposes of this section and § 1.6011-4(b)(6) if the transaction:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Is described in § 1.6011-10(d)(1);</P>
                            <P>(2) Is described in § 1.6011-10(d)(2); or</P>
                            <P>(3) Is identified as a listed transaction in § 1.6011-10(a), in which case the transaction must be reported as a listed transaction under § 1.6011-10.</P>
                            <P>
                                (e) 
                                <E T="03">Bright-line rules.</E>
                                 A transaction is not considered Substantially Similar (as defined in paragraph (b)(11) of this section) to the transaction of interest identified in this section if the transaction:
                            </P>
                            <P>(1) Does not involve an entity that has elected under section 831(b) of the Internal Revenue Code (Code) to include in taxable income only taxable investment income (defined in section 834 of the Code) in lieu of the tax imposed under section 831(a); or</P>
                            <P>(2) Involves a Captive for which the amount described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section is 60 percent or more of the amount described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section.</P>
                            <P>
                                (f) 
                                <E T="03">Special participation rules—</E>
                                (1) 
                                <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                 Whether a taxpayer has participated in the transaction of interest identified in paragraph (a) of this section, including Substantially Similar transactions, will be determined under § 1.6011-4(c)(3)(i)(E). Participants include, but are not limited to, any Owner, Insured, Captive, or Intermediary with respect to the transaction whose tax return reflects tax consequences or a tax strategy identified in paragraph (a), except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (f)(2) and (3) of this section.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (2) 
                                <E T="03">Disclosure safe harbor for Owners.</E>
                                 An Owner who, solely by reason of the Owner's direct or indirect ownership interest in an Insured, has participated in the transaction of interest described in this section will not be required to disclose participation in the transaction under section 6011(a), notwithstanding § 1.6011-4(c)(3), if the Owner receives acknowledgment, in writing or electronically, from the Insured that the Insured has or will comply with Insured's separate disclosure obligation under § 1.6011-4 with respect to the transaction and the Insured discloses the transaction in a timely manner. The acknowledgment can be a copy of the Form 8886, 
                                <E T="03">Reportable Transaction Disclosure Statement</E>
                                 (or successor 
                                <PRTPAGE P="3563"/>
                                form), filed (or to be filed) by the Insured and must be received by the Owner prior to the time set forth in § 1.6011-4(e) in which the Owner would otherwise be required to provide disclosure.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (3) 
                                <E T="03">Disclosure safe harbor for taxpayers in transactions with revoked section 831(b) elections.</E>
                                 If the Captive has revoked its section 831(b) election, taxpayers who participated in the transaction of interest with respect to that Captive, including any Insureds, Owners, and Intermediaries, will not be considered participants in the transaction under section 6011(a), notwithstanding § 1.6011-4(c)(3), for any taxable year in which the section 831(b) revocation is effective, provided that a successor Captive has not been established as described in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section (referencing § 1.6011-10(b)(2)(iii) and (iv)).
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (g) 
                                <E T="03">Disclosure requirements.</E>
                                 Participants must provide the information required under § 1.6011-4(d) and the Instructions to Form 8886 (or successor form). For all participants, describing the transaction in sufficient detail includes, but is not limited to, describing on Form 8886 (or successor form) when, how, and from whom the participant became aware of the transaction, and how the participant participated in the transaction (for example, as an Insured, a Captive, or other participant). A Captive and an Insured must also provide the information required in § 1.6011-10(g)(2) and (3), respectively.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (h) 
                                <E T="03">Applicability date—</E>
                                (1) 
                                <E T="03">In general.</E>
                                 This section identifies transactions that are the same as, or Substantially Similar to, the transaction identified in paragraph (a) of this section as transactions of interest for purposes of § 1.6011-4(b)(6) effective January 14, 2025, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (h)(1). If, on or before the date prescribed for filing disclosure statements with the Office of Tax Shelter Analysis under § 1.6011-4(e), the Captive involved in the transaction has requested the consent of the Secretary to revoke its section 831(b) election, the transaction is not identified as a transaction of interest for purposes of this section and § 1.6011-4(b)(6) for participants with respect to that Captive for taxable years ending before January 1, 2026.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (2) 
                                <E T="03">Obligations of participants with respect to prior periods.</E>
                                 Pursuant to § 1.6011-4(d) and (e), taxpayers who have filed a tax return (including an amended return) reflecting their participation in transactions described in paragraph (a) of this section prior to January 14, 2025, must disclose the transactions as required by § 1.6011-4(d) and (e) provided that the period of limitations for assessment of tax (as determined under section 6501 of the Code, including section 6501(c)) for any taxable year in which the taxpayer participated has not ended on or before January 14, 2025, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (h)(2). Taxpayers who have finalized a settlement agreement with the Internal Revenue Service with respect to the transaction, in examination or litigation, will be treated as having made the disclosure for years subject to that agreement. Taxpayers who have filed a disclosure statement regarding their participation in the transaction with the Office of Tax Shelter Analysis pursuant to Notice 2016-66, 2016-47 I.R.B. 745, will be treated as having made the disclosure pursuant to the final regulations for the taxable years for which the taxpayer filed returns before January 14, 2025. If a taxpayer described in the preceding sentence participates in the Micro-captive Transaction of Interest in a taxable year for which the taxpayer files a return on or after January 14, 2025, the taxpayer must file a disclosure statement with the Office of Tax Shelter Analysis at the same time the taxpayer files their return for the first such taxable year.
                            </P>
                            <P>
                                (3) 
                                <E T="03">Obligations of material advisors with respect to prior periods.</E>
                                 Material advisors defined in § 301.6111-3(b) of this chapter who have previously made a tax statement with respect to a transaction described in paragraph (a) of this section have disclosure and list maintenance obligations as described in §§ 301.6111-3 and 301.6112-1 of this chapter, respectively. Notwithstanding § 301.6111-3(b)(4)(i) and (iii) of this chapter, material advisors are required to disclose only if they have made a tax statement on or after the date that is six years before January 14, 2025. Material advisors that are uncertain whether the transaction they are required to disclose should be reported under this section or § 1.6011-10 should disclose under § 1.6011-10 and will not be required to disclose a second time if it is later determined that the transaction should have been disclosed under this section.
                            </P>
                        </SECTION>
                    </REGTEXT>
                    <SIG>
                        <NAME>Douglas W. O'Donnell,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Deputy Commissioner.</TITLE>
                        <DATED>Approved: January 3, 2025.</DATED>
                        <NAME>Aviva R. Aron-Dine,</NAME>
                        <TITLE>Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Treasury (Tax Policy).</TITLE>
                    </SIG>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00393 Filed 1-10-25; 4:15 pm]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4830-01-P</BILCOD>
            </RULE>
        </RULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>8</NO>
    <DATE>Tuesday, January 14, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Proposed Rules</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="3565"/>
            <PARTNO>Part VIII</PARTNO>
            <AGENCY TYPE="P"> Consumer Financial Protection Bureau</AGENCY>
            <CFR>12 CFR Part 1027</CFR>
            <TITLE>Prohibited Terms and Conditions in Agreements for Consumer Financial Products or Services (Regulation AA); Proposed Rule</TITLE>
        </PTITLE>
        <PRORULES>
            <PRORULE>
                <PREAMB>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3566"/>
                    <AGENCY TYPE="S">CONSUMER FINANCIAL PROTECTION BUREAU</AGENCY>
                    <CFR>12 CFR Part 1027</CFR>
                    <DEPDOC>[Docket No. CFPB-2025-0002]</DEPDOC>
                    <RIN>RIN 3170-AB23</RIN>
                    <SUBJECT>Prohibited Terms and Conditions in Agreements for Consumer Financial Products or Services (Regulation AA)</SUBJECT>
                    <AGY>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">AGENCY:</HD>
                        <P>Consumer Financial Protection Bureau.</P>
                    </AGY>
                    <ACT>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ACTION:</HD>
                        <P>Proposed rule; request for comment.</P>
                    </ACT>
                    <SUM>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">SUMMARY:</HD>
                        <P>The Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB) is proposing to prohibit certain contractual provisions in agreements for consumer financial products or services. The proposal would prohibit covered persons from including in their contracts any provisions purporting to waive substantive consumer legal rights and protections (or their remedies) granted by State or Federal law. The proposal would also prohibit contract terms that limit free expression, including with threats of account closure, fines, or breach of contract claims, as well as other contract terms. The proposal would also codify certain longstanding prohibitions under the Federal Trade Commission's (FTC) Credit Practices Rule.</P>
                    </SUM>
                    <EFFDATE>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">DATES:</HD>
                        <P>Comments must be received on or before April 1, 2025.</P>
                    </EFFDATE>
                    <ADD>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">ADDRESSES:</HD>
                        <P>You may submit comments, identified by Docket No. CFPB-2025-0002 or RIN 3170-AB23, by any of the following methods:</P>
                        <P>
                            • 
                            <E T="03">Federal eRulemaking Portal: https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                             Follow the instructions for submitting comments. A brief summary of this document will be available at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov/docket/CFPB-2025-0002.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            • 
                            <E T="03">Email: 2025-NPRM-REGAA@cfpb.gov</E>
                            . Include Docket No. CFPB-2025-0002 or RIN 3170-AB23 in the subject line of the message.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            • 
                            <E T="03">Mail/Hand Delivery/Courier:</E>
                             Comment Intake—Prohibited Terms and Conditions in Agreements for Consumer Financial Products or Services (Regulation AA), c/o Legal Division Docket Manager, Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552.
                        </P>
                        <P>
                            <E T="03">Instructions:</E>
                             The CFPB encourages the early submission of comments. All submissions should include the agency name and docket number or Regulatory Information Number (RIN) for this rulemaking. Commenters are encouraged to submit comments electronically. In general, all comments received will be posted without change to 
                            <E T="03">https://www.regulations.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                        <P>All submissions, including attachments and other supporting materials, will become part of the public record and subject to public disclosure. Proprietary information or sensitive personal information, such as account numbers or Social Security numbers, or names of other individuals, should not be included. Submissions will not be edited to remove any identifying or contact information.</P>
                    </ADD>
                    <FURINF>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:</HD>
                        <P>
                            George Karithanom, Regulatory Implementation and Guidance Program Analyst, Office of Regulations, at 202-435-7700. If you require this document in an alternative electronic format, please contact 
                            <E T="03">CFPB_Accessibility@cfpb.gov.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FURINF>
                </PREAMB>
                <SUPLINF>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">I. Summary of the Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        Consumer finance companies often limit or restrict individual freedoms and rights by including coercive terms and conditions in contracts of adhesion. These types of contracts—which are ubiquitous in transactions for consumer financial products or services—are drafted by the companies or their lawyers and presented to consumers on a “take it or leave it” basis. Form contracts can create operational efficiencies for large businesses, but in recent years they have been used to constrain fundamental freedoms and rights that are recognized and protected under the U.S. Constitution and statutory and common law. While the Bill of Rights, with limited exceptions, only protects people from government actions, jurists have long recognized affirmative obligations regarding certain private actors,
                        <SU>1</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and scholars and jurists are increasingly recognizing that corporate intrusion into historically recognized individual rights poses a similar threat as government intrusion.
                        <SU>2</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Clauses buried in the fine print of these contracts can have dramatic consequences for consumers—for instance, by waiving statutory protections passed by elected officials in Federal or State government, by surrendering due process rights upon default, by undermining consumers' right to contract and giving companies the power to unilaterally amend material terms of the contract at any time, or by constraining consumers' ability to exercise free speech. These clauses usually provide little or no benefit to consumers, but they can be valuable to companies by insulating them from accountability or advancing managers' political interests.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>1</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See generally Ganesh</E>
                             Sitaraman, 
                            <E T="03">Deplatforming,</E>
                             113 Yale L.J. 497 (2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>2</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Tunku Varadarajan, 
                            <E T="03">The `Common Carrier' Solution to Social-Media Censorship,</E>
                             Wall St. J. (Jan. 15, 2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.wsj.com/articles/the-common-carrier-solution-to-social-media-censorship-11610732343</E>
                             (interviewing Richard Epstein); 
                            <E T="03">Biden</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Knight First Amend. Inst.,</E>
                             141 S. Ct. 1220, 1222-24 (2021) (Thomas, J., concurring) (raising concerns about the ability of companies to constrain free speech and recognizing that doctrines involving common carriers or public accommodation may be an appropriate solution).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Federal and State legislatures and regulators have taken action against these kinds of one-sided terms in consumer contracts. For instance, the FTC issued in 1984 a rule commonly known as the “Credit Practices Rule,” which prohibited certain creditor remedies in consumer credit contracts.
                        <SU>3</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Congress has also enacted numerous statutes limiting companies' ability to use certain one-sided contract terms, such as through inclusion of anti-waiver provisions in several consumer financial laws 
                        <SU>4</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and passage of the Consumer Review Fairness Act of 2016, which prohibits companies that use form contracts from restricting consumers' right to provide negative reviews.
                        <SU>5</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB has also recently issued guidance warning companies that they could violate the law by using unenforceable terms and conditions in their consumer contracts, including terms and conditions in violation of the Consumer Review Fairness Act.
                        <SU>6</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>3</SU>
                             Credit Practices Rule, 49 FR 7740 (Mar. 1, 1984).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>4</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             10 U.S.C. 987(e)(2) (expressly prohibiting waivers of right to recourse under any State or Federal law in contracts with covered servicemembers).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>5</SU>
                             Public Law 114-258, codified at 15 U.S.C. 45b.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>6</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">CFPB Consumer Financial Protection Circular 2024-03, Unlawful and unenforceable contract terms and conditions,</E>
                             (June 4, 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/compliance/circulars/consumer-financial-protection-circular-2024-03/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        While defenders of civil liberties rightly focus on the risk of government infringement on constitutional freedoms, the CFPB is also concerned about large consumer financial companies' use of contracts of adhesion to curtail those same rights, especially due process, the freedom to benefit from a contract, the rule of law as established by democratically elected officials, and free expression. The CFPB is also concerned that certain terms used in these contracts deny consumers the benefits of a free market—one that is “fair, transparent, and competitive.” 
                        <SU>7</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Under the CFPA, the CFPB may issue rules applicable to providers of consumer financial products or services (known as “covered persons” under the statute) to identify and prevent “unfair, 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3567"/>
                        deceptive, or abusive acts or practices.” 
                        <SU>8</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB is relying on this authority in this proposed rule to protect consumers from harms that often arise from contracts of adhesion used to constrain fundamental rights and freedoms.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>7</SU>
                             12 U.S.C. 5511(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>8</SU>
                             12 U.S.C. 5531(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        First, the CFPB is proposing to codify the Credit Practices Rule as applied to covered persons subject to the CFPA. As noted above, the FTC first issued the Credit Practices Rule in 1984. Although that rule applied only to creditors within the FTC's jurisdiction, banking regulators subsequently issued their own credit practices rules applicable to banks, Federal credit unions, and savings associations.
                        <SU>9</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The rules issued by the banking regulators were repealed upon enactment of the CFPA (which transferred those agencies' consumer financial protection authorities to the CFPB). However, in 2014 the Federal financial regulators—including the CFPB—issued joint interagency guidance clarifying that financial institutions could violate the law by including in consumer credit contracts any provisions prohibited by the Credit Practices Rule.
                        <SU>10</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Thus, in this proposed rule, the CFPB is codifying the Credit Practices Rule with regard to all covered persons, and the CFPB does not anticipate that this provision of the rule will have a substantial material effect on the market as covered persons are already likely to be in compliance with these prohibitions.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>9</SU>
                             These regulations were previously codified at: 12 CFR 227.11 through 227.16 (part of Regulation AA) (banks); 12 CFR 535.1 through 535.5 (savings associations); 12 CFR 706.1 through 706.5 (Federal credit unions).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>10</SU>
                             Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve, et al. 
                            <E T="03">Interagency Guidance Regarding Unfair or Deceptive Credit Practices</E>
                             (Aug. 22, 2014), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.federalreserve.gov/newsevents/pressreleases/files/bcreg20140822a2.pdf.</E>
                             The guidance highlighted that the repeal of the banking regulators' credit practices rules “should not be construed as a determination by the Agencies that the credit practices described in [the] former regulations are permissible” and that “the Agencies may determine that statutory violations exist even in the absence of a specific regulation governing the conduct.” 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 2.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Second, the CFPB is proposing to forbid covered persons from including in their consumer contracts any terms or conditions that purport to waive substantive legal rights and protections, that reserve to the covered person the right to unilaterally amend a material term of the contract, or that restrain a consumer's lawful free expression. The CFPB has preliminarily concluded that use of these clauses may constitute an unfair or deceptive act or practice.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB requests comment on all aspects of the proposal.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">II. Background for Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Contracts of Adhesion</HD>
                    <P>
                        In today's consumer economy, contracts of adhesion are inescapable. In banking, retail, insurance, health care, travel, or virtually any other sector, they are ubiquitous in everyday transactions. A contract of adhesion is a standard-form contract for a product or service with a fixed set of terms or conditions. The contract—which is often lengthy, complex, and full of boilerplate language or fine print—will have been drafted by the company and is presented to the consumer on a “take it or leave it” basis. The consumer usually has little ability to read the contract and no opportunity to negotiate its terms.
                        <SU>11</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         If the consumer wants the product or service offered by the company, they must accept the contract's terms in totality. The company will use the same standard-form contract for every consumer with respect to the product or service at issue and will typically enter into thousands (or even millions) of versions of the same contract with its consumers. Altogether, the elements of a contract of adhesion create a deep imbalance of power between the contracting parties. “[O]n the one side there is the ordinary individual and on the other a monopoly or powerful organi[z]ation with desirable goods or services to supply. The choice between not making a contract or making it on the only terms available is no choice at all.” 
                        <SU>12</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>11</SU>
                             Todd D. Rakoff, 
                            <E T="03">Contracts of Adhesion: An Essay in Reconstruction,</E>
                             96 Harv. L. Rev. 1173, 1176-77 (1983) (defining a contract of adhesion).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>12</SU>
                             H.B. Sales, 
                            <E T="03">Standard Form Contracts,</E>
                             16 Mod. L. Rev. 318 (1953).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In the experience of the CFPB, contracts of adhesion are widely used in the market for consumer financial products and services. When consumers want to take out a mortgage, apply for a new credit card, open a checking account, subscribe to a digital payment app, or engage in any type of routine consumer financial transaction, they are almost always presented with a standard-form contract. The FTC noted four decades ago that consumer finance companies “[u]niversally make use of standardized forms in extending credit to consumer[s]. These forms are prepared for creditors or obtained by them, and the completed contract is presented to the prospective borrower on a `take it or leave it basis.' ” 
                        <SU>13</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         More recently, the U.S. Supreme Court observed that “the times in which consumer contracts were anything other than adhesive are long past.” 
                        <SU>14</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>13</SU>
                             49 FR 7745.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>14</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">AT&amp;T Mobility LLC</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Concepcion,</E>
                             563 U.S. 333, 346-47 (2011).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Standard-form contracts have long been used in the consumer marketplace, and standardization does not necessarily undermine consumer welfare. Standard-form contracts can lower transaction costs by making transactions more uniform, efficient, and expedient. Indeed, given the size and transaction volume of the consumer economy, it would be impractical for consumer contracts to be drafted and negotiated on an individual basis. “The costs of negotiating with each customer would surely outweigh the benefits that would result from individually tailored contracts.” 
                        <SU>15</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>15</SU>
                             49 FR 7746.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>But many standard-form contracts are used in consumer transactions today to do more than just establish the terms for the basic structure of a business relationship. They are also used to give large corporations undue economic advantage and constrain the personal autonomy and freedom of individual consumers. Because companies (and their lawyers) draft standard-form contracts, they have broad discretion in what terms and conditions to include. Contracts of adhesion will, of course, contain the “deal terms” of the transaction between the consumer and the company, which consumers are typically aware of in contrast to fine print clauses. For example, in a consumer credit transaction, the contract would include the amount borrowed, the repayment amount, the interest rate, and the repayment schedule. But over time, companies have realized that they could also include other ancillary terms and conditions that limit consumer rights and protections and shield the company from legal liability. These types of clauses have little to do with administering the transaction between the company and consumer, and they are almost always one-sided. They benefit or insulate the company but provide little, if any, added value to the consumer.</P>
                    <P>
                        In particular, with the advent of online contracting, companies are more readily able to use standard-form contracts to protect their own economic interests.
                        <SU>16</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Today, many transactions occur electronically, and online contracting with features such as “click-through” contracts are the norm, making 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3568"/>
                        it easy for consumers to provide their electronic assent to contracts of adhesion. The electronic medium has encouraged many companies to add even more fine-print terms into those contracts. “Because it is now trivial to attach a complex, one-sided `contract' to virtually any consumer transaction, more and more companies do so.” 
                        <SU>17</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Electronic contracting also makes it more difficult for consumers to understand these contracts. The terms and conditions in electronic form contracts may not be visible on the page where the consumer is asked to indicate their agreement; consumers may be required to do additional clicking or downloading to view the terms and conditions. Some terms or conditions may be de-emphasized. In some cases, companies may also engage in risky digital design practices—termed “dark patterns”—that obscure certain terms and conditions in adhesion contracts or the adhesion contract itself.
                        <SU>18</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>16</SU>
                             Recent research suggests the problem of one-sided contracts is a growing phenomenon. 
                            <E T="03">See e.g.,</E>
                             Tim R. Samples et al., 
                            <E T="03">TL;DR: The Law and Linguistics of Social Platform Terms-of-Use,</E>
                             39 Berkeley Tech. L.J. 47, 105 (2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>17</SU>
                             Mark A. Lemley, 
                            <E T="03">The Benefit of the Bargain,</E>
                             2023 Wis. L. Rev. 237, 256 (2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>18</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See generally</E>
                             FTC Staff Report, 
                            <E T="03">Bringing Dark Patterns to Light,</E>
                             at 7 (Sept. 1, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Given the complexity of fine print terms in contracts of adhesion, it should come as no surprise that consumers do not really provide meaningful assent to these terms. As many academic studies have shown, the vast majority of consumers pay little or no attention to such terms when reviewing or signing a standard-form contract. In one prominent study, the authors examined the extent to which potential buyers of software read End User License Agreements (EULAs), which are contracts that govern the use of software products. The study tracked nearly 50,000 consumers across 90 software companies, and found that 0.2 percent of consumers access the EULA for at least one second.
                        <SU>19</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Two recent studies found that online contracts are often unreadable according to scientific readability standards and lack basic organizational features like a table of contents or useful headings to help consumers locate important information in the contract.
                        <SU>20</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To the extent consumers read a standard-form contract at all, they are likely to focus on salient terms such as price.
                        <SU>21</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>19</SU>
                             Yannis Bakos et al., 
                            <E T="03">Does Anyone Read the Fine Print?, Testing a Law and Economics Approach to Standard Form Contracts,</E>
                             43 U. Chicago J. of Legal Studies 1, 3 (2014); 
                            <E T="03">see also, e.g.,</E>
                             Carl Schneider &amp; Omri Ben-Shahar, 
                            <E T="03">The Failure of Mandated Disclosure,</E>
                             159 U. Penn. L. Rev. 647, 671 (2011) (reciting research that “suggests that almost no consumers read [contract] boilerplate, even when it is fully and conspicuously disclosed”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>20</SU>
                             Uri Benoliel &amp; Shmuel Becher, 
                            <E T="03">The Duty to Read the Unreadable,</E>
                             60 B.C. L. Rev. 2255, 2277-78 (2019); Uri Benoliel &amp; Shmuel Becher, 
                            <E T="03">Messy Contracts,</E>
                             2024 U. of Ill. L. Rev. 893, 917-18 (2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>21</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             George L. Priest, 
                            <E T="03">A Theory of the Consumer Product Warranty,</E>
                             90 Yale L.J. 1297, 1304-06 (1981).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Nor is it feasible for consumers to comparison-shop for fine print terms. As an initial matter, many providers in a market may use similar terms, making comparison-shopping a futile exercise.
                        <SU>22</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         “If 80 percent of creditors include a certain clause in their contracts, for example, even the consumer who examines contracts from three different sellers has a less than even chance of finding a contract without the clause.” 
                        <SU>23</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         And even if consumers were to try to compare such terms, they would often find it difficult to do so because companies draft them using complex language and terminology.
                        <SU>24</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Moreover, many fine-print terms relate to consequences that would occur only if the consumer breaches the contract or a problem with the transaction otherwise surfaces. Consumers can find it difficult to predict or envision such scenarios ex ante, meaning that fine-print terms may not resonate with consumers when they initially enter into an agreement with a provider.
                        <SU>25</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>22</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See generally</E>
                             Marcel Kahan &amp; Michael Klausner, 
                            <E T="03">Standardization and Innovation in Corporate Contracting (or “The Economics of Boilerplate”),</E>
                             83 Va. L. Rev. 713 (1997) (discussing network effects which promote use of inefficient boilerplate); 
                            <E T="03">see also</E>
                             Benoliel and Becher, 
                            <E T="03">The Duty to Read the Unreadable, supra</E>
                             note 20, at 2291-94.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>23</SU>
                             49 FR 7746.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>24</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 7746-47.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>25</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 7747.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        For decades, courts, regulators, and scholars have warned about the risks and dangers associated with contracts of adhesion. Perhaps the most famous such pronouncement is the D.C. Circuit's decision in 
                        <E T="03">Williams</E>
                         v. 
                        <E T="03">Walker-Thomas Furniture Co.</E>
                        <SU>26</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In that case, the consumers had purchased items from a furniture store on a lease-to-own basis, and the agreement—which was a standard-form contract—provided that title to the items would remain with the store until monthly payments equaled the stated value of the items. When the consumers did not make all the payments, the store sued them to take repossession of the property. The consumers claimed the contract was unenforceable because it was unconscionable. Reversing the lower court, the D.C. Circuit explained that contracts of adhesion can be invalidated on grounds of unconscionability when they are “unfair”:
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>26</SU>
                             350 F.2d 445 (D.C. Cir. 1965).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>
                            Unconscionability has generally been recognized to include an absence of meaningful choice on the part of one of the parties together with contract terms which are unreasonably favorable to the other party . . . . In many cases the meaningfulness of the choice is negated by a gross inequality of bargaining power. The manner in which the contract was entered is also relevant to this consideration. Did each party to the contract, considering his obvious education or lack of it, have a reasonable opportunity to understand the terms of the contract, or were the important terms hidden in a maze of fine print and minimized by deceptive sales practices? Ordinarily, one who signs an agreement without full knowledge of its terms might be held to assume the risk that he has entered a one-sided bargain. But when a party of little bargaining power, and hence little real choice, signs a commercially unreasonable contract with little or no knowledge of its terms, it is hardly likely that his consent, or even an objective manifestation of his consent, was ever given to all the terms. In such a case the usual rule that the terms of the agreement are not to be questioned should be abandoned and the court should consider whether the terms of the contract are so unfair that enforcement should be withheld.
                            <SU>27</SU>
                            <FTREF/>
                        </P>
                        <FTNT>
                            <P>
                                <SU>27</SU>
                                 
                                <E T="03">Id.</E>
                                 at 449-50.
                            </P>
                        </FTNT>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <P>Unfair boilerplate terms in contracts of adhesion were also the basis for the FTC's Credit Practices Rule. As discussed in additional detail below in section IV, the Credit Practices Rule prohibited lenders from using certain remedial provisions in consumer credit contracts, including confessions of judgment, waivers of exemption, wage assignments, and security interests in household goods. Based on an extensive evidentiary record, the FTC concluded that these clauses were unlawful because lenders' uses of such clauses were unfair acts or practices.</P>
                    <P>
                        This view is also encapsulated in the recently adopted Restatement of Consumer Contracts, which warns that “consumer contracts present a fundamental challenge to the law of contracts, arising from the asymmetry in information, sophistication, and stakes between the parties to these contracts—the business and the consumers.” 
                        <SU>28</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         On one side of the transaction “stands a well-informed and counseled business party, entering numerous identical transactions, with the tools and sophistication to understand and draft detailed legal terms and design practices that serve its commercial goals,” while on the other “stand consumers who are informed only about some core aspects of the transaction, but rarely about the list of standard terms.” 
                        <SU>29</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Restatement thus notes that “[b]ecause consumers rarely read or review the non-core standard contract terms, . . . the doctrine of unconscionability is a primary tool against the inclusion of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3569"/>
                        intolerable terms in a consumer contract.” 
                        <SU>30</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>28</SU>
                             Restatement of the Law, Consumer Contracts, Introduction (Am. L. Inst. 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>29</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>30</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             section 6 cmt.1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. The Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>There are many types of fine print terms and conditions in contracts of adhesion. The CFPB's proposal does not seek to prescribe all of these terms. Rather, the CFPB is proposing to re-codify the Credit Practices Rule under Regulation AA to reinforce the prohibition of certain contract clauses that, for example, impede on consumers' right to due process, and is adding to Regulation AA additional prohibited clauses that implicate other fundamental or constitutional rights. This includes:</P>
                    <P>• Clauses that waive provisions of law designed by democratically elected officials to benefit or protect consumers.</P>
                    <P>• Clauses that reserve a company's discretion to amend a material term of the contract unilaterally.</P>
                    <P>• Clauses that restrain a consumer's free expression by, for example, limiting a consumer's right to provide a negative review or even engage in certain disfavored political speech.</P>
                    <P>While companies may view these clauses as a way to save money or limit liability, for consumers these clauses have significant impacts—they implicate fundamental principles of personal freedom and democratic governance. For example, clauses limiting free expression restrict citizens' ability to exercise free speech that government agencies could not prohibit under the First Amendment. Clauses that permit lenders to take citizens' unsecured property without any due process or just compensation amounts to a private taking—were the company a Federal government actor, it would potentially violate the Due Process and Takings Clauses of the Fifth Amendment. Citizens' freedom to benefit from a contract is undermined when a counterparty can unilaterally change the core terms of a contract at any time without notice and consent. And the rule of law, as established by democratically elected State and Federal legislatures, is undermined if large companies can nullify those laws in consumer contracts.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB has authority to issue rules to prevent unfair or deceptive acts or practices by providers of consumer financial products or services (known as “covered persons”).
                        <SU>31</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Under that authority, the CFPB proposes to prohibit covered persons from including, using, enforcing, or otherwise relying on these types of clauses in a contract for a consumer financial product or service.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>31</SU>
                             12 U.S.C. 5531(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Lastly, one of the reasons for proposing this rule is to grant State law enforcement new authority to enforce the existing Credit Practices Rule and the additional prohibitions against national banks.
                        <SU>32</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         State attorneys general cannot yet use the CFPA's substantial remedies, including Civil Money Penalties,
                        <SU>33</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         to stop some of the largest banks in the country (which are national banks) from, for example, using confessions of judgment or debanking a consumer for inappropriate reasons. This rule, if finalized, would grant State attorneys general that authority pursuant to section 1042(a) of the CFPA.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>32</SU>
                             State attorneys general and regulators usually have authority to enforce the prohibition against unfair, deceptive, or abusive acts or practices in the CFPA. 12 U.S.C. 5552(a). However, State officials 
                            <E T="03">may not</E>
                             bring a civil action against a national bank or Federal savings association for violations of the CFPA, 
                            <E T="03">unless</E>
                             it is under a regulation prescribed by the CFPB. 12 U.S.C. 5552(a)(2)(A) and (B). Thus, while many of the practices in this rulemaking are already enforceable by the CFPB against national banks and other covered persons, State officials cannot bring an action under the CFPA to prevent these practices if used by national banks until the CFPB codifies the prohibitions by rule.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>33</SU>
                             12 U.S.C. 5565(c) (creating penalty authority of up to $5,000 per violation per day, $25,000 per violation per day if the violations are “recklessly” committed, and $1,000,000 per violation per day if the violations are “knowingly” committed).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">III. Consultation With Other Agencies</HD>
                    <P>In developing this proposed rule, the CFPB has consulted with the Federal Trade Commission (FTC), as well as with the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), the National Credit Union Administration (NCUA), and the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) on, among other things, consistency with any prudential, market, or systemic objectives administered by such agencies.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IV. Scope of Proposed Rule</HD>
                    <P>
                        The proposed rule would generally apply to “covered persons” under the CFPA (subject to certain exceptions discussed below). A covered person is “(A) any person that engages in offering or providing a consumer financial product or service; and (B) any affiliate of a person described in subparagraph (A) if such affiliate acts as a service provider to such person.” 
                        <SU>34</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPA covers a broad array of financial products or services offered or provided to consumers, including (but not limited to) credit, real or personal property leases, real estate settlement services, deposits, payment processing, and credit reporting.
                        <SU>35</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Subject to certain exceptions discussed below, any person offering or providing such a consumer financial product or service—or an affiliate of such a person acting as a service provider to the person—would thus be covered by the proposed rule. Such a person would be subject to the prohibition on certain credit practices discussed in section V and the prohibition on certain other terms and conditions in contracts for consumer financial services discussed in section VI. Notably, the practices re-codified from the existing Credit Practices Rule in subpart B only apply with regard to credit transactions, while the additional terms in subpart C apply to all consumer financial products or services including deposit accounts, payments, and other services.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>34</SU>
                             12 U.S.C. 5481(6).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>35</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             12 U.S.C. 5481(15).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Section 1027.102 of the proposed rule would exempt two categories of covered persons from the rule:</P>
                    <P>First, under § 1027.102(a) the rule would not apply to “any person to the extent that it is providing a product or service in circumstances excluded from the CFPB's rulemaking authority pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5517 or 5519.” Under those sections, the CFPB may not exercise its CFPA rulemaking authority over certain persons or activities (which includes rules issued under 12 U.S.C. 5531). The CFPB preliminary concludes that this approach is appropriate because the CFPB lacks authority to apply this rulemaking to such persons or activities. However, this applies only “to the extent” that a person is beyond the CFPB's rulemaking authority. For example, if a covered person offers a consumer financial product or service that is excluded from the CFPB's rulemaking authority under 12 U.S.C. 5517 and another consumer financial product or service that is not excluded, the proposed rule would apply to the covered person's offering or provision of the latter product or service (even though it would not apply to the former).</P>
                    <P>
                        Second, under § 1027.102(b), subpart C of the rulemaking (
                        <E T="03">i.e.,</E>
                         the prohibitions on clauses related to waivers of law, unilateral amendments, and free expression) would not apply to a “small business,” “small organization,” or “small governmental jurisdiction” as those terms are defined in 5 U.S.C. 601. A “small business” has “the same meaning as the term `small business concern' under section 3 of the Small Business Act.” 
                        <SU>36</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A “small business concern” is “one which is independently owned and operated and 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3570"/>
                        which is not dominant in its field of operation,” 
                        <SU>37</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         or which (along with its affiliates) is at or below the Small Business Administration (SBA) standard listed in 13 CFR part 121 for its primary industry as described in 13 CFR 121.107. A “small organization” is “any not-for-profit enterprise which is independently owned and operated and is not dominant in its field.” 
                        <SU>38</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A “small governmental jurisdiction” means “governments of cities, counties, towns, townships, villages, school districts, or special districts, with a population of less than fifty thousand.” 
                        <SU>39</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>36</SU>
                             5 U.S.C. 601(3).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>37</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 632(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>38</SU>
                             5 U.S.C. 601(4).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>39</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             sec. 601(5).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB preliminary concludes that applying subpart C of the proposed rule to large entities would be appropriate because they are capable of imposing their terms on consumers and have more resources to enforce them. Studies have shown that large companies routinely use such terms,
                        <SU>40</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         often applying to thousands or millions of consumers. Furthermore, the threat of the use of private contracting to oppress by constraining fundamental freedoms is greater when a consumer is dealing with a company with more market power and more resources. Large companies are more likely than small companies to have superior bargaining power over consumers, giving them more opportunity to impose one-sided terms in contracts of adhesion. The CFPB intends to monitor the market and determine whether an expansion of coverage to smaller entities may be necessary and appropriate at a later time.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>40</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See e.g.,</E>
                             Samples et. al., 
                            <E T="03">TL;DR: The Law and Linguistics of Social Platform Terms-of-Use, supra</E>
                             note 16, at 105; Andrea J. Boyack, 
                            <E T="03">Abuse of Contract: Boilerplate Erasure of Consumer Counterparty Rights</E>
                             at 51, 
                            <E T="03">https://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=4756735</E>
                             (Mar. 12, 2024) (forthcoming in the. Iowa L. Rev.).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB also considered—but is not proposing—an exception for State or Federal entities. The CFPB is unaware of any government entities that provide consumer financial products or services with contracts that include the terms at issue in this proposal. That is likely the case because doing so could violate various constitutional constraints on government actors, including the First Amendment right to free speech, the right to Due Process, the Takings Clause, and the substantive rights being waived in legal waivers.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB generally seeks comment on the coverage of the proposed rule, including whether the scope should be narrowed or expanded and whether additional exclusions would be appropriate.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">V. Prohibited Credit Practices</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Overview</HD>
                    <P>Subpart B of the proposed rule would codify for covered persons the already existing FTC Credit Practices Rule, which renders unlawful certain remedial provisions in consumer credit contracts.</P>
                    <P>
                        The FTC first issued the Credit Practices Rule in 1984 pursuant to its authority to prohibit unfair or deceptive acts or practices.
                        <SU>41</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The banking regulators subsequently issued their own companion credit practices rules applicable to banks, Federal credit unions, and savings associations.
                        <SU>42</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPA repealed the rulemaking authority of the banking regulators under the FTC Act, and the regulators consequently repealed their rules. However, the banking regulators and the CFPB issued a joint interagency guidance in 2014 clarifying their understanding that those credit practices may continue to violate the prohibition against unfair or deceptive practices in section 5 of the FTC Act and sections 1031 and 1036 of the CFPA.
                        <SU>43</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>41</SU>
                             49 FR 7740.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>42</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             50 FR 16695 (Apr. 29, 1985) (Federal Reserve Board); 50 FR 19325 (May 8, 1985) (FHLBB); 52 FR 35060 (Sept. 17, 1987) (NCUA).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>43</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Interagency Guidance Regarding Unfair or Deceptive Credit Practices, supra</E>
                             note 10.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB now proposes to re-codify the Credit Practices Rule for all covered persons, including those currently subject to the FTC's Credit Practices Rule and other entities formerly subject to the companion rules issued by the banking regulators. This proposal is not expected to change existing business conduct in light of the existing FTC rule and the fact that financial institutions generally continue to treat these contract terms as unlawful.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Discussion</HD>
                    <P>
                        The FTC's Credit Practices Rule was based on an extensive evidentiary record. Over a two-year period, the FTC took testimony from more than 300 witnesses and subpoenaed the credit files of 12 large finance companies.
                        <SU>44</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The FTC explained that “consumers' ability to avoid certain remedies depends on their ability to shop and compare the language of different credit contracts.” However, the FTC also found that—given the prevalence of standard-form contracts in the consumer credit industry—“although consumers may be able to bargain over terms such as the price of credit and the number or size of payments, there is no bargaining over the boilerplate contract terms that define creditor remedies.” 
                        <SU>45</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The FTC concluded that these remedies and practices were unfair because they caused substantial injuries to consumers that were not reasonably avoidable, and offered no countervailing benefits to consumers or competition.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>44</SU>
                             49 FR 7741.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>45</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 7745.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Specifically (and as discussed in more detail below), the FTC's Credit Practices Rule prohibits lenders from using any of the following provisions: a confession of judgment, a waiver of exemption, an assignment of wages, or a security interest in household goods. The rule also prohibits lenders from misrepresenting the nature or extent of cosigner liability to any person or obligating a cosigner unless the cosigner is informed prior to becoming obligated of the nature of the cosigner's liability. Finally, the rule prohibits lenders from levying or collecting any delinquency charge on a payment, when the only delinquency is attributable to late fees or delinquency charges assessed on earlier installments, and the payment is otherwise a full payment for the applicable period and is paid on its due date or within an applicable grace period.</P>
                    <P>
                        The Credit Practices Rule does not apply to banks, savings associations, or Federal credit unions.
                        <SU>46</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, the FTC Act (at the time) also required the Federal Reserve Board, the National Credit Union Administration, and the Federal Home Loan Bank Board (FHLBB) (later superseded by the Office of Thrift Supervision (OTS)) to issue, within 60 days after the FTC issued a rule under its authority to prohibit unfair or deceptive acts or practices, “substantially similar regulations prohibiting acts or practices of banks or savings and loan institutions . . . or Federal credit unions . . ., which are substantially similar to those prohibited by rules of the [FTC].” 
                        <SU>47</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Board, NCUA, and FHLBB adopted such regulations in 1985,
                        <SU>48</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and those rules were codified at 12 CFR parts 227, 706, and 535. In issuing those rules, the agencies did not make new findings, evidence, or conclusions. They relied on the extensive findings by the FTC.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>46</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 45(a)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>47</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             formerly 15 U.S.C. 57a(f)(1).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>48</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             50 FR 16696 (Apr. 29, 1985) (Federal Reserve Board); 50 FR 19325 (May 8, 1985) (FHLBB); 52 FR 35060 (Sept. 17, 1987) (NCUA).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In 2010, the CFPA transferred Federal consumer protection functions from the Board, OTS, NCUA, and other Federal agencies to the CFPB.
                        <SU>49</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPA also repealed the requirement in the FTC Act 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3571"/>
                        for those agencies to issue companion rules applicable to banks, Federal credit unions, and thrifts. Those agencies duly repealed their versions of the Credit Practices Rule.
                        <SU>50</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>49</SU>
                             12 U.S.C. 5581.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>50</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             81 FR 8133 (Feb. 18, 2016) (Board's repeal of Reg AA); 79 FR 59627 (Oct. 3, 2014) (NCUA's repeal of credit practices rule). Under the Dodd-Frank Act, the rulemaking authority of the OTS relating to all Federal savings associations was transferred to the OCC on July 21, 2011. The OCC did not have authority at any time to promulgate regulations under section 5 of the FTC Act, either before or after enactment of the Dodd-Frank Act. For that reason, the OCC omitted the OTS version of the credit practices rule when it republished the regulations applicable to Federal savings associations. 76 FR 48950. (Aug. 9, 2011). Thus, the OTS's credit practices rule was effectively repealed as of July 21, 2011.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>However, the Federal financial regulators—including the CFPB—also issued a joint interagency guidance in 2014 clarifying that the repeal of the credit practices rule for banking institutions did not condone those credit practices, and that the agencies would remain vigilant about policing banks for use of the credit practices under their general authority to prohibit unfair or deceptive acts or practices:</P>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <P>
                            The Agencies are issuing this statement to clarify that the repeal of credit practices rules applicable to banks, savings associations, and Federal credit unions should not be construed as a determination by the Agencies that the credit practices described in these former regulations are permissible. The regulations were issued on the basis of extensive findings that identified the unfair or deceptive practices prohibited in the rules. The Agencies believe that, depending on the facts and circumstances, if banks, savings associations, and Federal credit unions engage in the unfair or deceptive practices described in these former credit practices rules, such conduct may violate the prohibition against unfair or deceptive practices in Section 5 of the FTC Act and Sections 1031 and 1036 of the Dodd-Frank Act. The Agencies may determine that statutory violations exist even in the absence of a specific regulation governing the conduct.
                            <SU>51</SU>
                            <FTREF/>
                        </P>
                        <FTNT>
                            <P>
                                <SU>51</SU>
                                 
                                <E T="03">Interagency Guidance Regarding Unfair or Deceptive Credit Practices, supra</E>
                                 note 10.
                            </P>
                        </FTNT>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <P>The CFPB has preliminarily concluded that it would be appropriate to codify the Credit Practices Rule with respect to covered persons within its jurisdiction. Many nonbank covered persons are already subject to the FTC's Credit Practices Rule, and the CFPB has authority to enforce the Credit Practices Rule against them. Although banks, Federal credit unions, and savings associations within the CFPB's jurisdiction are technically not subject to the Credit Practices Rule, they have been on notice under the 2014 interagency guidance that they could violate the CFPA's prohibition on unfair or deceptive practices if they engaged in the practices prohibited by the Credit Practices Rule, and any private or public enforcer enforcing a State or Federal law that parallels the FTC Act may have a cause of action under the same logic as the Credit Practices Rule. Thus, in order to avoid any confusion or uncertainty about whether covered persons within the CFPB's jurisdiction may use these credit practices, this proposed rule would clarify that these credit practices are unlawful for all covered persons.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB notes that codifying the Credit Practices Rules for all covered persons would be consistent with one of the CFPB's primary objectives under the CFPA—to ensure that “Federal consumer financial law is enforced consistently, without regard to the status of a person as a depository institution, in order to promote fair competition.” 
                        <SU>52</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Presently, nonbank entities remain subject to the Credit Practices Rule while banks, Federal credit unions, and savings associations are technically not (although they are of course subject to the 2014 interagency statement). The CFPB preliminarily concludes that any differential treatment for banks and nonbanks regarding the practices covered by the rule would serve no regulatory objective and provide no added benefit for consumers. Since engaging in these practices may nonetheless violate Federal law (and harm consumers) regardless of the type of entity, and the banking regulators have made entities under their supervision aware of that possibility for more than a decade, the CFPB does not expect that codification of the proposed rule will place significant additional burdens on entities based on their type of business. Moreover, the CFPB anticipates that the proposal will clarify regulatory requirements for all market participants and ensure that compliance burdens do not vary arbitrarily, which will promote fair competition.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>52</SU>
                             12 U.S.C. 5511(b)(4).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Description of Prohibited Credit Practices</HD>
                    <P>
                        The credit practices that would be prohibited under this proposed rule are the same as those described in the FTC's Credit Practices Rule.
                        <SU>53</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>53</SU>
                             Section 1027.201 of the proposed rule includes certain definitions applicable to subpart B, including cosigner, earnings, household goods, and obligation. Additionally, under proposed § 1027.205, “[a]n appropriate State agency may apply to the CFPB for a determination that (i) There is a State requirement or prohibition in effect that applies to any transaction to which a provision of this subpart applies; and (ii) The State requirement or prohibition affords a level of protection to consumers that is substantially equivalent to, or greater than, the protection afforded by this subpart.” If the CFPB “makes such a determination, the provision of this subpart will not be in effect in that State to the extent specified by the CFPB in its determination, for as long as the State administers and enforces the State requirement or prohibition effectively.” A State agency may apply for an exemption under the same procedures as those set forth in appendix B to Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Confessions of judgment.</E>
                         Proposed § 1027.202(a) would prohibit a “cognovit or confession of judgment (for purposes other than executory process in the State of Louisiana), warrant of attorney, or other waiver of the right of notice and the opportunity to be heard in the event of suit or process thereon.” The cognovit is a legal device whereby the consumer, as part of the credit contract, consents in advance to the creditor obtaining a judgment without prior notice or hearing. The consumer either confesses judgment in advance of default or authorizes the creditor or an attorney designated by the creditor to appear and confess judgment against the consumer.
                        <SU>54</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>54</SU>
                             49 FR 7748-49.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Waivers of exemption.</E>
                         Proposed § 1027.202(b) would prohibit an “executory waiver or a limitation of exemption from attachment, execution, or other process on real or personal property held, owned by, or due to the consumer, unless the waiver applies solely to property subject to a security interest executed in connection with the obligation.” Many State laws provide exemptions for certain property of a debtor from being seized or sold to satisfy the debt. A waiver of exemption in a credit contract requires a consumer to forfeit or limit such an exemption and allows such property to be seized and sold to satisfy the debt.
                        <SU>55</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>55</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 7768-7769.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Wage assignments.</E>
                         Proposed § 1027.202(c) would prohibit an “assignment of wages or other earnings unless: (1) The assignment by its terms is revocable at the will of the debtor; (2) The assignment is a payroll deduction plan or preauthorized payment plan, commencing at the time of the transaction, in which the consumer authorizes a series of wage deductions as a method of making each payment; or (3) The assignment applies only to wages or other earnings already earned at the time of the assignment.” 
                        <SU>56</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A wage assignment is a contractual transfer by a debtor to a creditor of the 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3572"/>
                        right to receive wages directly from the debtor's employer. To activate the assignment, the creditor simply submits it to the debtor's employer, who then pays all or a percentage of the debtor's wages to the creditor. The debtor releases the employer from any liability arising out of the employer's compliance with the wage assignment, and may waive any requirement that the creditor first establish or allege a default.
                        <SU>57</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>56</SU>
                             Proposed § 1027.201(b) would define “earnings” as “compensation paid or payable to an individual or for the individual's account for personal services rendered or to be rendered by the individual, whether denominated as wages, salary, commission, bonus, or otherwise, including periodic payments pursuant to a pension, retirement, or disability program.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>57</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 7755.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Security interests in household goods.</E>
                         Proposed § 1027.202(d) would prohibit a “nonpossessory security interest in household goods other than a purchase money security interest.” A security interest in household goods grants a creditor the right to seize personal items from a consumer. The rule (proposed § 1027.201(c)) would define “household goods” as “clothing, furniture, appliances, one television and one radio, linens, china, crockery, kitchenware, and personal effects (including wedding rings) of a consumer and a consumer's dependents.” 
                        <SU>58</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>58</SU>
                             The term would not include: (1) Works of art; (2) Electronic entertainment equipment (except one television and one radio); (3) Items acquired as antiques; that is, items over one hundred years of age, including such items that have been repaired or renovated without changing their original form or character; and (4) Jewelry (other than wedding rings).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Cosigners.</E>
                         Consumers who do not meet a creditor's standards for creditworthiness may be required to obtain one or more “cosigners” who agree to be liable for the debt. A cosigner is required to pay if the debtor defaults, but the cosigner receives no monetary consideration for undertaking the obligation.
                        <SU>59</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Proposed § 1027.203(a) would make it unlawful for a covered person “directly or indirectly, to misrepresent the nature or extent of cosigner liability to any person,” or “directly or indirectly, to obligate a cosigner unless the cosigner is informed prior to becoming obligated, which in the case of open end credit shall mean prior to the time that the agreement creating the cosigner's liability for future charges is executed, of the nature of the cosigner's liability.” Proposed § 1027.203(b) would further require a covered person to provide a cosigner with a disclosure, consisting of a separate document that shall contain the following statement and no other prior to the cosigner being obligated (which in the case of open end credit shall mean prior to the time that the agreement creating the cosigner's liability for future charges is executed):
                        <SU>60</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>59</SU>
                             49 FR at 7773. The proposed rule (section 1027.201(a)) would define a “cosigner” as “a natural person who renders themself liable for the obligation of another person without compensation,” including “any person whose signature is requested as a condition to granting credit to another person, or as a condition for forbearance on collection of another person's obligation that is in default.” But the term “shall not include a spouse whose signature is required on a credit obligation to perfect a security interest pursuant to State law.” Furthermore, “[a] person who does not receive goods, services, or money in return for a credit obligation does not receive compensation within the meaning of this definition.” The rulemaking would also state that a person is a cosigner “whether or not they are designated as such on a credit obligation.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>60</SU>
                             Under proposed § 1027.203(c), a covered person that provides the disclosure required by proposed § 1027.203(b) “may not be held in violation of paragraph (a) of this section.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <EXTRACT>
                        <FP SOURCE="FP-1">NOTICE TO COSIGNER</FP>
                        <P>You are being asked to guarantee this debt. Think carefully before you do. If the borrower doesn't pay the debt, you will have to. Be sure you can afford to pay if you have to, and that you want to accept this responsibility.</P>
                        <P>You may have to pay up to the full amount of the debt if the borrower does not pay. You may also have to pay late fees or collection costs, which increase this amount.</P>
                        <P>
                            The creditor can collect this debt from you without first trying to collect from the borrower. The creditor can use the same collection methods against you that can be used against the borrower, such as suing you, garnishing your wages, etc. If this debt is ever in default, that fact may become a part of 
                            <E T="03">your</E>
                             credit record.
                        </P>
                        <P>This notice is not the contract that makes you liable for the debt.</P>
                    </EXTRACT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Pyramiding late charges.</E>
                         Proposed § 1027.204(a) would make it unlawful, “[i]n connection with collecting a debt arising out of an extension of credit to a consumer,” for a covered person “directly or indirectly, to levy or collect any delinquency charge on a payment, which payment is otherwise a full payment for the applicable period and is paid on its due date or within an applicable grace period, when the only delinquency is attributable to late fees or delinquency charges assessed on earlier installments.” 
                        <SU>61</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This practice is called “pyramiding” late charges and occurs when a creditor assesses multiple delinquency charges due to a single late payment because any subsequent payments are first applied to the outstanding late charge and only then to interest and principal. “In `pyramiding' the accounting method works in this fashion: If a consumer's payment is due on the first day of January, for example, and the payment is not made until the 20th day of that month, the creditor assesses a late charge, for example, $5. The February payment and all subsequent payments are made on time. However, by allocating $5 of the February payment to the January late charge and only the remainder to the February payment, the creditor causes the February payment to be $5 `short', hence delinquent. Timely payments in succeeding months are given the same treatment, so that there is a delinquency or late charge for each month.” 
                        <SU>62</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>61</SU>
                             For purposes of this section, proposed § 1027.204(b) states that “collecting a debt means any activity, other than the use of judicial process, that is intended to bring about or does bring about repayment of all or part of money due (or alleged to be due) from a consumer.”
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>62</SU>
                             49 FR 7771.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Legal Authority</HD>
                    <P>
                        Section 1031(b) of the CFPA provides the CFPB with authority to prescribe rules to identify and prevent unfair, deceptive, or abusive acts or practices (UDAAPs). Specifically, section 1031(b) authorizes the CFPB to prescribe rules “applicable to a covered person or service provider identifying as unlawful unfair, deceptive, or abusive acts or practices in connection with any transaction with a consumer for a consumer financial product or service, or the offering of a consumer financial product or service.” 
                        <SU>63</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Section 1031(b) of the Act further provides that “[r]ules under this section may include requirements for the purpose of preventing such acts or practices.” 
                        <SU>64</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB may declare an act or practice to be unfair if it “causes or is likely to cause substantial injury to consumers which is not reasonably avoidable by consumers; and such substantial injury is not outweighed by countervailing benefits to consumers or to competition.” The CFPB preliminary concludes that the credit practices it proposes to prohibit are unfair for the same reasons as the FTC in the Credit Practices Rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>63</SU>
                             12 U.S.C. 5531(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>64</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        First, the FTC found “substantial consumer economic or monetary injuries from the use of these creditor remedies” 
                        <SU>65</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                        :
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>65</SU>
                             49 FR 7743.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • Confessions of judgment deprive consumers of a notice of suit or hearing and opportunity to present claims and defenses. And once obtained, the confessed judgment can be turned into a lien on the consumer's property.
                        <SU>66</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>66</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 7753-54.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • A waiver of exemption clause or a security interest in household goods can lead to the consumer losing the basic necessities of life and requiring the consumer to replace these items or face destitution.
                        <SU>67</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>67</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 7743-44, 
                            <E T="03">see also id.</E>
                             at 7769-70.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • Wage assignment can occur without the due process safeguards of a hearing 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3573"/>
                        and an opportunity to present defenses and counterclaims. This can lead to job loss or severely reduced income, either one of which could prevent the consumer from providing for his or her family or cause default on other obligations.
                        <SU>68</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>68</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 7757-59.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • When a creditor seizes household goods pursuant to a non-purchase money security interest in such goods, debtors lose property which is of great value to them and little value to the creditor. A non-purchase money security interest in household goods also enables a creditor to threaten the loss of all personal property located in the home, which may lead a debtor to make repayment arrangements that they would not willingly take but for the security interest.
                        <SU>69</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>69</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 7762-7765.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • Pyramiding of late charges results in the consumer being unknowingly assessed multiple late charges for a single late payment, even though subsequent payments are timely made.
                        <SU>70</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>70</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 7772.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        • When creditors fail to inform potential cosigners of their obligations and liability, the cosigners may unexpectedly be subject to collection tactics when the principal debtor defaults (including the remedies described above). The sudden liability that can result from cosigner status can cause over-extension when a consumer is confronted with a debt, the timing of which cannot be controlled by the cosigner because it is due to nonpayment by the principal debtor. Because of the range of potential liabilities, many consumers might not have become cosigners had they known the likely costs of doing so. Cosigners thus undertake obligations which they might not have undertaken had they understood them and suffer economic and other hardship as a result when called upon to repay.
                        <SU>71</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>71</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 7774. The FTC also noted that where a creditor affirmatively misrepresents a cosigner's obligations—for example, by telling the cosigner that they are merely a reference for the primary debtor—such a statement would be a deceptive act or practice because it would be misleading and material to a reasonable consumer. 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 7776. The FTC also has taken action against a for-profit medical school for failing to provide the cosigner notice as required by the Credit Practices Rule. 
                            <E T="03">See FTC</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Human Res. Dev. Servs. Inc. dba Saint James School of Medicine</E>
                             (
                            <E T="03">St. James Medical School</E>
                            ), No. 22-cv-1919 (N.D. Ill. filed Apr. 14, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/legal-library/browse/cases-proceedings/2123034-human-resource-development-services-inc-dba-saint-james-school-medicine-ftc-v.</E>
                             Instead, defendants included a notice that failed to include the specific language required by the Credit Practices Rule and that appeared in the middle of the contract. 
                            <E T="03">See id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Second, the FTC concluded that these injuries were not reasonably avoidable, principally because these credit practices were typically incorporated into standard form contracts “over most of which there is no bargaining.” 
                        <SU>72</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The FTC noted that consumers have “limited incentives to search out better remedial provisions in credit contracts.” 
                        <SU>73</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For one thing, the “substantive similarities of contracts from different creditors mean that search is less likely to reveal a different alternative.” 
                        <SU>74</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The FTC also noted that because these credit remedies are relevant only once a consumer defaults, and default is relatively infrequent, “consumers reasonably concentrate their search on such factors as interest rates and payment terms.” 
                        <SU>75</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The FTC also explained that comparison-shopping for credit contracts is difficult “because contracts are written in obscure technical language, do not use standardized terminology, and may not be provided before the transaction is consummated.” 
                        <SU>76</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Nor could consumers avoid these credit remedies by avoiding default. “When default occurs, it is most often a response to events such as unemployment or illness that are not within the borrower's control. Thus, consumers cannot reasonably avoid the substantial injury these creditor remedies may inflict.” 
                        <SU>77</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>72</SU>
                             49 FR 7744.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>73</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>74</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>75</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>76</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>77</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Third, the FTC concluded that any countervailing benefits from these practices did not outweigh the substantial injuries. The FTC explained that even if restrictions on these contract clauses would result in costs to creditors—for example, increased collection costs, increased screening costs, larger legal costs, or increases in bad debt losses—the “possible magnitude of these costs is diminished by the fact that the rule leaves untouched a wide variety of more valuable creditor remedies,” such as repossession, suit, garnishment, or acceleration.
                        <SU>78</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>78</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The D.C. Circuit subsequently upheld the Credit Practices Rule against legal challenge, noting that the rule “was painstakingly considered and significantly modified in response to the extensive comments and recommendations received during this long rulemaking proceeding.” 
                        <SU>79</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>79</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Am. Fin. Servs. Ass'n</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">FTC.,</E>
                             767 F.2d 957, 963 (D.C. Cir. 1985).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Like the prudential regulators in their rules implementing the Credit Practices Rule, the CFPB preliminarily concludes that these credit practices are unfair for the same reasons as provided by the FTC. The FTC relied on an extensive evidentiary basis for its conclusions, and there is no reason to believe the core findings have changed since the FTC issued the original rule. Similarly, the findings were not specific to any given creditor type, and therefore, the CFPB preliminarily concludes that the FTC's findings apply equally to entities under the CFPB's jurisdiction carved out of the FTC rule. Indeed, as described above, many of the principal conclusions by the FTC—for example, the prevalence of standard-form contracts and the lack of comparison-shopping—remain true today. At any rate, in the CFPB's experience, these practices are uncommon (thanks in large part to the Credit Practices Rule and the interagency guidance). However, when the CFPB has encountered these practices during exams of supervised entities, it has cited them as violations of the CFPA. For example, the CFPB cited as unfair a servicer's practice of applying borrowers' post-maturity auto-loan payments in a manner that resulted in the principal balance not being paid off and triggered late fees.
                        <SU>80</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>80</SU>
                             CFPB, 
                            <E T="03">Supervisory Highlights: Special Edition Auto Finance,</E>
                             Fall Issue 35, 7-8 (Oct. 2024) 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_supervisory-highlights-special-ed-auto-finance_2024-10.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB seeks comment on all aspects of the proposed codification of the Credit Practices Rule applicable to covered persons within the CFPB's jurisdiction.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VI. Other Prohibited Provisions</HD>
                    <P>
                        Subpart C of the proposed rule would prohibit covered persons from including three other types of terms and conditions in contracts for consumer financial products or services: clauses requiring the consumer to waive substantive consumer legal rights or protections that were designed to benefit consumers, and their remedies; clauses allowing a covered person to unilaterally amend a material term of the contract; and clauses restraining a consumer's lawful free expression.
                        <SU>81</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB is proposing to ban these 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3574"/>
                        clauses under its authority to prohibit unfair or deceptive acts or practices.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>81</SU>
                             Under proposed § 1027.301(b), a covered person would not be permitted to “use, enforce, or otherwise rely on” these terms or conditions “in an agreement between a consumer and any person for a consumer financial product or service.” This provision would ensure, for example, that a covered person could not rely on a prohibited term or condition in an agreement they purchased from another person.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Clauses Waiving Consumers' Substantive Legal Rights or Protections</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1027.301(a)(1) would prohibit covered persons from including in agreements for consumer financial products or services “[a]ny term or condition that disclaims or waives, or purports to disclaim or waive, any substantive State or Federal law designed to protect or benefit consumers, or their remedies, unless an applicable statute explicitly deems it waivable.” The waivers of law covered by the proposed rule “include, but are not limited to: (i) waivers of remedies to consumers for violations of State or Federal laws; and (ii) waivers of a cause of action to enforce State or Federal laws.” The proposed rule would not, however, prohibit clauses with regard to procedural rights, like venue clauses, arbitration clauses prohibiting court adjudication, or class action waivers.</P>
                    <P>There is a large body of substantive Federal and State law—including statutes designed by legislators and the common law process developed by courts—to protect or benefit consumers. Congress has enacted numerous consumer protection laws, including the Federal consumer financial laws administered by the CFPB (such as the CFPA, the Truth in Lending Act (TILA), the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA), the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA), and the Electronic Fund Transfers Act (EFTA)), the Bankruptcy Code, antitrust laws, and laws protecting servicemembers (such as the Military Lending Act and the Servicemembers Civil Relief Act). Many States have also passed analogous consumer protection or antitrust laws, and in some cases the protections afforded by State laws exceed those of Federal law. Consumers also have common law rights to bring claims, including, for example, for a breach of contract or a tort.</P>
                    <P>
                        These laws provide substantive protections for consumers. For instance, the CFPA (among other things) generally prohibits covered persons from engaging in unfair, deceptive, or abusive acts or practices in connection with transactions for consumer financial products or services,
                        <SU>82</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         while the enumerated consumer laws codify specific consumer protections. Many of these laws also expressly grant consumers the right to privately enforce violations and to seek remedies, including monetary or injunctive relief. For instance, TILA provides consumers with a cause of action against “any creditor who fails to comply with any requirement imposed under [TILA],” and makes such a creditor liable to the consumer for actual damages and certain statutory damages.
                        <SU>83</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>82</SU>
                             12 U.S.C. 5531.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>83</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 1640(a).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Many Federal laws—including statutes enforced by the CFPB—also render consumer-protection provisions unwaivable. For instance, EFTA prohibits contract terms that contain a “waiver of any right conferred” by EFTA and prohibits waivers of any “cause of action” under EFTA.
                        <SU>84</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The Military Lending Act and its implementing regulations generally prohibit terms in certain consumer credit contracts that require servicemembers and their dependents to “waive the borrower's right to legal recourse under any otherwise applicable provision of State or Federal law.” 
                        <SU>85</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The FTC also administers laws that forbid certain contractual waivers.
                        <SU>86</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         And certain State laws similarly prohibit or restrict the use of waivers in consumer contracts.
                        <SU>87</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>84</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 16931.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>85</SU>
                             10 U.S.C. 987(e)(2).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>86</SU>
                             See 16 CFR 444.2(a)(2) (FTC's 1984 Credit Practices Rule, prohibiting the use of contract terms purporting to waive a consumer's State law right to block creditors from seizing personal or real property of the consumer in which they do not hold security interests). The FTC also has interpreted section 604(b)(2)(A) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) to prohibit the inclusion of a waiver of consumer rights in a disclosure form required under that section, observing that “it is a general principle of law that benefits provided to citizens by federal statute generally may not be waived by private agreement unless Congress intended such a result.” FTC, Division of Credit Practices, Staff Opinion Letter (June 12, 1998), 1998 WL 34323756, at *1 (citing 
                            <E T="03">Brooklyn Savings Bank</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">O'Neill,</E>
                             324 U.S. 697 (1945)). In addition, while not an express prohibition on waivers, the FTC's Preservation of Consumers' Claims and Defenses rule, commonly known as the “Holder Rule” and also enforced by the CFPB, requires sellers of goods or services to consumers to include a provision in their finance contracts that ensures that if another person holds the loan or lease a consumer uses to finance acquisition of a good or service from a seller or lessor, then the holder is subject to the same consumer rights and defenses that the consumer had with respect to the seller or lessor, thereby emphasizing the importance of preserving consumer rights. 16 CFR part 433.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>87</SU>
                             For instance, the California Consumer Privacy Act affords consumers certain rights to know how their information will be used, instructs businesses not to sell consumers' personal information, and deems “void and unenforceable” any contractual provision “that purports to waive or limit in any way rights under this title, including, but not limited to, any right to a remedy or means of enforcement.” 
                            <E T="03">See generally</E>
                             Cal. Civ. Code sec. 1798.100 
                            <E T="03">et seq.</E>
                             described at 
                            <E T="03">https://oag.ca.gov/privacy/ccpa</E>
                             ; Cal. Civ. Code sec. 1798.192. Further, certain State laws, including those of California, Illinois, Kansas, and Tennessee, contain outright prohibitions of waivers of legal protections in general consumer protection laws. See Cal. Civ. Code. sec. 1751 (barring waivers of protections under California Consumers Legal Remedies Act); Ill. St. Ch. 815 sec. 505(10c), Waiver or modification (barring waiver or modification of protections under consumer fraud and deceptive practices statute); Kan. Stat. 50-625(a), Waiver (generally prohibiting waivers of rights or benefits under the Kansas Consumer Protection Act, unless otherwise specified in the statute); Tenn. Stat. 47-18-113(a) (generally prohibiting waivers “by contract, agreement, or otherwise” of provisions of the Tennessee Consumer Protection Act of 1977).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In the CFPB's experience, however, covered persons sometimes include waivers of consumer protection laws in contracts for consumer financial products or services (including when those laws forbid such waivers). The CFPB has taken both supervisory and enforcement action against such practices as both unfair and deceptive. For example, in 2013, the CFPB cited two mortgage servicers for the unfair practice of requiring all borrowers, regardless of their individual circumstances, to enter into across-the-board waivers of existing claims in order to obtain a forbearance or loan modification agreement.
                        <SU>88</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In 2021, the CFPB cited entities for the deceptive practice of requiring borrowers to agree to a waiver of any equity or right of redemption in the loan security agreement for cooperative units. Specifically, the waiver stated that in the event of default, lenders may sell the security at public or private sale and thereafter hold the security free from any claim or right whatsoever of the borrower, who waives all rights of redemption, stay or appraisal which the borrower has or may have under any rule or statute.
                        <SU>89</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In 2022, the CFPB entered into a consent order with Bank of America for, among other practices, unfairly requiring consumers to waive its liability as to consumers' garnishment-related protections in its deposit agreement and misrepresented to consumers that they could not go to court to attempt to prevent wrongful garnishments.
                        <SU>90</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The FTC has also taken action against a for-profit medical school that attempted to waive consumers' rights under Federal law.
                        <SU>91</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>88</SU>
                             CFPB, 
                            <E T="03">Supervisory Highlights: Winter 2013,</E>
                             at 6-7 (Jan. 2014), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/201401_cfpb_supervisory-highlights-winter-2013.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>89</SU>
                             CFPB, 
                            <E T="03">Supervisory Highlights: Issue 24, Summer 2021,</E>
                             at 28 (June 2021), 
                            <E T="03">https://files.consumerfinance.gov/f/documents/cfpb_supervisory-highlights_issue-24_2021-06.pdf.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>90</SU>
                             See Consent Order, In re Bank of America, N.A., No. 2022-CFPB-0002 (May 4, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>91</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See St. James Medical School, supra</E>
                             note 71. According to the FTC's complaint, among numerous other things, defendants failed to include the notice required by the FTC's Holder Rule in their credit agreements, and also included language attempting to waive those rights.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        These waiver clauses in contracts of adhesion undermine our system of constitutional democracy. Our 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3575"/>
                        government is—as President Abraham Lincoln said—a “government of the people, by the people, for the people.” The United States Constitution implements that principle by vesting Federal lawmaking powers in the United States Congress 
                        <SU>92</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and reserving other lawmaking powers (unless prohibited by the Constitution) “to the States respectively, or to the people.” 
                        <SU>93</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         At both the Federal and State levels, legislatures are elected by citizens and are empowered to pass laws that benefit their wellbeing. In enacting such laws, legislatures necessarily balance competing interests among citizens, and their legislative judgments and policy choices must be respected unless constitutionally invalid. Against this system of democratic governance, waiver-of-law clauses in form contracts of adhesion are distinctly anti-democratic. They allow companies to use contracts of adhesion to override laws that have been designed to protect consumers without meaningful consent by the consumer.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>92</SU>
                             U.S. Const. art. 1, section 1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>93</SU>
                             U.S. Const. amend. X.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        This proposed rule would forbid a covered person from using any clause in a contract for a consumer financial product or service that requires a consumer to waive substantive consumer rights and legal protections conferred by State or Federal laws designed to protect or benefit consumers (unless the law is expressly waivable), or their remedies. This prohibition would cover waivers of substantive legal rights as well as waivers of a consumer's right to enforce those laws (such as a waiver of a cause of action, a cap on statutory damages, or a time limitation on consumer enforcement of the law). For example, a contractual clause requiring a consumer to waive certain provisions of TILA (or to waive the consumer's right to enforce TILA) would be prohibited under the proposed rule. However, the prohibition would not apply to waivers of procedural rights (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         venue clauses, arbitration clauses prohibiting court adjudication, or class action waivers). Although the CFPB also has concerns about such waivers, the CFPB is focusing on waivers of substantive rights in this proposed rule because contractual waivers of substantive rights allow companies to invalidate legislative judgments that certain business practices are unlawful.
                    </P>
                    <P>The CFPB seeks comment on this proposed prohibition of waiver clauses.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Unilateral Amendment Clauses</HD>
                    <P>Proposed § 1027.301(a)(2) would prohibit covered persons from including in agreements for consumer financial products or services “[a]ny term or condition that expressly reserves the covered person's right to unilaterally change, modify, revise, or add a material term of a contract for a consumer financial product or service.” Companies often include contractual clauses that grant them unfettered discretion to change or add to the terms of their agreement with the consumer without adequate notice to or assent from the consumer before the change becomes effective. Unilateral contract amendments can harm consumers since any modifications are likely to mainly benefit the company and the consumer has no option to reject the change. The CFPB proposes to ban these clauses because they allow covered persons to circumvent consumers' freedom to benefit from a contract by changing material terms of an agreement.</P>
                    <P>The proposal would prohibit any amendment clause in a contract between a covered person and a consumer for a consumer financial product or service that grants the covered person the exclusive right to modify a material term of the contract in the future. By definition, these unilateral amendment clauses provide no meaningful opportunity for the consumer to affirmatively accept, negotiate, or reject any modifications by the company.</P>
                    <P>
                        Unilateral amendment clauses are typically drafted to provide a company with discretion to change a term of the contract or to add terms to the contract. Companies can thus use these clauses to change fees, dispute resolution procedures, terms of service, or privacy policies.
                        <SU>94</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         “In fact, unilateral modifications can change any aspect of a contract.” 
                        <SU>95</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For instance, in recent years, unilateral amendment clauses have become a popular way for companies to add arbitration clauses to consumer contracts or to change the rules of the arbitration process.
                        <SU>96</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         And unilateral amendment clauses typically do not impose limits on when these changes can be made, meaning that a company may rely on such a clause to modify a contract months or even years after the agreement was consummated. In short, when a contract includes a unilateral amendment clause, “[f]irms can virtually make any change they wish to their contracts, for whatever reason and at any time, without properly communicating this change.” 
                        <SU>97</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         And changes implemented unilaterally will typically benefit the company, not the consumer. “There is a concern . . . that businesses will initiate self-serving, opportunistic modifications in standard contract terms once consumers are already locked into the service.” 
                        <SU>98</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>94</SU>
                             See, 
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             David Horton, 
                            <E T="03">The Shadow Terms: Contract Procedure and Unilateral Amendments,</E>
                             57 UCLA L. Rev. 605, 630-636 (2010); Shmuel I. Becher &amp; Uri Benoliel, 
                            <E T="03">Sneak In Contracts,</E>
                             55 Ga. L. Rev. 657, 660 (2020).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>95</SU>
                             Becher &amp; Benoliel, supra n. 94 at 661.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>96</SU>
                             Adam Levitin, 
                            <E T="03">Venmo's Unfair and Abusive Arbitration Opt-Out Provision,</E>
                             Credit Slips (Apr. 26, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.creditslips.org/creditslips/2022/04/-venmos-unfair-and-abusive-arbitration-opt-out-provision.html.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>97</SU>
                             Shmuel I. Becher &amp; Uri Benoliel, 
                            <E T="03">Dark Contracts,</E>
                             64 B.C. L. Rev. 55, 68 (2023).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>98</SU>
                             Restatement of the Law, Consumer Contracts, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 28, at section 3 cmt. 1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Unilateral amendment clauses are commonly included by companies in consumer contracts or terms of use. For example, a recent study examined 100 companies' online terms and conditions for contracts and relationships with consumers.
                        <SU>99</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The sample set included companies in retail, computer and browsing services, streaming and entertainment, financial services, social media, and transportation.
                        <SU>100</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The study considered both private and public companies.
                        <SU>101</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The study found that all of the companies' terms and conditions included a unilateral modification clause.
                        <SU>102</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Only 15 of the companies' terms and conditions provided for notice to the consumer when the company made a unilateral change to a material term.
                        <SU>103</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The study also found that under these clauses, the consumer had no real opportunity to reject the modifications, short of terminating the transactional relationship with the company.
                        <SU>104</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Other studies have reached similar conclusions.
                        <SU>105</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>99</SU>
                             Boyack, 
                            <E T="03">Abuse of Contract: Boilerplate Erasure of Consumer Counterparty Rights, supra</E>
                             note 40, at 6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>100</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 7
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>101</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>102</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 18.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>103</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 19.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>104</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 20.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>105</SU>
                             Becher &amp; Benoliel, 
                            <E T="03">Sneak In Contracts, supra</E>
                             note 94, at 681-682 (finding that more than 95 percent of companies with the 500 top websites used unilateral amendment clauses); Samples et al., 
                            <E T="03">TL;DR: The Law and Linguistics of Social Platform Terms-of-use, supra</E>
                             note 16 at 103.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In the CFPB's experience, unilateral amendment clauses are used by companies in the consumer finance market, and companies rely on such clauses to modify agreements in ways that are harmful to consumers. Unilateral amendments can be especially prejudicial when they thwart a consumer's expectations about the terms of or performance under a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3576"/>
                        contract (including when such a change conflicts with advertising or marketing about the contract on which the consumer relied in the first place).
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        For instance, such clauses are commonly included in credit card agreements, and the harm arising from unilateral amendments to credit card agreements was one of the main reasons for congressional enactment of the Credit Card Accountability, Responsibility, and Disclosure Act (CARD Act) of 2009.
                        <SU>106</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Prior to the CARD Act's passage, credit card issuers routinely relied on unilateral amendment clauses to change fees, interest rates, and payment amounts after a consumer had taken out a credit card.
                        <SU>107</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CARD Act was intended to curb the abuses wrought by these “[a]ny time any reason” changes to credit card agreements.
                        <SU>108</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As implemented by Regulation Z, the CARD Act requires that when a credit card issuer seeks to make “a significant change in account terms,” it must provide 45 days advance notice of the change and include in the notice a statement that the consumer “has the right to reject the change or changes prior to the effective date of the changes” and “[i]nstructions for rejecting the change or changes, and a toll-free telephone number that the consumer may use to notify the creditor of the rejection.” 
                        <SU>109</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>106</SU>
                             Public Law 111-24, 123 Stat. 1734 (2009).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>107</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Modernizing Consumer Protection in the Financial Regulatory System: Strengthening Credit Card Protections: Hearing Before the S. Comm. on Banking, Housing, and Urban Affairs, 111th Cong. 199 (2009) (statement of Travis B. Plunkett).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>108</SU>
                             See 155 Cong. Rec. S2150 (daily ed. Feb. 11, 2009) (statement of Sen. Dodd); see also 15 U.S.C. 1637(i).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>109</SU>
                             12 CFR 1026.9(c)(2)(iv).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        However, abuses arising from unilateral amendments remain a problem in consumer financial services. For example, the CARD Act does not require a change-in-terms notice for all modifications to a credit card agreement, and the CFPB recently warned that “many of the largest credit card issuers reserved the right to change their rewards program at any time, for any reason, and in many cases without notice in terms and conditions typically separate from the cardholder agreements, in which changes to some terms are restricted and/or require prior communication.” 
                        <SU>110</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB noted that such clauses can allow issuers “to alter rewards programs or devalue rewards as a safety valve [for the company], putting consumers at a fundamental disadvantage.” 
                        <SU>111</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>110</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Issue Spotlight: Credit Card Rewards,</E>
                             11 (May 9, 2024) (citing agreements from American Express, Citi, Chase, and Wells Fargo).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>111</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB is concerned about unilateral amendment clauses because they undermine the consumer's freedom to benefit from the contract. A contract is based on the voluntary exchange of promises between the contracting parties that establish a “meeting of the minds.” Thus, as the Restatement (Second) of Contracts notes, “the formation of a contract requires a bargain in which there is a manifestation of mutual assent to the exchange and a consideration.” 
                        <SU>112</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         These same principles apply not only for the initial contract but any subsequent modifications.
                        <SU>113</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>112</SU>
                             Restatement (Second) of Contracts section 17(1) (1981); 
                            <E T="03">see also, e.g., Specht</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Netscape Commc'ns Corp.,</E>
                             150 F. Supp. 2d 585, 587 (S.D.N.Y. 2001), aff'd, 306 F.3d 17 (2d Cir. 2002) (“Promises become binding when there is a meeting of the minds and consideration is exchanged. So it was at King's Bench in common law England; so it was under the common law in the American colonies; so it was through more than two centuries of jurisprudence in this country; and so it is today.)
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>113</SU>
                             See, 
                            <E T="03">e.g., Dallas Aerospace, Inc.</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">CIS Air Corp.,</E>
                             352 F.3d 775, 783 (2d Cir. 2003) (“[f]undamental to the establishment of a contract modification is proof of each element requisite to the formulation of a contract, including mutual assent to its terms”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        For that reason, courts have generally refused to enforce unilateral amendment clauses that do not allow for mutual assent. “Indeed, a party can't unilaterally change the terms of a contract; it must obtain the other party's consent before doing so. This is because a revised contract is merely an offer and does not bind the parties until it is accepted. And generally an offeree cannot actually assent to an offer unless he knows of its existence.” 
                        <SU>114</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Thus, as noted by the Restatement of Consumer Contracts, if a company “can derogate, without any limitation, from rights and obligations that were stated when the original assent was manifested, or if the business awards itself unfettered discretion to specify its obligations under the original contract, such that the promise the business made to consumers is lacking sufficient meaningful commitment, the business's promise is illusory and the contract fails for lack of consideration.” 
                        <SU>115</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>114</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Douglas</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">U.S. Dist. Ct. for Cent. Dist. of California,</E>
                             495 F.3d 1062, 1066 (9th Cir. 2007); 
                            <E T="03">see also, e.g., In re Zappos.com, Inc., Customer Data Sec. Breach Litig.,</E>
                             893 F. Supp. 2d 1058, 1066 (D. Nev. 2012); 
                            <E T="03">Lovinfosse</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Lowe's Home Centers, LLP,</E>
                             2024 WL 3732436 (E.D. Va. Aug. 8, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>115</SU>
                             Restatement of the Law, Consumer Contracts, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 28, section 5, reporters' notes a.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As the Restatement of Consumer Contracts further explains, “courts have developed a fairly consistent approach to determining the enforceability of modifications. In particular, the requirements of notice and opportunity to reject or terminate figure prominently in courts' reasoning. In almost all cases in which modifications were enforced and that involve the questions of notice as well as opportunity to reject or terminate, courts made explicit determinations that both the requirements of sufficient notice and opportunity to reject or terminate were satisfied.” 
                        <SU>116</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Thus, under the Restatement of Consumer Contracts, a modification of a standard-contract term is binding on a consumer only if the consumer received notice of the proposed modification and was provided a reasonable opportunity to reject the change.
                        <SU>117</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         For example, the Restatement provides an example of a “contract between an airline and a consumer allow[ing] the airline to modify the frequent-flyer program at its discretion,” explaining that such a provision would be unenforceable “if the airline does not afford the consumer a meaningful opportunity to reject it.” 
                        <SU>118</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>116</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             section 3, reporters' notes f.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>117</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             section 3(a). Under the Restatement, “[a] consumer contract governing an ongoing relationship may provide for a reasonable procedure for adoption of modified terms under which the business may propose a modification of the standard contract terms but may not, to the detriment of the consumer, exclude the application of subsection (a), except that the established procedure may replace the reasonable opportunity to reject the proposed modified term with a reasonable opportunity to terminate the transaction without unreasonable cost, loss of value, or personal burden.” 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             section 3(b).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>118</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             section 5 illus. 5.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Consistent with these principles, the proposed rule would prohibit any clause in a contract for a consumer financial product or service that provides the company the sole right to modify the contract. The CFPB recognizes that consumer contracts may need to be modified to account for changed circumstances after the contract is signed, and this proposed rule would not prohibit all such modifications. Nothing in the proposed rule would prohibit companies from implementing modifications that are consistent with applicable State or Federal law.
                        <SU>119</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Whether a particular 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3577"/>
                        modification is consistent with applicable law will depend on the facts and circumstances and the applicable jurisdiction's common law, and is beyond the scope of this rulemaking. But the proposed rule would prohibit companies from relying on a unilateral amendment clause to make modifications.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>119</SU>
                             The CFPB recognizes that there are State or Federal statutes or regulations setting forth processes for companies to implement modifications for certain contract terms. For example and as noted above, the CARD Act and its implementing regulations create procedures for credit card issuers to implement modifications to a consumer's account agreement. For certain changes, the CARD Act and its implementing regulations require a company to provide consumers with notice and an opportunity to reject a modification. For other changes, the CARD Act and its implementing regulations affirmatively state that no advance notice of a modification is required. And 
                            <PRTPAGE/>
                            the CARD Act and its implementing regulations are silent on changes for other terms. Nothing in this proposed rule would displace or affect those procedures for amending a contract. This rulemaking only prohibits the use of a contract term to reserve a unilateral right to amend that the company would not otherwise have by virtue of State or Federal law or regulation.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB seeks comment on this proposed prohibition of unilateral amendment clauses.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Clauses Restraining Consumers' Free Expression</HD>
                    <P>
                        Proposed § 1027.301(a)(3) would prohibit covered persons from including in contracts for consumer financial products or services “[a]ny term or condition that limits or restrains, or purports to limit or restrain, the free and lawful expression of a consumer,” except that this prohibition would not “affect[] a covered person's ability to close an account that is being used to commit fraud or other illegal activity.” This prohibition would apply to, for example, contractual clauses that limit a consumer's ability to make negative comments about a company or to freely express their political and religious views. And it would include any contractual mechanism for enforcing those limits, including fees, reserving rights to close accounts on that basis (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         “debanking”), or terms that do not describe a particular remedial consequence but could give rise to a breach of contract claim. The proposed rule would not, however, prohibit contract clauses giving covered persons a right to close accounts based on the use of an account to commit fraud or illegal activity, because that would not constitute “lawful expression.”
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        The First Amendment of the Constitution protects people from, among other things, laws abridging free speech or prohibiting the free exercise of religion. The First Amendment “reflects a profound national commitment to the principle that debate on public issues should be uninhibited, robust, and wide-open” because “speech concerning public affairs is more than self-expression; it is the essence of self-government.” 
                        <SU>120</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Free expression “is powerful medicine” because it “put[s] the decision as to what views shall be voiced largely into the hands of each of us, in the hope that use of such freedom will ultimately produce a more capable citizenry and more perfect polity and in the belief that no other approach would comport with the premise of individual dignity and choice upon which our political system rests.” 
                        <SU>121</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The First Amendment applies even when speech is disagreeable or offensive. “In an open, pluralistic, self-governing society, the expression of an idea cannot be suppressed simply because some find it offensive, insulting, or even wounding.” 
                        <SU>122</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>120</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Snyder</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Phelps,</E>
                             562 U.S. 443, 452 (2011).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>121</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Cohen</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">California,</E>
                             403 U.S. 15, 24 (1971).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>122</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Fulton</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">City of Philadelphia,</E>
                             593 U.S. 522, 615 (2021).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        While government restraints on speech carry obvious risks due to the coercive power of government, infringement of speech by large private corporations can be similarly harmful, with the added concern that these entities are not subject to democratic accountability or transparency obligations. And in recent decades, many companies have begun to use contractual terms to prevent individuals from expressing themselves freely.
                        <SU>123</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In the market for consumer financial products and services, two such types of clauses are of particular concern to the CFPB, both of which would be prohibited under the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>123</SU>
                             Alan E. Garfield, 
                            <E T="03">Promises of Silence: Contract Law and Freedom of Speech,</E>
                             83 Cornell L. Rev. 261, 268 (1998).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        First, some companies have begun including non-disparagement clauses—also colloquially known as “gag” clauses—that restrict consumers from providing negative reviews of the company's product or service. Originating in the health care sector, these types of clauses have migrated to many parts of the economy.
                        <SU>124</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB is aware of such abuses in the consumer finance market. For instance, the FTC has taken action against a credit repair firm for its use of non-disparagement clauses in violation of the Consumer Review Fairness Act.
                        <SU>125</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB is also aware of reports that a nonbank mortgage lender had imposed certain non-disparagement provisions in certain loan modification agreements associated with settlement of pending legal claims, until committing to the New York State financial regulator to stop doing so.
                        <SU>126</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>124</SU>
                             Eric Goldman, 
                            <E T="03">Understanding the Consumer Review Fairness Act of 2016,</E>
                             24 Mich. Telecomm. &amp; Tech. L. Rev. 1, 2 (2017).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>125</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">FTC</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Grand Teton Professionals</E>
                            , LLC, et al., Case No. 19-cv-933 (D. Conn) (Complaint filed June 17, 2019).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>126</SU>
                             Peter Rudegeair, Michelle Conlin, 
                            <E T="03">Exclusive: Ocwen Financial to stop gagging homeowners in mortgage deals,</E>
                              
                            <E T="03">Reuters.com</E>
                             (June 3, 2014), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.reuters.com/article/us-banks-mortgages/exclusive-ocwen-financial-to-stop-gagging-homeowners-in-mortgage-deals-idUSKBN0EE1XG20140603</E>
                             (last visited Dec. 2, 2022); Brena Swanson, 
                            <E T="03">Ocwen will stop using mortgage gag orders,</E>
                              
                            <E T="03">Housingwire.com</E>
                             (June 3, 2014), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.housingwire.com/articles/30196-ocwen-will-stop-using-mortgage-gag-orders/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Numerous studies and surveys have confirmed the importance of online reviews across the economy. For example, one prominent study estimated that a one-star rating increase on 
                        <E T="03">Yelp.com</E>
                         translated to an increase of five to nine percent in revenues for a restaurant.
                        <SU>127</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Another study found that a one-point boost in a hotel's online ratings on travel sites is tied to an 11 percent jump in room rates, on average.
                        <SU>128</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         To date, academic research has not focused specifically on markets for consumer financial products and services. But the CFPB expects consumer reviews to play an increasing role in helping consumers choose between financial providers given that many consumers now seek financial products online, including on shopping platforms that can simultaneously provide reviews. This can create an incentive for dishonest market participants to attempt to manipulate the review process, rather than compete based on the value of their services, which can frustrate a competitive marketplace.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>127</SU>
                             Michael Luca, 
                            <E T="03">Reviews, Reputation, and Revenue: The Case of Yelp.com,</E>
                             Harv. Bus. Sch. Working Paper No. 12-016, 14 (2016).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>128</SU>
                             Chris Anderson, 
                            <E T="03">The Impact of Social Media on Lodging Performance,</E>
                             12(15) Cornell Hospitality Report 6, 11 (2012).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In 2016, Congress unanimously enacted the Consumer Review Fairness Act,
                        <SU>129</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         in response to abuses by companies that restricted consumer reviews. The Consumer Review Fairness Act generally prohibits non-disparagement clauses in standard-form consumer contracts. Specifically (and with certain exceptions), it voids from inception any such contractual provision that prohibits, restricts, or penalizes “an individual who is a party to the form contract” to engage in a “written, oral, or pictorial review, performance assessment of, or other similar analysis of . . . the goods, services, or conduct of a person.” 
                        <SU>130</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As the legislative history of the statute explains, the “wide availability” of consumer reviews “has caused consumers to rely on them more heavily as credible indicators of product or service quality. In turn, businesses have sought to avoid negative reviews . . . through provisions of form contracts with consumers restricting such 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3578"/>
                        reviews.” 
                        <SU>131</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Some States have also enacted prohibitions against non-disparagement or “gag” clauses.
                        <SU>132</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>129</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 45b.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>130</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>131</SU>
                             H. Rept. 114-731, at 5 (2016). The legislative history also indicates that Congress was concerned that these clauses would diminish the overall value of consumer reviews, including by chilling “negative yet truthful” reviews. “Non-disparagement clauses interfere with the benefits consumers derive from ready access to `crowd-sourced' reviews of products and services. If such clauses become widely adopted, negative yet ruthful reviews may be chilled, undermining the overall credibility of consumer reviews. The newfound utility of consumer reviews would then be reduced as trust in their veracity diminishes. H.R. 5111 seeks to curtail non-disparagement clauses in order to preserve the credibility and value of online consumer reviews.” 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                             at 5-6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>132</SU>
                             Cal. Civil Code sec. 1670.8 (“A contract or proposed contract for the sale or lease of consumer goods or services may not include a provision waiving the consumer's right to make any statement regarding the seller or lessor or its employees or agents, or concerning the goods or services.”); 815 Ill. Comp. Stat. Ann. 505/2UUU (West) (same); Md. Code, Com. L. sec. 14-1325 (making it an unfair and deceptive trade practice to include a provision “waiving the consumer's right to make any statement concerning [ ] The seller or lessor; [ ] Employees or agents of the seller or lessor; or [ ] The consumer goods or services.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Second, some companies have also used contractual terms to prevent consumers from engaging in political or religious expression or to penalize them for doing so. For example, in 2022 PayPal amended its user agreement to levy a fine or close accounts based on consumers' exercise of free expression, even if it was unrelated to fraud or other illegal activity.
                        <SU>133</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In a similar vein, some consumer financial companies have been accused of “de-banking” persons or organizations based on their political or religious beliefs. For example, several State regulators recently accused a major bank of “discriminating against religious ministries,” including the bank's closure of the accounts of a Christian ministry because the bank did not want to serve the organization's “business type.” 
                        <SU>134</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         State attorneys general also sent a letter to the same bank about the bank's practice of “conditioning access to its services on customers having the bank's preferred religious or political views.” 
                        <SU>135</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Some State legislatures have also introduced or enacted laws that would prohibit such “de-banking.” 
                        <SU>136</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>133</SU>
                             See Emily Manson, 
                            <E T="03">After PayPal Revokes Controversial Misinformation Policy, Major Concerns Remain Over $2,500</E>
                             Fine (Oct. 27, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.forbes.com/sites/emilymason/2022/10/27/after-paypal-revokes-controversial-misinformation-policy-major-concerns-remain-over-2500-fine/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>134</SU>
                             Letter from Andre Sorrell et al. to Brian Moynihan, 
                            <E T="03">https://treasurer.utah.gov/wp-content/uploads/04-18-2024-Letter-to-BoA-Regarding-Debanking.pdf</E>
                             (Apr. 18, 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>135</SU>
                             Letter from Kris W. Kobach et al. to Brian T. Moynihan, (Apr. 15, 2024) 
                            <E T="03">https://dojmt.gov/attorney-general-knudsen-demands-action-from-bank-of-america-to-correct-debanking-practices/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>136</SU>
                             See, 
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             Tenn. Code Ann. sec. 45-1-128.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB seeks comment on this proposed prohibition of clauses restraining consumers' lawful free expression.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Legal Authority</HD>
                    <P>The CFPB proposes to prohibit these three types of terms and conditions in consumer financial products or services because their use constitutes unfair or deceptive acts or practices.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">i. Deceptive Acts or Practices</HD>
                    <P>
                        Under the CFPA, a representation or omission is deceptive if it is likely to mislead a reasonable consumer and is material.
                        <SU>137</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A representation is “material” if it “involves information that is important to consumers and, hence, likely to affect their choice of, or conduct regarding, a product.” 
                        <SU>138</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         It is well-established that material misrepresentations to consumers that are unsupported under applicable law can be deceptive.
                        <SU>139</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In particular, including an unenforceable material term in a consumer contract is deceptive, because it misleads consumers into believing the contract term is enforceable.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>137</SU>
                             Although the CFPA does not define “deceptive,” the CFPB has adopted the definition set forth by the FTC in its 1983 Policy Statement on Deception. 
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FTC Policy Statement on Deception (Oct. 14, 1983), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/bcp/policystmt/ad-decept.htm.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>138</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Novartis Corp.</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">FTC,</E>
                             223 F.3d 783, 786 (D.C. Cir. 2000) (quoting 
                            <E T="03">In re Cliffdale Assocs., Inc.,</E>
                             103 F.T.C. 110, 165 (1984)).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>139</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g., FTC</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">World Media Brokers,</E>
                             415 F.3d 758, 763 (7th Cir. 2005).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As the CFPB recently explained, waiver-of-law provisions in contracts for consumer financial products or services are often deceptive when the waivers are unlawful or unenforceable under Federal or State law.
                        <SU>140</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The inclusion of unlawful or unenforceable terms and conditions in consumer contracts is likely to mislead a reasonable consumer into believing that the terms are lawful and/or enforceable, when in fact they are not. Further, the representations made by the presence of such terms are often material, presumptively so when they are made expressly. In particular, consumers are unlikely to be aware of the existence of laws that render the terms or conditions at issue unlawful or unenforceable, so in the event of a dispute, they are likely to conclude they lawfully agreed to waive their legal rights or protections after reviewing the contract on their own or when covered persons point out the existence of these contractual terms and conditions. Research indicates providers are incentivized to include unenforceable terms because consumers tend to assume the terms in their contracts are enforceable (even if they harm the consumer's interests or deprive them of legal rights).
                        <SU>141</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A contractual provision stating that a consumer agrees not to exercise a legal right is likely to affect a consumer's willingness to attempt to exercise that right in the event of a dispute. Deceptive acts and practices such as these pose risks to consumers, whose rights are undermined as a result, and distort markets to the disadvantage of covered persons who abide by the law by including only lawful terms and conditions in their consumer contracts.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>140</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Consumer Financial Protection Circular 2024-03, supra</E>
                             note 6.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>141</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Meirav Furth-Matzkin &amp; Roseanna Sommers, 
                            <E T="03">Consumer Psychology and the Problem of Fine Print Fraud,</E>
                             72 Stan. L. Rev. 503, 508-09 (2020).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        For similar reasons, a contractual provision that restrains a consumer's free expression in violation of the Consumer Review Fairness Act would be deceptive. As the CFPB noted in a recent compliance bulletin, it would generally be deceptive to include a restriction on consumer reviews in a form contract, given that the restriction would be void from the inception under the Consumer Review Fairness Act.
                        <SU>142</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Consumers can be expected to read such language to mean what it says: that they are restricted in their ability to provide consumer reviews. But that is not the case, since the provision is void under applicable law. And the option to post candid reviews about products or services would be material to the many American consumers who do so. Moreover, enforcing the deception prohibition is particularly important in this context, given that consumer reviews are a significant driver of competition in the modern economy.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>142</SU>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">CFPB Bulletin 2022-05: Unfair and Deceptive Acts or Practices That Impede Consumer Reviews,</E>
                             (Mar. 22, 2022), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/compliance/supervisory-guidance/cfpb-bulletin-2022-05-unfair-deceptive-acts-or-practices-that-impede-consumer-reviews/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">ii. Unfair Acts or Practices</HD>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB may declare an act or practice to be “unlawful on the grounds that [it] is unfair” if the CFPB “has a reasonable basis to conclude that (A) the act or practice causes or is likely to cause substantial injury to consumers which is not reasonably avoidable by consumers; and (B) such substantial injury is not outweighed by countervailing benefits to consumers or to competition.” 
                        <SU>143</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The use of each of the clauses that would be prohibited 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3579"/>
                        under the proposed rule in contracts for consumer financial products or services would be an unfair act or practice.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>143</SU>
                             12 U.S.C. 5531(c).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Substantial injury.</E>
                         Each of the three types of clauses causes or would likely cause substantial injury to consumers.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        A contractual clause requiring a consumer to waive the protections of Federal or State law causes the consumer to forfeit legal rights designed for their benefit. These laws reflect a legislative judgment that it is in the public interest for consumers to be protected from certain business practices. Eliminating these protections through a consumer contract deprives the consumer of those legal rights. Consumers can also suffer concrete monetary injury from the inclusion of waiver-of-law clauses when, as a result of the waiver, they are exposed to business practices that would have been otherwise illegal, or, when the waiver reduces the monetary remedy that consumers can seek. These waivers shift the risk of such business practices from the company to the consumer. “Consumers are clearly injured by a system which forces them to bear the full risk and burden of sales related abuses.” 
                        <SU>144</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         This is particularly the case when a consumer cannot fully enforce a law because of a waiver-of-law provision. As noted above, many consumer protection laws grant consumers a statutory cause of action to enforce the law, enjoin the unlawful practice, and recover actual and/or statutory damages. When a consumer is contractually restricted from relying on such a cause of action—or when a waiver provision limits a company's legal liability or limits the time in which a consumer can bring a legal action against the company—consumers are unable to stop the illegal practice and recover damages from the company. For example, in a 2022 case the CFPB alleged that Bank of America engaged in unfair acts and practices by using a deposit agreement that required consumers not to contest legal process and waive the bank's liability for unlawfully garnishing funds from a consumer's deposit account. According to the consent decree, in at least 3,700 instances, the bank's conduct resulted in substantial injury to affected consumers in the form of garnishment-related fees, frozen or held funds, and funds turned over to judgment creditors.
                        <SU>145</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>144</SU>
                             FTC, 
                            <E T="03">Preservation of Consumers' Claims and Defenses,</E>
                             40 FR 53506, 53523 (Nov. 18, 1975).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>145</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Consent Order, 
                            <E T="03">In re Bank of America, N.A.,</E>
                             No. 2022-CFPB-0002 (May 4, 2022).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Unilateral amendment clauses injure consumers by facilitating involuntary changes that are a detriment to the consumer (including monetary detriment), and depriving consumers of the opportunity to provide meaningful consent to amended terms that may adversely affect them. As noted above, when a company can derogate from the material terms of an agreement with a consumer at its own discretion, a contract becomes illusory and the consumer does not obtain the benefit of the bargain in the contract they signed initially. They also deprive consumers of the ability to make a free and informed choice of whether to contract in the first place because the material terms of the agreement might change later in unpredictable ways. Furthermore, the changes effected through such clauses (
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         diminution of credit-card rewards) typically inure to the detriment of consumers. In particular, when a modification undermines a consumer's expectations about the scope of contract, it resembles a traditional “bait-and-switch” scheme that has long been found to be unfair by the FTC.
                        <SU>146</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>146</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             FTC Guides Against Bait Advertising, 16 CFR part 238 
                            <E T="03">et seq.; cf. Rossman</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Fleet Bank (R.I.) Nat. Ass'n,</E>
                             280 F.3d 384, 396-400 (3d Cir. 2002) (credit card issuer soliciting business with no-annual-fee offer while intending to later impose fee constitutes a bait-and-switch scheme).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        In particular, in the credit card market, consumers experience substantial injury when credit card companies use unilateral amendment clauses to amend the terms of a reward program without adequate notice or opportunity to provide meaningful consent. Consumers make decisions based on expectations about the value of credit card reward programs,
                        <SU>147</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and so they incur concrete and monetary harm associated with the use of unilateral amendment clauses to unilaterally decrease the accrual rates or otherwise downgrade those programs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>147</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Consumer Fin. Prot. Bureau, 
                            <E T="03">Consumer Financial Protection Circular 2024-07: Design, Marketing, and Administration of Credit Card Rewards Programs,</E>
                             (Dec. 18, 2024), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/compliance/circulars/consumer-financial-protection-circular-2024-07-design-marketing-and-administration-of-credit-card-rewards-programs/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Contractual restraints on free expression deprive consumers of their ability to express themselves freely. This can cause harm when, for example, a consumer is prohibited from providing a negative review on or complaining about a faulty product or service. In such cases, the consumer is deprived of the ability to freely voice themselves about the quality of a product or service, which in turn deprives other consumers of the benefit of the negative review or complaint.
                        <SU>148</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         When a contract limits the consumer's ability to speak or act freely on political or religious matters, it deprives consumers of a fundamental right to express themselves. It also leaves consumers with the untenable choice between maintaining access to the financial service in question or maintaining the right to free speech. While most unfairness matters involve “monetary harm,” the substantial injury prong is met for any form of injury that is not “trivial or merely speculative.” 
                        <SU>149</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB preliminarily concludes that, based on the historical importance of free speech in the United States, limiting religious, political, or other forms of free speech is not a trivial consumer harm.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>148</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g., FTC</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Roca Labs, Inc.,</E>
                             345 F. Supp. 3d 1375, 1393 (M.D. Fla. 2018) (agreeing with the FTC that “restricting the flow of information to consumers and the marketplace causes or is likely to cause substantial injury”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>149</SU>
                             FTC Policy Statement on Unfairness (December 17, 1980), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.ftc.gov/legal-library/browse/ftc-policy-statement-unfairness.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Not reasonably avoidable.</E>
                         The injuries caused by these terms and conditions in form contracts are not reasonably avoidable by consumers because consumers are typically unaware they are agreeing to these terms and conditions, and even if they were, are unable to negotiate the terms out of the agreement. These clauses are almost always presented to consumers as “boilerplate” or “fine print” language in contracts of adhesion on a “take it or leave it” basis. These terms are drafted by companies (or their lawyers), and consumers are allowed no opportunity to negotiate or reject them. Nor can consumers realistically comparison shop for any of these clauses among different providers, since these contracts typically “are written in obscure technical language, do not use standardized terminology, and may not be provided before the transaction is consummated.” 
                        <SU>150</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Indeed, with the increasing popularity of digital transactions, standard contract terms have become more and more complex.
                        <SU>151</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         “The proliferation of lengthy standard-term contracts, mostly in digital form, makes it practically impossible for consumers to scrutinize the terms and evaluate them prior to manifesting assent.” 
                        <SU>152</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         There are also limited incentives for consumers to seek out better terms because these terms relate to future events that a consumer may not be able to properly assess at the time they are initially shopping for the product or service. For example, a 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3580"/>
                        consumer reviewing a unilateral amendment clause would be unlikely to predict what kinds of modifications a company might implement under such a clause. Under these circumstances, it should be unsurprising that many research studies have confirmed that consumers almost never read non-core terms in standard-form contracts. As noted above, for example, one prominent study found that far less than one percent of consumers can be expected to read such terms.
                        <SU>153</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         At any rate, even if consumers were to review these terms before signing the agreement, their only opportunity to avoid the terms would be to decline the agreement in totality. And once the agreement is entered into, these clauses are implemented by the companies without any involvement by the consumer.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>150</SU>
                             49 FR 7744.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>151</SU>
                             See 
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             Samples et al., 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 16 at 105.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>152</SU>
                             Restatement of the law, Consumer Contracts, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 28, at introduction.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>153</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Bakos et al., supra note 19 at 1.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Consideration of countervailing benefits.</E>
                         The CFPB is not aware of any meaningful countervailing benefits to consumers or competition created by these clauses that would outweigh the associated harms, and invites commenters to raise any countervailing benefits that the agency will consider before finalizing any rule. These clauses will typically not be essential to the transaction and will serve no purpose in the deal between the company and the consumer. To the contrary, these types of clauses strip important rights or protections from consumers, including the right to be aware of and provide meaningful consent to contract amendments, the right to benefit from legal protections, and the right to free expression. The CFPB is also not aware of any research or findings demonstrating that consumers enjoy lower costs or prices in exchange for these clauses. Nor is the CFPB aware of any benefits these clauses provide to competition. Indeed, the CFPB preliminary concludes that these clauses dilute competition by insulating companies from the rule of law, legal liability, and negative feedback (or even being compared unfavorably to one's competitors), and also by allowing companies broad discretion to fashion rules and procedures to their own liking. And once one firm adds one of these non-salient fine print terms, other firms in the market may be incentivized to match, creating a race to the bottom.
                        <SU>154</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>154</SU>
                             Margaret Jane Radin, 
                            <E T="03">Boilerplate: The Fine Print, Vanishing Rights, and the Rule of Law</E>
                             108 (2013) (“competition forces firms to offer progressively worse and more onerous terms”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        As noted in the section 1022(b) Analysis below, the CFPB acknowledges that companies may incur costs associated with the increased incentive to comply with existing laws if they cannot waive those laws or sidestep public accountability by blocking criticism. For purposes of determining legally recognizable countervailing benefits, it would generally be inappropriate to consider companies' lawbreaking to be a benefit to consumers or competition. However, even were the CFPB to consider that foregone cost to companies a countervailing benefit, those costs are likely to be low, and the CFPB would only credit those costs to the extent they pass through to consumer prices. That is because the CFPB considers countervailing benefits to “consumers or competition,” not companies, and the analysis is used to determine whether a practice is “injurious in its net effects.” 
                        <SU>155</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As noted in the section 1022(b) Analysis, the CFPB does not anticipate a 100 percent pass-through rate.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>155</SU>
                             See FTC Policy Statement on Unfairness, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 149.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Taking each of these clauses in turn, with respect to waiver of law clauses, the CFPB preliminarily concludes that that the harms are not outweighed by countervailing benefits associated with allowing companies to include clauses that nullify State and Federal legislatures' judgment on addressing a consumer harm and tools they have chosen to enable consumers to vindicate their legal rights. A consumer protection enacted by a legislature pursuant to a constitutionally valid process will generally have a legitimate purpose and a rational basis,
                        <SU>156</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and legislatures generally balance the benefits and costs and conclude that the legislation is net beneficial when a law is passed. It would be inappropriate for the CFPB to second-guess that legislative judgment and conclude that a democratically passed consumer protection's benefits are outweighed by its costs.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>156</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Minnesota</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Clover Leaf Creamery Co.,</E>
                             449 U.S. 456, 461-63 (1981).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Regarding unilateral amendment clauses, the CFPB preliminarily concludes that the countervailing benefits do not outweigh the harms. To be sure, companies may need to implement modifications during the course of an agreement, but consumers do not benefit from having such changes imposed on them without their awareness and consent. Nor do such changes benefit competition, since competition is benefited by consumers being able to consider concrete deals with terms they can rely on. If firms can change contractual terms at their discretion, consumers can have no confidence in the scope of consumer contracts and cannot properly comparison-shop among various providers.</P>
                    <P>As noted below in the section 1022(b) Analysis, in theory some firms may be discouraged from offering certain consumer-beneficial terms if they are not free to change them at a later date (without providing appropriate notice and obtaining consent). The CFPB generally does not grant this theoretical countervailing benefit much weight because the likelihood that unilateral amendment clauses impact the terms a firm offers is quite small. Firms will still be able to amend contracts—the only change is they will need to go through an appropriate process under common law to do so. Moreover, to consider such a benefit would be to argue that the CFPB should not prohibit a bait-and-switch scheme because it would deter companies from offering the “bait.” If firms are unwilling to offer terms unless they have full flexibility to change them, these terms are likely ephemeral promises anyway.</P>
                    <P>With respect to restraints on free expression, the CFPB is unaware of any countervailing benefit to allowing companies to include clauses that restrict consumers' ability to provide negative feedback or reviews on the companies, since distorting public reviews of a good or service does not help consumers and moreover such restrictions are already illegal in form contracts under the Consumer Review Fairness Act. Nor do there appear to be benefits to restricting a consumer's right to engage in constitutionally protected religious or political activity. While a company's management may disfavor certain speech or activities, it is not their purview to restrict such activities by private citizens and it is unclear what pecuniary gain the company itself would gain by constraining customers' speech involving topics having nothing to do with the company.</P>
                    <P>
                        Having said that, there are two theoretical countervailing benefits to consumers that the CFPB has considered in issuing this proposal. First, a scammer or fraudster who is a customer of a financial institution may communicate with other consumers in furtherance of an illegal scheme to defraud those consumers and induce payment to their account. In recognition of this potential countervailing benefit, the unfair practice identified by the CFPB only includes contract terms that limit “lawful expression,” which would not include contract terms giving covered persons a right to close an account that is being used to commit 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3581"/>
                        fraud or other illegal activity. Second, a common argument raised in debates about platforms and free speech is that a company should not have to carry the message of its customers if they disagree with the message.
                        <SU>157</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Putting aside the question of whether companies' and natural persons' free speech rights should be given equal weight, or the other merits of such arguments, this rulemaking implicates only agreements for consumer financial products or services, not terms of service for social media services or other businesses that provide a forum for someone else's views.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>157</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">Moody</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">NetChoice, LLC,</E>
                             603 U.S. 707, 728 (2024) (“We have repeatedly faced the question whether ordering a party to provide a forum for someone else's views implicates the First Amendment. And we have repeatedly held that it does so if, though only if, the regulated party is engaged in its own expressive activity, which the mandated access would alter or disrupt. So too we have held, when applying that principle, that expressive activity includes presenting a curated compilation of speech originally created by others.”).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        <E T="03">Public policy.</E>
                         “In determining whether an act or practice is unfair, the Bureau may consider established public policies as evidence to be considered with all other evidence.” 
                        <SU>158</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Public policy corroborates that the use of these three contractual clauses would be an unfair act or practice. As discussed above, evidence suggests that these clauses undermine principles of democratic governance, freedom of contract, and freedom of expression. In particular, a prohibition on unilateral amendment clauses is consistent with the recent Restatement of Consumer Contracts.
                        <SU>159</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         A prohibition on waivers of substantive rights is consistent with the public policy as determined by State and Federal legislatures across the country when determining to pass each individual law. And a prohibition on restraints on free expression supports a broad conception of the freedom of speech and recognizes that banking and consumer finance should be treated as public utilities with a duty to serve.
                        <SU>160</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>158</SU>
                             12 U.S.C. 5531(c)(2). “Such public policy considerations may not serve as a primary basis for such determination.” 
                            <E T="03">Id.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>159</SU>
                             Restatement of the Law, Consumer Contracts, 
                            <E T="03">supra</E>
                             note 28, sections 3, 5.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>160</SU>
                             Lev Menand and Morgan Ricks, Rebuilding Banking Law: Banks as Public Utilities (Sept 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://cdn.vanderbilt.edu/vu-URL/wp-content/uploads/sites/412/2023/09/14140935/Banking-Full-Report-Final.pdf; cf. Biden</E>
                             v. 
                            <E T="03">Knight First Amend. Inst.,</E>
                             141 S. Ct. 1220, 1222-24 (2021) (Thomas, J., concurring) (raising concerns about the ability of companies to constrain free speech and recognizing that doctrines involving common carriers or public accommodation may be an appropriate solution).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB seeks comment on all aspects of the proposed prohibition of these clauses.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VII. Proposed Effective Date and Compliance Date</HD>
                    <P>
                        If finalized, the proposed rule would go into effect 30 days after publication in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . Under proposed § 1027.104, covered persons subject to the rule would also be required to comply with the rule by 30 days after publication in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        . However, “if an agreement for a consumer financial product or service between a covered person and a consumer was executed before [30 days after publication of the final rule in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        ],” compliance with the rule would be required by 180 days after publication of the final rule in the 
                        <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                        .” An extended compliance date for pre-existing agreements would be appropriate because companies may need additional time to review and conform any pre-existing agreements to the proposed rule. The CFPB is not proposing to prescribe any particular manner in which a covered person should conform a pre-existing agreement to this proposed rule. For instance, a covered person may (subject to applicable law) amend such an agreement to remove any terms or conditions prohibited by the proposed rule. Or a covered person may provide adequate notice to a consumer that it will not enforce a term or condition prohibited by the proposed rule.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">VIII. Severability</HD>
                    <P>Under proposed § 1027.103, the CFPB preliminarily intends that, if any provision of the proposed rule, if adopted as final, or any application of a provision, is stayed or determined to be invalid, the remaining provisions or applications are severable and shall continue in effect.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">IX. Dodd-Frank Act Section 1022(b)(2) Analysis</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">A. Introduction</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Overview</HD>
                    <P>
                        In developing this proposed rule, the CFPB considered the potential benefits, costs, and impacts required by section 1022(b)(2) of the Dodd-Frank Act. Specifically, section 1022(b)(2) calls for the CFPB to consider the potential benefits and costs of a regulation to consumers and covered persons, including the potential reduction of access by consumers to consumer financial products or services, the impact on depository institutions and credit unions with $10 billion or less in total assets as described in section 1026 of the Dodd-Frank Act, and the impact on consumers in rural areas.
                        <SU>161</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>161</SU>
                             12 U.S.C. 5512(b)(2)(A).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The CFPB requests comment on the preliminary analysis presented below, as well as submissions of additional data that could inform the CFPB's analysis of the benefits, costs, and impacts of the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB considers the benefits, costs, and impacts of the proposed provisions as compared to the status quo that existed prior to the issuance of this proposed rule. In formulating this baseline, the CFPB considers economic attributes of the relevant markets and the existing legal and regulatory structures applicable to covered persons. In subpart B, the proposed rule would codify the prohibition of certain credit practices. Bank and nonbank covered persons have generally been aware that these credit practices are or are likely unlawful in light of the FTC Credit Practices Rule and joint guidance from the CFPB and the prudential regulators warning that such practices may violate the CFPA and FTC Act even in the absence of an express regulatory prohibition if engaged in by banks, savings associations, and Federal credit unions. The CFPB therefore anticipates few impacts resulting from this provision, relative to the baseline for these types of covered persons and seeks comment regarding the impacts on covered persons who were not already subject to these laws. subpart C of the proposed rule would create new restrictions on the terms of covered persons' contracts for a consumer financial product or service, though in many cases these terms are also already prohibited, such as non-disparagement clauses that violate the Consumer Review Fairness Act or waivers that violate the Military Lending Act. Therefore, subpart C may result in some substantive changes relative to the baseline. The estimated costs and benefits of both subparts are considered below. The CFPB seeks comment on this baseline.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Data</HD>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB notes that in some instances, the data needed to analyze the potential benefits, costs, and impacts of the proposed rule are not available or are limited. In particular, data with which to quantify impacts of the proposed rule are especially limited; for example, data with which to quantify the incidence of prohibited clauses, incidence of the use of 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3582"/>
                        prohibited clauses under baseline,
                        <SU>162</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         estimates of investments into compliance with consumer protection laws that will be induced by the rulemaking, and estimates of the effect on consumer behavior induced by the inclusion of prohibited clauses in contract language under baseline. As a result, portions of this analysis rely in part on general economic principles and the CFPB's expertise in consumer financial markets to provide a qualitative discussion of the benefits, costs, and impacts of the proposed rule. The CFPB seeks comment, data, or analysis that would improve this analysis.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>162</SU>
                             That is, how often covered persons rely on a prohibited term in consumer relations under the baseline.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Statement of Need</HD>
                    <P>
                        Before considering the benefits, costs, and impacts of the proposed provisions on consumers and covered persons, as required by section 1022(b)(2), the CFPB believes it may be useful to provide the economic framework through which it is considering those factors in order to more fully inform the rulemaking, and in particular to describe the market failures that are the basis for the proposed rule.
                        <SU>163</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>163</SU>
                             Although section 1022(b)(2) does not require the CFPB to provide this background, the CFPB does so as a matter of discretion to more fully inform the rulemaking.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>In a perfectly competitive market, where consumers were able to fully understand and appropriately value each term or condition of their contracts, firms would have strong incentives to offer contracts that include only terms and conditions that, in expectation, generate net value that is shared between the firm and their customers. However, there is strong evidence that consumers rarely read the terms and conditions and are often unaware of the full implications of the contracts they sign. Form contracts are often long and complex, and require sophisticated legal knowledge to understand. Further, consumers have no meaningful opportunity to negotiate the contracts' terms and conditions, and therefore have little incentive to spend their limited time on understanding and valuing the contracts' terms and conditions. Even if consumers do fully understand the terms and conditions, the risks and benefits of each clause are often distant in time and probability and therefore extremely difficult for consumers to accurately assess. Finally, although the competitiveness of markets for consumer financial products and services varies from product to product, the search costs involved in reading, understanding, and valuing the terms and conditions offered for each product or service a consumer is considering likely creates sufficient market power for firms to impose contract terms and conditions that are less favorable to consumers than would be efficient. That is, the terms and conditions are likely to, on average, impose costs on consumers that exceed the benefits to the firms that impose them.</P>
                    <P>Certain types of terms and conditions also impose negative externalities on the market as a whole by weakening incentives to comply with applicable consumer protection laws. For example, firms sometimes include clauses in their terms and conditions that purport to waive protections passed by elected officials in Federal or State government, surrender due process rights upon default, or allow firms to unilaterally amend the contract at any time. Some firms also seek to weaken reputational incentives by including clauses that restrict consumers' free speech.</P>
                    <P>The proposed rule has two parts. First, it codifies practices on the use of certain remedies in credit contracts that have long been understood to be prohibited. Second, it forbids covered persons from including in their contracts any clause that waives legal rights designed to protect consumers, any clause that reserves to the covered person the right to unilaterally amend a material term of the contract, and any clause that restrains the consumer's free expression.</P>
                    <P>The first part of the proposed rule-subpart B-would codify the already existing FTC Credit Practices Rule and is unlikely to have significant costs for covered persons because the credit practices it prohibits are generally understood to be prohibited at baseline. Under this baseline, many covered persons are already subject to the FTC Credit Practices Rule, and the prohibitions in subpart B would not result in any change for them, while banks and other prudentially supervised institutions that have not been covered by the Credit Practices Rule or its prudential regulator equivalents, repealed following the enactment of the CFPA, generally understand from the 2014 guidance that the practices that subpart B would codify are likely to be prohibited. At baseline, some covered persons may face costs related to residual uncertainty about whether covered persons within the CFPB's jurisdiction may engage in the prohibited credit practices. For example, some covered persons may choose to consult legal counsel to determine whether a certain business practice is permissible. By reducing confusion or uncertainty about what is prohibited, the proposed rule may reduce these costs for covered persons.</P>
                    <P>The second part of the proposed rule—subpart C—addresses the incentives for covered persons to comply with applicable consumer financial protection laws. Some consumer finance companies may alter private enforcement through the terms and conditions included in contracts of adhesion. The CFPB's economic framework assumes that when Congress and States have promulgated consumer protection laws that are applicable to consumer financial products and services (the underlying laws) they have done so to address a range of market failures. The underlying laws need enforcement mechanisms to ensure that firms providing financial products and services conform to these laws. Along with supervisory or public enforcement by Federal and State regulatory bodies and commercial incentives to maintain a good reputation, private enforcement mechanisms play a critical role in ensuring compliance with the underlying laws. While the CFPB assumes that the underlying laws address a range of market failures, it also recognizes that compliance with these underlying laws requires firms to incur costs. For example, there are costs required to distribute required disclosures, resolve disputes, or train and monitor employees for compliance with underlying laws.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB has preliminarily determined, based on its experience and expertise in overseeing consumer finance markets, that weakening consumers' rights, as defined by elected legislatures and courts, is likely to lead to weaker compliance incentives. The economic costs of increased compliance would generally be less than the economic benefits of increased compliance. Thus, the terms and conditions that would be prohibited by subpart C of the proposed rule are likely to lower economic welfare by undermining compliance incentives.</P>
                    <P>
                        The provisions that would be prohibited by subpart C of the proposed rule generally undermine compliance incentives without offering any rights or benefits to consumers. Indeed, they generally constitute unfair or deceptive acts or practices. Many of the provisions prohibited by subpart C persist in the marketplace due to the market failures described above. Consumers are generally unaware of these provisions, cannot understand them, and have no meaningful opportunity to avoid them. However, even in an idealized marketplace where consumers were fully informed and firms did not have 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3583"/>
                        market power, terms and conditions that weaken incentives to comply with the underlying laws would likely be economically inefficient because they impose costs on other consumers and firms that are not parties to the transaction. For example, consumers might sign a contract of adhesion agreeing to forfeit their right to provide negative reviews of a firm's product or service either because they have no meaningful choice or because the product is priced lower than competing products (and at the time of contracting, the consumer might focus only on the price, not the right they are giving up), and the firm might be willing to provide a discount in return for this agreement to ensure that any deficiencies in their product or service would not affect their reputation or ability to attract future customers. However, this restraint on free expression deprives the rest of the market of valuable information regarding the conduct of the firm or the quality of its product. This type of clause creates an additional market failure—insufficient provision of public information—that cannot be resolved through informed consent or negotiation.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">B. Overview of Economic Effects</HD>
                    <P>This section provides an overview of the economic effects of subparts B and C of the proposed rule.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Overview of Economic Effects of Subpart B</HD>
                    <P>This subpart would codify the already existing FTC Credit Practices Rule, which was first issued in 1984 and applies to entities in the FTC's jurisdiction, and apply it additionally to banks, savings associations, Federal credit unions, and other covered persons under the CFPB's jurisdiction. Following the issuance of the FTC's rule, other prudential regulators issued companion credit practices rules applicable to banks, savings associations, and Federal credit unions; the Federal Reserve Board's rule applicable to banks was codified in Regulation AA. The Dodd-Frank Act repealed the rulemaking authority of the prudential regulators under the FTC Act and transferred that authority to the CFPB. The CFPB did not re-codify these rules when it was created, but issued joint guidance with the prudential regulators to make clear that the conduct that these rules covered still could violate the prohibitions against unfair and deceptive acts and practices under the FTC Act and the Dodd-Frank Act. This subpart explicitly re-codifies these credit practices rules. Because the conduct covered under this subpart is already generally understood by market participants to be unfair and deceptive, the CFPB does not anticipate that there will be any meaningful economic effects in response to the re-codification of these rules.</P>
                    <P>
                        Insofar as there are covered persons who are not currently subject to the FTC's Credit Practices Rule or within the scope of the interagency guidance on prohibited credit practices for banks, savings associations, and Federal credit unions, and therefore do not understand that the practices are currently prohibited, the implementation of this proposed rule would standardize credit practices across lenders of different types. This would require covered persons not currently in compliance with the requirements of the FTC's Credit Practices Rule and the former rules promulgated by the prudential regulators to invest in compliance with the proposed rule, for example, by removing any clauses with prohibited terms in existing contracts and including cosigner disclosure forms. For covered persons currently subject to the FTC's Credit Practices Rule or within the scope of the interagency guidance—that is, banks, savings associations, Federal credit unions, and any covered person under FTC jurisdiction—this would require potential competitors to also comply with the requirements of the existing and former rules, eliminating any undue competitive advantage those potential competitors currently hold and benefiting the covered persons currently refraining from the practices covered by those rules. From the perspective of the consumer, the standardization of credit practices across lenders of different types would reduce search costs. Moreover, as noted in the interagency guidance, the basis of the prohibited credit practices was their unfair or deceptive nature; 
                        <SU>164</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         hence their prohibition across a broader group of covered persons would benefit consumers by further shielding them from these practices. On the other hand, it is theoretically possible that some covered persons would reduce the provision of certain credit products due to the expanded scope of the proposed rule. However, even if there are entities that are not covered by the FTC's rule or the interagency guidance and use these prohibited terms, the rule is unlikely to affect credit access from those entities given the FTC's original conclusion that the Credit Practices Rule would “not have a major impact on either the price or availability of credit.” 
                        <SU>165</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The magnitude of these effects depends on how many covered persons would be newly subjected to these requirements. The CFPB requests any data or comments that would help quantify how many covered entities would be newly subjected to the requirements of the credit practices rules as a result of this proposed rule and how many use any prohibited credit practices under the baseline.
                        <SU>166</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>164</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             49 FR 7740 (Mar. 1, 1984); 50 FR 16696 (Apr. 29, 1985); 50 FR 19325 (May 8, 1985); and 52 FR 35060 (Sept. 17, 1987).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>165</SU>
                             49 FR 7779. The FTC's post-hoc review on access to credit came to the same conclusion. 60 FR 24805, 24808 (May 10, 1995).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>166</SU>
                             Note that these covered persons would be limited to those that are not subject to the current interagency guidance—which covers banks, savings associations, and Federal credit unions—as well as those not subject to FTC jurisdiction.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Additionally, it is possible that certain providers would attempt to engage in prohibited credit practices or may be uncertain as to whether certain business practices are permissible, despite current guidance from the CFPB and other prudential regulators. This subpart would reduce any residual confusion or uncertainty about what is prohibited, which may benefit covered persons. In the event that covered persons may incorrectly attempt to use these prohibited practices against consumers, it is possible that this re-codification incentivizes providers to reduce their use of these prohibited credit practices and thus reduces any costs incurred by consumers in defending themselves from these prohibited credit practices.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">Overview of Economic Effects of Subpart C</HD>
                    <P>
                        This subpart would prohibit covered persons from including in their contracts with consumers for consumer financial products or services (1) clauses that require consumers to waive legal rights designed to protect consumers, other than rights explicitly made waivable by relevant consumer laws; (2) clauses that allow a covered person to unilaterally amend a material term of the contract; and (3) clauses that restrict consumers' free expression. Collectively, these are referred to as prohibited terms and conditions. The CFPB considers these terms and conditions to be (1) deceptive insofar as clauses that purport to waive legal rights expressly granted by relevant consumer financial laws, or restrain speech protected by the Consumer Review Fairness Act are unenforceable but may be presented as if they are binding; and (2) unfair, as these terms and conditions cause injury that is not reasonably avoidable by consumers and not 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3584"/>
                        outweighed by countervailing benefits to consumers or competition.
                        <SU>167</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>167</SU>
                             The CFPB has explained that the use of contract terms that are unenforceable often amounts to a deceptive act or practice, 
                            <E T="03">see</E>
                             CFPB Circular 2024-03, 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/compliance/circulars/consumer-financial-protection-circular-2024-03/.</E>
                             In that sense, portions of this subpart codify existing interpretation of the CFPA. Under the Restatement (Second) of Contracts, revised contract terms are adopted only insofar as consumers receive notice of material changes, have opportunity to consider changes, and assent to changes. Unilateral changes to contract terms that lack notice and meaningful consent by the consumer violate this principle and are generally found to be unenforceable by courts, as noted above. Similarly, form contract prohibitions on consumers' free expression run afoul of the Consumer Review Fairness Act and are thus unenforceable. Finally, as noted above, the CFPB has taken enforcement action against covered persons who include in contract language waivers of consumer rights that are expressly waivable by statute.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        There are four main effects the adoption of subpart C of this proposed rule would cause. First, the inclusion of prohibited terms and conditions at baseline may have an effect on consumer behavior, even when such terms are unenforceable.
                        <SU>168</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Hence, the implementation of this rulemaking would likely ease this effect, which in turn would likely increase the incidence of consumer disputes. This would apply to formal disputes, where consumers exercise legal rights afforded to them under consumer financial laws, or to informal disputes, for example, in situations where a consumer exercises their free expression to lodge complaints against the covered person in public forums. In either case, the covered person would generally incur additional costs in countering such disputes through customer service, in formal legal or arbitration settings, or in informal settings such as response to consumer complaints in public forums. Consumers who may have been discouraged from pursuing valid disputes by the inclusion of prohibited terms in contracts would benefit from the increased incidence of disputes and associated relief. Second, insofar as covered persons may rely on prohibited terms in the event that a dispute arises—including reliance on unenforceable terms due to any residual uncertainty about the applicability of such terms—the prohibition of these terms and conditions in contracts incentivizes covered persons to comply with existing consumer financial laws. Covered persons would respond to this incentive by increasing investments in compliance, which in turn benefits consumers due to the lower likelihood that consumers would experience a violation of their rights under applicable consumer financial laws.
                        <SU>169</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Third, the prohibition of unilateral changes in contract terms would increase the costs of contract changes, which in turn may change the terms that the covered person would initially offer beyond the elimination of any prohibited terms. That is, a covered person who relies on a contract term allowing for unilateral changes under the baseline would be required to remove this term and instead comply with applicable Federal or State law in order to implement modifications.
                        <SU>170</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Insofar as this process is more costly than the process to change terms under the baseline, the covered person may opt to change the terms—beyond any prohibited terms—in the initially offered contract in anticipation of these increased costs.
                        <SU>171</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         However, as noted above, unilateral changes may be found to be unenforceable by courts, absent evidence of sufficient notice and consumer consent. Hence, this effect will be limited by the enforceability of such terms under baseline. Finally, there would be administrative costs associated with identifying and removing any prohibited terms and conditions from contracts, though this cost is expected to be a fixed, one-time cost, in general.
                        <SU>172</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB does not have systematic data that would allow for the quantification of the incidence of these terms in consumer contracts nor their actual use in financial relationships. The CFPB requests any commentary or data that would help quantify the baseline as well as any costs or benefits associated with the aforementioned economic effects of the rulemaking.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>168</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See, e.g.,</E>
                             Tess Wilkinson-Ryan, 
                            <E T="03">The Perverse Consequences of Disclosing Standard Terms,</E>
                             103 
                            <E T="03">Cornell L. Rev.,</E>
                             117-175 (2017).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>169</SU>
                             For example, any covered persons that rely on waivers of consumer protection law, including both cause of action and remedies, under the baseline would be incentivized to increase their compliance with these laws given the prohibition of these waivers of law. Note that this incentive effect is not independent of the incidence of disputes effect described above. Specifically, covered persons are likely to recognize that the removal of any chilling effect the prohibited terms may have on consumer behavior would likely increase dispute incidence, all else equal. To lessen the probability of a dispute arising, covered persons would be incentivized to increase compliance with consumer protection laws. Even with this increased compliance, it is likely that the removal of the chilling effect would still lead to increased incidence of disputes.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>170</SU>
                             The specific process the covered person would have to follow depends on prevailing State and common law.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>171</SU>
                             This would have an ambiguous effect on consumers. On one hand, if as a result of increased costs of changing contracts, covered persons decide to change or remove terms that consumers value, this is costly to consumers. On the other hand, consumers being made aware of changes in contract terms and being offered the opportunity to consider these changes allows them to better respond to changes, which benefits them. For example, a covered person that rewards points on a credit card may lower the value of these points in the initially offered contract in anticipation of higher costs of changing the terms at a later date, which is costly for consumers. However, if the covered person decides to lower the value of these points after the contract is in force, they would not be able to do so unilaterally and must notify the consumer in advance, at a minimum giving the consumer opportunity to consider and respond to these changes. In response, the consumer may decide to redeem the points in advance of any devaluation or end the financial relationship and move to a different provider that offers more favorable terms. This would benefit the consumer insofar as they would not necessarily have this opportunity under the baseline.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>172</SU>
                             Given that the rule prohibits waivers of consumer rights under Federal or State consumer financial protection laws, it is possible that future changes in consumer financial protection laws may require review and editing of contracts. In that sense, this final effect may also lead to some variable costs for covered persons in the form of monitoring relevant consumer protection laws and ensuring that terms and conditions of relevant contracts comply with these laws. However, it should also be noted that, at baseline, covered persons must monitor and comply with relevant consumer protection laws, including any potential changes to relevant laws. In that sense, the additional cost here would be limited to reviewing and editing contracts to ensure compliance.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Insofar as some of these effects increase the marginal costs to covered persons—
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         increased costs of compliance with consumer finance laws or increased costs associated with dispute resolution which would be ongoing costs, in general, as opposed to being incurred one-time only—the CFPB believes that most providers would pass through some portion of these marginal cost increases to consumers.
                        <SU>173</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The rate at which firms pass through changes in their marginal costs to consumers through prices charged is called the pass-through rate—
                        <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                         a pass-through rate of 100 percent means that the increase in marginal costs would not be absorbed by providers but rather fully passed through to consumers through increased prices, while a pass-through rate of 0 percent means that consumers would not see a price increase. The pass-through rate depends on many factors, including the elasticities of demand and supply, the market structure, and the model of competition. Existing estimates of pass-through rates in the credit card market are close to zero.
                        <SU>174</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Similarly, research on the effects of regulation on late payment 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3585"/>
                        fees and overlimit fees on credit card and interchange fees on debit cards generally found low to non-existent pass-through rates.
                        <SU>175</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Beyond credit cards and debit cards, there is relatively limited evidence estimating the pass-through rate on all the relevant consumer finance markets covered by this rulemaking. The CFPB requests any comments or data that may aid the evaluation of relevant pass-through rates.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>173</SU>
                             Some of these increased costs—
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             the cost of changing contract language to remove prohibited terms—can be considered fixed costs of business. Economic theory suggests that the profit-maximizing response of an increase in fixed costs is not to pass that increase through to consumers.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>174</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Lawrence Ausubel, 
                            <E T="03">The Failure of Competition in the Credit Card Market,</E>
                             81 a.m. Econ. Rev. 50 (1991); 
                            <E T="03">but see</E>
                             Todd Zywicki, 
                            <E T="03">The Economics of Credit Cards,</E>
                             3 Chap. L. Rev. 79 (2000); Daniel Grodzicki, 
                            <E T="03">Competition and Customer Acquisition in the U.S. Credit Card Market</E>
                             (Working Paper, 2015): 
                            <E T="03">https://editorialexpress.com/cgi-bin/conference/download.cgi?db_name=IIOC2015&amp;paper_id=308.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>175</SU>
                             
                            <E T="03">See</E>
                             Sumit Agarwal, Souphala Chomsisengphet, Neale Mahoney &amp; Johannes Stroebel, 
                            <E T="03">Regulating Consumer Financial Products: Evidence from Credit Cards,</E>
                             130 Q. J. of Econ. 1 (2015); Benjamin Kay, Mark Manuszak &amp; Cindy Vojtech, 
                            <E T="03">Bank Profitability and Debit Card Interchange Regulation: Bank Responses to the Durbin Amendment</E>
                             (Fed. Reserve Board, Working Paper No. 2014-77, 2014), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.federalreserve.gov/econresdata/feds/2014/files/201477pap.pdf. But see</E>
                             Todd Zywicki, Geoffrey Manne &amp; Julian Morris, 
                            <E T="03">Price Controls on Payment Card Interchange Fees: The U.S. Experience,</E>
                             (Geo. Mason L. &amp; Econ., Research Paper No. 14-18, 2014), 
                            <E T="03">http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/Papers.cfm?abstract_id=2446080.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">C. Potential Costs and Benefits to Covered Persons</HD>
                    <P>
                        This section describes the benefits and costs to covered persons that the CFPB expects to occur under the proposed rule. Each of the two subparts of the proposed rule is analyzed in detail separately. The proposed rule would generally apply to “covered persons” under the CFPA, subject to certain exceptions. A covered person is “(A) any person that engages in offering or providing a consumer financial product or service; and (B) any affiliate of a person described in subparagraph (A) if such affiliate acts as a service provider to such person.” 
                        <SU>176</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Section 1027.102 of the proposed rule would exempt two categories of covered persons from the rule. First, the rule would not apply to any person that is a `small entity' as that term is defined in 5 U.S.C. 601, including any firm that is at or below the SBA standard for its primary industry. Second, the rule would not apply to “any person to the extent that it is providing a product or service in circumstances excluded from the CFPB's rulemaking authority pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5517 or 5519.”
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>176</SU>
                             12 U.S.C. 5481.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>To derive an estimate of the number of affected entities under the proposed rule using publicly available data, the CFPB used data from the December 2023 NCUA and FFIEC Call Report Data and the 2017 Economic Census from the U.S. Census Bureau. Table 1 below presents entity counts for the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) codes that generally align with consumer financial products or services. The markets defined by NAICS codes may include some entities that would not qualify as covered persons under the CFPA. It is also likely that some covered persons may not be counted in table 1. For example, the financial services they provide may not be their primary line of business. The CFPB seeks comment on the NAICS codes included in table 1, and, in particular, on whether there are any industries not included that contain a significant number of entities that will be affected by the final rule.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,r50,12,12">
                        <TTITLE>Table 1—Entity Counts for NAICS Codes</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">NAICS name(s)</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">NAICS code(s)</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Number of 
                                <LI>entities </LI>
                                <LI>operating all year</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Estimated number of non-SBA 
                                <LI>
                                    entities 
                                    <SU>177</SU>
                                </LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Credit Unions</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                522110,
                                <LI>522120,</LI>
                                <LI>522210</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>4702</ENT>
                            <ENT>500</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Commercial Banking, Savings Institutions, and Credit Card Issuing</ENT>
                            <ENT>522130</ENT>
                            <ENT>4587</ENT>
                            <ENT>1165</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Nondepository Credit Intermediation</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                522220,
                                <LI>522291,</LI>
                                <LI>522292,</LI>
                                <LI>522299</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>7403</ENT>
                            <ENT>438</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Activities Related to Credit Intermediation</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                522310,
                                <LI>522320,</LI>
                                <LI>522390</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>11252</ENT>
                            <ENT>212</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Activities Related to Real Estate</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                531311,
                                <LI>531312,</LI>
                                <LI>531320,</LI>
                                <LI>531390</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>63564</ENT>
                            <ENT>709</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Portfolio Management &amp; Investment Advice</ENT>
                            <ENT>
                                523920,
                                <LI>523930</LI>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>34695</ENT>
                            <ENT>542</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Passenger Car Leasing</ENT>
                            <ENT>532112</ENT>
                            <ENT>199</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Truck, Utility Trailer, and Recreational Vehicle Rental and Leasing</ENT>
                            <ENT>532120</ENT>
                            <ENT>920</ENT>
                            <ENT>0</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Consumer Reporting</ENT>
                            <ENT>561450</ENT>
                            <ENT>284</ENT>
                            <ENT>17</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">Debt Collection</ENT>
                            <ENT>561440</ENT>
                            <ENT>2750</ENT>
                            <ENT>116</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>130,356</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,699</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                         
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>177</SU>
                             The Economic Census provides entity counts by revenue bins that generally do not correspond to the SBA revenue thresholds. Therefore, the CFPB estimates the number of entities that are above the small entity thresholds. In particular, for each NAICS code, the CFPB fits a generalized Pareto distribution to the share of firms in four revenue bins, as reported in the Economic Census: Under $1MM, $1-10MM, $10-25MM, and $25MM+. SBA regularly updates its size thresholds to account for inflation and other factors. The SBA Size Standards described here reflect the thresholds in effect at the publication date of this proposed rule. The 2017 Economic Census data are the most recently available data with entity counts by annual revenue. See Small Bus. Admin., SBA Size Standards (effective Mar. 17, 2023), 
                            <E T="03">https://www.sba.gov/document/support-table-size-standards.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        Subpart B of the proposed rule would codify the already existing FTC Credit Practices Rule, which was first issued in 1984,
                        <SU>178</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and apply it additionally to banks, savings associations, Federal credit unions, and other covered persons under the CFPB's jurisdiction. Because the conduct covered under this subpart is already generally understood to be unfair and deceptive, the CFPB does not anticipate that there would be 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3586"/>
                        any significant economic effects in response to the proposed codification. However, it is possible that, at baseline, some covered persons attempt to engage in prohibited credit practices or incur costs related to determining whether a practice is prohibited. The proposed rule may therefore modestly benefit covered persons by emphasizing that these credit practices are prohibited.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>178</SU>
                             49 FR 7740 (Mar. 1, 1984).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Subpart C of the proposed rule would prohibit covered persons from including in their contracts with consumers for consumer financial products or services (i) clauses that require consumers to waive legal rights designed to protect consumers; (ii) clauses that allow the covered person to unilaterally amend the contract; and (iii) clauses that restrict consumers' free expression. This provision would impose one-time administrative costs associated with reviewing and revising contracts to identify and remove any prohibited terms and conditions. Covered persons currently using prohibited terms and conditions would likely face increased exposure to consumer disputes, including litigation. In response, covered persons currently using prohibited terms and conditions would incur costs related to lowering their exposure to disputes, for example by allocating more resources to training staff to comply with underlying laws, as well as increased costs related to countering disputes, either in formal litigation or arbitration or in informal settings.</P>
                    <P>Subpart C likely would benefit some covered persons by reducing uncertainty about the legality of prohibited terms and conditions, as well as unintentional exposure to enforcement action by the CFPB or other State and Federal regulators. Covered persons not currently using terms and conditions that would be prohibited under subpart C may also benefit from this provision of the proposed rule. In general, firms that intentionally violate consumer protection laws or under-invest in compliance obtain a competitive advantage over their more compliant competitors. For example, firms that successfully deceive consumers about the true cost or quality of the products or services they offer by restricting the right of consumers to freely express their experiences with the provider may gain market share at the expense of firms that more accurately disclose costs or quality. In some cases, firms that unlawfully use terms and conditions to limit consumers' ability to resolve disputes may be able to offer lower prices to consumers up front, even if the prohibited terms and conditions leave consumers worse off on average. To the extent that the proposed rule incentivizes firms using prohibited terms and conditions to increase their compliance, firms which were previously compliant will benefit. Clauses that restrict free expression prevent consumers from obtaining information that would be relevant to their adoption or purchasing decisions and make it more difficult for high-quality firms to gain market share. Therefore, the prohibition on clauses restricting free expression will benefit firms that would gain market share if more information about consumers' experiences with their competitors was publicly available.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Potential Costs and Benefits to Covered Persons of Subpart B</HD>
                    <P>Subpart B of the proposed rule would codify the already existing FTC Credit Practices Rule, which was first issued in 1984, and apply it additionally to banks, savings associations, Federal credit unions, and other covered persons under the CFPB's jurisdiction. Because the conduct covered under this subpart is already generally understood to be unfair and deceptive and is, in the CFPB's experience, exceedingly uncommon, the CFPB does not anticipate that there will be any significant economic effects in response to the proposed codification. The CFPB seeks comment on whether any covered persons are not prohibited or discouraged from using these practices at baseline, for example because they are exempt from FTC authority and outside the scope of applicable interagency guidance. The CFPB also seeks comment on the incidence of these practices at baseline, including for any covered persons not currently prohibited or discouraged from using them.</P>
                    <P>Despite the longstanding prohibition on and discouragement of these practices, it is possible that some covered persons attempt to engage in such practices or incur costs related to determining whether a practice is prohibited. The proposed rule may therefore modestly benefit covered persons by clarifying that these credit practices are prohibited. For example, it is possible that some covered persons that would consult outside legal counsel to assess the risks of engaging in a prohibited credit practice at baseline would no longer do so under the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB does not have any data with which to quantify the extent of uncertainty regarding the credit practices subpart B would prohibit or the costs, if any, that firms bear as a result of such uncertainty. Therefore, the CFPB cannot quantify the benefits associated with reducing uncertainty about the legality of these practices. The CFPB requests comment or data on cases where covered persons may lack clarity about the applicability of current rules and guidance on credit practices, or where such lack of clarity may be resolved by the proposed rule's codification.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Potential Costs and Benefits to Covered Persons of Subpart C</HD>
                    <P>
                        Subpart C of the proposed rule prohibits covered persons from including in their contracts with consumers for consumer financial products or services (i) clauses that require consumers to waive legal rights designed to protect consumers; (ii) clauses that allow the covered person to unilaterally amend the contract; and (iii) clauses that restrict consumers' free expression. The CFPB has preliminarily determined that these prohibited terms and conditions constitute unfair or deceptive acts or practices. Based on previous guidance 
                        <SU>179</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         and enforcement actions by the CFPB and other State and Federal regulators, the CFPB believes that some covered persons may already not use the terms and conditions covered by subpart C because their use may constitute prohibited UDAAPs or otherwise be unenforceable under common law or other statutory law.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>179</SU>
                             See CFPB Consumer Financial Protection Circular 2024-03 “Unlawful and unenforceable contract terms and conditions” at 
                            <E T="03">https://www.consumerfinance.gov/compliance/circulars/consumer-financial-protection-circular-2024-03/.</E>
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Costs of Reviewing and Revising Contracts</HD>
                    <P>
                        This provision would impose one-time administrative costs associated with reviewing and revising contracts to identify and remove any prohibited terms and conditions. To precisely quantify the costs to covered persons, the CFPB would need representative data on the operational costs that covered persons would incur to read and understand the rule, identify any prohibited terms and conditions in their contracts, revise any non-compliant contracts, and fully implement use of the revised contracts. Given that the CFPB is unaware of the existence of representative data of this kind, the CFPB has made reasonable efforts to gather information on the one-time costs of reviewing contracts for compliance with the proposed rule and revising them if necessary. The following discussion combines available data with assumptions informed by the CFPB's experience to produce estimated costs for covered persons of three 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3587"/>
                        representative sizes. Given the potential for wide variation in use of terms and conditions covered by proposed subpart C at baseline and the limited data available, these calculations may not fully quantify the costs to an individual covered person. That is, the CFPB expects that some firms would have higher or lower costs than the average costs described here. The CFPB requests comment on this approach, as well as any data or analysis that would inform its cost estimates.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In general, the one-time costs of bringing contracts into compliance with the proposed rule would require four distinct tasks: (1) understanding the rule; (2) reviewing all contract types to identify any prohibited terms and conditions; (3) revising any contract containing a prohibited term and condition; and (4) implementing use of the revised contracts. As discussed above, the CFPB does not have representative data on the prevalence of terms and conditions that would be prohibited under the proposed rule. In order to avoid underestimating the costs of the proposed rule, the CFPB assumes that nearly all covered persons not exempt from the proposed rule would need to review every contract type they use for compliance with the proposed rule. Further, the CFPB assumes that nearly all contract types would need to be revised to comply with the proposed rule.
                        <SU>180</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB seeks comment or data on the accuracy of these assumptions.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>180</SU>
                             For example, the proposed rule would generally require that unilateral amendment clauses explicitly describe the conditions under which contracts can be unilaterally amended, such as notification and options for opting out of the amendment. In the CFPB's experience, these clauses are common but often do not adequately inform consumers of their rights. Under the proposed rule, any contract containing a unilateral amendment clause would need to be revised.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The first task would require firms to read the proposed rule and understand its definitions and requirements. Based on the CFPB's experience, this would take roughly two hours for the typical firm. Some firms may have higher costs. For example, some firms may need to take time to analyze whether they are covered persons subject to the proposed rule. The CFPB seeks information or analysis on the typical time burden that would be required to read and understand the proposed rule.</P>
                    <P>The second task would require firms to review their contracts for the presence of terms and conditions that would be prohibited by the proposed rule. The CFPB understands that the types of terms and conditions prohibited by the proposed rule are not uncommon and expects that many covered persons would review their existing contracts for compliance with the proposed rule. The CFPB expects that firms would generally be able to complete this task by searching the text of the contract for a limited set of key words that signify waivers, amendments to the contract, or restrictions on expression and then evaluating the relevant clause for compliance. The CFPB expects that this would take between 60 and 90 minutes per contract, depending on the number of contracts to review and the sophistication of the firm. The CFPB seeks comment on the typical time burden that would be involved in reviewing existing contracts for compliance with the proposed rule. The CFPB also requests comment on whether any common terms or conditions that would be prohibited by the proposed rule would be difficult to identify.</P>
                    <P>
                        The third task would require firms to revise any existing contracts containing terms or conditions that would be prohibited by the proposed rule. Based on academic research and its experience, the CFPB expects that most contracts contain at least one term or condition that would need to be revised. The CFPB also expects that many prohibited terms and conditions would need relatively minor revisions that would not significantly change the legal risks or business practices of the firm.
                        <SU>181</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In other cases, firms may need to make complex decisions about how to revise their contracts. However, the CFPB also expects that many firms use similar terms and conditions across their contracts, and that even firms using relatively few contracts would not need to consider each term in each contract individually. Considering these factors, the CFPB expects that, on average, revising contracts for compliance would take between six and eight hours per type of contract. The CFPB requests comment on the appropriateness of this estimated burden, especially any data or analysis that would inform an alternative estimate.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>181</SU>
                             For example, the CFPB is aware that some firms have established policies to notify consumers of changes to their contracts, despite having clauses which reserve the right to unilaterally amend the contract without notification. These firms would generally be able to comply with the proposed rule by describing this existing policy in the contract. Although this would require additional commitment to notify consumers of changes, it would not require the firm to develop or establish a new notification policy.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The final task involves implementing the revised consumer contracts. This is likely to involve updating consumer-facing websites, notifying existing customers of the changes, collecting and destroying outdated contracts, and printing out new paper copies of the revised contract for use in offices. Given the diverse set of industries and business models covered by the proposed rule, implementation costs are likely to vary significantly between firms. In addition, these kinds of printing and updating tasks will likely be incorporated into ongoing processes and reviews. However, based on its experience the CFPB expects this task to take approximately two to four hours per contract on average, depending on the number of contracts and the sophistication of the firm. The CFPB requests comment on the appropriateness of this estimated burden, as well as any data or analysis that would inform an alternative estimate.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB assesses the average hourly base wage rate for each of these tasks at $51.21 per hour. This is the mean hourly wage for employees in four major occupational groups assessed to be most likely responsible for the compliance process: Management ($59.31/hr); Lawyers ($84.84/hr); Business and Financial Operations ($39.82/hr); and Office and Administrative Support ($20.88/hr). The average hourly wage of $51.21 is multiplied by the private industry benefits factor of 1.42 to get a fully loaded wage rate of $72.72/hr. The CFPB includes these four occupational groups in order to account for the mix of specialized employees that are likely to participate in the identification, revision, and implementation of terms and conditions due to requirements imposed by the proposed rule. The CFPB assesses that Office and Administrative Support staff are likely to be responsible for gathering existing contracts and implementing use of any revised contracts, potentially including destruction of existing noncompliant contracts. Employees specialized in business and financial operations or in legal occupations are likely to be responsible for making decisions about how noncompliant contracts should be revised. Senior officers and other managers are likely to review the revised contracts and may provide additional information. The CFPB seeks comment on the occupations of staff that would be required to ensure compliance with proposed subpart C as well as any other information that would inform its estimate of the average hourly compensation of the necessary employees.</P>
                    <P>
                        The direct compliance costs for a given covered person will depend on its complexity in general, and, most importantly, on the number of different types of contracts it uses. Table 2 presents the estimated direct cost for 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3588"/>
                        covered persons at three different levels of complexity, based on the assumptions described above. The total cost depends on the number of covered persons in each of the three representative categories of complexity. Table 2 also reports estimates of how many of the estimated number of non-exempt covered persons reported in table 1 may fall into each category, based on their total revenue as reported in the Economic Census. Specifically, the CFPB assumes that covered persons with under $25 million in annual receipts fall within the “simple” tier with ten covered contracts. Covered persons with annual receipts between $25 million and $100 million are assumed to be in the “intermediate” complexity tier, with 25 contracts. Covered persons with annual receipts greater than $100 million are assumed to be in the “complex” tier, with 250 contracts. The CFPB believes that revenue is a reasonable and transparent indicator of the number of contracts used by covered persons, and is therefore appropriate for estimating the average time burden and cost to covered entities. The CFPB seeks information or analysis that could improve its estimates of the number of contracts used by different types of firms.
                    </P>
                    <P>The estimates detailed in table 2 are based on the assumption that most covered persons write their contracts in-house. Covered persons are likely to obtain compliant contracts from external contract providers if the benefits of doing so outweigh the costs. External contract providers, such as law firms or contract vendors, would likely be able to reduce duplication of time and effort by reviewing and revising contract terms that are used by many covered persons. If many covered persons rely on external contract providers to bring their contracts into compliance with the proposed rule, the total cost may be significantly lower than the estimate detailed in table 2. The CFPB requests comment on how covered persons may use external contract providers to comply with the proposed rule, as well as any data or analysis that would inform the cost estimates in table 2.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="4" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,r50,r50,r50">
                        <TTITLE>Table 2—Burden and Cost of Reviewing and Revising Contracts</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">Description of task</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Simple
                                <LI>(10 contracts)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Intermediate
                                <LI>(25 contracts)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Complex
                                <LI>(250 contracts)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">1. Read rule, understand requirement, and analyze definitions</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 hours</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 hours</ENT>
                            <ENT>2 hours.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">2. Identify prohibited terms and conditions</ENT>
                            <ENT>15 hours</ENT>
                            <ENT>25 hours</ENT>
                            <ENT>250 hours.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">3. Revise contract to eliminate prohibited terms and conditions</ENT>
                            <ENT>80 hours</ENT>
                            <ENT>200 hours</ENT>
                            <ENT>1,500 hours.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">4. Update contracts usage</ENT>
                            <ENT>40 hours</ENT>
                            <ENT>100 hours</ENT>
                            <ENT>500 hours.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">
                                <E T="03">Total time burden per entity:</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>137 hours</ENT>
                            <ENT>327 hours</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,252 hours.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                <E T="03">Avg. wage rate</E>
                                 
                                <SU>182</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>$72.72</ENT>
                            <ENT>$72.72</ENT>
                            <ENT>$72.72.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                <E T="03">Total cost per entity</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>$10,000</ENT>
                            <ENT>$23,800</ENT>
                            <ENT>$163,800.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                <E T="03">Estimated number of entities</E>
                                 
                                <SU>183</SU>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>391</ENT>
                            <ENT>900</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,408.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                <E T="03">Total estimated time burden:</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>53,567 hours</ENT>
                            <ENT>294,300 hours</ENT>
                            <ENT>5,422,816 hours.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">
                                <E T="03">Total Estimated cost:</E>
                            </ENT>
                            <ENT>$3,895,400</ENT>
                            <ENT>$21,401,500</ENT>
                            <ENT>$394,430,400.</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>
                        Covered persons
                        <FTREF/>
                         may also need to periodically review their contracts for compliance with the proposed rule as applicable State and Federal laws change. The CFPB understands that most firms review their contracts periodically at baseline and expects that the proposed rule would only minimally increase the cost of these periodic reviews above baseline levels. The CFPB requests comment on how the proposed rule would change firms' processes for reviewing and updating their form contracts as well as any data or analysis that would inform estimates of the cost of those changes.
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>182</SU>
                             This is the mean hourly wage for employees in four major occupational groups assessed to be most likely responsible for the compliance process: Management ($59.31/hr); Lawyer ($84.84/hr); Business and Financial Operations ($39.82/hr); and Office and Administrative Support ($20.88/hr). The average hourly wage of $51.21 is multiplied by the private industry benefits factor of 1.42 to get a fully loaded wage rate of $72.72/hr. [CITE BLS 
                            <E T="03">https://www.bls.gov/oes/current/oes231011.htm</E>
                            ].
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>183</SU>
                             The 2017 Economic Census provides firms counts for revenue ranges. Here, firms with $1-25MM in revenue are assumed to be in the “simple” tier, with 10 different contracts on average. Firms with $25-100MM in revenue are assumed to be in the “intermediate” tier, with 25 different contracts on average. Firms with over $100MM in revenue are assumed to be in the “complex” tier, with 250 different contracts on average. The CFPB assumes that Credit Unions, Commercial Banks, Savings Institutions, and Credit Card Issuers are complex. Firms below the SBA threshold for their industry are excluded from these counts.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB has considered the possibility that covered persons may pass through some of the costs related to reviewing and revising contracts to consumers as higher prices. In general, standard microeconomic theory suggests that increases in firms' fixed costs (
                        <E T="03">i.e.</E>
                         costs that do not vary with sales volume) are unlikely to be passed through to consumers. For a given product or service, firms use the same form contract for every customer. Therefore, the costs of reviewing and revising contracts for compliance with the proposed rule are fixed at the product level and are unlikely to be passed through to consumers. The CFPB requests any comments or data that may aid the evaluation of relevant pass-through rates.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Costs of Increased Exposure to Consumer Disputes</HD>
                    <P>
                        Covered persons currently using terms and conditions that would be prohibited under subpart C would likely face increased exposure to consumer disputes. This increased exposure may occur both through increased incidence of consumer disputes and through increased costs of countering disputes that do occur. Covered persons may also take costly actions to reduce their exposure to consumer disputes, but are likely to do so only when those actions reduce the net costs of the proposed rule. The CFPB is unaware of any comprehensive data quantifying the number of disputes that are deterred by the terms and conditions that would be prohibited at baseline or the extent to which the terms and conditions that would be prohibited reduce dispute resolution costs at baseline. Therefore, the CFPB is unable to quantify these costs and instead provides a qualitative discussion. The CFPB seeks any data or analysis that would aid in quantifying these costs. Similarly, covered persons have a wide variety of means with 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3589"/>
                        which to reduce their exposure to consumer disputes and it is therefore difficult to anticipate which actions firms will take in response to increased exposure or the cost of such actions. Therefore, the CFPB provides a qualitative discussion of those costs and seeks comment on the actions covered persons may take to reduce their exposure to consumer disputes as well as the potential costs of such actions.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        At baseline, terms and conditions that would be prohibited under subpart C may also have an effect on consumer behavior, even when such terms are unenforceable.
                        <SU>184</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The proposed rule would ease this effect, which in turn would likely increase the incidence of consumer disputes. Consumer disputes may be formal, where customers exercise the legal rights afforded them under consumer financial laws, or informal, where consumers interact with firms' customer service or exercise their right to free expression by lodging complaints against the firm in public forums. Covered persons would likely incur increased costs related to responding to additional disputes. For example, some covered persons may hire additional customer service representatives to handle increased call volume or pay additional fees to resolve disputes in arbitration or in court. The CFPB does not have sufficient data to estimate the effect of these terms and conditions on consumer disputes at baseline and therefore cannot quantify this cost. The CFPB seeks comment on the extent to which consumer disputes would become more frequent as a result of the proposed rule. The CFPB also requests any data or analysis that would allow it to quantify marginal cost to covered persons of responding to additional consumer disputes.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>184</SU>
                             That is, such terms and conditions may lead consumers to believe that the expected value of pursuing a dispute is negative, and therefore not worth pursuing. In cases where the terms and conditions that would be prohibited are enforceable, this belief may be correct if such a term or condition would reduce the probability that the consumer prevails in the dispute or the compensation the consumer would receive if they prevailed. If the terms or conditions that would be prohibited are not enforceable, they may still chill disputes by deceiving the consumer about their probability of prevailing or their potential compensation.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>To the extent that covered persons use terms and conditions that would be prohibited under subpart C that are enforceable at baseline, the proposed rule may increase the cost of resolving disputes. Waivers of consumer protection law are often intended to reduce consumers' likelihood of prevailing in a formal dispute or to limit the remedies available to consumers who do prevail. By prohibiting these waivers, the proposed rule would increase the likelihood that disputes are resolved in consumers' favor and increase the cost of associated remedies for some disputes. The magnitude of the increases would depend on the specific fact pattern of individual disputes, because not all terms and conditions that would be prohibited would be relevant in all disputes. The CFPB is unaware of any comprehensive data on the number of court and arbitration decisions in which these types of terms and conditions are decisive, or the effect that they have on the final remedy. Further, the CFPB is unaware of any data or analysis sufficient to quantify the effects that terms and conditions that would be prohibited have on settlements of disputes that do not reach a final court or arbitrator decision. Therefore, the CFPB is unable to quantify this effect. The CFPB requests comment on the effects that these terms and conditions have on dispute outcomes. The CFPB seeks any data or analysis that would help quantify these costs.</P>
                    <P>
                        Covered persons currently using terms and conditions that would be prohibited under subpart C may mitigate the costs described above by taking actions to lower their exposure to disputes, for example by allocating more resources to training staff to comply with underlying laws. Standard microeconomic theory suggests that covered persons will take such costly actions only if the benefits they receive outweigh the costs. Therefore, the CFPB expects that covered persons would incur costs related to voluntary changes in their business practices if and only if those changes reduce the net costs of the proposed rule. Due to the wide variety of potential actions covered persons could take to reduce their exposure to consumer disputes and the lack of comprehensive data on the costs and benefits of those potential actions for individual firms, the CFPB is unable to quantify the impact of voluntary changes in business practices on the cost of the proposed rule.
                        <SU>185</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>185</SU>
                             As discussed in 
                            <E T="03">Part C: Benefits to Consumers,</E>
                             these voluntary actions to reduce exposure to consumer disputes may have significant benefits to consumers.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Costs From Reduced Flexibility in Amending Contracts</HD>
                    <P>As discussed in section VI.B. of the preamble, many covered persons use contracts containing clauses that provide covered persons with discretion to change a term of the contract or add terms to the contract without notification or meaningful consent from consumers. The proposed rule requires covered persons to clarify their notification and consent requirements in their contracts. At baseline, unilateral amendments are generally unenforceable in court unless requirements of sufficient notice and opportunity to reject or terminate are satisfied. The proposed rule would not prescribe new requirements for sufficient notice or opportunity to reject an amendment and would therefore not change the enforceability of unilateral amendments relative to baseline. The CFPB assumes that some covered persons implement contract amendments at baseline. However, the CFPB assumes that, at baseline, these contract amendments are not prevalent and are rarely challenged in court. The CFPB expects that this provision of the proposed rule will not require significant changes to current business practices or impose significant costs on covered persons relative to baseline.</P>
                    <P>
                        However, by requiring covered persons to commit to notification and consent requirements and describe those requirements in their contracts, the proposed rule would reduce some covered persons' discretion to unilaterally amend their contracts. This may make it more costly for some firms to amend their contracts. The CFPB is aware that discretion to unilaterally amend contracts may be particularly valuable to firms with specific business models or in certain industries. For example, some credit card issuers reserve the right to change their rewards programs at any time, which can potentially provide a valuable option to the company to devalue rewards in response to changing market conditions.
                        <SU>186</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The option to alter rewards programs might become less valuable to credit card issuers if they were required to notify consumers sufficiently in advance of any change in the redemption value of rewards points. The CFPB is unaware of any data or analysis sufficient to quantify the cost of marginally reducing discretion to amend contracts, such as by requiring additional time for notification. The CFPB requests any data or analysis that would inform estimates of the costs related to this provision for credit card issuers, as well as comments regarding any other industry or business model that would be affected by this provision.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>186</SU>
                             CFPB, Issue Spotlight: Credit Card Rewards at 11 (May 2024).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <PRTPAGE P="3590"/>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Costs From the Prohibition on Contractual Restraints on Free Expression</HD>
                    <P>Section 1027.301(a)(3) of the proposed rule would prohibit covered persons from including in their contracts with consumers for consumer financial products or services any clause that limits or restrains, or purports to limit or restrain, the lawful free expression of the user of a consumer financial product or service. This prohibition would prohibit contractual clauses that limit a consumer's ability to make negative comments about a company or to freely express their political or religious views.</P>
                    <P>
                        At baseline, non-disparagement clauses are generally prohibited in standard-form consumer contracts under the Consumer Review Fairness Act of 2016.
                        <SU>187</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         As noted in section VI.C. of the preamble, some States have also enacted prohibitions against non-disparagement clauses. Although the CFPB is aware of some violations of these prohibitions in the consumer finance market, the CFPB assumes that nearly all covered persons are aware that non-disparagement clauses are prohibited and in compliance with applicable law. Therefore, the CFPB expects that restating the existing prohibition in the proposed rule will not impose any significant costs on covered persons.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>187</SU>
                             15 U.S.C. 45b.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>The proposed rule also prohibits contractual terms that prevent consumers from engaging in political or religious expression or penalize them for doing so. Such terms purport to limit consumers' free expression on issues disfavored by the company's management, and such limitations generally are not within the purview of companies engaged in consumer finance markets. Furthermore, while a company's management might obtain a benefit in the form of advancing their own political or religious views or restraining views contrary to their own in the marketplace of ideas, consumer financial companies obtain no concrete financial benefit from limiting the free expression of consumers. The CFPB is unaware of any comprehensive data on the prevalence of such contractual terms and therefore cannot quantify the costs to covered persons of prohibiting them. The CFPB seeks comments regarding any covered persons or business models that would be impacted by this provision, as well as any data or analysis that would inform estimates of its cost.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Benefits to Covered Persons</HD>
                    <P>Subpart C is likely to benefit some covered persons by reducing uncertainty about the legality of prohibited terms and conditions, as well as unintentional exposure to enforcement action by the CFPB or other State and Federal regulators. Some covered persons currently using terms and conditions that would be prohibited may be doing so unintentionally, for example because they have purchased a contract from a vendor. Because such firms did not choose to include these terms and conditions in their contracts, the legal risks associated with using them may exceed the benefits. The CFPB does not have systematic data on the prevalence of these terms and conditions in contracts used by covered persons, or the extent to which covered persons are unaware of the presence of these terms and conditions in their contracts. Therefore, the CFPB cannot quantify the extent to which clarifying that these terms and conditions constitute unfair and deceptive acts or practices would reduce the costs of future enforcement actions related to use of terms and conditions that would be prohibited. The CFPB requests any additional information that would improve its understanding of this benefit.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB anticipates that this provision of the proposed rule would cause most covered persons currently using the terms and conditions that it would prohibit to remove them from their contracts. This is likely to incentivize these firms to increase their compliance with underlying consumer protection laws. Firms that are complying with the law or following existing guidance by not using prohibited terms and conditions are often at a competitive disadvantage relative to firms that do not comply with the law. To the extent that this provision would induce more firms to comply with applicable consumer protections, firms that were previously compliant will benefit. As noted above, the CFPB does not have systematic data on the use of terms and conditions that would be prohibited, the number of firms currently not complying with consumer protection law, or the harm to compliant firms from their competitors' noncompliance. The CFPB is therefore unable to quantify this potential benefit to covered persons. The CFPB requests comments or data that would improve its understanding of this potential benefit.</P>
                    <P>Clauses that restrict free expression prevent consumers from obtaining information that would be relevant to their adoption or purchasing decisions and make it more difficult for high-quality firms to gain market share. Therefore, the prohibition on clauses restricting free expression would benefit firms that would gain market share if more information about consumers' experiences with their competitors was publicly available. The magnitude of this benefit depends on the prevalence of clauses restricting free speech, the extent to which such clauses limit the information available to other consumers regarding disputes or negative experiences, and the impact that information would have on covered persons' market shares or prices if it were publicly available. The CFPB does not have sufficient data to quantify these factors, and therefore is unable to quantify this potential benefit to covered persons. The CFPB requests comments or data that would improve its understanding of this potential benefit.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">D. Potential Costs and Benefits to Consumers</HD>
                    <P>This section describes the benefits and costs to consumers that the CFPB expects to occur under the proposed rule. Each of the two subparts of the proposed rule is analyzed in detail separately.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Potential Benefits to Consumers of Subpart B</HD>
                    <P>
                        This subpart would re-codify Regulation AA, the FTC's Credit Practices Rule, and the companion credit practices rules of the prudential regulators, which established that these credit practices are prohibited. While these practices are largely considered unlawful pursuant to existing guidance from the CFPB and prudential regulators, it is possible that there are consumer contracts that currently include language covered in this subpart or that certain providers attempt to enforce these practices. The re-codification of the prohibition on these credit practices would incentivize any providers that currently engage in these practices through their use of terms and conditions in their contracts, or attempt to enforce such terms and conditions, to cease. This would benefit consumers by clarifying that these terms and conditions are unenforceable, reducing uncertainty and costs associated with defending themselves from unlawful practices, and reducing firms' incorrect application of these practices against consumers. However, the CFPB does not have systematic data on the prevalence of these practices in consumer contracts or on the frequency with which firms incorrectly attempt to enforce these 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3591"/>
                        practices against consumers. Insofar as the scope of this proposed rule extends the scope of prohibited credit practices to covered persons not previously subject to the other rules, this would benefit consumers by standardizing the credit practices rule across different types of lenders, reducing search costs, and shielding consumers from unfair or deceptive credit practices. However, the CFPB does not have systematic data on the number of covered persons that would be newly subject to the prohibited credit practices rule nor the number of covered persons that use any such credit practices under the baseline. Against the baseline, the CFPB is unable to quantify the benefit of re-codifying these prohibited credit practices. The CFPB requests any comments or data that would help quantify these benefits.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Potential Benefits to Consumers of Subpart C</HD>
                    <P>The proposed rule would prohibit the use of three categories of terms and conditions, collectively referred to as prohibited terms and conditions. Even when they are generally unenforceable under the baseline, as is the case with clauses that purport to waive legal rights of consumers expressly made unwaivable under the law, these terms and conditions may still harm consumers by hampering private action because many consumers are unaware that such terms and conditions are prohibited or void. For example, when a consumer complains about a particular practice or harm, a firm using a prohibited term or condition may incorrectly claim that the consumer agreed to an enforceable limitation of their rights and thus has no rights to seek their desired remedy or a consumer who first consults the contract terms in the event a particular harm arises may reasonably assume that they have no right to seek remedy due to the presence of prohibited terms. In light of what the term or condition states and the likelihood of the firm standing behind it if a consumer complains, a reasonable consumer may believe that they have agreed to a limitation of their rights, and not pursue further action. The removal of prohibited terms would lessen this effect, increasing dispute incidence when consumers experience a particular harm. This is likely to benefit consumers through the associated dispute resolution and remedy of said harm. In addition, as noted above, covered persons have increased incentive to comply with existing consumer protection laws, which would also benefit consumers.</P>
                    <P>
                        While consumers would likely benefit from covered persons' increased compliance with consumer protection laws, fully quantifying this benefit requires data on the incidence of violations of consumer protection laws, including violations that are difficult to quantify, such as limitations on types of contacts and calls under the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA) and the Telephone Consumer Protection Act (TCPA) or a creditor taking more time to assure the accuracy of the information furnished to a consumer reporting agency or investigating disputes of this information. Moreover, these benefits would be related to the aforementioned costs of additional investment in compliance taken by covered persons in response to this rulemaking. The CFPB requests any comments or data that would help quantify the incidence of these violations, the monetary benefit of foregone violations, and increased investment in compliance by covered persons. Similarly, the increased incidence of disputes is likely to benefit consumers through remedies to these disputes; however, the CFPB lacks any systematic data that would allow a full quantification of this effect, especially considering that such a quantification requires measurement of the chilling effect on consumer behavior and that a significant share of these disputes would likely be resolved through internal consumer relations.
                        <SU>188</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         The CFPB requests any comments or data that would help quantify the increased incidence of disputes that would arise due to the rule, the means by which they are resolved, and any monetary benefits associated with resolution.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>188</SU>
                             See Tess Wilkinson-Ryan, 
                            <E T="03">The Perverse Consequences of Disclosing Standard Terms,</E>
                             103 Cornell L. Rev. 117-175 (2017). The article provides some evidence of this effect. In an experimental setting, consumers who read about harsh company policies were more likely to believe they were legally enforceable if these policies appeared in the company's terms and conditions, rather than in some more informal setting. Notably, test subjects were asked to read about a particular policy presented as either a part of a contract or as a more informal policy and asked to assess its enforceability.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>
                        The magnitude of these benefits depends on the share of consumer contracts that currently contain prohibited terms.
                        <SU>189</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Although the CFPB has documented examples of the use of these terms and conditions, the CFPB is unaware of any systematic data that would enable it to estimate the prevalence of (1) terms and conditions that waive legal rights provided by Federal or State laws, (2) clauses that allow for unilateral amendment of terms and conditions, or (3) terms and conditions that restrain a consumer's free expression. Therefore, the CFPB cannot quantify the benefit to consumers of prohibiting firms' use of these terms and conditions from their contracts. The CFPB requests any additional information that would improve its understanding of this benefit. Against that baseline, which the CFPB lacks data to quantify, the CFPB believes that the rulemaking will result in a significant reduction in the incidence of these terms and conditions relative to baseline, and thus, benefit consumers through the channels described above.
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>189</SU>
                             Specifically, the presence of prohibited terms as well as particular incidence of waivers of law, provisions that allow for unilateral changes to terms, and constraints on consumers' free expression.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD3">Potential Costs to Consumers</HD>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB expects that costs to consumers would be small under the proposed rule. As discussed in part A of this section, 
                        <E T="03">Overview of Economic Effects,</E>
                         consumers may experience pass-through costs from covered persons if covered persons' marginal costs increase. As stated in that section, the CFPB requests any comments or data that would aid the evaluation of relevant pass-through rates.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        In addition, as discussed in part F of this section, 
                        <E T="03">Impact on Access to Consumer Financial Products and Services,</E>
                         at least some covered persons might determine that particular features of their products make the covered persons more susceptible to consumer disputes or litigation and decide to remove those features from their products. A covered person might make this decision even if such a feature is beneficial to consumers, though the fact that these terms would be deemed more susceptible to dispute or litigation may suggest otherwise. In this case, consumers would incur a cost due to the loss of this feature. The CFPB is not aware of any data showing this theoretical phenomenon to be prevalent among covered persons. The CFPB requests comment on the extent of this phenomenon in the context of the proposed rule, and it specifically requests data and suggestions about how to quantify both the prevalence of this phenomenon and the magnitude of consumer harm if the phenomenon exists.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Finally, under the proposed rule, it is possible that some firms would increase the frequency with which they ask consumers for affirmative consent to changes in contract terms. If so, the time and effort it would take consumers to review these changes would be an additional cost to consumers relative to the baseline. The proposed rule would forbid covered persons from including in any contract with a consumer any 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3592"/>
                        clause that would reserve to the covered person the right to unilaterally amend material terms of the contract. Therefore, under the proposed rule, covered persons that wish to amend their contracts would have to comply with the appropriate State or Federal law process for amending material terms. The proposed rule would not prescribe the manner in which assent to changes in contract terms must be attained. Nevertheless, State law or common law may require firms to attain affirmative consent from consumer, as, for example, via written or electronic signature. If so, it is plausible that the proposed rule would result in an additional burden for consumers who would need to review, and consent to, proposed changes to their contracts. The CFPB seeks data or analysis to quantify this potential cost to consumers.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">E. Impact on Depository Institutions With No More Than $10 Billion in Assets</HD>
                    <P>Subpart B of the proposed rule would codify a prohibition on credit practices that are generally understood to be prohibited, pursuant to settled industry expectations and guidance from the CFPB and prudential regulators. The CFPB believes that by reducing confusion or uncertainty about what is prohibited, the proposed rule may reduce unnecessary costs for these depository institutions. The CFPB seeks comment or data to quantify the impact this may have on depository institutions with assets below $10 billion.</P>
                    <P>
                        There will be no direct impact of subpart C on small depository institutions (no more than $850 million in assets) as the rulemaking provides an exemption for small entities. Subpart C of the proposed rule would prohibit depository institutions with assets between $850 million and $10 billion from including in their contracts with consumers for consumer financial products or services (1) clauses that require consumers to waive legal rights designed to protect consumers, other than rights explicitly made waivable by relevant consumer laws; (2) clauses that allow the covered person to unilaterally amend the contract; and (3) clauses that restrict consumers' free expression. Depository institutions with assets between $850 million and $10 billion would incur one-time administrative costs involved in bringing contracts into compliance with this part of the proposed rule. The CFPB believes that all depository institutions subject to the proposed rule would need to review every contract they use and revise to bring into compliance. Furthermore, the costs associated with implementation of subpart C have been outlined earlier in table 2 in the 
                        <E T="03">Potential Costs and Benefits to Covered Persons of Subpart C</E>
                         section. The CFPB asks for any comment or data on the impact of the proposed rule on depository institutions with assets between $850 million and $10 billion.
                    </P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">F. Impact on Rural Areas</HD>
                    <P>Rural areas might be differently impacted to the extent that rural areas tend to be served by small entities. The proposed rule would not apply to any person that is a `small entity' as that term is defined in 5 U.S.C. 601, including any firm that is at or below the SBA standard for its primary industry. Therefore, the impact of the rulemaking would likely be lower in rural areas compared to non-rural areas. The CFPB requests any comment or data about the impact of the proposed rule on rural areas.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD2">G. Impact on Access to Consumer Financial Products and Services</HD>
                    <P>
                        Subpart B of the proposed rule is unlikely to have any impact on consumers' access to financial products and services. As discussed earlier in the 
                        <E T="03">Statement of Need</E>
                         section, the CFPB believes that these credit practices are generally understood to be prohibited at baseline and, by reducing confusion or uncertainty about what is prohibited, the proposal would reduce costs for covered persons.
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Subpart C of the proposed rule would prohibit covered persons from including in their contracts with consumers for consumer financial products or services (1) clauses that require consumers to waive legal rights designed to protect consumers, other than rights explicitly made waivable by relevant consumer laws; (2) clauses that allow the covered person to unilaterally amend the contract; and (3) clauses that restrict consumers' free expression. Collectively, these are referred to as prohibited terms and conditions. As discussed in part A of this section, 
                        <E T="03">Overview of Economic Effects,</E>
                         the adoption of the rule could increase the marginal costs incurred by covered persons because of increased costs of compliance with consumer finance laws or increased costs associated with dispute resolution. The CFPB believes that most providers would pass through some portion of these marginal cost increases to consumers.
                        <SU>190</SU>
                         As a result, it is possible that some consumers might experience price increases for some financial products and services. This may induce them to seek other financial products or services from a different provider, or to forgo using a particular financial product or service. However, the CFPB believes that the marginal cost increases discussed in the foregoing sections would be small, and as a result, under the proposed rule, the likelihood of price increases for certain financial products or services that would render them unaffordable would be very limited. 
                    </P>
                    <P>
                        Providers might determine that offering some features of certain financial products or services may be too costly and, as a result, decide to remove these features from their product offering. For example, a provider might conclude that a particular product feature might increase the incidence of consumer disputes even accounting for increased compliance under financial laws, and therefore decide to remove that feature entirely from the product or restructure the feature by reducing its availability. Similarly, a provider might update its product features based on external information, such as actions against the provider's competitors by either regulators or private actors. The ongoing component could also include changes to the general product design process. Product design could consume more time and expense due to additional rounds of legal and compliance review. The additional exposure to consumer disputes, including litigation, could also result in some products not being developed and marketed primarily due to the risk associated with consumer disputes. The CFPB requests any comments or data on the impact of the proposed rule on access to consumer financial products and services.
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>190</SU>
                             Some of these increased costs—
                            <E T="03">e.g.,</E>
                             the cost of changing contract language to remove prohibited terms—can be considered fixed costs of business. Economic theory suggests that the profit-maximizing response of an increase in fixed costs is not to pass that increase through to consumers.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">X. Regulatory Flexibility Act Analysis</HD>
                    <P>
                        The Regulatory Flexibility Act (RFA) generally requires an agency to conduct an initial regulatory flexibility analysis (IRFA) and a final regulatory flexibility analysis of any rule subject to notice-and-comment rulemaking requirements, unless the agency certifies that the rulemaking will not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities (SISNOSE). The CFPB is also subject to specific additional procedures under the RFA involving convening a panel to consult with small business representatives before proposing a rule for which an IRFA is required. An IRFA is not required for this proposal because the proposal, if adopted, would not have a SISNOSE.
                        <PRTPAGE P="3593"/>
                    </P>
                    <P>Small institutions, for the purposes of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA) of 1996, are defined by the Small Business Administration. Effective March 17, 2023, depository institutions with less than $850 million in total assets are determined to be small. For non-depository entities covered by the proposed rule, the standard is $47 million in receipts. According to the Q4 2023 Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council Call Report, there are 3,422 banks with $850 million or less in assets. According to the Q4 2023 National Credit Union Administration Call Report, there are 4,201 credit unions with $850 million or less in assets. Nonbank institutions covered under the proposed rule are subject to different size standards defined with respect to their average annual receipts. Table 3 below presents estimated small entity counts for the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) codes that generally align with consumer financial products or services and the corresponding size standards. Note that the NAICS codes listed below all incorporate covered persons, but several also are likely to include many non-covered persons, and so these estimates are likely higher than the real number of small covered persons.</P>
                    <GPOTABLE COLS="5" OPTS="L2,i1" CDEF="s100,r50,12,12,12">
                        <TTITLE>Table 3—Entity Counts for NAICS Codes and Corresponding Size Standards</TTITLE>
                        <BOXHD>
                            <CHED H="1">NAICS name(s)</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">NAICS code(s)</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">Estimated number of small entities</CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Revenue size standard
                                <LI>(million/year)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                            <CHED H="1">
                                Assets size standard
                                <LI>(million)</LI>
                            </CHED>
                        </BOXHD>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Credit Unions</ENT>
                            <ENT>522110, 522120, 522210</ENT>
                            <ENT>4,202</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>$850</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Commercial Banking, Savings Institutions, and Credit Card Issuing</ENT>
                            <ENT>522130</ENT>
                            <ENT>3,422</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>850</ENT>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Nondepository Credit Intermediation</ENT>
                            <ENT>522220, 522291, 522292, 522299</ENT>
                            <ENT>6,965</ENT>
                            <ENT>$47</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Activities Related to Credit Intermediation</ENT>
                            <ENT>522310, 522320, 522390</ENT>
                            <ENT>11,040</ENT>
                            <ENT>28.5</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Activities Related to Real Estate</ENT>
                            <ENT>531311, 531312, 531320, 531390</ENT>
                            <ENT>62,855</ENT>
                            <ENT>19.5</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Portfolio Management &amp; Investment Advice</ENT>
                            <ENT>523920, 523930</ENT>
                            <ENT>34,153</ENT>
                            <ENT>47</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Passenger Car Leasing</ENT>
                            <ENT>532112</ENT>
                            <ENT>199</ENT>
                            <ENT>47</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Truck, Utility Trailer, and Recreational Vehicle Rental and Leasing</ENT>
                            <ENT>532120</ENT>
                            <ENT>920</ENT>
                            <ENT>47</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="01">Consumer Reporting</ENT>
                            <ENT>561450</ENT>
                            <ENT>267</ENT>
                            <ENT>41</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW RUL="n,s">
                            <ENT I="01">Debt Collection</ENT>
                            <ENT>561440</ENT>
                            <ENT>2,634</ENT>
                            <ENT>19.5</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                        </ROW>
                        <ROW>
                            <ENT I="03">Total</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT>126,657</ENT>
                            <ENT/>
                            <ENT/>
                        </ROW>
                    </GPOTABLE>
                    <P>The CFPB is proposing an exemption for small entities from the provisions of subpart C, but does not propose to exempt small entities from the provisions of subpart B.</P>
                    <P>In the practice of the CFPB, evaluating whether a proposed rule has a SISNOSE proceeds in several steps. First, the CFPB estimates the total number of small entities directly affected, and then it estimates the number of small entities significantly affected by the rulemaking. If the latter is substantial relative to the former, a SISNOSE exists. However, since the proposed rule contains an exemption for small entities for the provision of subpart C, no small entities would be directly and significantly affected by its provisions. The remaining question is whether a SISNOSE would result from the provisions of subpart B. The CFPB outlines below the reasoning for establishing that the proposed rule would not have a SISNOSE.</P>
                    <P>Subpart B of the proposed rule would codify the already existing FTC Credit Practices Rule to apply it to covered persons under the CFPB's jurisdiction. Consistent with the FTC's Credit Practices Rule, subpart B would prohibit covered persons from entering into or enforcing an agreement that contains any of the following provisions: a confession of judgment, a waiver of exemption, an assignment of wages, or a security interest in household goods. The rulemaking would also prohibit covered persons from misrepresenting the nature or extent of cosigner liability to any person or obligating a cosigner unless the cosigner is informed prior to becoming obligated of the nature of the cosigner's liability. The rulemaking would also prohibit covered persons from levying or collecting any delinquency charge on a payment, when the only delinquency is attributable to late fees or delinquency charges assessed on earlier installments, and the payment is otherwise a full payment for the applicable period and is paid on its due date or within an applicable grace period.</P>
                    <P>The FTC first issued the Credit Practices Rule in 1984. Although that rule generally applied only to nonbank creditors, prudential regulators subsequently issued their own credit practices rules applicable to banks, Federal credit unions, and saving associations. The rules issued by the prudential regulators were repealed upon enactment of the CFPA, which transferred those agencies' consumer financial protection authorities to the CFPB. However, in 2014 the Federal financial regulators—including the CFPB—issued a joint interagency guidance clarifying that financial institutions could violate the law by including in consumer credit contracts any provisions prohibited by the Credit Practices Rule.</P>
                    <P>
                        When the FTC originally enacted the Credit Practices Rule, it highlighted that the rule's prohibitions, which are mirrored by the prohibitions in subpart B, would have minimal effects on costs and availability of credit.
                        <SU>191</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         In 1995, the Federal Trade Commission undertook a periodic review of the Credit Practices Rule and solicited data and comments on whether the rule has had a SISNOSE.
                        <SU>192</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                         Based on the comments received, the FTC did not find a sufficient basis to conclude that the Rule has had a SISNOSE. It is noteworthy that the FTC's notice attracted limited public interest and the comments received involved minimal discussion of issues relating to small entities. Further, in the only comment from a creditor that discussed the impact on small entities, the Credit Union National Association indicated that “[g]enerally, credit unions have not reported any significant economic or 
                        <PRTPAGE P="3594"/>
                        regulatory impact on their operations due to this rule.” 
                        <SU>193</SU>
                        <FTREF/>
                    </P>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>191</SU>
                             49 FR 7779.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>192</SU>
                             60 FR 24805 (May 10, 1995).
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <FTNT>
                        <P>
                            <SU>193</SU>
                             Id. at 24808.
                        </P>
                    </FTNT>
                    <P>Nonbanks are already subject to the FTC Credit Practices Rule, and the prohibitions in subpart B would not result in any change, and thus would not cause any new costs, for nonbank small entities. As the background section above discusses, the practices in subpart B were prohibited for depository institutions prior to the enactment of the CFPA, and these institutions received interagency guidance that indicated that the practices in subpart B are likely illegal and involve substantial risks. In addition, the CFPB is unaware of small depository institutions that started using contractual terms prohibited in subpart B after the enactment of the CFPA.</P>
                    <P>In sum, the CFPB concludes there would not be a SISNOSE because subpart C does not apply to small entities, subpart B merely duplicates an existing FTC regulation for small nonbanks, and subpart B is unlikely to have a significant economic impact on entities not covered by the FTC's existing regulation. No small entities would be directly affected by provisions in subpart C of the proposed rule because the proposed rule contains a small entity exemption for these provisions. As noted above, the FTC's original issuance of the Credit Practices Rule concluded there would be minimal effects on costs and availability of credit, and a 1995 periodic review of the Credit Practices Rule indicated that there had been no SISNOSE since the rule's publication in 1984. Until the enactment of the CFPA, the prohibitions in subpart B were expressly prohibited by rule for both banks and nonbanks. The proposal would not cause nonbanks in general, and small nonbanks in particular, to incur any additional costs, since the provisions of the Credit Practices Rule, which would be codified by subpart B, have continued to apply to them. For depository institutions, the prohibitions in subpart B would have a minimal effect on small entities since they had been illegal and remain discouraged as explained in interagency guidance. Even in an unlikely scenario involving limited use of subpart B's prohibited practices by small entities, consistent with earlier FTC analyses discussed above, the CFPB finds it very unlikely that the proposed rule would have more than a negligible impact on small entities. Further, in the CFPB's experience, use of these practices appears rare.</P>
                    <P>Accordingly, the Director of the CFPB certifies that the proposed rule, if adopted, would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities and that an IRFA therefore is not required. The CFPB seeks comment about this determination.</P>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">XI. Paperwork Reduction Act</HD>
                    <P>Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (PRA), Federal agencies are generally required to seek the Office of Management and Budget's (OMB's) approval for information collection requirements prior to implementation.</P>
                    <P>Under the PRA, the CFPB may not conduct or sponsor and, notwithstanding any other provision of law, a person is not required to respond to an information collection unless the information collection displays a valid control number assigned by OMB.</P>
                    <P>The CFPB has determined that the proposed rule would not impose any new information collections or revise any existing recordkeeping, reporting, or disclosure requirements on covered entities or members of the public that would be collections of information requiring approval by the Office of Management and Budget under the Paperwork Reduction Act.</P>
                    <P>
                        The CFPB has a continuing interest in the public's opinions regarding this determination. At any time, comments regarding this determination may be sent to: The Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (Attention: PRA Office), 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552, or by email to 
                        <E T="03">CFPB_Public_PRA@cfpb.gov.</E>
                    </P>
                    <LSTSUB>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">List of Subjects in 12 CFR Part 1027</HD>
                        <P>Banks, banking, Consumer protection, Contracts, Credit unions, Finance, National banks, Savings associations.</P>
                    </LSTSUB>
                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Authority and Issuance</HD>
                    <AMDPAR>For the reasons set forth in the preamble, the CFPB proposes to add part 1027 to chapter X in title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations, to read as follows:</AMDPAR>
                    <PART>
                        <HD SOURCE="HED">PART 1027—AGREEMENTS FOR CONSUMER FINANCIAL PRODUCTS OR SERVICES</HD>
                        <CONTENTS>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
                                <SECHD>Sec.</SECHD>
                                <SECTNO>1027.100 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Authority and purpose.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1027.101 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>General definitions.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1027.102 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Exclusions from coverage.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1027.103 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Severability.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1027.104 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Compliance date.</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Credit practices</HD>
                                <SECTNO>1027.201 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1027.202 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Unfair credit contract provisions.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1027.203 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Unfair or deceptive practices involving cosigners.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1027.204 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Unfair late charges.</SUBJECT>
                                <SECTNO>1027.205 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>State exemption.</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                            <SUBPART>
                                <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Prohibited terms and conditions</HD>
                                <SECTNO>1027.301 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Prohibition.</SUBJECT>
                            </SUBPART>
                        </CONTENTS>
                        <AUTH>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Authority: </HD>
                            <P>12 U.S.C. 5512, 12 U.S.C. 5531.</P>
                        </AUTH>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart A—General</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1027.100 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Authority and purpose.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Authority.</E>
                                     This part is issued by the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB) pursuant to section 1022(b)(1) and (c) and section 1031(b) of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, codified at 12 U.S.C. 5512(b)(1) and (c) and 12 U.S.C. 5531(b).
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Purpose.</E>
                                     The purpose of this part is to prescribe rules governing agreements for consumer financial products or services.
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Subpart A contains general provisions and definitions used in this part.</P>
                                <P>(3) Subpart B prohibits certain credit practices.</P>
                                <P>(4) Subpart C prohibits certain other terms and conditions.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1027.101 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>General definitions.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>For the purposes of this part the following definitions apply:</P>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Consumer, consumer financial product or service, covered person, credit, person,</E>
                                     and 
                                    <E T="03">State</E>
                                     have the same meanings as in 12 U.S.C. 5481.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Include, includes,</E>
                                     and 
                                    <E T="03">including</E>
                                     mean that the items named may not encompass all possible items that are covered, whether like or unlike the items named.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1027.102 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Exclusions from coverage.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) This part shall not apply to any person to the extent that it is providing a product or service in circumstances excluded from the CFPB's rulemaking authority pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5517 or 5519.</P>
                                <P>(b) Subpart C shall not apply to any “small business,” “small organization,” or “small governmental jurisdiction” as those terms are defined in 5 U.S.C. 601.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1027.103 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Severability.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>The provisions of this part are separate and severable from one another. If any provision or any application of a provision is stayed or determined to be invalid, the remaining provisions or applications shall continue in effect.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1027.104 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Compliance date.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    The compliance date for subparts B and C is [30 days after publication of the final rule in the 
                                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                                    ], except that if an agreement for a consumer financial product or service 
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3595"/>
                                    between a covered person and a consumer was executed before [30 days after publication of the final rule in the 
                                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                                    ], compliance with subparts B and C of this part for such an agreement is required by [180 days after publication of the final rule in the 
                                    <E T="04">Federal Register</E>
                                    ].
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart B—Credit practices</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1027.201 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Definitions.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>For the purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:</P>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Cosigner</E>
                                     means a natural person who renders themself liable for the obligation of another person without compensation. The term shall include any person whose signature is requested as a condition to granting credit to another person, or as a condition for forbearance on collection of another person's obligation that is in default. The term shall not include a spouse whose signature is required on a credit obligation to perfect a security interest pursuant to State law. A person who does not receive goods, services, or money in return for a credit obligation does not receive compensation within the meaning of this definition. A person is a cosigner within the meaning of this definition whether or not they are designated as such on a credit obligation.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Earnings</E>
                                     means compensation paid or payable to an individual or for the individual's account for personal services rendered or to be rendered by the individual, whether denominated as wages, salary, commission, bonus, or otherwise, including periodic payments pursuant to a pension, retirement, or disability program.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Household goods</E>
                                     means clothing, furniture, appliances, one television and one radio, linens, china, crockery, kitchenware, and personal effects (including wedding rings) of a consumer and a consumer's dependents. The term household goods does not include:
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) Works of art;</P>
                                <P>(2) Electronic entertainment equipment (except one television and one radio);</P>
                                <P>(3) Items acquired as antiques; that is, items over one hundred years of age, including such items that have been repaired or renovated without changing their original form or character; and</P>
                                <P>(4) Jewelry (other than wedding rings).</P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Obligation</E>
                                     means an agreement between a consumer and a creditor.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1027.202 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Unfair credit contract provisions.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>In connection with the extension of credit to consumers, it is an unfair act or practice for a covered person to enter into or enforce an agreement that contains any of the following provisions:</P>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Confession of judgment.</E>
                                     A cognovit or confession of judgment (for purposes other than executory process in the State of Louisiana), warrant of attorney, or other waiver of the right of notice and the opportunity to be heard in the event of suit or process thereon.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Waiver of exemption.</E>
                                     An executory waiver or a limitation of exemption from attachment, execution, or other process on real or personal property held, owned by, or due to the consumer, unless the waiver applies solely to property subject to a security interest executed in connection with the obligation.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Assignment of wages.</E>
                                     An assignment of wages or other earnings unless:
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) The assignment by its terms is revocable at the will of the debtor;</P>
                                <P>(2) The assignment is a payroll deduction plan or preauthorized payment plan, commencing at the time of the transaction, in which the consumer authorizes a series of wage deductions as a method of making each payment; or</P>
                                <P>(3) The assignment applies only to wages or other earnings already earned at the time of the assignment.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (d) 
                                    <E T="03">Security interest in household goods.</E>
                                     A nonpossessory security interest in household goods other than a purchase money security interest.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1027.203 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Unfair or deceptive practices involving cosigners.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">Prohibited practices.</E>
                                     In connection with the extension of credit to consumers, it is:
                                </P>
                                <P>(1) A deceptive act or practice for a covered person, directly or indirectly, to misrepresent the nature or extent of cosigner liability to any person; and</P>
                                <P>(2) An unfair act or practice for a covered person, directly or indirectly, to obligate a cosigner unless the cosigner is informed prior to becoming obligated, which in the case of open-end credit shall mean prior to the time that the agreement creating the cosigner's liability for future charges is executed, of the nature of his or her liability as cosigner.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Disclosure requirement.</E>
                                     To prevent these unfair or deceptive acts or practices, a disclosure, consisting of a separate document that shall contain the following statement and no other, shall be given to the cosigner prior to becoming obligated, which in the case of open-end credit shall mean prior to the time that the agreement creating the cosigner's liability for future charges is executed:
                                </P>
                                <EXTRACT>
                                    <HD SOURCE="HD1">Notice to Cosigner</HD>
                                    <P>You are being asked to guarantee this debt. Think carefully before you do. If the borrower doesn't pay the debt, you will have to. Be sure you can afford to pay if you have to, and that you want to accept this responsibility.</P>
                                    <P>You may have to pay up to the full amount of the debt if the borrower does not pay. You may also have to pay late fees or collection costs, which increase this amount.</P>
                                    <P>
                                        The creditor can collect this debt from you without first trying to collect from the borrower. The creditor can use the same collection methods against you that can be used against the borrower, such as suing you, garnishing your wages, etc. If this debt is ever in default, that fact may become a part of 
                                        <E T="03">your</E>
                                         credit record. This notice is not the contract that makes you liable for the debt.
                                    </P>
                                </EXTRACT>
                                <P>
                                    (c) 
                                    <E T="03">Effect of compliance.</E>
                                     A covered person that is in compliance with paragraph (b) of this section may not be held in violation of paragraph (a) of this section.
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1027.204 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Unfair late charges.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) In connection with collecting a debt arising out of an extension of credit to a consumer, it is an unfair act or practice for a covered person directly or indirectly to levy or collect any delinquency charge on a payment, which payment is otherwise a full payment for the applicable period and is paid on its due date or within an applicable grace period, when the only delinquency is attributable to late fees or delinquency charges assessed on earlier installments.</P>
                                <P>(b) For the purposes of this section, collecting a debt means any activity, other than the use of judicial process, that is intended to bring about or does bring about repayment of all or part of money due (or alleged to be due) from a consumer.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1027.205 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>State exemption.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>
                                    (a) 
                                    <E T="03">General rule.</E>
                                     (1) An appropriate State agency may apply to the CFPB for a determination that:
                                </P>
                                <P>(i) There is a State requirement or prohibition in effect that applies to any transaction to which a provision of this subpart applies; and</P>
                                <P>(ii) The State requirement or prohibition affords a level of protection to consumers that is substantially equivalent to, or greater than, the protection afforded by this subpart.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) If the CFPB makes such a determination, the provision of this subpart will not be in effect in that State to the extent specified by the CFPB in its determination, for as long as the State administers and enforces the State requirement or prohibition effectively.
                                    <PRTPAGE P="3596"/>
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (b) 
                                    <E T="03">Applications.</E>
                                     The procedures under which a State agency may apply for an exemption under this section are the same as those set forth in appendix B to Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026).
                                </P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <SUBPART>
                            <HD SOURCE="HED">Subpart C—Prohibited terms and conditions</HD>
                            <SECTION>
                                <SECTNO>§ 1027.301 </SECTNO>
                                <SUBJECT>Prohibition.</SUBJECT>
                                <P>(a) It shall be unlawful for a covered person to include in an agreement with a consumer for a consumer financial product or service any of the following terms or conditions:</P>
                                <P>
                                    (1) 
                                    <E T="03">Waivers of law.</E>
                                     Any term or condition that disclaims or waives, or purports to disclaim or waive, any substantive State or Federal law designed to protect or benefit consumers, or their remedies, unless an applicable statute explicitly deems it waivable. Waivers of law include, but are not limited to:
                                </P>
                                <P>(i) Waivers of remedies to consumers for violations of State or Federal laws; and</P>
                                <P>(ii) Waivers of a cause of action to enforce State or Federal laws.</P>
                                <P>
                                    (2) 
                                    <E T="03">Unilateral amendments.</E>
                                     Any term or condition that expressly reserves the covered person's right to unilaterally change, modify, revise, or add a material term of a contract for a consumer financial product or service.
                                </P>
                                <P>
                                    (3) 
                                    <E T="03">Restraints on expression.</E>
                                     Any term or condition that limits or restrains, or purports to limit or restrain, the free and lawful expression of a consumer. Nothing in this subpart affects a covered person's ability to close an account that is being used to commit fraud or other illegal activity.
                                </P>
                                <P>(b) It shall be unlawful for a covered person to use, enforce, or otherwise rely on any term or condition in paragraph (a) of this section in an agreement between a consumer and any person for a consumer financial product or service.</P>
                            </SECTION>
                        </SUBPART>
                        <SIG>
                            <NAME>Rohit Chopra,</NAME>
                            <TITLE>Director, Consumer Financial Protection Bureau.</TITLE>
                        </SIG>
                    </PART>
                </SUPLINF>
                <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00633 Filed 1-13-25; 8:45 am]</FRDOC>
                <BILCOD>BILLING CODE 4810-AM-P</BILCOD>
            </PRORULE>
        </PRORULES>
    </NEWPART>
    <VOL>90</VOL>
    <NO>8</NO>
    <DATE>Tuesday, January 14, 2025</DATE>
    <UNITNAME>Presidential Documents</UNITNAME>
    <NEWPART>
        <PTITLE>
            <PRTPAGE P="3597"/>
            <PARTNO>Part IX</PARTNO>
            <PRES>The President</PRES>
            <MEMO>Memorandum of January 8, 2025—Delegation of Certain Authorities Under Section 7271 of Title 10, United States Code</MEMO>
        </PTITLE>
        <PRESDOCS>
            <PRESDOCU>
                <PRMEMO>
                    <TITLE3>Title 3—</TITLE3>
                    <PRES>
                        The President
                        <PRTPAGE P="3599"/>
                    </PRES>
                    <MEMO>Memorandum of January 8, 2025</MEMO>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Delegation of Certain Authorities Under Section 7271 of Title 10, United States Code</HD>
                    <HD SOURCE="HED">Memorandum for the Secretary of Defense [and] the Secretary of the Army</HD>
                    <FP>By the authority vested in me as President by the Constitution and the laws of the United States of America, including section 301 of title 3, United States Code, I hereby delegate to the Secretary of the Army the authority vested in the President by section 7271 of title 10, United States Code, to present certain previously awarded Medals of Honor. This delegated authority is limited to the Medals of Honor approved in 1906 for Private William Simon Harris, United States Army, and Private James W. McIntyre, United States Army, which shall be presented, as an administrative corrective action, to the eldest surviving grandchild of each awardee.</FP>
                    <FP>For each such case, the Secretary of the Army shall notify the President through the Secretary of Defense prior to making the presentation.</FP>
                    <FP>
                        The Secretary of the Army is authorized and directed to publish this memorandum in the 
                        <E T="03">Federal Register</E>
                        .
                    </FP>
                    <GPH SPAN="1" DEEP="80" HTYPE="RIGHT">
                        <GID>BIDEN.EPS</GID>
                    </GPH>
                    <PSIG> </PSIG>
                    <PLACE>THE WHITE HOUSE,</PLACE>
                    <DATE>Washington, January 8, 2025</DATE>
                    <FRDOC>[FR Doc. 2025-00953 </FRDOC>
                    <FILED>Filed 1-13-25; 11:15 am]</FILED>
                    <BILCOD>Billing code 3710-08-P</BILCOD>
                </PRMEMO>
            </PRESDOCU>
        </PRESDOCS>
    </NEWPART>
</FEDREG>
